CompTIA SK0-003

SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

Practice Test
Version 3.2

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 1 Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. FTP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server's manufacture website Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms? A. Excessive cooling B. Dust buildup C. Poor ground wires

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Verify backup C.com rtK ille r. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The memory is not installed in the correct slot.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The memory is not the correct CAS latency. Load differential tape B. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. SATA hard drive C. D. B. The memory does not have the correct timing. C.www. Compact flash drive B. SDLT Tape drive Answer: B QUESTION NO: 14 An administrator is adding memory to a server.certkiller. Perform a full backup Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity? A. Once the system boots up. the same amount of memory appears as before the upgrade. The memory is not the correct speed. Blu-Ray drive D.c om 5 . Wet floors Answer: B QUESTION NO: 12 Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process? A. Load new tapes D.

www. All drives are attached to a RAID controller. Decreases overhead Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16 An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. How much usable disk space will this array have? rtK ille Answer: B r. The error states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error? "Slay Your Exams" . Replace memory chips with known good memory chips. Once the server in turned back on.com 6 Ce A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives. Higher simultaneous thread processing D. C. the administrator notices that the memory has not changed. The system board website says the board should accept the new amount of memory. 432GB D. D. Doubles memory requirements C. Upgrade the server OS QUESTION NO: 17 A. 360GB C. Smaller initial investment B. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? A. B.c om . 288GB B. Update the BIOS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is an advantage of SMP? A. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5 array.certkiller. 728GB Answer: C QUESTION NO: 18 A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer. Reset the memory chips.

Ask the user to reboot their PC. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem.www. which step should the administrator take FIRST? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The user's account was removed from Active Directory. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory. The user typed in the wrong password Answer: C QUESTION NO: 19 A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they had been working on all morning. B. D. Implement an application exception. B. Implement port blocking on port 80.certkiller. C. C. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80. Group policy "Slay Your Exams" . Remote management cards D. Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the administrator.com 7 Ce rtK ille r.c om . To troubleshoot this problem. D. Implement an access control list (ACL). WSUS B. which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft environment? (Select TWO) A. D. Reboot the file server. C. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall? A. The computer was disjoined from the domain. B. Terminal services C. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 21 After a virus outbreak.

Implement stronger user passwords. C. Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid OS exploits? A. Enhanced stability B. RAID 5 B.D QUESTION NO: 22 An administrator has been having problems with server security.www. D.com rtK A. RAID 1+0 C. RAID 0 D. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS). Lower cost E.certkiller. Many of the servers have been infected with viruses in the past. Higher number of available component choices D. Implement a patch management process. Which of the following RAID levels would provide the FASTEST performance? r. SNMP Answer: A.c QUESTION NO: 23 om 8 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam E. Implement a dual-factor authentication method. RAID 1 ille A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Vendor supported C. B. Enhanced security Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: A Answer: B QUESTION NO: 24 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO) A.

Which of the following locations should an administrator configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE). No configuration Answer: C Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A.com 9 Ce QUESTION NO: 27 rtK ille r. Proxy server Answer: D Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0? A. Hardware compatibility list Answer: D QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can be used? "Slay Your Exams" . Local workstations B. High performance D.certkiller. A.c om QUESTION NO: 26 . Domain controllers D. High fault tolerance B. Backup tapes C. SMTP gateway F. Server build checklist B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 25 A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be retained for no longer than three years. Email server E. Ease of failure recovery C.www. Architecture diagrams D. Server baselining tools C.

Smart cable is disconnected D. the server's parallel port. each device. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 10 . D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. B. C. UPS needs a firmware update Answer: A QUESTION NO: 30 Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X? A. Hot site B. Failover site Answer: B QUESTION NO: 29 An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS). Sensitivity to background noise B. E. Battery needs to be replaced B. terminators are required on: (Select TWO) A. Cold site C. the first device. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Height of the card C. the last device. Warm site D.www. Shared bus topology D. Point-to-point bus topology Answer: D QUESTION NO: 31 When installing external SCSI devices.certkiller. Light switch is turned off C.com rtK ille r. the SCSI adapter.

B. File share properties Answer: B QUESTION NO: 35 Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack into an installation when the media does not include the service pack? A. Disk Management D. Root cause analysis. Serial D. Implement the change.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 33 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 34 A.com rtK ille r. Group Policy C. IEEE 1394 B. SCSI C. Test the theory to determine the cause. Verify full system functionality. D. C.www.c A. Default domain policy B. SATA om Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem? 11 . Templates Ce Which of the following tools restricts device installation? "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.

3v PCI-X card C. Half Height. Install the patches during a non-working hour. Full Height. Slipstreaming Answer: D QUESTION NO: 36 An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an internal SLA. Ghost D.certkiller. C.3v slot available. Half Height. Half Height. Press F6 "Slay Your Exams" . Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation. D. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task? A. Half Height.www. 3. PCI-X 3.E QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a Windows installation? A.com 12 Ce rtK A server has a single. x16 PCI Express Card D. Full Height. Define a test server group. Universally Keyed PCI card B. schedule installation on production servers and then install all updates and patches. Universally Keyed PCI card G. B.c om . 3. Universally Keyed PCI-X card F. x8 PCI Express Card Answer: A. Which of the following cards can fit in this slot? (Select THREE) ille r. RIS C. Define a test server group.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Half Height. install the patches and if successful schedule installation on production servers. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 37 A.3v PCI card E. half height.D.

Press any key D. C.c om . Update the RAID controller firmware. Check the server BIOS. The administrator powers up the server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? A. Install the latest hard drive firmware rtK An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage. Press Alt+F8 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server? A. Press ESC C. but it does not receive an IP address. The patch cable has not been seated properly. Blade servers allow for more RAM Answer: B QUESTION NO: 40 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 41 An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server. The system POSTs fine and the NIC is recognized by the OS. Blade servers are typically faster D. C. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? ille r. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives B.certkiller.com 13 Ce A. D. The driver is incorrect on the server. Check the backplane cabling.www. "Slay Your Exams" . The NIC is not on the HCL. Blade servers offer more rack density C. during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the drive lights flash. B.

The customers continue to report issues.www. The server's firewall is misconfigured. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 42 Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network? A. SCSI C. The company firewall is misconfigured Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 0 B. The web server was not installed properly. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly. The administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. B. iSCSI D.c om 14 . RAID 10 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 44 An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. SATA Answer: C QUESTION NO: 43 Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible? A. The NIC is not seated properly.com rtK ille r. customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server. D. After bringing the system online. SAS B.certkiller.

C.c om .com 15 Ce Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip? rtK ille r. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 47 A.certkiller. Establish a new theory of probable cause. RAID 0 "Slay Your Exams" . which of the following technologies provides the LOWEST cost solution? A. D. This array will store transaction logs that are always being written. xD D. which of the following describes the NEXT course of action if a change does not solve the problem? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 45 When load balancing traffic between two web servers. Active/active cluster C. L1 C. B. Log shipping D. Active/passive cluster B.www. DNS round robin Answer: D QUESTION NO: 46 When an administrator is troubleshooting a system. Perform a root cause analysis. Reverse the change. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity? A. DDR Answer: B QUESTION NO: 48 A new storage array must be configured for a database server. Implement the next logical change. EDO B.

com rtK ille A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192. B. Assign the workstation a static IP address. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP. RAID 6 D.www. Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date.certkiller. Full control can only be set using share permissions. The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP server.168. A DHCP server is available on subnet 192.168. D. Add a DHCP relay to the 192. Add a DHCP server to the 192. Ce A. D.168.168. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server. C. C.100. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 50 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share permissions? A. Full control can only be set using file permissions.0/24 subnet "Slay Your Exams" .0/24 subnet. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 49 An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on every server.0/24. B.0/24.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.100.101. B.100. D. Add a second DHCP server to the 192. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem? r. File permissions are more granular than share permissions. File permissions are less granular than share permissions. C.101.c om 16 .0/24 subnet. RAID 3 C. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem? A.168.

certkiller. B. and the installer fails again. B. D. C. When the administrator runs the patch installer. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install. mail protocol. WINS r. FTP B. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed.com rtK ille A. DNS D. mapped printer. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 55 Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 52 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server.c Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file? om 17 . The administrator tries again. DHCP C. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. D. C. multi-processing. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server Answer: A QUESTION NO: 53 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 54 SMP is considered to be a form of: A. monitoring protocol.www. the install fails.

Answer: A QUESTION NO: 56 Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Expansion cards D.c om 18 . Riser cards QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO) A. Riser cards B. Heat sinks Answer: D. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary B. Remote configuration B. Operating system C. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. C. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained. D. Native RIS integration D. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN.com rtK ille r. No physical hardware to setup C. Shroud D. Clone the machine from a template Answer: B QUESTION NO: 57 Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server.www. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic. All expansion cards stop working simultaneously.certkiller. Water cooling C. Baffle E.E Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Motherboard B.

Pairing D. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 59 Which of the following BEST describes a DAS? A. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns. Optical jukebox D.www. Tape library B. L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network. Registered Answer: A QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache? A.certkiller. "Slay Your Exams" . ECC B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 60 Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company LAN? A. SAN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 61 A. C. RAID C. B.com 19 Ce Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement? rtK ille r. NAS C. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached technologies D.c om . L3 cache operates faster than the system processor B.

Extreme humidity variances C. -r B.c om 20 . Power stability fluctuations D. 3 B.www. -v D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure? A. 10 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65 When running a Windows server. -a C. 4 C.com rtK ille r. which option is used with the ping command to convert numerical addresses to host names? A. Extreme temperature variances B. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus.certkiller. 5 D. -n Answer: B QUESTION NO: 66 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Excessive dust accumulation Answer: D QUESTION NO: 64 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.

An administrator verifies that the user can successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup. /renew B. Verify the change control process can be implemented D. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . /release D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the functionality of a DHCP server? A.www.certkiller. but can connect by IP address. /all Answer: D QUESTION NO: 67 Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a certain type of printer. The disk drive is out of free space D.com rtK ille r.c om 21 . /flushdns C. The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns. Memory leak in the print spooler Answer: D QUESTION NO: 68 After a server has been installed into a rack. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Corrupted print spooler software B. Determine the correct power requirements Answer: D QUESTION NO: 69 A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN. Other users are not having a problem. The system is labeled so that it can be identified C. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel B. Memory leak in one of the print drivers C. an administrator must ensure which of the following? A.

www. Flush the cache on the DNS server. B. Examine the hosts file Answer: A QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter? A. The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs. 1-7 B. File and Print Server ille Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program? r. The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power.c om 22 . The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs. Peer-to-Peer Application Server D. Distributed Application Server B. 0-7 D. 1-16 C. D. C. D. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B.certkiller. Flush the cache on the WINS server. Examine the Imhost file.com rtK A. C. Dedicated Application Server C. 0-15 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 71 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.

During the investigation. Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools? (Select TWO).www. . System Temperature D. Network Utilization Answer: B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 73 Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed? A. SDRAM C. . DDR3 D. SODIMM B. A. the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high level of activity. Fan "Slay Your Exams" .Ini C. Page File B.dll Answer: C QUESTION NO: 76 Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis? A.exe B. Disk Utilization C. .msi D.c om . .E Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default? A. Processor Utilization E. DDR2 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 74 Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly.com 23 Ce QUESTION NO: 75 rtK ille r.certkiller.

certkiller. Active/active cluster D. Full D. Shroud D. GFS Answer: C Answer: B QUESTION NO: 79 Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high availability between two web servers with static content? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.com rtK A. Active/passive cluster C. Heat sink C. Incremental B. Differential C.www. Radiator Answer: A QUESTION NO: 77 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data? A. PXE support C. Installation CD ille Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the following? r.c QUESTION NO: 78 om 24 . Multicast B. CUPS D. DNS round robin Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . FTP server B.

Loss of storage data D. The server event logs Answer: D QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple shared drives? A. some open files were corrupted on one affected file server. Increased heat output B. Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine the cause of this corruption? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Decreased performance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 83 An administrator notes that after a recent power outage. The vendor website C. Damage of the hardware C. The Internet D. Which of the following is the FIRST place the administrator should look for specific information about the problem? A.www. Logon scripts C.certkiller.com rtK ille r. Local policy D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 80 An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the server and begins the troubleshooting process.c om 25 . Configure individual user accounts B. The supporting documentation B. Set NTFS permissions Answer: B QUESTION NO: 82 A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following? A.

Change the default gateway of the wireless router Answer: D QUESTION NO: 85 A. Since implementing the new network. Use rack specific cabling hardware B. which of the following is BEST practice? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access "Slay Your Exams" . Schedule system down time Answer: A QUESTION NO: 86 When cabling a rack. B. Identify necessary operating system updates B. Which of the following would resolve this issue? A.com 26 Ce rtK An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server. D. Add another wireless access point. Implement the change C. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers C. The server's NIC teaming configuration Answer: A QUESTION NO: 84 A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. The server's processor D. Add another DHCP server. and all network cables down the center D. The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into production. C. Channel all power cables down the sides. Document the change D. The server's RAID controller battery C. The server's memory B.certkiller. Disable the wireless DHCP server. individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next? ille r.c om .www.

NTP B. Take a differential backup while the server is online. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to enhance performance. D.certkiller. DNS D. A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to increase processing power and overall performance D. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher availability. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online. SNMP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 88 Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment? A.com 27 Ce rtK ille r. B.www. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline. C. C. B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 89 An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server.c om . Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 90 "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 87 Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations? A. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore? A. DHCP C.

Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives. B. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows? A. B. Evacuate all personnel.c om 28 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire. UDP C. C. Update the time and date in the BIOS. 4 C. Which of the following is the FIRST thing that the administrator should do? A. 8 rtK How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable? ille r. 6 D.certkiller. C. Update the firmware to the latest version. SNMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 92 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 93 An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. D. TFTP D.com A.www. Notify staff of the potential service outage. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Configure IPMI on the new board. TCP B. D. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room. 3 B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 91 Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol? A.

C. Partitioning utilities D. Deleted B. B. Set D. D. Which of the following methods should an administrator use to BEST comply with this policy? A.c om 29 . Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure compliance. Unchanged C. Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 94 A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate web page as their default home page. Copied Answer: A QUESTION NO: 96 Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been replaced? A.com rtK ille r. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 95 After performing a copy backup of a file server. Imaging utilities C.certkiller. Tape restore utilities B. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy.www. Array management utilities Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . the archive bit on the backed up files will be which of the following? A. Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image.

Sequential B.www. Daily D. rtK QUESTION NO: 99 ille r. "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Greatest. Differential. Server manufacturer D.com 30 Ce While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server. Full. Striping with dedicated parity C. Full. Operating system manufacturer E. Which of the following describes this backup method? A. Video chipset manufacturer C. Which of the following sources should be used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO). Incremental Answer: C QUESTION NO: 98 RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following? A. Incremental C. Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO). Final.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 97 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Independent disks with shared parity Answer: B A. Partial.c om . the system administrator has determined that the video firmware should be updated. Monthly. Shareware file sharing site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 100 An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second Windows server. Mirroring with striping B. Third-party manufacturer B. Weekly. Striping with distributed parity D.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. WMI B. RIS C. DNS D. SNMP E. SMTP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS? A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order B. Power being lost during the upgrade process C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 102

An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Corrupt file system table B. Backplane failure C. Multiple drive failure D. Bad cable Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 103 Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity? A. SAS B. SATA C. Flash D. SCSI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files? A. GFS B. Full C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106

A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the problem? A. IP address is classful. B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address. C. IP address is a subnet network address. D. IP address is classless Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107 An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 32

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures. B. Review the system logs to check for errors. C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline. D. Apply all security updates to the system. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108 Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram? A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 110 Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes? A. Proper labeling B. Asset management C. Keeping good vendor logs D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs Answer: A

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A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. Fiber channel E. PAT A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 111 In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive operation? A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position. B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive. C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1. D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 112 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices? A. MIBs B. SMTP C. WMI D. DHCP Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113

A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to determine the problem? A. Loop back plugs B. Power supply tester C. System logs D. TDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 114 When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

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Hot spare Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SAN C.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Server type Answer: A QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber channel? A. DAS D. Registered memory D. Memory RAID C. Third party cables B. FAT32 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select TWO) A. Third party memory C.certkiller. JBOD B. FAT B.www. NAS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following file systems are native to *nix? A. EXT3 C. ECC E. Signed drivers D. Chipkill B.c om 35 . NTFS D.

Hard disk failure ille r.com rtK A.D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following is the cause? om 36 . when the server is booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer.c An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. CPU overheating C. Disk Management E. Memory failure D. C. The administrator powers up the server and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. From which of the following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO).www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 118 An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version. Hypervisor C. Computer Management D. Redundant power supply failure B. The current system configuration should be documented for future use. Which of the following is the BEST solution to address this problem? A. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented. D. B. Virtual Center Answer: C. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 119 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 120 A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server. A. A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue. Format command B. however.certkiller.

Answer: A QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA? A. Digitally signed device drivers C.certkiller. Reseat all main components B. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve the problem? rtK QUESTION NO: 123 ille r. Boot the server with ASR option. D. Which of the following steps should the technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem? A. the server reboots and fails to restart. Try to replicate the problem C. RAID 1 B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first. RAID 0+1 C. Virtual machine components "Slay Your Exams" . C. Restore the server using last backup tape.www.com 37 Ce After applying a new driver to a NIC. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 122 A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver. press F8 and access last known good configuration. New Technology File Systems (NTFS) B.c om . Boot the server. then striping of the disks? A. RAID 6 D. Flash the BIOS D. Reinstall the operating system Answer: B A. B.

Install an extended battery pack into the UPS Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. B. Increase the size of the pagefile. Reduce the amount of data on the backup D. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully? A. PCI bus D. Slow processor C. Enable compression on the LTO2 drive B. Excessive network traffic ille Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity? r.com rtK A.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. C.c om 38 . Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes E. Install a second UPS. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next Answer: A. Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive C. Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO). A. D. Multiple RAID configurations Answer: B QUESTION NO: 125 An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape. Inadequate RAM B. The administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes. Increase the size of the swapfile.C QUESTION NO: 126 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 127 A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully.

Clean the servers to limit dust buildup C. Wash the outside of the servers D.www. Fibre Target Management Agent Answer: C QUESTION NO: 129 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 130 Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10? A.certkiller. Replace the rubber mats in the server room B.c om Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed every three months? 39 . Not supported by many RAID controllers D. Higher cost Answer: D QUESTION NO: 131 Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off? A. No fault tolerance C. Poor performance B. Plug and Play Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille A. Physical Adapter D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 128 Fibre channel requires which of the following elements? A. Multi-Mode fibre C. FC Initiator B. Replace the server fans r.

C QUESTION NO: 133 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 134 A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. Install redundant NICs Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor Answer: A. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor. C. Which of the following components should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network? A.certkiller. A. Telnet D. VPN B. A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory.c om 40 . Remote Desktop rtK ille Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the OS crashes? r. Hot plug D. B. Increase the amount of RAM B. Hot site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 132 Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO). A device transfers data directly to the memory. A device connects to another device without involving the processor. Warm site C.com A. Add a hardware firewall D. E. KVM over IP C. Use a lower voltage power supply C.www. D.

