CompTIA SK0-003

SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

Practice Test
Version 3.2

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 1 Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. FTP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server's manufacture website Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms? A. Excessive cooling B. Dust buildup C. Poor ground wires

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The memory is not installed in the correct slot. The memory is not the correct CAS latency.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. SATA hard drive C. Perform a full backup Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity? A. B. Wet floors Answer: B QUESTION NO: 12 Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process? A. SDLT Tape drive Answer: B QUESTION NO: 14 An administrator is adding memory to a server. Blu-Ray drive D. Compact flash drive B. the same amount of memory appears as before the upgrade.www. Verify backup C. Load differential tape B.certkiller. D.com rtK ille r. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A.c om 5 . The memory is not the correct speed. The memory does not have the correct timing. C. Load new tapes D. Once the system boots up.

432GB D. Higher simultaneous thread processing D. Doubles memory requirements C. B.certkiller. D. The system board website says the board should accept the new amount of memory. 288GB B.c om .com 6 Ce A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is an advantage of SMP? A. How much usable disk space will this array have? rtK ille Answer: B r.www. Reset the memory chips. Update the BIOS. 360GB C. Decreases overhead Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16 An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5 array. Once the server in turned back on. Replace memory chips with known good memory chips. Smaller initial investment B. C. 728GB Answer: C QUESTION NO: 18 A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer. the administrator notices that the memory has not changed. The error states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error? "Slay Your Exams" . All drives are attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? A. Upgrade the server OS QUESTION NO: 17 A.

Group policy "Slay Your Exams" . B. Ask the user to reboot their PC. D. B. which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft environment? (Select TWO) A. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory. The computer was disjoined from the domain. To troubleshoot this problem. WSUS B. Remote management cards D. D. C. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80.www. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem. C. The user's account was removed from Active Directory.c om . Implement an access control list (ACL). Implement an application exception.com 7 Ce rtK ille r. Implement port blocking on port 80. The user typed in the wrong password Answer: C QUESTION NO: 19 A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they had been working on all morning. which step should the administrator take FIRST? A. Reboot the file server. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 21 After a virus outbreak. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall? A. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Terminal services C. Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the administrator. B. C.certkiller.

Many of the servers have been infected with viruses in the past. Implement a dual-factor authentication method. SNMP Answer: A. Lower cost E. Answer: A Answer: B QUESTION NO: 24 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO) A. Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid OS exploits? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam E. Higher number of available component choices D. Which of the following RAID levels would provide the FASTEST performance? r. C.c QUESTION NO: 23 om 8 . RAID 1+0 C.certkiller.com rtK A. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS). Vendor supported C. RAID 5 B. RAID 0 D. Implement a patch management process.D QUESTION NO: 22 An administrator has been having problems with server security. D.www. Implement stronger user passwords. RAID 1 ille A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Enhanced security Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Enhanced stability B. B.

Server build checklist B. No configuration Answer: C Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. High fault tolerance B. Server baselining tools C. SMTP gateway F.c om QUESTION NO: 26 . Hardware compatibility list Answer: D QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can be used? "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 25 A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be retained for no longer than three years. High performance D.certkiller. Ease of failure recovery C. Backup tapes C. Architecture diagrams D. A.www.com 9 Ce QUESTION NO: 27 rtK ille r. Which of the following locations should an administrator configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE). Proxy server Answer: D Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0? A. Email server E. Local workstations B. Domain controllers D.

Battery needs to be replaced B. Cold site C. C. Warm site D. each device. Hot site B. Height of the card C. E. the server's parallel port.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Shared bus topology D. Smart cable is disconnected D. the first device. Sensitivity to background noise B. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. D. Light switch is turned off C. B. the SCSI adapter. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 10 . UPS needs a firmware update Answer: A QUESTION NO: 30 Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X? A. Failover site Answer: B QUESTION NO: 29 An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS). the last device. Point-to-point bus topology Answer: D QUESTION NO: 31 When installing external SCSI devices.certkiller. terminators are required on: (Select TWO) A.www.com rtK ille r.

SATA om Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem? 11 .com rtK ille r. Root cause analysis. Implement the change. Verify full system functionality.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process? A.www. Test the theory to determine the cause. Disk Management D. Serial D. SCSI C. Group Policy C. IEEE 1394 B.c A. D. Default domain policy B. Templates Ce Which of the following tools restricts device installation? "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. C. B. File share properties Answer: B QUESTION NO: 35 Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack into an installation when the media does not include the service pack? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 33 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 34 A.

Half Height. C. Universally Keyed PCI card G. Install the patches during a non-working hour. Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation. Define a test server group.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Define a test server group.E QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a Windows installation? A. Half Height. Which of the following cards can fit in this slot? (Select THREE) ille r. PCI-X 3. install the patches and if successful schedule installation on production servers.c om .D.3v PCI-X card C. Full Height. x16 PCI Express Card D. 3. 3. Half Height. Universally Keyed PCI-X card F. D. Half Height. x8 PCI Express Card Answer: A. RIS C. schedule installation on production servers and then install all updates and patches. Universally Keyed PCI card B. Ghost D.com 12 Ce rtK A server has a single.3v PCI card E. B. half height. Slipstreaming Answer: D QUESTION NO: 36 An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an internal SLA. Press F6 "Slay Your Exams" . Full Height.certkiller.3v slot available. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 37 A.www. Half Height.

The NIC is not on the HCL. Blade servers are typically faster D. Blade servers allow for more RAM Answer: B QUESTION NO: 40 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 41 An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives B. B. Check the backplane cabling. The administrator powers up the server. Press any key D. The driver is incorrect on the server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? A. Blade servers offer more rack density C. B. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? ille r. C. C. Install the latest hard drive firmware rtK An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage. during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the drive lights flash.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Press ESC C. D.c om . Press Alt+F8 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server? A. but it does not receive an IP address. The patch cable has not been seated properly.com 13 Ce A. Check the server BIOS.certkiller. The system POSTs fine and the NIC is recognized by the OS. "Slay Your Exams" . Update the RAID controller firmware.www.

customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A.com rtK ille r. SCSI C. RAID 6 D. After bringing the system online. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly. C. B. The company firewall is misconfigured Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. RAID 10 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 44 An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. The server's firewall is misconfigured.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. SAS B. The NIC is not seated properly. The web server was not installed properly. RAID 5 C. SATA Answer: C QUESTION NO: 43 Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible? A.www. RAID 0 B. The administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. iSCSI D. The customers continue to report issues. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 42 Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network? A.c om 14 .

Active/passive cluster B.com 15 Ce Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip? rtK ille r. DNS round robin Answer: D QUESTION NO: 46 When an administrator is troubleshooting a system. Reverse the change. xD D. Establish a new theory of probable cause.certkiller. Implement the next logical change. Active/active cluster C. Perform a root cause analysis. Log shipping D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 45 When load balancing traffic between two web servers. RAID 0 "Slay Your Exams" . C. D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 47 A. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity? A.www. EDO B. which of the following describes the NEXT course of action if a change does not solve the problem? A. L1 C. which of the following technologies provides the LOWEST cost solution? A. B.c om . This array will store transaction logs that are always being written. DDR Answer: B QUESTION NO: 48 A new storage array must be configured for a database server.

Full control can only be set using file permissions.101. B. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board. B. RAID 6 D. D. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem? A. RAID 3 C. File permissions are less granular than share permissions. Ce A. Add a DHCP relay to the 192.101. D. C.100. B.100. A DHCP server is available on subnet 192. D.0/24 subnet. Full control can only be set using share permissions.0/24 subnet "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 49 An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on every server.0/24.c om 16 . The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP server.com rtK ille A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192. Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 50 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share permissions? A.168.www. Add a DHCP server to the 192.168.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.168. File permissions are more granular than share permissions. C. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem? r. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP.0/24. Add a second DHCP server to the 192.100. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server. Assign the workstation a static IP address.168. C.0/24 subnet.certkiller.168.

When the administrator runs the patch installer. C. and the installer fails again. multi-processing. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A.com rtK ille A.www. B. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server Answer: A QUESTION NO: 53 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 54 SMP is considered to be a form of: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 52 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. C. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server. D. D. DNS D.certkiller. the install fails. monitoring protocol. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install. The administrator tries again. mapped printer. DHCP C.c Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file? om 17 . mail protocol. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 55 Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . FTP B. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed. B. WINS r.

Clone the machine from a template Answer: B QUESTION NO: 57 Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server. Remote configuration B. Native RIS integration D. Baffle E. All expansion cards stop working simultaneously.E Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Riser cards B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 56 Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use? A. C. Water cooling C. No physical hardware to setup C. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary B.c om 18 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic. Motherboard B.certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Operating system C. D. Riser cards QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO) A.com rtK ille r. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN. Shroud D. Expansion cards D. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained.www. Heat sinks Answer: D.

A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels.c om .certkiller. L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor. Registered Answer: A QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache? A.com 19 Ce Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement? rtK ille r. C. L3 cache operates faster than the system processor B.www. Optical jukebox D. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns. RAID C. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network. Tape library B. Pairing D. SAN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 61 A. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached technologies D. ECC B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 59 Which of the following BEST describes a DAS? A. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network. C. NAS C. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 60 Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company LAN? A. "Slay Your Exams" . B.

Power stability fluctuations D. -n Answer: B QUESTION NO: 66 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. Extreme temperature variances B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure? A. 5 D. 10 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65 When running a Windows server. -r B. -v D. which option is used with the ping command to convert numerical addresses to host names? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Extreme humidity variances C.certkiller. Excessive dust accumulation Answer: D QUESTION NO: 64 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array? A. 4 C.www. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus.c om 20 . 3 B. -a C.

certkiller. /flushdns C.c om 21 . /all Answer: D QUESTION NO: 67 Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a certain type of printer. The system is labeled so that it can be identified C. An administrator verifies that the user can successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup. Memory leak in one of the print drivers C. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Other users are not having a problem. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Determine the correct power requirements Answer: D QUESTION NO: 69 A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN. /renew B. but can connect by IP address. The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns. /release D. an administrator must ensure which of the following? A. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the functionality of a DHCP server? A. Memory leak in the print spooler Answer: D QUESTION NO: 68 After a server has been installed into a rack. Verify the change control process can be implemented D. The disk drive is out of free space D. Corrupted print spooler software B.com rtK ille r.www.

The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs. 1-16 C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Peer-to-Peer Application Server D. 1-7 B.com rtK A. Examine the Imhost file. The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate. B. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. C. Dedicated Application Server C. Distributed Application Server B. C. D. 0-7 D. File and Print Server ille Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program? r.c om 22 . Examine the hosts file Answer: A QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter? A. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs. The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power.www.certkiller. Flush the cache on the DNS server. D. 0-15 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 71 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)? A. Flush the cache on the WINS server.

c om . SDRAM C. Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools? (Select TWO).exe B.Ini C. A.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 73 Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed? A. DDR3 D. Disk Utilization C.certkiller. SODIMM B. Page File B. Processor Utilization E. . . the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high level of activity.msi D. System Temperature D. DDR2 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 74 Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly. During the investigation.dll Answer: C QUESTION NO: 76 Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis? A. .E Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default? A. Network Utilization Answer: B. Fan "Slay Your Exams" . .com 23 Ce QUESTION NO: 75 rtK ille r.

Differential C. Active/active cluster D. Heat sink C. Multicast B.com rtK A.certkiller.c QUESTION NO: 78 om 24 . Active/passive cluster C. Full D. Radiator Answer: A QUESTION NO: 77 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.www. Shroud D. PXE support C. CUPS D. FTP server B. DNS round robin Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Installation CD ille Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the following? r. GFS Answer: C Answer: B QUESTION NO: 79 Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high availability between two web servers with static content? A. Incremental B.

Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine the cause of this corruption? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following is the FIRST place the administrator should look for specific information about the problem? A.certkiller. The server event logs Answer: D QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple shared drives? A. Local policy D. Logon scripts C. The supporting documentation B. Increased heat output B. some open files were corrupted on one affected file server. Decreased performance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 83 An administrator notes that after a recent power outage. Loss of storage data D.c om 25 . The Internet D. Set NTFS permissions Answer: B QUESTION NO: 82 A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 80 An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the server and begins the troubleshooting process.www. Configure individual user accounts B.com rtK ille r. The vendor website C. Damage of the hardware C.

Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. The server's memory B. Use rack specific cabling hardware B. Add another wireless access point. Add another DHCP server. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next? ille r. Implement the change C.com 26 Ce rtK An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server.c om . Channel all power cables down the sides. Since implementing the new network. C. The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into production. Document the change D. The server's RAID controller battery C. Identify necessary operating system updates B. The server's NIC teaming configuration Answer: A QUESTION NO: 84 A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. and all network cables down the center D. Change the default gateway of the wireless router Answer: D QUESTION NO: 85 A.www. Disable the wireless DHCP server. Which of the following would resolve this issue? A. B. which of the following is BEST practice? A. Schedule system down time Answer: A QUESTION NO: 86 When cabling a rack. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers C. The server's processor D. individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues.

SNMP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 88 Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment? A. DHCP C.www.com 27 Ce rtK ille r. B. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore? A. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 89 An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server. A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to increase processing power and overall performance D. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to enhance performance.c om . DNS D. C. Take a differential backup while the server is online. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 87 Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations? A. NTP B. Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage.certkiller. B. D. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 90 "Slay Your Exams" . C. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher availability.

com A. SNMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 92 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 93 An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire. Update the firmware to the latest version. TFTP D. UDP C.certkiller. Evacuate all personnel. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows? A. 6 D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 91 Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol? A. Update the time and date in the BIOS. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room. 3 B. C. TCP B.c om 28 . Configure IPMI on the new board. 8 rtK How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable? ille r. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller. Notify staff of the potential service outage. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. D. Which of the following is the FIRST thing that the administrator should do? A. D. Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives. C. B. 4 C.

com rtK ille r. Partitioning utilities D.certkiller. Array management utilities Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Set D. Tape restore utilities B. the archive bit on the backed up files will be which of the following? A.www. Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure compliance.c om 29 . Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy. B. Copied Answer: A QUESTION NO: 96 Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been replaced? A. C. Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon. D. Unchanged C. Deleted B. Imaging utilities C. Which of the following methods should an administrator use to BEST comply with this policy? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 94 A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate web page as their default home page. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 95 After performing a copy backup of a file server.

Third-party manufacturer B. rtK QUESTION NO: 99 ille r. Which of the following describes this backup method? A. Final.com 30 Ce While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server. Video chipset manufacturer C. Incremental C. Striping with distributed parity D. Operating system manufacturer E. Which of the following sources should be used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO). Striping with dedicated parity C. Differential. Full.certkiller. Mirroring with striping B. Incremental Answer: C QUESTION NO: 98 RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following? A. the system administrator has determined that the video firmware should be updated.www. Weekly. Monthly. Server manufacturer D. "Slay Your Exams" . Greatest. Partial. Independent disks with shared parity Answer: B A.c om . Daily D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 97 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Sequential B. Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO). Shareware file sharing site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 100 An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second Windows server. Full.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. WMI B. RIS C. DNS D. SNMP E. SMTP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS? A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order B. Power being lost during the upgrade process C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 102

An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Corrupt file system table B. Backplane failure C. Multiple drive failure D. Bad cable Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 103 Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity? A. SAS B. SATA C. Flash D. SCSI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files? A. GFS B. Full C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106

A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the problem? A. IP address is classful. B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address. C. IP address is a subnet network address. D. IP address is classless Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107 An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 32

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures. B. Review the system logs to check for errors. C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline. D. Apply all security updates to the system. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108 Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram? A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 110 Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes? A. Proper labeling B. Asset management C. Keeping good vendor logs D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs Answer: A

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A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. Fiber channel E. PAT A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 111 In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive operation? A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position. B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive. C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1. D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 112 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices? A. MIBs B. SMTP C. WMI D. DHCP Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113

A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to determine the problem? A. Loop back plugs B. Power supply tester C. System logs D. TDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 114 When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Third party cables B. NAS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following file systems are native to *nix? A. Registered memory D. FAT32 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select TWO) A. ECC E.certkiller.com rtK ille r. EXT3 C. Chipkill B. SAN C.www. Hot spare Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Signed drivers D. JBOD B.c om 35 . DAS D. NTFS D. Memory RAID C. FAT B. Third party memory C. Server type Answer: A QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber channel? A.

Which of the following is the BEST solution to address this problem? A. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 118 An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version. Redundant power supply failure B.c An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 119 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 120 A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server. however. Virtual Center Answer: C. The current system configuration should be documented for future use. Format command B. Hypervisor C.D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following is the cause? om 36 . A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized. D. Computer Management D. Disk Management E.www. CPU overheating C. B. The administrator powers up the server and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. From which of the following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO). Memory failure D. when the server is booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer.com rtK A.certkiller. A. Hard disk failure ille r. C. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented.

Which of the following steps should the technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem? A. Reinstall the operating system Answer: B A. Digitally signed device drivers C. D. Boot the server. RAID 6 D. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 122 A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. Restore the server using last backup tape. Reseat all main components B. the server reboots and fails to restart. New Technology File Systems (NTFS) B. Flash the BIOS D. Virtual machine components "Slay Your Exams" . press F8 and access last known good configuration. Try to replicate the problem C. RAID 0+1 C. Boot the server with ASR option.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first. then striping of the disks? A. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve the problem? rtK QUESTION NO: 123 ille r. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA? A. RAID 1 B.www.com 37 Ce After applying a new driver to a NIC. B.c om . C.

www. Install a second UPS. Reduce the amount of data on the backup D. Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO). D.c om 38 . PCI bus D. The administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes. C. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully? A. Inadequate RAM B. Slow processor C.com rtK A.certkiller. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next Answer: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Increase the size of the pagefile. Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive C. Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes E. A. Install an extended battery pack into the UPS Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Excessive network traffic ille Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity? r. Enable compression on the LTO2 drive B. B.C QUESTION NO: 126 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 127 A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully. Increase the size of the swapfile. Multiple RAID configurations Answer: B QUESTION NO: 125 An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape.

Replace the rubber mats in the server room B. No fault tolerance C. Wash the outside of the servers D. Poor performance B. FC Initiator B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 128 Fibre channel requires which of the following elements? A. Fibre Target Management Agent Answer: C QUESTION NO: 129 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 130 Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10? A.com rtK ille A. Replace the server fans r.certkiller. Not supported by many RAID controllers D. Multi-Mode fibre C. Physical Adapter D.c om Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed every three months? 39 . Clean the servers to limit dust buildup C. Plug and Play Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Higher cost Answer: D QUESTION NO: 131 Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off? A.www.

com A.C QUESTION NO: 133 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 134 A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory. Use a lower voltage power supply C. Warm site C. Hot site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 132 Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO). Remote Desktop rtK ille Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the OS crashes? r. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Telnet D. E. A device connects to another device without involving the processor. Install redundant NICs Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Hot plug D. Add a hardware firewall D. KVM over IP C.www. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor Answer: A.c om 40 .certkiller. B. Increase the amount of RAM B. D. VPN B. A device transfers data directly to the memory. C. Which of the following components should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network? A. A.

Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library Answer: D QUESTION NO: 137 Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays.com rtK ille r. Incremental and snapshot B. Full and differential C. Which of the following should the server administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job? A. Reduce the amount of data to be backed up. and daily backups are done the rest of the week. the server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive. D. Firmware update D.c om 41 . Currently.www. IPCONFIG /release C. Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only requires two backup sets to recover the system? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a server? A.certkiller. Differential and incremental Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. Full and incremental D. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application. Baseline Answer: C QUESTION NO: 136 A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company policy. B. Defrag B. Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB.

Which of the following should be considered FIRST? A. Mirroring D.com 42 Ce rtK QUESTION NO: 140 ille r.15.c om . Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem? A.certkiller. The system administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the previously taken baseline. Striping with mirroring C.1 C. 172. Data security policies and procedures C. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions Answer: B Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0? A. Striping with parity B.1 D.100. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use of system resources. Striping Answer: D QUESTION NO: 141 A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is a public IP address? A. 192. 10.254.76 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 139 A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired. Add additional RAM to the user PC "Slay Your Exams" .www.16.100.168. 172.11.31.40 B. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive B.

