CompTIA SK0-003

SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

Practice Test
Version 3.2

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 1 Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

Ce

rtK

ille

r.c

om

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. FTP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

3

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server's manufacture website Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms? A. Excessive cooling B. Dust buildup C. Poor ground wires

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

4

The memory does not have the correct timing. Compact flash drive B.c om 5 . Load new tapes D. SATA hard drive C. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Perform a full backup Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity? A. D.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The memory is not the correct speed. The memory is not the correct CAS latency. Verify backup C. Load differential tape B. Blu-Ray drive D. SDLT Tape drive Answer: B QUESTION NO: 14 An administrator is adding memory to a server. B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. Wet floors Answer: B QUESTION NO: 12 Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process? A. C.certkiller. Once the system boots up. the same amount of memory appears as before the upgrade. The memory is not installed in the correct slot.

Replace memory chips with known good memory chips. Doubles memory requirements C. Higher simultaneous thread processing D. Once the server in turned back on. The error states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error? "Slay Your Exams" . Decreases overhead Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16 An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. Smaller initial investment B. Upgrade the server OS QUESTION NO: 17 A. How much usable disk space will this array have? rtK ille Answer: B r. C.www.certkiller. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5 array. Reset the memory chips. The system board website says the board should accept the new amount of memory. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? A. B. All drives are attached to a RAID controller. 432GB D.c om .com 6 Ce A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives. the administrator notices that the memory has not changed. D. 288GB B. 360GB C. 728GB Answer: C QUESTION NO: 18 A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is an advantage of SMP? A. Update the BIOS.

To troubleshoot this problem.com 7 Ce rtK ille r. The user typed in the wrong password Answer: C QUESTION NO: 19 A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they had been working on all morning. which step should the administrator take FIRST? A. C. Group policy "Slay Your Exams" . D. Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the administrator.www. C.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Remote management cards D. The computer was disjoined from the domain. D. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory. Implement an application exception. B. D. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall? A. B. which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft environment? (Select TWO) A. C. WSUS B. Ask the user to reboot their PC.certkiller. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80. Implement port blocking on port 80. Implement an access control list (ACL). Terminal services C. Reboot the file server. The user's account was removed from Active Directory. B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 21 After a virus outbreak.

SNMP Answer: A. Lower cost E. RAID 1 ille A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Enhanced security Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid OS exploits? A.com rtK A. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS). Answer: A Answer: B QUESTION NO: 24 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO) A. Implement a dual-factor authentication method. Many of the servers have been infected with viruses in the past. RAID 0 D.D QUESTION NO: 22 An administrator has been having problems with server security.certkiller. Implement a patch management process. Implement stronger user passwords. C. Higher number of available component choices D. Enhanced stability B. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam E.c QUESTION NO: 23 om 8 .www. Which of the following RAID levels would provide the FASTEST performance? r. D. RAID 5 B. RAID 1+0 C. Vendor supported C.

Local workstations B. A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 25 A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be retained for no longer than three years. Ease of failure recovery C. Which of the following locations should an administrator configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE). Proxy server Answer: D Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0? A.com 9 Ce QUESTION NO: 27 rtK ille r. Server build checklist B. Architecture diagrams D.www. Hardware compatibility list Answer: D QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can be used? "Slay Your Exams" . No configuration Answer: C Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. Email server E. Server baselining tools C. Backup tapes C. SMTP gateway F.certkiller. Domain controllers D. High fault tolerance B. High performance D.c om QUESTION NO: 26 .

the SCSI adapter.com rtK ille r. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. each device. the last device. Failover site Answer: B QUESTION NO: 29 An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS).c om 10 . terminators are required on: (Select TWO) A. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . E. Warm site D. Point-to-point bus topology Answer: D QUESTION NO: 31 When installing external SCSI devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. the first device. the server's parallel port. Sensitivity to background noise B. Cold site C. Shared bus topology D. Smart cable is disconnected D. Battery needs to be replaced B.certkiller. D. Height of the card C. Hot site B. B.www. Light switch is turned off C. UPS needs a firmware update Answer: A QUESTION NO: 30 Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X? A. C.

SCSI C. SATA om Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem? 11 .certkiller. C. Root cause analysis. B.com rtK ille r. Templates Ce Which of the following tools restricts device installation? "Slay Your Exams" . Verify full system functionality. Default domain policy B.c A.www. Group Policy C. Implement the change. Serial D. File share properties Answer: B QUESTION NO: 35 Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack into an installation when the media does not include the service pack? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 33 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 34 A. Disk Management D. IEEE 1394 B. Test the theory to determine the cause.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process? A. D.

Full Height. Press F6 "Slay Your Exams" . Universally Keyed PCI card B. Define a test server group. half height.D.www.certkiller.c om . x16 PCI Express Card D. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task? A. Half Height. schedule installation on production servers and then install all updates and patches. PCI-X 3. Half Height. Slipstreaming Answer: D QUESTION NO: 36 An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an internal SLA. 3. Universally Keyed PCI-X card F. 3.3v PCI-X card C.3v slot available. install the patches and if successful schedule installation on production servers. Half Height. Half Height. Half Height.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Universally Keyed PCI card G. Full Height.E QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a Windows installation? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 37 A.3v PCI card E. Which of the following cards can fit in this slot? (Select THREE) ille r. B. Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation. D. RIS C.com 12 Ce rtK A server has a single. Ghost D. C. Install the patches during a non-working hour. Define a test server group. x8 PCI Express Card Answer: A.

C. during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the drive lights flash. D. The NIC is not on the HCL. The driver is incorrect on the server.c om . Check the backplane cabling. Update the RAID controller firmware.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Blade servers allow for more RAM Answer: B QUESTION NO: 40 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 41 An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server. The system POSTs fine and the NIC is recognized by the OS. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives B. Press ESC C. Press Alt+F8 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server? A. "Slay Your Exams" . but it does not receive an IP address. The patch cable has not been seated properly.com 13 Ce A. B. Press any key D. The administrator powers up the server. B. C. Blade servers offer more rack density C. Blade servers are typically faster D.certkiller. Check the server BIOS. Install the latest hard drive firmware rtK An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage.www. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? ille r.

SATA Answer: C QUESTION NO: 43 Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible? A. The administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. The web server was not installed properly. C. The NIC is not seated properly. After bringing the system online. iSCSI D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 42 Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network? A. B. customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server. RAID 0 B. RAID 10 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 44 An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. The server's firewall is misconfigured. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly. RAID 6 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.certkiller. D.www. SCSI C. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. SAS B. The customers continue to report issues.c om 14 . The company firewall is misconfigured Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 5 C.com rtK ille r.

This array will store transaction logs that are always being written. DDR Answer: B QUESTION NO: 48 A new storage array must be configured for a database server. B.certkiller.www. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity? A.c om . which of the following technologies provides the LOWEST cost solution? A. Perform a root cause analysis. RAID 0 "Slay Your Exams" . Active/passive cluster B.com 15 Ce Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip? rtK ille r. Implement the next logical change. Establish a new theory of probable cause. Reverse the change. Active/active cluster C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 45 When load balancing traffic between two web servers. D. Log shipping D. L1 C. C. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 47 A. EDO B. xD D. DNS round robin Answer: D QUESTION NO: 46 When an administrator is troubleshooting a system. which of the following describes the NEXT course of action if a change does not solve the problem? A.

RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 49 An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on every server. Full control can only be set using share permissions.168.168. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. RAID 6 D. The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP server. C. File permissions are less granular than share permissions. File permissions are more granular than share permissions. A DHCP server is available on subnet 192. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 50 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share permissions? A.100. RAID 3 C. Ce A.100.0/24 subnet "Slay Your Exams" . Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server.certkiller.101. Add a DHCP relay to the 192. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP.168. B.0/24. B.101. B. C. C. Assign the workstation a static IP address. Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date.168. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem? r.100.com rtK ille A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192.168.0/24 subnet.0/24 subnet. D. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem? A.0/24. Full control can only be set using file permissions.www. D. Add a second DHCP server to the 192. Add a DHCP server to the 192.c om 16 .

mail protocol. and the installer fails again.c Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file? om 17 . Answer: D QUESTION NO: 55 Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. the install fails.certkiller. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed. DHCP C. C. C. When the administrator runs the patch installer. The administrator tries again.www.com rtK ille A. WINS r. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install. D. multi-processing. D. B. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server Answer: A QUESTION NO: 53 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 54 SMP is considered to be a form of: A. DNS D. monitoring protocol. mapped printer. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 52 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. FTP B.

C. No physical hardware to setup C. Riser cards B. D.com rtK ille r.c om 18 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Native RIS integration D. Shroud D. Operating system C. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN. Motherboard B.certkiller. Heat sinks Answer: D. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Water cooling C. Clone the machine from a template Answer: B QUESTION NO: 57 Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 56 Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use? A. All expansion cards stop working simultaneously.E Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Expansion cards D. Riser cards QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO) A. Baffle E.www. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic. Remote configuration B. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary B.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 59 Which of the following BEST describes a DAS? A. L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor. Registered Answer: A QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache? A. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached technologies D. B. C. NAS C.c om .certkiller. RAID C. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network. Tape library B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 60 Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company LAN? A. "Slay Your Exams" . Optical jukebox D. ECC B.www.com 19 Ce Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement? rtK ille r. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network. C. Pairing D. L3 cache operates faster than the system processor B. SAN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 61 A.

-v D.certkiller. 3 B. -r B.www. -a C. Excessive dust accumulation Answer: D QUESTION NO: 64 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array? A.com rtK ille r.c om 20 . Extreme humidity variances C. Power stability fluctuations D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure? A. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus. 5 D. Extreme temperature variances B. 4 C. -n Answer: B QUESTION NO: 66 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . which option is used with the ping command to convert numerical addresses to host names? A. 10 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65 When running a Windows server.

Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . /all Answer: D QUESTION NO: 67 Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a certain type of printer. /flushdns C. Memory leak in one of the print drivers C. an administrator must ensure which of the following? A. The disk drive is out of free space D. The system is labeled so that it can be identified C.www. Verify the change control process can be implemented D. /release D.certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns. Determine the correct power requirements Answer: D QUESTION NO: 69 A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN. An administrator verifies that the user can successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel B.com rtK ille r.c om 21 . but can connect by IP address. Memory leak in the print spooler Answer: D QUESTION NO: 68 After a server has been installed into a rack. Corrupted print spooler software B. Other users are not having a problem. /renew B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the functionality of a DHCP server? A.

Flush the cache on the WINS server. D. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. 1-7 B. C. B. D. Flush the cache on the DNS server.c om 22 .com rtK A. Examine the Imhost file. Distributed Application Server B.certkiller. C. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . 1-16 C. 0-7 D. The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power. 0-15 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 71 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)? A. Examine the hosts file Answer: A QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter? A. Peer-to-Peer Application Server D. The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate. File and Print Server ille Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program? r. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs. Dedicated Application Server C. The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs.www.

DDR3 D. SODIMM B.msi D. Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools? (Select TWO). . A. During the investigation. . Disk Utilization C. Network Utilization Answer: B. . SDRAM C.E Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default? A.Ini C. System Temperature D.com 23 Ce QUESTION NO: 75 rtK ille r. Fan "Slay Your Exams" .exe B. Processor Utilization E.dll Answer: C QUESTION NO: 76 Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis? A. . the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high level of activity. DDR2 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 74 Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly.www. Page File B.certkiller.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 73 Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed? A.

Active/active cluster D. PXE support C. Differential C. GFS Answer: C Answer: B QUESTION NO: 79 Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high availability between two web servers with static content? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. FTP server B. CUPS D. Installation CD ille Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the following? r. Active/passive cluster C. Heat sink C. Shroud D.com rtK A. Multicast B.certkiller.c QUESTION NO: 78 om 24 . DNS round robin Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. Incremental B. Radiator Answer: A QUESTION NO: 77 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data? A. Full D.

Local policy D. Decreased performance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 83 An administrator notes that after a recent power outage.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 80 An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the server and begins the troubleshooting process. Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine the cause of this corruption? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Set NTFS permissions Answer: B QUESTION NO: 82 A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following? A. The supporting documentation B. Logon scripts C. The vendor website C. Increased heat output B. The server event logs Answer: D QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple shared drives? A. Loss of storage data D. some open files were corrupted on one affected file server. Configure individual user accounts B.c om 25 .certkiller. The Internet D.www. Damage of the hardware C. Which of the following is the FIRST place the administrator should look for specific information about the problem? A.com rtK ille r.

Since implementing the new network. Disable the wireless DHCP server. Change the default gateway of the wireless router Answer: D QUESTION NO: 85 A. Schedule system down time Answer: A QUESTION NO: 86 When cabling a rack. and all network cables down the center D. individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues.com 26 Ce rtK An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server. The server's RAID controller battery C. Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access "Slay Your Exams" . Add another wireless access point. The server's processor D. The server's NIC teaming configuration Answer: A QUESTION NO: 84 A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. Use rack specific cabling hardware B. Add another DHCP server. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next? ille r. which of the following is BEST practice? A. Channel all power cables down the sides. C.www.c om . Identify necessary operating system updates B. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The server's memory B. D. Which of the following would resolve this issue? A. Document the change D. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers C.certkiller. The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into production. Implement the change C.

C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 87 Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations? A. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore? A. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to enhance performance. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher availability. A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to increase processing power and overall performance D. DHCP C. SNMP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 88 Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment? A. Take a differential backup while the server is online. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 90 "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. DNS D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 89 An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online.c om . C.www. NTP B. B. D. B. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online. Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage.com 27 Ce rtK ille r.

www. Configure IPMI on the new board.c om 28 . Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows? A. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire. C.certkiller. Update the time and date in the BIOS. Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives. B. C. 8 rtK How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable? ille r. Which of the following is the FIRST thing that the administrator should do? A. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SNMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 92 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 93 An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. Notify staff of the potential service outage. 6 D. TFTP D. B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 91 Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol? A. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room. D. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller. Evacuate all personnel. UDP C. Update the firmware to the latest version. 4 C. 3 B. TCP B.com A.

Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon. Tape restore utilities B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 94 A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate web page as their default home page. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy. Array management utilities Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following methods should an administrator use to BEST comply with this policy? A. Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure compliance. Imaging utilities C.certkiller.c om 29 . Unchanged C. Deleted B. Partitioning utilities D. the archive bit on the backed up files will be which of the following? A. Copied Answer: A QUESTION NO: 96 Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been replaced? A. D. B.www.com rtK ille r. C. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 95 After performing a copy backup of a file server. Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image. Set D.

"Slay Your Exams" . Partial.com 30 Ce While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server. Daily D. Greatest.c om . Shareware file sharing site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 100 An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second Windows server. Full. Server manufacturer D. Which of the following sources should be used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO). Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO). the system administrator has determined that the video firmware should be updated. Differential.certkiller. Sequential B. Final. rtK QUESTION NO: 99 ille r. Which of the following describes this backup method? A.www. Mirroring with striping B. Monthly. Full.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 97 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Independent disks with shared parity Answer: B A. Incremental C. Operating system manufacturer E. Third-party manufacturer B. Weekly. Striping with distributed parity D. Striping with dedicated parity C. Video chipset manufacturer C. Incremental Answer: C QUESTION NO: 98 RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following? A.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. WMI B. RIS C. DNS D. SNMP E. SMTP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS? A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order B. Power being lost during the upgrade process C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 102

An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Corrupt file system table B. Backplane failure C. Multiple drive failure D. Bad cable Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 103 Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: A

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

31

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity? A. SAS B. SATA C. Flash D. SCSI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files? A. GFS B. Full C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106

A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the problem? A. IP address is classful. B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address. C. IP address is a subnet network address. D. IP address is classless Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107 An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 32

Ce

rtK

ille

r.c

om

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures. B. Review the system logs to check for errors. C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline. D. Apply all security updates to the system. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108 Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram? A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 110 Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes? A. Proper labeling B. Asset management C. Keeping good vendor logs D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs Answer: A

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. Fiber channel E. PAT A

rtK

ille

Which of the following are ways to transport SAN traffic? (Select TWO)

r.c

om

33

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 111 In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive operation? A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position. B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive. C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1. D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 112 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices? A. MIBs B. SMTP C. WMI D. DHCP Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113

A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to determine the problem? A. Loop back plugs B. Power supply tester C. System logs D. TDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 114 When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

Ce

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

34

SAN C. Third party memory C. FAT B.www. NTFS D. Hot spare Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Server type Answer: A QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber channel? A.certkiller. Signed drivers D. Third party cables B. JBOD B.c om 35 . DAS D.com rtK ille r. Registered memory D. EXT3 C. ECC E.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Memory RAID C. NAS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following file systems are native to *nix? A. Chipkill B. FAT32 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select TWO) A.

CPU overheating C. B. D. however.c An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. Disk Management E. Redundant power supply failure B. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 119 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 120 A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented. Virtual Center Answer: C. The administrator powers up the server and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. Hard disk failure ille r. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue.com rtK A. A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized. C. Computer Management D. A. Hypervisor C. when the server is booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer. From which of the following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO). The current system configuration should be documented for future use.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 118 An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version.www. Memory failure D. Which of the following is the BEST solution to address this problem? A. Format command B. Which of the following is the cause? om 36 .certkiller.D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

com 37 Ce After applying a new driver to a NIC. RAID 0+1 C.www. New Technology File Systems (NTFS) B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA? A. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 122 A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. Digitally signed device drivers C. RAID 1 B. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver. then striping of the disks? A. Boot the server with ASR option. the server reboots and fails to restart. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve the problem? rtK QUESTION NO: 123 ille r. C. D.c om . B. Which of the following steps should the technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem? A.certkiller. Reinstall the operating system Answer: B A. Boot the server. RAID 6 D. Flash the BIOS D. Try to replicate the problem C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first. Reseat all main components B. press F8 and access last known good configuration. Restore the server using last backup tape. Virtual machine components "Slay Your Exams" .

Excessive network traffic ille Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity? r. Slow processor C. A.www. Reduce the amount of data on the backup D. Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive C.c om 38 . PCI bus D. D. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next Answer: A. Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes E. C. Install an extended battery pack into the UPS Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Enable compression on the LTO2 drive B. Multiple RAID configurations Answer: B QUESTION NO: 125 An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape. The administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes. B. Install a second UPS. Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO). Increase the size of the pagefile.certkiller. Increase the size of the swapfile.com rtK A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Inadequate RAM B. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully? A.C QUESTION NO: 126 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 127 A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully.

com rtK ille A. Clean the servers to limit dust buildup C. Poor performance B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 128 Fibre channel requires which of the following elements? A. Physical Adapter D. FC Initiator B. Multi-Mode fibre C.c om Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed every three months? 39 . Fibre Target Management Agent Answer: C QUESTION NO: 129 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 130 Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10? A. Wash the outside of the servers D. Not supported by many RAID controllers D.certkiller. Higher cost Answer: D QUESTION NO: 131 Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off? A. Replace the rubber mats in the server room B. Replace the server fans r. No fault tolerance C.www. Plug and Play Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

B. Add a hardware firewall D. Which of the following components should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network? A. Hot site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 132 Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO). VPN B. Use a lower voltage power supply C.com A. Increase the amount of RAM B. A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory. Telnet D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. C. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor. D. E. KVM over IP C. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor Answer: A. A device transfers data directly to the memory.C QUESTION NO: 133 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 134 A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. Remote Desktop rtK ille Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the OS crashes? r. A device connects to another device without involving the processor.www.certkiller. Hot plug D. A.c om 40 . Warm site C. Install redundant NICs Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

Firmware update D.certkiller. Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB. Full and differential C. Full and incremental D. Incremental and snapshot B. C. B. Currently. Differential and incremental Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 41 . Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only requires two backup sets to recover the system? A. and daily backups are done the rest of the week. Defrag B. IPCONFIG /release C. Reduce the amount of data to be backed up.com rtK ille r. Baseline Answer: C QUESTION NO: 136 A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company policy. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library Answer: D QUESTION NO: 137 Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a server? A. the server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive. Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application.www. Which of the following should the server administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job? A. D.