Currently. Full and incremental D. Which of the following should the server administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a server? A. the server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive. Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only requires two backup sets to recover the system? A. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library Answer: D QUESTION NO: 137 Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays. IPCONFIG /release C. Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive. C. Defrag B. Incremental and snapshot B.c om 41 . Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB.www. Differential and incremental Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Reduce the amount of data to be backed up. Firmware update D.com rtK ille r. D. Full and differential C. and daily backups are done the rest of the week. Baseline Answer: C QUESTION NO: 136 A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company policy. B.certkiller.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is a public IP address? A.c om .1 C.168. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive B. Mirroring D.76 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 139 A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired. 192.100.100.www.certkiller.16. Which of the following should be considered FIRST? A.com 42 Ce rtK QUESTION NO: 140 ille r.1 D. The system administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the previously taken baseline.40 B.254. Striping with mirroring C. Add additional RAM to the user PC "Slay Your Exams" .15. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem? A. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use of system resources. 172. Data security policies and procedures C. Striping Answer: D QUESTION NO: 141 A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been.31. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive D. 172. 10. Striping with parity B.11. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions Answer: B Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0? A.

www. Dual processing B.com 43 Ce A.certkiller. Add additional RAM to the server D. D. Multi-tasking D. Which of the following describes this capability of the processor? A. RAID 0 across all 6 drives "Slay Your Exams" . B. C. The server does not have the correct drivers. Multi-threading Answer: B QUESTION NO: 143 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 144 A system administrator needs to maintain 1. RAID 10 across all 6 drives D. RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs B. Add additional hard drive space to the server Answer: B QUESTION NO: 142 A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. The server has too little memory installed.2TB of storage for a database server. RAID 5 across all 6 drives C. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors? A. Multi-processing C. When the server is running POST the controller does not appear as present. Which of the following could be the reason for this? r. Troubleshoot the user PC C.c om . There are six 250GB drives available in the server for storage space. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date. rtK ille An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server. The server hard drives have not begun to spin.

certkiller. Disk-to-disk replication C. RAID 0 B. Hot site replication Answer: D QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only determining factor? A. Before installation C. After installation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly? A.www.com rtK ille r. RAID 1 C. When installing drivers D. Prior to purchasing hardware B. RAID implementation B. RAID 5 D.c om 44 . RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 147 At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL? A. Server-to-server clustering D.

Active failover site "Slay Your Exams" . The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache Answer: B QUESTION NO: 150 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 151 An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. Hot site B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank C. It must contain equipment and the ability to restore data from the data center. VSS D. A backup site must be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable. Differential backup B.certkiller. Mirroring with striping B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache B. Warm site C. Incremental backup Answer: C QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following defines memory interleaving? A. Striping D. Mirroring with fault tolerance C. this backup site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. Striping with distributed parity ille Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10? r. Cold site D. To reduce costs. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Which of the following site types should be considered to meet these requirements? A. Snapshot C.c om .com 45 Ce rtK A.www.

www. Disk imaging C.com 46 Ce rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers? A. which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a newly installed Windows Server OS? A. Tape backup Answer: C Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector? A.c om QUESTION NO: 153 . D. Full B. B. C.certkiller. SCSI Answer: C QUESTION NO: 154 According to best practices. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 155 A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time. SAT A C. Incremental D. Apply all relevant updates and patches. ATA-2 D. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" . Apportion additional storage. Disable the Guest account. SATA-2 B. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration.

Use performance server logs D. install DHCP service.com rtK A. D. Monitor processor performance logs B. activate the scopes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT r. D. B. Hyper-V Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 47 . Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment. RISC B. Constantly check the task manager C. C. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 157 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors within System Properties in a Windows Server? A. Multicore C. ille In a workgroup. authorize the server.www. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling.certkiller. C. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel. Symmetric multi-processing D. Establish a baseline for the server Answer: D QUESTION NO: 156 Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors? A. configure the scopes. Remove the floppy drives from the system. B.

com rtK ille r.0GHz 2Mb cache model. the administrator verifies permissions are set for the directory.certkiller. Set folder permissions to 770.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 159 A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. The socket size does not match B. Set folder permissions to modify D. POST messages D.www. C.c om 48 . The cache is from a different manufacturer C. Which of the following can provide important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause? A. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed Answer: A QUESTION NO: 160 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory. Application logs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 162 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket. The server currently has a single 3. The only processor that is available from a manufacturer is a 3. Set folder permissions to full control Answer: B QUESTION NO: 161 A server is having problems booting into the operating system. System logs B. Firmware updates C. Set folder permissions to 760. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user on the IT directory? A. B. Which of the following is the BEST reason why this upgrade will not work? A. The processors do not match D.

Answer: D QUESTION NO: 164 Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Host OS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically? A. an external USB 1.certkiller. D. Perform a root cause analysis Answer: D QUESTION NO: 163 In order to provide the lowest access latency. Reboot the server. D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache. Guest OS C.www. B. but has not determined the cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. the operating system partition. Virtual Center D. Which of the following should the administrator do prior to escalating the issue? A. logon in Safe Mode. Run the disable command. C. B. Disable the device using Device Manager. the fastest storage device available in the system.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache. uninstall the driver.c om 49 . B.com rtK ille r. Reboot the server. Review manufacturer manual. C. Hypervisor B. the optimal place for the system swap file is on A. C. Gather information from users.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server. D. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system.

DHCP B. To allow more email to come through Answer: C QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds? A.www. SAS Answer: C QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. To eliminate excessive alerts B. An administrator wants to test that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address. ARP C.com 50 Ce rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds? A. Which of the following tools would allow the administrator to test name resolution? "Slay Your Exams" . DNS D. Ultra2 SCSI B. Ultra320 SCSI D. To monitor use of VPN traffic D. RARP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 169 Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites. To increase the number of threads C. SAT A C.certkiller.c om .

Install a fail-over cable. ifconfig Answer: B QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP server? A.com rtK ille r. Second HBA D. B. B.www. is attached to a local disk controller. Second PBX card Answer: D QUESTION NO: 171 An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server. never uses an IP address for network connectivity D. dig D.certkiller. Second CPU C. D. Install a second NIC card. does support multipath I/O. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 172 A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS: A. net view B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Which of the following is the BEST solution to accomplish this? A. ipconfig C. always uses an IP address to access data. Second Modem B. Install a PBX card. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. C.c om 51 .

Restart the server C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 173 A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they have grown.c Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP on the server? om QUESTION NO: 174 52 . Notify users D. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence. Uninstall TCP/IP r. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST once the power is restored? A. C. Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables B. B. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours D. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC system? A. D.com rtK ille A. Configure netsh settings in case of backup B. Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks C. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 176 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation.certkiller. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers Answer: B Answer: D QUESTION NO: 175 A data center has had a power outage.www. Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance.

68 Pin SCSI Connector. Default gateway B. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 177 Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all necessary data in the LEAST amount of time? A. High Density D.certkiller. Which of the following connectors is image D? ille r.www. MX C. Normal D. Ethernet cable Ce A. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. A B. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. High Density C. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. 80 Pin SCSI Connector B. The ports on the switch C. Daily B.com rtK Click on the Exhibit button. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot. Incremental C. PTR D. AAAA Answer: B QUESTION NO: 178 QUESTION NO: 179 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server.c om 53 . Low Density "Slay Your Exams" . Port security on the server's switch port D.

The temporary server was formatted as NTFS. B. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A.c om 54 . B. A network printer was disconnected. D. Case fan Answer: B QUESTION NO: 182 An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing. C. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. In the interim the administrator is moving several archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server file shares. CPU fan C. The manager is an administrator on the temporary server Answer: C QUESTION NO: 181 A mail server keeps shutting down. The spool folder is full.www. C. Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 180 A Windows file server has run out of space. After the move. The manager is a power user on the temporary server. The drivers for the printers are failing. The spool folder is not on the C drive.certkiller. The administrator gets an error message over temperature error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST? A. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32. D.com rtK ille r. Heat sink D. The administrator reviews the server and the print service is started. Power supply fan B. a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the items that have been moved.

the DHCP server must have configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO). Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this? A. UID switch B. Convert the filesystem to VMFS. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 186 For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP. "Slay Your Exams" . The administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. C.www. Cooling fan switch D. Power switch C. Copy D. This file needs to be saved on the server. D. Convert the filesystem to EXT3.c om . Chassis intrusion switch Answer: D Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous full backup? A.com 55 Ce QUESTION NO: 185 rtK ille r. Snapshot B. B. Convert the filesystem to FAT32 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 184 A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of the following purposes? A. The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB. Convert the filesystem to NTFS. Incremental C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 183 A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server running Windows Server 2003.certkiller.

DHCP C. DHCP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a service on a company server? A. Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access. C. Web server E. Gateway address B. Subnet mask Answer: A. Implement anti-virus software on the server. Implement ACLs. SNA server C. MIB Answer: D QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses? A.certkiller.www. FTP D. D. SNMP D. Implement anti-spam software on the server. DNS B. Mail server D. WMI B. B. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r.E QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor details on page counts? A.c om 56 . WINS C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.

Memory pairing ille r. Increase the amount of virtual memory. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at the same time without assigning more than one IP address. RAID B. Add more memory to stop paging to disk. Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation? A. ECC D. Clustering B.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 190 A server is configured with two network cards. C. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected that the disk queue length is high. which of the following load balancing techniques should be used? A.certkiller. Registered memory C. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 193 "Slay Your Exams" . Add more disk drives. B.c Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance for memory? om . VLAN tagging Answer: B QUESTION NO: 191 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 192 An application server is running slowly.com 57 Ce rtK A. D. Add a faster processor. OSPF D. NIC teaming C.

System state restore D.c om 58 .com rtK Two file servers have run out of local disk space. Add a NAS to the environment Answer: D QUESTION NO: 196 An administrator will replace five current servers.www. CHKDSK C. Verify if server consumes 220V C. Partitioning management Answer: D QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data? A. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective solution to add storage to both servers? ille QUESTION NO: 195 r. Verify CPU load Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage. C. Incremental backup C. Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution. D. B. The internal drives are at capacity and the company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. RAID array management B. System image B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive? A. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before installing new servers? A. Monitoring agents D. Differential backup Answer: A A. Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load B. Attach a USB drive to one of the servers.certkiller.

CD-R C. CAS D. SDRAM Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. Fiber optic B. RAID B. CD-RW B. DVD-RW D. Fast Ethernet C.certkiller.c om 59 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Verify if server consumes 110V Answer: C QUESTION NO: 197 Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is WORM media? A. ECC C. Coaxial D. Flash Answer: B QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic eavesdropping? A.www. Thicknet Answer: A QUESTION NO: 199 Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and subsequently fixed? A.

Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error? rtK ille r. VT D. SATA B. NX C. Four drives with RAID 0 B. Four drives with RAID 3 "Slay Your Exams" . Hyperthreading Answer: C QUESTION NO: 203 Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance? A. Server OEM regulations Answer: D QUESTION NO: 202 A.www. HBA Answer: D QUESTION NO: 201 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A. Local laws and regulations B. Escalation procedure regulations C. SCSI D.certkiller. iSCSI C.c om . XD B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel? A. Manufacturer's regulations D.com 60 Ce An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving an error.

How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup? A. Flash Answer: D Ce A.c om 61 . Optical D. C. Four drives with RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 204 A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday through Saturday. 2 B. Four drives with RAID 5 D.com rtK ille Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized environment? r.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.certkiller. Multiple types of network cards were used. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives. 5 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 205 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments? A. B. "Slay Your Exams" . Hardware used is not on the HCL. D. The environment is outside of the DMZ. Tape C. Disk B. 4 D. 3 C.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A.certkiller. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support. B. Improper termination D. C. and Friday. prior to booting into Linux. incremental backups on Monday. To fully restore the server. Three D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 208 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. Cost and performance are the most important considerations. The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment. Wednesday. D. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . The system needs to boot to Windows first. and Saturday.com 62 Ce QUESTION NO: 209 rtK ille r. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS. One B. Too many SCSI devices on one system Answer: C QUESTION NO: 210 An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 207 An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server boots into Windows. Thursday. A performance critical application will use this storage space for a database. The database will be replicated between multiple servers. and differential backups on Tuesday. which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. Four Answer: C Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication? A.www. Two C.c om . Low communication latency B. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded C.

The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server. B.com rtK Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline? ille r. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 212 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 213 An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on a default Windows installation.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array? A. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives D. C. The administrator finds that whenever a certain user prints the print spooler crashes. The printer is not on the HCL. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives C. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives B. D. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. C. Replication Monitor D. The user is using a PostScript driver. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) C. Performance Monitor "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives Answer: B QUESTION NO: 211 Users are having trouble printing in terminal services. server operators. B. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to: A. account operators. remote users. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print.www.certkiller. backup operators Ce A. System Resource Monitor B.c om 63 . D.

NIC ille Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity? r. rack space. and power requirements Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Humidity monitors. Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161 C. Service level agreements. fire suppression.c QUESTION NO: 215 om Answer: D. and CCTV D. and power requirements C.www. Cooling. Setting up a custom community name B. Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161 D. HBA B. uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment. and fire suppression B. Which of the following settings would BEST provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO). PBX C. All devices are configured with SNMP. Biometrics. Biometrics.E 64 . VoIP D. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices E. A. but the administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. Installing new MIBs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 216 Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new server? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 214 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators when hardware and applications are having issues.com rtK A.certkiller.

reboots the DC. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration.www. Reseat the NIC.E. Verify correct voltages are being supplied. C. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 217 While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP users? (Select THREE) A. the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into Windows. Install compatible PCI cards Answer: A QUESTION NO: 218 An administrator installs a driver. and logs in to configure the NIC.c om . Which of the following could be done to prevent this problem? A. Database server B. DHCP server D. a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST. Once the administrator opens the NIC properties. NTP server C. D. SQLServer E.F QUESTION NO: 220 "Slay Your Exams" . Boot into Safe Mode. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode Answer: D When configuring a DHCP server.com 65 Ce QUESTION NO: 219 rtK ille r. Domain name Answer: C. Use ESD equipment. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues. B.certkiller. DNS server F. While powering on the server. C. D. B.

All IT contact numbers Answer: B QUESTION NO: 221 An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. The test plan C. Implement preventative measures. Document the outcome. Room temperature D. Fault tolerance and failure recovery B. Fault tolerance and zero configuration C. D. C. which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A.c om 66 .com rtK ille r. Emergency exits B. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take? A. Zero configuration and high performance Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Payroll D. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue Answer: C QUESTION NO: 222 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system. Rack temperature C. B.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation? A. Load on UPS B.www. Close the issue. After troubleshooting the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again. Ease of access Answer: B QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 5? A.

D QUESTION NO: 226 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment? A. ESD during the upgrade E.www. Disk drive failure D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 225 Answer: B. Processor failure B. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5. More effective usage of computing resources D. Improved performance for users Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. om 67 . RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not. When the administrator restarts the server after the upgrade.certkiller. Third party memory C. High performance and fault tolerance Answer: A QUESTION NO: 224 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6? A. C. D.c An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory. it times out. Higher administrative complexity B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Increased level of security C.com rtK A. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? (Select TWO). Backplane failure ille r. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.

16GB of memory.c om . B. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher than stated Answer: B QUESTION NO: 230 There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) software. This server has two processors. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 227 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN? A. and verify data. Additional power is available. Higher data integrity B. C.certkiller. Higher redundancy D. Determine backups available. Continue plugging into the central UPS. Increased performance Answer: B QUESTION NO: 228 Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server? A. Restore OS. and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives. but not using the central UPS. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error. Restore applications. Contact end users of outage. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS. restore data. C.com 68 Ce A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the room and is causing power load problems. restore backups. D. Lower cost of implementation C. restore system applications. D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 229 A. and verify data. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" .www. and restore data. and verify data. but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an upgrade of the central UPS can occur? rtK ille r. restore backup data. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS.

Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware and move onto software C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following is the MOST likely cause? A.certkiller. Structural columns Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Two failed processors C. Temperature B. Two failed drives Answer: A QUESTION NO: 231 When implementing a solution to a problem. Implement one change at a time. A failed RAID controller B. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional. D. JBOD Answer: D QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating environment? A. Lighting C. Two failed sticks of memory D. reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem. SAT A D. which of the following is the BEST course of action to take? A. SAS C. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance? A. RAID 1 B. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function.www. B.com rtK ille r.c om 69 .

D. Database Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" .sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space. VPN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 236 A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies? A. Differential C. Full B.com rtK ille r. IP KVM E. Add more memory. Remove the page file from system properties Answer: C Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO) A.certkiller. The administrator notices that the file pagefile. Remote desktop software B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Delete the file. Which of the following would BEST resolve this problem? A. Telnet session D. C.www. B. Move the page file to a free drive. Dedicated management card C.c QUESTION NO: 235 om 70 . Incremental D. Elevation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 234 The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server.

802. TKIP C. Wire shelving diagram D. Which of the following is the NEXT step? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.E QUESTION NO: 239 Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the array? A.com rtK ille r. AES B. Shutdown delay timing Answer: B. Antivirus software version B. Battery replacement date C. RAID 6 D. RAID 3 B.www. RAID 10 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 240 An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens.1q D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 237 Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN tunnel? A. ISAKMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 238 Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation records? (Select TWO) A. RAID 5 C.c om 71 . IP address for network printer E.

D. Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode.www. number of files. C. C. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected.certkiller. D. average disk I/O. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline. Acceptable outage time D. IP address C. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode. B. B. number of users.com rtK A. Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 72 . Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration. B. Reboot the server again. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The change should be approved by management. C. memory usage. Operating system version ille Which of the following information would be on a system classification list? r. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change. Disk drive size B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 241 All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 242 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 243 Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server? A.

D. The system memory has different manufacture dates. The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory. Trusted root certificate store D. Backside bus D. Two of the memory sticks are defective. B. Root certificate store Answer: B Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. The server is using memory interleaving Answer: C QUESTION NO: 245 In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI. Verifying the OS manufacturers "Slay Your Exams" .com 73 Ce QUESTION NO: 246 rtK ille r. Key recovery agent C.certkiller.c om . however. Frontside bus C. System I/O bus Answer: C QUESTION NO: 247 Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list? A. Key recovery administrator B.www. the server only shows 1GB of memory during POST. PCI B. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Which of the following must be configured in order to decrypt those files? A. That user account is then accidentally deleted. a user encrypts several documents on a shared file server. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 244 An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed.

Baffles D.com rtK A.c QUESTION NO: 249 om 74 .certkiller. Locating a hosting facility C. Molex connectors Answer: A Answer: D QUESTION NO: 250 Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors? A. Interviewing system owners Answer: A QUESTION NO: 248 Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly? A. SDRAM D. NAS D. Consulting with the system manufacturers D. U-size templates B. JBOD B. Registered memory C. Phase changers C. ECC Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . DAS C.www. RAID B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. SAN ille Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an iSCSI connection? r.

Remote management card C. SAN C. The server OS crashed and the server will not boot. Firmware update B. Optical Answer: A QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive? A. which of the following can present an environmental hazard? Ce A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array.www. Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem? "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 251 A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily. Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the server data? A. Flash D. Multimeter Answer: A QUESTION NO: 253 A. Motherboard Answer: C QUESTION NO: 254 When disposing of computer equipment.com rtK ille r.c om 75 . and needs to be stored for 20 years. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline. SCSI backplane C. Memory B.certkiller. Tape B. SCSI drives D. Diagnostic LEDs D.

The administrator needs to install a patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? ille r. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted. Which of the following is the BEST way to restart the servers? A. then the DC server second. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive B. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive C.www. Exchange server first. CRT monitor Answer: D QUESTION NO: 255 An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server. C. C. DC server first. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive D. B. The update has quarantined files that are false positives. Cat5 cable D. B. Immediately after the update.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.com 76 Ce rtK A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions.certkiller. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 256 A. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 257 Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array? A.c om . the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files. Bezel B. D. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly. D. SATA cable C. then the Exchange server second. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive "Slay Your Exams" .

B. When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive. Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. SDLT tapes E. D. C. Restart the installation via WDS. CD-R D. there are no drives listed.com 77 Ce Answer: C rtK A. DLT4 tapes C.D QUESTION NO: 259 QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware? A.certkiller. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? om . Support forums Answer: C QUESTION NO: 261 "Slay Your Exams" . WORM Answer: C. Vendor website D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 258 Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified? (Select TWO) A. Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode ille r. Online troubleshooting tools B. Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly. Flash B.www.c An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID array. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers.

and the drive shows up in Device Manager. Rewrite the MBR. Network share B. Multiple failure fault tolerance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 262 A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive.certkiller. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive? A. Recreate the partition that was deleted. Fault tolerance D. Higher capacity B.com rtK ille r.c om 78 . the My Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1? A. The cables are connected. C. Reformat the NTFS partition. Run a check disk on the drive Answer: D QUESTION NO: 263 Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software? A. however. the drive has power.www. B. Higher performance C. Optical media Answer: A QUESTION NO: 264 A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures. Replace cache battery Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO). D. PXE C. USB D. A. Break mirror array B.

c om 79 . Project guidelines given by stakeholders D. Mail server and backup capacity Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Company policies and guidelines C.www.com rtK A. Restore from back up E.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. F8 D. Server clustering C.certkiller. Replace hot standby D.E QUESTION NO: 265 Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a Windows set-up? A. Server-to-server replication B. F7 C. Hot site D. F6 B. Disk-to-disk replication ille Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network? r. F9 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 266 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy? A. Replace defective hard drives Answer: C. Local laws and industry regulations B.