RAID 10 across all 6 drives D. The server does not have the correct drivers. The server has too little memory installed. Multi-processing C. Dual processing B. Multi-threading Answer: B QUESTION NO: 143 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 144 A system administrator needs to maintain 1. RAID 0 across all 6 drives "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. There are six 250GB drives available in the server for storage space. C. rtK ille An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server. D. B. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date.c om . The server hard drives have not begun to spin. Add additional hard drive space to the server Answer: B QUESTION NO: 142 A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time. RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs B. Which of the following describes this capability of the processor? A.www.com 43 Ce A. Multi-tasking D. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors? A. Which of the following could be the reason for this? r.2TB of storage for a database server.certkiller. Troubleshoot the user PC C. Add additional RAM to the server D. When the server is running POST the controller does not appear as present. RAID 5 across all 6 drives C.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly? A. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 147 At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL? A.com rtK ille r. Prior to purchasing hardware B. Hot site replication Answer: D QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only determining factor? A. RAID 0 B. After installation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Before installation C.c om 44 . RAID 1 C. Server-to-server clustering D. Disk-to-disk replication C. RAID implementation B. When installing drivers D.certkiller.www. RAID 5 D.

Warm site C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Which of the following site types should be considered to meet these requirements? A. Incremental backup Answer: C QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following defines memory interleaving? A. Hot site B. Mirroring with striping B. It must contain equipment and the ability to restore data from the data center.certkiller. Striping with distributed parity ille Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10? r.com 45 Ce rtK A. Mirroring with fault tolerance C. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank C. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache Answer: B QUESTION NO: 150 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 151 An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. this backup site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. A backup site must be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable. Cold site D. VSS D. Active failover site "Slay Your Exams" . Snapshot C. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor D.www. To reduce costs. Striping D.c om . Differential backup B.

certkiller. B. C. Apply all relevant updates and patches. which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a newly installed Windows Server OS? A.www. Apportion additional storage.com 46 Ce rtK ille r. ATA-2 D. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" . SATA-2 B. Incremental D. SAT A C. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 155 A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration. Full B.c om QUESTION NO: 153 . Disk imaging C. Tape backup Answer: C Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers? A. Disable the Guest account. D. SCSI Answer: C QUESTION NO: 154 According to best practices.

C. Multicore C. configure the scopes.certkiller. C. RISC B. B. Monitor processor performance logs B.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Constantly check the task manager C. D. Use performance server logs D.com rtK A. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 157 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors within System Properties in a Windows Server? A. install DHCP service. authorize the server. B. ille In a workgroup.c om 47 . Hyper-V Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . activate the scopes. Establish a baseline for the server Answer: D QUESTION NO: 156 Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors? A. Remove the floppy drives from the system. D. Symmetric multi-processing D. all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT r. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling. Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment.

B. Set folder permissions to full control Answer: B QUESTION NO: 161 A server is having problems booting into the operating system. The processors do not match D. Which of the following is the BEST reason why this upgrade will not work? A. Set folder permissions to modify D. C. Which of the following can provide important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause? A.0GHz 2Mb cache model. System logs B. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed Answer: A QUESTION NO: 160 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory.com rtK ille r.c om 48 .0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket. POST messages D. The socket size does not match B.certkiller. The server currently has a single 3. The only processor that is available from a manufacturer is a 3.www. the administrator verifies permissions are set for the directory. The cache is from a different manufacturer C. Firmware updates C. Application logs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 162 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Set folder permissions to 770.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 159 A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. Set folder permissions to 760. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user on the IT directory? A.

www.com rtK ille r. D. an external USB 1. D. the optimal place for the system swap file is on A. B. logon in Safe Mode. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server. a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache. D.certkiller. Reboot the server. uninstall the driver. Hypervisor B. Run the disable command. Virtual Center D. Reboot the server.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache. C. the fastest storage device available in the system. Which of the following should the administrator do prior to escalating the issue? A. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. B. Perform a root cause analysis Answer: D QUESTION NO: 163 In order to provide the lowest access latency. Host OS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically? A.c om 49 . C. Review manufacturer manual. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 164 Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. C. but has not determined the cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. the operating system partition. Disable the device using Device Manager. Gather information from users. Guest OS C.

ARP C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds? A.com 50 Ce rtK ille r. To allow more email to come through Answer: C QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds? A. RARP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 169 Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites. SAT A C. Ultra2 SCSI B. To eliminate excessive alerts B.c om .certkiller. To monitor use of VPN traffic D. DNS D. SAS Answer: C QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. Ultra320 SCSI D. To increase the number of threads C. DHCP B. Which of the following tools would allow the administrator to test name resolution? "Slay Your Exams" . An administrator wants to test that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address.www.

never uses an IP address for network connectivity D. ifconfig Answer: B QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP server? A. B. Install a fail-over cable. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . does support multipath I/O. Second Modem B.certkiller.c om 51 .www. always uses an IP address to access data. ipconfig C. dig D.com rtK ille r. B. Second HBA D. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit. net view B. is attached to a local disk controller. Install a second NIC card.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Install a PBX card. Second CPU C. C. C. Which of the following is the BEST solution to accomplish this? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 172 A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS: A. D. Second PBX card Answer: D QUESTION NO: 171 An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server.

Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST once the power is restored? A. Restart the server C. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC system? A.c Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP on the server? om QUESTION NO: 174 52 . Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance. Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables B. Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first. Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 173 A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they have grown. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 176 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. D. B. Uninstall TCP/IP r. Notify users D. Configure netsh settings in case of backup B. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours D.com rtK ille A. C. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers Answer: B Answer: D QUESTION NO: 175 A data center has had a power outage. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks C.

Default gateway B. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. Daily B. Which of the following connectors is image D? ille r. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 177 Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email? A. Port security on the server's switch port D.com rtK Click on the Exhibit button. High Density D.certkiller.www. 80 Pin SCSI Connector B. Low Density "Slay Your Exams" . AAAA Answer: B QUESTION NO: 178 QUESTION NO: 179 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server.c om 53 . MX C. The ports on the switch C. High Density C. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. 68 Pin SCSI Connector. PTR D. Normal D. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. A B. Incremental C. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all necessary data in the LEAST amount of time? A. Ethernet cable Ce A.

The drivers for the printers are failing. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A. Heat sink D. A network printer was disconnected. In the interim the administrator is moving several archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server file shares. B. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. C.www. The administrator reviews the server and the print service is started. Power supply fan B. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 180 A Windows file server has run out of space.c om 54 .certkiller. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32. B.com rtK ille r. Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The manager is a power user on the temporary server. CPU fan C. The temporary server was formatted as NTFS. The manager is an administrator on the temporary server Answer: C QUESTION NO: 181 A mail server keeps shutting down. D. C. The spool folder is not on the C drive. The administrator gets an error message over temperature error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST? A. After the move. a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the items that have been moved. The spool folder is full. Case fan Answer: B QUESTION NO: 182 An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing.

Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 186 For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP. D. Convert the filesystem to VMFS. Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this? A.c om . The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB.certkiller. the DHCP server must have configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO). Convert the filesystem to NTFS. Copy D.com 55 Ce QUESTION NO: 185 rtK ille r. Snapshot B. Power switch C. Chassis intrusion switch Answer: D Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous full backup? A. The administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. Convert the filesystem to EXT3. UID switch B. This file needs to be saved on the server. Convert the filesystem to FAT32 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 184 A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of the following purposes? A. Incremental C. C.www. B. Cooling fan switch D. "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 183 A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server running Windows Server 2003.

c om 56 . DHCP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a service on a company server? A. SNA server C. B. D. DHCP C.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. FTP D. DNS B. Implement anti-spam software on the server. Subnet mask Answer: A.certkiller. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . WMI B. Gateway address B. Web server E.E QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor details on page counts? A.com rtK ille r. WINS C. SNMP D. Implement ACLs. Implement anti-virus software on the server. MIB Answer: D QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses? A. C. Mail server D. Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access.

RAID B. Registered memory C. Add more disk drives.com 57 Ce rtK A. Add a faster processor. OSPF D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 190 A server is configured with two network cards. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected that the disk queue length is high. D.certkiller. Add more memory to stop paging to disk. Clustering B. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at the same time without assigning more than one IP address. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 193 "Slay Your Exams" .www. Memory pairing ille r. Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation? A. NIC teaming C. which of the following load balancing techniques should be used? A. Increase the amount of virtual memory. B.c Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance for memory? om . ECC D. VLAN tagging Answer: B QUESTION NO: 191 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 192 An application server is running slowly. C.

Add a NAS to the environment Answer: D QUESTION NO: 196 An administrator will replace five current servers. D. Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution. Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage. B. System image B. RAID array management B. Differential backup Answer: A A.c om 58 . CHKDSK C. The internal drives are at capacity and the company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. C. Verify CPU load Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective solution to add storage to both servers? ille QUESTION NO: 195 r. Monitoring agents D. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before installing new servers? A. Verify if server consumes 220V C. System state restore D. Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load B.com rtK Two file servers have run out of local disk space.www. Partitioning management Answer: D QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive? A. Attach a USB drive to one of the servers. Incremental backup C.

CD-R C. ECC C. SDRAM Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . CD-RW B. Coaxial D. CAS D.www.com rtK ille r. Flash Answer: B QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic eavesdropping? A. RAID B. Fiber optic B. Verify if server consumes 110V Answer: C QUESTION NO: 197 Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is WORM media? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. DVD-RW D. Thicknet Answer: A QUESTION NO: 199 Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and subsequently fixed? A.c om 59 .certkiller. Fast Ethernet C.

XD B. Hyperthreading Answer: C QUESTION NO: 203 Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance? A. Four drives with RAID 3 "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error? rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel? A. SATA B. iSCSI C.c om . Manufacturer's regulations D. Local laws and regulations B. VT D. HBA Answer: D QUESTION NO: 201 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A.www. Escalation procedure regulations C.com 60 Ce An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving an error.certkiller. NX C. Four drives with RAID 0 B. Server OEM regulations Answer: D QUESTION NO: 202 A. SCSI D.

Four drives with RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 204 A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday through Saturday. B.certkiller. How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup? A. Flash Answer: D Ce A. Hardware used is not on the HCL. 5 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 205 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments? A. 2 B. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives.c om 61 . Four drives with RAID 5 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. 3 C.com rtK ille Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized environment? r. C. "Slay Your Exams" . Disk B. Optical D.www. D. 4 D. The environment is outside of the DMZ. Tape C. Multiple types of network cards were used.

D. To fully restore the server. Four Answer: C Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication? A. and differential backups on Tuesday.com 62 Ce QUESTION NO: 209 rtK ille r. Three D. Thursday. Cost and performance are the most important considerations. C. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS. B. which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. A performance critical application will use this storage space for a database. Two C. The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. incremental backups on Monday.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 207 An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server boots into Windows.c om . Too many SCSI devices on one system Answer: C QUESTION NO: 210 An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server. and Saturday. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 208 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The database will be replicated between multiple servers. The system needs to boot to Windows first. prior to booting into Linux. Improper termination D. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.www. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support. Low communication latency B. and Friday. Wednesday. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded C. One B.

RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives Answer: B QUESTION NO: 211 Users are having trouble printing in terminal services. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 212 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 213 An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on a default Windows installation. account operators. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives D. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives C. remote users. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to: A. B. Replication Monitor D. The user is using a PostScript driver.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array? A. backup operators Ce A. The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) C. D. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. C.certkiller. The administrator finds that whenever a certain user prints the print spooler crashes. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives B. D.c om 63 . server operators. Performance Monitor "Slay Your Exams" .www. C.com rtK Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline? ille r. The printer is not on the HCL. System Resource Monitor B. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print. B.

PBX C. rack space. uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment. Biometrics.certkiller. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices E. and power requirements Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . and CCTV D. Cooling. Installing new MIBs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 216 Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new server? A.com rtK A. A. All devices are configured with SNMP. Which of the following settings would BEST provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO). Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161 C. HBA B.c QUESTION NO: 215 om Answer: D. Humidity monitors. Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161 D. but the administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. and fire suppression B. Biometrics.E 64 . Setting up a custom community name B. NIC ille Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity? r.www. fire suppression. VoIP D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 214 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators when hardware and applications are having issues. Service level agreements. and power requirements C.

B. reboots the DC. SQLServer E. While powering on the server. which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP users? (Select THREE) A. Verify correct voltages are being supplied. and logs in to configure the NIC. Domain name Answer: C. D. Which of the following could be done to prevent this problem? A. Install compatible PCI cards Answer: A QUESTION NO: 218 An administrator installs a driver. Use ESD equipment. D.c om . B.com 65 Ce QUESTION NO: 219 rtK ille r. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration. the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into Windows.certkiller. a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST. Reseat the NIC. C. Database server B. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode Answer: D When configuring a DHCP server. DNS server F. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues.E. NTP server C.www.F QUESTION NO: 220 "Slay Your Exams" . Boot into Safe Mode. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 217 While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. DHCP server D. Once the administrator opens the NIC properties.

Zero configuration and high performance Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Fault tolerance and zero configuration C. Emergency exits B.www.c om 66 . D. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take? A. Implement preventative measures.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation? A. B. Payroll D.com rtK ille r. Document the outcome. The test plan C. All IT contact numbers Answer: B QUESTION NO: 221 An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. Ease of access Answer: B QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 5? A. Rack temperature C. Room temperature D. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue Answer: C QUESTION NO: 222 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system. After troubleshooting the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again.certkiller. Close the issue. Load on UPS B. Fault tolerance and failure recovery B.

RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.www. High performance and fault tolerance Answer: A QUESTION NO: 224 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6? A. More effective usage of computing resources D.com rtK A. D.D QUESTION NO: 226 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment? A. ESD during the upgrade E. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? (Select TWO). B.certkiller. Increased level of security C. C. Backplane failure ille r.c An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not. Improved performance for users Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Disk drive failure D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 225 Answer: B. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Third party memory C. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5. Processor failure B. When the administrator restarts the server after the upgrade. it times out. Higher administrative complexity B. om 67 .

Determine backups available. and verify data. This server has two processors. but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . Continue plugging into the central UPS. and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS. Lower cost of implementation C. restore system applications. restore data. Contact end users of outage. D. Increased performance Answer: B QUESTION NO: 228 Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server? A. and verify data. C. Restore applications. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an upgrade of the central UPS can occur? rtK ille r. and restore data. B. 16GB of memory. C. D. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS.c om .com 68 Ce A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the room and is causing power load problems. and verify data. restore backup data.www. Restore OS. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher than stated Answer: B QUESTION NO: 230 There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) software.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 227 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN? A. Higher data integrity B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 229 A. restore backups. but not using the central UPS. B. Additional power is available.certkiller. Higher redundancy D.

SAT A D. D. Temperature B.c om 69 .com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following is the MOST likely cause? A. Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware and move onto software C. B. Implement one change at a time. SAS C. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional. Lighting C. Two failed drives Answer: A QUESTION NO: 231 When implementing a solution to a problem. RAID 1 B. reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function. Structural columns Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Two failed processors C. which of the following is the BEST course of action to take? A.www. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance? A.certkiller. Two failed sticks of memory D. JBOD Answer: D QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating environment? A. A failed RAID controller B.

Database Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Remove the page file from system properties Answer: C Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO) A.www.certkiller. Telnet session D. Differential C. C. VPN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 236 A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies? A. Add more memory. Full B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. B. Move the page file to a free drive. Dedicated management card C.c QUESTION NO: 235 om 70 . Delete the file. D. Incremental D.com rtK ille r. Remote desktop software B. The administrator notices that the file pagefile. IP KVM E. Elevation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 234 The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server. Which of the following would BEST resolve this problem? A.sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space.

E QUESTION NO: 239 Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the array? A. RAID 10 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 240 An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 237 Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN tunnel? A. RAID 5 C.com rtK ille r. 802. RAID 6 D. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens.certkiller. Shutdown delay timing Answer: B. Antivirus software version B. IP address for network printer E. ISAKMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 238 Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation records? (Select TWO) A. AES B. Wire shelving diagram D.www. TKIP C.c om 71 . Battery replacement date C. RAID 3 B.1q D. Which of the following is the NEXT step? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

average disk I/O. number of users. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 241 All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT A. C. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change. D. C. D. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 242 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 243 Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server? A. IP address C. memory usage. number of files. Operating system version ille Which of the following information would be on a system classification list? r. Disk drive size B. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected. Reboot the server again. Acceptable outage time D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode. B. Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.com rtK A. The change should be approved by management. D.c om 72 . B.www. C. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration. Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode. B. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline.

com 73 Ce QUESTION NO: 246 rtK ille r. Two of the memory sticks are defective. Which of the following must be configured in order to decrypt those files? A. Backside bus D. That user account is then accidentally deleted. Key recovery administrator B. The system memory has different manufacture dates. D. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Trusted root certificate store D. Verifying the OS manufacturers "Slay Your Exams" . B. PCI B. Root certificate store Answer: B Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 244 An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed. Key recovery agent C.www. however. System I/O bus Answer: C QUESTION NO: 247 Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list? A. a user encrypts several documents on a shared file server. The server is using memory interleaving Answer: C QUESTION NO: 245 In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI. Frontside bus C.c om . The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory.certkiller. C. the server only shows 1GB of memory during POST.

SDRAM D. Molex connectors Answer: A Answer: D QUESTION NO: 250 Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.com rtK A. Interviewing system owners Answer: A QUESTION NO: 248 Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly? A. Baffles D.www. RAID B. Locating a hosting facility C. Registered memory C. Phase changers C.certkiller. JBOD B. U-size templates B. NAS D. SAN ille Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an iSCSI connection? r. DAS C.c QUESTION NO: 249 om 74 . ECC Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Consulting with the system manufacturers D.

The server OS crashed and the server will not boot. SCSI drives D.certkiller.com rtK ille r.www. Optical Answer: A QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive? A. Tape B. SCSI backplane C. and needs to be stored for 20 years. Multimeter Answer: A QUESTION NO: 253 A. Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem? "Slay Your Exams" . SAN C.c om 75 . Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the server data? A. Motherboard Answer: C QUESTION NO: 254 When disposing of computer equipment. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 251 A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily. which of the following can present an environmental hazard? Ce A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array. Remote management card C. Firmware update B. Flash D. Diagnostic LEDs D. Memory B.

then the DC server second. B. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive "Slay Your Exams" . B. The update has quarantined files that are false positives. C. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive D. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted. C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly.www. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 256 A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 257 Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array? A. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive C. The administrator needs to install a patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. Immediately after the update.com 76 Ce rtK A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions.c om . then the Exchange server second. SATA cable C. Exchange server first. D. Which of the following is the BEST way to restart the servers? A. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive B. Bezel B. DC server first. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? ille r. Cat5 cable D. CRT monitor Answer: D QUESTION NO: 255 An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server.certkiller. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter.

Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode ille r. CD-R D. SDLT tapes E. Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly. B.c An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID array. Support forums Answer: C QUESTION NO: 261 "Slay Your Exams" . C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers. Online troubleshooting tools B.certkiller. Flash B. Vendor website D. WORM Answer: C. Restart the installation via WDS.D QUESTION NO: 259 QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware? A. there are no drives listed. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? om . When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 258 Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified? (Select TWO) A.com 77 Ce Answer: C rtK A. DLT4 tapes C.www. D.

Which of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO). Multiple failure fault tolerance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 262 A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive.certkiller. Higher capacity B.www. and the drive shows up in Device Manager. The cables are connected. the My Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS. Recreate the partition that was deleted. the drive has power.com rtK ille r. C.c om 78 . Break mirror array B. Fault tolerance D. USB D. Optical media Answer: A QUESTION NO: 264 A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures. Run a check disk on the drive Answer: D QUESTION NO: 263 Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software? A. D. B. Rewrite the MBR. Replace cache battery Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1? A. A. however. Higher performance C. Reformat the NTFS partition. Network share B. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive? A. PXE C.