10. Striping with parity B.c om .www.15. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use of system resources. Add additional RAM to the user PC "Slay Your Exams" .100. 192.1 C.100. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem? A. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive B. Which of the following should be considered FIRST? A.168.certkiller.11.1 D. Striping Answer: D QUESTION NO: 141 A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been. Striping with mirroring C.254.16.31.40 B. Data security policies and procedures C. 172.76 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 139 A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired.com 42 Ce rtK QUESTION NO: 140 ille r. The system administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the previously taken baseline. Mirroring D. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is a public IP address? A. 172. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions Answer: B Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0? A.

c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. RAID 0 across all 6 drives "Slay Your Exams" . The server has too little memory installed. B. Multi-processing C. Dual processing B. rtK ille An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server. Troubleshoot the user PC C. Multi-threading Answer: B QUESTION NO: 143 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 144 A system administrator needs to maintain 1. C. There are six 250GB drives available in the server for storage space. D.www. Which of the following describes this capability of the processor? A.2TB of storage for a database server. RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs B. Add additional RAM to the server D. When the server is running POST the controller does not appear as present. Which of the following could be the reason for this? r.certkiller. Add additional hard drive space to the server Answer: B QUESTION NO: 142 A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time. RAID 5 across all 6 drives C. RAID 10 across all 6 drives D. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors? A.com 43 Ce A. The server hard drives have not begun to spin. Multi-tasking D. The server does not have the correct drivers.

Disk-to-disk replication C. RAID 0 B. RAID implementation B.c om 44 .certkiller. Prior to purchasing hardware B.www. After installation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. When installing drivers D. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 147 At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly? A. RAID 5 D. RAID 1 C. Before installation C. Server-to-server clustering D. Hot site replication Answer: D QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only determining factor? A.

www. Snapshot C. Mirroring with fault tolerance C.c om . To reduce costs. Striping with distributed parity ille Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10? r. Striping D.com 45 Ce rtK A. Which of the following site types should be considered to meet these requirements? A. Active failover site "Slay Your Exams" . Differential backup B. Mirroring with striping B. Hot site B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache B. VSS D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Incremental backup Answer: C QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following defines memory interleaving? A. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor D. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache Answer: B QUESTION NO: 150 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 151 An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. Warm site C. this backup site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank C. A backup site must be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable. Cold site D.certkiller. It must contain equipment and the ability to restore data from the data center.

www. which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a newly installed Windows Server OS? A. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 155 A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time. Apportion additional storage. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration. Disable the Guest account. Apply all relevant updates and patches. ATA-2 D. Tape backup Answer: C Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector? A. Disk imaging C. D. Full B.certkiller. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" . SCSI Answer: C QUESTION NO: 154 According to best practices.c om QUESTION NO: 153 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers? A. SATA-2 B. C. B. SAT A C. Incremental D.com 46 Ce rtK ille r.

www. Monitor processor performance logs B. all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT r. authorize the server. ille In a workgroup. Use performance server logs D. Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment. B. D. configure the scopes. D.c om 47 . install DHCP service. Remove the floppy drives from the system. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling. Constantly check the task manager C. RISC B.certkiller. Hyper-V Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel.com rtK A. Symmetric multi-processing D. activate the scopes. Multicore C. Establish a baseline for the server Answer: D QUESTION NO: 156 Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 157 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors within System Properties in a Windows Server? A. B. C.

www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 159 A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. System logs B. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user on the IT directory? A. POST messages D. Which of the following can provide important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause? A. The cache is from a different manufacturer C.0GHz 2Mb cache model. The only processor that is available from a manufacturer is a 3. B. The processors do not match D.com rtK ille r. the administrator verifies permissions are set for the directory. Set folder permissions to modify D.certkiller. C. Application logs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 162 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Set folder permissions to 770. The server currently has a single 3. Firmware updates C. Set folder permissions to 760. The socket size does not match B. Set folder permissions to full control Answer: B QUESTION NO: 161 A server is having problems booting into the operating system. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed Answer: A QUESTION NO: 160 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory. Which of the following is the BEST reason why this upgrade will not work? A.0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket.c om 48 .

D. Disable the device using Device Manager. Host OS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically? A. an external USB 1. the fastest storage device available in the system. B. Virtual Center D. Run the disable command. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 164 Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Guest OS C. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system. C. Hypervisor B. the operating system partition.c om 49 .com rtK ille r. B. B.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache. the optimal place for the system swap file is on A. Reboot the server. uninstall the driver. C. but has not determined the cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache. D. logon in Safe Mode.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server.www. Perform a root cause analysis Answer: D QUESTION NO: 163 In order to provide the lowest access latency. Which of the following should the administrator do prior to escalating the issue? A. C. Reboot the server.certkiller. Review manufacturer manual. Gather information from users.

To increase the number of threads C. SAS Answer: C QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. Ultra320 SCSI D. Which of the following tools would allow the administrator to test name resolution? "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds? A.com 50 Ce rtK ille r. DHCP B.www.certkiller. Ultra2 SCSI B. RARP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 169 Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites. An administrator wants to test that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address. SAT A C. To eliminate excessive alerts B. DNS D. To monitor use of VPN traffic D.c om . To allow more email to come through Answer: C QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds? A. ARP C.

ipconfig C. Second HBA D. Second PBX card Answer: D QUESTION NO: 171 An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server. always uses an IP address to access data. C. C. Install a PBX card. ifconfig Answer: B QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP server? A. net view B. never uses an IP address for network connectivity D.certkiller. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. Install a second NIC card. B. Install a fail-over cable. Which of the following is the BEST solution to accomplish this? A. B.c om 51 . dig D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.www. Second CPU C. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 172 A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS: A. D. does support multipath I/O. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit. is attached to a local disk controller. Second Modem B.

com rtK ille A. C. Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation. B. D. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours D. Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first.www. Configure netsh settings in case of backup B. Uninstall TCP/IP r. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST once the power is restored? A. Restart the server C. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks C. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC system? A.certkiller. Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers Answer: B Answer: D QUESTION NO: 175 A data center has had a power outage.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 173 A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they have grown. Notify users D.c Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP on the server? om QUESTION NO: 174 52 . Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 176 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. PTR D. Low Density "Slay Your Exams" . Ethernet cable Ce A. A B.com rtK Click on the Exhibit button. MX C. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot. Default gateway B. The ports on the switch C.www. 50 Pin SCSI Connector.c om 53 . Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 177 Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email? A. 80 Pin SCSI Connector B. AAAA Answer: B QUESTION NO: 178 QUESTION NO: 179 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. Incremental C. High Density C. Port security on the server's switch port D. 68 Pin SCSI Connector.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all necessary data in the LEAST amount of time? A. High Density D. Which of the following connectors is image D? ille r. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. Daily B.certkiller. Normal D.

D. The manager is a power user on the temporary server. Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . After the move.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 180 A Windows file server has run out of space. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. Heat sink D. The temporary server was formatted as NTFS. C. Case fan Answer: B QUESTION NO: 182 An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing. B. a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the items that have been moved.www. The administrator gets an error message over temperature error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST? A. C. The manager is an administrator on the temporary server Answer: C QUESTION NO: 181 A mail server keeps shutting down. A network printer was disconnected. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32. D. B.com rtK ille r.certkiller.c om 54 . In the interim the administrator is moving several archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server file shares. The administrator reviews the server and the print service is started. The drivers for the printers are failing. Power supply fan B. The spool folder is not on the C drive. CPU fan C. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A. The spool folder is full.

UID switch B.c om . The administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. Convert the filesystem to EXT3. Power switch C. The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB.com 55 Ce QUESTION NO: 185 rtK ille r.certkiller. the DHCP server must have configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO). C. B. Convert the filesystem to FAT32 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 184 A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of the following purposes? A. Chassis intrusion switch Answer: D Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous full backup? A. Convert the filesystem to VMFS. Cooling fan switch D. Convert the filesystem to NTFS. Snapshot B. D.www. Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this? A. Copy D. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 186 For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 183 A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server running Windows Server 2003. Incremental C. "Slay Your Exams" . This file needs to be saved on the server.

Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access. WINS C. SNA server C. C. FTP D.c om 56 . Web server E. Subnet mask Answer: A.www.certkiller. MIB Answer: D QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses? A.E QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor details on page counts? A. Mail server D. Implement anti-spam software on the server. Gateway address B. WMI B. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. DNS B. Implement anti-virus software on the server. Implement ACLs. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. SNMP D. DHCP C. DHCP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a service on a company server? A. B.

VLAN tagging Answer: B QUESTION NO: 191 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 192 An application server is running slowly. Memory pairing ille r. Registered memory C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 190 A server is configured with two network cards. B. D. which of the following load balancing techniques should be used? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 193 "Slay Your Exams" . Add more disk drives. NIC teaming C. Clustering B.com 57 Ce rtK A. RAID B. C.www. Add more memory to stop paging to disk. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at the same time without assigning more than one IP address.certkiller. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected that the disk queue length is high. Increase the amount of virtual memory. OSPF D. Add a faster processor. ECC D.c Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance for memory? om . Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation? A.

Verify CPU load Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive? A. Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage. System state restore D.c om 58 . Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution. Attach a USB drive to one of the servers. Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load B. Incremental backup C.certkiller. Differential backup Answer: A A. System image B. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective solution to add storage to both servers? ille QUESTION NO: 195 r. Partitioning management Answer: D QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data? A. The internal drives are at capacity and the company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. Monitoring agents D. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before installing new servers? A. RAID array management B. Add a NAS to the environment Answer: D QUESTION NO: 196 An administrator will replace five current servers.com rtK Two file servers have run out of local disk space. CHKDSK C. B. C.www. Verify if server consumes 220V C. D.

Thicknet Answer: A QUESTION NO: 199 Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and subsequently fixed? A. Fast Ethernet C.com rtK ille r.certkiller. Fiber optic B. CAS D. DVD-RW D. ECC C. Coaxial D. CD-R C. RAID B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Verify if server consumes 110V Answer: C QUESTION NO: 197 Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is WORM media? A. Flash Answer: B QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic eavesdropping? A.c om 59 . CD-RW B. SDRAM Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www.

Hyperthreading Answer: C QUESTION NO: 203 Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance? A. NX C. Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error? rtK ille r.certkiller. Local laws and regulations B. SATA B. Four drives with RAID 0 B. iSCSI C.www. Escalation procedure regulations C. Four drives with RAID 3 "Slay Your Exams" .c om . HBA Answer: D QUESTION NO: 201 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel? A. XD B. SCSI D.com 60 Ce An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving an error. Server OEM regulations Answer: D QUESTION NO: 202 A. Manufacturer's regulations D. VT D.

certkiller. Tape C. Flash Answer: D Ce A. The environment is outside of the DMZ. Optical D. 4 D. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. D. Multiple types of network cards were used. C. B. 5 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 205 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments? A. 3 C.www.c om 61 . "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized environment? r. Hardware used is not on the HCL. How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup? A. Four drives with RAID 5 D. Four drives with RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 204 A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday through Saturday. Disk B. 2 B.

To fully restore the server. Two C. and Saturday. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded C. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday. prior to booting into Linux. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . D. and differential backups on Tuesday. Improper termination D. Thursday. The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment.www. One B.c om . C. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 208 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. and Friday. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 207 An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server boots into Windows. which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. Too many SCSI devices on one system Answer: C QUESTION NO: 210 An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server. incremental backups on Monday. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Three D.com 62 Ce QUESTION NO: 209 rtK ille r. Four Answer: C Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication? A. The database will be replicated between multiple servers. Wednesday.certkiller. The system needs to boot to Windows first. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS. Cost and performance are the most important considerations. Low communication latency B. A performance critical application will use this storage space for a database.

backup operators Ce A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 212 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 213 An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on a default Windows installation. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array? A.www. System Resource Monitor B.com rtK Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline? ille r. The user is using a PostScript driver. remote users. The printer is not on the HCL. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives C. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to: A. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives D. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print. Replication Monitor D.c om 63 . RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives B. D. The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server. Performance Monitor "Slay Your Exams" . C. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. server operators.certkiller. account operators. C. The administrator finds that whenever a certain user prints the print spooler crashes. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives Answer: B QUESTION NO: 211 Users are having trouble printing in terminal services. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) C. B. B.

Which of the following settings would BEST provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO). Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161 C. Cooling. VoIP D.c QUESTION NO: 215 om Answer: D. but the administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. NIC ille Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity? r. Service level agreements. Biometrics. and fire suppression B. Humidity monitors. Setting up a custom community name B. Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161 D. Installing new MIBs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 216 Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new server? A. HBA B. fire suppression. and CCTV D. and power requirements C. A.E 64 . and power requirements Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . All devices are configured with SNMP. rack space.www.certkiller. PBX C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 214 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators when hardware and applications are having issues. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices E.com rtK A. uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment. Biometrics.

F QUESTION NO: 220 "Slay Your Exams" . DNS server F.com 65 Ce QUESTION NO: 219 rtK ille r. D. Boot into Safe Mode. Domain name Answer: C. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration. a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST. Use ESD equipment. B.www. which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP users? (Select THREE) A.E.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 217 While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. NTP server C.c om . Verify correct voltages are being supplied. reboots the DC. and logs in to configure the NIC. B. While powering on the server. Install compatible PCI cards Answer: A QUESTION NO: 218 An administrator installs a driver. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode Answer: D When configuring a DHCP server. the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into Windows. Database server B. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A.certkiller. Which of the following could be done to prevent this problem? A. SQLServer E. C. C. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues. Reseat the NIC. D. Once the administrator opens the NIC properties. DHCP server D.

All IT contact numbers Answer: B QUESTION NO: 221 An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. Payroll D. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation? A. Document the outcome. After troubleshooting the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again. Fault tolerance and zero configuration C. The test plan C.www.com rtK ille r. Implement preventative measures. which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Rack temperature C.certkiller. Fault tolerance and failure recovery B. Zero configuration and high performance Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. Ease of access Answer: B QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 5? A.c om 66 . Room temperature D. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take? A. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue Answer: C QUESTION NO: 222 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system. B. Emergency exits B. Close the issue. Load on UPS B.

Disk drive failure D. om 67 . Higher administrative complexity B. it times out.c An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory.D QUESTION NO: 226 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment? A. When the administrator restarts the server after the upgrade.www. D. More effective usage of computing resources D. Third party memory C. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6. Backplane failure ille r. ESD during the upgrade E. Improved performance for users Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5. C. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 225 Answer: B. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? (Select TWO). High performance and fault tolerance Answer: A QUESTION NO: 224 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Processor failure B. B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.certkiller. Increased level of security C.com rtK A.

Higher data integrity B. restore system applications. and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS. Determine backups available.www. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher than stated Answer: B QUESTION NO: 230 There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) software.c om . but not using the central UPS. D. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 227 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN? A.certkiller. Restore applications. restore data. C. B. Restore OS. Higher redundancy D. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . and verify data. and verify data. Contact end users of outage. Increased performance Answer: B QUESTION NO: 228 Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server? A. This server has two processors. Additional power is available. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an upgrade of the central UPS can occur? rtK ille r. C. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error. restore backup data. restore backups.com 68 Ce A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the room and is causing power load problems. D. Lower cost of implementation C. and restore data. but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems. and verify data. 16GB of memory. Continue plugging into the central UPS. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 229 A.

SAT A D.c om 69 . B. SAS C. reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem. Structural columns Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Two failed sticks of memory D.certkiller. Lighting C. which of the following is the BEST course of action to take? A. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function. Implement one change at a time.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following is the MOST likely cause? A. Temperature B. D.www.com rtK ille r. Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware and move onto software C. Two failed drives Answer: A QUESTION NO: 231 When implementing a solution to a problem. RAID 1 B. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance? A. Two failed processors C. JBOD Answer: D QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating environment? A. A failed RAID controller B.

certkiller. VPN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 236 A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies? A. Add more memory. Full B. Remote desktop software B. Move the page file to a free drive. B. Delete the file.c QUESTION NO: 235 om 70 . Database Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C.www. D. Elevation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 234 The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server. IP KVM E. The administrator notices that the file pagefile.com rtK ille r. Remove the page file from system properties Answer: C Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO) A. Incremental D. Dedicated management card C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Telnet session D.sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space. Which of the following would BEST resolve this problem? A. Differential C.

IP address for network printer E. RAID 5 C. 802. RAID 6 D. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens. Wire shelving diagram D. RAID 10 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 240 An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC.www.certkiller.1q D. AES B.c om 71 . Antivirus software version B. Which of the following is the NEXT step? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 237 Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN tunnel? A.com rtK ille r. Battery replacement date C. Shutdown delay timing Answer: B. RAID 3 B. ISAKMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 238 Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation records? (Select TWO) A.E QUESTION NO: 239 Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the array? A. TKIP C.

C. D.c om 72 . Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode. Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK A. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration. IP address C. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline. Disk drive size B. The change should be approved by management. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected. B. number of files. memory usage. B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 241 All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT A. Reboot the server again. D. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode. average disk I/O. B. C. Acceptable outage time D. C.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 242 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 243 Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server? A. Operating system version ille Which of the following information would be on a system classification list? r. number of users. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change. D.certkiller.

Key recovery agent C.www. The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory. D. Trusted root certificate store D. C. Root certificate store Answer: B Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. That user account is then accidentally deleted. Frontside bus C. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. a user encrypts several documents on a shared file server.c om . the server only shows 1GB of memory during POST. however. Two of the memory sticks are defective. The server is using memory interleaving Answer: C QUESTION NO: 245 In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI.certkiller. B. The system memory has different manufacture dates.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 244 An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed. Backside bus D. PCI B. Verifying the OS manufacturers "Slay Your Exams" .com 73 Ce QUESTION NO: 246 rtK ille r. System I/O bus Answer: C QUESTION NO: 247 Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list? A. Key recovery administrator B. Which of the following must be configured in order to decrypt those files? A.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Locating a hosting facility C. SDRAM D.www. NAS D. JBOD B. Baffles D. DAS C. Consulting with the system manufacturers D. Interviewing system owners Answer: A QUESTION NO: 248 Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly? A. Phase changers C. ECC Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID B.com rtK A. SAN ille Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an iSCSI connection? r. Molex connectors Answer: A Answer: D QUESTION NO: 250 Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors? A. Registered memory C.certkiller.c QUESTION NO: 249 om 74 . U-size templates B.

www.c om 75 . Motherboard Answer: C QUESTION NO: 254 When disposing of computer equipment. SCSI drives D.certkiller. Diagnostic LEDs D. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 251 A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily. SCSI backplane C. Remote management card C. Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the server data? A. Optical Answer: A QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive? A. SAN C. Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem? "Slay Your Exams" . and needs to be stored for 20 years. Firmware update B. The server OS crashed and the server will not boot. Multimeter Answer: A QUESTION NO: 253 A. Flash D. Tape B. which of the following can present an environmental hazard? Ce A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array. Memory B.com rtK ille r.

Exchange server first.com 76 Ce rtK A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions.www. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files. then the Exchange server second. the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application. Which of the following is the BEST way to restart the servers? A. B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 256 A. C.certkiller. D. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter. CRT monitor Answer: D QUESTION NO: 255 An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server. then the DC server second. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time. B. Immediately after the update. D. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive D. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? ille r. DC server first.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The administrator needs to install a patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. SATA cable C. The update has quarantined files that are false positives. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive "Slay Your Exams" . The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly.c om . Bezel B. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive C. Cat5 cable D. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 257 Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array? A. C.

www. Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly. Restart the installation via WDS. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers. When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive. Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode ille r. WORM Answer: C. Online troubleshooting tools B.certkiller. CD-R D. Flash B. Vendor website D. B.D QUESTION NO: 259 QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware? A. DLT4 tapes C. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? om .c An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID array.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 258 Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified? (Select TWO) A. SDLT tapes E. D. C. there are no drives listed.com 77 Ce Answer: C rtK A. Support forums Answer: C QUESTION NO: 261 "Slay Your Exams" .

Replace cache battery Ce "Slay Your Exams" . however.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1? A.certkiller. Optical media Answer: A QUESTION NO: 264 A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures. Network share B. A. PXE C. The cables are connected.c om 78 . the My Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS. B. the drive has power. USB D. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive? A. Recreate the partition that was deleted. C. Run a check disk on the drive Answer: D QUESTION NO: 263 Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software? A. D.com rtK ille r. Higher performance C. and the drive shows up in Device Manager. Higher capacity B. Reformat the NTFS partition. Rewrite the MBR. Which of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO). Fault tolerance D. Break mirror array B.www. Multiple failure fault tolerance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 262 A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive.

