CompTIA SK0-003

SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

Practice Test
Version 3.2

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 1 Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. FTP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server's manufacture website Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms? A. Excessive cooling B. Dust buildup C. Poor ground wires

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Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SDLT Tape drive Answer: B QUESTION NO: 14 An administrator is adding memory to a server. B.com rtK ille r.www. SATA hard drive C. D.certkiller. Blu-Ray drive D. Load new tapes D. Load differential tape B. Compact flash drive B. Verify backup C. The memory is not installed in the correct slot. The memory is not the correct speed. Wet floors Answer: B QUESTION NO: 12 Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process? A. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A.c om 5 . Perform a full backup Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity? A. Once the system boots up. The memory does not have the correct timing. the same amount of memory appears as before the upgrade. C. The memory is not the correct CAS latency.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.

com 6 Ce A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives. The error states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error? "Slay Your Exams" . D. Once the server in turned back on. the administrator notices that the memory has not changed. Decreases overhead Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16 An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. Reset the memory chips. 288GB B. All drives are attached to a RAID controller. B.c om .www. Smaller initial investment B. How much usable disk space will this array have? rtK ille Answer: B r. Update the BIOS. Upgrade the server OS QUESTION NO: 17 A. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5 array. C. The system board website says the board should accept the new amount of memory. 432GB D. Replace memory chips with known good memory chips. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? A. 360GB C. 728GB Answer: C QUESTION NO: 18 A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer. Doubles memory requirements C. Higher simultaneous thread processing D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is an advantage of SMP? A.certkiller.

Group policy "Slay Your Exams" . Remote management cards D. B. D. Ask the user to reboot their PC. C. WSUS B. Implement an access control list (ACL). Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the administrator. D. D. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall? A.certkiller. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.com 7 Ce rtK ille r.www. The user's account was removed from Active Directory. C. which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft environment? (Select TWO) A. Reboot the file server. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 21 After a virus outbreak. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80.c om . B. C. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem. Implement an application exception. The computer was disjoined from the domain. Terminal services C. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory. which step should the administrator take FIRST? A. To troubleshoot this problem. The user typed in the wrong password Answer: C QUESTION NO: 19 A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they had been working on all morning. Implement port blocking on port 80.

D QUESTION NO: 22 An administrator has been having problems with server security.certkiller. Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid OS exploits? A. C. RAID 0 D. Implement stronger user passwords. Enhanced security Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Many of the servers have been infected with viruses in the past. Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS). Enhanced stability B. Answer: A Answer: B QUESTION NO: 24 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO) A. B. D. RAID 5 B. Implement a patch management process. Which of the following RAID levels would provide the FASTEST performance? r. Lower cost E.c QUESTION NO: 23 om 8 . Higher number of available component choices D.com rtK A. RAID 1+0 C.www. Implement a dual-factor authentication method. RAID 1 ille A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. SNMP Answer: A. Vendor supported C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam E.

c om QUESTION NO: 26 . Proxy server Answer: D Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0? A.com 9 Ce QUESTION NO: 27 rtK ille r. Hardware compatibility list Answer: D QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can be used? "Slay Your Exams" . A. Domain controllers D. Local workstations B.www. SMTP gateway F.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 25 A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be retained for no longer than three years. High fault tolerance B. Server baselining tools C. Server build checklist B. Architecture diagrams D. No configuration Answer: C Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. Email server E. Which of the following locations should an administrator configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE). Ease of failure recovery C. High performance D. Backup tapes C.

B. D. each device. C. Shared bus topology D.com rtK ille r. E. the first device. Failover site Answer: B QUESTION NO: 29 An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS).www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Battery needs to be replaced B. Smart cable is disconnected D. Light switch is turned off C. Point-to-point bus topology Answer: D QUESTION NO: 31 When installing external SCSI devices. terminators are required on: (Select TWO) A. UPS needs a firmware update Answer: A QUESTION NO: 30 Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X? A. the SCSI adapter. Warm site D. the last device. the server's parallel port.certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Cold site C.c om 10 . Hot site B. Height of the card C. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Sensitivity to background noise B.