Server clustering C. F9 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 266 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy? A.certkiller. F6 B. Mail server and backup capacity Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Local laws and industry regulations B. Project guidelines given by stakeholders D. Hot site D.c om 79 . F8 D.E QUESTION NO: 265 Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a Windows set-up? A.www. Replace hot standby D. F7 C. Company policies and guidelines C. Disk-to-disk replication ille Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network? r.com rtK A. Restore from back up E. Replace defective hard drives Answer: C. Server-to-server replication B.

Lower power consumption E. Little to no maintenance needed Answer: A. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 270 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel SAN connectivity? A. The order does not matter. UAC D.certkiller.c om 80 . Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this? A. and then the anti-virus. Update security patches. Increased application security C.E QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator needs to update the anti-virus.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE) A. BIOS software. C. and the web server software on a production system. Update the web software. D. web software. and then the web software. Better server hardware leverage B. Smaller backup window needed D.com rtK ille r. only one change at a time should be done. Smaller datacenter footprint F. BIOS. security patches. security patches. Update anti-virus. BIOS. NIC Answer: A QUESTION NO: 271 Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple processors? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . USB C. anti-virus. and then the BIOS. B. security patches.B.www. HBA B.

Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation. Striping C. D. Mirroring B. Warm site Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Active/passive clustering at the same site C.certkiller. 64-bit processing D. Striping with mirroring Answer: A QUESTION NO: 273 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 274 Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant? A.com rtK A. B. Hyper-V Answer: D QUESTION NO: 272 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1? A. Disk-to-disk replication in the same server D. Multicore C. C.c om 81 .www. Striping with parity D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation. Hot site B. Symmetric multi-processing B. ille Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server? r. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation.

however. Mantraps B. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Cable select D.D QUESTION NO: 278 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. The size of the presented drive is 700GB. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk. Fingerprint scanners C. C. CCTV systems D. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance. The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded Answer: C QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO) A. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose power. Master Answer: C QUESTION NO: 276 A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC. ID0 B. ID2 C. Proxy card readers Answer: B.c om 82 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second device on an IDE cable? A. the SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic. Retina scanner E.com rtK ille r.certkiller. The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network.www. D.

known as SRAM. Answer option A is incorrect. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses. DNS entries were not created. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips. QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A.C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU.c om 83 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A new server was installed. Date of server purchase B. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. C. outside the CPU. B. It stores a backlog of the commands so that.www. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. Incorrect default gateway on the server. This is known as a zero wait state operation. A. Answer option D is incorrect. Disk performance statistics Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It uses low-speed memory chips for caching. if a wait state is encountered. Which of the following is the reason that these clients are unable to access the server? A. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. Choose two. It is also known as external cache. Answer: B. Also known as external cache. it runs faster. D. it is included in every CPU. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state. D. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can successfully access the server. This slows down computer operations.com rtK ille r. for caching. WINS server is not responding QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Server response time C. it is included in every CPU. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. Also known as internal cache. C. the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access the server.certkiller. B. but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet.

Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.www. QUESTION NO: 282 When you start your computer. Network bandwidth Answer: B.com 84 Ce rtK ille A. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option. Choose two. Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. QUESTION NO: 281 Answer: C. can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. B. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A.c om Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline. Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. "Slay Your Exams" .D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password. Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder r. Answer options A and D are incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. The personal information. D. such as phone number and date of birth. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Answer options B and A are incorrect.certkiller. Using personal information in the server room password D. C.C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. . Using a phrase for the server password C.

The FORMAT command is used to format disks. which allows users to manage the network. With Thorough option. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model.mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. it tries to fix the sector. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer options C is incorrect. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. SMTP C. Answer option D is incorrect. port number 25. Reference: TechNet. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. Answer option C is incorrect.www. Through this protocol. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance. However.wikipedia.com rtK ille r. a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. The data cable is used to transfer data. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. IMAP D.certkiller. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. Answer option A is incorrect. It will not help in resolving the issue.c om 85 . SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post. a Windows-based utility. distribute.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. Reference: "http://en. DEFRAG. Answer option A is incorrect. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. e. NNTP B. Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]" QUESTION NO: 283 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A.

com 86 Ce rtK ille r. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports.232 ports. Reference: TechNet. Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller. and handheld devices. Full backup Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data.Backup" QUESTION NO: 285 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. Daily backup B. "Slay Your Exams" . Incremental backup C. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. DIN B. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. also known as COM ports.www. RS-232 C. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect.c om . traditional PC storage devices. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It needs only one tape to restore data. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. or are new. or RS. serial ports. Contents: "Chapter 12 . DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. since the last incremental or full backup. Sequential backup D. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. IEEE 1394 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 284 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.

10Base2 cable C. B. bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files.certkiller. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code.com 87 Ce Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. QUESTION NO: 286 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? A. This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Reference: TechNet. D. this changes the signature of the virus. SCSI cable B.C. Parallel cable D. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. Serial cable Answer: B.D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable. Therefore. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters . Contents: "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 287 A. so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector.c om . This type of virus hides system files. also known as Thinnet Coax. rtK ille r. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. C. "Slay Your Exams" . Choose three. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time. it loads virus into the RAM. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection.www. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. Typically. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin. When the user runs the infected file in the disk.

B.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 288 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.c om 88 . Answer option B is incorrect. D. The parallel channel is fast. SCSI-2. Answer option A is incorrect. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. C. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. C. a server displays a POST error. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. or remove and replace a failed device. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. and SCSI-3. The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes.com rtK ille r. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system. SCSI devices. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error. Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. The system log is used to store security-related events. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. For example. The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation. Answer option A is incorrect. B. reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. QUESTION NO: 289 Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology? A. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. It allows to install a new device. Answer option C is incorrect. without powering off the system. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. During the boot process. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code.www.

certkiller. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1. "Slay Your Exams" . 1. or for storage devices.com 89 Ce rtK ille r. SCSI-2. QUESTION NO: 290 What will be the maximum SCSI bus length. Answer: C Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. 6 meters Answer: B Explanation: If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support these bus lengths. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Using this technology. The replacement can be due to a device failure. etc.5 meters C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives. or remove and replace a failed device.5 meters . What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters .www. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface? A.c om . The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Answer option A is incorrect. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI devices. QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of useful life"? A. 3 meters B. 12 meters D. Answer options D and C are incorrect. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. and SCSI-3. This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID). It allows to store more than one file using the same name.

Contents: "Monitoring Performance" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its defined "end of useful life". Broadcast frames received/second Answer: A. D.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 292 Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Pages/sec C. Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded.www.c om 90 . Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. Choose three.com rtK ille r. C. A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic. Answer: D Explanation: A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk. % Network utilization B. The IEEE defines "end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Total frames received/second D.C. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline. For example.D Explanation: The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. A. Since each computer processes every broadcast. high broadcast levels mean lower network performance. What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20 minutes when new. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Reference: TechNet.

NT. The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving. C. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. that have to process a great deal of information quickly. A:. Answer option D is incorrect. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. Remove the boot files from C: drive.www. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. How will he accomplish this? A. the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Change the boot sequence to C:. the computer can move data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU intervention. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true? A. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. D.certkiller. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Using DMA. Hence. B.com rtK ille r. B. C. especially servers. Answer option B is incorrect. It is helpful on high-end systems. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Disable the hard disk drive. Answer: C Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM. He wants that whenever he boots his computer.c om 91 . QUESTION NO: 294 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU).

Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It can be created on dynamic disks only.E Explanation: Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5. Basic E. Answer: D Explanation: To accomplish the task.certkiller. In Windows 2000/2003. If a portion of a physical disk fails. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. QUESTION NO: 295 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Choose three. and mirrored volumes.com rtK ille r. In case of failure of one disk. Change the boot sequence to A:. C:. It supports two to thirtytwo disk drives. You are installing Windows 2000 Server on a new computer. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:. RAID-5 B. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. C: in the BIOS. A. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume.C. spanned. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volume types.www. Contents: "Configuring Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Spanned D. Parity Answer: A. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped.c om 92 . the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. Dynamic C. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Mirrored F. Answer options B and D are incorrect. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. on the motherboard. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. You can create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Reference: TechNet. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk.

Clothing. If you set the component down. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. if possible. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems.www. QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A. you experience a mild shock. High temperature D. RIMM Answer: A.c om . and flooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD.com 93 Ce rtK ille r.certkiller. Dry air is a poor conductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water molecules carry static electric charge away. and roll up your shirt's sleeves. you should take the following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting. footwear. High humidity B. Remove your shoes. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Low temperature Answer: B Explanation: Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). DDR DIMM B. do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table.D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . SIMM C. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Dynamic Volumes" QUESTION NO: 296 Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest? A. Choose two. Low humidity C. SO-DIMM D. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components.

You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. and the heights may vary. QUESTION NO: 298 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base.375" high. but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. TRACERT D. Answer option C is incorrect. NBTSTAT B. TELNET "Slay Your Exams" . PC3500 and faster. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. 30-pin and 72-pin.c om . The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers. and Athlon systems. NETSTAT C. The number of chips on a 184pin DIMM may vary. but are more expensive than DIMMs.com 94 Ce rtK ille r.375" long and 1. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base.0 TCP/IP-based network. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III. It was developed by Rambus. PC3200.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. Pentium 4. Answer option B is incorrect. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. PC2700. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. consume lesser power. Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and 184 pins. and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. SO.certkiller. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot. and Kingston . Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in two types. Intel. Your company has a Windows NT 4. It was introduced for laptops. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.www.DIMMs come in smaller packages.

TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.bit ISA bus. Therefore. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. ille r. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. PCI D. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. both ISA "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: TechNet. update the NetBIOS name cache. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.D Explanation: You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) bus slots. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. ISA Answer: B. and facilitates remote administration. The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot. remove. This is accomplished by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. What is an EISA bus? Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a superset of a 16. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.c om . Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies" QUESTION NO: 299 A. to access files. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.www. NBTSTAT helps you view. incoming and outgoing data. It uses TCP port 23 by default. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Answer option C is incorrect. The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.com 95 Ce rtK In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache.certkiller. offers the ability to run programs remotely. EISA C. VESA B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. Choose all that apply.

com rtK ille r. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator to manage group policy settings across multiple sites. such as the display subsystem. There is no such command as shutdown -rst. you will have to run the DOWN -f command. import.www. In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt. or even forests. Change the partition type. Reference: "http://www.com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h enuk mm4. The fdisk command is a menubased command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. Display the partition table. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to the fdisk command. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. and copy group policy objects. Answer option B is incorrect.certkiller. Create a partition on a hard disk. You cannot insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. This command can perform the following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk.html" QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your Windows NT computer? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option D is incorrect. Answer options C and A are incorrect. domains. It provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related tasks. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) C. Answer option C is incorrect. Shutdown -rst D.c om 96 . QUESTION NO: 300 Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. fdisk Answer: A Explanation: Answer option A is correct. GPMC is used to back up.novell. Which of the following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt? A. restore. It also provides a reporting interface on how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. DOWN -f B.

C ille r. NETSTAT. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes. Both the partitions must be of same size. but again. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information.EXE B.c om 97 . It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. Network Monitor Answer: D Explanation: Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic.certkiller. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Explanation: A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. B. QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.www. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. QUESTION NO: 303 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. Choose two. C. however. it is often useful to have some of the frames for review. it will not show the contents of any data. Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. IPCONFIG. striped volume (RAID-0).EXE C. A. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. will not show the contents of any data. Because of the nature of the data.com rtK Answer: B. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information. but not data information. Answer option A is incorrect. Performance Monitor D. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections.

What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to connect to the rest of the workstations on the network. FTP Answer: A Explanation: TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX server. If the server is not physically connected to the network. Either the network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub. B. which connects all the workstations and the server. Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server. the workstations on the network cannot access the server. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. A. PING D. users complain that they are unable to connect to the server.c om . QUESTION NO: 304 A. You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. is faulty. These replies can be used to "Slay Your Exams" . Users are providing incorrect passwords. A faulty hub. the destination host responds with a series of replies. and facilitates remote administration. On receiving the packets. One morning. Answer: B. Users are providing incorrect usernames. to access files.com 98 Ce rtK You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. TRACERT E.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam You work as a Network Administrator. D. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of the problem as all users are having this problem. offers the ability to run programs remotely. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer.D Explanation: There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure.certkiller. C. Answer option C is incorrect. It uses TCP port 23 by default. using a text-based connection? ille r. Choose two. Your Internet service provider (ISP) has a UNIX-based server. IPCONFIG C. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.www. TELNET B.

certkiller. remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step. subnet mask. Choose all that apply.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette. How will he confirm this? A. After completing the check. Answer option B is incorrect. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . of a networked computer. he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus.c om 99 . default gateway etc. boot the computer with that diskette.com rtK ille r. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. Reference: TechNet. D. The MAKEDISK. When he examines the problem. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Contents: "Mail Server" QUESTION NO: 305 Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails. A. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. This will run a boot sector virus check.. C.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam determine whether or not the network is working properly. Run MAKEDISK. Boot the computer with the diskette. such as IP address. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks. Reference: TechNet. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk. Answer option E is incorrect.www. B. Once the diskette is created. TRACERT is a routetracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. Answer: D Explanation: MAKEDISK. Check the partition with the startup disk. Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server" QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software. B.

AMD K6 Answer: A. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. Pentium III C. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Pentium II B. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. Slot 1 type CPU connector. Choose all that apply. clients. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer: A. is similar to an expansion card. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD K6 processors use Socket 7.B Explanation: Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1. If the documents are stored on an offsite location. C. A disaster recovery documentation for a small organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location.com 100 Ce rtK ille r. and phone numbers for crisis management staff. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. "Slay Your Exams" . instead of a socket. also known as single edge connector (SEC). and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media. general staff members. copies of insurance contracts. as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Answer option C is incorrect. Pentium pro D.c om .B Explanation: The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. containing the names. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents in floppy disks. it will be safe in case of any disaster. B. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings. and other critical material necessary for organizational survival.www. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller. A. QUESTION NO: 308 Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller? A. addresses.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. r.certkiller. at which segments were received.C. Answer: A Explanation: The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. Answer option C is incorrect. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard.10). and time settings when a computer's main power is off. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were retransmitted. The CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID controller. Reference: "http://technet. including those received in error. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in the cache. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings. Answer option B is incorrect. Segments Sent/sec "Slay Your Exams" .c om 101 . Answer option A is incorrect. Write Copies/sec B. Segments Received/sec C. When power to the disk array is discontinued. Segments Retransmitted/sec D. Answer option D is incorrect.microsoft. in incidents per second. The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller.com/eses/library/cc778758(WS. Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller.com rtK ille Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent.aspx" Ce A. Choose three.www. date. QUESTION NO: 309 Answer: B. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from elsewhere in physical memory.D Explanation: The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec counter shows the rate.

a user should choose which files. also known as normal backup. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option A is incorrect. The CPU sends instructions to the hard disk controller on this I/O address.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 310 Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed? A. COM1 serial port uses the I/O address range 3F8-3FF. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. folders. Differential backup B.wikipedia. and hard disks are to be backed up.certkiller. the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. 3F0-3F7 C. 278-27F B. Full backup. Incremental backup Answer: D Explanation: added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or becomes corrupt. 3F8-3FF Answer: C Explanation: A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. Reference: "http://en.www. Full backup D. Daily backup C. Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. It is faster as compared to full backup.org/wiki/Incremental_backup" QUESTION NO: 311 Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller? A. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups. After a full backup is performed. Answer option D is incorrect. 1F0-1F8 D.c om . Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as they were created. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup methods. Answer option B is incorrect. It requires minimum space to backup data. Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental backup. When the full backup type is set up. involves backing up the entire hard disks and files of a machine. There is no such type of backup as daily backup. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.com 102 Ce rtK ille r. all archive bits are reset to 0.

Answer option D is incorrect. The primary "Slay Your Exams" . The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . 26. ille r.www. The 18U server rack has a height of 31. 14 inches D. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. 31. Answer: B Explanation: Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. its I/O address. Answer option A is incorrect. C. IRQ.5 inches . Answer option A is incorrect. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. QUESTION NO: 312 What is the height of the 8U server rack? A. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled.25 inches Answer: C QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS? A. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup. LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 27827F .5 inches C. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range.certkiller. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory. to communicate with any peripheral device. 21 inches B.com 103 Ce rtK Explanation: The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam address range 3F0-3F7. Whenever a component. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Answer option B is incorrect. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. When you configure shadow RAM. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. IRQs. The 15U server rack has a height of 26. Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory. Resources such as I/O addresses. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking. D.25 inches . The CPU needs a memory address. B. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer.

c om . On the computer case D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs.wikipedia. Fast-Wide SCSI B. But. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. SCSI-2. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive.certkiller.org/wiki/SCSI" "Slay Your Exams" . The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. Fast SCSI C. On the microprocessor C. Ultra 160 SCSI D. and SCSI-3.www. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]" QUESTION NO: 314 You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer. On the motherboard Answer: A Explanation: You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program. Where will you look for it? A. QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.D Explanation: The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer options A and B are incorrect. In BIOS setup program B.com 104 Ce rtK ille r. Ultra 320 SCSI Answer: C. on the motherboard. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Choose all that apply. A. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. SCSI devices. Reference: "http://en. Reference: TechNet.

Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Answer option B is incorrect. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling.com rtK ille r. Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Time Domain Reflectometer D.certkiller. The Reliability Monitor. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. The servers on the network must connect to the SAN.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network? A. What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. This tab also displays warning messages if there are any problems. is used to detect the reasons for computer failure. QUESTION NO: 317 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings. This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure. Answer option C is incorrect. The Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable period of time. DXDIAG Answer: A Explanation: LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. LAN Analyzer B. The company's network has a storage area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. provides tests for both DirectDraw and Direct3D. and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. Answer option D is incorrect. DirectX Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and fix them. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. a tool introduced in Windows Vista.c om 105 . Reliability Monitor C.www.

Answer option B is incorrect. You may loose files if the backup gets corrupted. as it is time consuming. Andrew cannot install operating system updates before installing the operating system. There is no such technology as Fibre Thicknet Bus. Fibre Channel fabric Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology. SCSI bus D. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre Channel technology.certkiller. Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored before installing Windows NT 4.c om . Verify backed-up data D.www. QUESTION NO: 318 A. routing frames dynamically. he will loose the files. A switch offers better system throughput than a hub. Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified. PSTN cannot provide such a high speed connection. Answer option A is incorrect. Taking a full backup daily is impractical.0 Server? ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Answer option C is incorrect. It allows multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. working as a file server. Instead. The server contains critical files.0 Server.com 106 Ce rtK Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate.5 Server. Answer option B is incorrect. A Fibre Channel fabric uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs. Install the latest network operating system updates C. FactWhat is full backup? Full backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log. Recreate the partition Answer: C Explanation: As a precautionary measure. The company's network consists of a Windows NT 3.5 Server files and install Windows NT 4.0 Server. A Fibre Channel switch intelligently manages connections between ports. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the backed-up data gets corrupted. What should be his first step before installing Windows NT 4. Fibre Thicknet Bus C. the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric. Format the system partition B. Answer options A and D are incorrect. a well-defined backup strategy should be "Slay Your Exams" . He decides to remove the Windows NT 3. Andrew takes full backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive.

Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 320 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface. Answer options B and D are incorrect. A. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Answer option C is incorrect. also known as Slot 1. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. D.certkiller. over time.C Explanation: Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization.c om . B. Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and detect viruses. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup. 486DX D. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages.www. View. The Alert. Pentium Pro B. Answer: A. It detects viruses on the computer. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. instead of sockets. It monitors hard disk utilization. over time. It measures the processor utilization on the computer. It captures network traffic. QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7? A. Pentium Answer: D Explanation: Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7. Pentium II C.com 107 Ce rtK ille r. Choose two. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. C. 486DX processors use Socket 0. Save counter and object settings for repeated use.