Restore from back up E. Replace hot standby D. F6 B.www. Hot site D. Server clustering C. Server-to-server replication B. Project guidelines given by stakeholders D.com rtK A. Replace defective hard drives Answer: C. F8 D. Company policies and guidelines C. Mail server and backup capacity Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . F9 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 266 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy? A. F7 C. Local laws and industry regulations B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.E QUESTION NO: 265 Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a Windows set-up? A.c om 79 .certkiller. Disk-to-disk replication ille Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network? r.

B. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this? A.www. Update security patches.certkiller.E QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator needs to update the anti-virus. and then the anti-virus. UAC D. and the web server software on a production system. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 270 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel SAN connectivity? A. C. only one change at a time should be done. security patches. Update anti-virus. Better server hardware leverage B. HBA B.com rtK ille r. The order does not matter. Update the web software. Increased application security C. web software. and then the web software. NIC Answer: A QUESTION NO: 271 Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple processors? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Little to no maintenance needed Answer: A. security patches.c om 80 . security patches. anti-virus. Lower power consumption E. and then the BIOS. USB C. BIOS. BIOS. Smaller datacenter footprint F. Smaller backup window needed D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE) A. BIOS software. D.B.

certkiller. Symmetric multi-processing B. Mirroring B. B.com rtK A. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Hyper-V Answer: D QUESTION NO: 272 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1? A.www. Active/passive clustering at the same site C. Striping C. Striping with mirroring Answer: A QUESTION NO: 273 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 274 Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant? A. Disk-to-disk replication in the same server D. C. D. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation. Multicore C. Warm site Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Striping with parity D. ille Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server? r. 64-bit processing D. Hot site B. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation.c om 81 .

The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded Answer: C QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO) A. D. the SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic. B. The size of the presented drive is 700GB. Retina scanner E. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second device on an IDE cable? A. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk. Proxy card readers Answer: B. Cable select D. CCTV systems D. ID2 C.c om 82 . Fingerprint scanners C. ID0 B.D QUESTION NO: 278 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . however.com rtK ille r.www.certkiller. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose power. Mantraps B. C. Master Answer: C QUESTION NO: 276 A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC. The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network.

www. but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A new server was installed. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can successfully access the server. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. A. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. Also known as external cache. Choose two. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching. WINS server is not responding QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: B. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. Which of the following is the reason that these clients are unable to access the server? A. Date of server purchase B. D.C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. known as SRAM.certkiller. outside the CPU. Also known as internal cache. it is included in every CPU.com rtK ille r. D. C. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard. B. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. It stores a backlog of the commands so that.c om 83 . B. it is included in every CPU. if a wait state is encountered. DNS entries were not created. it runs faster. the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. Incorrect default gateway on the server. for caching. QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A. Disk performance statistics Ce "Slay Your Exams" . This slows down computer operations. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips. It is also known as external cache. Server response time C. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access the server. This is known as a zero wait state operation. C. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state.

certkiller. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt. QUESTION NO: 282 When you start your computer. "Slay Your Exams" .www.com 84 Ce rtK ille A.c om Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. can be guessed easily by unauthorized users.D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. The personal information. Choose two. Using a phrase for the server password C. C. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive. Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. . Run DEFRAG on the hard drive.C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Using personal information in the server room password D. Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder r. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. B. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. Network bandwidth Answer: B. QUESTION NO: 281 Answer: C. Answer options B and A are incorrect. such as phone number and date of birth. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline. Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure.

The data cable is used to transfer data. Reference: "http://en. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option D is incorrect. It will not help in resolving the issue. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server.com rtK ille r. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. With Thorough option. Answer option A is incorrect. It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface. IMAP D.mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP. port number 25. Answer option A is incorrect. e.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. SMTP C. NNTP B. distribute. Through this protocol. a Windows-based utility. However. is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance.wikipedia. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. DEFRAG. which allows users to manage the network. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]" QUESTION NO: 283 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A. it tries to fix the sector. Answer options C is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. Answer option C is incorrect. a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller.c om 85 . NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP).org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Answer option A is incorrect. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. Full backup Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire.com 86 Ce rtK ille r. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Contents: "Chapter 12 . A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. since the last incremental or full backup. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. IEEE 1394 D. Incremental backup C. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Daily backup B. or RS. and handheld devices. Sequential backup D. It needs only one tape to restore data. traditional PC storage devices. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 284 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A. "Slay Your Exams" .c om . Answer option B is incorrect. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. Answer option D is incorrect. DIN B. serial ports. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. also known as COM ports. RS-232 C.www.Backup" QUESTION NO: 285 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A.certkiller.232 ports. or are new. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. Reference: TechNet.

The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. Choose three. so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector.D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. Reference: TechNet. bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin. Parallel cable D.certkiller. Typically. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files. Contents: "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 287 A. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters . Serial cable Answer: B. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. also known as Thinnet Coax.C.www. rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 286 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? A. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. 10Base2 cable C. Therefore. "Slay Your Exams" . This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. This type of virus hides system files. C.com 87 Ce Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time. When the user runs the infected file in the disk. polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. B. this changes the signature of the virus. it loads virus into the RAM. SCSI cable B.c om . D.

A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. The system log is used to store security-related events. B.certkiller. For example. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. C.c om 88 . Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. B. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system. QUESTION NO: 288 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 289 Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology? A. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI devices. Answer option C is incorrect.com rtK ille r. reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer. SCSI-2. a server displays a POST error. C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. or remove and replace a failed device. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor. It allows to install a new device. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. and SCSI-3. The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem. Answer option B is incorrect.www. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. without powering off the system. D. Answer option A is incorrect. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. During the boot process. The parallel channel is fast.

The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives. It allows to store more than one file using the same name. Using this technology. SCSI devices. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support these bus lengths. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation.c om . Answer options D and C are incorrect.5 meters . 12 meters D. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. and SCSI-3. Answer option A is incorrect. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface? A. or remove and replace a failed device. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. 6 meters Answer: B Explanation: If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of useful life"? A. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters . the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.certkiller. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. 3 meters B.com 89 Ce rtK ille r.www. etc. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. SCSI-2. The replacement can be due to a device failure. or for storage devices. Answer: C Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. 1. This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID).5 meters C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 290 What will be the maximum SCSI bus length.

certkiller. Since each computer processes every broadcast. Answer option B is incorrect. A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.D Explanation: The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded. The IEEE defines "end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Total frames received/second D.c om 90 . % Network utilization B.C. Answer: D Explanation: A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. Pages/sec C. Reference: TechNet. A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20 minutes when new. Broadcast frames received/second Answer: A. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline. Contents: "Monitoring Performance" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C.www. will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its defined "end of useful life". high broadcast levels mean lower network performance.com rtK ille r. D. Choose three. For example. A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk. QUESTION NO: 292 Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory.certkiller. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. Change the boot sequence to C:. Answer option D is incorrect.www. It is helpful on high-end systems. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. How will he accomplish this? A. A:. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. Hence. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Using DMA. Answer option B is incorrect. that have to process a great deal of information quickly.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true? A. NT. He wants that whenever he boots his computer. C. B. the computer can move data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU intervention. B. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. D. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. QUESTION NO: 294 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. especially servers. Remove the boot files from C: drive. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB. C. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM. Disable the hard disk drive. Answer: C Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM.c om 91 . The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving.

It can be created on dynamic disks only. Spanned D. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Answer: D Explanation: To accomplish the task. Mirrored F. Reference: TechNet. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. RAID-5 B. spanned.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Parity Answer: A. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.certkiller. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Answer options B and D are incorrect. In Windows 2000/2003. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. C:. C: in the BIOS.www. You are installing Windows 2000 Server on a new computer. In case of failure of one disk. It supports two to thirtytwo disk drives. A. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume.C. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. QUESTION NO: 295 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. You can create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Change the boot sequence to A:. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. Contents: "Configuring Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volume types. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Dynamic C.c om 92 .com rtK ille r. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. Choose three. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. on the motherboard.E Explanation: Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5. Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:. and mirrored volumes. Basic E. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk.

if possible. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. A. you experience a mild shock.certkiller. do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Dynamic Volumes" QUESTION NO: 296 Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest? A.D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Low temperature Answer: B Explanation: Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). SIMM C. High humidity B.com 93 Ce rtK ille r. Low humidity C.c om . The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. Remove your shoes.www. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. Dry air is a poor conductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water molecules carry static electric charge away. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. Clothing. High temperature D. footwear. If you set the component down. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. Choose two. DDR DIMM B. you should take the following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting. SO-DIMM D. and roll up your shirt's sleeves. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. and flooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD. QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. RIMM Answer: A.

PC3500 and faster.com 94 Ce rtK ille r. It was introduced for laptops. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base. Answer option B is incorrect. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers.0 TCP/IP-based network. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III. PC2700.375" long and 1. The number of chips on a 184pin DIMM may vary. Your company has a Windows NT 4. NBTSTAT B. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in two types. and the heights may vary.DIMMs come in smaller packages. Answer option C is incorrect. NETSTAT C. 30-pin and 72-pin. TELNET "Slay Your Exams" . Pentium 4. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and 184 pins.c om .www. TRACERT D. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot. and Athlon systems. QUESTION NO: 298 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. consume lesser power. It was developed by Rambus. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100.certkiller. and Kingston .375" high. Intel.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. 184-pin DIMMs are 5. PC3200. SO. but are more expensive than DIMMs.

D Explanation: You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) bus slots.com 95 Ce rtK In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. EISA C. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards.c om . NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. It uses TCP port 23 by default.www. Answer option D is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. offers the ability to run programs remotely.bit ISA bus. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. What is an EISA bus? Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a superset of a 16. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. incoming and outgoing data. Answer option B is incorrect. This is accomplished by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. and facilitates remote administration. PCI D. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device. ISA Answer: B. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. to access files. update the NetBIOS name cache. remove. Therefore. ille r. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. both ISA "Slay Your Exams" . and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache. Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies" QUESTION NO: 299 A. The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot. and determine the registered names and scope IDs.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect. VESA B. Choose all that apply. NBTSTAT helps you view.

html" QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your Windows NT computer? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . You cannot insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots. DOWN -f B. GPMC is used to back up. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. Answer option C is incorrect. In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt. Reference: "http://www. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003. This command can perform the following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk. domains. It also provides a reporting interface on how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. It provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related tasks. Display the partition table. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. Create a partition on a hard disk. Answer option B is incorrect.com rtK ille r. Which of the following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt? A. The fdisk command is a menubased command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. and copy group policy objects. There is no such command as shutdown -rst.c om 96 . QUESTION NO: 300 Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage.www. import.com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h enuk mm4. Change the partition type. or even forests. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to the fdisk command. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator to manage group policy settings across multiple sites. fdisk Answer: A Explanation: Answer option A is correct. Answer options C and A are incorrect.certkiller. Shutdown -rst D. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) C. you will have to run the DOWN -f command. such as the display subsystem.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. restore. Answer option D is incorrect.novell.

EXE C. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes.C ille r. will not show the contents of any data. striped volume (RAID-0). it is often useful to have some of the frames for review. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails. C. IPCONFIG. QUESTION NO: 303 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition.com rtK Answer: B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.c om 97 . Choose two. Answer option A is incorrect. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. Both the partitions must be of same size. but not data information. It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. it will not show the contents of any data. NETSTAT. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.www. Because of the nature of the data. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information.EXE B. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. A. Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. B. however.certkiller. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. D. Performance Monitor D. Explanation: A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. but again. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Network Monitor Answer: D Explanation: Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5).

This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam You work as a Network Administrator. users complain that they are unable to connect to the server. and facilitates remote administration. Answer option C is incorrect. Users are providing incorrect usernames. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. TRACERT E. B. the workstations on the network cannot access the server. TELNET B. You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to connect to the rest of the workstations on the network. D. which connects all the workstations and the server.certkiller. Either the network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub.com 98 Ce rtK You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. A. It uses TCP port 23 by default.c om . Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server. QUESTION NO: 304 A. C. On receiving the packets. FTP Answer: A Explanation: TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX server. PING D. These replies can be used to "Slay Your Exams" . One morning. offers the ability to run programs remotely. IPCONFIG C. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. using a text-based connection? ille r. the destination host responds with a series of replies. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer.D Explanation: There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure. to access files. A faulty hub. Users are providing incorrect passwords. If the server is not physically connected to the network. Your Internet service provider (ISP) has a UNIX-based server. Answer: B. Choose two. You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. is faulty.www. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of the problem as all users are having this problem.

C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam determine whether or not the network is working properly. boot the computer with that diskette. C..certkiller. remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step. which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. such as IP address. Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server" QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. subnet mask.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus. When he examines the problem. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. The MAKEDISK. Answer option E is incorrect. Check the partition with the startup disk. TRACERT is a routetracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. B. he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus. After completing the check. A. Reference: TechNet. Contents: "Mail Server" QUESTION NO: 305 Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk.www. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration.com rtK ille r. Boot the computer with the diskette. Once the diskette is created. Run MAKEDISK. Choose all that apply. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software.c om 99 . This will run a boot sector virus check. default gateway etc. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks. How will he confirm this? A. B. Answer: D Explanation: MAKEDISK.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette. of a networked computer.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. D. Reference: TechNet. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.

Answer option D is incorrect. instead of a socket. Slot 1 type CPU connector. A disaster recovery documentation for a small organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location. it will be safe in case of any disaster. C.certkiller. Pentium III C. A. AMD K6 Answer: A. AMD K6 processors use Socket 7. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents in floppy disks. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller. "Slay Your Exams" . general staff members. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. containing the names. Pentium pro D. Answer option C is incorrect. and phone numbers for crisis management staff. If the documents are stored on an offsite location. QUESTION NO: 308 Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller? A. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. Answer: A. copies of insurance contracts.B Explanation: Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1.www.com 100 Ce rtK ille r. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. Answer option C is incorrect. addresses.B Explanation: The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. Pentium II B.c om . and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media. QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. is similar to an expansion card. B. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings. also known as single edge connector (SEC). as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media. Answer option D is incorrect. and other critical material necessary for organizational survival. clients. Choose all that apply.

What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard.www. including those received in error. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were retransmitted. Segments Received/sec C. at which segments were received.10). The CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from elsewhere in physical memory. Answer option D is incorrect. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. Write Copies/sec B. Segments Retransmitted/sec D. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. QUESTION NO: 309 Answer: B.C. the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID controller. When power to the disk array is discontinued. Answer option A is incorrect.com/eses/library/cc778758(WS. Answer option C is incorrect. Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec.aspx" Ce A. Segments Sent/sec "Slay Your Exams" .D Explanation: The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec counter shows the rate. Choose three.c om 101 . r. in incidents per second. Answer: A Explanation: The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent. Answer option B is incorrect. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. date.com rtK ille Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Reference: "http://technet.microsoft. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in the cache.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings. The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller.

Full backup. COM1 serial port uses the I/O address range 3F8-3FF. and hard disks are to be backed up. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or becomes corrupt. Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as they were created. 1F0-1F8 D. Full backup D.c om . Reference: "http://en. a user should choose which files. After a full backup is performed. It requires minimum space to backup data.com 102 Ce rtK ille r. the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. When the full backup type is set up. Answer option B is incorrect. folders.org/wiki/Incremental_backup" QUESTION NO: 311 Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller? A. Incremental backup Answer: D Explanation: added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 310 Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed? A. There is no such type of backup as daily backup. 3F8-3FF Answer: C Explanation: A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups. The CPU sends instructions to the hard disk controller on this I/O address. also known as normal backup. Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. Daily backup C. Answer option B is incorrect. 3F0-3F7 C. Answer option A is incorrect. all archive bits are reset to 0.wikipedia. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O "Slay Your Exams" . Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental backup.certkiller. 278-27F B. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.www. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup methods. It is faster as compared to full backup. involves backing up the entire hard disks and files of a machine. Differential backup B.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam address range 3F0-3F7. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . Answer option D is incorrect. IRQs.www. Whenever a component. known as Input/Output (I/O) address.c om . D.25 inches . a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. The primary "Slay Your Exams" . ille r. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. The 18U server rack has a height of 31. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. IRQ. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. The 15U server rack has a height of 26. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. C.certkiller. B. 26. Answer: B Explanation: Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory.com 103 Ce rtK Explanation: The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . This allows faster access to BIOS information. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. Answer option A is incorrect. 21 inches B.5 inches . such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. QUESTION NO: 312 What is the height of the 8U server rack? A.5 inches C. The CPU needs a memory address. Answer option A is incorrect. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory. its I/O address.25 inches Answer: C QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS? A. LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 27827F . Resources such as I/O addresses. When you configure shadow RAM. 14 inches D. to communicate with any peripheral device. 31. Answer option B is incorrect. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup.

Ultra 160 SCSI D. SCSI-2. Fast-Wide SCSI B. Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]" QUESTION NO: 314 You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer. A. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. In BIOS setup program B. Fast SCSI C. Where will you look for it? A.D Explanation: The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer options A and B are incorrect. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. But.c om .wikipedia. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive.www. SCSI devices. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. Reference: "http://en. On the computer case D. Choose all that apply. and SCSI-3.certkiller.org/wiki/SCSI" "Slay Your Exams" . On the microprocessor C. Ultra 320 SCSI Answer: C. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Reference: TechNet. On the motherboard Answer: A Explanation: You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program. on the motherboard. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com 104 Ce rtK ille r.

Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. This tab also displays warning messages if there are any problems. LAN Analyzer B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network? A. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. The company's network has a storage area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. Reliability Monitor C. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. Answer option C is incorrect. This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure. The Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable period of time. DXDIAG Answer: A Explanation: LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network. a tool introduced in Windows Vista. and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. is used to detect the reasons for computer failure. QUESTION NO: 317 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The servers on the network must connect to the SAN.com rtK ille r. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. Answer option D is incorrect. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Answer option B is incorrect. provides tests for both DirectDraw and Direct3D. The Reliability Monitor.www. Time Domain Reflectometer D.certkiller. DirectX Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and fix them.c om 105 .

Answer option B is incorrect. as it is time consuming. Answer option B is incorrect. a well-defined backup strategy should be "Slay Your Exams" . Andrew cannot install operating system updates before installing the operating system. There is no such technology as Fibre Thicknet Bus. routing frames dynamically. he will loose the files. Format the system partition B.0 Server. Taking a full backup daily is impractical. FactWhat is full backup? Full backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log. SCSI bus D.5 Server.0 Server. Answer option A is incorrect. Andrew takes full backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.5 Server files and install Windows NT 4. Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored before installing Windows NT 4. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server.c om . The server contains critical files. It allows multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate. Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified. The company's network consists of a Windows NT 3.certkiller. Fibre Channel fabric Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology. What should be his first step before installing Windows NT 4. He decides to remove the Windows NT 3. Fibre Thicknet Bus C. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the backed-up data gets corrupted. Install the latest network operating system updates C. Answer options A and D are incorrect. the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric. A Fibre Channel fabric uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs. You may loose files if the backup gets corrupted.www. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre Channel technology. working as a file server. QUESTION NO: 318 A. Answer option C is incorrect. A switch offers better system throughput than a hub.0 Server? ille r. PSTN cannot provide such a high speed connection. Recreate the partition Answer: C Explanation: As a precautionary measure. Instead. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B. A Fibre Channel switch intelligently manages connections between ports. Verify backed-up data D.com 106 Ce rtK Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.

A. Answer option B is incorrect. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. 486DX D. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Pentium Pro B.certkiller. Choose two. also known as Slot 1. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. B. Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and detect viruses. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. C. Answer options B and D are incorrect.www. View. Pentium Answer: D Explanation: Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7. Save counter and object settings for repeated use.C Explanation: Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server.com 107 Ce rtK ille r. 486DX processors use Socket 0. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface. It detects viruses on the computer. The Alert. QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7? A. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. It measures the processor utilization on the computer. "Slay Your Exams" . It monitors hard disk utilization. D. over time. Answer: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup. Answer option C is incorrect. Pentium II C. It captures network traffic. instead of sockets. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8.c om . QUESTION NO: 320 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Answer option A is incorrect. over time. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.