USB C.E QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator needs to update the anti-virus. and then the web software. web software. Better server hardware leverage B. C. only one change at a time should be done.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE) A. Lower power consumption E. Update the web software.certkiller. anti-virus. Little to no maintenance needed Answer: A.com rtK ille r. BIOS. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 270 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel SAN connectivity? A.B. Smaller backup window needed D. UAC D. BIOS software. and then the BIOS. security patches. security patches. Update anti-virus. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this? A. NIC Answer: A QUESTION NO: 271 Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple processors? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. and then the anti-virus. Increased application security C. HBA B. Update security patches.www. and the web server software on a production system. BIOS. security patches. Smaller datacenter footprint F. B. The order does not matter.c om 80 .

c om 81 .www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Disk-to-disk replication in the same server D. Striping with mirroring Answer: A QUESTION NO: 273 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 274 Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant? A.certkiller. B. Warm site Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. Striping C. Hyper-V Answer: D QUESTION NO: 272 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1? A. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation. Active/passive clustering at the same site C. Striping with parity D. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation. D. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation. Hot site B. 64-bit processing D. ille Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server? r.com rtK A. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation. Mirroring B. Symmetric multi-processing B. Multicore C.

however.www.certkiller.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second device on an IDE cable? A. Proxy card readers Answer: B. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk. Retina scanner E.c om 82 . the SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic. B.D QUESTION NO: 278 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. ID0 B. CCTV systems D. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance. D. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose power. The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded Answer: C QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO) A. The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network. Fingerprint scanners C. Mantraps B. ID2 C. The size of the presented drive is 700GB. Cable select D. Master Answer: C QUESTION NO: 276 A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC.

it is included in every CPU. outside the CPU. C. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A. it runs faster. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state. Server response time C. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. known as SRAM. This slows down computer operations. Answer option A is incorrect. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access the server. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching. DNS entries were not created.C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips. WINS server is not responding QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com rtK ille r. C. if a wait state is encountered. Incorrect default gateway on the server. D. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. Disk performance statistics Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. This is known as a zero wait state operation. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can successfully access the server. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. Also known as external cache. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard. it is included in every CPU.c om 83 .www. B. Choose two. Date of server purchase B. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A new server was installed. Which of the following is the reason that these clients are unable to access the server? A. A. Answer: B.certkiller. Also known as internal cache. for caching. It stores a backlog of the commands so that. the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. Answer option D is incorrect. It is also known as external cache. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet.

Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure. can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt.D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Using personal information in the server room password D. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A. QUESTION NO: 282 When you start your computer.certkiller. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline. . C. The personal information. Network bandwidth Answer: B. B. Using a phrase for the server password C. such as phone number and date of birth. Answer options B and A are incorrect. Answer options A and D are incorrect. D. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline.www. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive.c om Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. "Slay Your Exams" . Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder r. QUESTION NO: 281 Answer: C.C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive. Choose two. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.com 84 Ce rtK ille A.

This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. Reference: "http://en. a Windows-based utility.com rtK ille r. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. distribute. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. Answer option C is incorrect. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet.mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. Answer option A is incorrect. SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. With Thorough option. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]" QUESTION NO: 283 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A. Through this protocol. Reference: TechNet. NNTP B. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. port number 25. Answer option D is incorrect. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. However.certkiller. IMAP D. e.c om 85 . It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post. DEFRAG. SMTP C. and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. The data cable is used to transfer data. it tries to fix the sector. Answer option D is incorrect. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. It will not help in resolving the issue. Answer options C is incorrect. is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance.wikipedia. Answer option A is incorrect. which allows users to manage the network. a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www.

DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. Answer option B is incorrect. DIN B. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Sequential backup D. Answer option A is incorrect.com 86 Ce rtK ille r. These devices include consumer audiovisual components.www. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer.Backup" QUESTION NO: 285 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A. or RS. Answer option D is incorrect. Incremental backup C. serial ports. since the last incremental or full backup. IEEE 1394 D.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 284 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.certkiller. Reference: TechNet. "Slay Your Exams" . RS-232 C. or are new. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. Full backup Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Contents: "Chapter 12 . Daily backup B. traditional PC storage devices. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. and handheld devices.232 ports. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. also known as COM ports. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time.

C. Reference: TechNet. Therefore. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code. rtK ille r. 10Base2 cable C. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. When the user runs the infected file in the disk. Parallel cable D. Choose three. This type of virus hides system files. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives. polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Contents: "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 287 A. also known as Thinnet Coax. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files. QUESTION NO: 286 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? A. SCSI cable B. it loads virus into the RAM. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system.certkiller.D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable.www. Typically. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. C. D. so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector.c om . Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. "Slay Your Exams" . bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them. this changes the signature of the virus. This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters .com 87 Ce Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Serial cable Answer: B.

reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. B.www. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. C. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system. C. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.c om 88 . Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. Answer option A is incorrect. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error. For example. The system log is used to store security-related events. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. QUESTION NO: 288 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. SCSI-2. or remove and replace a failed device.certkiller. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes.com rtK ille r. without powering off the system. Answer option B is incorrect. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor. Answer option C is incorrect. The parallel channel is fast. It allows to install a new device. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. QUESTION NO: 289 Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology? A. Answer option A is incorrect. Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem. B. and SCSI-3. During the boot process. D. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically. The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation. SCSI devices. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end. a server displays a POST error.

Answer options D and C are incorrect. QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of useful life"? A. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. Using this technology. Answer option A is incorrect. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. 6 meters Answer: B Explanation: If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. and SCSI-3. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1.5 meters C. or remove and replace a failed device. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support these bus lengths. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. 3 meters B. if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface? A.5 meters . SCSI-2. The replacement can be due to a device failure.certkiller. 12 meters D. "Slay Your Exams" . This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID).com 89 Ce rtK ille r.c om . or for storage devices. Answer: C Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. It allows to store more than one file using the same name. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI devices. QUESTION NO: 290 What will be the maximum SCSI bus length. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters . 1. etc. The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives.www.

For example. A.D Explanation: The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Contents: "Monitoring Performance" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Broadcast frames received/second Answer: A. Reference: TechNet. % Network utilization B. Pages/sec C. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline. D. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk. will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its defined "end of useful life". The IEEE defines "end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Choose three. Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded.C. high broadcast levels mean lower network performance. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Answer option B is incorrect. A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20 minutes when new.c om 90 . C.com rtK ille r. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Total frames received/second D. The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic. Since each computer processes every broadcast. QUESTION NO: 292 Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www.certkiller. What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. Answer: D Explanation: A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time.

Disable the hard disk drive.com rtK ille r. Change the boot sequence to C:. Hence.c om 91 . Remove the boot files from C: drive. B. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.www. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. C. QUESTION NO: 294 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. D. How will he accomplish this? A. Answer option D is incorrect. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. the computer can move data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU intervention. The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory. NT. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. that have to process a great deal of information quickly. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. Answer option B is incorrect. The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB. the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM. A:.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true? A. especially servers. B. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Answer: C Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM. He wants that whenever he boots his computer. Using DMA. It is helpful on high-end systems. C.

C:. spanned. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Parity Answer: A. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Mirrored F. on the motherboard.E Explanation: Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5. Choose three. RAID-5 B. In Windows 2000/2003. Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:. In case of failure of one disk. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Basic E. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. C: in the BIOS. and mirrored volumes. Spanned D. Dynamic C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.com rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 295 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. It can be created on dynamic disks only.certkiller. You are installing Windows 2000 Server on a new computer. It supports two to thirtytwo disk drives.C. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.www. Change the boot sequence to A:. A. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. You can create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volume types. Answer: D Explanation: To accomplish the task. Reference: TechNet. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. Contents: "Configuring Ce "Slay Your Exams" . users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip.c om 92 .

A. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. Clothing. High humidity B. QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. you experience a mild shock. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. If you set the component down. SO-DIMM D. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table. High temperature D. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. Low humidity C. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. Choose two.D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. DDR DIMM B. and roll up your shirt's sleeves. RIMM Answer: A. Dry air is a poor conductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water molecules carry static electric charge away. footwear.com 93 Ce rtK ille r.c om . and flooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD.certkiller. Low temperature Answer: B Explanation: Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. you should take the following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. Remove your shoes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Dynamic Volumes" QUESTION NO: 296 Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest? A. SIMM C. if possible.www.

consume lesser power. and Kingston . DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. PC3200. 30-pin and 72-pin. SO. TELNET "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following utilities will you use? A. Answer option B is incorrect. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in two types. The number of chips on a 184pin DIMM may vary. and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. Intel. It was introduced for laptops. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers.www. TRACERT D. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base.DIMMs come in smaller packages. PC2700. but are more expensive than DIMMs.certkiller. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III. QUESTION NO: 298 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc.c om . but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and 184 pins. It was developed by Rambus. PC3500 and faster. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses.0 TCP/IP-based network.com 94 Ce rtK ille r. NETSTAT C. Your company has a Windows NT 4. Pentium 4. Answer option C is incorrect. NBTSTAT B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base.375" high. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. 184-pin DIMMs are 5. and the heights may vary. and Athlon systems.375" long and 1.

as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Choose all that apply. NBTSTAT helps you view. It uses TCP port 23 by default. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. offers the ability to run programs remotely. Answer option C is incorrect. and facilitates remote administration. PCI D. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. incoming and outgoing data. What is an EISA bus? Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a superset of a 16. Answer option D is incorrect. to access files. remove. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device.bit ISA bus. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.certkiller. VESA B. Reference: TechNet. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies" QUESTION NO: 299 A. and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.c om . TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. ISA Answer: B.com 95 Ce rtK In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. Therefore. The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot. ille r. update the NetBIOS name cache. both ISA "Slay Your Exams" . This is accomplished by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option B is incorrect. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. EISA C.www.D Explanation: You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) bus slots. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards.

com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h enuk mm4. Which of the following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. Display the partition table. In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt. fdisk Answer: A Explanation: Answer option A is correct. GPMC is used to back up. It provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related tasks. or even forests. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. such as the display subsystem. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. You cannot insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots. It also provides a reporting interface on how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. you will have to run the DOWN -f command. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r. There is no such command as shutdown -rst. The fdisk command is a menubased command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. domains. Answer option C is incorrect. Create a partition on a hard disk. restore. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to the fdisk command.certkiller. Change the partition type. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. Reference: "http://www. Answer options C and A are incorrect. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003.novell. Shutdown -rst D. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator to manage group policy settings across multiple sites. This command can perform the following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk.c om 96 . DOWN -f B. import. QUESTION NO: 300 Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) C.html" QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your Windows NT computer? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . and copy group policy objects.www.

If a portion of a physical disk fails. Explanation: A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Both the partitions must be of same size. A. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes. but again. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. it will not show the contents of any data. striped volume (RAID-0).EXE B.C ille r. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes.com rtK Answer: B. however. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information. but not data information. it is often useful to have some of the frames for review. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.EXE C. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume.c om 97 . B. NETSTAT. IPCONFIG. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity.certkiller. Network Monitor Answer: D Explanation: Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic.www. QUESTION NO: 303 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. C. will not show the contents of any data. It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Performance Monitor D. D. Answer option A is incorrect. Because of the nature of the data. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. Choose two. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

The company has a TCP/IP-based network. IPCONFIG C. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. users complain that they are unable to connect to the server. the destination host responds with a series of replies. You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to connect to the rest of the workstations on the network. Answer: B. to access files. Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server.c om . Either the network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub. the workstations on the network cannot access the server. FTP Answer: A Explanation: TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of the problem as all users are having this problem. One morning. Users are providing incorrect usernames. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX server.D Explanation: There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.www. QUESTION NO: 304 A. B. TRACERT E. It uses TCP port 23 by default.com 98 Ce rtK You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. which connects all the workstations and the server. Your Internet service provider (ISP) has a UNIX-based server. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. On receiving the packets. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam You work as a Network Administrator. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. using a text-based connection? ille r. A faulty hub. D. TELNET B. PING D. If the server is not physically connected to the network. Choose two. is faulty. C. These replies can be used to "Slay Your Exams" . TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. offers the ability to run programs remotely.certkiller. A. and facilitates remote administration. You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. Users are providing incorrect passwords.

Answer option E is incorrect.certkiller. Contents: "Mail Server" QUESTION NO: 305 Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails. B. C. Check the partition with the startup disk. Answer option D is incorrect. Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server" QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam determine whether or not the network is working properly. default gateway etc. such as IP address. This will run a boot sector virus check. How will he confirm this? A. A. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette. boot the computer with that diskette. of a networked computer. Run MAKEDISK. C.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus. The MAKEDISK. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software. Reference: TechNet. B.www. After completing the check. subnet mask. When he examines the problem. Once the diskette is created. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk. TRACERT is a routetracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.com rtK ille r. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite.c om 99 . Answer option B is incorrect. he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.. Choose all that apply. Reference: TechNet. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Boot the computer with the diskette. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. Answer: D Explanation: MAKEDISK. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step.

B Explanation: Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1. Pentium III C. as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media. clients. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents in floppy disks. Pentium II B. also known as single edge connector (SEC). and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media. it will be safe in case of any disaster. Answer: A. A disaster recovery documentation for a small organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location. AMD K6 processors use Socket 7.c om . and phone numbers for crisis management staff. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only. Answer option C is incorrect. instead of a socket. Slot 1 type CPU connector. is similar to an expansion card. Answer option C is incorrect. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. addresses. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller. Choose all that apply. A. copies of insurance contracts. QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. general staff members. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. "Slay Your Exams" .B Explanation: The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. Pentium pro D. If the documents are stored on an offsite location.certkiller. and other critical material necessary for organizational survival.com 100 Ce rtK ille r. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. QUESTION NO: 308 Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller? A. AMD K6 Answer: A. containing the names.www. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings. Answer option D is incorrect. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. C. Answer option D is incorrect.

The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings.www. at which segments were received.10).certkiller. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID controller. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were retransmitted. Answer: A Explanation: The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent.com/eses/library/cc778758(WS. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from elsewhere in physical memory. Segments Retransmitted/sec D. The CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. Answer option C is incorrect. in incidents per second.C. Answer option A is incorrect.microsoft. Reference: "http://technet. Choose three. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in the cache.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.com rtK ille Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. QUESTION NO: 309 Answer: B. When power to the disk array is discontinued. Answer option D is incorrect. date. Segments Sent/sec "Slay Your Exams" . Segments Received/sec C. r. The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller.aspx" Ce A. Answer option B is incorrect.D Explanation: The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec counter shows the rate.c om 101 . Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec. Write Copies/sec B. including those received in error.

The CPU sends instructions to the hard disk controller on this I/O address. Answer option C is incorrect. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O "Slay Your Exams" . It is faster as compared to full backup.com 102 Ce rtK ille r.wikipedia. After a full backup is performed. the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups. Answer option A is incorrect. 3F0-3F7 C. Reference: "http://en. Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental backup. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup methods. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. 278-27F B. 3F8-3FF Answer: C Explanation: A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. Differential backup B. Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as they were created. 1F0-1F8 D. Full backup D. involves backing up the entire hard disks and files of a machine. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or becomes corrupt. Full backup. and hard disks are to be backed up. Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup.www.certkiller. COM1 serial port uses the I/O address range 3F8-3FF. folders. When the full backup type is set up. There is no such type of backup as daily backup. It requires minimum space to backup data.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 310 Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed? A. Incremental backup Answer: D Explanation: added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed.org/wiki/Incremental_backup" QUESTION NO: 311 Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller? A. Answer option B is incorrect.c om . Daily backup C. a user should choose which files. all archive bits are reset to 0. also known as normal backup.

its I/O address. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. B. Answer option A is incorrect. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam address range 3F0-3F7. Resources such as I/O addresses. The 18U server rack has a height of 31. C. 26. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. QUESTION NO: 312 What is the height of the 8U server rack? A. The primary "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup. Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory. Whenever a component.www. Answer option D is incorrect. The CPU needs a memory address. Answer option A is incorrect. When you configure shadow RAM.com 103 Ce rtK Explanation: The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches .5 inches . and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. D.25 inches Answer: C QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS? A. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory. 14 inches D. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. Answer option B is incorrect. 21 inches B. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 27827F . IRQs. Answer: B Explanation: Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. IRQ. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. The 15U server rack has a height of 26. to communicate with any peripheral device. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. 31. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. ille r. This allows faster access to BIOS information.c om .5 inches C. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.25 inches .

c om .org/wiki/SCSI" "Slay Your Exams" . Fast SCSI C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. SCSI-2. Where will you look for it? A. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Ultra 160 SCSI D.certkiller. Choose all that apply. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. A.wikipedia.com 104 Ce rtK ille r. Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]" QUESTION NO: 314 You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. on the motherboard. On the computer case D. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.www. On the motherboard Answer: A Explanation: You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. and SCSI-3. On the microprocessor C. But. QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. In BIOS setup program B.D Explanation: The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer options A and B are incorrect. Reference: TechNet. Fast-Wide SCSI B. SCSI devices. Reference: "http://en. Ultra 320 SCSI Answer: C. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network? A. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. DirectX Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and fix them. and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. The company's network has a storage area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings. a tool introduced in Windows Vista. Time Domain Reflectometer D. is used to detect the reasons for computer failure.com rtK ille r.certkiller.www. The Reliability Monitor. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. QUESTION NO: 317 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Reliability Monitor C. DXDIAG Answer: A Explanation: LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network.c om 105 . Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure. LAN Analyzer B. provides tests for both DirectDraw and Direct3D. This tab also displays warning messages if there are any problems. The servers on the network must connect to the SAN. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. Answer option B is incorrect. The Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable period of time. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model.

routing frames dynamically. There is no such technology as Fibre Thicknet Bus. What should be his first step before installing Windows NT 4. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server. the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B. Answer options A and D are incorrect. It allows multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. The server contains critical files. Fibre Thicknet Bus C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. he will loose the files. working as a file server.0 Server. FactWhat is full backup? Full backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI bus D. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre Channel technology. Recreate the partition Answer: C Explanation: As a precautionary measure. Install the latest network operating system updates C. A Fibre Channel switch intelligently manages connections between ports.0 Server? ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. Taking a full backup daily is impractical. Andrew takes full backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive. Format the system partition B. Answer option C is incorrect. as it is time consuming. A switch offers better system throughput than a hub. You may loose files if the backup gets corrupted. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the backed-up data gets corrupted. PSTN cannot provide such a high speed connection.5 Server files and install Windows NT 4. Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored before installing Windows NT 4. Andrew cannot install operating system updates before installing the operating system. a well-defined backup strategy should be "Slay Your Exams" . Fibre Channel fabric Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology. Answer option B is incorrect. A Fibre Channel fabric uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs. Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified. The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate.www.0 Server.5 Server. Verify backed-up data D.com 106 Ce rtK Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Instead. The company's network consists of a Windows NT 3.c om . He decides to remove the Windows NT 3. QUESTION NO: 318 A.certkiller.

Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and detect viruses. Answer: A. 486DX D. also known as Slot 1. D. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Pentium Answer: D Explanation: Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7. It monitors hard disk utilization. Answer option A is incorrect. It captures network traffic. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. 486DX processors use Socket 0. Pentium II C. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. B. Choose two. View. C. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface.C Explanation: Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization. QUESTION NO: 320 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7? A. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. The Alert.com 107 Ce rtK ille r.www. It measures the processor utilization on the computer. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup. A. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer.certkiller. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review.c om . Pentium Pro B. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. instead of sockets. over time. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. Answer options B and D are incorrect. over time. It detects viruses on the computer. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.

Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. a transposed wire pair. Chart C. Wire crimper D. You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor. a short cable. Answer option D is incorrect. and various types of crosstalk. Answer option C is incorrect. Alert Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit. What is a media tester? A media tester. QUESTION NO: 322 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. you will have to use a media tester. Answer option A is incorrect. View B. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables. The company has a Windows NT domainbased network. also called a media certifier. is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. Media tester C. and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. or some other problem.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 321 You are creating a network for Net World Inc.certkiller. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) Answer: B Explanation: In order to accomplish the task.c om 108 . After you complete the wire connections. It tests for shorts. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. you want to test the wires for attenuation. Which of the following views will you use? A. You decide to implement a star network. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. Log D. Wire crimper is a device that is used to attach connectors to the cables. Tone generator B. transposed wire pairs. Which of the following devices will you use to accomplish the task? A.www.000. A tone generator is an electrical cable testing device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit. attenuation. open circuits.com rtK ille r.

Answer options A and D are incorrect. long file names. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review.51. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by Novell's Netware operating system. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. It supports file system recovery.c om 109 . These features are not available on FAT volumes. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. View. over time. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. High Performance File System (HPFS) B. A. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer.1.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions. and Windows XP operating systems. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4. What is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1. Choose two. Reference: TechNet. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3. over time. Windows 2000/2003.www.com rtK ille r. It has recently ported to Linux. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . and other features. What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT. Novell Storage Services (NSS) Answer: B. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing Internet Information Server" QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. such as encryption and file and folder permissions. The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. large storage media. distributed link tracking. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) C.2 to allow greater access to larger hard drives. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers.5.certkiller. Log-structured file system (LFS) D. 3. NTFS also offers security features. The Alert. and 3. compression. Answer option E is incorrect. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages.C Explanation: The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems that cannot be used to install operating systems. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas. Windows NT file system (NTFS) E. and mounted drives.

The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts.com rtK ille r. You are not required to unplug other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. 64 C.c om 110 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 324 What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM? A. Switch on the computer.certkiller. Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components. B. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. What is video RAM? Video RAM is a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor screen. you experience a mild shock. Wear wrist strap. It works as a buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. You should never turn the power on while installing hardware components on a computer. 16 B. 32 D. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM). QUESTION NO: 325 What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor? A. Answer: C Explanation: As a precaution. such as. chips on the motherboard or adapters. C. Answer option D is incorrect.www. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the computer parts. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. D. 8 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Unplug other cards from the motherboard. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems.

The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus. What is the function of the Disk Management tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection QUESTION NO: 327 Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. C. or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume. Replace the failed drive. A new area of free space of the same size. To regenerate a RAID5 volume. click on Disk Management. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup. B. replace the drive. Intel Pentium microprocessors are also based on a 32-bit data bus. QUESTION NO: 326 As a Network Administrator.certkiller. In the console tree under Storage. "Slay Your Exams" . Then create partitions and format new disks. Answer: A Explanation: When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails. go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. use Disk Management. Replace the drive. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. you may have to restart your computer. All network connections to the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus. Choose two. you find that one of the drives has failed. and then re-creates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. recreate the RAID5 volume. the volume must be locked by the operating system. D.www. The next day. you are concerned about fault tolerance. You are using a RAID5 volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. the failed disk becomes an orphan.c om . Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume. and then regenerate the stripe set. select a new area of free space and then regenerate the volume.com 111 Ce rtK ille r. Take the following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs > Administrative Tools > Computer Management. What will you do? A. and then restore data from the tape backup.

QUESTION NO: 328 Answer: D Explanation: The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network. The Web Proxy service log contains information about client requests for HTTP.www. Performance Monitor. Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP traffic is coming from? r. C. thus generating traffic on the network. another computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent requests. which serves network resources to the network client computer. whereas SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service. Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor" QUESTION NO: 329 Ce A. Windows NT system log. Slow workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network. port etc. C. which can be analyzed to determine the protocol. D.c om 112 . An SMTP server is installed on the internal network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.certkiller.C Explanation: A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server. Reference: TechNet. Faulty NIC on a networked computer. and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic. Voltage fluctuation Answer: B. Network Monitor. A down network server. In case of a server that is down. IP address. FTP or Gopher objects. The Windows NT system log contains information about various system events.com rtK ille Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. Slow workstation systems B. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to the SMTP server. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses. you can detect the faulty NIC through the network monitor software or by the elimination process. which may result in a broadcast storm. Web Proxy logs. B. can cause a broadcast storm on the network. D. "Slay Your Exams" . In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet.

D. IRQ is an infrared communication device.certkiller. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU. In general. ille r.com rtK A. Reference: TechNet. on the motherboard. C. Switch Ce "Slay Your Exams" . which is not supported by an older BIOS. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip.Administering Windows NT Systems QUESTION NO: 331 Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem? A. only one device should be assigned to each IRQ. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. what will you have to upgrade? A. IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices. RAM D. The System's BIOS Answer: D Explanation: A BIOS upgrade is required. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. UPS C. SMPS B.www. QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following statements is true about IRQ? Answer: D Explanation: IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU.c om 113 . The hard disk controller C. B. if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. The motherboard B. Contents: Chapter 1 . Surge protector D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: To resolve the low voltage problem. It also provides protection against power surges. Wearing synthetic clothes can make the ESD problem worse. A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a clip on the other end.certkiller. while the computer gets normal power. Contents: "Chapter 4 .www. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. An antiglare screen on the monitor is used to protect the eyes from radiation. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 332 r. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. using battery backup. Answer: B Explanation: To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems. The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds.Planning a Reliable Configuration" Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems? A. you should wear a wrist strap when you are working on computer components. Answer option A is incorrect. An antiglare screen. This reduces the network traffic. you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a computer. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination. A plastic CPU cover. A wrist strap. B. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components. Reference: TechNet. Answer option C is incorrect. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model.c om 114 . D. Answer option D is incorrect. C. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. It happens when your body or clothes come in contact with computer components. Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. A plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. When power surge occurs.

which enables fast video performance.certkiller. D. and B are incorrect.wikipedia. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. C. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 333 Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. networking. D. A. cooling. A blade server requires administration and does not improve network performance. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? A. A blade enclosure. Answer options A and D are incorrect. minimize power consumption and other considerations. Though. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos. It requires zero administration. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system. It improves network performance. provides services such as power.c om 115 . Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller. B.com rtK ille r. blade servers have many components removed to save space. various interconnects and management. C. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself.www. Answer: A Explanation: AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. Therefore. It consumes less power. Contents: "Motherboard and Buses" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .C Explanation: A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers. which can hold multiple blade servers. D. answer options C. Choose two. Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing. It takes less space than conventional servers. AGP provides improved network performance.133 MB/second. Reference: "http://en. Answer: B.

PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily routed in the exposed areas of an office. Users report that when they query the database or update data. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 337 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. However. Choose all that apply. Reference: TechNet. Floppy drive failure C. The server contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network. it emits poisonous gases. it responds "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning. Fiber Answer: B Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket for a cable.c om . Hard drive failure rtK ille Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.C Explanation: In an event of processor fan failure. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The server also runs the DNS service. r. fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke. when it burns. Processor fan failure does not affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false ceiling and the floor above. the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang up and processor damage. The company has a server that has a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives. PVC C.com 116 Ce A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 335 Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket? A. Computer hangs B. Processor damage D. QUESTION NO: 336 Answer: A.www. Plenum B. Cotton ribbon D.

com 117 Ce QUESTION NO: 338 rtK ille r. including a spare hard disk drive? A.Move the DNS service to another server. striped volume (RAID-0). C.c om .certkiller. Since one hard disk drive is included as a spare disk. Thirty-three C. A. Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. 2.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam slowly. with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Answer: A. What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array. Four B. and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes because they write data to multiple locations. Two Answer: A Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. B. Mark can take the following steps: 1. Answer option D is incorrect. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Move the DNS service to another server. A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity.C Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server. This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. The read-write performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5.B.Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. Both the partitions must be of same size. "Slay Your Exams" . The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. four disks is the right choice. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence improve its performance. If a portion of a physical disk fails. D.Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. Five D. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. Paging files do not need fault-tolerance. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). 3. Choose three.www.

C QUESTION NO: 340 Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP). A. SMP is easier to implement. D. Head and Sectors. Each processor has its own memory address space. r. Heads are used to read and write data on the hard disk. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel. The processors share a common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data.D Explanation: Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. Cylinders and sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization. Cluster Answer: A. A.com 118 Ce rtK ille Explanation: The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders. mirror can be establish between two disks. which includes Pentium II. multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel. than RAID1 array. The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due to its low costs. Reference: Windows 2000 Help. B. However in case of RAID1 array. 'Using mirrored volumes' QUESTION NO: 339 Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.B.www. RAID5 array has a better read performance. Sectors D. Choose three. as it has multiple processors and other components "Slay Your Exams" . Cylinders B. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring. Choose three.c om .certkiller. Each processor shares the same memory. Answer: A. C.B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. You will require five additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. In this architecture. Heads C. SMP is most commonly found on the x86-based architecture. Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes'. etc. AMD Athlon MP. Pentium III. thus if the data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance.

Reference: "http://en. On the other hand. C. Answer: C Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than 504MB. Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup report. "Slay Your Exams" . Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB.c om . Maintain a printed tape backup report. It allows computers to use more physical memory. Answer option A is incorrect. B. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server. D. so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server. D. During the testing of the recovery plan.com 119 Ce rtK Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. QUESTION NO: 342 A. Answer option C is incorrect. in Asymmetrical Multi. each processor has its own memory address space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform. a virtual server name.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 341 What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers? A. operating system. he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's dat a. Implement the cluster server.Processing (ASMP).e.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are shared by them such as the memory. Answer option D is incorrect. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the disaster recovery plan. It will increase the administrative burden.www. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB..wikipedia. I/O subsystem. etc. C. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan? ille r. Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. Answer: B Explanation: In order to improve the disaster recovery plan. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data. B. which is used to access and manage the cluster. It allows computers to access data faster.certkiller. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i.

Answer option D is incorrect. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network? A. Answer option C is incorrect.ncf file. The Restart Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup. as it is possible that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises. The company has offices at different locations of a city. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. DOWN-fs Answer: B Explanation: The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting. 2000 meters B. Restart Server -ns D.certkiller.ncf file. QUESTION NO: 343 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. 10 meters D.www. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: 100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiberoptic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000 meters for full duplex connections.c om 120 . Restart Server -na B. Answer option A is incorrect. The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications: Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic QUESTION NO: 344 Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6 server? A. You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for interconnecting the offices. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice. 100 meters C. The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec.com rtK ille r. The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet specifications are the use of star topology. DOWN-f C.

QUESTION NO: 346 Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003? A. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. ARP D.com rtK ille r. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. IPSTAT Answer: A Explanation: The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. which allows users to manage the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 345 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. update the NetBIOS name cache. Answer option B is incorrect. Which of the following will you use? A. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Windows Backup utility D. incoming and outgoing data. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. NBTSTAT E. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions.www. Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Automated System Recovery (ASR) B. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). NTDSUTIL utility C. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. Answer option E is incorrect. SNMP C. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. Answer option C is incorrect. NETSTAT B. There is no utility such as IPSTAT.certkiller.c om 121 . Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your computer.

and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1. ERD can be created through the RDISK.DAT). Answer option B is incorrect. an excessive amount of input/output to the "Slay Your Exams" . the current Disk Queue Length is 4. CPU D. is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU bottleneck. Hard disk C. Based on this information. go to Start menu > Run.LOG. ERD includes portion of the registry. Network adapter B. The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers. It does not back up folders and files. ERD is not self bootable. Therefore.EXE utility. which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. and arranged in a RAID configuration to increase speed. These files are stored in compressed format. NTDSUTIL. Choose two.EXE is a command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. An ASR restore includes the configuration information for devices. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer option D is incorrect. She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%. or less. It is used to perform a restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%. Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one. type RDISK. and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely fashion. To restore the information from ERD. This utility is used to perform the following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory. and click OK. AUTOEXEC.D Explanation: % Processor Time value of 90. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. Managing and controlling operations master roles.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003.SYS). and computer's configuration files (SETUP. ASR backs up the system data and local system partition. and CONFIG.www. The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003. Answer option C is incorrect.BAT. Note:The NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators. On the other hand. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. Memory Answer: A. rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 347 A. computer's default profile (NTUSER. Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is subjected to excessive amount of input/output.com 122 Ce Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU and one hard disk.certkiller. To start RDISK.

BIOS configuration error. Reference: TechNet. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive. Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is working properly. When he powers on the computer. Pages Writes/sec D. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the cache is correctly configured. and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache.www. C.com 123 Ce rtK Explanation: The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk drive. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive.e.Monitoring Performance QUESTION NO: 348 Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer. Pages Outout/sec C.certkiller. Contents:Chapter 8 . D. Answer options B. the memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. the HDD and IDE controller ends. and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer. a blank screen is displayed. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults? A. B. make sure that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends.. ille r. Pages Input/sec Answer: A Explanation: The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults. and D are incorrect. BIOS configuration error.c om . What is the most likely cause? A. Answer option C is incorrect. Incompatible hard disk drive. C. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free "Slay Your Exams" . To determine if memory is a bottleneck. Pages/sec B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory. i. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable. a blank screen is displayed.

Explanation: While installing two hard disk drives on a computer.D om 124 . C.c Answer: B. An operating system that supports SNMP B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam up space in physical memory. Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave. There is no such setting as Secondary. Answer option D is incorrect. 2. Slave. QUESTION NO: 351 Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as Secondary. Which of the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware? A. The Pages Input/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults. Install the drives.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. D. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. Answer option C is incorrect. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. An operating system that supports SCSI devices Ce "Slay Your Exams" . If both drives using the same controller are set as Master.10). any one of the following two combinations can be used: 1. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave.www.certkiller. A. Which of the following are the possible combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.microsoft.aspx" QUESTION NO: 350 You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. If two drives are attached to one controller. B. or Slave. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality D. Choose all that apply. Reference: "http://technet.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS.com rtK ille r.Install the drives. none of them will work. An operating system that supports SMP C.

you have to select an operating system that supports Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). also known as low-DOS or base memory. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory. But it should be done only as the last resort. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: In order to take full benefit of hardware.wikipedia. Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. As ROM is relatively slower than RAM. installs the required drivers. statistics collections. SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no matter where the data for that task are located in memory. and security. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration. devices. and D are incorrect. Answer options A. treating them as separate processors. the SMP architecture applies to the cores. An operating system supporting SNMP. In the case of multi-core processors. because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. B. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory. All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature. and configures the device appropriately. Plug and Play. Answer: D Explanation: Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the extended memory.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 352 What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer? A.certkiller. What is conventional memory? Conventional memory. With proper operating system support. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention.c om . Reference: "http://en.www. performance. "Slay Your Exams" . When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer. the Plug and Play compliant operating system automatically detects it. C. the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the ROM BIOS. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. D. C. What is SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk. and device drivers. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP architecture. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM.com 125 Ce rtK ille r.

Eight devices. including one host bus adapter card. It is used to load and process data needed by the active programs.www. ESD B. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. Contents: Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528] QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable? A. Six devices. excluding one host bus adapter card.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Surge C.certkiller. B. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. Nine devices. A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. thereby increasing the traffic. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. you experience a mild shock.com rtK ille r. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) . Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Broadcast storm D. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. Reference: TechNet. radiation from the power cable. EMI Answer: D Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable. including one host bus adapter card. Answer option B is incorrect. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. QUESTION NO: 354 How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller? A.c om 126 . The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly.

the user will not be able to communicate with anyone on the network or access network resources.c om 127 . Reference: "http://en.certkiller. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. DNS server D. A DHCP server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical connections to their customers. Database server Answer: B Explanation: A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: C Explanation: A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers. etc. Both physical and virtual resources can be provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a remote virtual operating system. Note: If the DHCP server is offline. and a single entity connecting to multiple resources. for example customers who get Internet through some form of modem. DHCP server B.com rtK ille r. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. so that they can communicate with other network services. RAS server C. Because these channels are bidirectional. information about the domain tree structure. Hence. A RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple communication channels together. without valid TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. including one host bus adapter card. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers only. IP address-to-host name mappings.www. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. A database server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. including one host bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers. Both of these models are widely used. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection? A. Answer option D is incorrect. two models emerge: multiple entities connecting to a single resource. Two devices.

www. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation. It needs only one tape to restore data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this? A. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. B. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Small Computer Systems Interface. D. Incremental. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Small Computer Serial Interface. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of dat a. You are designing a data backup plan for your company's network. Reference: TechNet. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly. a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Contents: "Description of Full.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 356 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Full backup is a good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental backup.certkiller. Explanation: The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. Small Component Systems Interface. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 357 What does SCSI stand for? A.c om Answer: C 128 . or are new. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes. you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. since the last incremental or full backup. E. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. C. Therefore. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. C. For safe storage. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays. B.

Answer: C Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Reference: "http://en. D. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal. C. Answer option A is incorrect. ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential. Answer options C and B are incorrect. SCSI-2. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential. you will type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. to access files. and facilitates remote administration. such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive.org/wiki/Telnet" QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ? A.com 129 Ce rtK ille r. ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation.wikipedia. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.www. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer.Device Management" QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer? A. There is no such command as telcli. It uses TCP port 23 by default. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. B. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. B. SCSI devices.certkiller. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. C. "Slay Your Exams" . offers the ability to run programs remotely. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect. Answer: D Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer.c om . These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the computer. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Reference: TechNet. Contents: "Chapter 19 . and SCSI-3.

The computer will take time to reboot. Choose two.D Ce Explanation: When you turn off the computer and turn it on again. with your hand.certkiller. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery.com rtK ille r. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 361 Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om 130 . "Slay Your Exams" . The computer will hang frequently. you find that the date and time. Answer: D Explanation: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge. PING D. and few other settings are lost. date. The computer's processing speed will slow down. A. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. TRACERT Answer: C. The computer will start losing the date and time. there will be no static difference between them that can cause ESD. like an adapter or drive. D. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential. IPCONFIG B. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration.www. NETSTAT C. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. B. ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. QUESTION NO: 360 How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged? A. If you touch any sensitive electronic component. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed.

The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. default gateway etc. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. the motherboard supports only same type of memory module. Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module. of a networked computer. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard. It is not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems. such as IP address. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.com rtK ille r. like SIMM or DIMM. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.certkiller. of all memory modules on the motherboard.. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.TCP/IP" QUESTION NO: 362 You are upgrading your server. What does this indicate? A. incoming and outgoing data. "Same type. D. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. According to its manual.c om 131 . Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is. incoming and outgoing data. Same type. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference: TechNet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: PING and TRACERT are similar in function. like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the motherboard. C. Contents: "Networking . like DIMM or SIMM. B. You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.www. subnet mask. QUESTION NO: 363 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.

It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. A. like volume sets.www. striped volume (RAID-0). To make CPU faster. B. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. Answer options D and B are incorrect. all the data is lost.certkiller. Choose all that apply. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy? A. Level 1 C. To improve air circulation in the CPU box.c om . Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. The fans inside the CPU box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low. Answer options A and D are incorrect. RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring and provides data redundancy. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. RAID levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. However. Answer option B is incorrect. D. If a portion of a "Slay Your Exams" . C. Disk striping offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management strategies. Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box.C Explanation: High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. Both the partitions must be of same size. Level 5 B. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Answer: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. If any partition in the set fails. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Level 3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping.com 132 Ce rtK ille r. Level 0 D. To improve performance of the computer. To keep CPU temperature low. Reference: TechNet. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. it does not provide fault tolerance.

Therefore. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Increase RAM on the server.wikipedia.c Explanation: The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices. One QUESTION NO: 366 You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network. Run the Scandisk utility on the server. C. you need to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process. you restart the server. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a "Slay Your Exams" . RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver. Which of the following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly? A. Answer option C is incorrect. Reference: "http://en. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. the server is unable to boot. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. If the server is not booted. the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server. Eight B. Answer option A is incorrect. Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. You find that the server is unable to boot. Two C.certkiller. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. Answer option B is incorrect.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks" QUESTION NO: 365 How many devices does the EIDE system support? A. It can only improve the performance of the server if the server is in use.www. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. Answer: D Explanation: In order to enable the server to boot properly. It indicates that the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server. B. After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam physical disk fails. After installing the device driver. you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.com 133 Ce rtK ille r. Four D. om Answer: C . D.