You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor. Answer option C is incorrect. The company has a Windows NT domainbased network. Answer option D is incorrect. attenuation. Alert Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. Wire crimper is a device that is used to attach connectors to the cables. After you complete the wire connections. also called a media certifier. View B. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables. Media tester C. Log D.com rtK ille r. Tone generator B. you want to test the wires for attenuation. Which of the following devices will you use to accomplish the task? A.www. or some other problem. A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit. QUESTION NO: 322 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) Answer: B Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. A tone generator is an electrical cable testing device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit.c om 108 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 321 You are creating a network for Net World Inc. You decide to implement a star network. and various types of crosstalk. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. Which of the following views will you use? A. Wire crimper D. Answer option A is incorrect. a short cable.certkiller. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. It tests for shorts. What is a media tester? A media tester. you will have to use a media tester. Chart C. open circuits. is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. transposed wire pairs.000. and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. a transposed wire pair.

www. It has recently ported to Linux. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .C Explanation: The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems that cannot be used to install operating systems.certkiller. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4.5. compression. A. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by Novell's Netware operating system. long file names. Novell Storage Services (NSS) Answer: B. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. and Windows XP operating systems. View.2 to allow greater access to larger hard drives. Log-structured file system (LFS) D. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers.51. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3. distributed link tracking.com rtK ille r. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) C. and 3. What is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1. The Alert. Choose two. over time. Reference: TechNet. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. High Performance File System (HPFS) B.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions. These features are not available on FAT volumes. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. and mounted drives. 3. What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT. Windows 2000/2003. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. It supports file system recovery. and other features. Windows NT file system (NTFS) E. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing Internet Information Server" QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. NTFS also offers security features.c om 109 . Answer option E is incorrect. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. over time.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor.1. The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. such as encryption and file and folder permissions. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. large storage media.

Answer option B is incorrect. B. chips on the motherboard or adapters. Unplug other cards from the motherboard. 32 D. You are not required to unplug other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card. D. Wear wrist strap. you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. Answer option D is incorrect. you experience a mild shock. 8 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What is video RAM? Video RAM is a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor screen.www. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. 16 B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 324 What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM? A. QUESTION NO: 325 What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor? A. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. C. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the computer parts. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM). such as. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems.com rtK ille r. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. 64 C. You should never turn the power on while installing hardware components on a computer. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. Switch on the computer. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. It works as a buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer.certkiller.c om 110 . Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. Answer: C Explanation: As a precaution. Answer option A is incorrect.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. use Disk Management. or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume.c om . recreate the RAID5 volume. the volume must be locked by the operating system. C. and then re-creates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. the failed disk becomes an orphan. Take the following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs > Administrative Tools > Computer Management. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup. Then create partitions and format new disks.certkiller. select a new area of free space and then regenerate the volume. QUESTION NO: 326 As a Network Administrator. All network connections to the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. Replace the drive. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection QUESTION NO: 327 Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Intel Pentium microprocessors are also based on a 32-bit data bus. you are concerned about fault tolerance. Replace the failed drive. In the console tree under Storage. you may have to restart your computer. B. You are using a RAID5 volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus. Choose two. To regenerate a RAID5 volume. The next day. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks. "Slay Your Exams" . A new area of free space of the same size. and then regenerate the stripe set. Answer: A Explanation: When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails. and then restore data from the tape backup. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks.com 111 Ce rtK ille r. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume.www. What is the function of the Disk Management tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. D. replace the drive. go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. click on Disk Management. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus. What will you do? A. should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. you find that one of the drives has failed.

and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic. Web Proxy logs. "Slay Your Exams" .www. which may result in a broadcast storm.com rtK ille Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. Windows NT system log. QUESTION NO: 328 Answer: D Explanation: The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network.c om 112 . In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet.C Explanation: A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server. which serves network resources to the network client computer. D. FTP or Gopher objects. you can detect the faulty NIC through the network monitor software or by the elimination process. Network Monitor. can cause a broadcast storm on the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The Web Proxy service log contains information about client requests for HTTP. The Windows NT system log contains information about various system events. Slow workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network. thus generating traffic on the network. another computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent requests. Performance Monitor. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic. B. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to the SMTP server. A down network server. whereas SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service. D. port etc. An SMTP server is installed on the internal network. Faulty NIC on a networked computer. C. Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP traffic is coming from? r.certkiller. Reference: TechNet. Voltage fluctuation Answer: B. Slow workstation systems B. In case of a server that is down. which can be analyzed to determine the protocol. IP address. Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor" QUESTION NO: 329 Ce A. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses. C.

What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. IRQ is an infrared communication device. which is not supported by an older BIOS. In general. if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. The motherboard B. C. The System's BIOS Answer: D Explanation: A BIOS upgrade is required. only one device should be assigned to each IRQ.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. on the motherboard. Surge protector D.certkiller. Reference: TechNet. QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following statements is true about IRQ? Answer: D Explanation: IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU.c om 113 . what will you have to upgrade? A. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU. SMPS B. UPS C.www. D. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Contents: Chapter 1 . IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices. Switch Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The hard disk controller C. RAM D.Administering Windows NT Systems QUESTION NO: 331 Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem? A. B.com rtK A. ille r. IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip.

Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: To resolve the low voltage problem. B. Answer: B Explanation: To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. An antiglare screen. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . while the computer gets normal power. Answer option D is incorrect. D.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a computer.c om 114 . you should wear a wrist strap when you are working on computer components. A wrist strap. Answer option A is incorrect. C. Wearing synthetic clothes can make the ESD problem worse. When power surge occurs. Answer option A is incorrect. A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a clip on the other end.Planning a Reliable Configuration" Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems? A. A plastic CPU cover.www. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab. Contents: "Chapter 4 .com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 332 r. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model. using battery backup. Answer option C is incorrect. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. It happens when your body or clothes come in contact with computer components. An antiglare screen on the monitor is used to protect the eyes from radiation. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components.certkiller. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. It also provides protection against power surges. The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Reference: TechNet. A plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem. Answer option D is incorrect. This reduces the network traffic.

B. Reference: "http://en. C.133 MB/second. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. C. networking.certkiller. Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller. It consumes less power.wikipedia. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? A. A blade enclosure. B. D. A. various interconnects and management. A blade server requires administration and does not improve network performance. provides services such as power. Answer: B. Though. which can hold multiple blade servers. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. and B are incorrect. Answer options A and D are incorrect. AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing. Answer: A Explanation: AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. AGP provides improved network performance.com rtK ille r. answer options C. D. Choose two.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 333 Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.C Explanation: A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers. D. It takes less space than conventional servers. It improves network performance. Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. Therefore.c om 115 .www. minimize power consumption and other considerations. cooling. Contents: "Motherboard and Buses" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. which enables fast video performance. It requires zero administration. blade servers have many components removed to save space.

it responds "Slay Your Exams" . PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily routed in the exposed areas of an office.c om . The company has a server that has a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives. the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang up and processor damage. Cotton ribbon D. Computer hangs B. Processor fan failure does not affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive.C Explanation: In an event of processor fan failure. The server also runs the DNS service. QUESTION NO: 336 Answer: A. Processor damage D. Plenum B. Hard drive failure rtK ille Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. PVC C. Choose all that apply. Floppy drive failure C. when it burns. Users report that when they query the database or update data.certkiller. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 337 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Reference: TechNet. Fiber Answer: B Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket for a cable. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning. However. r. fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke. it emits poisonous gases. The server contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit.com 116 Ce A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 335 Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket? A. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false ceiling and the floor above.www.

3. Mark can take the following steps: 1. Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server. Answer: A. This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. B.Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array.C Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Thirty-three C. "Slay Your Exams" . The read-write performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5. If a portion of a physical disk fails. with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. A. Since one hard disk drive is included as a spare disk. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Five D. D. What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array. Both the partitions must be of same size. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives.B. Two Answer: A Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. striped volume (RAID-0). Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. Answer option D is incorrect. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller.certkiller.c om .Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. Move the DNS service to another server. Choose three. including a spare hard disk drive? A. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence improve its performance.com 117 Ce QUESTION NO: 338 rtK ille r.Move the DNS service to another server. 2. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes because they write data to multiple locations.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam slowly.www. four disks is the right choice. Paging files do not need fault-tolerance. Four B. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. C. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server.

B. Reference: Windows 2000 Help. Sectors D. You will require five additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. D.C QUESTION NO: 340 Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel.B. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP). Each processor has its own memory address space. SMP is easier to implement. Head and Sectors. as it has multiple processors and other components "Slay Your Exams" .c om . A. AMD Athlon MP. The processors share a common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data. C.B. Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes'. etc.D Explanation: Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. However in case of RAID1 array. than RAID1 array. A. SMP is most commonly found on the x86-based architecture. which includes Pentium II. 'Using mirrored volumes' QUESTION NO: 339 Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. r. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. Choose three. RAID5 array has a better read performance. Cluster Answer: A. thus if the data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance. mirror can be establish between two disks. Cylinders and sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization.com 118 Ce rtK ille Explanation: The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel. Pentium III. Choose three. Cylinders B. Each processor shares the same memory. The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due to its low costs. Answer: A.certkiller. Heads are used to read and write data on the hard disk. Heads C.www. In this architecture.

. Answer option C is incorrect. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. D.c om . Maintain a printed tape backup report. Implement the cluster server. Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup report. It allows computers to use more physical memory. Answer option D is incorrect. each processor has its own memory address space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform. a virtual server name. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. which is used to access and manage the cluster. in Asymmetrical Multi. so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server. Answer option A is incorrect. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are shared by them such as the memory. operating system.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 341 What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers? A. C. Reference: "http://en. During the testing of the recovery plan. QUESTION NO: 342 A.wikipedia. Answer: C Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than 504MB. Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's dat a.certkiller. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB.e. etc. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the disaster recovery plan. "Slay Your Exams" .www. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan? ille r. It allows computers to access data faster. I/O subsystem. B. C. B.Processing (ASMP). It will increase the administrative burden. Answer: B Explanation: In order to improve the disaster recovery plan.com 119 Ce rtK Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. D. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data. On the other hand.

The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec. The company has offices at different locations of a city. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet specifications are the use of star topology. QUESTION NO: 343 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. 10 meters D. Answer option C is incorrect. You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for interconnecting the offices.certkiller.c om 120 . The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications: Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic QUESTION NO: 344 Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6 server? A. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The Restart Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice.ncf file. Restart Server -ns D.www. DOWN-fs Answer: B Explanation: The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting.com rtK ille r. as it is possible that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises. 2000 meters B. Restart Server -na B. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: 100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiberoptic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000 meters for full duplex connections. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network? A. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. 100 meters C.ncf file. DOWN-f C.

Answer option C is incorrect. update the NetBIOS name cache. Windows Backup utility D.www. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. NETSTAT B. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 345 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. There is no utility such as IPSTAT.com rtK ille r. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address.c om 121 . Automated System Recovery (ASR) B. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. IPSTAT Answer: A Explanation: The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite.certkiller. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your computer. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option B is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. QUESTION NO: 346 Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003? A. which allows users to manage the network. SNMP C. Answer option E is incorrect. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Which of the following will you use? A. incoming and outgoing data. NTDSUTIL utility C. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). Answer option D is incorrect. ARP D. NBTSTAT E. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network.

CPU D. QUESTION NO: 347 A. ERD includes portion of the registry. This utility is used to perform the following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory. an excessive amount of input/output to the "Slay Your Exams" . and arranged in a RAID configuration to increase speed. It does not back up folders and files. Answer option B is incorrect. NTDSUTIL. Choose two. She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%. ERD can be created through the RDISK. Managing and controlling operations master roles. Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. It is used to perform a restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one. is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU bottleneck. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer option D is incorrect.c om . The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers. and click OK.EXE is a command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. Hard disk C. and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely fashion. Therefore. which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003. Memory Answer: A. and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. computer's default profile (NTUSER. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is subjected to excessive amount of input/output.D Explanation: % Processor Time value of 90. the current Disk Queue Length is 4. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. go to Start menu > Run. ASR backs up the system data and local system partition. On the other hand. and CONFIG.BAT. To start RDISK.DAT). and computer's configuration files (SETUP. To restore the information from ERD.LOG. type RDISK.SYS). The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003. rtK ille r. ERD is not self bootable.com 122 Ce Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU and one hard disk. AUTOEXEC. Note:The NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators. Based on this information. or less. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. An ASR restore includes the configuration information for devices.www. These files are stored in compressed format. Network adapter B.EXE utility.

Answer options B. the memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. B.c om . BIOS configuration error. a blank screen is displayed. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable. Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is working properly. Incompatible hard disk drive. Pages Writes/sec D. Contents:Chapter 8 . When he powers on the computer. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer.www. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the cache is correctly configured. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive.Monitoring Performance QUESTION NO: 348 Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer. Pages/sec B. make sure that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends. a blank screen is displayed. and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free "Slay Your Exams" .e.certkiller. Pages Input/sec Answer: A Explanation: The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults.com 123 Ce rtK Explanation: The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk drive. i.. and D are incorrect. C. C. D. BIOS configuration error. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults? A. Pages Outout/sec C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory. and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem. the HDD and IDE controller ends. Answer option C is incorrect. What is the most likely cause? A. Reference: TechNet. ille r. To determine if memory is a bottleneck. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. Answer option B is incorrect.

Answer option C is incorrect.10).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam up space in physical memory. 2.certkiller. A. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. none of them will work.aspx" QUESTION NO: 350 You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. QUESTION NO: 351 Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality D. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. There is no such setting as Secondary. Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave. Which of the following are the possible combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. Choose all that apply. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. or Slave.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. Slave. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as Secondary. The Pages Input/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults. Explanation: While installing two hard disk drives on a computer. Install the drives.www. Answer option D is incorrect. B. Reference: "http://technet. An operating system that supports SCSI devices Ce "Slay Your Exams" . any one of the following two combinations can be used: 1.microsoft. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave.D om 124 . Which of the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware? A. C. An operating system that supports SMP C. If two drives are attached to one controller.Install the drives.com rtK ille r. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. An operating system that supports SNMP B. D.c Answer: B.

com 125 Ce rtK ille r. and security. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk. As ROM is relatively slower than RAM. Answer options A. When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer. and D are incorrect. and configures the device appropriately. because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. C. "Slay Your Exams" . you have to select an operating system that supports Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). Reference: "http://en. the Plug and Play compliant operating system automatically detects it. D. With proper operating system support.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: In order to take full benefit of hardware. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 352 What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer? A. C. In the case of multi-core processors. and device drivers. What is conventional memory? Conventional memory. performance.certkiller. Plug and Play. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration. B. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory. What is SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks. SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently. the SMP architecture applies to the cores. But it should be done only as the last resort.c om . also known as low-DOS or base memory. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP architecture. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the ROM BIOS. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory. Answer: D Explanation: Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the extended memory. installs the required drivers.www. statistics collections. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no matter where the data for that task are located in memory. treating them as separate processors.wikipedia. or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory. All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature. devices. An operating system supporting SNMP.

A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. Six devices. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) . A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. B. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB. Surge C. Reference: TechNet. ESD B. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Broadcast storm D. radiation from the power cable.c om 126 . QUESTION NO: 354 How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller? A. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. It is used to load and process data needed by the active programs. excluding one host bus adapter card. Answer option C is incorrect.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Contents: Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528] QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable? A. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on.www.certkiller. you experience a mild shock. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. Answer option B is incorrect. thereby increasing the traffic. Answer option A is incorrect. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly. including one host bus adapter card. C. Eight devices. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. EMI Answer: D Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. Nine devices. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card. including one host bus adapter card.

IP address-to-host name mappings. DHCP server B. Answer: C Explanation: A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers. Two devices. Database server Answer: B Explanation: A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple communication channels together. Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical connections to their customers. including one host bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers.org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. two models emerge: multiple entities connecting to a single resource. Answer option D is incorrect. for example customers who get Internet through some form of modem. Both of these models are widely used. including one host bus adapter card. Reference: "http://en. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. the user will not be able to communicate with anyone on the network or access network resources. DNS server D.wikipedia. etc. Hence. QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection? A.www. a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers only.com rtK ille r.c om 127 . It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. without valid TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server. A DHCP server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. Note: If the DHCP server is offline. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. so that they can communicate with other network services. A database server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. Both physical and virtual resources can be provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a remote virtual operating system. and a single entity connecting to multiple resources. information about the domain tree structure. RAS server C. Because these channels are bidirectional.

What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. since the last incremental or full backup. you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this? A. D. C. or are new. Incremental. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 357 What does SCSI stand for? A.www. The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of dat a. Contents: "Description of Full. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. Explanation: The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Therefore. Reference: TechNet. For safe storage. It needs only one tape to restore data. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. Small Computer Systems Interface.c om Answer: C 128 . Full backup is a good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental backup.certkiller.com rtK ille r. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly. E. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays. Small Computer Serial Interface. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. B. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. C. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes. Small Component Systems Interface. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 356 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. You are designing a data backup plan for your company's network.

ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential.Device Management" QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer? A. B. C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation. to access files. There is no such command as telcli. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal. C. Reference: TechNet. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer: C Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface.wikipedia. Reference: "http://en. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer.www. and facilitates remote administration. These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the computer. such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive.com 129 Ce rtK ille r. Answer: D Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. B. you will type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. "Slay Your Exams" .c om . SCSI devices. Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. Answer option A is incorrect. and SCSI-3. Answer options C and B are incorrect.certkiller. offers the ability to run programs remotely. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.org/wiki/Telnet" QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Contents: "Chapter 19 . Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. SCSI-2. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. D.

certkiller. and few other settings are lost. B. D. The computer will start losing the date and time. C. The computer will hang frequently. there will be no static difference between them that can cause ESD. date. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. TRACERT Answer: C. PING D. "Slay Your Exams" . It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. Choose two. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. If you touch any sensitive electronic component. The computer will take time to reboot.c om 130 . with your hand. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery.D Ce Explanation: When you turn off the computer and turn it on again.com rtK ille r. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 361 Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. QUESTION NO: 360 How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged? A. like an adapter or drive. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential. NETSTAT C. IPCONFIG B. Answer: D Explanation: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge.www. you find that the date and time. A. The computer's processing speed will slow down.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed.

of all memory modules on the motherboard. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM. the motherboard supports only same type of memory module. You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems. QUESTION NO: 363 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.TCP/IP" QUESTION NO: 362 You are upgrading your server. Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is. Answer option B is incorrect. What does this indicate? A. incoming and outgoing data. subnet mask. like SIMM or DIMM. According to its manual. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. incoming and outgoing data.com rtK ille r. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. D. C. like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the motherboard. such as IP address. "Same type." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module. like DIMM or SIMM. default gateway etc. B. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.c om 131 . IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Same type. Answer option A is incorrect. Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard.certkiller. Reference: TechNet. Contents: "Networking . The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages. of a networked computer.. Answer option B is incorrect. PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: PING and TRACERT are similar in function.www. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.

Disk striping offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management strategies. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Level 5 B. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. To keep CPU temperature low. Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box. To improve air circulation in the CPU box. Level 3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping. To improve performance of the computer. Level 0 D.www. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy? A.com 132 Ce rtK ille r. RAID levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. Answer option B is incorrect. like volume sets. However. To make CPU faster. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. striped volume (RAID-0).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Answer options A and D are incorrect. C. If a portion of a "Slay Your Exams" . The fans inside the CPU box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low. it does not provide fault tolerance.C Explanation: High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. Both the partitions must be of same size. B. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. A. Answer: A. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. Reference: TechNet. If any partition in the set fails. D. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. Choose all that apply. Level 1 C.certkiller. RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring and provides data redundancy. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. Data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array.c om . What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. all the data is lost.

you restart the server. Answer option B is incorrect. D. It indicates that the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server. you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.wikipedia. If the server is not booted. Eight B. You find that the server is unable to boot.certkiller. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. Which of the following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly? A.c Explanation: The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices. Reference: "http://en. After installing the device driver.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks" QUESTION NO: 365 How many devices does the EIDE system support? A. B.www. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter. C. Answer option A is incorrect. One QUESTION NO: 366 You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network. Answer: D Explanation: In order to enable the server to boot properly.com 133 Ce rtK ille r. Four D. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. Answer option C is incorrect. the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Run the Scandisk utility on the server. the server is unable to boot. you need to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process. Two C. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. It can only improve the performance of the server if the server is in use. Therefore. om Answer: C . RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam physical disk fails. Increase RAM on the server. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a "Slay Your Exams" .