A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit. Media tester C. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. Answer option D is incorrect. a transposed wire pair. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) Answer: B Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. You decide to implement a star network. Which of the following devices will you use to accomplish the task? A. or some other problem. and various types of crosstalk. Wire crimper is a device that is used to attach connectors to the cables. transposed wire pairs. open circuits. What is a media tester? A media tester. is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. Log D. you want to test the wires for attenuation. It tests for shorts. View B.c om 108 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 321 You are creating a network for Net World Inc. Wire crimper D. QUESTION NO: 322 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The company has a Windows NT domainbased network. Tone generator B. Answer option C is incorrect. You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor. After you complete the wire connections. A tone generator is an electrical cable testing device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit. also called a media certifier. Answer option A is incorrect. and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. Alert Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r.000.www. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. you will have to use a media tester.certkiller. attenuation. a short cable. Chart C. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. Which of the following views will you use? A. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables.

The Alert. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Answer option E is incorrect. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4. A. and mounted drives. Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing Internet Information Server" QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions. NTFS also offers security features.certkiller. It supports file system recovery. 3.2 to allow greater access to larger hard drives. long file names. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. over time. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Answer options A and D are incorrect.1. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) C. and Windows XP operating systems. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT. and other features.51. and 3. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by Novell's Netware operating system. View. High Performance File System (HPFS) B.C Explanation: The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems that cannot be used to install operating systems. Choose two.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor. Log-structured file system (LFS) D. Reference: TechNet. What is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1.5. It has recently ported to Linux. These features are not available on FAT volumes. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers.www. over time. Windows 2000/2003. distributed link tracking. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas. The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. Novell Storage Services (NSS) Answer: B. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. large storage media.c om 109 . such as encryption and file and folder permissions. compression. Windows NT file system (NTFS) E.

Answer option B is incorrect. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. D. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer: C Explanation: As a precaution. Answer option D is incorrect. 32 D. What is video RAM? Video RAM is a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor screen. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems.certkiller. You should never turn the power on while installing hardware components on a computer. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM). 16 B. Switch on the computer.com rtK ille r. Unplug other cards from the motherboard.c om 110 . Answer option A is incorrect. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. 64 C. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the computer parts. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet. such as. B. 8 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . You are not required to unplug other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card.www. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. Wear wrist strap.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 324 What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM? A. QUESTION NO: 325 What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor? A. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. It works as a buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer. Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components. chips on the motherboard or adapters. you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. C. The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. you experience a mild shock.

click on Disk Management. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup. What will you do? A. or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume. use Disk Management. All network connections to the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. and then regenerate the stripe set. go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus. QUESTION NO: 326 As a Network Administrator. Intel Pentium microprocessors are also based on a 32-bit data bus. Replace the drive. Answer: A Explanation: When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails. B. the failed disk becomes an orphan.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus. you find that one of the drives has failed. D. "Slay Your Exams" . Then create partitions and format new disks. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks. C. A new area of free space of the same size. replace the drive. Choose two. you may have to restart your computer. Replace the failed drive. you are concerned about fault tolerance. recreate the RAID5 volume. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection QUESTION NO: 327 Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. and then restore data from the tape backup. select a new area of free space and then regenerate the volume.c om .www. and then re-creates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer.com 111 Ce rtK ille r. the volume must be locked by the operating system. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks. should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. What is the function of the Disk Management tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. To regenerate a RAID5 volume. The next day. Take the following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs > Administrative Tools > Computer Management. You are using a RAID5 volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. In the console tree under Storage.certkiller.

C Explanation: A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic. D. In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet. "Slay Your Exams" . In case of a server that is down. The Web Proxy service log contains information about client requests for HTTP. QUESTION NO: 328 Answer: D Explanation: The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network. Network Monitor. Voltage fluctuation Answer: B. thus generating traffic on the network. whereas SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses.certkiller. you can detect the faulty NIC through the network monitor software or by the elimination process. Faulty NIC on a networked computer.com rtK ille Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. which may result in a broadcast storm. which can be analyzed to determine the protocol. C. An SMTP server is installed on the internal network.c om 112 . C. FTP or Gopher objects. Windows NT system log. The Windows NT system log contains information about various system events. Performance Monitor. port etc. can cause a broadcast storm on the network. Slow workstation systems B. IP address. another computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent requests. A down network server. Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor" QUESTION NO: 329 Ce A. Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP traffic is coming from? r. Slow workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network. and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic.www. Reference: TechNet. which serves network resources to the network client computer. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to the SMTP server. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. B. Web Proxy logs.

SMPS B.www.Administering Windows NT Systems QUESTION NO: 331 Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem? A. IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices. if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU. RAM D. QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following statements is true about IRQ? Answer: D Explanation: IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. The motherboard B. which is not supported by an older BIOS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. The hard disk controller C. Surge protector D. D.com rtK A. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. ille r.certkiller. C. UPS C.c om 113 . Reference: TechNet. In general. only one device should be assigned to each IRQ. what will you have to upgrade? A. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. on the motherboard. Contents: Chapter 1 . known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Switch Ce "Slay Your Exams" . IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. The System's BIOS Answer: D Explanation: A BIOS upgrade is required. IRQ is an infrared communication device. B.

Reference: TechNet.c om 114 . What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Answer option D is incorrect. A plastic CPU cover. When power surge occurs. An antiglare screen on the monitor is used to protect the eyes from radiation. The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. B. Answer option A is incorrect. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a clip on the other end.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. you should wear a wrist strap when you are working on computer components.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 332 r. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components. D. you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a computer.www. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: To resolve the low voltage problem. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination.Planning a Reliable Configuration" Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems? A. This reduces the network traffic. Answer option A is incorrect. Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment.certkiller. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab. using battery backup. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. while the computer gets normal power. An antiglare screen. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model. Answer: B Explanation: To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems. It happens when your body or clothes come in contact with computer components. Wearing synthetic clothes can make the ESD problem worse. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. It also provides protection against power surges. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. A plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem. Contents: "Chapter 4 . C. A wrist strap.

AGP provides improved network performance.c om 115 .certkiller. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. provides services such as power. Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller. which can hold multiple blade servers. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos. B. AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing. Contents: "Motherboard and Buses" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A. It takes less space than conventional servers. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. answer options C.www.com rtK ille r. cooling. It improves network performance. Answer: A Explanation: AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. Choose two. D. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system. minimize power consumption and other considerations. It requires zero administration. which enables fast video performance.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? A. and B are incorrect.wikipedia. A blade server requires administration and does not improve network performance. Answer options A and D are incorrect.133 MB/second. C. D. blade servers have many components removed to save space.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 333 Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. various interconnects and management. Answer: B. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM. A blade enclosure. Though. D. Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. Therefore. It consumes less power. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. C. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2. networking. Reference: "http://en. B.C Explanation: A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers.

Processor damage D. Users report that when they query the database or update data. The server contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 335 Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket? A.certkiller. when it burns. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning. the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang up and processor damage.www. However. fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke. PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily routed in the exposed areas of an office. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 337 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. r. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer options D and B are incorrect.C Explanation: In an event of processor fan failure. QUESTION NO: 336 Answer: A. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false ceiling and the floor above. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. Processor fan failure does not affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive. Computer hangs B. Fiber Answer: B Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket for a cable. The company has a server that has a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives. PVC C. Cotton ribbon D. Hard drive failure rtK ille Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The server also runs the DNS service. Reference: TechNet. Choose all that apply. it responds "Slay Your Exams" .c om . Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit. Floppy drive failure C. Plenum B.com 116 Ce A. it emits poisonous gases.

B. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array.com 117 Ce QUESTION NO: 338 rtK ille r. Four B. Mark can take the following steps: 1. Two Answer: A Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server.c om . This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. striped volume (RAID-0).certkiller. including a spare hard disk drive? A.Move the DNS service to another server. four disks is the right choice.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam slowly. D. Since one hard disk drive is included as a spare disk. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server. Move the DNS service to another server. "Slay Your Exams" . A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume. Both the partitions must be of same size.Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array.C Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. Paging files do not need fault-tolerance. and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes because they write data to multiple locations.B. Choose three. What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array.www. Answer: A. Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. Thirty-three C. If a portion of a physical disk fails. 2. Five D. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence improve its performance. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. The read-write performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5. Answer option D is incorrect.Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. C. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. 3. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). A. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition.

Cylinders B. A. In this architecture. Heads are used to read and write data on the hard disk. A. Choose three. C. thus if the data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance.c om . r. 'Using mirrored volumes' QUESTION NO: 339 Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: A. Head and Sectors. B. Pentium III. Reference: Windows 2000 Help. D. as it has multiple processors and other components "Slay Your Exams" . Each processor shares the same memory. which includes Pentium II.www.B. Sectors D. multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel. mirror can be establish between two disks. etc. Cluster Answer: A. Each processor has its own memory address space. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP).D Explanation: Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel. than RAID1 array.C QUESTION NO: 340 Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes'. You will require five additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. Choose three. AMD Athlon MP. The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due to its low costs. Heads C. SMP is easier to implement.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. Cylinders and sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization. RAID5 array has a better read performance. The processors share a common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data. SMP is most commonly found on the x86-based architecture.B. However in case of RAID1 array.certkiller.com 118 Ce rtK ille Explanation: The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders.

which is used to access and manage the cluster. etc. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. It will increase the administrative burden. operating system. Answer option D is incorrect. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data.e. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the disaster recovery plan. On the other hand. It allows computers to access data faster. Implement the cluster server. D. each processor has its own memory address space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform. It allows computers to use more physical memory. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. Answer: B Explanation: In order to improve the disaster recovery plan. so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server. It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB. B.wikipedia.certkiller. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. B.Processing (ASMP).c om ..com 119 Ce rtK Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Maintain a printed tape backup report. Answer option C is incorrect. Reference: "http://en. I/O subsystem. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB. C. C. Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup report.www. QUESTION NO: 342 A. Answer option A is incorrect.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 341 What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers? A. Answer: C Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than 504MB. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan? ille r. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server. Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. D. a virtual server name. During the testing of the recovery plan. he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's dat a. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are shared by them such as the memory. in Asymmetrical Multi.

You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for interconnecting the offices. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications: Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic QUESTION NO: 344 Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6 server? A. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: 100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiberoptic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000 meters for full duplex connections. The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet specifications are the use of star topology. The company has offices at different locations of a city. 2000 meters B. Restart Server -ns D.com rtK ille r. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . DOWN-f C. as it is possible that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises.certkiller. 100 meters C. The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec. DOWN-fs Answer: B Explanation: The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting. The Restart Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup.www. 10 meters D. Answer option C is incorrect.ncf file. QUESTION NO: 343 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect.ncf file. Restart Server -na B.c om 120 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network? A.

SNMP C. incoming and outgoing data. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. ARP D.com rtK ille r. which allows users to manage the network. NBTSTAT E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Answer option B is incorrect. IPSTAT Answer: A Explanation: The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Automated System Recovery (ASR) B. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your computer. NETSTAT B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 345 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc.certkiller. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. Which of the following will you use? A.www. update the NetBIOS name cache. There is no utility such as IPSTAT. Windows Backup utility D.c om 121 . Answer option E is incorrect. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. QUESTION NO: 346 Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003? A. Answer option D is incorrect. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. Answer option C is incorrect. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. NTDSUTIL utility C.

certkiller. computer's default profile (NTUSER. and arranged in a RAID configuration to increase speed.BAT. Choose two. Note:The NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators.D Explanation: % Processor Time value of 90. To restore the information from ERD. Answer option B is incorrect. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. Network adapter B. ERD is not self bootable. It is used to perform a restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers. ERD can be created through the RDISK. Therefore. Answer option C is incorrect. This utility is used to perform the following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory. NTDSUTIL. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is subjected to excessive amount of input/output. Memory Answer: A.LOG. ERD includes portion of the registry. QUESTION NO: 347 A. and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. the current Disk Queue Length is 4. and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely fashion.c om .www. It does not back up folders and files. ASR backs up the system data and local system partition. Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one.EXE utility.com 122 Ce Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU and one hard disk. and click OK. type RDISK. To start RDISK.DAT). Managing and controlling operations master roles. AUTOEXEC. Based on this information. She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%. or less. These files are stored in compressed format. an excessive amount of input/output to the "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003. is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU bottleneck. which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.EXE is a command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003. the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%. and CONFIG. On the other hand. CPU D. go to Start menu > Run. Hard disk C.SYS). Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. rtK ille r. An ASR restore includes the configuration information for devices. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer option D is incorrect.

Monitoring Performance QUESTION NO: 348 Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer.www. Pages Outout/sec C. Answer option C is incorrect. Pages Input/sec Answer: A Explanation: The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults. B. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive.com 123 Ce rtK Explanation: The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk drive. the memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults? A. a blank screen is displayed. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free "Slay Your Exams" . Incompatible hard disk drive. C. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the cache is correctly configured. Answer option B is incorrect. What is the most likely cause? A. Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is working properly. a blank screen is displayed. D. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive. To determine if memory is a bottleneck. and D are incorrect. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. i. Pages/sec B. C. and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache. ille r. When he powers on the computer. Contents:Chapter 8 . make sure that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends. Answer options B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory.certkiller. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable.. the HDD and IDE controller ends. Pages Writes/sec D.e. and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem.c om . BIOS configuration error. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. Reference: TechNet. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer. BIOS configuration error.

aspx" QUESTION NO: 350 You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. An operating system that supports SNMP B. There is no such setting as Secondary.certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. C. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. QUESTION NO: 351 Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave. If two drives are attached to one controller. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. any one of the following two combinations can be used: 1. or Slave.10). Slave.Install the drives.D om 124 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam up space in physical memory.com rtK ille r. The Pages Input/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. Reference: "http://technet. D. A. none of them will work. Install the drives. Answer option C is incorrect. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. An operating system that supports SCSI devices Ce "Slay Your Exams" . 2.microsoft. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as Secondary. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. An operating system that supports SMP C. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave.www. Which of the following are the possible combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Explanation: While installing two hard disk drives on a computer. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality D. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Choose all that apply.c Answer: B. Which of the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware? A. B.

also known as low-DOS or base memory. because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no matter where the data for that task are located in memory. devices. SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently. Reference: "http://en. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS).wikipedia. or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. and security. C. But it should be done only as the last resort. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory. "Slay Your Exams" . What is conventional memory? Conventional memory. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. you have to select an operating system that supports Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. installs the required drivers. treating them as separate processors. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: In order to take full benefit of hardware. C. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM. B. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. In the case of multi-core processors. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP architecture. performance. Plug and Play. the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the ROM BIOS. Answer options A. and D are incorrect. What is SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory. Answer: D Explanation: Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the extended memory. D. statistics collections. When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 352 What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer? A. the SMP architecture applies to the cores.com 125 Ce rtK ille r. and device drivers.c om . the Plug and Play compliant operating system automatically detects it. Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support.www. An operating system supporting SNMP. All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature. and configures the device appropriately.certkiller. With proper operating system support. As ROM is relatively slower than RAM.

A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. Surge C. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card. ESD B. EMI Answer: D Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. including one host bus adapter card. A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. Broadcast storm D. C. Contents: Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528] QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable? A. radiation from the power cable. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Reference: TechNet. including one host bus adapter card. Eight devices.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Nine devices. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . you experience a mild shock. ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB.com rtK ille r. Six devices.c om 126 . thereby increasing the traffic. Answer option B is incorrect. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. It is used to load and process data needed by the active programs.www. B. Answer option C is incorrect. known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) . excluding one host bus adapter card. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly. QUESTION NO: 354 How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller? A. may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD.

Answer option D is incorrect. DNS server D.org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .wikipedia. Two devices. IP address-to-host name mappings. Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical connections to their customers. so that they can communicate with other network services. for example customers who get Internet through some form of modem. Both of these models are widely used. the user will not be able to communicate with anyone on the network or access network resources.com rtK ille r. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. DHCP server B. a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. Hence. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. Answer option A is incorrect. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers. including one host bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers. and a single entity connecting to multiple resources. information about the domain tree structure. Answer option C is incorrect. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Database server Answer: B Explanation: A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. A database server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. Reference: "http://en. Note: If the DHCP server is offline. QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection? A. RAS server C. A RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple communication channels together. including one host bus adapter card.www. Because these channels are bidirectional.c om 127 . It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Both physical and virtual resources can be provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a remote virtual operating system. A DHCP server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. two models emerge: multiple entities connecting to a single resource.certkiller. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers only. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. etc. without valid TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server. Answer: C Explanation: A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus.

since the last incremental or full backup.www. C. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly. Therefore. B. Full backup is a good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental backup. or are new. You are designing a data backup plan for your company's network.certkiller. Keep Monday's backup offsite. you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed.com rtK ille r.c om Answer: C 128 . Small Computer Systems Interface. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. For safe storage. a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. Explanation: The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. Reference: TechNet. Small Component Systems Interface. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. E. The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of dat a. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Contents: "Description of Full. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. D. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 356 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this? A. It needs only one tape to restore data. Small Computer Serial Interface. Incremental. B. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 357 What does SCSI stand for? A. C. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.

B. D. to access files. B. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Reference: TechNet. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. SCSI-2.wikipedia. and SCSI-3.c om .org/wiki/Telnet" QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ? A. you will type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. SCSI devices. offers the ability to run programs remotely. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect. Answer option A is incorrect. and facilitates remote administration. It uses TCP port 23 by default.Device Management" QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer? A. C. C. There is no such command as telcli. Answer: D Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer. Contents: "Chapter 19 . Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the computer. Reference: "http://en. ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: C Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.certkiller. Answer options C and B are incorrect. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential. such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.com 129 Ce rtK ille r. ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1.

It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. Choose two. The computer will hang frequently. QUESTION NO: 360 How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged? A. and few other settings are lost. with your hand. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. The computer's processing speed will slow down. The computer will start losing the date and time. PING D. ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. The computer will take time to reboot.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.certkiller. "Slay Your Exams" .D Ce Explanation: When you turn off the computer and turn it on again. B.www. D. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. like an adapter or drive.c om 130 . you find that the date and time. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 361 Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: D Explanation: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge. date. TRACERT Answer: C. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential. IPCONFIG B. C. there will be no static difference between them that can cause ESD. A.com rtK ille r. NETSTAT C. If you touch any sensitive electronic component.

. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. B.c om 131 . incoming and outgoing data. Answer option B is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 363 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Networking . as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.TCP/IP" QUESTION NO: 362 You are upgrading your server.certkiller." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. D. like DIMM or SIMM. Reference: TechNet. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. such as IP address. like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the motherboard. Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is. What does this indicate? A.www. You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. Same type. PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. of a networked computer. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option B is incorrect. It is not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: PING and TRACERT are similar in function. C. default gateway etc. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard. incoming and outgoing data. the motherboard supports only same type of memory module. Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. According to its manual. like SIMM or DIMM. of all memory modules on the motherboard. subnet mask.com rtK ille r. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. "Same type. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration.

Both the partitions must be of same size. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy? A. To improve air circulation in the CPU box.com 132 Ce rtK ille r.www. Answer options A and D are incorrect. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. Level 0 D. To improve performance of the computer. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Level 1 C. Data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array. Disk striping offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management strategies. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Answer options D and B are incorrect. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). RAID levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. it does not provide fault tolerance. all the data is lost. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. B. Level 3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping. Answer: A. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. like volume sets. striped volume (RAID-0).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. If a portion of a "Slay Your Exams" . To make CPU faster.c om .certkiller. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Reference: TechNet.C Explanation: High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. C. A. To keep CPU temperature low. However. Level 5 B. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring and provides data redundancy. The fans inside the CPU box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low. If any partition in the set fails. Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box. Choose all that apply. D.