UPS and server always use serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. C. A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS. rtK ille r. The UPS software is not properly configured. You install a new UPS and connect it to a server through a serial cable. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS. QUESTION NO: 367 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. UPS cannot be configured to a power source. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged. When power surge occurs. it does not have to be "Slay Your Exams" . Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits. It is significantly faster than DRAM.com 134 Ce Explanation: The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided with the UPS is not properly configured. QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om Answer: A . SRAM is used for caching. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop. A. Answer option B is incorrect. D. SRAM is made of capacitors. It also provides protection against power surges. Choose three. D. UPS is not configured to a power source.D Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. What is the most likely cause? A. C. B.www. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM. while the computer gets normal power. B. Answer option D is incorrect. using battery backup.certkiller.C. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. Answer: A. only the UPS charging circuit is affected.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. Answer option C is incorrect.

c om 135 .www. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM. QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit.com rtK ille r. SRAM memory chips are generally used for caching.certkiller. Answer: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . as it needs to be refreshed. identify the area to which you connect a hard disk drive. DRAM is slower than SRAM. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny capacitors. Answer option B is incorrect.

certkiller.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www.c om 136 .

The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT. In both the AT and ATX designs. A. The read/write heads are attached to the head actuator. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several disks. These platters are attached to the spindle motor. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter using 40 or 80 wire cables. based on the IBM AT motherboard. the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows: The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below: QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. WINS B. Choose two. improves on the AT design.certkiller. IIS C. The read/write heads are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters. ATX.www. Browser service D. A more recent motherboard specification. What is a motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components. DNS Ce "Slay Your Exams" . the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. known as platters. On the typical motherboard.c om 137 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE controller.com rtK ille r.

information about the domain tree structure.certkiller. he purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface. and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS. configuration. B. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.host name mappings. along with other Internet functions. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A. Reference: "http://technet. C.aspx" QUESTION NO: 371 A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network.c om 138 . It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. File Transfer Protocol (FTP). The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive.10). The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate.D Explanation: The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate. What will be the maximum data transfer rate of both drives? ille r. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . IP address-to. the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due to the chipset limitation. The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. There is no such motherboard or hard disk as the ATA-166. etc. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. and management. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive. Answer option D is incorrect.www.microsoft. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested. and the ATA-100 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. Answer option B is incorrect. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service that supports Web site creation. Answer: B Explanation: Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive.com rtK Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive on the primary IDE interface. as the motherboard chipset is not compatible with the ATA-100 data transfer rate. If an ATA-100 hard disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard. the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources. D.

Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. Among the three RAID levels. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the network. I/O address B. RAID-5 C. Reference: TechNet. also known as stripe set. stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Contents: "NT Server and Disk Subsystem Performance" QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. Answer option B is incorrect. also known as mirrored set. Which of the following RAID levels will you choose to fulfil the requirement? A. If a portion of a physical disk fails. A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement.certkiller. RAID-5. RAID-4 E. you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. RAID-0 D. RAID-1 B. SCSI Identification Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option A is incorrect. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.c om 139 .com rtK ille r. RAID-1 has the poorest performance. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Master/Slave setting D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 372 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. It has better performance than a mirror set. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance.www. Answer options E and D are incorrect. Both the partitions must be of the same size. RAID-1. Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. also known as stripe set with parity. RAID-3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID-0. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). The company has a TCP/IP-based Windows NT network. LUN C.

The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. to communicate with any peripheral device. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. The CPU needs a memory address. and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. SCSI ID 7 has top priority.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device "Slay Your Exams" . Whenever a component. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. Therefore. Master/Slave setting D. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. SCSI devices.www. and SCSI-3. 0 to 7 and 8 to 15.com 140 Ce rtK ille r. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. IRQs. I/O address B. its I/O address. LUN C. Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives" QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. IRQ. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups.c om . SCSI Identification Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. Resources such as I/O addresses. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI-2.certkiller. Reference: TechNet.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

Answer:

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You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective boxes.

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QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Explanation:

The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below: TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length 1000BaseSX550 meters 100BaseFX2000 meters 100BaseTX100 meters 1000BaseCX25 meters 1000BaseT100 meters

QUESTION NO: 376 HOTSPOT

In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 377

Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mouse type B. RAM size C. Boot sequence D. Shadow RAM E. Hard disk drive parameters F. Date and time G. Floppy disk drive parameters Answer: C,D,E,F,G

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Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

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This allows faster access to BIOS information. Monitor disk utilization. as there is no change in the hardware of the server. The security log does not store log about success or failure of application installations. Answer option D is incorrect. If the hardware is not configured according to the BIOS configuration.c Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. B. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. As he is concerned about the performance of the application server. The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new server baselines. D. ille r. used to compare different configurations. Answer option A is incorrect. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Ce Answer: B "Slay Your Exams" . the hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration.www.com rtK A. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer. the server baseline will be helpful to analyze the server performance after the installation of the application. Once a baseline for network usage has been determined. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application. Mark is concerned about the performance of the application server. The company has a Windows 2000based application server that serves applications to the users. the BIOS will issue a warning. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server. What is baseline? Baseline measures maximum system capacity and performance. the additional bandwidth available for the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Mark should create a new server baseline. But. C. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no need to take a printout of the hardware configuration. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. Print the server hardware configuration. Explanation: After the installation of the application. What will Mark do next after installing the application properly? om QUESTION NO: 378 145 .certkiller. Create a new server baseline. When you configure shadow RAM.

installation plan. Create a backup strategy. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. QUESTION NO: 380 Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: D Explanation: Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow around the chips and result in short circuit. Creating a backup strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre. Hardware resource conflict B. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer.c om 146 . Answer options C and A are incorrect. Plan the installation. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. A broadcast storm on the network. D.com rtK ille r. Hardware resource conflict occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other devices. A. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit. The general protection fault does not occur due to humidity.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment? A. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. General protection fault C. Configure a subnet mask on the computer. Answer option A is incorrect. B. Choose two.www. Answer option B is incorrect. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. C. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. D. full-time connection to a network. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. Answer: D Explanation: The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation.

Though. Microcomputers B. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer? A. industry and consumer statistics.B. ROM BIOS E.www. Mainframes D.com 147 Ce rtK ille r. typically bulk data processing. A. Reference: "http://en. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. A blade enclosure. Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications. Hard disk drive D. various interconnects and management. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the computing spectrum. PCI Slot C. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. C. Blade servers C. CMOSBattery B. Answer options D. minimize power consumption and other considerations. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. which can hold multiple blade servers.c om . Minicomputers Answer: B Explanation: Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. networking. provides services such as power. Floppy disk drive Answer: A.D Explanation: A modern motherboard has several components built in. Most modern motherboards have the following major components: "Slay Your Exams" . and A are incorrect.wikipedia. and financial transaction processing.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following have many components removed to save space. Choose three. blade servers have many components removed to save space. No components are removed from these. in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the smallest single-user systems computers). ERP. minimize power consumption and other considerations.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. cooling.certkiller.

85 inches D. 5.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Processor-slot/socket Chipset ROM BIOS SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots CPU voltage regulator Battery Answer options C and E are incorrect.75 inches B. identify the area showing the Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) slots. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . ille r. 1. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. 1. They are separate units. QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit? A.c om 148 . Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the motherboard. Answer option B is incorrect. U is the standard unit of measure for designating the vertical usable space. or height of racks.com rtK Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. 35 inches C.www.certkiller.75 x 20) inches.75 inches .25 inches Answer: A QUESTION NO: 384 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below.

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c om . These slots are larger than PCI or VESA slots. EISA bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards.Hardware Support" rtK ille r. He wants to use a type of RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10. SRAM B. Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM. Contents: "Appendix C . DDR SDRAM C. PCI slots are usually white in color. The company has a database server. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus.com 150 Ce You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. RDRAM D.www. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. Which of the following types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task? A. EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. EDO RAM "Slay Your Exams" . A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot.certkiller. such as the display subsystem. Reference: TechNet.7 GB/sec. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: QUESTION NO: 385 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities.

com rtK ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. SNMP v3 C. SNMP v1 B. SNMP v1 and v2 have a number of common features.7 GB/sec. Answer option A is incorrect. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication feature. Unlike DRAM.6 GB/sec to 10. Answer option D is incorrect.7 GB/sec. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6. One B. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports bandwidths from 1.2 GB/sec. With a bus frequency of 200 MHz. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10. but SNMP v2 offers enhancements. SNMP v6 Answer: B Explanation: SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server. DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3. SNMP v2 D. which allows users to manage the network. QUESTION NO: 387 You are installing Windows 2000 Server. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5 volumes? A. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for fault tolerance. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Two Ce "Slay Your Exams" . such as additional protocol operations.www. Answer options A and C are incorrect.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 386 Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities? A.c om 151 .

C. 31.certkiller. "Slay Your Exams" .5 inches D.5 inches Answer: D Explanation: Ce Explanation: The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly. Discuss the password with anyone. Do not reuse passwords. 52.c om 152 . Do not reuse passwords. Answer options B and D are incorrect. In case of a physical disk failure. D. Store the password. Choose all that apply. Answer: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks. do not reuse the previous password. RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored or extended. B. Three D. 21 inches C.www. Thirty-two Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. While you are changing the password. you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity. Change the password regularly. Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. 14 inches B.C QUESTION NO: 389 What is the height of the 30U server rack? A. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good password policies. A.com rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

com 153 Ce What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. Slot 1 and Socket 370 C. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . Answer options C and A are incorrect. B. Intel's Pentium.D Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed. QUESTION NO: 390 Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors? A. C. and AMD's K6. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be refreshed. Answer option B is incorrect. Slot 2 and Socket 370 B. "Slay Your Exams" . Choose two. Answer option D is incorrect. SRAM is faster than DRAM. therefore. r. With an access time of 15 to 30 nanoseconds. Answer option A is incorrect. Pentium MMX.5 inches . The 18U server rack has a height of 31. AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and Duron processors use Socket QUESTION NO: 391 A. Slot 1 and Socket A Answer: B Explanation: Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. Slot 2 and Socket 7 D. D.5 inches .www. rtK ille A. SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more. DRAM requires more power than that of SRAM. and some K5 model processors use Socket 7. SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: C. DRAM is faster than SRAM.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 30U server rack has a height of 52.c om . The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches .

is plugged in on the computer's motherboard. When a computer is turned on or "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 393 A. Motherboard C. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. It does not store instruction for the POST routine. EDO RAM. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card. a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard. it begins a Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Boot the computer. EDO RAM B. The error codes will display on the adapter. How will you use it? rtK ille r.c om . stores instruction for Power On Self Test. Answer: A Explanation: POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. The error codes will print. Answer option B is incorrect. Insert the card into an open bus slot. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk. C. When you turn on or restart a computer.www. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer options B. Boot the computer. a type of random access memory. It also does not print error codes. Insert the card into an open bus slot. It does not store instruction for the POST operation. Connect the card to a serial port. such as the keyboard.com 154 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You find that a POST error has occurred. and D are incorrect. Boot the computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 392 Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test? A. Answer option A is incorrect. B. ROM BIOS Answer: D Explanation: The ROM BIOS. A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manuurer. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error.certkiller. Insert the card into an open bus slot. C. D. Microprocessor D.

and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables. Tone generator B. and A are incorrect.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system. But your system does not support the 4GB hard disk. SCSI. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. Punch down tool Answer: B Explanation: Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. Answer options C. SCSIBOOT.certkiller. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively.000. QUESTION NO: 396 You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk. QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables? A.SYS B. such as keyboard. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Optical time domain reflectometer C.SYS C. What will you do to upgrade "Slay Your Exams" .c om . SCSIBIOS. Media tester D. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections.SYS Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS. when using SCSI controller with BIOS disabled. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. QUESTION NO: 394 You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system. D.www. punch down tool.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam restarted. Media tester.SYS D. NTBOOTDD.com 155 Ce rtK ille r. Which file is required if your system uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled? A.

QUESTION NO: 397 Answer: B Explanation: To support fault tolerance. Configure the disks to an active partition. Mark wants to reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume. If a portion of a physical disk fails. In this method. and the volume should have the maximum space for storing data. Configure the disks to a spanned volume.www. If no partition is set as Active. it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one additional disk for the volume.c om . The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard. The server has eight 40GB hard disks. B. C. After uploading the software and rebooting the machine. Install a new operating system. First he must backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume.com 156 Ce A. D. a computer "Slay Your Exams" . B. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity. ROM BIOS chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version. D.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the BIOS? A. and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. The network has a Windows 2000 server. you can upgrade by the Flashing method. Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. What will he do to accomplish this? r. Replace the motherboard. A RAID5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. C. new BIOS will be functional. rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. If your motherboard is using an Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip. Then he must create a RAID5 volume using six disks.

caller ID. Answer option D is incorrect. There can be only one active partition in a computer. it is known as a PING attack. Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway" QUESTION NO: 399 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer. For each SYN packet received. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network.www. thereby denying service to legitimate users. SYN attack D. Answer option A is incorrect. It can be created on dynamic disks only. However. etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Hacking B. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. In Windows 2000/2003. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine. Answer option A is incorrect. "Using mirrored volumes" QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open? A. an attacker sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. When an attacker sends TCP SYNs repeatedly. PING attack C.com rtK ille r. chatting on-line. Spoofing Answer: C Explanation: A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state.c om 157 . a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. Using this technique.certkiller. Reference: TechNet. the target computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP address. Reference: Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes". A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. it attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. etc. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. email address.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam does not boot from the hard disk drive. the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to handle any more connections. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. In IP spoofing. Answer option B is incorrect.

SCSI3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec. Answer option C is incorrect. SCSI-2 D.certkiller. Answer option E is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection.c om 158 . D.www. SCSI-3 Answer: D Explanation: Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec. The server has a dual processor motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. It will not increase the network connection speed. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI. Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Ultra 160 SCSI B. Add more RAM to the server. SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. Adding a processor will improve the performance of data processing on the server. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in improving the server's network connection speed. It can only help in improving the server's data processing performance. Answer option B is incorrect. C. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic efficiently between the network adapters. Ultra 320 SCSI E. It also improves network uptime by protecting the network in the event of a network adapter failure. B. The company's network has a file server that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. QUESTION NO: 400 A. Add a processor to the server's motherboard. What will he do to accomplish this? A. The server is connected to the network through a 10/100 Mbps switch.com rtK ille r. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. Ultra 900 SCSI C. Answer option D is incorrect. Ce Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate? "Slay Your Exams" . Ultra 160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. Answer: A Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server. Answer option C is incorrect. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to the server will not affect the server's network connection speed.

Reference: "http://technet. Answer option B is incorrect. Cache Bytes Peak C. Committed Bytes B. in bytes. There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. Cache size is not a requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST).10). Processors do not have jumpers.com 159 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc. The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking. Commit Limit Answer: C Explanation: The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. You upgrade a server's processor. Answer option A is incorrect. The BIOS is not flashed. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size. After the upgrade. Answer: C Explanation: Since the server was working before the upgrade. the most likely cause is that the processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. What is the most likely cause? rtK ille r. Therefore. in bytes. Answer option D is incorrect.microsoft.aspx" QUESTION NO: 402 A. The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. The Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory. Answer option D is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 401 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use? A. it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST). that can be committed without having to extend the paging file.certkiller. B.www. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's "Slay Your Exams" . Available Bytes D. D. Answer option A is incorrect. C. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect.c om .

Some weeks ago.sql-serverperformance. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. B. Add more RAM. loose hardware contact. When a computer is turned on or restarted. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface.com 160 Ce rtK ille r. Reference: "http://www. Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup. and the failure of cooling devices such as "Slay Your Exams" .com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1. Current Bytes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. Examine the server log. Run the hardware diagnostic utility.certkiller. A. malfunctioning add-on cards. Answer option A is incorrect. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam motherboard. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Current Bandwidth C. Which of the following steps can Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has. E. QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks? A. Answer option D is incorrect.B. Answer option C is incorrect. Output Queue Length D. D.aspx" QUESTION NO: 404 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level.c om . the server was handling the same level of workload without any problem. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet. Choose three.D Explanation: Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure.www. Bytes Total/sec B. The company's network contains a file server. Answer: A. It measures the total amount of data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. such as keyboard. There is no such counter as Current Bytes/sec.

PING Ce "Slay Your Exams" . VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector. Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any accident or disaster. Hence. The administrator has to check that the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector? A. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps: Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. and SMPS fan. Part 1" QUESTION NO: 406 You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. Contents: "Building a Home Network. 10BaseT Ethernet cable Answer: D Explanation: A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter jack on a computer. Serial port C. Answer option E is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. It can be useful to improve server performance.c om 161 . processor fan. Answer option C is incorrect. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in size. Answer option A is incorrect. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors. Answer option C is incorrect. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male connector. IPCONFIG C. Run the hardware diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. adding more RAM cannot help to resolve the issue. NSLOOKUP D. Reference: TechNet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the fans inside the server cabinet. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable B. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem? A. Check the cooling components such as heat sink. Moreover. You are having DNS resolution problem. He also has to check whether the fans attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly. VGA/SVGA video adapter D. TRACERT B. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector. Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware. corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot.com rtK ille r.certkiller.www.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. On which of the following days can you perform a full backup? rtK ille r.com 162 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. Answer option D is incorrect. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday . This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. Friday D. or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. it will run on the following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company. On receiving the packets. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday. and debugging other server-related problems. register. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly.11GB/hour. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.9 AM to 5 PM. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full backup. Wednesday C. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. What is the "Slay Your Exams" . The management does not want the backup plan to interfere with the network during business hours. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. It is also used to display.11GB/hour. You configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2. the destination host responds with a series of replies. The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. Answer option B is incorrect. Thursday Answer: C Explanation: The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB. Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools [Q217014]" QUESTION NO: 407 A.c om . verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. Monday B. and data transfer rate of the tape drive is 2.www. You are planning a data backup plan for the company's network. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.certkiller. Tuesday E.

you access the hard disk as D: drive. What is the most likely cause? A.certkiller. Contents: "Description of Full. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Hard disk drive cable is faulty. It needs only one tape to restore data. A. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. B. C. Choose two. "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: TechNet. When you boot the system with a bootable floppy disk.c om 163 . on your system. Faulty RAM on print server D. Hard disk drive is not formatted. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Incremental.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Faulty printer cartridge C. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. and Differential Backups [Q136621" QUESTION NO: 408 David configured a system as a print server on the network. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive. Ce Explanation: The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. D.com rtK ille r. Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS. When he prints a Word document. you receive an error message. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. the page is printed with junk characters. Hard disk drive has no partition. Faulty printer driver Answer: A.www. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. When you run the DIR command on D: drive. or are new. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.D QUESTION NO: 409 You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave. Printer cable is loose B. E. since the last incremental or full backup.