What is the most likely cause? A. B. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. The UPS software is not properly configured. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits. D. it does not have to be "Slay Your Exams" .D Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. When power surge occurs. UPS is not configured to a power source.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM. SRAM is used for caching. You install a new UPS and connect it to a server through a serial cable.com 134 Ce Explanation: The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided with the UPS is not properly configured. B. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. A. Answer option D is incorrect.C.www. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS. UPS and server always use serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged.certkiller. A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS. Answer: A. using battery backup. It is significantly faster than DRAM. UPS cannot be configured to a power source. QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. Answer option B is incorrect. rtK ille r. It also provides protection against power surges. C. C. SRAM is made of capacitors.c om Answer: A . QUESTION NO: 367 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Answer option C is incorrect. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port. D. while the computer gets normal power.

Answer option B is incorrect. as it needs to be refreshed. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM. DRAM is slower than SRAM.com rtK ille r. Answer: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny capacitors. identify the area to which you connect a hard disk drive. SRAM memory chips are generally used for caching. QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below.certkiller.c om 135 .www.

com rtK ille r.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 136 .certkiller.

These platters are attached to the spindle motor. The read/write heads are attached to the head actuator. improves on the AT design. The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT. The read/write heads are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. A. the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. known as platters.certkiller. ATX. which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters.c om 137 . based on the IBM AT motherboard. On the typical motherboard. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several disks. In both the AT and ATX designs. IIS C.www. A more recent motherboard specification.com rtK ille r. What is a motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE controller. Browser service D. the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows: The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below: QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter using 40 or 80 wire cables. Choose two. DNS Ce "Slay Your Exams" . WINS B.

certkiller.com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS.com rtK Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive on the primary IDE interface. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. Reference: "http://technet. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network.microsoft. Answer option C is incorrect. and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive. Answer: B Explanation: Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. etc. What will be the maximum data transfer rate of both drives? ille r.host name mappings. Answer option D is incorrect. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service that supports Web site creation. information about the domain tree structure.10).c om 138 . the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due to the chipset limitation. as the motherboard chipset is not compatible with the ATA-100 data transfer rate. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. he purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface. Answer option C is incorrect.D Explanation: The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. If an ATA-100 hard disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard.aspx" QUESTION NO: 371 A. D. The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. C. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive. and management. There is no such motherboard or hard disk as the ATA-166. and the ATA-100 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. Answer option B is incorrect. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested. IP address-to. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).www. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate. along with other Internet functions. The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources. configuration.

certkiller. Reference: TechNet. The company has a TCP/IP-based Windows NT network. RAID-1 B. I/O address B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 372 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition.c om 139 . you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. Among the three RAID levels. RAID-5. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. also known as mirrored set. RAID-4 E. RAID-5 C. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). Master/Slave setting D. RAID-1. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. Answer options E and D are incorrect. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Contents: "NT Server and Disk Subsystem Performance" QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance. SCSI Identification Ce "Slay Your Exams" . is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. also known as stripe set with parity. Which of the following RAID levels will you choose to fulfil the requirement? A. RAID-1 has the poorest performance. Both the partitions must be of the same size.com rtK ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. also known as stripe set. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the network. RAID-3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID-0. Answer option A is incorrect. A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement. It has better performance than a mirror set. LUN C. RAID-0 D. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance. If a portion of a physical disk fails.www.

its I/O address.certkiller. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7. to communicate with any peripheral device. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups. IRQs. Whenever a component. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. LUN C. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives" QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. SCSI-2. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. Therefore.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device "Slay Your Exams" . Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Answer option A is incorrect. Master/Slave setting D. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. I/O address B. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Reference: TechNet. SCSI Identification Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. IRQ. The CPU needs a memory address. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. Answer option B is incorrect. and DMA channels must be correctly configured.com 140 Ce rtK ille r. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID.c om . Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI devices. SCSI ID 7 has top priority. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. Answer option C is incorrect. Resources such as I/O addresses. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC.www. and SCSI-3.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

Answer:

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You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective boxes.

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QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Explanation:

The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below: TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length 1000BaseSX550 meters 100BaseFX2000 meters 100BaseTX100 meters 1000BaseCX25 meters 1000BaseT100 meters

QUESTION NO: 376 HOTSPOT

In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 377

Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mouse type B. RAM size C. Boot sequence D. Shadow RAM E. Hard disk drive parameters F. Date and time G. Floppy disk drive parameters Answer: C,D,E,F,G

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Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

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the BIOS will issue a warning. When you configure shadow RAM.com rtK A. What will Mark do next after installing the application properly? om QUESTION NO: 378 145 . B. Ce Answer: B "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option A is incorrect. the hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration. used to compare different configurations. If the hardware is not configured according to the BIOS configuration. Explanation: After the installation of the application.www. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. As he is concerned about the performance of the application server. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range.c Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new server baselines. Print the server hardware configuration. Answer option D is incorrect. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server. The security log does not store log about success or failure of application installations. the server baseline will be helpful to analyze the server performance after the installation of the application.certkiller. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application. ille r. D. This allows faster access to BIOS information. as there is no change in the hardware of the server. Once a baseline for network usage has been determined. the additional bandwidth available for the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. But. Create a new server baseline. Mark is concerned about the performance of the application server. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. Mark should create a new server baseline. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Answer option C is incorrect. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer. What is baseline? Baseline measures maximum system capacity and performance. There is no need to take a printout of the hardware configuration. Monitor disk utilization. The company has a Windows 2000based application server that serves applications to the users.

Create a backup strategy. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Answer: D Explanation: The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation. Hardware resource conflict occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other devices. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. A broadcast storm on the network.certkiller. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. Plan the installation. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system.c om 146 . Answer option C is incorrect. Hardware resource conflict B. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment? A.com rtK ille r.www. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. Creating a backup strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre. C. The general protection fault does not occur due to humidity. QUESTION NO: 380 Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. full-time connection to a network. B. Answer: D Explanation: Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow around the chips and result in short circuit.installation plan. D. Configure a subnet mask on the computer. A. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. Choose two. General protection fault C. Answer option A is incorrect.

B. ERP. minimize power consumption and other considerations. cooling. A. Blade servers C. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer? A. PCI Slot C. in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the smallest single-user systems computers). Microcomputers B. Mainframes D. networking.c om . Minicomputers Answer: B Explanation: Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space.D Explanation: A modern motherboard has several components built in. Choose three. and financial transaction processing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following have many components removed to save space. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the computing spectrum. typically bulk data processing. industry and consumer statistics. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. CMOSBattery B.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. ROM BIOS E. Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications. Most modern motherboards have the following major components: "Slay Your Exams" .wikipedia. Floppy disk drive Answer: A. provides services such as power. which can hold multiple blade servers. No components are removed from these.certkiller. Reference: "http://en. Though. blade servers have many components removed to save space. Hard disk drive D. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. A blade enclosure.com 147 Ce rtK ille r. Answer options D. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. minimize power consumption and other considerations. C. and A are incorrect. various interconnects and management.www.

identify the area showing the Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) slots.www. 1. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 148 . ille r. They are separate units.75 x 20) inches. 35 inches C. QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Processor-slot/socket Chipset ROM BIOS SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots CPU voltage regulator Battery Answer options C and E are incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1.75 inches B. Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the motherboard.com rtK Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. 1.75 inches . or height of racks.85 inches D.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. U is the standard unit of measure for designating the vertical usable space. 5.25 inches Answer: A QUESTION NO: 384 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below.

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He wants to use a type of RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10. SRAM B. Contents: "Appendix C . EDO RAM "Slay Your Exams" .com 150 Ce You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots. EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. These slots are larger than PCI or VESA slots. EISA bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: QUESTION NO: 385 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Reference: TechNet.certkiller. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements.Hardware Support" rtK ille r. Which of the following types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task? A.7 GB/sec. PCI slots are usually white in color. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. such as the display subsystem.c om . The company has a database server.www. DDR SDRAM C. Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM. RDRAM D. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus.

SNMP v1 B. QUESTION NO: 386 Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities? A. With a bus frequency of 200 MHz. Answer option D is incorrect.2 GB/sec. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5 volumes? A. such as additional protocol operations.www. Answer option A is incorrect. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for fault tolerance. which allows users to manage the network. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Answer options A and C are incorrect. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. Unlike DRAM. SNMP v6 Answer: B Explanation: SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server. QUESTION NO: 387 You are installing Windows 2000 Server. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication feature. but SNMP v2 offers enhancements. SNMP v1 and v2 have a number of common features. One B. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports bandwidths from 1.c om 151 . SNMP v2 D. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Answer option B is incorrect.6 GB/sec to 10. SNMP v3 C.7 GB/sec. Two Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM.7 GB/sec. DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3. Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r.

RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored or extended. Three D.certkiller. Thirty-two Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. Store the password.com rtK ille r. Change the password regularly. do not reuse the previous password. 14 inches B. 52.c om 152 . 21 inches C. Do not reuse passwords. you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity.5 inches Answer: D Explanation: Ce Explanation: The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly. A. In case of a physical disk failure. C. D. B. Do not reuse passwords.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.www. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good password policies. While you are changing the password. "Slay Your Exams" . Discuss the password with anyone. QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: A. RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks. 31.C QUESTION NO: 389 What is the height of the 30U server rack? A. Answer options B and D are incorrect.5 inches D. Choose all that apply.

com 153 Ce What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. r.certkiller.5 inches . Slot 2 and Socket 7 D. Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers. Answer option B is incorrect. therefore. Answer: C. QUESTION NO: 390 Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors? A. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory. C.D Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed. Answer option C is incorrect. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be refreshed. Pentium MMX.c om . D. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . Answer option D is incorrect. SRAM is faster than DRAM. The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and Duron processors use Socket QUESTION NO: 391 A. B. and AMD's K6. SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory. Intel's Pentium. Answer options C and A are incorrect. "Slay Your Exams" . The 18U server rack has a height of 31. Slot 1 and Socket A Answer: B Explanation: Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. With an access time of 15 to 30 nanoseconds.www.5 inches . Choose two. Slot 2 and Socket 370 B. Answer option A is incorrect. rtK ille A. DRAM is faster than SRAM. and some K5 model processors use Socket 7.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 30U server rack has a height of 52. Slot 1 and Socket 370 C. DRAM requires more power than that of SRAM.

The error codes will print. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. ROM BIOS Answer: D Explanation: The ROM BIOS.c om . D. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manuurer. You find that a POST error has occurred. such as the keyboard. it begins a Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Motherboard C. How will you use it? rtK ille r. B.certkiller. Insert the card into an open bus slot. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 392 Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test? A.www. C. It does not store instruction for the POST routine. EDO RAM B. Boot the computer. QUESTION NO: 393 A. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. C. Microprocessor D. stores instruction for Power On Self Test.com 154 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Connect the card to a serial port. is plugged in on the computer's motherboard. When you turn on or restart a computer. It also does not print error codes. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer: A Explanation: POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. a type of random access memory. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk. It does not store instruction for the POST operation. Boot the computer. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. The error codes will display on the adapter. When a computer is turned on or "Slay Your Exams" . A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system. Answer options B. EDO RAM. a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error. Answer option B is incorrect. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card. and D are incorrect.

But your system does not support the 4GB hard disk. Answer options C. QUESTION NO: 394 You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system.com 155 Ce rtK ille r.c om .certkiller. QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables? A. Media tester D.SYS B.SYS Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD. What will you do to upgrade "Slay Your Exams" . Which file is required if your system uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled? A. Tone generator B. SCSI. Punch down tool Answer: B Explanation: Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. such as keyboard. Media tester. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. SCSIBOOT. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam restarted. when using SCSI controller with BIOS disabled.SYS D. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system. and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables.000.www. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. D. Optical time domain reflectometer C. QUESTION NO: 396 You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk. and A are incorrect. punch down tool. SCSIBIOS.

B. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. QUESTION NO: 397 Answer: B Explanation: To support fault tolerance. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume. Configure the disks to a spanned volume. Replace the motherboard. The server has eight 40GB hard disks. What will he do to accomplish this? r. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume. The network has a Windows 2000 server. Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. First he must backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume. new BIOS will be functional. Mark wants to reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume.com 156 Ce A. Install a new operating system. a computer "Slay Your Exams" . C. and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. Configure the disks to an active partition. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. you can upgrade by the Flashing method. C. D. Then he must create a RAID5 volume using six disks. Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. If a portion of a physical disk fails. rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. ROM BIOS chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version. In this method. B. After uploading the software and rebooting the machine. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity. If your motherboard is using an Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip. If no partition is set as Active. while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard. A RAID5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the BIOS? A. D. you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. and the volume should have the maximum space for storing data. Answer option C is incorrect.www.certkiller. it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity.c om . Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one additional disk for the volume.

caller ID. the target computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP address. the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to handle any more connections. A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk.com rtK ille r.www. Answer option A is incorrect. thereby denying service to legitimate users. When an attacker sends TCP SYNs repeatedly. Using this technique. PING attack C. Answer option D is incorrect. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. Reference: Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes". Answer option A is incorrect. email address. Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway" QUESTION NO: 399 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. However. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. For each SYN packet received. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. it attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. etc. Answer option B is incorrect. SYN attack D. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. It can be created on dynamic disks only. etc. chatting on-line. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped.c om 157 . Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. it is known as a PING attack. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. Hacking B. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state. In Windows 2000/2003. an attacker sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. In IP spoofing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam does not boot from the hard disk drive. Spoofing Answer: C Explanation: A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. "Using mirrored volumes" QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open? A. Reference: TechNet. When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer.

certkiller. Add more RAM to the server. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection. Ultra 160 SCSI B. Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server. SCSI-2 D.c om 158 . The server has a dual processor motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. Answer option A is incorrect. It also improves network uptime by protecting the network in the event of a network adapter failure. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in improving the server's network connection speed. It will not increase the network connection speed. It can only help in improving the server's data processing performance. The company's network has a file server that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. Answer option B is incorrect. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to the server will not affect the server's network connection speed. Ce Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate? "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 400 A. Add a processor to the server's motherboard. The server is connected to the network through a 10/100 Mbps switch. D. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming.www. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic efficiently between the network adapters. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI. What will he do to accomplish this? A. SCSI-3 Answer: D Explanation: Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec.com rtK ille r. Answer option E is incorrect. B. Answer option C is incorrect. SCSI3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec. Answer: A Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. Ultra 320 SCSI E. C. Adding a processor will improve the performance of data processing on the server. Ultra 160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. Answer option C is incorrect. SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. Answer option B is incorrect. Ultra 900 SCSI C. Answer option D is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.

The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory. it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST). in bytes. that can be committed without having to extend the paging file.microsoft. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's "Slay Your Exams" . the most likely cause is that the processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. You upgrade a server's processor. Answer option B is incorrect. Committed Bytes B. C. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.aspx" QUESTION NO: 402 A.www. Therefore. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size. Answer option A is incorrect. the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking. Answer option D is incorrect.com 159 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc. The Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory.c om . The BIOS is not flashed.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 401 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use? A. Processors do not have jumpers. There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. Commit Limit Answer: C Explanation: The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. After the upgrade.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. Cache size is not a requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST). The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference: "http://technet. Available Bytes D. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started. B. What is the most likely cause? rtK ille r. D. Answer: C Explanation: Since the server was working before the upgrade.10). Cache Bytes Peak C. in bytes.

B. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. Choose three. Current Bytes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. such as keyboard. Answer option A is incorrect. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Answer: A. A.certkiller.com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1. Bytes Total/sec B. Add more RAM. which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level. Examine the server log. loose hardware contact.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam motherboard. Answer option C is incorrect.com 160 Ce rtK ille r.aspx" QUESTION NO: 404 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Current Bandwidth C. It measures the total amount of data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup. There is no such counter as Current Bytes/sec. Answer option D is incorrect.c om .B. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. When a computer is turned on or restarted. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet. C. D. the server was handling the same level of workload without any problem. Some weeks ago. Run the hardware diagnostic utility.www. Output Queue Length D. Which of the following steps can Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks? A. E. malfunctioning add-on cards.D Explanation: Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has. Reference: "http://www. and the failure of cooling devices such as "Slay Your Exams" .sql-serverperformance. The company's network contains a file server.

Run the hardware diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male connector.com rtK ille r. Reference: TechNet. It can be useful to improve server performance. and SMPS fan. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable B. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps: Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector? A. Answer option C is incorrect. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors.c om 161 . Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem? A. The administrator has to check that the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. 10BaseT Ethernet cable Answer: D Explanation: A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter jack on a computer. adding more RAM cannot help to resolve the issue. Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any accident or disaster. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector. NSLOOKUP D. Serial port C. Contents: "Building a Home Network. Check the cooling components such as heat sink. Part 1" QUESTION NO: 406 You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware. He also has to check whether the fans attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly.www. Answer option E is incorrect. VGA/SVGA video adapter D. Hence. TRACERT B.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. Moreover. VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector. processor fan. PING Ce "Slay Your Exams" . IPCONFIG C. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in size.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the fans inside the server cabinet. You are having DNS resolution problem. corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot. Answer option C is incorrect.

The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. Answer option A is incorrect. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.c om . The management does not want the backup plan to interfere with the network during business hours. You are planning a data backup plan for the company's network.9 AM to 5 PM. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone.com 162 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. and debugging other server-related problems. Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools [Q217014]" QUESTION NO: 407 A. This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full backup.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. Friday D. On which of the following days can you perform a full backup? rtK ille r. It is also used to display. Tuesday E. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Reference: TechNet. or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.11GB/hour. the destination host responds with a series of replies. register. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. Monday B.11GB/hour. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday . and data transfer rate of the tape drive is 2. Thursday Answer: C Explanation: The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Wednesday C. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases.certkiller. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. Answer option D is incorrect. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. Answer option B is incorrect. What is the "Slay Your Exams" . You configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2. On receiving the packets. it will run on the following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company.

When he prints a Word document. B. What is the most likely cause? A. When you run the DIR command on D: drive. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. Reference: TechNet.D QUESTION NO: 409 You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave. "Slay Your Exams" . on your system. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed.certkiller. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. and Differential Backups [Q136621" QUESTION NO: 408 David configured a system as a print server on the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. E. Choose two. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. A. you receive an error message. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Hard disk drive has no partition. Printer cable is loose B. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive.www. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. D. Faulty printer cartridge C. Faulty printer driver Answer: A.c om 163 . The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS. When you boot the system with a bootable floppy disk. or are new. Hard disk drive is not formatted. you access the hard disk as D: drive. Ce Explanation: The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters. Faulty RAM on print server D. Incremental. It needs only one tape to restore data. Hard disk drive cable is faulty. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. the page is printed with junk characters.com rtK ille r. Contents: "Description of Full. C. since the last incremental or full backup.

Answer option C is incorrect. you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive. BIOS configuration and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because. this option is incorrect. NTBACKUP C. Category 3 C. QUESTION NO: 410 Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps? A. ille r. Therefore. If the hard disk is not partitioned. It consists of four twistedpairs with three twists per foot. BACKUP D. Category 1 refers to the traditional Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables. Category 5 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 411 You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. Category 1 B. These files are stored in compressed format. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 16 Mbps.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted.certkiller. It consists of four twistedpairs of copper wire. RDISK B.c om . The question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. "Slay Your Exams" . ERD /NT Answer: A Explanation: Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure.com 164 Ce rtK Explanation: Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. Answer option B is incorrect. which can carry voice but not data. Which utility will you use? A. Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. Category 4 D.www. in that case you cannot access the hard disk drive as D: drive. Answer option A is incorrect. It consists of four twisted-pairs.

Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous clients. Create a new server baseline. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam ERD includes portion of the registry. B. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server.EXE utility. and click OK. Run Disk Defragmenter on the server. and CONFIG.c om . To restore the information from ERD. computer's default profile (NTUSER. ERD is not self bootable. Reference: TechNet. You have checked and verified that the application is working properly. Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]" QUESTION NO: 412 Your company's network has a file server. To start RDISK.com 165 Ce rtK Explanation: After installing a new application on the server.LOG. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. and A are incorrect.BAT. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following servers provides network file storage? A. C.www.SYS). go to Start menu > Run. Install the latest service pack on the server. Proxy server B. ERD can be created through the RDISK. ille r. NAS server C. DNS server D. A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. What should you do next? A. You have installed a new application on the server. Although it may "Slay Your Exams" .DAT). Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. D. Answer options D. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. B. you should create a new server baseline. Add more RAM to the server. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. type RDISK. AUTOEXEC. DHCP server Answer: B Explanation: The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage.

Reference: "http://en. it is not designed to be a general purpose server. web page. Answer option A is incorrect. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client.www.c QUESTION NO: 414 om . requesting some service. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of memory. Answer option D is incorrect. IP address-to-host name mappings. but it is almost always a hardware problem. C. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage" What is the meaning of parity error? Explanation: Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display. A DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network. Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service.x [Q93521]" QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter? "Slay Your Exams" . If the request is validated by the filter. Parity error occurs due to faulty memory. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. often using a browser.wikipedia. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information. information about the domain tree structure.com 166 Ce Answer: B rtK A. D.certkiller. the "parity bit". B. available from a different server. such as a file.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit. Reference: TechNet. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk. and are controlled and configured over the network. ille r. until the problem disappears. is used to store the parity of the data. etc. A client connects to the proxy server. For example. or other resource. Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit. Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows 3. Answer option C is incorrect. A parity error can be caused by different circumstances. connection. and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. Parity is a basic check of information integrity. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries.

Level 1 B.certkiller. Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring? A. Distorted display. Level 5 Answer: A Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Reference: "http://www.php/10954_3328281_2/Keep. Output Queue Length counter C. The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. What can happen in an event of power failure? A. The Output Queue Length counter of the network interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. Level 1 or mirroring.c om . Damage of components. Current Bandwidth B. Level 5 or disk striping with parity. Level 3 D. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option A is incorrect. B. Answer option B is incorrect. Disk Queue Length D. CMOS battery failure.com/netsysm/article. Bytes Total/sec Answer: D Explanation: The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter.enterprisenetworkingplanet.com 167 Ce rtK ille r.Tabson-Your-Network-Traffic. Level 0 C. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or disk striping. The Disk Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object. Answer option C is incorrect." QUESTION NO: 417 Your computer is not connected to the UPS. C.www. Reference: TechNet.htm" QUESTION NO: 416 In Windows NT/2000. which is not fault-tolerant.

In an event of power failure. RJ-11 C. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. The company wants to use Small Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network. Reference: TechNet. r. Which of the following connectors can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It also provides protection against power surges. BIOS configuration is reset. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. The connector is a 2-fiber connector and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. Answer: B Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS. Answer option A is incorrect. What is an MT-RJ connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector.D Explanation: The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables.certkiller. power failure may cause damage to peripheral components. QUESTION NO: 419 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Choose two. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure.www. The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver. Answer option C is incorrect. When power surge occurs. MT-RJ rtK ille You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment.com A. BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in the CMOS chip. Contents: "Glossary" QUESTION NO: 418 Answer: C. Answer option D is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. while the computer gets normal power. LC D.c om 168 . RJ-45 B. using battery backup.

certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect.com rtK Answer: B ille r. The most common in-band remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter. Reference: "http://en. The remote-access connection is made through the in. It is used for auditing the network activities. To manage network servers and routers remotely.c om 169 . you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information. Unlike out-of-band connection. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. Three B.wikipedia. C. Four E.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . However. Five Answer: A Explanation: RAID-5. Two C. Reference: TechNet. D. It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. In-band connection relies on operating-system network drivers to establish computer connections. Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes" QUESTION NO: 420 Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management? A. Users can use remote-access connections to manage servers. Out-of-band management is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities. Thirty-two D. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of management access to those devices. It has better performance as compared to a mirror set. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.www. administrators need network access when problems occur. If a portion of a physical disk fails.band port that resides on the target server. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel. It is used for taking backups. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. also known as stripe set with parity. Explanation: Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. in-band connection is available only when the server is initialized and functioning properly. B. Answer options A and D are incorrect.

80386 processors were introduced in computer models such as 386SX. 80386 C.certkiller. 80486 D.com 170 Ce A. A. TRACEROUTE D. 8088 B. Ping B. TRACERT C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as 486SX. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems.C. and debugging other serverrelated problems. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and Pentium MMX. 386DX. QUESTION NO: 422 Answer: C Explanation: The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval. Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval? ille r.www.D Explanation: 80386. 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. "Slay Your Exams" . TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. Answer option D is incorrect.c om . Pentium Answer: B. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. NSLOOKUP rtK You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network. 486DX2 and 486DX4. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. 486DX. Choose three.

It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Reference: "http://en. How will you achieve this? A. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. On receiving the packets. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option B is incorrect. "Slay Your Exams" . Terminate all external SCSI devices. B. The first and last devices in the SCSI bus should be terminated. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. SCSI devices. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations. D. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer.wikipedia. C. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers. SCSI-2.org/wiki/Traceroute" QUESTION NO: 423 You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices. The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. It provides interface for connecting the computer to auxiliary devices. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. B. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. C.certkiller. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). Answer: B Explanation: The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. D. Terminate only the internal SCSI device. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.com 171 Ce rtK ille r. and SCSI-3. the destination host responds with a series of replies.c om . NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer.

It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN).www. the lightning arrestor shunts the excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. D. Reference: TechNet. the current from the surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold or hot spell.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer.wikipedia. travels down the power system to the arrestor. It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Answer option B is incorrect. It is installed after an antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver. When a lightning surge. When the induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna. A lightning arrestor is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. This device does not provide protection from a direct lightning strike. NIC is also known as network adapter. B. Reference: "http://en. Answer option A is incorrect. has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time. Answer option C is incorrect. The typical lightning arrestor. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. or switching surge. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. Content: Glossary QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following statements about brownout is true? A.com rtK ille r. such as for one or two seconds. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts.c om 172 . rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. It indicates there is enough power on the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current electrical demand. and if a home or office takes a direct hit. a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. C. also known as surge arrestor. A brownout lasts longer than a power sag and corrupts more data. Answer: D Explanation: A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges. Lightning carries millions of volts.certkiller.

You want to increase memory in a database server on the network. QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP Answer: Ce Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown in the image. Answer option B is incorrect. B. without replacing the motherboard. you will have to replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server. "Slay Your Exams" . There is no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on the server.com rtK ille r. You should purchase memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. Verify the availability of memory slot. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory.www. Answer: A Explanation: You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before purchasing memory. What will be your first step before purchasing memory? A. Otherwise. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase memory on the server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 426 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing. Although you should check the compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. you will have to change the existing memory.certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect. D. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard. it is the second step. Check the memory size on POST.c om 173 . C.

162 C.certkiller. which is used in TVs and VCRs. Answer option A is incorrect. It is an inexpensive connector. Choose two. 443 D.com 174 Ce rtK ille r.c om . What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. By default. A. 80 B. The pin of the connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable.D Explanation: The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162. "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded medium performance coaxial signal connector. which allows users to manage the network. Answer option C is incorrect. 161 Answer: B. QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication.

He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly. A. and cameras. CD-ROM drives. USB supports hot plugging. USB supports hot plugging. Both the drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. Answer option D is incorrect.c om . USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system. The "Slay Your Exams" . including speakers. external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices.certkiller. D. On a Monday morning. What is the most likely cause of the issue? A. B. This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. The tape drive has no power supply. The RAM on the server is faulty. B. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. Choose two. The SCSI card is faulty.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam HTTP uses port 80 as the default port.www. scanners. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port. Answer: A. Mark comes to his office and starts the server.com 175 Ce rtK ille r. Answer: B Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate.C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based. Topic: Appendix C Hardware Support QUESTION NO: 430 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. even though the hard disk drive is working properly. keyboards. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port. Answer option A is incorrect. The company's network contains a file server. The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. The SCSI card driver is not installed. D. C. USB does not support Plug n Play installation. QUESTION NO: 429 Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. tape drives. C. which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly.

Answer option C is incorrect. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up. C. it assigns a unique identifier to each sector on the drive. restart Server1. Server1 and Server2. D. B. heads. Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1. Answer: B Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard disk drives of more than 504MB. and sectors. Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined [Q122052]" QUESTION NO: 432 Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk drive. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD. as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. DVD. and RAM have their own addressing method.com 176 Ce rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 431 What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing? A. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days. Answer options D. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1. B. To allow use of zip drives. Restart Server1. What should she do to accomplish this? A. Instead of using cylinders. D. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration. Server1 is unable to boot properly. C. She installs a new device driver for the controller.certkiller. Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Since zip drive. and C are incorrect. LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk drive. LBA is not used with them. A.c om . Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to overwrite the new file. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB. In order to work. Monica wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam SCSI card is not faulty. Reference: TechNet. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD). Monica has to restore Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. After setup completes.www. Now.

Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. B. NEC.www. D.ROM drives. Intel. Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here. and Northern Telecom. "Windows NT".0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. scanners etc. DEC. Microsoft. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost. In this case. USB devices are non-Plug and Play.com rtK ille r. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. that the drivers for your USB devices are already available on the computer. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. if an operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option. USB 1.certkiller. This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry key. Answer option B is incorrect. reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it. As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good Configuration. It is possible. Answer option A is incorrect. One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good Configuration.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Reference: TechNet. Answer option D is incorrect. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by installing a new SCSI device driver. whereas USB 2. though. you do not need to provide a device driver separately. Therefore. USB supports hot plugging. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Whenever a user logs on to a computer. Software drivers are required for USB devices. "Knowledge Base". the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry. Answer options C and A are incorrect. It is not required to restart the computer to install USB devices. Software drivers are not required for USB devices. Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty drivers. keyboards. such as CD.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. tape drives.c om 177 . she should use the Last Known Good Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device.1. USB 2. IBM. "Recovering Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]" QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices? A. Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE" Ce Answer: C "Slay Your Exams" . What is Last Known Good Configuration? The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last successfully logged on. Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support". Reference: TechNet.

In most cases. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected. Answer option A is incorrect. networking files. a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program. According to Rick. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 434 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. when he turned on his computer this morning. Instead. his computer was working properly till last evening and he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning. the computer shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. Rick. What is a virus? A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. Although media failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur. Answer option C is incorrect. reports that his computer was working properly till last evening. Answer option B is incorrect. Media failure on the hard disk drive. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started.com 178 Ce rtK ille r. a Sales Manager. D. C.www. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting. the computer searched for operating system files on the floppy drive first. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk. virus attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. The next time he turned on the computer. it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely cause? A. Floppy drive failure. B.c om . and finally transfer control to the application program they infected.certkiller. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. A virus can infect boot sector. and system files. it showed the Invalid System Disk error message. The computer is infected with virus. Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. QUESTION NO: 435 What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card? "Slay Your Exams" . It is possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his work. infect those targets. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. However. it is rare.

What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. QUESTION NO: 436 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc.com 179 Ce rtK ille r. Which of the following tools will help you diagnose the problem? A. To configure data transfer speed.certkiller. to communicate with any peripheral device. IRQs. Resources such as I/O addresses. IPCONFIG B. C. To configure I/O address.com site. They use software setup programs instead. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote "Slay Your Exams" . The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall. TELNET C. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. However.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. its I/O address. This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network communication. A user complains that he is unable to access the abc. To configure MAC address. Answer: D Explanation: The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. full-time connection to a network. TRACERT D. ROUTE Answer: C Explanation: The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC manuurer. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. B. Nowadays most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches.c om . I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. D. and DMA channels must be correctly configured.www. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Answer option C is incorrect. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface card and cannot be changed by users. To configure transceiver type. Whenever a component. he can access all other sites. IRQ. The CPU needs a memory address.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam host. 21 inches Answer: B Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.www. Print.75 x 12) inches. AMD K6 D. and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE command. offers the ability to run programs remotely. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Add. Pentium 4 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . such as IP address.75 inches . The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1. 7 inches C. QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Therefore. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.certkiller. to access files.75 inches B. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer.75) inches.c om 180 . the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7 (4 x 1..75 x 20) inches. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Answer option C is incorrect. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. subnet mask. of a networked computer. and facilitates remote administration. AMD Athlon C. Delete. The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Choose three. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect.com rtK ille r. A. Answer option D is incorrect. default gateway etc. Answer option D is incorrect. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. 35 inches D. 386SX B.75 inches . QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit? A. 1. Answer option A is incorrect.

there is no need to add another network card. Answer option A is incorrect. He will add another network card to the server. either the processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. To overcome this. Answer option D is incorrect. What is %Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a computer.C. Since the problem is not due to disk performance.D Explanation: The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer option A is incorrect. there is no need to add another processor.www. Answer option C is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. He will add more memory to the server. D. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set (RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. B. Since the problem does not occur due to high network usage. Therefore. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%. He will use disk striping. QUESTION NO: 439 David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. A bottleneck in the processor occurs. Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133 MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. Since there is no bottleneck in the processor. when the value of this counter exceeds 80%.c om 181 .com rtK ille r. C. disk striping is not required. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT workstations. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance. David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk time70% What will he do to enhance server performance? A. This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B. David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance. He will add another processor to the server. Answer: B Explanation: Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory.certkiller. Moving some applications to another server can also resolve the issue. This indicates a bottleneck in memory. Employees complain about the poor performance of this server.

By changing the CMOS setting D. Which hardware is missing? ille r. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. full-time connection to a network. Networking protocol stack B. none of them will work. or Slave. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. So this is the problem of missing network interface card in the computer. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive.c om . What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. Network device driver C. Slave. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive C. If two drives are attached to one controller.certkiller. has recently added John's computer as a part of the network. Network client software D. But some hardware may have been missed during the installation. All the required hardware has been installed on John's computer. By setting a jumper on the motherboard B. QUESTION NO: 442 "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 441 Answer: D Explanation: As the question states. But due some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave.www. By adding an add-on card Answer: B Explanation: You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. due to which John is unable to connect to the network.com 182 Ce A. Network interface card rtK Edward Inc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 440 How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system? A.

If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. D. he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. Therefore. Answer option B is incorrect. B. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc. so that he can take a full backup every night using both drives.certkiller. He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do so as the DAT drive runs out of space. Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem.com rtK Explanation: Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server . He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom implement to accomplish this task? A. If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck.c om Answer: A 183 . ille r. C. the other node provides resources. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: B Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. everyday. and a differential backup every night. it is unnecessary to purchase two DAT drives. QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster? A. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup. It is not possible to take a full backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. B. It prevents viruses from corrupting user data. the other takes over the job. so that he can take a full backup every night using all three drives. Backing up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will increase the administrative burden. he must use at least two 25 GB DAT drives. the other shuts down automatically. D. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive. Answer option D is incorrect. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon. C. The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. Tom configures the server with a 25 GB DAT drive.

What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. such as sound cards and modems. PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express. and Athlon personal computers. and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. commonly abbreviated as PCIe. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio devices. also known as an AMR slot. QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe? A. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe. PCI-X B. if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power.e. Answer option B is incorrect. the other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node. It is a double-wide version of PCI.c om 184 . It supports V.org/wiki/PCI-X" QUESTION NO: 445 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . the other takes over the job. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. running at up to four times the clock speed. The audio/modem riser (AMR). DMR D. a virtual server name. is an expansion slot.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam In a two-node cluster. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems. Pentium 4. making a total of 46 pins. Answer option C is incorrect. It has two rows of 23 pins each. but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation and uses the same protocol. Answer option D is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. Visually there is no such similarity.www. Answer option D is incorrect. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. AMR Answer: A Explanation: PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers. There is no such slot as DMR. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality.com rtK ille r. CNR C. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from being corrupted by viruses. multi-channel audio. In case of a bottleneck on a node.wikipedia. on an expansion card. phone-line-based networking.certkiller. Reference: "http://en. Answer option C is incorrect. which is used to access and manage the cluster. PCI-X has been replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express.90 analog modem..

certkiller. QUESTION NO: 446 Answer: A.c Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The company's network has a server that is used for backup purposes. Windows 2000 Server C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition C. om 185 . A DAT to DLT converter and its driver Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK A. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition D.D Explanation: Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing. Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition B. Choose all that apply. Mac OS X Panther E. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 B. What will he need in order to accomplish the task? A. Sun Solaris 10 D.E Explanation: The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect.www. The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT) to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system. Mark wants to restore data from an older DAT tape. A DLT tape drive and its driver B. A. Sun Solaris 9 ille r.C.D. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4 Answer: A. Due to a substantial loss of data. QUESTION NO: 447 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.

and sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST).certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Ctrl + Alt + Esc B. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor. The DAT tape can support data transfer rates of about 2 MBps. Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based setup programs to change the CMOS settings. A DAT tape drive and its driver Answer: D Explanation: In order to restore data from an old DAT tape. the hardware is checked according to the CMOS configuration. Choose two. A DAT driver D. you can change the configuration of your computer using a menu driven application. A DAT cartridge is a little larger than a credit card in width and height. In CMOS.c om . There is no need of a DLT tape drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Mark also needs a DAT tape drive. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task. It has data transfer rates of up to 2. which stores hardware configuration of the computer. When the computer is booted.5 inches wide and the cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB. heads. Answer option B is incorrect. Shift + Alt +Del rtK ille Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www. Ctrl + Alt + Shift C. Del D. Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC.C Explanation: You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). Using the DAT tape drive. A DLT drive is faster than most other types of tape drives. Digital Audio Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. It can hold up to 24GB of data. BIOS issues a warning. It is 0. If a user forgets the password for CMOS "Slay Your Exams" . If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration. It is a chip installed on the motherboard.com 186 Ce A. QUESTION NO: 448 Answer: A. DATs are sequential-access media. In CMOS. Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. Answer option A is incorrect. the computer configuration can be changed using a menu driven application. There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. r. The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders. as it cannot read a DAT tape.5 MBps.

DB-9 Answer: A Explanation: To take advantage of bi-directional printing. he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. a bi-directional printer. you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant printer cable.com 187 Ce Explanation: Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby while the main power is within an acceptable range.c om Answer: C. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over time. Choose two.D . The time required to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6 milliseconds. the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. QUESTION NO: 449 Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. instead of shorting the CMOS jumper. Offline UPS B. A. and a correctly configured port. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a load and the battery is always being charged. Answer options A and B are incorrect. The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. To remove the password assigned. IEEE 1284 B. The True-online UPS has continuous load on the battery. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing? A. If the main power varies outside the range. bi-directional cables "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam configuration. Typically. RS-232 D. rtK ille r. Line conditioner UPS C. However.www. he will have to short the CMOS jumper. Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS. the user can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds. IEEE 1394 C. on some new motherboards. True-online UPS D.certkiller. Today most UPS are of the SPS type.

and other serial devices to the personal computer. two rows.certkiller. male connector. serial ports. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI RAID storage unit with a new Web server.232 ports.C. C. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . modem. Answer option B is incorrect. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support? A. A. It is a 9-pin. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. It is also known as serial port. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Which of the following practices will keep the system working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. also known as COM ports. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. A DB-9 connector is used by the serial interface. excluding the SCSI adapter. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. QUESTION NO: 452 How many devices. Answer option B is incorrect.www. B. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss. Answer option D is incorrect. traditional PC storage devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet.com rtK ille r. Answer: A. Choose three. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. or RS. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. D.D Explanation: The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. on the back of a PC used for connecting mouse. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 188 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam have the number 1284 printed on them. QUESTION NO: 451 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. and handheld devices. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on.

SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with device numbers ranging from 0 to 7. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.com/enus/library/cc768048. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices. and SCSI-3. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive.certkiller.c om . Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI devices. 7 Answer: B Explanation: A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI-2.com 189 Ce rtK ille r. Reference: TechNet. These partitions use the FAT file system. Processor: %Processor Time B. 4 D. You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the "Slay Your Exams" . System: System Calls/sec D. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Contents: "Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]" QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU? A. Processor: %Privilege Time C.aspx" QUESTION NO: 454 Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration. Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has a 16-bit bus. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. 15 C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.www. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. System: Processor Queue Length Answer: D Explanation: The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU. The System: System Calls/sec counter is a measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services.microsoft. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy servicing requests. Answer option C is incorrect. Reference: "http://technet. Answer option B is incorrect.