Four D. It indicates that the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server. Eight B. you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. Two C. You find that the server is unable to boot. the server is unable to boot. B. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. C. Answer: D Explanation: In order to enable the server to boot properly. you need to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process.www. Therefore. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. One QUESTION NO: 366 You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam physical disk fails. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. If the server is not booted. om Answer: C . D. Reference: "http://en. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data.certkiller.wikipedia. After installing the device driver. Which of the following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly? A. you restart the server. the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server. After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks" QUESTION NO: 365 How many devices does the EIDE system support? A.c Explanation: The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices. Increase RAM on the server. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Run the Scandisk utility on the server.com 133 Ce rtK ille r. It can only improve the performance of the server if the server is in use.

What is the most likely cause? A. B. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port. Answer option D is incorrect. rtK ille r. D. QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: A. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS. Answer option C is incorrect.c om Answer: A . UPS cannot be configured to a power source.www. SRAM is made of capacitors. only the UPS charging circuit is affected.D Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop. Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits. B. The UPS software is not properly configured. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged. UPS and server always use serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. it does not have to be "Slay Your Exams" . What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. C. A.C. using battery backup. It is significantly faster than DRAM. It also provides protection against power surges. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. D. C.com 134 Ce Explanation: The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided with the UPS is not properly configured. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. QUESTION NO: 367 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS. while the computer gets normal power. UPS is not configured to a power source. Answer option B is incorrect. SRAM is used for caching.certkiller. Choose three. When power surge occurs.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. You install a new UPS and connect it to a server through a serial cable.

Answer: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . identify the area to which you connect a hard disk drive. DRAM is slower than SRAM.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit. Answer option B is incorrect.com rtK ille r. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny capacitors.c om 135 . SRAM memory chips are generally used for caching.www. as it needs to be refreshed. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below.

com rtK ille r.c om 136 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.www.

What is a motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components.certkiller.www. A more recent motherboard specification. The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several disks. The read/write heads are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. ATX. which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters. IIS C. the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. DNS Ce "Slay Your Exams" . based on the IBM AT motherboard. the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows: The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below: QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter using 40 or 80 wire cables. known as platters. These platters are attached to the spindle motor. The read/write heads are attached to the head actuator.c om 137 .com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE controller. On the typical motherboard. WINS B. Choose two. In both the AT and ATX designs. Browser service D. improves on the AT design.

They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive.c om 138 . and management. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. What will be the maximum data transfer rate of both drives? ille r. the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due to the chipset limitation. The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. information about the domain tree structure. etc. D.com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS. configuration. C. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such motherboard or hard disk as the ATA-166. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). and the ATA-100 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).10). Answer option C is incorrect.com rtK Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive on the primary IDE interface. File Transfer Protocol (FTP). It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. Reference: "http://technet. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network. If an ATA-100 hard disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard.D Explanation: The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. along with other Internet functions.www. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested.certkiller. he purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface.host name mappings.microsoft. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Answer option C is incorrect.aspx" QUESTION NO: 371 A. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service that supports Web site creation. IP address-to. B. Answer option B is incorrect. as the motherboard chipset is not compatible with the ATA-100 data transfer rate. Answer: B Explanation: Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

c om 139 . RAID-4 E. LUN C. A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. also known as stripe set with parity. Master/Slave setting D. RAID-5. RAID-5 C. The company has a TCP/IP-based Windows NT network. Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. I/O address B. It has better performance than a mirror set. Reference: TechNet. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. RAID-0 D.www. stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. If a portion of a physical disk fails.certkiller. Answer option A is incorrect. Both the partitions must be of the same size. Answer options E and D are incorrect. RAID-3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID-0. Contents: "NT Server and Disk Subsystem Performance" QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. RAID-1 B. also known as stripe set. you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. Answer option B is incorrect. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the network. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 372 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. RAID-1 has the poorest performance. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. RAID-1. also known as mirrored set. Among the three RAID levels. SCSI Identification Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following RAID levels will you choose to fulfil the requirement? A.com rtK ille r. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.

Master/Slave setting D. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. to communicate with any peripheral device. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive.certkiller. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups. Resources such as I/O addresses. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device "Slay Your Exams" . LUN C. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. and SCSI-3. its I/O address. Therefore. The CPU needs a memory address. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID.c om . I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. IRQ. Answer option C is incorrect. I/O address B.www. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives" QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A.com 140 Ce rtK ille r. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Reference: TechNet. SCSI-2. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI devices. SCSI ID 7 has top priority. SCSI Identification Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. Whenever a component. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. IRQs.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

Answer:

Ce

You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective boxes.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP

ille

r.c

om

141

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Explanation:

The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below: TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length 1000BaseSX550 meters 100BaseFX2000 meters 100BaseTX100 meters 1000BaseCX25 meters 1000BaseT100 meters

QUESTION NO: 376 HOTSPOT

In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

142

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

143

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 377

Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mouse type B. RAM size C. Boot sequence D. Shadow RAM E. Hard disk drive parameters F. Date and time G. Floppy disk drive parameters Answer: C,D,E,F,G

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

ille

r.c

om

144

The company has a Windows 2000based application server that serves applications to the users. used to compare different configurations. the additional bandwidth available for the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Once a baseline for network usage has been determined. Create a new server baseline. What is baseline? Baseline measures maximum system capacity and performance. ille r. If the hardware is not configured according to the BIOS configuration. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. Mark is concerned about the performance of the application server. as there is no change in the hardware of the server. There is no need to take a printout of the hardware configuration. Print the server hardware configuration. B. What will Mark do next after installing the application properly? om QUESTION NO: 378 145 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.c Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. the BIOS will issue a warning. Explanation: After the installation of the application. The security log does not store log about success or failure of application installations. D. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. Answer option C is incorrect. Ce Answer: B "Slay Your Exams" . The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new server baselines. Mark should create a new server baseline. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Monitor disk utilization. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server. C. the server baseline will be helpful to analyze the server performance after the installation of the application.www. the hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. But. When you configure shadow RAM.com rtK A.certkiller. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. As he is concerned about the performance of the application server. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application.

Hardware resource conflict occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other devices. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit.www. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. D. Answer: D Explanation: Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow around the chips and result in short circuit. Answer: D Explanation: The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation. Answer option B is incorrect.installation plan.c om 146 . Creating a backup strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre. Configure a subnet mask on the computer.com rtK ille r. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Hardware resource conflict B. D. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Choose two. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. A. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 380 Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. General protection fault C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment? A. Plan the installation. C. B. full-time connection to a network. The general protection fault does not occur due to humidity. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network.certkiller. Create a backup strategy. Answer option C is incorrect. A broadcast storm on the network. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Network interface cards provide a dedicated.

Answer options D. networking. Choose three.www. Microcomputers B. Mainframes D. ROM BIOS E.D Explanation: A modern motherboard has several components built in. provides services such as power. in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the smallest single-user systems computers). Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications. various interconnects and management. A. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the computing spectrum. CMOSBattery B.B. Reference: "http://en. and A are incorrect. minimize power consumption and other considerations. Most modern motherboards have the following major components: "Slay Your Exams" . while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. Though.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following have many components removed to save space.c om . typically bulk data processing. PCI Slot C. industry and consumer statistics. Floppy disk drive Answer: A. Minicomputers Answer: B Explanation: Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. A blade enclosure. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.wikipedia. cooling. Blade servers C. ERP. No components are removed from these. and financial transaction processing. minimize power consumption and other considerations. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer? A. blade servers have many components removed to save space. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself.com 147 Ce rtK ille r. C. Hard disk drive D.certkiller. which can hold multiple blade servers.

75 inches .www. 35 inches C.85 inches D. 1. QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit? A. U is the standard unit of measure for designating the vertical usable space. or height of racks.certkiller. identify the area showing the Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) slots.c om 148 . Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. 5. Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the motherboard.com rtK Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 inches B. They are separate units.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Processor-slot/socket Chipset ROM BIOS SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots CPU voltage regulator Battery Answer options C and E are incorrect.25 inches Answer: A QUESTION NO: 384 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. 1.75 x 20) inches. ille r.

com rtK ille r.www.c om 149 .certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

www. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. He wants to use a type of RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10. Reference: TechNet. DDR SDRAM C. Contents: "Appendix C . Which of the following types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task? A.7 GB/sec. PCI slots are usually white in color. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. such as the display subsystem.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: QUESTION NO: 385 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. These slots are larger than PCI or VESA slots.Hardware Support" rtK ille r. EISA bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus.com 150 Ce You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots. The company has a database server. EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path.c om . SRAM B. EDO RAM "Slay Your Exams" . RDRAM D. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities.certkiller. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM.

Answer option D is incorrect. such as additional protocol operations. Unlike DRAM.com rtK ille r. which allows users to manage the network. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for fault tolerance. Two Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SNMP v6 Answer: B Explanation: SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features. QUESTION NO: 386 Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities? A. Answer options A and C are incorrect. SNMP v1 and v2 have a number of common features. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports bandwidths from 1. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied.www. but SNMP v2 offers enhancements. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. One B. With a bus frequency of 200 MHz.6 GB/sec to 10. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. SNMP v2 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server.7 GB/sec. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication feature. Answer option A is incorrect. DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3. SNMP v1 B.c om 151 . Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6. SNMP v3 C.2 GB/sec.7 GB/sec. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5 volumes? A. Answer option B is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 387 You are installing Windows 2000 Server.certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect.

RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks. you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity.5 inches D. Change the password regularly.com rtK ille r.C QUESTION NO: 389 What is the height of the 30U server rack? A. do not reuse the previous password. QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. 14 inches B. C. RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored or extended.c om 152 . 31. 21 inches C.certkiller. In case of a physical disk failure. D. "Slay Your Exams" . Thirty-two Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. Answer: A. Discuss the password with anyone. Answer options B and D are incorrect. 52. Do not reuse passwords. Do not reuse passwords. Choose all that apply. Store the password. Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. While you are changing the password.5 inches Answer: D Explanation: Ce Explanation: The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly.www. Three D. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good password policies.

SRAM is faster than DRAM. The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches .c om . Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. Answer: C. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory. With an access time of 15 to 30 nanoseconds. SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more. DRAM requires more power than that of SRAM. C.certkiller. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . and some K5 model processors use Socket 7. AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and Duron processors use Socket QUESTION NO: 391 A. Answer option D is incorrect. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be refreshed.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 30U server rack has a height of 52. Slot 1 and Socket 370 C.D Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed. Answer option B is incorrect.5 inches .com 153 Ce What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Intel's Pentium. Pentium MMX. The 18U server rack has a height of 31. D. therefore. DRAM is faster than SRAM. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 390 Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors? A. "Slay Your Exams" . SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers. Slot 1 and Socket A Answer: B Explanation: Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. B.5 inches . Slot 2 and Socket 370 B. r. rtK ille A. and AMD's K6. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory. Slot 2 and Socket 7 D.www. Choose two.

Answer: A Explanation: POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. B. It does not store instruction for the POST operation. such as the keyboard. You find that a POST error has occurred. Answer option B is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 393 A. C.www. is plugged in on the computer's motherboard. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card. stores instruction for Power On Self Test.c om . Boot the computer. Answer option A is incorrect. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. a type of random access memory. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. Insert the card into an open bus slot. EDO RAM B. Insert the card into an open bus slot. ROM BIOS Answer: D Explanation: The ROM BIOS. Insert the card into an open bus slot.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 392 Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test? A. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk.certkiller. Answer options B. When a computer is turned on or "Slay Your Exams" . and D are incorrect. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manuurer. A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. D. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error. It does not store instruction for the POST routine. The error codes will print. C. EDO RAM. How will you use it? rtK ille r. Motherboard C.com 154 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard. Boot the computer. When you turn on or restart a computer. It also does not print error codes. Connect the card to a serial port. The error codes will display on the adapter. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. Boot the computer. Answer option C is incorrect. it begins a Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Microprocessor D.

It is an expensive device that costs around $30. such as keyboard. SCSIBIOS. Media tester. QUESTION NO: 396 You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk. QUESTION NO: 394 You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system. Punch down tool Answer: B Explanation: Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. Media tester D. SCSI.000.SYS C.SYS D. What will you do to upgrade "Slay Your Exams" . and A are incorrect.c om . Optical time domain reflectometer C. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. Tone generator B. NTBOOTDD. Answer options C. punch down tool. D. when using SCSI controller with BIOS disabled.SYS Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS.SYS B. Which file is required if your system uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam restarted.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables? A. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine.www. and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables. SCSIBOOT.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system. But your system does not support the 4GB hard disk. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components.com 155 Ce rtK ille r.

com 156 Ce A. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. a computer "Slay Your Exams" . new BIOS will be functional. Mark wants to reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume. In this method. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity. and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. First he must backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume. D. B. The server has eight 40GB hard disks. If no partition is set as Active. ROM BIOS chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version. C. A RAID5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard. Install a new operating system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the BIOS? A. QUESTION NO: 397 Answer: B Explanation: To support fault tolerance. rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Configure the disks to a spanned volume. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard. If your motherboard is using an Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip. Answer option C is incorrect. D. The network has a Windows 2000 server.www. After uploading the software and rebooting the machine. while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data.certkiller. and the volume should have the maximum space for storing data. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one additional disk for the volume. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume. Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. you can upgrade by the Flashing method. B.c om . C. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. Configure the disks to an active partition. Then he must create a RAID5 volume using six disks. Replace the motherboard. What will he do to accomplish this? r. it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam does not boot from the hard disk drive. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. an attacker sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. Spoofing Answer: C Explanation: A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. When an attacker sends TCP SYNs repeatedly. Reference: TechNet. caller ID. it is known as a PING attack. Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway" QUESTION NO: 399 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. etc. PING attack C. chatting on-line.certkiller. Reference: Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes".c om 157 . SYN attack D. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. email address. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine. When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer. In Windows 2000/2003. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. thereby denying service to legitimate users. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Using this technique. In IP spoofing. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. "Using mirrored volumes" QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open? A. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state. Answer option D is incorrect. However. Hacking B. it attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to handle any more connections. It can be created on dynamic disks only. the target computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP address. A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk.com rtK ille r. etc. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. For each SYN packet received. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet.

Answer option A is incorrect. It can only help in improving the server's data processing performance.com rtK ille r. Ultra 320 SCSI E. It also improves network uptime by protecting the network in the event of a network adapter failure. What will he do to accomplish this? A. SCSI3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec. C. SCSI-2 D. Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Answer option B is incorrect.www. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection. Ce Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate? "Slay Your Exams" . Adding a processor will improve the performance of data processing on the server. Answer: A Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. QUESTION NO: 400 A. It will not increase the network connection speed. SCSI-3 Answer: D Explanation: Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec. The server is connected to the network through a 10/100 Mbps switch. Answer option C is incorrect. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server. Answer option B is incorrect. Ultra 160 SCSI B. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic efficiently between the network adapters. D. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to the server will not affect the server's network connection speed. B. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option E is incorrect. SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. The company's network has a file server that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. Ultra 160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI. The server has a dual processor motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. Add more RAM to the server.c om 158 . Add a processor to the server's motherboard.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Ultra 900 SCSI C.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in improving the server's network connection speed.

Answer option A is incorrect.aspx" QUESTION NO: 402 A.c om . Therefore. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started. You upgrade a server's processor. the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking.10).com 159 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect. the most likely cause is that the processor is not correctly inserted in the slot.www. The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. in bytes. Cache Bytes Peak C. D. that can be committed without having to extend the paging file. B. The Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory. There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. Answer option B is incorrect. in bytes. After the upgrade. Cache size is not a requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST).com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST). C. Commit Limit Answer: C Explanation: The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. What is the most likely cause? rtK ille r. The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory. Reference: "http://technet. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option A is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 401 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use? A. Available Bytes D. Processors do not have jumpers. Answer: C Explanation: Since the server was working before the upgrade. Committed Bytes B.microsoft. The BIOS is not flashed.

such as keyboard. Answer: A. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. Answer option C is incorrect. Some weeks ago. Add more RAM.B. Answer option D is incorrect. Reference: "http://www.com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1. C. Which of the following steps can Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. the server was handling the same level of workload without any problem. malfunctioning add-on cards. Current Bandwidth C.c om . Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup. Answer option A is incorrect. B. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet. It measures the total amount of data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components.www.aspx" QUESTION NO: 404 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. There is no such counter as Current Bytes/sec. Output Queue Length D. Choose three. loose hardware contact. E. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has. Current Bytes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. and the failure of cooling devices such as "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. A.D Explanation: Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure. The company's network contains a file server. QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks? A.com 160 Ce rtK ille r. Run the hardware diagnostic utility.sql-serverperformance. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Examine the server log. Bytes Total/sec B. which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level. When a computer is turned on or restarted.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam motherboard.

Answer option E is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. adding more RAM cannot help to resolve the issue.certkiller. Part 1" QUESTION NO: 406 You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector. NSLOOKUP D. processor fan.www. It can be useful to improve server performance. IPCONFIG C. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male connector.com rtK ille r. Moreover. He also has to check whether the fans attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly. VGA/SVGA video adapter D. Answer option A is incorrect. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem? A. corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot. PING Ce "Slay Your Exams" . 10BaseT Ethernet cable Answer: D Explanation: A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter jack on a computer. Answer option C is incorrect. and SMPS fan.c om 161 . VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector. The administrator has to check that the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector? A. You are having DNS resolution problem. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the fans inside the server cabinet. Contents: "Building a Home Network. Serial port C. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps: Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. Run the hardware diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any accident or disaster. Check the cooling components such as heat sink. Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in size. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors. Hence. TRACERT B. Answer option B is incorrect. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable B.

Reference: TechNet.com 162 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Thursday Answer: C Explanation: The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB.c om . and data transfer rate of the tape drive is 2. You configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2. You are planning a data backup plan for the company's network. Friday D. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. What is the "Slay Your Exams" . This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. the destination host responds with a series of replies. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. Answer option D is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday. Wednesday C. Answer option B is incorrect.www. On receiving the packets. It is also used to display. Monday B. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools [Q217014]" QUESTION NO: 407 A. it will run on the following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company. register. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday .11GB/hour.11GB/hour. Tuesday E. This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full backup. The management does not want the backup plan to interfere with the network during business hours. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt.certkiller. Answer option A is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems.9 AM to 5 PM. and debugging other server-related problems. or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. On which of the following days can you perform a full backup? rtK ille r.

Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. since the last incremental or full backup. "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: TechNet.c om 163 . C. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. or are new.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. on your system. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Faulty printer driver Answer: A.com rtK ille r. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. When you run the DIR command on D: drive. A. When he prints a Word document. Contents: "Description of Full. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data.certkiller. you receive an error message. Ce Explanation: The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Printer cable is loose B. and Differential Backups [Q136621" QUESTION NO: 408 David configured a system as a print server on the network. Hard disk drive cable is faulty. E. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. When you boot the system with a bootable floppy disk. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Hard disk drive has no partition. you access the hard disk as D: drive. Faulty printer cartridge C.D QUESTION NO: 409 You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave. Choose two. D. What is the most likely cause? A. Incremental. It needs only one tape to restore data. B. the page is printed with junk characters. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed.www. Hard disk drive is not formatted. Faulty RAM on print server D.

you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive. These files are stored in compressed format. Therefore. If the hard disk is not partitioned. Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. Category 4 D. NTBACKUP C. BIOS configuration and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because. Category 3 C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted. Answer option C is incorrect. this option is incorrect. It consists of four twisted-pairs. BACKUP D. ERD /NT Answer: A Explanation: Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. Category 5 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 411 You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. ille r. QUESTION NO: 410 Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps? A. in that case you cannot access the hard disk drive as D: drive.c om . "Slay Your Exams" .www. The question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. RDISK B. It consists of four twistedpairs with three twists per foot. Category 1 refers to the traditional Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables. It consists of four twistedpairs of copper wire.com 164 Ce rtK Explanation: Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. which can carry voice but not data. Which utility will you use? A. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 16 Mbps. Category 1 B.