"Slay Your Exams" .com 164 Ce rtK Explanation: Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. BIOS configuration and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because. These files are stored in compressed format. Category 1 refers to the traditional Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables. ERD /NT Answer: A Explanation: Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive. this option is incorrect. If the hard disk is not partitioned.certkiller. It consists of four twistedpairs of copper wire. Category 1 B. RDISK B. The question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. NTBACKUP C. It consists of four twisted-pairs. Category 5 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 411 You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. Answer option C is incorrect. ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted. Answer option B is incorrect. Therefore. It consists of four twistedpairs with three twists per foot. Which utility will you use? A. Category 4 D. Answer option A is incorrect.c om . in that case you cannot access the hard disk drive as D: drive.www. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 16 Mbps. BACKUP D. which can carry voice but not data. QUESTION NO: 410 Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps? A. Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. Category 3 C.

boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information.www. ille r. Install the latest service pack on the server. type RDISK.LOG. ERD is not self bootable. NAS server C. To restore the information from ERD. Add more RAM to the server. You have installed a new application on the server. You have checked and verified that the application is working properly. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. AUTOEXEC. Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]" QUESTION NO: 412 Your company's network has a file server. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.EXE utility. go to Start menu > Run. computer's default profile (NTUSER. and A are incorrect. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline.SYS). D. Run Disk Defragmenter on the server. Answer options D. To start RDISK. What should you do next? A. ERD can be created through the RDISK. Although it may "Slay Your Exams" . Proxy server B. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.BAT. B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following servers provides network file storage? A. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server. Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous clients.c om . DNS server D. and click OK. Create a new server baseline. DHCP server Answer: B Explanation: The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage.certkiller.com 165 Ce rtK Explanation: After installing a new application on the server. A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. you should create a new server baseline. B.DAT).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam ERD includes portion of the registry. and CONFIG. C. Reference: TechNet.

such as a file. available from a different server. IP address-to-host name mappings. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. Reference: TechNet. C. the "parity bit". information about the domain tree structure. For example.certkiller. etc. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. A client connects to the proxy server. If the request is validated by the filter. web page. or other resource. the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk.wikipedia. Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit. Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows 3.x [Q93521]" QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter? "Slay Your Exams" . and are controlled and configured over the network. Answer option D is incorrect. and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. Answer option C is incorrect. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information. often using a browser.c QUESTION NO: 414 om . NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of memory. B. connection.www. it is not designed to be a general purpose server. A parity error can be caused by different circumstances. is used to store the parity of the data. ille r. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Answer option A is incorrect. requesting some service. D. Parity is a basic check of information integrity. Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS. until the problem disappears. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Reference: "http://en. but it is almost always a hardware problem. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage" What is the meaning of parity error? Explanation: Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory.com 166 Ce Answer: B rtK A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. A DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network. Parity error occurs due to faulty memory.

certkiller. Output Queue Length counter C. CMOS battery failure. B. Answer option A is incorrect. What can happen in an event of power failure? A. Level 3 D. Reference: TechNet.enterprisenetworkingplanet. Current Bandwidth B. "Slay Your Exams" . Level 5 Answer: A Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems. which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring? A.com 167 Ce rtK ille r. C. Level 1 B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Level 1 or mirroring. The Output Queue Length counter of the network interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. Answer option C is incorrect.c om . Reference: "http://www. Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. The Disk Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object. Disk Queue Length D.com/netsysm/article.Tabson-Your-Network-Traffic. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or disk striping. Level 0 C. Level 5 or disk striping with parity.htm" QUESTION NO: 416 In Windows NT/2000. Bytes Total/sec Answer: D Explanation: The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter. which is not fault-tolerant. Distorted display.php/10954_3328281_2/Keep." QUESTION NO: 417 Your computer is not connected to the UPS. Answer option B is incorrect. Damage of components.www.

so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment. Choose two. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. LC D. Answer: B Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure. Answer option C is incorrect. Which of the following connectors can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. BIOS configuration is reset. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/.c om 168 . Answer option A is incorrect.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. MT-RJ rtK ille You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The connector is a 2-fiber connector and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack. QUESTION NO: 419 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The company wants to use Small Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network.com A. The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver. Answer option D is incorrect. power failure may cause damage to peripheral components.www. RJ-45 B. Reference: TechNet. It also provides protection against power surges. What is an MT-RJ connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector. BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in the CMOS chip.certkiller. When power surge occurs. Contents: "Glossary" QUESTION NO: 418 Answer: C. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector. using battery backup.D Explanation: The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables. while the computer gets normal power. RJ-11 C. In an event of power failure. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure. r. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.

However. The most common in-band remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Thirty-two D. B. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance.c om 169 . also known as stripe set with parity. It is used for taking backups. C. Answer options A and D are incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Out-of-band management is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices.com rtK Answer: B ille r. Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes" QUESTION NO: 420 Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management? A. It has better performance as compared to a mirror set. To manage network servers and routers remotely. Answer option C is incorrect. administrators need network access when problems occur. the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of management access to those devices. Unlike out-of-band connection. Four E. It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. It is used for auditing the network activities. D. Users can use remote-access connections to manage servers. Reference: TechNet. Three B. Explanation: Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance.www. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. Reference: "http://en. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel.band port that resides on the target server. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. The remote-access connection is made through the in. Two C. in-band connection is available only when the server is initialized and functioning properly.certkiller. Five Answer: A Explanation: RAID-5. If a portion of a physical disk fails. you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information.wikipedia. In-band connection relies on operating-system network drivers to establish computer connections. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.

This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. Answer option D is incorrect. Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval? ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. TRACERT C. TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination. 486DX. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. 80386 C.c om .com 170 Ce A. Choose three. TRACEROUTE D.certkiller. "Slay Your Exams" . 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors.C. 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as 486SX. QUESTION NO: 422 Answer: C Explanation: The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems.D Explanation: 80386. 8088 B. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and Pentium MMX. NSLOOKUP rtK You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network. A. 386DX.www. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. 80486 D. Ping B. 486DX2 and 486DX4. Pentium Answer: B. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. and debugging other serverrelated problems. 80386 processors were introduced in computer models such as 386SX.

QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1.www. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. How will you achieve this? A. Terminate all external SCSI devices. the destination host responds with a series of replies. On receiving the packets. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. Terminate only the internal SCSI device. D. and SCSI-3. Answer option A is incorrect. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: B Explanation: The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers. C. B.certkiller. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN).c om . SCSI-2.org/wiki/Traceroute" QUESTION NO: 423 You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices. Reference: "http://en. B. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. C. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.wikipedia.com 171 Ce rtK ille r. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. D. It provides interface for connecting the computer to auxiliary devices. The first and last devices in the SCSI bus should be terminated. SCSI devices. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option B is incorrect.

This device does not provide protection from a direct lightning strike. A brownout lasts longer than a power sag and corrupts more data. It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. When the induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna. C. and if a home or office takes a direct hit. It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer.c om 172 . When a lightning surge. has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. travels down the power system to the arrestor. The typical lightning arrestor. the current from the surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth. Reference: "http://en. NIC is also known as network adapter. the lightning arrestor shunts the excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. It indicates there is enough power on the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current electrical demand. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer: D Explanation: A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Lightning carries millions of volts. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts. also known as surge arrestor. D. rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike.wikipedia. It is installed after an antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver.certkiller. a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges. Answer option C is incorrect. A lightning arrestor is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. B. or switching surge.com rtK ille r. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. Reference: TechNet. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold or hot spell. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). such as for one or two seconds.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Content: Glossary QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following statements about brownout is true? A. Answer option A is incorrect. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line.www. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike.

Although you should check the compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. Otherwise. without replacing the motherboard. "Slay Your Exams" . What will be your first step before purchasing memory? A. you will have to replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server. B. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase memory on the server. There is no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on the server. Answer option B is incorrect. you will have to change the existing memory.www. Answer: A Explanation: You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before purchasing memory.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect. Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing. Answer option D is incorrect. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard. Check the memory size on POST.com rtK ille r. You should purchase memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP Answer: Ce Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown in the image. D. C. Verify the availability of memory slot.c om 173 . it is the second step. You want to increase memory in a database server on the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 426 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory.

A. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect.D Explanation: The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162. 162 C. QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The pin of the connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded medium performance coaxial signal connector.certkiller. 443 D. 161 Answer: B. Choose two.c om . "Slay Your Exams" .com 174 Ce rtK ille r. By default. It is an inexpensive connector. 80 B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. which allows users to manage the network.www. which is used in TVs and VCRs.

keyboards.certkiller. Answer option A is incorrect. The company's network contains a file server. The tape drive has no power supply. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. USB supports hot plugging. and cameras.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam HTTP uses port 80 as the default port. C. Answer option D is incorrect. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system. The SCSI card driver is not installed.C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based. Topic: Appendix C Hardware Support QUESTION NO: 430 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. tape drives.com 175 Ce rtK ille r. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port. D. scanners. A.c om . USB supports hot plugging. Choose two. What is the most likely cause of the issue? A. The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. The RAM on the server is faulty. which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly. Answer: B Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate. C. B. CD-ROM drives. This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. even though the hard disk drive is working properly. D. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. Both the drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port. The SCSI card is faulty. including speakers. USB does not support Plug n Play installation. He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive. QUESTION NO: 429 Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Mark comes to his office and starts the server. B. The "Slay Your Exams" .www. external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices. Answer: A. On a Monday morning.

Now. After setup completes. She installs a new device driver for the controller. D. Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined [Q122052]" QUESTION NO: 432 Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. Instead of using cylinders. DVD. and sectors. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days. Monica has to restore Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers.com 176 Ce rtK ille r. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration. Answer option C is incorrect. What should she do to accomplish this? A. it assigns a unique identifier to each sector on the drive. as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. restart Server1. heads. Answer: B Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard disk drives of more than 504MB. Server1 and Server2.certkiller. B. Answer options D. Monica wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD. QUESTION NO: 431 What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing? A. Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to overwrite the new file. LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk drive. Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1. and C are incorrect. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD). B. In order to work. D. LBA is not used with them. To allow use of zip drives. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up. Reference: TechNet.c om . A. and RAM have their own addressing method.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam SCSI card is not faulty. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk drive. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB. C. Restart Server1. C. Server1 is unable to boot properly.www. Since zip drive.

This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry key. though. Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE" Ce Answer: C "Slay Your Exams" .c om 177 . that the drivers for your USB devices are already available on the computer. USB devices are non-Plug and Play. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Whenever a user logs on to a computer. One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good Configuration. Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here. USB 1. Answer option D is incorrect. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. Answer option A is incorrect. NEC. Reference: TechNet. Reference: TechNet. you do not need to provide a device driver separately. USB supports hot plugging. C.com rtK ille r. the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. she should use the Last Known Good Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. D. Software drivers are not required for USB devices. USB 2. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it. B.ROM drives. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost. "Windows NT". Software drivers are required for USB devices.certkiller. It is possible. tape drives. As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good Configuration. whereas USB 2. "Knowledge Base". and Northern Telecom. Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty drivers. Microsoft. Therefore.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. "Recovering Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]" QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices? A. reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. In this case.www. It is not required to restart the computer to install USB devices. Answer options C and A are incorrect. DEC. Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support". scanners etc. Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. IBM. such as CD. if an operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. What is Last Known Good Configuration? The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last successfully logged on. keyboards. Intel.1. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by installing a new SCSI device driver. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices.

According to Rick. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. virus attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. his computer was working properly till last evening and he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning. Floppy drive failure. The next time he turned on the computer.com 178 Ce rtK ille r. and system files. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started.www. Media failure on the hard disk drive. QUESTION NO: 435 What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card? "Slay Your Exams" . the computer searched for operating system files on the floppy drive first. It is possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his work. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected. A virus can infect boot sector. a Sales Manager.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 434 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk. Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. Answer option B is incorrect. Instead.certkiller.c om . reports that his computer was working properly till last evening. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. it is rare. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting. it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely cause? A. What is a virus? A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. it showed the Invalid System Disk error message. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. The computer is infected with virus. C. networking files. infect those targets. Answer option C is incorrect. Rick. D. and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. Although media failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur. a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program. when he turned on his computer this morning. the computer shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. Answer option A is incorrect. B. However. In most cases.

B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. QUESTION NO: 436 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. Answer option C is incorrect.com site. Nowadays most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. IPCONFIG B. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface card and cannot be changed by users. To configure I/O address. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. Answer: D Explanation: The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. IRQs. A user complains that he is unable to access the abc.c om .www. full-time connection to a network. They use software setup programs instead. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.com 179 Ce rtK ille r. IRQ. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. Whenever a component. To configure data transfer speed. To configure transceiver type. Which of the following tools will help you diagnose the problem? A. TRACERT D. to communicate with any peripheral device. its I/O address. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC manuurer. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall. C. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote "Slay Your Exams" . This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network communication. he can access all other sites. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. To configure MAC address. The CPU needs a memory address. TELNET C. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. ROUTE Answer: C Explanation: The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. Resources such as I/O addresses. However. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. D.certkiller.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam host. default gateway etc. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. AMD Athlon C. The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1. 7 inches C.com rtK ille r. Answer option A is incorrect. A. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. Therefore. and facilitates remote administration. Add. The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. Print.. and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE command.75 x 20) inches. 1.75 inches . offers the ability to run programs remotely. Answer option C is incorrect.75 x 12) inches. to access files. Answer option B is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit? A. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. of a networked computer. 35 inches D. QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option A is incorrect. 21 inches Answer: B Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. Delete. 386SX B. Pentium 4 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .75 inches B. Answer option D is incorrect. such as IP address. Answer option D is incorrect.75 inches . Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service.75) inches. Choose three. subnet mask.www. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7 (4 x 1. AMD K6 D. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.certkiller. It uses TCP port 23 by default. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table.c om 180 . It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1.

QUESTION NO: 439 David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. Since the problem is not due to disk performance. either the processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. disk striping is not required. when the value of this counter exceeds 80%. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT workstations. Since there is no bottleneck in the processor. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance. Employees complain about the poor performance of this server. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set (RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Answer option C is incorrect. there is no need to add another processor. Answer option D is incorrect. Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133 MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive.c om 181 .certkiller. there is no need to add another network card. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width. A bottleneck in the processor occurs. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%. This indicates a bottleneck in memory.C. Therefore. D. C.D Explanation: The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer option A is incorrect. Moving some applications to another server can also resolve the issue. He will add another network card to the server.www. Reference: TechNet. He will add more memory to the server. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. He will use disk striping. Since the problem does not occur due to high network usage. He will add another processor to the server. Answer: B Explanation: Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory. B. This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B. What is %Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a computer.com rtK ille r. David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk time70% What will he do to enhance server performance? A. To overcome this. Answer option A is incorrect. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance.

But some hardware may have been missed during the installation. Network client software D.certkiller. By setting a jumper on the motherboard B. All the required hardware has been installed on John's computer. has recently added John's computer as a part of the network. none of them will work. full-time connection to a network. So this is the problem of missing network interface card in the computer. or Slave. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. Network device driver C. John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. But due some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. QUESTION NO: 442 "Slay Your Exams" . Network interface cards provide a dedicated. due to which John is unable to connect to the network. Networking protocol stack B. By adding an add-on card Answer: B Explanation: You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. If two drives are attached to one controller. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. QUESTION NO: 441 Answer: D Explanation: As the question states. Network interface card rtK Edward Inc. Which hardware is missing? ille r.com 182 Ce A. By changing the CMOS setting D. Slave.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 440 How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system? A. By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive C. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network.c om . one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave.www.

He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive.certkiller. he must use at least two 25 GB DAT drives. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup. Therefore. If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom implement to accomplish this task? A. Answer option B is incorrect. B. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. B. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations. Answer option C is incorrect. ille r. Answer: B Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . the other takes over the job.com rtK Explanation: Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server . Tom configures the server with a 25 GB DAT drive. he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. everyday. QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster? A. D. He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do so as the DAT drive runs out of space. it is unnecessary to purchase two DAT drives. Answer option D is incorrect. so that he can take a full backup every night using all three drives. and a differential backup every night.c om Answer: A 183 . It prevents viruses from corrupting user data. The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. It is not possible to take a full backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. so that he can take a full backup every night using both drives. C. D. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives.www. C. the other shuts down automatically. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive. Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem. Backing up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will increase the administrative burden. the other node provides resources.

PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express.. The audio/modem riser (AMR). Answer option D is incorrect. AMR Answer: A Explanation: PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers. is an expansion slot. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems.90 analog modem. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. There is no such slot as DMR. CNR C. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. a virtual server name. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam In a two-node cluster. such as sound cards and modems. Reference: "http://en. PCI-X B. Visually there is no such similarity. on an expansion card. It is a double-wide version of PCI. which is used to access and manage the cluster. making a total of 46 pins. and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. also known as an AMR slot.wikipedia. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel.c om 184 . Answer option D is incorrect. In case of a bottleneck on a node. the other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio devices. multi-channel audio. Answer option C is incorrect. if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. PCI-X has been replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express. the other takes over the job. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from being corrupted by viruses. commonly abbreviated as PCIe. It supports V.org/wiki/PCI-X" QUESTION NO: 445 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe? A.www. but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation and uses the same protocol. phone-line-based networking. and Athlon personal computers. Answer option B is incorrect. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. running at up to four times the clock speed.e. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe.com rtK ille r. DMR D. Pentium 4. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality. It has two rows of 23 pins each.

The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT) to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.D. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition D.D Explanation: Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect. The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing. A DLT tape drive and its driver B. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 B.certkiller. Sun Solaris 9 ille r. What will he need in order to accomplish the task? A.com rtK A. A DAT to DLT converter and its driver Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Windows 2000 Server C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition C.c Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing. Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition B. QUESTION NO: 446 Answer: A. Choose all that apply. A. om 185 . Mac OS X Panther E. Sun Solaris 10 D.C. Mark wants to restore data from an older DAT tape. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4 Answer: A. Choose two. Due to a substantial loss of data. QUESTION NO: 447 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.www.E Explanation: The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect. The company's network has a server that is used for backup purposes.

Answer option C is incorrect. The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders.C Explanation: You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). It has data transfer rates of up to 2.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC. which stores hardware configuration of the computer. There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. A DAT driver D. Del D. A DAT cartridge is a little larger than a credit card in width and height.com 186 Ce A. Choose two. If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration. heads. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task. and sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). The DAT tape can support data transfer rates of about 2 MBps. you can change the configuration of your computer using a menu driven application. DATs are sequential-access media. the hardware is checked according to the CMOS configuration. In CMOS. Answer option A is incorrect. Using the DAT tape drive. If a user forgets the password for CMOS "Slay Your Exams" . Digital Audio Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. Ctrl + Alt + Esc B. the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. In CMOS. Shift + Alt +Del rtK ille Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. There is no need of a DLT tape drive. A DLT drive is faster than most other types of tape drives. It can hold up to 24GB of data. the computer configuration can be changed using a menu driven application. It is 0.c om .www. Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based setup programs to change the CMOS settings. QUESTION NO: 448 Answer: A.certkiller. BIOS issues a warning. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor.5 MBps. r. When the computer is booted. as it cannot read a DAT tape. Ctrl + Alt + Shift C.5 inches wide and the cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB. Answer option B is incorrect. It is a chip installed on the motherboard. Mark also needs a DAT tape drive. Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. A DAT tape drive and its driver Answer: D Explanation: In order to restore data from an old DAT tape.

Today most UPS are of the SPS type. Line conditioner UPS C. However. The time required to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6 milliseconds. DB-9 Answer: A Explanation: To take advantage of bi-directional printing.www. the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over time. Choose two. IEEE 1394 C. To remove the password assigned. Offline UPS B. he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. he will have to short the CMOS jumper. on some new motherboards. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS. True-online UPS D. instead of shorting the CMOS jumper. Typically. If the main power varies outside the range.D . bi-directional cables "Slay Your Exams" . The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing? A. A. rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 449 Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a load and the battery is always being charged. IEEE 1284 B.certkiller. and a correctly configured port.c om Answer: C. you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant printer cable. the user can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam configuration. a bi-directional printer. The True-online UPS has continuous load on the battery. RS-232 D.com 187 Ce Explanation: Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby while the main power is within an acceptable range.

QUESTION NO: 451 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.C. QUESTION NO: 452 How many devices. traditional PC storage devices. Answer option B is incorrect. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI RAID storage unit with a new Web server. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. excluding the SCSI adapter. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Choose three. on the back of a PC used for connecting mouse. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up.D Explanation: The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. D. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss. It is a 9-pin. Which of the following practices will keep the system working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option B is incorrect. It is also known as serial port.certkiller.c om 188 . A.www. B. and other serial devices to the personal computer.232 ports. modem. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Answer option C is incorrect. and handheld devices. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam have the number 1284 printed on them. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. also known as COM ports. two rows. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. Answer option D is incorrect. A DB-9 connector is used by the serial interface. C. serial ports. or RS.com rtK ille r. male connector. Answer: A. does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support? A. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on.