Choose two. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000. It can only contain volumes created through Disk Management. It can also contain spanned.C Explanation: It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of equipment in the server rack. According to the question. Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all Windows-based operating systems. It cannot be accessed by MS-DOS. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. There is no such facility to break stripe set with parity. Answer: D Explanation: On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk.com 190 Ce rtK ille r. Answer: A. or spanned volumes (volume sets) become dynamic mirrored volumes. and any version of Windows NT. Answer option B is incorrect. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives. Windows 2000 Server Manual. mirrored. dynamic striped volumes. striped.c om . There is no such option to upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Installing heavy equipment as near as "Slay Your Exams" .www. C.certkiller. RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity). the existing partitions on the basic disk become simple volumes on the dynamic disk. B. you want to change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set. or dynamic spanned volumes. striped volumes (stripe sets). C. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack. respectively. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort? A. dynamic RAID5 volumes. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam dynamic RAID5 volumes. Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. A. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets). Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. D. and RAID-5 volumes created using Windows NT 4. Article "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 455 Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Windows 95/98.0 or earlier. What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended partitions with logical drives. Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk. B. Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes.

to a message. Moreover. Answer option B is incorrect. or parity data.c om 191 . In general. RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission of the data. either during the process of transmission. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs. Answer: B Explanation: Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module.www. Answer option D is incorrect. or on storage. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. C. the lower the CAS latency.certkiller. or on storage. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced.com rtK ille r. Installing heavy equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the equipment. The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number. DVDs. QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency? A. hard disks. to a message. B. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of the rack. a back-channel is not required in forward error correction. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. Answer option A is incorrect. either during the process of transmission. or parity data. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. It is a system of adding redundant data. and it is therefore suitable for simplex communication such as broadcasting. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other equipment on the upper side of the rack. D. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in lower-layer communication. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. RAID is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan the location of hardware in the server rack. An ECC (errorcorrecting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data. and RAM. the better.

Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller. A DIMM slot is larger than a SIMM slot. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. and the heights may vary. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam as in RAID 0. Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network.375" long and 1. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .wikipedia.c om QUESTION NO: 457 192 . but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. Answer option C is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email messages between servers over the Internet. but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a total of 184. 184-pin DIMMs are 5. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base.com rtK ille r. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. Answer option C is incorrect.www. This array distributes data across multiple disks. Contents: "Test IP-addressto-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP". The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary. PC2700. they are said to be in a RAID array. FTP B. Answer option A is incorrect. RAID 1. Reference: MSDN. SNMP D. SMTP Answer: B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite.375" high. When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology. 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon systems. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes.org/wiki/CAS_latency" Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address? A. etc. ARP C. which allows users to manage the network. Reference: "http://en. Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data reliability or increased input/output performance. PC3200 and PC3500 and faster.

and SCSI-3. Slave. An IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. and hard disk drive. tape drive. 2 B. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. and C are incorrect. Hard disk drive E. You can connect devices such as hard disk drive.certkiller.0" QUESTION NO: 459 A.com 193 Ce rtK Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Modem Answer: A. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 458 How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel? A. SCSI devices.c om . 4 D. Contents: "Storage Management Operations Guide" "Slay Your Exams" . What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Reference: TechNet.D Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Answer options D. CD drive B. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. etc. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. Sound card D. or Slave. none of them will work. 3 C. ille r. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. CD-ROM drive. SCSI-2. Tape drive C. If two drives are attached to one channel.B. You can configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers. 7 Answer: A Explanation: An IDE channel can support two devices. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. to an IDE channel. Reference: TechNet. first as a Master and second as a Slave.www. B. Choose all that apply. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. Contents: "Performance Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4.

incoming and outgoing data. Answer option B is incorrect. On receiving the packets. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.certkiller. PING D. NETSTAT B. the destination host responds with a series of replies.com rtK ille r.. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. References: TechNet. of a networked computer. TRACERT C. such as IP address. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. default gateway etc. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. What is the ping utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 460 Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply? A.www. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option A is incorrect.c om 194 . These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. subnet mask. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer option D is incorrect. Contents: "Chapter 3 .

com rtK ille r. This helps administrators to isolate the problem there.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . NETSTAT B. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. the destination host responds with a series of replies. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Reference: TechNet.c om 195 . The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is. Contents: "Chapter 3 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. PING C.www. update the NetBIOS name cache. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. NBTSTAT D. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer option A is incorrect. On receiving the packets. incoming and outgoing data. Answer option B is incorrect. TRACERT Answer: D Explanation: TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at.

RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. It does not provide fault tolerance. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. in a striped volume. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. It also provides fault tolerance.E Explanation: RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 462 Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A. QUESTION NO: 463 Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4. RAID 2 D. Answer options A and C are incorrect. D. Since. Choose two. RAID 1 B.com 196 Ce rtK ille r. RAID 5 F.0 implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. a large amount of data is divided into identical portions. If a portion of a physical disk fails. are the two RAID levels which support fault tolerance. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. C. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 4 E. The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. Choose two. RAID 0 Answer: A.www.D Explanation: Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks. RAID 3 C. RAID-0 volumes are also referred to as striped volumes. Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB. it is faster to read or write the data from a striped volume than from a spanned volume. It provides fault tolerance. Striped volumes are not fault tolerant. A. Answer: B. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three hard disk drives.c om .certkiller. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. B.

Mark will have to use a LAN analyzer. It reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a humanreadable format. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. Files on the remote computers are taking a long time to open.com rtK ille r. Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of an electrical current in amperes. Answer option A is incorrect. The company's network has a database server. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. Ampere meter B. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam not support fault tolerance. The server's performance is decreasing day by day. One morning. You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high. QUESTION NO: 465 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. What will you do to improve the server's performance? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Voltmeter Explanation: In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network. Answer option B is incorrect. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem.c om Answer: C 197 . The server is also responding slowly to database queries. Which of the following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card? A. LAN analyzer D. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array.certkiller. users report that the network has become quite slow. Answer option D is incorrect. Time Domain Reflectometer C.www. This device is also known as packet sniffer. Mark examines the network and suspects that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. QUESTION NO: 464 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Voltmeter is an instrument for measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub. LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to troubleshoot the problems.

4U D.certkiller. Hence.45 mm ) high.25" and so on. a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1. Reboot the server. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task.wikipedia. However. Adding more RAM to the server will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. 9U C.5 inches space available.5". C.75 inches ( 44. there is no need to change the network card. Answer: C Explanation: The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem. the maximum size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i. A rack unit is also known as U. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing rack.e.www. Hence. According to the scenario.75". Answer option D is incorrect.org/wiki/Rack_unit" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . 11. The Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. An existing equipment rack in the server room has only 11. Answer options A and B are incorrect. This suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. in the question. Add more RAM. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310.5 inches space is available in existing rack. 3U is 5.75 = 10. Change the network card with a high speed card. Answer option B is incorrect. Therefore. 6U rtK Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server. 7U B.5). The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard. QUESTION NO: 466 Answer: D Explanation: A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.com A. One rack unit is 1. 6 x1. Add one more microprocessor. Therefore. Reference: "http://en. D. Answer option A is incorrect. the value is 35. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the server's memory. 2U is 3. B.c om 198 . Which of the following is the maximum size of the server that can be installed into the rack? ille r. as the Pages/sec value is quite high. The problem is due to shortage of RAM. another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard.

C Explanation: Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem on the operating system files. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for networking and NTFS partition on their disks. such as mouse.www. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. offering a variety of products and financial services. etc. Which tool will you use to resolve this problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD Chapter 17 . Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 467 Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide. such as system corruption. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000 operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system. The Alert. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted system files is preventing the computer from starting. It bypasses blocking issues. over time. over time. Choose two.certkiller. Monitoring errors. Performance Monitor Answer: B. enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.com rtK ille r.c om 199 .File Systems QUESTION NO: 468 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What is Network Monitor? Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Network Monitor can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes. Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used. Recovery Console D. keyboard. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers. Network Monitor B. or installation of incompatible drivers or system services. A. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Recovery Console is used by the Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems without installing a second copy of the operating system. Safe Mode boot C. View. One of the users complains that his Windows 2000 Server is not starting. which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network.

SRAM is faster than DRAM. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. Install a firewall on the server.com 200 Ce rtK ille r. A firewall can also perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. Answer options D and B are incorrect.certkiller. A. It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. Answer: A. What is the function of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. Reference: TechNet. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM.www. SRAM is used for main memory. Answer: A. Choose all that apply. D. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet. D. B. SRAM is used for cache memory. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room. It is used to separate an internal network from the Internet. What is a firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from coming in or going out of a specified network or computer. C. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Put a lock on the door of the server room.B Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card.C Explanation: The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the door of the server room.c om . Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 469 Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Direct the incoming traffic to more trustworthy internal computers. A. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. Choose two. and provides centralized access control on how users should use the network. Lock the server on the server chassis. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. Log "Slay Your Exams" . Unlike DRAM. Contents: "Chapter 3 .

www. 7 = lowest C. network device types. 1. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. 6. 8. Hide information. and internal user IDs from external users. 10. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. 2.D Explanation: SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority. 9.certkiller. Level 1 Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . 13. 14. 0. and SCSI-3. 3. 15. SCSI IDs are split into two groups. 4. 12. 8 = lowest B. Higher ID numbers have higher priority. SCSI devices. 8 = highest F:1 = lowest Answer: A. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0 to 7. SCSI IDs determine device priority on a SCSI bus.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam traffic to and from the private network. 5. 1 = highest D. QUESTION NO: 470 In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15. SCSI-2. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Therefore. A. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor? A. Level 3 B. while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15. 7 = highest E.com 201 Ce rtK ille r. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. 11. Level 2 D. Level 4 C. network topology. such as computer names.

Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. Choose all that apply. Contents: "Chapter 3 . This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. A new application is installed on the server. B.com 202 Ce Explanation: Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more employees A new application is installed on the server.B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds.www. Volt Ampere C. Ampere hours Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller. Ohm B. A. so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network.c om . Answer: A. Hertz D.C QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery? A. rtK ille r. Adding more RAM to the server D.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer options B and A are incorrect. There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and level 4. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. A network device has failed due to power surge. Reference: TechNet. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. The failure of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline. Answer option C is incorrect. Hiring more employees C.

QUESTION NO: 475 Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade? A. Answer option B is incorrect.B Explanation: The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery. communications (such as networking) and other IT infrastructure.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. D. Volt Ampere (VA) is a measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. Ensure that the plan works properly C.c om 203 . crisis communication and reputation protection. Hertz is a unit of frequency. Answer option A is incorrect. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer. B. it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. When replacing the monitor. Answer: A. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process.com rtK ille r.www. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard. policies. Answer option C is incorrect. Ohm is the standard unit of electrical resistance.certkiller. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster recovery plan. data. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of current for one hour. B. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . facilities. hardware. QUESTION NO: 474 Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? A. and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. C. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications. D. Ensure that the plan works properly. The ampere hours (AH) is the unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery. Answer options C and D are incorrect. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel.

For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2 SCSI speed. SCSI-2. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. Andrew does not want to replace the existing tape drive. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS. QUESTION NO: 477 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended speed. QUESTION NO: 476 Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on his computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface.certkiller. C. He runs a performance test on one of the servers of the network and finds the following statistics. SCSI devices. SCSI has three standards. What will be the technician's answer? A. CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following "Slay Your Exams" . SCSI-1. it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller. it will operate only at Ultra speed. He asks the technician about compatibility issues. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed. and SCSI-3. Answer options B. A.c om . Answer: C Explanation: The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. B. Since the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. an upgrade of BIOS is required.com 204 Ce rtK ille r. on the motherboard. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. D. The new configuration will not work. In this situation.www. and D are incorrect. Answer options B and A are incorrect. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast SCSI tape drives.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam objects has a bottleneck? A. Network subsystem B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: D Explanation: The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 478

A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory. B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory. C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor. D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory. Answer: D Explanation: Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory. When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

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What does zero wait-states indicate?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 479 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully. What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. B. Re-install the operating system on the computer. C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port. D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. Answer: A,D Explanation: In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace addon cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed. Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.

QUESTION NO: 480

Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Preferred DNS server address B. Internet connection sharing C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway D. Network address translation Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 206

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems, ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 481 What is the full form of ESD? A. Extended System database B. Electrostatic Discharge C. Electrostatic Disk D. Enhance System drive Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 482 Which type of memory chip has 168 pins? A. SIMM B. DIP C. DMA D. DIMM Answer: D Explanation: The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM) "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 207

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Explanation: The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that charge.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 483

Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length. B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping.

Explanation: SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 208

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Answer: B,C,D

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and RAID5 volumes "Slay Your Exams" . These partitions use FAT file system.com 209 Ce rtK Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. B. Striped. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000? A. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories. C. D. ille r. to access files. Answer: A. But you are unable to do it.org/wiki/Serial_ATA" QUESTION NO: 484 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. It uses TCP port 23 by default. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote Windows 2000 server. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk between conductors. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. you want to extend the existing striped volumes since the amount of existing data is large.wikipedia. You are not logged on as an Account Operator. A volume can be extended only if it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. C. Type TEL on the Run dialog box. and facilitates remote administration. and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended. The company's network has Windows 2000 and Unix servers. Parallel ATA (PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps. The new disk has no file system. mirrored. Choose two. Reference. and click TELNET. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 485 Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration.certkiller.//en.B Explanation: The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. As an Administrator.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are all ground lines. Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt. A. and click Terminal. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. B. "http. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools. Type TELNET on the command prompt.www. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.c om . Striped. offers the ability to run programs remotely. mirrored. D.

You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. It can be used as a fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment. use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. Carbon dioxide (CO2) B. and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data center. "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center? A. What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to Halon 1301. It is an effective gaseous fire suppression agent.org/wiki/FM-200" QUESTION NO: 487 Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller. production equipment. It is used around valuable materials. and data centers. Currently. B. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive.com rtK ille r.C Explanation: Halon. Answer option D is incorrect. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data center is harmful for the equipments. gaseous halocarbon. "http. What is NTFS? Reference. and data centers. Water (H2O) Answer: A. Where will you place the terminators? A.certkiller. such as aircraft. and telecommunication switching centers. and organized. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center. FAT. carbon dioxide (CO2). Reference. Before the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known. FAT32. Halon 1301 is dangerous for environment and health.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam cannot be extended. stored. and NTFS are the different types of file systems.wikipedia.B. Halon D. file system is the overall structure in which files are named. TechNet. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive. Contents. odorless.c om 210 . FM-200 C. many industrial chillers used it as an efficient refrigerant gas. and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . mainframe computers. libraries.www.//en. What is FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless. What is file system? In an operating system. It is chemically known as heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent.

c Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck. SCSI devices. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. you should place one terminator at the end of each drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. It allows faster access to BIOS information. E. ille r. internal and external. This allows faster access to BIOS information. When you configure shadow RAM. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-toanalog converter on a video card. SCSI has three standards. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.D Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance. and SCSI-3. Choose two.100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of information in lesser time. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller. D. QUESTION NO: 488 Answer: B. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. SCSI-1. Place one terminator at the end of each drive. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60. Shadow RAM allows faster access to BIOS information.certkiller. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. D.www. Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost. om . Answer: D Explanation: If you have two SCSI devices. Answer option C is incorrect. C. SCSI-2. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended "Slay Your Exams" .com 211 Ce rtK A. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks.

QUESTION NO: 489 Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup? A. 4 B. Contents. A. Answer options C. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card.INI file? BOOT. What is BOOT. The BIOS software is stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard.BAT file. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. ROM BIOS C. 1 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . BOOT.BAT B. Answer option A is incorrect.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. AUTOEXEC. TechNet. "Chapter 5 .Setup Technical Discussion" QUESTION NO: 490 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a server? A. 3 D. 2 C. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. The first instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. BOOT.certkiller. Hard disk Answer: B Explanation: When you start a computer. and D are incorrect. the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer. BOOT. or AUTOEXEC. and allows the operating system to communicate with the various components of the computer.INI D. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware.INI. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer.www. also known as the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip.c om 212 .com rtK ille r.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam memory for use by other programs. Unlike DRAM. But. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. Reference.

Re-installed TCP/IP protocol. but lower writing performance.wikipedia. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. Data once lost cannot be recovered. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. data is kept on two physical disks. a remote access server is disconnected from the network.//en. Pinging the remote access server resulted in proper response. The key difference from RAID 1+0 is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. It does not provide data redundancy. also known as disk striping. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. RAID-0 and RAID1 require a minimum of two disks. In mirroring. in case a disk in the set fails. Re-installed the network interface card driver. but if the drives fail on both sides of the mirror. If a disk fails.www.c om . Re-install operating system D. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks. You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem. but to a set of disks. Purchase a new server B. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. "http.com 213 Ce rtK ille r. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. Reference. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. Answer option C is incorrect. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next step to resolve this problem? A. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. Due to data redundancy.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. the data on the RAID system is lost. Check the server's subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . The final disk contains the parity information. Validate physical link integrity C. What is RAID5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. It contains a minimum of three disks. Just before noon. In this disk system. Answer option B is incorrect. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk.certkiller. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. The array continues to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks. It provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 491 You work as a Network Administrator.

com rtK ille r. validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is no problem with the operating system. SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk. Contents. you receive the following message. The display card is faulty. so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. Err Msg When Booting System. Now. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's main menu. To select an active partition. You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard disk. B. Answer option B is incorrect. If the display card has a problem. The subnet mask cannot change automatically. So the broken physical link or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from the network. What is the most likely cause? A. D.certkiller. The hard disk has no active partition.c om 214 . it will hang up the computer frequently. SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active partition. Reference. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty. "NO ROM BASIC. and display a blue screen. Windows 95 is not installed properly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam To resolve this problem. when you restart the computer. Answer: D Explanation: This message "NO ROM BASIC. If the computer has faulty RAM. The only problem is that the remote access server is disconnected from the network. C. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365] QUESTION NO: 493 HOTSPOT Mark the ST connector in the image given below. Answer option C is incorrect. nothing will appear on the screen. you install the Windows 95 operating system.www. TechNet. QUESTION NO: 492 You purchase a new computer. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP address. and re-installed the network interface card driver.

5 server. om . DOWN -f B.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: Explanation: QUESTION NO: 494 Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6.c The image displays the following connectors. A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber. RESTART SERVER -na Answer: A Explanation: The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. He wants to shut down the server immediately without being prompted.certkiller. The RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup. RESTART SERVER -ns D. Which of the following commands will he use? A.5mm shaft and bayonet locking ring. ST.ncf file. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber. SHUTDOWN -p C. There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. An ST connector has a 2.com 215 Ce rtK ille r. "Slay Your Exams" .

etc. Cache memory B.www. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network. Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the request to a real Internet server. A proxy server has a database called cache where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. DHCP server B. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. A proxy server exists between a client's Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from any Web browser with the sample query forms. Virtual memory Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option D is incorrect. This may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites. Index server Answer: B Explanation: A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval. requiring no user input and minimizing demand on system resources. Reference. thereby greatly reducing the access time. The next time such pages are requested. DNS server D. Indexing maps words to Web pages.certkiller. "http.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option D is incorrect.//en. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers. the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally. Proxy server C. Once installed.c om 216 . DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service.com rtK ille r.ncf file. QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval? A. The index process occurs behind the scene.wikipedia. Answer option A is incorrect. information about the domain tree structure. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance the performance of user requests and filter requests. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Answer option C is incorrect.org/wiki/Proxy_server" QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory? A. IP address-to-host name mappings. and to locations within Web pages. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests.

certkiller. Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. NT. It is also known as level 1 cache.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video. Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to keyboard. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Contents. 5xx B. Answer option A is incorrect. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient.www. ROM Answer: A Explanation: The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. "IBM PC. Contents. and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]" QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . so that the processor can access this information without delay. Answer option D is incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. AT. TechNet.c om 217 . space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. XT. Answer options C and D are incorrect. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM) are not used for internal memory. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. 3xx Answer: C Explanation: Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. "Chapter 3 . 2xx D. Hence. RAM D. 6xx C. Answer option B is incorrect.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 497 r.Capacity Planning" Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory? A. TechNet. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Reference.