Create a new server baseline.DAT). and click OK. Install the latest service pack on the server. computer's default profile (NTUSER. Answer options D.LOG. You have checked and verified that the application is working properly. NAS server C.c om . you should create a new server baseline.com 165 Ce rtK Explanation: After installing a new application on the server. Although it may "Slay Your Exams" .BAT. B. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous clients. B. Proxy server B. Add more RAM to the server.certkiller. ERD can be created through the RDISK.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam ERD includes portion of the registry. D. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server. ERD is not self bootable.EXE utility. DHCP server Answer: B Explanation: The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage. go to Start menu > Run. and A are incorrect. ille r. type RDISK. AUTOEXEC. To start RDISK. You have installed a new application on the server. What should you do next? A. DNS server D. Reference: TechNet. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.SYS). Answer: C QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following servers provides network file storage? A. A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. To restore the information from ERD. C. Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]" QUESTION NO: 412 Your company's network has a file server. and computer's configuration files (SETUP.www. Run Disk Defragmenter on the server. and CONFIG. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network.

such as a file. D. requesting some service. If the request is validated by the filter. web page. Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS. and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. C. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response. For example.x [Q93521]" QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter? "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client. ille r. A DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. but it is almost always a hardware problem. Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. or other resource.wikipedia.www.com 166 Ce Answer: B rtK A. IP address-to-host name mappings. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk. is used to store the parity of the data. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of memory. NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. B. Answer option C is incorrect.c QUESTION NO: 414 om . connection. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk. Reference: TechNet. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information. Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows 3. Parity is a basic check of information integrity. the "parity bit". A parity error can be caused by different circumstances. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. often using a browser. and are controlled and configured over the network. etc. A client connects to the proxy server.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage" What is the meaning of parity error? Explanation: Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries.certkiller. it is not designed to be a general purpose server. until the problem disappears. available from a different server. Parity error occurs due to faulty memory. information about the domain tree structure. Reference: "http://en.

Reference: "http://www. Level 5 Answer: A Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems. The Disk Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object. Answer option A is incorrect. Level 1 B. Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. Damage of components. "Slay Your Exams" . which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring? A.Tabson-Your-Network-Traffic. Answer option B is incorrect. Level 1 or mirroring. Reference: TechNet.php/10954_3328281_2/Keep. Level 5 or disk striping with parity.com 167 Ce rtK ille r. Distorted display. Level 3 D.www. Level 0 C. C.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect. The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks.c om . Output Queue Length counter C.com/netsysm/article. Disk Queue Length D.htm" QUESTION NO: 416 In Windows NT/2000. Current Bandwidth B. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or disk striping. The Output Queue Length counter of the network interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. which is not fault-tolerant." QUESTION NO: 417 Your computer is not connected to the UPS.enterprisenetworkingplanet. Bytes Total/sec Answer: D Explanation: The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter. What can happen in an event of power failure? A. B. CMOS battery failure.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.

so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. Which of the following connectors can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. r. When power surge occurs. Reference: TechNet.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/.c om 168 . Answer option C is incorrect. power failure may cause damage to peripheral components. using battery backup. QUESTION NO: 419 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . while the computer gets normal power. BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in the CMOS chip. RJ-11 C. Answer: B Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS. LC D. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure.D Explanation: The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. In an event of power failure. Contents: "Glossary" QUESTION NO: 418 Answer: C. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. MT-RJ rtK ille You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc. Choose two. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure. The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver. RJ-45 B.com A. The company wants to use Small Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network. What is an MT-RJ connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector. The connector is a 2-fiber connector and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack.www. It also provides protection against power surges. BIOS configuration is reset.

Reference: TechNet.band port that resides on the target server.www. Five Answer: A Explanation: RAID-5. D. Three B. Reference: "http://en. B. Out-of-band management is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities. Answer option C is incorrect. Users can use remote-access connections to manage servers.c om 169 . However. in-band connection is available only when the server is initialized and functioning properly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.certkiller. Thirty-two D. the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of management access to those devices. The remote-access connection is made through the in. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Two C. To manage network servers and routers remotely. It is used for taking backups. It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes" QUESTION NO: 420 Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management? A. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Explanation: Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. C. In-band connection relies on operating-system network drivers to establish computer connections. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. If a portion of a physical disk fails. The most common in-band remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter. Unlike out-of-band connection. administrators need network access when problems occur. you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. also known as stripe set with parity.com rtK Answer: B ille r. It is used for auditing the network activities. It has better performance as compared to a mirror set.wikipedia. Four E.

TRACEROUTE D. QUESTION NO: 422 Answer: C Explanation: The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval. Answer option D is incorrect. 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. 386DX.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.certkiller. 486DX2 and 486DX4. Pentium Answer: B. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. TRACERT C. 80486 D.C. NSLOOKUP rtK You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network.com 170 Ce A. A. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and Pentium MMX.D Explanation: 80386. 486DX. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Ping B. 80386 processors were introduced in computer models such as 386SX. 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as 486SX. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. 80386 C. and debugging other serverrelated problems.c om . Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval? ille r. 8088 B.www. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. "Slay Your Exams" . TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt.

It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. The first and last devices in the SCSI bus should be terminated.c om . SCSI devices. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly.com 171 Ce rtK ille r. "Slay Your Exams" . This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. B. SCSI-2. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. the destination host responds with a series of replies. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). Terminate only the internal SCSI device.org/wiki/Traceroute" QUESTION NO: 423 You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices.certkiller. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.www. Reference: "http://en. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. C. It provides interface for connecting the computer to auxiliary devices. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. C. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations. B. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. D. and SCSI-3.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Terminate all external SCSI devices. The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. How will you achieve this? A. D. Answer: B Explanation: The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. On receiving the packets.wikipedia. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive.

and if a home or office takes a direct hit. also known as surge arrestor.certkiller. Lightning carries millions of volts. A brownout lasts longer than a power sag and corrupts more data. It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. A lightning arrestor is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges.wikipedia. C. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). When a lightning surge. has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. travels down the power system to the arrestor. B. the lightning arrestor shunts the excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. Answer option B is incorrect. When the induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold or hot spell.www. Content: Glossary QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following statements about brownout is true? A. It indicates there is enough power on the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current electrical demand. Answer option C is incorrect. This device does not provide protection from a direct lightning strike. The typical lightning arrestor.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. the current from the surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth. rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer.com rtK ille r. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges. or switching surge. Answer: D Explanation: A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. NIC is also known as network adapter. Reference: "http://en. It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time. It is installed after an antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver. Answer option A is incorrect. a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged.c om 172 . Reference: TechNet. such as for one or two seconds. D.

C. You want to increase memory in a database server on the network. you will have to replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 426 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard. Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing. You should purchase memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. without replacing the motherboard. QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP Answer: Ce Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown in the image. D.com rtK ille r. Although you should check the compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. Answer option C is incorrect. B. Otherwise. Answer option D is incorrect. Check the memory size on POST. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase memory on the server.www. you will have to change the existing memory. it is the second step.c om 173 . Answer: A Explanation: You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before purchasing memory. Verify the availability of memory slot. "Slay Your Exams" . There is no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on the server. Answer option B is incorrect. What will be your first step before purchasing memory? A.

Choose two. By default. 443 D. A.D Explanation: The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162. 162 C. "Slay Your Exams" . It is an inexpensive connector.certkiller.c om . Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication.com 174 Ce rtK ille r. which allows users to manage the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded medium performance coaxial signal connector. 161 Answer: B. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite.www. which is used in TVs and VCRs. 80 B. The pin of the connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable. QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.

B. He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive. QUESTION NO: 429 Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system. and cameras.com 175 Ce rtK ille r. B. C.c om . You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port.www. What is the most likely cause of the issue? A. scanners.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam HTTP uses port 80 as the default port. The RAM on the server is faulty. This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. Both the drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. even though the hard disk drive is working properly. C. Answer: A. keyboards. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. The tape drive has no power supply. CD-ROM drives. Mark comes to his office and starts the server. external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices. including speakers.certkiller. D. which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly. On a Monday morning. USB supports hot plugging. tape drives. USB supports hot plugging. Topic: Appendix C Hardware Support QUESTION NO: 430 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. USB does not support Plug n Play installation.C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based. Answer option A is incorrect. The "Slay Your Exams" . The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly. Answer option D is incorrect. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. Choose two. D. The company's network contains a file server. A. The SCSI card driver is not installed. The SCSI card is faulty. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port. Answer: B Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate.

To allow use of zip drives. B. and sectors. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1. Monica has to restore Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. D. Since zip drive. LBA is not used with them. C. heads.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam SCSI card is not faulty. as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. She installs a new device driver for the controller. What should she do to accomplish this? A. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB. QUESTION NO: 431 What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing? A. Answer options D. Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined [Q122052]" QUESTION NO: 432 Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. Now. Reference: TechNet. Restart Server1. and RAM have their own addressing method. and C are incorrect. LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk drive. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration.certkiller. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD). A. Server1 is unable to boot properly. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB.c om . In order to work. Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1. restart Server1. B. Monica wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days. After setup completes. Answer option C is incorrect. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up. Instead of using cylinders.com 176 Ce rtK ille r. Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to overwrite the new file. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD. Server1 and Server2. C. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk drive. Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: B Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard disk drives of more than 504MB. D. it assigns a unique identifier to each sector on the drive. DVD.

and Northern Telecom. This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry key.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. if an operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option.1. USB 2. "Windows NT". USB devices are non-Plug and Play. Software drivers are required for USB devices. It is not required to restart the computer to install USB devices. Reference: TechNet. B. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by installing a new SCSI device driver. USB supports hot plugging. Microsoft. It is possible. Answer option B is incorrect. "Knowledge Base". Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty drivers. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost. Answer option D is incorrect. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. keyboards. IBM.ROM drives. Intel. D. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. In this case. Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE" Ce Answer: C "Slay Your Exams" . One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good Configuration.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Whenever a user logs on to a computer.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. scanners etc. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device. DEC. the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry.c om 177 .certkiller. "Recovering Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]" QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices? A. you do not need to provide a device driver separately. whereas USB 2. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. tape drives. Therefore. What is Last Known Good Configuration? The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last successfully logged on. USB 1. she should use the Last Known Good Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. NEC. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here.com rtK ille r. Software drivers are not required for USB devices.www. As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good Configuration. reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. such as CD.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support". Answer option A is incorrect. C. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it. though. Reference: TechNet. that the drivers for your USB devices are already available on the computer.

In most cases. a Sales Manager. his computer was working properly till last evening and he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning. reports that his computer was working properly till last evening. QUESTION NO: 435 What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card? "Slay Your Exams" . it showed the Invalid System Disk error message. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting. a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program. Instead. and system files. Answer option A is incorrect. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. it is rare. and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer.certkiller. networking files. infect those targets. Floppy drive failure.c om . Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. What is a virus? A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. when he turned on his computer this morning. Media failure on the hard disk drive. A virus can infect boot sector. The computer is infected with virus. Rick. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. Although media failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur.com 178 Ce rtK ille r. B. According to Rick.www. D. it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely cause? A. However. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 434 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. the computer shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. virus attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. the computer searched for operating system files on the floppy drive first. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected. C. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk. The next time he turned on the computer. It is possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his work.

This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network communication. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC manuurer. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC.www. They use software setup programs instead. to communicate with any peripheral device. C. Answer option C is incorrect. Whenever a component. The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall. D.com 179 Ce rtK ille r. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. Resources such as I/O addresses. To configure data transfer speed. TRACERT D. IRQs. he can access all other sites.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. IRQ. full-time connection to a network. A user complains that he is unable to access the abc.c om . Answer: D Explanation: The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer.certkiller. Which of the following tools will help you diagnose the problem? A. The CPU needs a memory address. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. To configure MAC address. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface card and cannot be changed by users. However. IPCONFIG B. QUESTION NO: 436 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. Nowadays most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches. To configure transceiver type. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote "Slay Your Exams" .com site. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. B. its I/O address. ROUTE Answer: C Explanation: The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. TELNET C. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. To configure I/O address.

75 inches . Delete. QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE command. Pentium 4 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. Answer option D is incorrect. It uses TCP port 23 by default. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. AMD K6 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam host. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. default gateway etc. 35 inches D. Answer option C is incorrect.. A. such as IP address. Answer option A is incorrect.75 x 20) inches. 1. The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1.c om 180 .com rtK ille r. to access files. subnet mask. Therefore. the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7 (4 x 1. Answer option A is incorrect. offers the ability to run programs remotely. Print. Answer option D is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit? A.75 inches B. Choose three. and facilitates remote administration. of a networked computer. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems.75 x 12) inches. AMD Athlon C. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address.www. 21 inches Answer: B Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Add. Answer option B is incorrect.certkiller.75 inches . 7 inches C.75) inches. 386SX B.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance. Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Moving some applications to another server can also resolve the issue. either the processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%. This indicates a bottleneck in memory. Employees complain about the poor performance of this server. A bottleneck in the processor occurs. To overcome this. there is no need to add another processor. Answer: B Explanation: Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory. Reference: TechNet.www. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 181 . This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy.D Explanation: The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer option A is incorrect. One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133 MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive. D. Since the problem is not due to disk performance. David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk time70% What will he do to enhance server performance? A. He will add another network card to the server. He will use disk striping. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. disk striping is not required. He will add more memory to the server. Therefore.com rtK ille r. What is %Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a computer. QUESTION NO: 439 David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. C. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. Since the problem does not occur due to high network usage. Since there is no bottleneck in the processor. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width. David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance.C. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT workstations. there is no need to add another network card. when the value of this counter exceeds 80%. B. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set (RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. He will add another processor to the server.certkiller. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance.

full-time connection to a network.www.com 182 Ce A. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive C. Which hardware is missing? ille r. Network device driver C. By changing the CMOS setting D. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. But due some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. By adding an add-on card Answer: B Explanation: You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. QUESTION NO: 442 "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 440 How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system? A. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. But some hardware may have been missed during the installation. due to which John is unable to connect to the network. none of them will work. So this is the problem of missing network interface card in the computer. has recently added John's computer as a part of the network. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. Network interface card rtK Edward Inc. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. All the required hardware has been installed on John's computer. Slave. Networking protocol stack B.certkiller. If two drives are attached to one controller.c om . QUESTION NO: 441 Answer: D Explanation: As the question states. Network client software D. or Slave. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. By setting a jumper on the motherboard B. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive.

The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster? A. Tom configures the server with a 25 GB DAT drive. Therefore. the other shuts down automatically. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon.c om Answer: A 183 . he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do so as the DAT drive runs out of space. the other takes over the job. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives. If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. C. D. he must use at least two 25 GB DAT drives. Answer: B Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It prevents viruses from corrupting user data. The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive. so that he can take a full backup every night using all three drives.com rtK Explanation: Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server . B.www. so that he can take a full backup every night using both drives. B. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom implement to accomplish this task? A. ille r. C. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup. Answer option D is incorrect. It is not possible to take a full backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive. Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem. and a differential backup every night. everyday. Backing up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will increase the administrative burden. it is unnecessary to purchase two DAT drives. D. the other node provides resources. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power.

www.90 analog modem. PCI-X has been replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express.wikipedia. such as sound cards and modems. Answer option C is incorrect. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system.e. Answer option B is incorrect.. In case of a bottleneck on a node. CNR C. There is no such slot as DMR. and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. Visually there is no such similarity. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from being corrupted by viruses. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. multi-channel audio. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems. AMR Answer: A Explanation: PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers. The audio/modem riser (AMR). All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. also known as an AMR slot. It is a double-wide version of PCI.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam In a two-node cluster.org/wiki/PCI-X" QUESTION NO: 445 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . is an expansion slot.certkiller. and Athlon personal computers. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III. Pentium 4. phone-line-based networking. a virtual server name. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality. the other takes over the job. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio devices.c om 184 . making a total of 46 pins. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. DMR D.com rtK ille r. Answer option C is incorrect. It has two rows of 23 pins each. but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation and uses the same protocol. Answer option D is incorrect. PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express. commonly abbreviated as PCIe. Answer option D is incorrect. Reference: "http://en. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. running at up to four times the clock speed. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe. if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. It supports V. which is used to access and manage the cluster. the other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node. on an expansion card. QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe? A. PCI-X B.

Windows 2000 Server C. Choose two. Due to a substantial loss of data. A DAT to DLT converter and its driver Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition D. Sun Solaris 10 D.www. The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing. The company's network has a server that is used for backup purposes. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 B.D. QUESTION NO: 447 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.certkiller.D Explanation: Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect. QUESTION NO: 446 Answer: A.c Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT) to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system. Mark wants to restore data from an older DAT tape. What will he need in order to accomplish the task? A.E Explanation: The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect.C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition C. Choose all that apply. Sun Solaris 9 ille r. Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition B.com rtK A. om 185 . A DLT tape drive and its driver B. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4 Answer: A. A. Mac OS X Panther E. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

the hardware is checked according to the CMOS configuration. In CMOS. Using the DAT tape drive. heads. Answer option C is incorrect. Digital Audio Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. as it cannot read a DAT tape. DATs are sequential-access media. Shift + Alt +Del rtK ille Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option B is incorrect. It is a chip installed on the motherboard.c om . It is 0. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task. Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based setup programs to change the CMOS settings. In CMOS. the computer configuration can be changed using a menu driven application. If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration. r. BIOS issues a warning. There is no need of a DLT tape drive.certkiller. Del D. There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor. Mark also needs a DAT tape drive. The DAT tape can support data transfer rates of about 2 MBps. Ctrl + Alt + Shift C. you can change the configuration of your computer using a menu driven application. A DAT tape drive and its driver Answer: D Explanation: In order to restore data from an old DAT tape. A DAT driver D. QUESTION NO: 448 Answer: A. When the computer is booted. Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. Choose two. which stores hardware configuration of the computer. Answer option A is incorrect.5 MBps. and sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). It can hold up to 24GB of data. A DAT cartridge is a little larger than a credit card in width and height.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. A DLT drive is faster than most other types of tape drives.com 186 Ce A.C Explanation: You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC. If a user forgets the password for CMOS "Slay Your Exams" . the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders.5 inches wide and the cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB. It has data transfer rates of up to 2. Ctrl + Alt + Esc B.www.

he will have to short the CMOS jumper. the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over time. DB-9 Answer: A Explanation: To take advantage of bi-directional printing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam configuration. Typically. IEEE 1394 C.www. instead of shorting the CMOS jumper. the user can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds. Choose two. To remove the password assigned.c om Answer: C. The time required to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6 milliseconds. True-online UPS D. Line conditioner UPS C. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a load and the battery is always being charged. Today most UPS are of the SPS type.D . IEEE 1284 B. on some new motherboards. Answer options A and B are incorrect. QUESTION NO: 449 Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A. If the main power varies outside the range. rtK ille r. and a correctly configured port. The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. However. The True-online UPS has continuous load on the battery. RS-232 D.certkiller.com 187 Ce Explanation: Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby while the main power is within an acceptable range. you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant printer cable. Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing? A. bi-directional cables "Slay Your Exams" . a bi-directional printer. Offline UPS B.

and other serial devices to the personal computer. It is a 9-pin.www.C. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss. two rows. C. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. QUESTION NO: 451 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. A DB-9 connector is used by the serial interface. Which of the following practices will keep the system working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Choose three. B. excluding the SCSI adapter. It is also known as serial port. on the back of a PC used for connecting mouse. and handheld devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam have the number 1284 printed on them. D.com rtK ille r. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. serial ports. QUESTION NO: 452 How many devices. Answer option B is incorrect. modem. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Answer: A. A. Answer option B is incorrect. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . also known as COM ports. does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support? A. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on.certkiller. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. traditional PC storage devices.D Explanation: The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI RAID storage unit with a new Web server. male connector.232 ports. or RS.c om 188 . Answer option C is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. Answer option D is incorrect.

These partitions use the FAT file system. You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the "Slay Your Exams" . Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has a 16-bit bus. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with device numbers ranging from 0 to 7. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. Reference: "http://technet.com 189 Ce rtK ille r. Answer option C is incorrect. 7 Answer: B Explanation: A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter.certkiller. Reference: TechNet. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Answer option B is incorrect.aspx" QUESTION NO: 454 Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. 15 C. 4 D.microsoft. System: System Calls/sec D. Processor: %Processor Time B. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Processor: %Privilege Time C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. SCSI devices. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy servicing requests. including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. SCSI-2.c om . The System: System Calls/sec counter is a measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services. System: Processor Queue Length Answer: D Explanation: The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface.com/enus/library/cc768048. Contents: "Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]" QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU? A.www. and SCSI-3.