You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the "Slay Your Exams" . Processor: %Privilege Time C. System: Processor Queue Length Answer: D Explanation: The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU. and SCSI-3.c om . 15 C.microsoft. SCSI devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.com 189 Ce rtK ille r. Reference: TechNet. The System: System Calls/sec counter is a measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services.www. Reference: "http://technet. Processor: %Processor Time B. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Answer option A is incorrect. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with device numbers ranging from 0 to 7. Answer option C is incorrect. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. 7 Answer: B Explanation: A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices.aspx" QUESTION NO: 454 Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration. Answer option B is incorrect. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy servicing requests. These partitions use the FAT file system.certkiller. System: System Calls/sec D. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations.com/enus/library/cc768048. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI-2. Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has a 16-bit bus. 4 D. Contents: "Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]" QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU? A.

www. D. What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended partitions with logical drives. striped volumes (stripe sets). or dynamic spanned volumes. Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk. Article "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 455 Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A. mirrored. According to the question. It can also contain spanned. B. RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity). respectively. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. Installing heavy equipment as near as "Slay Your Exams" . B. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. There is no such option to upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. D. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives.certkiller. Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all Windows-based operating systems.C Explanation: It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. It cannot be accessed by MS-DOS. Answer: A. and RAID-5 volumes created using Windows NT 4. the existing partitions on the basic disk become simple volumes on the dynamic disk. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets). C. Windows 2000 Server Manual. There is no such facility to break stripe set with parity. It can only contain volumes created through Disk Management. Windows 95/98. dynamic striped volumes. Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes. Choose two. you want to change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set. Answer option B is incorrect. or spanned volumes (volume sets) become dynamic mirrored volumes. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort? A.0 or earlier. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of equipment in the server rack. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam dynamic RAID5 volumes. dynamic RAID5 volumes. striped.com 190 Ce rtK ille r.c om . Answer: D Explanation: On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. and any version of Windows NT. C.

or parity data. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan the location of hardware in the server rack. RAID is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. Answer option A is incorrect. and it is therefore suitable for simplex communication such as broadcasting.com rtK ille r. hard disks.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other equipment on the upper side of the rack. DVDs. the better. the lower the CAS latency. either during the process of transmission. to a message. B. The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number. either during the process of transmission. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency? A. or on storage. D. a back-channel is not required in forward error correction. In general. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks. placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of the rack. and RAM.certkiller. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www.c om 191 . Moreover. Installing heavy equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the equipment. It is a system of adding redundant data. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission of the data. Answer: B Explanation: Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in lower-layer communication. Answer option D is incorrect. or on storage. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. An ECC (errorcorrecting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data. to a message. as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. C. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. or parity data. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins.

DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam as in RAID 0. SMTP Answer: B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite.org/wiki/CAS_latency" Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address? A.certkiller. RAID 1. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: "http://en. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email messages between servers over the Internet. Reference: MSDN. PC3200 and PC3500 and faster. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite.c om QUESTION NO: 457 192 . This array distributes data across multiple disks. but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. and the heights may vary. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. ARP C. Contents: "Test IP-addressto-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP". Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data reliability or increased input/output performance.www. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a total of 184. FTP B. When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology. SNMP D.com rtK ille r. A DIMM slot is larger than a SIMM slot.375" long and 1. 184-pin DIMMs are 5. 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon systems.wikipedia. Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins.375" high. etc. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary. which allows users to manage the network. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). they are said to be in a RAID array. Answer option A is incorrect. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. PC2700. Answer option C is incorrect.

B. 2 B. CD drive B.0" QUESTION NO: 459 A. You can connect devices such as hard disk drive. Reference: TechNet. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. Slave. SCSI devices. You can configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers. SCSI-2. and hard disk drive. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master.certkiller. Hard disk drive E. Choose all that apply. Modem Answer: A. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. CD-ROM drive. Contents: "Performance Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4. B. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 458 How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel? A.c om . ille r. Contents: "Storage Management Operations Guide" "Slay Your Exams" . SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. or Slave.D Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive. and SCSI-3. Sound card D. none of them will work. and C are incorrect. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. to an IDE channel. Answer options D. tape drive. An IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. etc.www. Reference: TechNet.com 193 Ce rtK Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 7 Answer: A Explanation: An IDE channel can support two devices. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. 4 D. Tape drive C. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. first as a Master and second as a Slave. 3 C. If two drives are attached to one channel. and Cable Select types of jumper settings.

IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly.. the destination host responds with a series of replies. On receiving the packets. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.certkiller. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly.www. What is the ping utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 460 Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply? A. of a networked computer. such as IP address. Answer option A is incorrect. PING D. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. incoming and outgoing data. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Answer option B is incorrect. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. subnet mask. TRACERT C. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.com rtK ille r. Contents: "Chapter 3 .c om 194 . default gateway etc. References: TechNet.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . NETSTAT B. Answer option D is incorrect. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration.

This helps administrators to isolate the problem there. PING C. TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. NETSTAT B. Answer option C is incorrect. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is. Answer option B is incorrect. and determine the registered names and scope IDs.certkiller. NBTSTAT D. update the NetBIOS name cache.www. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Reference: TechNet. Answer option A is incorrect. incoming and outgoing data. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. TRACERT Answer: D Explanation: TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.com rtK ille r.c om 195 . The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. On receiving the packets. the destination host responds with a series of replies. Contents: "Chapter 3 .

D. Answer: B. Since. RAID 3 C. B. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID 5 F. RAID 1 B. QUESTION NO: 463 Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. a large amount of data is divided into identical portions. It does not provide fault tolerance.E Explanation: RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity). RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 462 Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. are the two RAID levels which support fault tolerance. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. It provides fault tolerance. It also provides fault tolerance. Choose two. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks.0 implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. in a striped volume. RAID 2 D.certkiller. Choose two. Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB. RAID 0 Answer: A. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does "Slay Your Exams" . Striped volumes are not fault tolerant.www.D Explanation: Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks. RAID 4 E. RAID-0 volumes are also referred to as striped volumes.c om . Answer options A and C are incorrect. C. it is faster to read or write the data from a striped volume than from a spanned volume.com 196 Ce rtK ille r. A. If a portion of a physical disk fails. The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. A.

TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Time Domain Reflectometer C. Mark will have to use a LAN analyzer. You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam not support fault tolerance.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem. One morning. QUESTION NO: 464 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.com rtK ille r. LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis. What will you do to improve the server's performance? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. The company's network has a database server. QUESTION NO: 465 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. users report that the network has become quite slow. Answer option D is incorrect.www. It reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a humanreadable format. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of an electrical current in amperes. Ampere meter B. Files on the remote computers are taking a long time to open. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. The server's performance is decreasing day by day. Voltmeter is an instrument for measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit. LAN analyzer D. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. Answer option A is incorrect. The server is also responding slowly to database queries. Which of the following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card? A. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to troubleshoot the problems. Answer option B is incorrect. Voltmeter Explanation: In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network. This device is also known as packet sniffer.c om Answer: C 197 . Mark examines the network and suspects that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm.

However. Reference: "http://en.c om 198 .25" and so on. in the question. the value is 35. Answer option A is incorrect. there is no need to change the network card.wikipedia. as the Pages/sec value is quite high.45 mm ) high.5). Adding more RAM to the server will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. 7U B. 2U is 3. Hence. 6 x1. Therefore.5 inches space is available in existing rack. The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard. A rack unit is also known as U. 3U is 5. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the server's memory. Which of the following is the maximum size of the server that can be installed into the rack? ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310. The problem is due to shortage of RAM. Add one more microprocessor. Answer option B is incorrect. This suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. D.5 inches space available. Change the network card with a high speed card. 4U D. B. QUESTION NO: 466 Answer: D Explanation: A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack.org/wiki/Rack_unit" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1. Add more RAM. 6U rtK Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server. An existing equipment rack in the server room has only 11. another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard. the maximum size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i. Answer option D is incorrect.www. Hence. According to the scenario. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task. 11. One rack unit is 1.e.75 inches ( 44.75 = 10.5".75". Reboot the server.com A. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing rack. The Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. 9U C. C.certkiller. Answer: C Explanation: The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem. Therefore.

You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted system files is preventing the computer from starting. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers. or installation of incompatible drivers or system services. What is Network Monitor? Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers.certkiller. The Alert. Which tool will you use to resolve this problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Monitoring errors. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for networking and NTFS partition on their disks. keyboard. Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used.com rtK ille r.www. One of the users complains that his Windows 2000 Server is not starting. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD Chapter 17 . Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. over time. A. such as mouse. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Network Monitor can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes. which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. over time. It bypasses blocking issues. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. View. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000 operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system. Recovery Console is used by the Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems without installing a second copy of the operating system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 467 Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide. Choose two. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. etc. offering a variety of products and financial services. Recovery Console D.c om 199 . Performance Monitor Answer: B. Save counter and object settings for repeated use.C Explanation: Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem on the operating system files. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.File Systems QUESTION NO: 468 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Network Monitor B. Safe Mode boot C. such as system corruption. enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.

certkiller. Choose two. Answer: A. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room.www. B. Direct the incoming traffic to more trustworthy internal computers. SRAM is used for main memory. Install a firewall on the server. What is the function of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om . A firewall can also perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. Put a lock on the door of the server room. D. C. SRAM is used for cache memory. A. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet. Answer: A. B. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room.B Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. and provides centralized access control on how users should use the network. It is used to separate an internal network from the Internet. Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. SRAM is faster than DRAM. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. Contents: "Chapter 3 . It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds.com 200 Ce rtK ille r. Reference: TechNet. Lock the server on the server chassis. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. A.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 469 Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer options D and B are incorrect. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM. Log "Slay Your Exams" . Choose all that apply. What is a firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from coming in or going out of a specified network or computer. Unlike DRAM. D.C Explanation: The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the door of the server room. C.

2. while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15. 7 = highest E. 7 = lowest C.D Explanation: SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. A.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 470 In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. such as computer names. 3. 1. and internal user IDs from external users. 4. 9. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. 15. 11. 13. SCSI IDs are split into two groups. SCSI devices. with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. 14. network device types. 8 = lowest B. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Higher ID numbers have higher priority. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. 8 = highest F:1 = lowest Answer: A. 5. Level 4 C.com 201 Ce rtK ille r. network topology. Therefore.c om . Level 1 Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . 10. QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor? A.www. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Level 2 D. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0 to 7. 12. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. and SCSI-3.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam traffic to and from the private network. Hide information. Choose all that apply. SCSI-2. 8. 6. 1 = highest D. Level 3 B. SCSI IDs determine device priority on a SCSI bus. SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority. 0.

Answer: A. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. A network device has failed due to power surge. Hiring more employees C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor. There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and level 4. Contents: "Chapter 3 .170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. B. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. rtK ille r. so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. Ohm B. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache. Adding more RAM to the server D.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Hertz D. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Answer option D is incorrect. Ampere hours Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" .c om .com 202 Ce Explanation: Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more employees A new application is installed on the server.C QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery? A. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer options B and A are incorrect. A.www.B. A new application is installed on the server. Reference: TechNet. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Choose all that apply. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.certkiller. Volt Ampere C. The failure of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline.

crisis communication and reputation protection.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery. and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. C. B. communications (such as networking) and other IT infrastructure. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 474 Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? A. and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity. facilities. D. hardware. When replacing the monitor. Ohm is the standard unit of electrical resistance. Volt Ampere (VA) is a measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster recovery plan. Hertz is a unit of frequency. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down. Answer option A is incorrect.www. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer. QUESTION NO: 475 Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade? A. Answer: A. Answer options C and D are incorrect.c om 203 .B Explanation: The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. B. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard. When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications. Ensure that the plan works properly. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. Answer option B is incorrect. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process. The ampere hours (AH) is the unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery.certkiller. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel. data. policies.com rtK ille r. D. Ensure that the plan works properly C. Answer option C is incorrect. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of current for one hour.

The new configuration will not work. D. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.c om . What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. on the motherboard. Since the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast SCSI tape drives. CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following "Slay Your Exams" . He runs a performance test on one of the servers of the network and finds the following statistics. it will operate only at Ultra speed. SCSI-1.com 204 Ce rtK ille r. These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2 SCSI speed. What will be the technician's answer? A. it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. Answer options B and A are incorrect. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed.certkiller. C. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended speed. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. In this situation. and SCSI-3. SCSI has three standards. QUESTION NO: 476 Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on his computer. A. SCSI-2.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. Andrew does not want to replace the existing tape drive. Answer options B. B.www. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed. QUESTION NO: 477 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. and D are incorrect. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. He asks the technician about compatibility issues. SCSI devices. an upgrade of BIOS is required. Answer: C Explanation: The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam objects has a bottleneck? A. Network subsystem B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: D Explanation: The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 478

A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory. B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory. C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor. D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory. Answer: D Explanation: Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory. When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

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What does zero wait-states indicate?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 479 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully. What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. B. Re-install the operating system on the computer. C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port. D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. Answer: A,D Explanation: In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace addon cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed. Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.

QUESTION NO: 480

Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Preferred DNS server address B. Internet connection sharing C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway D. Network address translation Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 206

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems, ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 481 What is the full form of ESD? A. Extended System database B. Electrostatic Discharge C. Electrostatic Disk D. Enhance System drive Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 482 Which type of memory chip has 168 pins? A. SIMM B. DIP C. DMA D. DIMM Answer: D Explanation: The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM) "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 207

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Explanation: The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that charge.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 483

Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length. B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping.

Explanation: SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 208

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A. Striped. and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended. These partitions use FAT file system. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. Type TELNET on the command prompt. and click TELNET. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. and facilitates remote administration. The company's network has Windows 2000 and Unix servers. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories. B. to access files. Reference. But you are unable to do it. offers the ability to run programs remotely. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000? A. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk between conductors. Type TEL on the Run dialog box. and click Terminal. D. and RAID5 volumes "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: A.c om . Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt. C.wikipedia. "http. ille r. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Striped. As an Administrator. Parallel ATA (PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps.//en. The new disk has no file system. You are not logged on as an Account Operator. C. you want to extend the existing striped volumes since the amount of existing data is large.org/wiki/Serial_ATA" QUESTION NO: 484 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.certkiller. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 485 Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration. Choose two. It uses TCP port 23 by default. D.B Explanation: The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote Windows 2000 server. B. mirrored. A volume can be extended only if it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. mirrored.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are all ground lines.www.com 209 Ce rtK Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client.

wikipedia. FAT32. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data center is harmful for the equipments. and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes. Currently. file system is the overall structure in which files are named. "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center? A. Water (H2O) Answer: A. and data centers.com rtK ille r. It is chemically known as heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent. many industrial chillers used it as an efficient refrigerant gas. Halon 1301 is dangerous for environment and health. It is used around valuable materials. What is file system? In an operating system. Carbon dioxide (CO2) B. such as aircraft.B.c om 210 . What is NTFS? Reference. Before the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known. mainframe computers.certkiller. and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data center. libraries. Halon D. It is an effective gaseous fire suppression agent. use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. FM-200 C.org/wiki/FM-200" QUESTION NO: 487 Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller. Contents. gaseous halocarbon. FAT. and NTFS are the different types of file systems. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive. stored. and organized. "http. TechNet. odorless. B.C Explanation: Halon. production equipment. Where will you place the terminators? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam cannot be extended.//en. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive.www. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . carbon dioxide (CO2). You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. Reference. and data centers. What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to Halon 1301. and telecommunication switching centers. It can be used as a fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment. Answer option D is incorrect. What is FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless.

Answer option C is incorrect. Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. om . It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI has three standards. B. QUESTION NO: 488 Answer: B. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of information in lesser time. Choose two. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended "Slay Your Exams" . It allows faster access to BIOS information. you should place one terminator at the end of each drive.www. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60. ille r. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-toanalog converter on a video card. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. SCSI-2. When you configure shadow RAM. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive. SCSI-1. SCSI devices. D. E. Shadow RAM allows faster access to BIOS information.certkiller.c Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller.100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Place one terminator at the end of each drive. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. C.com 211 Ce rtK A. internal and external. Answer: D Explanation: If you have two SCSI devices. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks.D Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. This allows faster access to BIOS information. and SCSI-3. D.

TechNet. and D are incorrect.INI.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions.Setup Technical Discussion" QUESTION NO: 490 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a server? A. But. 2 C. QUESTION NO: 489 Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup? A. The BIOS software is stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard. Hard disk Answer: B Explanation: When you start a computer. 4 B.www. The first instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk. or AUTOEXEC.INI D. the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer. AUTOEXEC. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. BOOT. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware. 3 D.c om 212 . SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. BOOT. BOOT. "Chapter 5 .BAT B. and allows the operating system to communicate with the various components of the computer. ROM BIOS C. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer options C.certkiller. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. also known as the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. What is BOOT. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. 1 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed.INI file? BOOT. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer. A.com rtK ille r. Reference.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Unlike DRAM.BAT file. Contents. BOOT.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam memory for use by other programs.

You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem. but lower writing performance. The key difference from RAID 1+0 is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. RAID-0 and RAID1 require a minimum of two disks. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next step to resolve this problem? A. Re-install operating system D. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. Check the server's subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" .www. data is kept on two physical disks. in case a disk in the set fails. Due to data redundancy. What is RAID5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. In mirroring. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. Answer option C is incorrect. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. the data on the RAID system is lost.com 213 Ce rtK ille r. It provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. also known as disk striping. Reference. It contains a minimum of three disks.c om . Answer option B is incorrect. "http. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. If a disk fails. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. Validate physical link integrity C. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. The array continues to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 491 You work as a Network Administrator. but to a set of disks. Just before noon. Pinging the remote access server resulted in proper response. but if the drives fail on both sides of the mirror. a remote access server is disconnected from the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. The final disk contains the parity information.wikipedia. Data once lost cannot be recovered.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. Purchase a new server B.//en. In this disk system. Re-installed TCP/IP protocol. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks. It does not provide data redundancy. Re-installed the network interface card driver.certkiller.

nothing will appear on the screen. you receive the following message. Answer option C is incorrect. What is the most likely cause? A. The display card is faulty. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty.certkiller. C. To select an active partition. TechNet. If the display card has a problem. and re-installed the network interface card driver. The only problem is that the remote access server is disconnected from the network. If the computer has faulty RAM. Reference. validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is no problem with the operating system. it will hang up the computer frequently. Contents. choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's main menu. Answer: D Explanation: This message "NO ROM BASIC. so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. when you restart the computer. The subnet mask cannot change automatically. Now. Answer option B is incorrect. B. Windows 95 is not installed properly. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365] QUESTION NO: 493 HOTSPOT Mark the ST connector in the image given below. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP address. SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active partition. Err Msg When Booting System. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam To resolve this problem. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk. The hard disk has no active partition. QUESTION NO: 492 You purchase a new computer. You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard disk.c om 214 . "NO ROM BASIC. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts.com rtK ille r. you install the Windows 95 operating system. and display a blue screen.www. So the broken physical link or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from the network.

RESTART SERVER -na Answer: A Explanation: The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user.www. "Slay Your Exams" . RESTART SERVER -ns D. DOWN -f B. and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber. ST. Which of the following commands will he use? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: Explanation: QUESTION NO: 494 Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6. He wants to shut down the server immediately without being prompted. SHUTDOWN -p C.c The image displays the following connectors. A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber.certkiller.5mm shaft and bayonet locking ring.ncf file. Answer option B is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup.com 215 Ce rtK ille r. om . There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. An ST connector has a 2.5 server. Answer option C is incorrect.

DNS server D.com rtK ille r. etc. Reference.//en.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option D is incorrect. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. This may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites. the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally. thereby greatly reducing the access time. Index server Answer: B Explanation: A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval. Cache memory B. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Answer option D is incorrect. requiring no user input and minimizing demand on system resources. IP address-to-host name mappings. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites. Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the request to a real Internet server. DHCP server B. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance the performance of user requests and filter requests.certkiller. A proxy server has a database called cache where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network. and to locations within Web pages. "http.ncf file. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers.wikipedia. Proxy server C.org/wiki/Proxy_server" QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory? A. Indexing maps words to Web pages. The next time such pages are requested. Once installed. A proxy server exists between a client's Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval? A. information about the domain tree structure. Answer option A is incorrect. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. The index process occurs behind the scene. Answer option C is incorrect. Virtual memory Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It contains host name-to-IP address mappings.www.c om 216 . it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from any Web browser with the sample query forms.