Verify full system functionality.c A. Default domain policy B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 33 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 34 A. Serial D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process? A. D. C. File share properties Answer: B QUESTION NO: 35 Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack into an installation when the media does not include the service pack? A. B. IEEE 1394 B. Implement the change. Test the theory to determine the cause. SCSI C. Group Policy C. Root cause analysis.www. Disk Management D. SATA om Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem? 11 . Templates Ce Which of the following tools restricts device installation? "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r.certkiller.

Press F6 "Slay Your Exams" .3v slot available. x8 PCI Express Card Answer: A. Half Height. Which of the following cards can fit in this slot? (Select THREE) ille r.3v PCI-X card C. 3. Half Height. PCI-X 3. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 37 A.c om .D. Define a test server group.www. Slipstreaming Answer: D QUESTION NO: 36 An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an internal SLA. C. RIS C. Half Height. Full Height. Universally Keyed PCI card G. Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation. Define a test server group. install the patches and if successful schedule installation on production servers. Half Height.com 12 Ce rtK A server has a single. Half Height. Universally Keyed PCI card B. Ghost D. Universally Keyed PCI-X card F.3v PCI card E.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. 3. Full Height.certkiller. Install the patches during a non-working hour. B.E QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a Windows installation? A. schedule installation on production servers and then install all updates and patches. D. half height. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task? A. x16 PCI Express Card D.

Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? ille r. Blade servers allow for more RAM Answer: B QUESTION NO: 40 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 41 An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server.www. C. Press any key D. The system POSTs fine and the NIC is recognized by the OS.com 13 Ce A. The NIC is not on the HCL.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives B. The driver is incorrect on the server. Blade servers offer more rack density C. Install the latest hard drive firmware rtK An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage.c om . Press ESC C.certkiller. The administrator powers up the server. The patch cable has not been seated properly. Press Alt+F8 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server? A. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? A. B. C. during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the drive lights flash. D. "Slay Your Exams" . but it does not receive an IP address. Check the backplane cabling. Update the RAID controller firmware. B. Check the server BIOS. Blade servers are typically faster D.

The server's firewall is misconfigured. RAID 10 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 44 An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. RAID 0 B. The administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. RAID 6 D. The NIC is not seated properly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. C. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 42 Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network? A. After bringing the system online. SATA Answer: C QUESTION NO: 43 Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible? A.c om 14 . customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server. SAS B. D.www.certkiller.com rtK ille r. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly. The customers continue to report issues. B. The web server was not installed properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. RAID 5 C. The company firewall is misconfigured Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . iSCSI D. SCSI C.

com 15 Ce Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip? rtK ille r. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity? A.certkiller. Active/active cluster C. Perform a root cause analysis. C. This array will store transaction logs that are always being written. xD D. DNS round robin Answer: D QUESTION NO: 46 When an administrator is troubleshooting a system. Establish a new theory of probable cause. Implement the next logical change.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 45 When load balancing traffic between two web servers. DDR Answer: B QUESTION NO: 48 A new storage array must be configured for a database server.c om . L1 C. which of the following describes the NEXT course of action if a change does not solve the problem? A. B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 47 A. Reverse the change. D.www. RAID 0 "Slay Your Exams" . which of the following technologies provides the LOWEST cost solution? A. Active/passive cluster B. EDO B. Log shipping D.

Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date.certkiller. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem? r. C.0/24 subnet "Slay Your Exams" .0/24. Full control can only be set using share permissions.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP server. D. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server. A DHCP server is available on subnet 192.com rtK ille A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192. Assign the workstation a static IP address. File permissions are less granular than share permissions.0/24.168.0/24 subnet. Ce A.100. Add a DHCP server to the 192. File permissions are more granular than share permissions. RAID 6 D. RAID 3 C.101.168.0/24 subnet. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 50 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share permissions? A. Full control can only be set using file permissions.168. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 49 An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on every server. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem? A. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP.100. C. B.101. D. C. Add a DHCP relay to the 192.www. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board. Add a second DHCP server to the 192. B.100.168. D.168.c om 16 . B.

www. D. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server. C. The administrator tries again.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 52 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server.com rtK ille A.certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. C. mail protocol. DNS D. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 55 Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server Answer: A QUESTION NO: 53 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 54 SMP is considered to be a form of: A. the install fails. and the installer fails again. monitoring protocol. When the administrator runs the patch installer. multi-processing. D. DHCP C. WINS r. mapped printer.c Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file? om 17 . B. B. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install. FTP B.