There is no such option to upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. According to the question. dynamic RAID5 volumes. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set. Choose two. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of equipment in the server rack. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended partitions with logical drives. Answer: A. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets). or spanned volumes (volume sets) become dynamic mirrored volumes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam dynamic RAID5 volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. D. It can only contain volumes created through Disk Management. Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Installing heavy equipment as near as "Slay Your Exams" .com 190 Ce rtK ille r. and RAID-5 volumes created using Windows NT 4. Windows 2000 Server Manual. Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all Windows-based operating systems. B. and any version of Windows NT. Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes. or dynamic spanned volumes. RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity). dynamic striped volumes. It can also contain spanned. striped volumes (stripe sets). Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk. C.certkiller. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack. D. striped. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. the existing partitions on the basic disk become simple volumes on the dynamic disk. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. you want to change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set. C. Article "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 455 Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: D Explanation: On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort? A. It cannot be accessed by MS-DOS.C Explanation: It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. B. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000.0 or earlier. respectively. mirrored. A.c om . Windows 95/98. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives. There is no such facility to break stripe set with parity.www.

and RAM. The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number. or parity data. C.c om 191 . Ce "Slay Your Exams" . hard disks. Answer option A is incorrect. Moreover. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. An ECC (errorcorrecting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. B. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. and it is therefore suitable for simplex communication such as broadcasting. It is a system of adding redundant data. as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs. Installing heavy equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the equipment. the lower the CAS latency. or parity data. D. or on storage. In general. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission of the data.certkiller. RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks. Answer option D is incorrect. RAID is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in lower-layer communication. placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of the rack. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan the location of hardware in the server rack. Answer option B is incorrect. to a message.www. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. either during the process of transmission. DVDs. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. to a message. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. Answer: B Explanation: Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module.com rtK ille r. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other equipment on the upper side of the rack. a back-channel is not required in forward error correction. QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency? A. or on storage. the better. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. either during the process of transmission.

184-pin DIMMs are 5. PC3200 and PC3500 and faster. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes. SNMP D. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module.certkiller. "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). Answer option A is incorrect. they are said to be in a RAID array.org/wiki/CAS_latency" Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address? A. Reference: "http://en.c om QUESTION NO: 457 192 . PC2700. FTP B. This array distributes data across multiple disks.375" high.www.wikipedia. Answer option C is incorrect. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a total of 184. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network. and the heights may vary.375" long and 1. Answer option D is incorrect. but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology. etc. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data reliability or increased input/output performance. ARP C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam as in RAID 0. 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon systems. Contents: "Test IP-addressto-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP". which allows users to manage the network. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. RAID 1. Answer option C is incorrect. A DIMM slot is larger than a SIMM slot. SMTP Answer: B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite.com rtK ille r. The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary. Reference: MSDN. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email messages between servers over the Internet.

SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Answer options D. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. ille r. Slave. CD drive B. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. Tape drive C. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. An IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. SCSI devices. first as a Master and second as a Slave.com 193 Ce rtK Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www. Contents: "Performance Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4. CD-ROM drive. Reference: TechNet. Sound card D. SCSI-2.c om .B. and hard disk drive. none of them will work. Modem Answer: A.0" QUESTION NO: 459 A.D Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive. You can configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers. to an IDE channel. Contents: "Storage Management Operations Guide" "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: TechNet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 458 How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel? A. You can connect devices such as hard disk drive. 3 C. B. and C are incorrect. or Slave. Hard disk drive E. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. 7 Answer: A Explanation: An IDE channel can support two devices. If two drives are attached to one channel. Choose all that apply. etc. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.certkiller. tape drive. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. 4 D. and SCSI-3. 2 B.

certkiller. On receiving the packets. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. such as IP address. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 460 Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply? A. References: TechNet. default gateway etc. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. PING D. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.c om 194 . What is the ping utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. of a networked computer.. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. NETSTAT B. the destination host responds with a series of replies. TRACERT C. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Contents: "Chapter 3 . incoming and outgoing data.www.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r. subnet mask. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration.

Answer option B is incorrect. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. the destination host responds with a series of replies. Answer option C is incorrect. TRACERT Answer: D Explanation: TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. Answer option A is incorrect.c om 195 . TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at.certkiller. update the NetBIOS name cache. Reference: TechNet. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. and determine the registered names and scope IDs.com rtK ille r. Contents: "Chapter 3 . PING C. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. incoming and outgoing data.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. This helps administrators to isolate the problem there. NBTSTAT D. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.www. NETSTAT B. On receiving the packets.

It does not provide fault tolerance. Since. Choose two. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Answer: B. A. B.E Explanation: RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity). If a portion of a physical disk fails. C. Answer options A and C are incorrect. it is faster to read or write the data from a striped volume than from a spanned volume. QUESTION NO: 463 Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. RAID 5 F. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does "Slay Your Exams" .www. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID 1 B.com 196 Ce rtK ille r. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. a large amount of data is divided into identical portions. Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB.0 implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. RAID 3 C. RAID 4 E.certkiller. The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. It provides fault tolerance. Choose two. A. It also provides fault tolerance. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 462 Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. RAID 0 Answer: A. D.c om . are the two RAID levels which support fault tolerance. Striped volumes are not fault tolerant. in a striped volume. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data.D Explanation: Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. RAID 2 D. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. RAID-0 volumes are also referred to as striped volumes. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three hard disk drives.

The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array. LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis.com rtK ille r. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. Files on the remote computers are taking a long time to open. This device is also known as packet sniffer. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. Answer option D is incorrect. You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Mark examines the network and suspects that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of an electrical current in amperes. Ampere meter B. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub.c om Answer: C 197 . The server's performance is decreasing day by day. Voltmeter is an instrument for measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit. LAN analyzer D. The company's network has a database server. QUESTION NO: 464 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. It reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a humanreadable format.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam not support fault tolerance. Answer option A is incorrect. One morning. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. users report that the network has become quite slow. Mark will have to use a LAN analyzer. Voltmeter Explanation: In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network. QUESTION NO: 465 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc.certkiller. What will you do to improve the server's performance? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The server is also responding slowly to database queries. Answer option B is incorrect. Time Domain Reflectometer C.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem.www. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to troubleshoot the problems. Which of the following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card? A.

Answer: C Explanation: The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem. An existing equipment rack in the server room has only 11. in the question. Answer option D is incorrect. Therefore. Which of the following is the maximum size of the server that can be installed into the rack? ille r. D.org/wiki/Rack_unit" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard. Reference: "http://en. Answer option B is incorrect. A rack unit is also known as U.75 inches ( 44. 6U rtK Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server. Answer option A is incorrect.www.5). The problem is due to shortage of RAM. However. 2U is 3.75". Hence. Change the network card with a high speed card. The Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. 4U D. Add one more microprocessor. The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing rack. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task. a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1. This suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. 6 x1. 11.c om 198 .certkiller. Hence. the value is 35.25" and so on. there is no need to change the network card.wikipedia. C. QUESTION NO: 466 Answer: D Explanation: A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack. One rack unit is 1. the maximum size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i. 3U is 5.com A. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.e.5 inches space is available in existing rack. Adding more RAM to the server will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. B. Reboot the server.75 = 10.5 inches space available. According to the scenario. Therefore. 9U C. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the server's memory. as the Pages/sec value is quite high.5". Answer options A and B are incorrect. Add more RAM.45 mm ) high. 7U B.

Choose two.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 467 Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD Chapter 17 . Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Network Monitor B. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network. Safe Mode boot C. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Recovery Console is used by the Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems without installing a second copy of the operating system. Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers. A. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.File Systems QUESTION NO: 468 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which tool will you use to resolve this problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted system files is preventing the computer from starting. One of the users complains that his Windows 2000 Server is not starting. It bypasses blocking issues. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. etc.C Explanation: Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem on the operating system files.com rtK ille r. View. Performance Monitor Answer: B. over time.certkiller. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for networking and NTFS partition on their disks. Network Monitor can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes. over time. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000 operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system. Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used.c om 199 . or installation of incompatible drivers or system services. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. such as system corruption. What is Network Monitor? Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. offering a variety of products and financial services. keyboard. such as mouse. Recovery Console D. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. Monitoring errors. The Alert. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server.www.

It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. SRAM is used for main memory. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet. Lock the server on the server chassis.c om .www. Answer: A. Choose two. A.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 469 Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Put a lock on the door of the server room. D. Reference: TechNet. Direct the incoming traffic to more trustworthy internal computers. It is used to separate an internal network from the Internet. What is the function of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied.C Explanation: The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the door of the server room.com 200 Ce rtK ille r. C. Unlike DRAM. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet. D. What is a firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from coming in or going out of a specified network or computer. B. C. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer options D and B are incorrect. and provides centralized access control on how users should use the network.B Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Log "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. A. B. A firewall can also perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM. Answer: A. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room. Contents: "Chapter 3 . Install a firewall on the server. Choose all that apply. SRAM is used for cache memory. SRAM is faster than DRAM.

2. 5. 15. 10. SCSI-2. Higher ID numbers have higher priority. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Level 1 Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . 8 = highest F:1 = lowest Answer: A. while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15. SCSI IDs are split into two groups. Level 3 B. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. 0.com 201 Ce rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 470 In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. such as computer names. and internal user IDs from external users.D Explanation: SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. SCSI IDs determine device priority on a SCSI bus. Level 2 D. 4.c om . 1 = highest D. 14. 8 = lowest B. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0 to 7. 12. SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority. 9. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7. Hide information.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam traffic to and from the private network. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI devices. and SCSI-3. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. A. 11. QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor? A. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. 7 = lowest C. 8. Level 4 C. Choose all that apply. 3. Therefore. with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15. network topology.certkiller.www. network device types. 13. 6. 7 = highest E. 1.

certkiller. Reference: TechNet. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Answer options B and A are incorrect. The failure of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache. rtK ille r. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/.com 202 Ce Explanation: Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more employees A new application is installed on the server. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. B.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. A new application is installed on the server. Answer option C is incorrect. Contents: "Chapter 3 . Answer: A.B. Hiring more employees C. Volt Ampere C. A. Hertz D.C QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery? A. so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay.c om . Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Adding more RAM to the server D.www. Ampere hours Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Ohm B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor. Answer option D is incorrect. Choose all that apply. A network device has failed due to power surge. There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and level 4.

communications (such as networking) and other IT infrastructure. and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel. QUESTION NO: 475 Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade? A. Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 474 Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? A. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process.c om 203 . and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity. Ensure that the plan works properly C. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster recovery plan. D. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery. When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB. policies. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. hardware. Ensure that the plan works properly.B Explanation: The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. data. The ampere hours (AH) is the unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery. B. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of current for one hour. Hertz is a unit of frequency. Answer options C and D are incorrect. it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. Volt Ampere (VA) is a measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. Ohm is the standard unit of electrical resistance. B. D.www. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. When replacing the monitor. Answer: A. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer. facilities.com rtK ille r. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard. crisis communication and reputation protection. C. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility.

D. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended speed. it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller. Since the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device. Andrew does not want to replace the existing tape drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. Answer options B. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed. QUESTION NO: 476 Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on his computer.www. He asks the technician about compatibility issues.certkiller. These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS. B. A. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. on the motherboard. and SCSI-3. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed. it will operate only at Ultra speed.c om . CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following "Slay Your Exams" . SCSI-2. SCSI devices. SCSI-1.com 204 Ce rtK ille r. He runs a performance test on one of the servers of the network and finds the following statistics. What will be the technician's answer? A. QUESTION NO: 477 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2 SCSI speed. C. In this situation. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast SCSI tape drives. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. SCSI has three standards. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. The new configuration will not work. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. Answer options B and A are incorrect. Answer: C Explanation: The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. an upgrade of BIOS is required. and D are incorrect.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam objects has a bottleneck? A. Network subsystem B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: D Explanation: The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 478

A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory. B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory. C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor. D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory. Answer: D Explanation: Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory. When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

Ce

What does zero wait-states indicate?

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

205

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 479 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully. What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. B. Re-install the operating system on the computer. C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port. D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. Answer: A,D Explanation: In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace addon cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed. Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.

QUESTION NO: 480

Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Preferred DNS server address B. Internet connection sharing C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway D. Network address translation Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 206

Ce

rtK

ille

r.c

om

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems, ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 481 What is the full form of ESD? A. Extended System database B. Electrostatic Discharge C. Electrostatic Disk D. Enhance System drive Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 482 Which type of memory chip has 168 pins? A. SIMM B. DIP C. DMA D. DIMM Answer: D Explanation: The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM) "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 207

Ce

Explanation: The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that charge.

rtK

ille

r.c

om

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 483

Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length. B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping.

Explanation: SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 208

Ce

Answer: B,C,D

rtK

ille

r.c

om

It uses TCP port 23 by default. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32. to access files. As an Administrator. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. and click TELNET.com 209 Ce rtK Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client. mirrored. Answer: A. Parallel ATA (PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps. and click Terminal. Striped.c om . "http. A volume can be extended only if it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. The new disk has no file system. C. ille r. You are not logged on as an Account Operator. Type TEL on the Run dialog box. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. These partitions use FAT file system.B Explanation: The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are all ground lines. Choose two. and facilitates remote administration. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk between conductors. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 485 Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration. Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt.www. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories. B. The company's network has Windows 2000 and Unix servers. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. Striped. mirrored. D. you want to extend the existing striped volumes since the amount of existing data is large. and RAID5 volumes "Slay Your Exams" .//en. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000? A. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools.certkiller.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serial_ATA" QUESTION NO: 484 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. B. A. Type TELNET on the command prompt. C. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote Windows 2000 server. D. Reference. offers the ability to run programs remotely. But you are unable to do it.

and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data center. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive. many industrial chillers used it as an efficient refrigerant gas. What is file system? In an operating system.org/wiki/FM-200" QUESTION NO: 487 Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller. FAT. and organized. Before the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known. It is an effective gaseous fire suppression agent. and data centers. "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center? A. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to Halon 1301. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 210 . Water (H2O) Answer: A. and telecommunication switching centers.certkiller. Halon 1301 is dangerous for environment and health. It is used around valuable materials. What is NTFS? Reference. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive.B. stored. "http. odorless. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data center is harmful for the equipments. use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. file system is the overall structure in which files are named. Answer option D is incorrect. Where will you place the terminators? A.wikipedia.//en. B. gaseous halocarbon. Contents. It can be used as a fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment. Reference. and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes.com rtK ille r. and NTFS are the different types of file systems. What is FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless. such as aircraft. You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. FM-200 C. It is chemically known as heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent. carbon dioxide (CO2).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam cannot be extended. and data centers. Currently. FAT32. Halon D. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center. production equipment. TechNet.C Explanation: Halon. Carbon dioxide (CO2) B. mainframe computers.www. libraries. What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane.

Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60. Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost. om . What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. Answer option C is incorrect. Shadow RAM allows faster access to BIOS information. SCSI-2.certkiller. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. D.100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive. ille r. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. you should place one terminator at the end of each drive. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. When you configure shadow RAM. E. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI-1. internal and external. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. QUESTION NO: 488 Answer: B. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Place one terminator at the end of each drive. SCSI has three standards.com 211 Ce rtK A. and SCSI-3.c Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. SCSI devices. It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of information in lesser time. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. Answer: D Explanation: If you have two SCSI devices.D Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance.www. C. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended "Slay Your Exams" . Choose two. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-toanalog converter on a video card.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. D. It allows faster access to BIOS information. B. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller.

BOOT. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. BOOT. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware. Contents. Answer option A is incorrect. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. A. TechNet. 1 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . "Chapter 5 .BAT B. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. 3 D. Answer options C.www. 2 C.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. ROM BIOS C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam memory for use by other programs.c om 212 . Hard disk Answer: B Explanation: When you start a computer. and D are incorrect. But.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. Reference.INI. the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer.certkiller. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably.INI D. What is BOOT.INI file? BOOT. Unlike DRAM. BOOT. The first instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk. 4 B. The BIOS software is stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard. also known as the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. or AUTOEXEC. BOOT.com rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 489 Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup? A. AUTOEXEC. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer.BAT file. and allows the operating system to communicate with the various components of the computer.Setup Technical Discussion" QUESTION NO: 490 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a server? A.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system.

org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 491 You work as a Network Administrator. The final disk contains the parity information. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. Due to data redundancy.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. the data on the RAID system is lost. "http. data is kept on two physical disks. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk.certkiller. In this disk system. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. Re-installed the network interface card driver. You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem. Just before noon. but to a set of disks. Re-install operating system D. What is RAID5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. Answer option B is incorrect. but if the drives fail on both sides of the mirror. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning.//en. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks.com 213 Ce rtK ille r. a remote access server is disconnected from the network. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. RAID-0 and RAID1 require a minimum of two disks. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. It contains a minimum of three disks. in case a disk in the set fails. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. Answer option C is incorrect. Re-installed TCP/IP protocol. also known as disk striping.c om . The array continues to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set. Check the server's subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Data once lost cannot be recovered. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. If a disk fails. Validate physical link integrity C. The key difference from RAID 1+0 is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. Reference.www. but lower writing performance. Pinging the remote access server resulted in proper response. It does not provide data redundancy. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. In mirroring.wikipedia.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks. Purchase a new server B. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next step to resolve this problem? A.

so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. it will hang up the computer frequently. when you restart the computer. Contents. TechNet. Now. choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's main menu. and display a blue screen. validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is no problem with the operating system. You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard disk. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP address.com rtK ille r. The only problem is that the remote access server is disconnected from the network. To select an active partition.certkiller. What is the most likely cause? A. B. SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts.c om 214 . Ce "Slay Your Exams" . and re-installed the network interface card driver. nothing will appear on the screen. If the computer has faulty RAM. Err Msg When Booting System. SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active partition. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty. The hard disk has no active partition. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk. Reference. The subnet mask cannot change automatically. you receive the following message. Answer option B is incorrect. Windows 95 is not installed properly. "NO ROM BASIC. If the display card has a problem. you install the Windows 95 operating system. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: D Explanation: This message "NO ROM BASIC. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365] QUESTION NO: 493 HOTSPOT Mark the ST connector in the image given below.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam To resolve this problem.www. The display card is faulty. So the broken physical link or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from the network. QUESTION NO: 492 You purchase a new computer. D. C.

and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber. DOWN -f B. RESTART SERVER -ns D.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: Explanation: QUESTION NO: 494 Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. om . RESTART SERVER -na Answer: A Explanation: The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber.ncf file. The RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup.c The image displays the following connectors. ST.5mm shaft and bayonet locking ring. "Slay Your Exams" . He wants to shut down the server immediately without being prompted. Answer option B is incorrect. An ST connector has a 2. SHUTDOWN -p C.com 215 Ce rtK ille r.5 server.certkiller. Which of the following commands will he use? A.

Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the request to a real Internet server. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Answer option C is incorrect. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites. Answer option A is incorrect. Index server Answer: B Explanation: A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval. Cache memory B. Answer option D is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval? A. requiring no user input and minimizing demand on system resources. A proxy server has a database called cache where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from any Web browser with the sample query forms. DNS server D. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers.certkiller. The index process occurs behind the scene.c om 216 . DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance the performance of user requests and filter requests. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option D is incorrect. DHCP server B.//en. thereby greatly reducing the access time. This may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. Virtual memory Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. Indexing maps words to Web pages. the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally. etc. and to locations within Web pages. Once installed. A proxy server exists between a client's Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. Proxy server C.ncf file.www. Reference. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests. IP address-to-host name mappings. The next time such pages are requested. information about the domain tree structure.org/wiki/Proxy_server" QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory? A. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network.wikipedia. "http.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.certkiller. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. RAM D. Contents. Answer options C and D are incorrect. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video.www. Reference.c om 217 . AT. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to keyboard. and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]" QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. "Chapter 3 . 6xx C. Contents. ROM Answer: A Explanation: The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. Answer option B is incorrect.Capacity Planning" Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory? A. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. NT. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. 3xx Answer: C Explanation: Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. Reference. so that the processor can access this information without delay. "IBM PC. Answer option D is incorrect. TechNet. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM) are not used for internal memory. TechNet. Hence. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. It is also known as level 1 cache. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. 5xx B. XT. 2xx D. Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive. Answer option A is incorrect.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 497 r.

Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect. What can be the likely causes for this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It helps administrators measure server performance. and C are incorrect. Application backup Answer: B Explanation: An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. C.D Explanation: A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. The floppy disk drive should be cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. There is no need to create an application backup. Answer options D. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition. The system log is used to store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. He inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer. it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. A. For example. Answer option B is incorrect. If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. If boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first.com 218 Ce rtK Andrew works as a computer technician. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: A.certkiller. The active "Slay Your Exams" . Users list D. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log.c om . There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive.www. The event types logged by system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system. ille QUESTION NO: 499 r. the computer will not read the operating system file through the floppy disk drive. a system log. and a users list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. Performance baseline C. He finds that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. A. B. System log B. D. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. Choose two.

In IP spoofing. all the computers act as both clients and servers. Answer: B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam partition has nothing to do with this issue. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. It provides user-level security.www. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity. C. In this model. also known as workgroup model. provides a way to connect a small group of computers. SYN attack Answer: B Explanation: Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. It is a protocol. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. D.D Explanation: A peer-to-peer network model. QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking computer? A. etc. Spoofing C. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. B. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. etc. It does not support centralized administration. A. so that users can share printing resources and files. chatting on-line.com 219 Ce rtK ille r. However. Reference. It provides centralized administration. Contents. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer. email address. Answer option D is incorrect. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding.level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable. Choose two. A SYN attack affects computers running on TCP/IP protocol. Answer option A is incorrect. it is known as a PING attack. Hacking B. caller ID. In this model. This model does not support centralized "Slay Your Exams" . PING attack D.c om . TechNet. all the computers act as both clients and servers. "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 501 Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager. Full and differential backup D. The domain-based network model provides centralized administration and user-level security. Description of Full.D Explanation: You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan. While working on multiple applications.certkiller. Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager. Which of the following can you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam administration or provide user-level security. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created. Answer option B is incorrect. and Differential Backups [Q136621] QUESTION NO: 503 Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system. Choose two. B.www. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Choose two. as compared to full backup or incremental backup. There is no backup method such as decremental backup. Incremental. one of the applications hangs. or have changed since the last full backup. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager. TechNet.com rtK ille r. C. A.c om 220 . Answer options C and A are incorrect. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager. Contents. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data. The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new. Reference. It needs only one tape to restore data. Full and incremental backup B. QUESTION NO: 502 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The differential backup is the fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive. You plan a backup policy for the network dat a. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup. since the last incremental or full backup. Daily full backup Answer: C. The full backup backs up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. Full and decremental backup C.

Direct Memory Access (DMA) B.com rtK ille r. and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager.D Ce Explanation: The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are. Ultra DMA Answer: A. Task Manager Answer: B. Network Optimizer D. QUESTION NO: 504 Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.c om 221 .certkiller.www. it is not the correct answer option. "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist. Extended DMA D. The Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel. By pressing CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. A.D QUESTION NO: 505 Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.B. Pressing CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager. Choose two. A. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) C. Disk Manager B. Performance console C. You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0.D Explanation: The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are. ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. Answer: B.1 and 2 are supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA. and therefore.

A. ille r. It provides detailed information about system's performance.www. including the system files and all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only) SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000.C Explanation: System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility. Chapter 27 .com 222 Ce rtK Explanation: The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps. 160 MBps D. System boot files D. Microsoft SQL Server files B. Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps. Answer option B is incorrect. 4 MBps Answer: A QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Boot files.c om . Following are the files included in the System State data. Application files Answer: B. 80 MBps B. Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps. What is Performance console? Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps. It is used for an immediate overview of system activity and performance.Overview of Performance Monitoring QUESTION NO: 506 Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. 5 MBps C. Reference. Choose two. What is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. System state data C. This information can be used for troubleshooting and analysis of bottlenecks. Microsoft TechNet CD. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.

B. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. C. On weekdays. Answer: A Explanation: What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Contents. Performing full backup on weekdays will not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. The company has a Windows NT based network consisting of four Windows NT servers. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup.00PM. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays.com rtK ille r.certkiller. a differential backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. "Types of Backup" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . In case of server failure. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend.c om 223 . It needs only one tape to restore data. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend. James should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). Reference. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the last full backup. Which of the following backup strategies will he implement to accomplish this task? A. One of the servers named Server1 is configured for a daily full backup at 5. since the last incremental or full backup. D. "Concepts and Planning Manual" Chapter. He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays. "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. In case of server failure. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. He also wants to minimize the number of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. "Windows Product Family". To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. "Windows NT Server". James has to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration information Component Services Class registration database QUESTION NO: 508 James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. Answer options B and C are incorrect. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.www. "Manuals". TechNet. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A full backup takes maximum time and space. "Windows NT". Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. or are new. Answer option D is incorrect.

c om . Which settings are important on the IDE drives? A. on the motherboard. and device drivers. you should install it with the Master setting. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. What is Plug and Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. If you have two IDE drives in your system. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 509 What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed? A. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first determines the available system resources and then configures the new device. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. and both are set as Master .com 224 Ce rtK ille r. "Slay Your Exams" . C. Each IDE drive must support the Master. Configure hardware ID C. It reads a device driver for the card. a set of pins on the hard disk drive. Reference. devices. Place a terminator on the IDE controller. D. Contents. It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then configures the new device.www. B. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. D. "Guided Tour for Administrators" QUESTION NO: 510 You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE controller. B. Answer: D Explanation: At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card. TechNet. Master and Slave jumper settings Answer: D Explanation: If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller. Slave. It checks the processor's internal cache. It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation. none of them will work. or both are set as Slave . and Cable Select settings. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by jumper.certkiller. you have to set one drive as the Master and the other as the Slave. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS).

It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium. 8 B. IPSec B. Answer option C is incorrect. such as IP phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any other thin client boots from a network host or server. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol. It can connect to a network running on IPX. The initial stages of some network based installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart. Answer option B is incorrect. TFTP uses UDP port 69 for communication. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. TFTP C. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet.certkiller. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network. with the functionality of a very basic form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). such as a single DSL line or cable modem. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516. TCP/IP. It secures both data and password. QUESTION NO: 512 How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port? A. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 511 Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection that uses the L2TP protocol? A. PPPoE Answer: A Explanation: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. Answer option D is incorrect. or NetBEUI protocol.c om 225 . Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage devices. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks.www. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. PPP D.com rtK ille r. TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of memory.

www. Microsoft. Reference. USB 2. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. Answer option A is incorrect.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. NEC. whereas USB 2.com 226 Ce rtK ille A. USB supports hot plugging. is similar to an expansion card. 1 Answer: B Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. DEC. tape drives. "USB Technical Details" QUESTION NO: 513 Answer: B Explanation: Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). Pentium processors use Socket 7. Answer option C is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 514 How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors? A. Answer option D is incorrect.I/O Interfaces from Serial and Parallel to IEEE. Socket 8 B. keyboards. SEC C. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. scanners etc. Socket 7 r. such as CD-ROM drives. 256 D. and Northern Telecom.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. AMD Athlon processors use Slot A. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. A single edge connector (SEC).c Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor? om .1394 and USB".1. USB 1. 64 B.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Intel. IBM. "Chapter 13 . 32 C. Slot A D. 16 "Slay Your Exams" . "Upgrading and Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents.certkiller. also known as Slot 1.

com rtK ille r. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. D. RAID 0 C. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. The CPU needs a memory address. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. An I/O address is an event.certkiller. B. which requires processor's attention. C. IRQ. QUESTION NO: 515 Which of the following statements about I/O address is true? A. Resources such as I/O addresses. The Intel 486 series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus. An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory location. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. RAID 1 B. its I/O address. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. RAID 5 Answer: C Explanation: Ce Explanation: I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. RAID 6 D. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64bit data bus. and DMA channels must be correctly configured.c om 227 . The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus. IRQs. to communicate with any peripheral device. 128 Answer: B Explanation: Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: B QUESTION NO: 516 Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives? A. Whenever a component.

also known as disk striping. Sag is a brief decrease in "Slay Your Exams" . The overloading of a primary power source can cause brownouts. RAID 6 becomes increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the failure of a single drive. especially for high availability systems. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance.c om . This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. The final disk contains the parity information. In mirroring. data is kept on two physical disks. but lower writing performance. B. Due to data redundancy. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. Data once lost cannot be recovered. C. in case a disk in the set fails. Reference. Answer option B is incorrect. In this disk system.com 228 Ce rtK ille r. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk.wikipedia. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is rebuilt. These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It does not provide data redundancy. "http. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives. It provides fault tolerance from two drive failures. Answer option B is incorrect. the longer the rebuild will take. This makes larger RAID groups more practical.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. Answer options D and A are incorrect. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 517 Which of the following statements is true about a brownout? A. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. The larger the drive. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges. It contains a minimum of three disks. D. Answer: C Explanation: A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete.www. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. The surge protector is a device used to smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning.//en. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault.certkiller. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. but to a set of disks. If a disk fails. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. Answer option A is incorrect.

Using this information.com rtK ille r.www. MONITOR Answer: D Explanation: In order to diagnose the issue. The company's network has a file server with a Novell Netware operating system. the administrator can view the operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files. By typing MONITOR at the server console. DOWN -f C. DARPA B. Answer option C is incorrect. FTP C. The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. Answer option A is incorrect. Users on the network report that the file server responds very slowly. Mark can use the MONITOR tool. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) Ce "Slay Your Exams" . NSSMU is the interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation. QUESTION NO: 518 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. using battery backup. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. When power surge occurs. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. RESTART SERVER -na D. while the computer gets normal power. Answer option D is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 519 Which of the following is an error detection technique. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue? A. the problem can be diagnosed.certkiller. EDI D. The MONITOR tool is used to view the operational status of the server memory and disks. NSSMU B. consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems? A. It also provides protection against power surges.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam voltage at the power source. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility (NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server.ncf file.c om 229 . Answer option B is incorrect.

FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. If there is a transmission error. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array. B. the second CRC value will not equal the original one. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices. TechNet. is computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon formats and networks. The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to repair a RAID redundancy group. Replace all the disks of the array. and then replace the failed disk from the array. recreate a RAID-5 array. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI). DARPA stands for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency. Answer: A Explanation: In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives. the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. the hot spare disk is switched into operation. DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA). Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually. it goes through the same calculation. When the receiving modem gets the data block. A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication QUESTION NO: 520 A. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive.c om . The application protocol offers file service in the Internet suite of protocols. If these two CRCs match. Contents.www. Mark will have to ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. One of the hard disks fails in the array. Reference.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link level and used for detecting errors. C. and the receiving modem transmits a negative acknowledgment. When a disk fails. The company's network has a file server that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. D.certkiller. RAID-5. such as RAID-1. when ARPANET was built. What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly? r. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID configuration. and then copy data from the backup. and then add this disk to the RAID5 array. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of data for transmission. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. and then replace the failed disk from the array.com 230 Ce rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk.

TechNet. On receiving the packets.. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array. without shutting down the system? A.www. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option A is incorrect. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. PING B. Protocol Analyzer C. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array. IPCONFIG Answer: B Explanation: Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and diagnose network related issues such as. Err Msg. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. or remove and replace a failed disk drive. Answer option D is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 521 Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network? A. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. as all but one are working properly. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset [Q100706]" QUESTION NO: 522 Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive. ReadyBoost Ce "Slay Your Exams" . TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Hot swap C. the destination host responds with a series of replies. Contents.com rtK ille r. TRACERT D. Read.certkiller. Reference. Answer option C is incorrect. slow performance etc. Full duplex B. default gateway etc. subnet mask. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID-10. such as IP address. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. of a networked computer. "SMTP.c om 231 .

Answer option C is incorrect. The number of tapes required to back up data should be minimized. you should perform a full backup every Friday. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and network cards. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday D. QUESTION NO: 523 Answer: C Explanation: In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data. Plug and play Answer: B Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized. Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and receive data simultaneously. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. QUESTION NO: 524 Ce A. Which of the following backup policies will you choose? r. It is faster as compared to full backup. A differential backup every night "Slay Your Exams" . The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. Using this technology. This is because in the event of data loss. What is differential backup? Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS).certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. or remove and replace a failed device. and device drivers.c om 232 . Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. you will have to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday B. which helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the number of tapes required to restore data.com rtK ille You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista. Answer option A is incorrect.www. It requires minimum space to backup data. You are developing a backup policy for the company and want to accomplish the following goals.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. devices. A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily C.

WebService1 uses the . WindowsIdentity B.Principal. It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server database containing user names. QUESTION NO: 525 Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc.com 233 Ce rtK ille r. Answer option C is incorrect. named WebService1. An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector. DIN Answer: B Explanation: ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch.certkiller. Choose two. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code. A. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the Subordinate role by default.NET Framework security class libraries to implement security. I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards. ATX motherboards have had several modifications on the electrical side. The 20-pin plug can only plug in one way. An ATX motherboard has a logic switch.Security. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with each other to create an authorization scheme. Sam wants to ensure that only validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords in TextBox controls. He wants to implement imperative security check on WebService1. AT D. which controls the power supply. These changes were made to improve efficiency and safety. DIN is a type of connector. Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. These two classes can be used to prompt users for "Slay Your Exams" . using Visual Studio . using System.D Explanation: The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal.c om . using System. AT motherboards are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch. WindowsPrincipal C.www. which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake. GenericIdentity D.NET. The GenericIdentity class represents a generic identity. I/O B. He creates an XML Web service. ATX C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following supports soft power on switch? A. GenericPrincipal Answer: C. I/O stands for Input/Output. named Text1 and Text2. Answer options D and A are incorrect.Threading.

"WindowsPrincipal Class".c om 234 . to check these values against a database. Answer option B is incorrect. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke specified security functionality. The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user. Reference. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of permissions. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use? "Slay Your Exams" . Visual Studio . which is used to check the Windows group membership of a Windows user. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect the offices. It cannot be used to check the group membership of a user. Declarative security check provides optimized runtime execution of the application. and can be placed at the assembly. Answer option A is incorrect. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. as it checks the declarative information in the metadata. The company's offices are in different buildings within a local premise. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime.NET Combined Collection. The maximum cable segment length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters .com rtK ille r. Contents. WindowsPrincipal is a class of the . These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request. The topology used in these networks is star. "GenericIdentity Class". The number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using category 5 UTP cable. 5) Ce You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. 100 meters D.certkiller. 200 meters B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam their user names and passwords.www. "GenericPrincipal Class" QUESTION NO: 526 A. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group. Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications.NET Framework class library. These are the most widely used networks now-a-days. It is used when security decisions are to be taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime. "WindowsIdentity Class". What is declarative security check? Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in metadata. or member level. 2000 meters Answer: C Explanation: The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet. It is used when the requested action and permission attributes are static. It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code. 1000 meters C. class. What is imperative security check? Imperative security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being protected. It can be isolated within an object or method. required in a given execution context. and to create principal and identity objects.

www. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server. Install UPS systems on all important devices D. Answer option A is incorrect. A. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration of data if either of the following occur.D Explanation: RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a server contains a redundant data set. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. A sector on the disk cannot "Slay Your Exams" . Install a RAID system Answer: A. which is sufficient for a database server. The server has 1GB RAM. Answer option B is incorrect. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. In a database server. processors are used extensively for data processing. Add an additional processor. There is no need to add an additional NIC on the server. as a database server generates less traffic on the network as compared to a file server. What will be the first step you will take to improve performance? A.c om . Network interface cards provide a dedicated. B. Hence.com 235 Ce rtK ille r. Add more RAM. Answer: D Explanation: As the first step.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 527 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. having a single processor can be a bottleneck. there is no need to add more RAM. A disk or its access path fails. Use data encryption C. Choose two. Install and use a tape backup unit B. Adding a tape drive will not provide better performance. Add an additional NIC. Therefore. C.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 528 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Add a tape drive. you should add an additional processor on the database server. The company's network has a file server with the following configuration. Answer option C is incorrect. full-time connection to a network. D.

Full D. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. earlier. Differential C. Sequential B. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 530 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Contents. Incremental. Choose two. It needs only one tape to restore data. A. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. for each file. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. which was backed up on the tape. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. Contents.c om 236 . Reference. QUESTION NO: 529 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup.e. since the last incremental or full backup. TechNet.com rtK ille r. Windows maintains a marker. "Description of Full. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. When a file changes later. A. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Differential Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. TechNet. i. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. or are new.. A tape backup can help by giving back the data. Reference. it does not set the archive bit.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam be read. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. Sequential B. Choose two.certkiller. Incremental Answer: C.www. Answer option B is incorrect.

You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Windows maintains a marker. "Hardware requirement" + "Workstation". "Windows NT 4. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 531 A. B.51 to Windows NT Workstation 4. D. TechNet. Incremental Answer: C.0.0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide" Ce You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3. C. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data.com rtK ille r. Answer: D Explanation: Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4. or are new. it does not set the archive bit.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS. Incremental. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. When a file changes later. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. 12MB RAM VGA level video support Keyboard IDE. "Description of Full. Full D. EIDE.0 are. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. TechNet. It needs only one tape to restore data. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect.www. Reference.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. You must run CONVERT.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS. since the last incremental or full backup. for each file. SCSI.e. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CDROM drive. How will you proceed? "Slay Your Exams" . Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor.c om 237 . Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. or active network connection Reference.0. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4.. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up.certkiller. Contents. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. You must run CONVERT. i. Contents. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. floppy disk drive. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up.

unmovable files. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. The server responds slowly while users try to open their files. C. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. however. you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server.com rtK ille r. file data is written in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. When this utility is run on a computer. The server has become slow after three months of working due to fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. it takes a longer time. running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its performance.certkiller. Therefore. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. and the total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below. After three months. B. What will you do to improve the server's performance? A. Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card. Over time. file data breaks into discontiguous fragments. Increase the paging file size on the file server. Due to fragmentation.www. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard. Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server. it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files. D. contiguous files.c om 238 . The company's network has a file server. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data. the performance of the server has deteriorated. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 532 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Answer: D Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 533 On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at startup. In which file will you define this? A. BOOTSECT.DOS B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOT.INI D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C

Ce

As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed, and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months. This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

239

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes. NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system. Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000 startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"

Answer: A

Explanation: Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this issue.

Ce

A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected B. The failover server's IP address C. The primary server's IP address D. The DNS server on the network

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition?

r.c

QUESTION NO: 534

om

240

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source D. Installing an application from an unreliable source Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.

QUESTION NO: 536

Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. BNC T connector B. The BNC terminator C. RJ-45 connector D. BNC barrel connector Answer: A,B,D Explanation: BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable. The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

Ce
"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

241

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 537 Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media? A. Failover clustering B. Datafile striping C. Storage area network (SAN) D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) Answer: D

Explanation: Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations. Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

Ce

"Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com

rtK

ille

r.c

om

242

TechNet. The Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were performed on the disk.c om . Answer option C is incorrect. Contents. "Registry Editors Installed by Windows NT 4.EXE is not recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode.www.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000 computer.EXE B. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array. REGEDIT. "Slay Your Exams" .com 243 Ce QUESTION NO: 539 rtK ille r. Disk Writes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available. the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. Incorrect use of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer. Answer option A is incorrect. Note. it is recommended that you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools.EXE and REGEDIT. Answer option D is incorrect.EXE D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 538 You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000 computer. it is suggested that you either save a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the configuration data. REGEDITOR.0 [Q155267]" Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available? A.EXE Answer: A Explanation: You should use the REGEDT32. REGEDIT. But if the registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings. REGEDT32. Current Disk Queue Length C.EXE are installed during the setup of Windows 2000.certkiller. HARDREG.EXE C. The Registry Reference. % Free Space B. Therefore. Although both REGEDT32. % Disk Time D.

It is a counter of the Logical Disk object.www.c om 244 .com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c. Reference.//www.com rtK ille r.mspx?mfr=true" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object.4740473b-b335-0d221994f685.certkiller. "http.microsoft.