Answer options C and D are incorrect.www. Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]" QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . TechNet. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. 6xx C. "Chapter 3 . Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. so that the processor can access this information without delay. NT. TechNet. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. It is also known as level 1 cache. "IBM PC.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 497 r. XT. Reference. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to keyboard. AT. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. RAM D. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video. Contents. Answer option B is incorrect. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM) are not used for internal memory.c om 217 . Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. 2xx D. Hence. Contents. ROM Answer: A Explanation: The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. 3xx Answer: C Explanation: Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. 5xx B.Capacity Planning" Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory? A. Answer option A is incorrect. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes.certkiller. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98.

events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log.www. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. and a users list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. a system log. the computer will not read the operating system file through the floppy disk drive. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Answer: A. He inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer. For example. A. The system log is used to store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. and C are incorrect. There is no need to create an application backup. If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect. There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. D.com 218 Ce rtK Andrew works as a computer technician. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer option C is incorrect. The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition. Performance baseline C. The active "Slay Your Exams" . System log B. A. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. Users list D.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. Choose two. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Answer options D.D Explanation: A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons. The floppy disk drive should be cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. C. The event types logged by system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system. What can be the likely causes for this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. Application backup Answer: B Explanation: An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. If boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first.c om . This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. He finds that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. It helps administrators measure server performance. ille QUESTION NO: 499 r. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty.

etc. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam partition has nothing to do with this issue. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer. QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking computer? A.www.c om . In this model. it is known as a PING attack. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Spoofing C. Contents. caller ID. A. email address. Reference. all the computers act as both clients and servers. PING attack D.D Explanation: A peer-to-peer network model. It is a protocol. A SYN attack affects computers running on TCP/IP protocol. also known as workgroup model. chatting on-line. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity. all the computers act as both clients and servers. so that users can share printing resources and files. It does not support centralized administration. B. SYN attack Answer: B Explanation: Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. Answer option C is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network.com 219 Ce rtK ille r. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. This model does not support centralized "Slay Your Exams" . However. provides a way to connect a small group of computers. etc. "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 501 Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. It provides user-level security. In IP spoofing. Choose two. TechNet. Hacking B. It provides centralized administration. In this model.level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable. C. Answer: B.certkiller.

It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager. Which of the following can you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.D Explanation: You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan.com rtK ille r. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager. The full backup backs up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created. Incremental. B. Choose two. Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data.www. TechNet. Daily full backup Answer: C. Full and differential backup D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . or have changed since the last full backup. as compared to full backup or incremental backup.c om 220 .certkiller. Choose two. and Differential Backups [Q136621] QUESTION NO: 503 Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system. Description of Full. The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new. A. A. The differential backup is the fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive. It needs only one tape to restore data. QUESTION NO: 502 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. There is no backup method such as decremental backup. Answer option B is incorrect. The domain-based network model provides centralized administration and user-level security. Full and decremental backup C. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup. Full and incremental backup B. You plan a backup policy for the network dat a. While working on multiple applications. Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager. since the last incremental or full backup. C. one of the applications hangs. Reference. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Contents.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam administration or provide user-level security.

Extended DMA D. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC.D QUESTION NO: 505 Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: B. By pressing CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. Direct Memory Access (DMA) B.D Explanation: The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.c om 221 . Network Optimizer D. Choose two. Performance console C. Ultra DMA Answer: A. A. it is not the correct answer option. and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0. A. ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards. QUESTION NO: 504 Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Task Manager Answer: B. Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist.certkiller. You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) C. Pressing CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager.www. "Slay Your Exams" . The Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel.B.D Ce Explanation: The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are.com rtK ille r. Disk Manager B.1 and 2 are supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA. Choose three. and therefore.

A. What is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. Chapter 27 . 5 MBps C. It provides detailed information about system's performance. Boot files. This information can be used for troubleshooting and analysis of bottlenecks. Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps. Answer option B is incorrect. 160 MBps D. What is Performance console? Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. Answer option C is incorrect. System state data C.www. Following are the files included in the System State data. 80 MBps B. ille r. Answer option D is incorrect. Choose two. Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps. It is used for an immediate overview of system activity and performance. Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps. Reference.c om .C Explanation: System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility.certkiller.com 222 Ce rtK Explanation: The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps. Microsoft TechNet CD.Overview of Performance Monitoring QUESTION NO: 506 Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000. Microsoft SQL Server files B. Application files Answer: B. including the system files and all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only) SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster "Slay Your Exams" . System boot files D. 4 MBps Answer: A QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

Contents. Which of the following backup strategies will he implement to accomplish this task? A.certkiller. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.00PM. "Types of Backup" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. a differential backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. Answer option D is incorrect. "Windows Product Family". "Manuals". He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays. "Windows NT". James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the last full backup. He also wants to minimize the number of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. Answer: A Explanation: What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. In case of server failure. B. "Windows NT Server". He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend. D. or are new. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. One of the servers named Server1 is configured for a daily full backup at 5.www. Reference. Performing full backup on weekdays will not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. On weekdays. TechNet. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. It needs only one tape to restore data.c om 223 . Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Answer options B and C are incorrect. The company has a Windows NT based network consisting of four Windows NT servers.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration information Component Services Class registration database QUESTION NO: 508 James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. C. A full backup takes maximum time and space. since the last incremental or full backup. James should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. In case of server failure.com rtK ille r. "Concepts and Planning Manual" Chapter. "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. James has to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup.

a set of pins on the hard disk drive.c om . The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. What is Plug and Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 509 What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed? A. and both are set as Master . B. D. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. Slave. Configure hardware ID C. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first determines the available system resources and then configures the new device. and Cable Select settings. It checks the processor's internal cache. Reference. or both are set as Slave . none of them will work. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive. TechNet. B. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip.com 224 Ce rtK ille r. Answer: D Explanation: At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card. D.www. Place a terminator on the IDE controller. Each IDE drive must support the Master.certkiller. C. Contents. and device drivers. "Slay Your Exams" . Which settings are important on the IDE drives? A. It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then configures the new device. you have to set one drive as the Master and the other as the Slave. "Guided Tour for Administrators" QUESTION NO: 510 You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE controller. The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by jumper. Master and Slave jumper settings Answer: D Explanation: If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation. If you have two IDE drives in your system. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. you should install it with the Master setting. It reads a device driver for the card. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). on the motherboard.

It can connect to a network running on IPX. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . PPP D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 511 Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection that uses the L2TP protocol? A. TFTP C.www. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. with the functionality of a very basic form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation. Answer option D is incorrect. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. IPSec B. The initial stages of some network based installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart. Answer option C is incorrect. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). PPPoE Answer: A Explanation: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium. TCP/IP. or NetBEUI protocol. QUESTION NO: 512 How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port? A. such as IP phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any other thin client boots from a network host or server.c om 225 . It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network. TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of memory.certkiller. TFTP uses UDP port 69 for communication. 8 B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. such as a single DSL line or cable modem.com rtK ille r. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. Answer option B is incorrect. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage devices.

It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. SEC C.com 226 Ce rtK ille A. 64 B. also known as Slot 1. 1 Answer: B Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. 256 D. AMD Athlon processors use Slot A. "Chapter 13 . USB 2. "Upgrading and Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents. "USB Technical Details" QUESTION NO: 513 Answer: B Explanation: Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). Socket 7 r. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. 16 "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 514 How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors? A.www. Microsoft. Reference. Socket 8 B. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. and Northern Telecom.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps.I/O Interfaces from Serial and Parallel to IEEE.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. Intel. tape drives. IBM. A single edge connector (SEC). USB supports hot plugging. whereas USB 2. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. such as CD-ROM drives. Slot A D. USB 1. is similar to an expansion card.1.c Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor? om . NEC. DEC. scanners etc. 32 C.1394 and USB".certkiller. Pentium processors use Socket 7.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. keyboards. Answer option C is incorrect.

to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. An I/O address is an event.certkiller. RAID 6 D. The CPU needs a memory address. RAID 0 C.c om 227 . IRQ. D. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. which requires processor's attention. Resources such as I/O addresses. 128 Answer: B Explanation: Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. its I/O address. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 516 Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives? A. C. IRQs. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. QUESTION NO: 515 Which of the following statements about I/O address is true? A. RAID 5 Answer: C Explanation: Ce Explanation: I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.www. RAID 1 B. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer.com rtK ille r. The Intel 486 series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus. An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory location. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64bit data bus. "Slay Your Exams" . Whenever a component. B.

Answer options D and A are incorrect. but lower writing performance. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume.www. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. If a disk fails. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. but to a set of disks. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. Answer: C Explanation: A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply.//en. B. Reference. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is rebuilt. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks.wikipedia. In mirroring. Sag is a brief decrease in "Slay Your Exams" . These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. Answer option B is incorrect. RAID 6 becomes increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the failure of a single drive. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. It does not provide data redundancy. especially for high availability systems. the longer the rebuild will take. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges. In this disk system.c om . It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source.com 228 Ce rtK ille r. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. The overloading of a primary power source can cause brownouts. Due to data redundancy.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. also known as disk striping. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance.certkiller. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The larger the drive. This makes larger RAID groups more practical. It provides fault tolerance from two drive failures. Answer option A is incorrect.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 517 Which of the following statements is true about a brownout? A. D. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. data is kept on two physical disks. The final disk contains the parity information. It contains a minimum of three disks. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. in case a disk in the set fails. "http. Data once lost cannot be recovered. The surge protector is a device used to smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources. C. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk.

FTP C. By typing MONITOR at the server console.com rtK ille r. RESTART SERVER -na D. Mark can use the MONITOR tool. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. NSSMU is the interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation.ncf file.www. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage.c om 229 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam voltage at the power source. Users on the network report that the file server responds very slowly. using battery backup. Answer option B is incorrect. The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. DARPA B. Answer option D is incorrect. MONITOR Answer: D Explanation: In order to diagnose the issue. QUESTION NO: 518 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. while the computer gets normal power. Answer option A is incorrect. The MONITOR tool is used to view the operational status of the server memory and disks. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) Ce "Slay Your Exams" . consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems? A. the problem can be diagnosed. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue? A. EDI D. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. QUESTION NO: 519 Which of the following is an error detection technique. It also provides protection against power surges. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility (NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. When power surge occurs. NSSMU B. Using this information.certkiller. DOWN -f C. The company's network has a file server with a Novell Netware operating system. Answer option C is incorrect. the administrator can view the operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files.

The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to repair a RAID redundancy group. Mark will have to ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly? r. it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. Answer option C is incorrect. A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication QUESTION NO: 520 A. when ARPANET was built. DARPA stands for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency. the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of data for transmission. One of the hard disks fails in the array. and the receiving modem transmits a negative acknowledgment. the hot spare disk is switched into operation. Answer option A is incorrect.com 230 Ce rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA). and then replace the failed disk from the array. The application protocol offers file service in the Internet suite of protocols. and then add this disk to the RAID5 array. Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually. B. When the receiving modem gets the data block. "Slay Your Exams" . A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID configuration. it goes through the same calculation.c om . The company's network has a file server that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. Answer option B is incorrect. When a disk fails. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. Answer: A Explanation: In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives. is computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon formats and networks. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link level and used for detecting errors. and then copy data from the backup. the second CRC value will not equal the original one. Contents. thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk. C. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. Replace all the disks of the array.certkiller. D. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices. RAID-5.www. Reference. If there is a transmission error. recreate a RAID-5 array. If these two CRCs match. TechNet. such as RAID-1. and then replace the failed disk from the array.

Answer option C is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. Full duplex B.www. the destination host responds with a series of replies. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive. TechNet. Answer option C is incorrect. "SMTP. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. default gateway etc. as all but one are working properly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID-10. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. Read. slow performance etc. This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. of a networked computer. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Answer option B is incorrect. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.c om 231 . IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. PING B.certkiller. Protocol Analyzer C. such as IP address. Contents. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset [Q100706]" QUESTION NO: 522 Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive. Reference. QUESTION NO: 521 Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network? A. On receiving the packets. IPCONFIG Answer: B Explanation: Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and diagnose network related issues such as. Err Msg. or remove and replace a failed disk drive. subnet mask. without shutting down the system? A.. Answer option A is incorrect. TRACERT D. Hot swap C. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. ReadyBoost Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system.certkiller. Answer option A is incorrect. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. Answer option D is incorrect. What is differential backup? Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Which of the following backup policies will you choose? r. QUESTION NO: 524 Ce A.c om 232 . Plug and play Answer: B Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. This is because in the event of data loss. devices. you will have to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. you should perform a full backup every Friday. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday D. You are developing a backup policy for the company and want to accomplish the following goals. A differential backup every night "Slay Your Exams" . Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and network cards. Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and receive data simultaneously. QUESTION NO: 523 Answer: C Explanation: In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data. Answer option C is incorrect.www. or remove and replace a failed device. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista. A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily C.com rtK ille You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The number of tapes required to back up data should be minimized. and device drivers. The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized. Using this technology. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the number of tapes required to restore data. It is faster as compared to full backup. which helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday B. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. It requires minimum space to backup data.

WebService1 uses the .Threading.NET Framework security class libraries to implement security.com 233 Ce rtK ille r. which controls the power supply. These two classes can be used to prompt users for "Slay Your Exams" . named WebService1. The 20-pin plug can only plug in one way. ATX C. Answer options D and A are incorrect. Sam wants to ensure that only validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords in TextBox controls. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code. DIN Answer: B Explanation: ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch. These changes were made to improve efficiency and safety. He wants to implement imperative security check on WebService1.c om .certkiller. Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector.D Explanation: The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal. using System.Security.www. He creates an XML Web service. DIN is a type of connector. WindowsIdentity B. Answer option C is incorrect. An ATX motherboard has a logic switch. QUESTION NO: 525 Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with each other to create an authorization scheme. The GenericIdentity class represents a generic identity. GenericIdentity D. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the Subordinate role by default. I/O B. A. Choose two. AT motherboards are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch. which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake. I/O stands for Input/Output.NET. ATX motherboards have had several modifications on the electrical side. WindowsPrincipal C.Principal. using Visual Studio . I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards. GenericPrincipal Answer: C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following supports soft power on switch? A. named Text1 and Text2. using System. AT D. It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server database containing user names.

These are the most widely used networks now-a-days. The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. The number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using category 5 UTP cable. The company's offices are in different buildings within a local premise. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use? "Slay Your Exams" . It is used when the requested action and permission attributes are static. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of permissions. 100 meters D. Reference. class. It is used when security decisions are to be taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime.c om 234 . Answer option A is incorrect. and to create principal and identity objects.NET Framework class library. "WindowsPrincipal Class". "GenericIdentity Class". It can be isolated within an object or method. or member level.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam their user names and passwords. It cannot be used to check the group membership of a user.www. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable. 2000 meters Answer: C Explanation: The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet. Declarative security check provides optimized runtime execution of the application. The topology used in these networks is star. "GenericPrincipal Class" QUESTION NO: 526 A.certkiller. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke specified security functionality. What is declarative security check? Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in metadata. as it checks the declarative information in the metadata. to check these values against a database.com rtK ille r. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect the offices. 5) Ce You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. which is used to check the Windows group membership of a Windows user. What is imperative security check? Imperative security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being protected.NET Combined Collection. It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code. These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request. 1000 meters C. and can be placed at the assembly. Visual Studio . The maximum cable segment length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters . The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user. required in a given execution context. "WindowsIdentity Class". Contents. 200 meters B. Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. Answer option B is incorrect. WindowsPrincipal is a class of the .

D Explanation: RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a server contains a redundant data set. A disk or its access path fails. What will be the first step you will take to improve performance? A. Answer option B is incorrect. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server. Install and use a tape backup unit B. Add more RAM. The company's network has a file server with the following configuration.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 527 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. There is no need to add an additional NIC on the server. C. Choose two. Add a tape drive. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. Therefore. Hence. B. A sector on the disk cannot "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Answer: D Explanation: As the first step. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Adding a tape drive will not provide better performance. as a database server generates less traffic on the network as compared to a file server. D. Add an additional NIC. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. QUESTION NO: 528 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option A is incorrect.c om . A. which is sufficient for a database server. having a single processor can be a bottleneck. The server has 1GB RAM. Install UPS systems on all important devices D.com 235 Ce rtK ille r. you should add an additional processor on the database server. Use data encryption C. full-time connection to a network. Add an additional processor. processors are used extensively for data processing. In a database server. Install a RAID system Answer: A. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration of data if either of the following occur. Answer option C is incorrect. there is no need to add more RAM.www.

Full D. Answer option B is incorrect. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Choose two. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. A. it does not set the archive bit. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental. TechNet. Reference. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration.e. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup.certkiller. which was backed up on the tape. Contents. Contents. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Differential Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Incremental Answer: C.c om 236 .com rtK ille r. since the last incremental or full backup. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. A.www. Windows maintains a marker. or are new. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. When a file changes later.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam be read.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. QUESTION NO: 529 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. for each file. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. Choose two. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. Differential C. i. Answer option A is incorrect. Sequential B. Reference. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. A tape backup can help by giving back the data. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 530 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. TechNet. Sequential B.. "Description of Full. earlier. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up.

Incremental.0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide" Ce You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3.e. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CDROM drive. Contents. There is no backup method such as sequential backup.c om 237 . "Description of Full. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Full D. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup.0. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up.certkiller. D. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4.0 are. it does not set the archive bit. C. Contents. You must run CONVERT. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. SCSI. EIDE. TechNet.0. 12MB RAM VGA level video support Keyboard IDE. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. Answer option A is incorrect. since the last incremental or full backup. TechNet. "Windows NT 4. Windows maintains a marker. i.. You must run CONVERT. Reference. Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor.www. B. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS. or are new. How will you proceed? "Slay Your Exams" . floppy disk drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Answer: D Explanation: Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4. It needs only one tape to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. for each file. "Hardware requirement" + "Workstation". What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS. Answer option B is incorrect.51 to Windows NT Workstation 4. Incremental Answer: C.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup.com rtK ille r. You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 531 A. or active network connection Reference. When a file changes later. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up.

B. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server. C. running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its performance. The server has become slow after three months of working due to fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card.certkiller. and the total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below. Therefore. D.c om 238 . file data is written in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. Increase the paging file size on the file server. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. Due to fragmentation. The server responds slowly while users try to open their files. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 532 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. After three months. it takes a longer time. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard. however. it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files. file data breaks into discontiguous fragments.www. contiguous files. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data. Over time. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. The company's network has a file server.com rtK ille r. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What will you do to improve the server's performance? A. When this utility is run on a computer. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. the performance of the server has deteriorated. unmovable files. Answer: D Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 533 On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at startup. In which file will you define this? A. BOOTSECT.DOS B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOT.INI D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C

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As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed, and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months. This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes. NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system. Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000 startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"

Answer: A

Explanation: Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this issue.

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A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected B. The failover server's IP address C. The primary server's IP address D. The DNS server on the network

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source D. Installing an application from an unreliable source Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.

QUESTION NO: 536

Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. BNC T connector B. The BNC terminator C. RJ-45 connector D. BNC barrel connector Answer: A,B,D Explanation: BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable. The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

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QUESTION NO: 537 Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media? A. Failover clustering B. Datafile striping C. Storage area network (SAN) D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) Answer: D

Explanation: Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations. Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

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Which of the following utilities will you use? A. the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000. REGEDT32. Incorrect use of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer.EXE C.www. Therefore. it is suggested that you either save a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the configuration data. % Disk Time D.EXE B.0 [Q155267]" Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available? A. Answer option A is incorrect.EXE are installed during the setup of Windows 2000.EXE and REGEDIT.certkiller. it is recommended that you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools. HARDREG. Contents. The Registry Reference. Note. TechNet. % Free Space B. "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 538 You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000 computer. REGEDITOR.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000 computer. Current Disk Queue Length C. The Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were performed on the disk. Disk Writes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available.c om . REGEDIT. Answer option C is incorrect. Although both REGEDT32.EXE is not recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode. REGEDIT.EXE Answer: A Explanation: You should use the REGEDT32. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array. Answer option D is incorrect. But if the registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings. "Registry Editors Installed by Windows NT 4.EXE D.com 243 Ce QUESTION NO: 539 rtK ille r.

4740473b-b335-0d221994f685.//www.certkiller.www.c om 244 .mspx?mfr=true" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object.com rtK ille r.microsoft. "http.com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c. Reference. It is a counter of the Logical Disk object.

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