D.com rtK ille r. Riser cards QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO) A. Shroud D. Heat sinks Answer: D. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic.certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Expansion cards D. Motherboard B. Clone the machine from a template Answer: B QUESTION NO: 57 Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary B. Baffle E. All expansion cards stop working simultaneously. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained. C. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN. No physical hardware to setup C. Operating system C. Riser cards B. Native RIS integration D.c om 18 . Answer: A QUESTION NO: 56 Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use? A. Remote configuration B.E Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Water cooling C.

ECC B. L3 cache operates faster than the system processor B. Tape library B. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 59 Which of the following BEST describes a DAS? A.www.c om .com 19 Ce Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement? rtK ille r. C. RAID C. B. Registered Answer: A QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache? A. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns.certkiller. "Slay Your Exams" . A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached technologies D. Optical jukebox D. SAN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 61 A. L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 60 Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company LAN? A. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network. C. NAS C. Pairing D.

certkiller. -a C.c om 20 . Extreme humidity variances C. 3 B. 5 D.www. -r B.com rtK ille r. -n Answer: B QUESTION NO: 66 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus. 4 C. -v D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure? A. 10 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65 When running a Windows server. Power stability fluctuations D. Extreme temperature variances B. Excessive dust accumulation Answer: D QUESTION NO: 64 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array? A. which option is used with the ping command to convert numerical addresses to host names? A.

Determine the correct power requirements Answer: D QUESTION NO: 69 A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN.www. Corrupted print spooler software B. Memory leak in one of the print drivers C. but can connect by IP address. an administrator must ensure which of the following? A. /release D. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Verify the change control process can be implemented D.c om 21 . /all Answer: D QUESTION NO: 67 Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a certain type of printer. An administrator verifies that the user can successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel B. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Memory leak in the print spooler Answer: D QUESTION NO: 68 After a server has been installed into a rack. /flushdns C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the functionality of a DHCP server? A. The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns. The disk drive is out of free space D.certkiller. /renew B.com rtK ille r. The system is labeled so that it can be identified C. Other users are not having a problem.

The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power. Peer-to-Peer Application Server D. Examine the Imhost file. Dedicated Application Server C. C. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . 1-16 C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate. Flush the cache on the DNS server. File and Print Server ille Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program? r. The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs. 1-7 B. B. 0-7 D.com rtK A. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs. Examine the hosts file Answer: A QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter? A.c om 22 .www. Distributed Application Server B. C.certkiller. Flush the cache on the WINS server. 0-15 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 71 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)? A. D. D. B.

the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high level of activity. Disk Utilization C.c om . A.E Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default? A.com 23 Ce QUESTION NO: 75 rtK ille r. SODIMM B. System Temperature D. DDR3 D.msi D. Page File B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 73 Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed? A. SDRAM C. Processor Utilization E. .certkiller. Network Utilization Answer: B. Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools? (Select TWO).Ini C. Fan "Slay Your Exams" . .www. . During the investigation.exe B. DDR2 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 74 Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly. .dll Answer: C QUESTION NO: 76 Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis? A.

Multicast B. Installation CD ille Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the following? r. CUPS D. Active/active cluster D. DNS round robin Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK A. Differential C. Full D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Shroud D. Radiator Answer: A QUESTION NO: 77 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data? A. Heat sink C. GFS Answer: C Answer: B QUESTION NO: 79 Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high availability between two web servers with static content? A.certkiller. PXE support C. Active/passive cluster C. FTP server B. Incremental B.www.c QUESTION NO: 78 om 24 .