There is no need to create an application backup. The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition. a system log.www. A. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. B. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. The active "Slay Your Exams" . A. The floppy disk drive should be cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. Answer: A. Answer option C is incorrect. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. System log B. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect. He finds that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. It helps administrators measure server performance.certkiller. The event types logged by system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system. D. There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive. Choose two. Answer option B is incorrect. The system log is used to store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. For example. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty. He inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer. Performance baseline C. ille QUESTION NO: 499 r.D Explanation: A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons. C. If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. If boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first. and C are incorrect. Users list D. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. the computer will not read the operating system file through the floppy disk drive. and a users list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. What can be the likely causes for this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Application backup Answer: B Explanation: An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. Answer options D.c om .com 218 Ce rtK Andrew works as a computer technician.

Answer option C is incorrect. It is a protocol. It provides centralized administration. Answer option D is incorrect.level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable. chatting on-line.com 219 Ce rtK ille r.www. C. caller ID. A. It does not support centralized administration. "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 501 Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. Spoofing C. provides a way to connect a small group of computers. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity. also known as workgroup model. B. it is known as a PING attack. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network.c om . Choose two.D Explanation: A peer-to-peer network model. etc. Hacking B. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer. email address. It provides user-level security. SYN attack Answer: B Explanation: Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address.certkiller. Contents. Answer: B. all the computers act as both clients and servers. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. In this model. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Reference.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam partition has nothing to do with this issue. This model does not support centralized "Slay Your Exams" . In this model. all the computers act as both clients and servers. etc. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. so that users can share printing resources and files. PING attack D. TechNet. QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking computer? A. In IP spoofing. However. A SYN attack affects computers running on TCP/IP protocol. Answer option A is incorrect.

Reference. and Differential Backups [Q136621] QUESTION NO: 503 Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system.D Explanation: You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan. Choose two. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created. A. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Daily full backup Answer: C. A.c om 220 . The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new. While working on multiple applications. one of the applications hangs. Choose two. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager. It needs only one tape to restore data. as compared to full backup or incremental backup.www. The domain-based network model provides centralized administration and user-level security. Full and decremental backup C. Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. The differential backup is the fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive. since the last incremental or full backup. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup. There is no backup method such as decremental backup. You plan a backup policy for the network dat a. Contents. Full and differential backup D. Answer option B is incorrect. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Description of Full. Which of the following can you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Incremental. or have changed since the last full backup. The full backup backs up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. QUESTION NO: 502 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc.certkiller. Full and incremental backup B. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam administration or provide user-level security. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager.com rtK ille r. TechNet. Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data.

and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager. ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards. Extended DMA D. Performance console C.D Ce Explanation: The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are. QUESTION NO: 504 Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. Pressing CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager. "Slay Your Exams" . The Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel.D QUESTION NO: 505 Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist.1 and 2 are supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA.D Explanation: The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0. You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager.com rtK ille r. Ultra DMA Answer: A. and therefore. Choose two.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Network Optimizer D. A.c om 221 . Disk Manager B. Task Manager Answer: B. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) C.B. A.certkiller. Direct Memory Access (DMA) B. it is not the correct answer option. Answer: B. By pressing CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC.www.

c om . Microsoft SQL Server files B. A. 5 MBps C. System boot files D. Application files Answer: B. Answer option D is incorrect. Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps. including the system files and all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only) SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. Reference. Choose two. Answer option B is incorrect. It is used for an immediate overview of system activity and performance. System state data C.Overview of Performance Monitoring QUESTION NO: 506 Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. 80 MBps B.certkiller. 4 MBps Answer: A QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 160 MBps D. Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps.C Explanation: System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility. It provides detailed information about system's performance. What is Performance console? Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps. Boot files. Microsoft TechNet CD. What is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. ille r.www.com 222 Ce rtK Explanation: The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps. Chapter 27 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000. Following are the files included in the System State data. This information can be used for troubleshooting and analysis of bottlenecks.

In case of server failure.com rtK ille r. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. "Windows Product Family". A full backup takes maximum time and space.c om 223 . The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Reference. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays. or are new. B. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. D. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend.www. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.00PM. One of the servers named Server1 is configured for a daily full backup at 5. "Windows NT". A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend. TechNet. Answer: A Explanation: What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. The company has a Windows NT based network consisting of four Windows NT servers. Answer options B and C are incorrect. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Answer option D is incorrect. "Concepts and Planning Manual" Chapter.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration information Component Services Class registration database QUESTION NO: 508 James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. In case of server failure. "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays. It needs only one tape to restore data. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time.certkiller. On weekdays. "Manuals". James has to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. since the last incremental or full backup. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. He also wants to minimize the number of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. Performing full backup on weekdays will not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. C. Which of the following backup strategies will he implement to accomplish this task? A. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. James should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the last full backup. "Windows NT Server". Contents. a differential backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. "Types of Backup" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

Configure hardware ID C.www. none of them will work. If you have two IDE drives in your system. on the motherboard. Reference. you should install it with the Master setting.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 509 What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed? A. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation. C. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE controller. Place a terminator on the IDE controller. D. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. you have to set one drive as the Master and the other as the Slave.certkiller.com 224 Ce rtK ille r. and both are set as Master . It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then configures the new device. It checks the processor's internal cache. Slave. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. "Slay Your Exams" . It reads a device driver for the card. D.c om . and Cable Select settings. Answer: D Explanation: At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card. Contents. and device drivers. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive. Which settings are important on the IDE drives? A. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. B. devices. Each IDE drive must support the Master. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first determines the available system resources and then configures the new device. "Guided Tour for Administrators" QUESTION NO: 510 You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. B. a set of pins on the hard disk drive. or both are set as Slave . What is Plug and Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by jumper. Master and Slave jumper settings Answer: D Explanation: If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller. TechNet.

It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). TFTP uses UDP port 69 for communication. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage devices. TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of memory. IPSec B. 8 B. with the functionality of a very basic form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). PPP D. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet.c om 225 .www. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516. The initial stages of some network based installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart. TCP/IP. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. such as a single DSL line or cable modem.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 511 Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection that uses the L2TP protocol? A. QUESTION NO: 512 How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port? A. PPPoE Answer: A Explanation: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security.com rtK ille r.certkiller. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. It secures both data and password. Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. TFTP C. It can connect to a network running on IPX. such as IP phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any other thin client boots from a network host or server. Answer option B is incorrect. or NetBEUI protocol.

32 C.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. QUESTION NO: 514 How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors? A. Pentium processors use Socket 7. 1 Answer: B Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. scanners etc. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. NEC.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8.I/O Interfaces from Serial and Parallel to IEEE. Reference. 16 "Slay Your Exams" . "USB Technical Details" QUESTION NO: 513 Answer: B Explanation: Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). "Upgrading and Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents. "Chapter 13 . such as CD-ROM drives. Answer option A is incorrect. A single edge connector (SEC). Microsoft.certkiller. SEC C. is similar to an expansion card.www. USB 1. and Northern Telecom.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Intel. 256 D. keyboards. DEC. Socket 7 r. USB 2.com 226 Ce rtK ille A.1394 and USB". AMD Athlon processors use Slot A. IBM. Answer option D is incorrect. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. also known as Slot 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Slot A D. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. tape drives. 64 B. whereas USB 2. Socket 8 B.c Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor? om . USB supports hot plugging.

certkiller. QUESTION NO: 515 Which of the following statements about I/O address is true? A. Resources such as I/O addresses. IRQs. RAID 5 Answer: C Explanation: Ce Explanation: I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus. RAID 1 B. "Slay Your Exams" . D. An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory location.www. IRQ. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64bit data bus. RAID 6 D. to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. 128 Answer: B Explanation: Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. C. its I/O address. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU. Whenever a component. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. The CPU needs a memory address. The Intel 486 series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. B. which requires processor's attention. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 516 Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives? A.com rtK ille r. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC.c om 227 . An I/O address is an event. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. RAID 0 C.

In mirroring. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives. B. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. If a disk fails. In this disk system. Due to data redundancy. The surge protector is a device used to smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources. especially for high availability systems. Sag is a brief decrease in "Slay Your Exams" . "http. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk.//en. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure. the longer the rebuild will take. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. RAID 6 becomes increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the failure of a single drive. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges. Answer: C Explanation: A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply.www. Answer option B is incorrect.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 517 Which of the following statements is true about a brownout? A. It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source. but to a set of disks. It does not provide data redundancy. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. Answer options D and A are incorrect. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. Reference. Data once lost cannot be recovered. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance.c om . The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. The overloading of a primary power source can cause brownouts. It provides fault tolerance from two drive failures. data is kept on two physical disks.certkiller. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete. What is RAID-0? RAID-0.com 228 Ce rtK ille r.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is rebuilt. in case a disk in the set fails.wikipedia. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. C. The final disk contains the parity information. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. This makes larger RAID groups more practical. Answer option B is incorrect. but lower writing performance. It contains a minimum of three disks. also known as disk striping. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The larger the drive. Answer option A is incorrect.

using battery backup. QUESTION NO: 518 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. DOWN -f C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam voltage at the power source. By typing MONITOR at the server console. Answer option B is incorrect. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue? A. NSSMU B. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 229 . Answer option C is incorrect.www.ncf file. consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems? A. The MONITOR tool is used to view the operational status of the server memory and disks. QUESTION NO: 519 Which of the following is an error detection technique. FTP C. The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. EDI D. DARPA B. Using this information.certkiller. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. When power surge occurs. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. the administrator can view the operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files. MONITOR Answer: D Explanation: In order to diagnose the issue. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. NSSMU is the interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation. Users on the network report that the file server responds very slowly. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility (NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server. the problem can be diagnosed. Mark can use the MONITOR tool. It also provides protection against power surges. Answer option A is incorrect. The company's network has a file server with a Novell Netware operating system.com rtK ille r. Answer option D is incorrect. RESTART SERVER -na D. while the computer gets normal power.

Mark will have to ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. If there is a transmission error. One of the hard disks fails in the array. recreate a RAID-5 array. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array. If these two CRCs match. thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk. C. Answer option B is incorrect. The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to repair a RAID redundancy group. and then replace the failed disk from the array. Replace all the disks of the array. and the receiving modem transmits a negative acknowledgment. when ARPANET was built. the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. Reference.c om . and then copy data from the backup. is computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon formats and networks. it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. When a disk fails. The company's network has a file server that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. the second CRC value will not equal the original one. Answer option A is incorrect. and then replace the failed disk from the array. Contents. "Slay Your Exams" . The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. the hot spare disk is switched into operation. The application protocol offers file service in the Internet suite of protocols.certkiller. D. Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of data for transmission. DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA). FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. B. it goes through the same calculation. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices. A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication QUESTION NO: 520 A.com 230 Ce rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. RAID-5. A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID configuration. What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly? r. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: A Explanation: In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link level and used for detecting errors. such as RAID-1. and then add this disk to the RAID5 array. TechNet.www. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. When the receiving modem gets the data block. DARPA stands for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency.

without shutting down the system? A. default gateway etc. subnet mask. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID-10. Answer option B is incorrect. Err Msg. Hot swap C. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array. Contents. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset [Q100706]" QUESTION NO: 522 Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. Reference. QUESTION NO: 521 Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network? A. "SMTP. Full duplex B. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. TechNet.com rtK ille r. TRACERT D. This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array. or remove and replace a failed disk drive.www. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer option A is incorrect. slow performance etc. such as IP address. On receiving the packets. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG Answer: B Explanation: Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and diagnose network related issues such as. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.c om 231 .certkiller. of a networked computer. ReadyBoost Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. the destination host responds with a series of replies.. Protocol Analyzer C. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Read. PING B. Answer option D is incorrect. as all but one are working properly.

You are developing a backup policy for the company and want to accomplish the following goals. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. A differential backup every night "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. What is differential backup? Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday B. Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and network cards. Which of the following backup policies will you choose? r. It is faster as compared to full backup. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday D. Plug and play Answer: B Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. which helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck. Answer option D is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Answer option C is incorrect. It requires minimum space to backup data. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system.www. The number of tapes required to back up data should be minimized. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the number of tapes required to restore data. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. you should perform a full backup every Friday. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). and device drivers. Using this technology.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 524 Ce A. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. you will have to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. devices. QUESTION NO: 523 Answer: C Explanation: In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data.c om 232 . A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily C. The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized. Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and receive data simultaneously. Answer option A is incorrect. This is because in the event of data loss. or remove and replace a failed device.

GenericIdentity D. using Visual Studio . WindowsIdentity B. I/O B. ATX motherboards have had several modifications on the electrical side. Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Sam wants to ensure that only validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords in TextBox controls. named Text1 and Text2. Choose two. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with each other to create an authorization scheme. ATX C. These changes were made to improve efficiency and safety.certkiller. using System. using System.c om .NET. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the Subordinate role by default. A. QUESTION NO: 525 Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc. These two classes can be used to prompt users for "Slay Your Exams" .Principal. which controls the power supply. An ATX motherboard has a logic switch.NET Framework security class libraries to implement security.Security. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following supports soft power on switch? A. WebService1 uses the . It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server database containing user names. He wants to implement imperative security check on WebService1.www. WindowsPrincipal C. DIN Answer: B Explanation: ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch. He creates an XML Web service. Answer option C is incorrect. The GenericIdentity class represents a generic identity. The 20-pin plug can only plug in one way. DIN is a type of connector. Answer options D and A are incorrect. I/O stands for Input/Output. named WebService1. GenericPrincipal Answer: C. which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake.D Explanation: The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal. An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector.com 233 Ce rtK ille r.Threading. I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards. AT D. AT motherboards are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch.

and to create principal and identity objects. 200 meters B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam their user names and passwords. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke specified security functionality. What is imperative security check? Imperative security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being protected. "WindowsIdentity Class". WindowsPrincipal is a class of the . Visual Studio . The maximum cable segment length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters . 100 meters D. What is declarative security check? Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in metadata. It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code. The company's offices are in different buildings within a local premise. These are the most widely used networks now-a-days. "GenericIdentity Class". Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. required in a given execution context. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable.NET Framework class library. It can be isolated within an object or method. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. or member level. Answer option B is incorrect. 5) Ce You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of permissions. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group.certkiller. to check these values against a database. Reference.com rtK ille r. The topology used in these networks is star.www.NET Combined Collection. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use? "Slay Your Exams" . class. and can be placed at the assembly. which is used to check the Windows group membership of a Windows user. Contents.c om 234 . These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request. The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications. The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect the offices. The number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using category 5 UTP cable. "GenericPrincipal Class" QUESTION NO: 526 A. as it checks the declarative information in the metadata. 2000 meters Answer: C Explanation: The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet. It is used when the requested action and permission attributes are static. 1000 meters C. Declarative security check provides optimized runtime execution of the application. "WindowsPrincipal Class". It is used when security decisions are to be taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime. Answer option A is incorrect. It cannot be used to check the group membership of a user.

Hence. Answer: D Explanation: As the first step. There is no need to add an additional NIC on the server. Add an additional processor. having a single processor can be a bottleneck. you should add an additional processor on the database server. Add an additional NIC. Therefore. which is sufficient for a database server. Answer option B is incorrect. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Install a RAID system Answer: A. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. Add more RAM. C. Add a tape drive. Choose two. there is no need to add more RAM. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. B. In a database server. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration of data if either of the following occur.www. Use data encryption C. What will be the first step you will take to improve performance? A. Answer option C is incorrect.c om . A sector on the disk cannot "Slay Your Exams" . full-time connection to a network.com 235 Ce rtK ille r. A.certkiller. Install and use a tape backup unit B. QUESTION NO: 528 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server. The server has 1GB RAM. D. processors are used extensively for data processing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 527 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.D Explanation: RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a server contains a redundant data set. Install UPS systems on all important devices D. The company's network has a file server with the following configuration. Answer option A is incorrect. Adding a tape drive will not provide better performance. as a database server generates less traffic on the network as compared to a file server. A disk or its access path fails.

The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. A. which was backed up on the tape. Sequential B. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. since the last incremental or full backup. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Reference. Sequential B. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 530 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www. TechNet. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam be read. Full D.com rtK ille r. "Description of Full.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. It needs only one tape to restore data.certkiller. Differential Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. A tape backup can help by giving back the data. QUESTION NO: 529 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. When a file changes later. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. Incremental Answer: C. Choose two. for each file. Differential C..e.c om 236 . called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. Contents. earlier. or are new. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. TechNet. Answer option B is incorrect. it does not set the archive bit. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. i. Windows maintains a marker. A. Contents. Incremental. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.

i.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS. C.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Contents. Incremental.e.certkiller. You must run CONVERT. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. D. "Windows NT 4. since the last incremental or full backup. Answer option A is incorrect. It needs only one tape to restore data. TechNet. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. "Description of Full. for each file. B. You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM. SCSI. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Incremental Answer: C. "Hardware requirement" + "Workstation". Full D.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS. Reference. floppy disk drive. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. 12MB RAM VGA level video support Keyboard IDE. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4. Answer option B is incorrect. or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CDROM drive.com rtK ille r. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data.0 are. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up.0. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Contents.c om 237 .0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide" Ce You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3. it does not set the archive bit. How will you proceed? "Slay Your Exams" .. You must run CONVERT. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 531 A.0. Windows maintains a marker.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.51 to Windows NT Workstation 4. or are new. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor. When a file changes later. Answer: D Explanation: Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. EIDE. or active network connection Reference. TechNet. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.

Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks.certkiller.com rtK ille r. Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server. When this utility is run on a computer. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. The server responds slowly while users try to open their files. Answer: D Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. The server has become slow after three months of working due to fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. it takes a longer time. C. and the total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below. B. D. file data is written in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data. Due to fragmentation. running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its performance. The company's network has a file server. Therefore. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard. however.www. it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files. Increase the paging file size on the file server. file data breaks into discontiguous fragments. unmovable files. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 532 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 238 . The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. After three months. What will you do to improve the server's performance? A. the performance of the server has deteriorated. Over time. contiguous files.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 533 On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at startup. In which file will you define this? A. BOOTSECT.DOS B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOT.INI D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C

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As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed, and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months. This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes. NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system. Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000 startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"

Answer: A

Explanation: Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this issue.

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A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected B. The failover server's IP address C. The primary server's IP address D. The DNS server on the network

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition?

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QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source D. Installing an application from an unreliable source Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.

QUESTION NO: 536

Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. BNC T connector B. The BNC terminator C. RJ-45 connector D. BNC barrel connector Answer: A,B,D Explanation: BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable. The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

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QUESTION NO: 537 Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media? A. Failover clustering B. Datafile striping C. Storage area network (SAN) D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) Answer: D

Explanation: Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations. Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

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Note. REGEDITOR. Therefore.EXE B. Disk Writes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available. REGEDT32.EXE is not recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode. "Registry Editors Installed by Windows NT 4. Although both REGEDT32. Answer option A is incorrect.www. But if the registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings.EXE and REGEDIT. the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000.EXE Answer: A Explanation: You should use the REGEDT32. HARDREG. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array. % Free Space B.EXE are installed during the setup of Windows 2000.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 538 You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000 computer. "Slay Your Exams" .c om .certkiller. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. it is recommended that you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools. The Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were performed on the disk. Answer option C is incorrect. Contents. TechNet. REGEDIT. The Registry Reference. Answer option D is incorrect.EXE D. Current Disk Queue Length C.com 243 Ce QUESTION NO: 539 rtK ille r. REGEDIT. Incorrect use of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer.EXE C.0 [Q155267]" Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available? A. it is suggested that you either save a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the configuration data.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000 computer. % Disk Time D.

4740473b-b335-0d221994f685.com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c. It is a counter of the Logical Disk object. Reference. "http.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object.//www.com rtK ille r.certkiller.mspx?mfr=true" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .microsoft.c om 244 .

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