Set NTFS permissions Answer: B QUESTION NO: 82 A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following? A.c om 25 . Loss of storage data D. Which of the following is the FIRST place the administrator should look for specific information about the problem? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 80 An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the server and begins the troubleshooting process. The supporting documentation B. The Internet D. The server event logs Answer: D QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple shared drives? A.com rtK ille r. some open files were corrupted on one affected file server. Decreased performance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 83 An administrator notes that after a recent power outage. The vendor website C.certkiller. Local policy D.www. Configure individual user accounts B. Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine the cause of this corruption? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Logon scripts C. Increased heat output B. Damage of the hardware C.

Add another DHCP server. individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues. Change the default gateway of the wireless router Answer: D QUESTION NO: 85 A. Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following would resolve this issue? A. Document the change D. Implement the change C.com 26 Ce rtK An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server. B. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next? ille r. Use rack specific cabling hardware B. Channel all power cables down the sides.c om . Since implementing the new network. Disable the wireless DHCP server. The server's memory B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. which of the following is BEST practice? A. The server's NIC teaming configuration Answer: A QUESTION NO: 84 A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. D. Identify necessary operating system updates B. C. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers C. and all network cables down the center D.certkiller.www. Add another wireless access point. Schedule system down time Answer: A QUESTION NO: 86 When cabling a rack. The server's RAID controller battery C. The server's processor D. The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into production.

A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to increase processing power and overall performance D.com 27 Ce rtK ille r. Take a differential backup while the server is online. B. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to enhance performance. SNMP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 88 Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment? A. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online. D. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 87 Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations? A. NTP B.c om . DNS D. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 90 "Slay Your Exams" .www. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 89 An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server. C.certkiller. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online. C. Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage. DHCP C. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore? A. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher availability. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline.

4 C. B. Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives. Update the time and date in the BIOS. Which of the following is the FIRST thing that the administrator should do? A. Notify staff of the potential service outage. D. 8 rtK How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable? ille r. UDP C. Update the firmware to the latest version. C.www. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows? A. 6 D. TCP B.com A. D. C. Evacuate all personnel. Configure IPMI on the new board. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 28 . B. 3 B. SNMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 92 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 93 An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. TFTP D. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 91 Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol? A.certkiller.

Unchanged C. Partitioning utilities D. B. Tape restore utilities B. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy.certkiller. Set D.com rtK ille r.c om 29 . Imaging utilities C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 94 A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate web page as their default home page.www. Array management utilities Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. Deleted B. C. Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 95 After performing a copy backup of a file server. Copied Answer: A QUESTION NO: 96 Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been replaced? A. Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon. Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure compliance. the archive bit on the backed up files will be which of the following? A. Which of the following methods should an administrator use to BEST comply with this policy? A.

"Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Incremental C. Weekly. Striping with dedicated parity C. Final. Partial.www. Incremental Answer: C QUESTION NO: 98 RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following? A. Server manufacturer D. Shareware file sharing site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 100 An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second Windows server. Operating system manufacturer E.com 30 Ce While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server. Third-party manufacturer B. Differential. Daily D. the system administrator has determined that the video firmware should be updated. Mirroring with striping B. Independent disks with shared parity Answer: B A. Monthly. Full. Which of the following sources should be used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO). Greatest. rtK QUESTION NO: 99 ille r. Full. Video chipset manufacturer C. Which of the following describes this backup method? A. Striping with distributed parity D.c om . Sequential B. Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 97 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. WMI B. RIS C. DNS D. SNMP E. SMTP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS? A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order B. Power being lost during the upgrade process C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 102

An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Corrupt file system table B. Backplane failure C. Multiple drive failure D. Bad cable Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 103 Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity? A. SAS B. SATA C. Flash D. SCSI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files? A. GFS B. Full C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106

A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the problem? A. IP address is classful. B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address. C. IP address is a subnet network address. D. IP address is classless Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107 An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 32

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures. B. Review the system logs to check for errors. C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline. D. Apply all security updates to the system. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108 Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram? A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 110 Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes? A. Proper labeling B. Asset management C. Keeping good vendor logs D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs Answer: A

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A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. Fiber channel E. PAT A

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Which of the following are ways to transport SAN traffic? (Select TWO)

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 111 In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive operation? A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position. B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive. C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1. D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 112 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices? A. MIBs B. SMTP C. WMI D. DHCP Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113

A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to determine the problem? A. Loop back plugs B. Power supply tester C. System logs D. TDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 114 When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

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certkiller. DAS D. ECC E. Signed drivers D. Third party cables B. FAT B.www. FAT32 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select TWO) A. SAN C.com rtK ille r. EXT3 C.c om 35 . NTFS D. Registered memory D. Third party memory C. Server type Answer: A QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber channel? A. Memory RAID C. Chipkill B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. JBOD B. NAS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following file systems are native to *nix? A. Hot spare Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

com rtK A. D. when the server is booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer. C. Hard disk failure ille r. Format command B. B. Virtual Center Answer: C.certkiller. Computer Management D. Memory failure D. Which of the following is the BEST solution to address this problem? A.www. The administrator powers up the server and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. CPU overheating C. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented. Disk Management E. The current system configuration should be documented for future use. Which of the following is the cause? om 36 . however. Hypervisor C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 118 An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version. A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized.c An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue. From which of the following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO). Redundant power supply failure B. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 119 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 120 A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server.D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A.

D.com 37 Ce After applying a new driver to a NIC. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA? A. Reinstall the operating system Answer: B A. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver. B. Restore the server using last backup tape. Try to replicate the problem C. then striping of the disks? A. press F8 and access last known good configuration. Flash the BIOS D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first. Boot the server. Virtual machine components "Slay Your Exams" .www. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 122 A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. New Technology File Systems (NTFS) B. C. the server reboots and fails to restart. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve the problem? rtK QUESTION NO: 123 ille r.c om . RAID 6 D. Digitally signed device drivers C. RAID 1 B. Boot the server with ASR option. Reseat all main components B. Which of the following steps should the technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem? A.certkiller.

Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive C. D. Install a second UPS. Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes E. Enable compression on the LTO2 drive B. Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO). Multiple RAID configurations Answer: B QUESTION NO: 125 An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape. Excessive network traffic ille Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity? r. PCI bus D. Install an extended battery pack into the UPS Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. Increase the size of the swapfile. A. Inadequate RAM B. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.C QUESTION NO: 126 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 127 A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully. The administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next Answer: A.com rtK A. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully? A.c om 38 . Reduce the amount of data on the backup D.www. Slow processor C. Increase the size of the pagefile.certkiller.

Clean the servers to limit dust buildup C.com rtK ille A. Higher cost Answer: D QUESTION NO: 131 Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off? A. Plug and Play Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Physical Adapter D. FC Initiator B. Poor performance B. Replace the server fans r. No fault tolerance C. Replace the rubber mats in the server room B. Fibre Target Management Agent Answer: C QUESTION NO: 129 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 130 Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10? A.certkiller.c om Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed every three months? 39 . Multi-Mode fibre C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 128 Fibre channel requires which of the following elements? A.www. Wash the outside of the servers D. Not supported by many RAID controllers D.

C QUESTION NO: 133 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 134 A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. Install redundant NICs Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Increase the amount of RAM B. E. A device connects to another device without involving the processor. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor Answer: A. Hot plug D. Which of the following components should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network? A. Warm site C. VPN B. A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory. Add a hardware firewall D. Use a lower voltage power supply C. Telnet D. Remote Desktop rtK ille Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the OS crashes? r. A. D.certkiller. B. C.c om 40 .com A. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor.www. KVM over IP C. A device transfers data directly to the memory. Hot site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 132 Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.

Full and differential C. Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only requires two backup sets to recover the system? A. Firmware update D. Which of the following should the server administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job? A. Full and incremental D. Baseline Answer: C QUESTION NO: 136 A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company policy.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a server? A. B. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library Answer: D QUESTION NO: 137 Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays.certkiller.com rtK ille r. IPCONFIG /release C. D. Currently. Reduce the amount of data to be backed up.www. Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive. C. Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB. and daily backups are done the rest of the week. Incremental and snapshot B. Differential and incremental Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . the server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive. Defrag B.c om 41 .

172. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem? A.www. 10. Striping with parity B.c om . Striping with mirroring C.certkiller. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive B. Data security policies and procedures C.168. 192.15. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive D. The system administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the previously taken baseline. Which of the following should be considered FIRST? A.76 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 139 A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired.1 C.11.31.100. 172.40 B.16. Mirroring D. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use of system resources.254.100. Striping Answer: D QUESTION NO: 141 A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions Answer: B Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0? A.1 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is a public IP address? A. Add additional RAM to the user PC "Slay Your Exams" .com 42 Ce rtK QUESTION NO: 140 ille r.

B. rtK ille An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server. Multi-processing C. When the server is running POST the controller does not appear as present. Multi-threading Answer: B QUESTION NO: 143 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 144 A system administrator needs to maintain 1. The server hard drives have not begun to spin.c om . RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs B. There are six 250GB drives available in the server for storage space. Which of the following could be the reason for this? r. RAID 5 across all 6 drives C.www. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors? A. Dual processing B.com 43 Ce A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Which of the following describes this capability of the processor? A. Multi-tasking D. RAID 0 across all 6 drives "Slay Your Exams" . The server does not have the correct drivers.certkiller. Troubleshoot the user PC C. D. Add additional hard drive space to the server Answer: B QUESTION NO: 142 A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time. Add additional RAM to the server D. C.2TB of storage for a database server. The server has too little memory installed. RAID 10 across all 6 drives D.

RAID implementation B. Disk-to-disk replication C. Before installation C. Hot site replication Answer: D QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only determining factor? A. RAID 5 D. Prior to purchasing hardware B. Server-to-server clustering D. After installation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 147 At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly? A.www.certkiller. RAID 1 C. When installing drivers D. RAID 0 B.c om 44 .com rtK ille r.

this backup site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. Warm site C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache Answer: B QUESTION NO: 150 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 151 An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. Differential backup B. Mirroring with striping B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache B. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor D. Mirroring with fault tolerance C. Hot site B. Incremental backup Answer: C QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following defines memory interleaving? A. Striping with distributed parity ille Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10? r.c om . A backup site must be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable. It must contain equipment and the ability to restore data from the data center. Striping D. Snapshot C. Active failover site "Slay Your Exams" . The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank C. VSS D. To reduce costs.www. Cold site D. Which of the following site types should be considered to meet these requirements? A.com 45 Ce rtK A.certkiller.

c om QUESTION NO: 153 . B. SCSI Answer: C QUESTION NO: 154 According to best practices. Full B. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Apportion additional storage.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers? A. Apply all relevant updates and patches. ATA-2 D. SAT A C. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration. SATA-2 B. Tape backup Answer: C Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector? A. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 155 A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time. C. Disable the Guest account. D. which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a newly installed Windows Server OS? A. Incremental D.com 46 Ce rtK ille r. Disk imaging C.

B. install DHCP service. Remove the floppy drives from the system. ille In a workgroup. D. Constantly check the task manager C. authorize the server.c om 47 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 157 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors within System Properties in a Windows Server? A. Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment.www. Monitor processor performance logs B. Multicore C. all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT r. B. C. Symmetric multi-processing D. D. Establish a baseline for the server Answer: D QUESTION NO: 156 Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors? A. Use performance server logs D. activate the scopes.com rtK A. Hyper-V Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . configure the scopes.certkiller. RISC B. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel. C.

com rtK ille r. Set folder permissions to full control Answer: B QUESTION NO: 161 A server is having problems booting into the operating system. Firmware updates C. The cache is from a different manufacturer C. The socket size does not match B. Application logs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 162 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Set folder permissions to 770. System logs B. C. POST messages D. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user on the IT directory? A.c om 48 . Set folder permissions to 760. Which of the following is the BEST reason why this upgrade will not work? A. The processors do not match D. The only processor that is available from a manufacturer is a 3.0GHz 2Mb cache model. B. Set folder permissions to modify D.0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket.certkiller.www. the administrator verifies permissions are set for the directory. Which of the following can provide important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 159 A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed Answer: A QUESTION NO: 160 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory. The server currently has a single 3.

Review manufacturer manual. Virtual Center D. Disable the device using Device Manager.com rtK ille r. Reboot the server. the fastest storage device available in the system. an external USB 1. Which of the following should the administrator do prior to escalating the issue? A.c om 49 . B. the operating system partition. C.certkiller. but has not determined the cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. Hypervisor B.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache. Reboot the server. Perform a root cause analysis Answer: D QUESTION NO: 163 In order to provide the lowest access latency. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . uninstall the driver. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 164 Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. D. logon in Safe Mode. Gather information from users. C. D. Host OS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically? A. Run the disable command.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server. C. the optimal place for the system swap file is on A. B.www. Guest OS C. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system. B. a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache. D.

Ultra2 SCSI B. DHCP B. Ultra320 SCSI D. An administrator wants to test that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address.certkiller. DNS D. Which of the following tools would allow the administrator to test name resolution? "Slay Your Exams" .c om . To increase the number of threads C. To allow more email to come through Answer: C QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds? A. To monitor use of VPN traffic D. To eliminate excessive alerts B. RARP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 169 Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites.com 50 Ce rtK ille r. ARP C.www. SAS Answer: C QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. SAT A C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds? A.

Which of the following is the BEST solution to accomplish this? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 172 A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS: A. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. ipconfig C.com rtK ille r.c om 51 . Second CPU C.www. does support multipath I/O. Install a PBX card. dig D.certkiller. Second HBA D. always uses an IP address to access data. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . never uses an IP address for network connectivity D. C. Second Modem B. Install a fail-over cable. Second PBX card Answer: D QUESTION NO: 171 An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server. B. C. net view B. B. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit. ifconfig Answer: B QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP server? A. Install a second NIC card. is attached to a local disk controller.

C.com rtK ille A. Configure netsh settings in case of backup B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 173 A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they have grown. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC system? A. Restart the server C. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence.c Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP on the server? om QUESTION NO: 174 52 . B. Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables B. Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first.certkiller. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 176 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Notify users D. Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance. D. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST once the power is restored? A.www. Uninstall TCP/IP r. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours D. Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers Answer: B Answer: D QUESTION NO: 175 A data center has had a power outage. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks C.

The ports on the switch C. AAAA Answer: B QUESTION NO: 178 QUESTION NO: 179 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. Default gateway B. 68 Pin SCSI Connector.www.com rtK Click on the Exhibit button. Daily B. MX C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all necessary data in the LEAST amount of time? A. A B. Which of the following connectors is image D? ille r.certkiller.c om 53 . Incremental C. Low Density "Slay Your Exams" . Normal D. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 177 Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email? A. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. Ethernet cable Ce A. Port security on the server's switch port D. PTR D. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot. 80 Pin SCSI Connector B. High Density C. High Density D. 50 Pin SCSI Connector.

com rtK ille r. a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the items that have been moved. In the interim the administrator is moving several archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server file shares. C. The manager is a power user on the temporary server. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A.c om 54 . D. The drivers for the printers are failing. B. The manager is an administrator on the temporary server Answer: C QUESTION NO: 181 A mail server keeps shutting down. C. The spool folder is not on the C drive. After the move. B. Power supply fan B. The temporary server was formatted as NTFS. Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The administrator gets an error message over temperature error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST? A. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32. A network printer was disconnected. The spool folder is full. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 180 A Windows file server has run out of space. Heat sink D. D. CPU fan C. The administrator reviews the server and the print service is started.certkiller. Case fan Answer: B QUESTION NO: 182 An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing.www.

certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 183 A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server running Windows Server 2003. D. Copy D. the DHCP server must have configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO). Convert the filesystem to EXT3. "Slay Your Exams" . The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB. Cooling fan switch D. Power switch C. Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this? A. Convert the filesystem to VMFS. Incremental C. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 186 For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP. Snapshot B. C. Chassis intrusion switch Answer: D Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous full backup? A. B.com 55 Ce QUESTION NO: 185 rtK ille r. This file needs to be saved on the server. Convert the filesystem to FAT32 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 184 A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of the following purposes? A. UID switch B.c om .www. The administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. Convert the filesystem to NTFS.

C.www. Web server E.certkiller. D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . DHCP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a service on a company server? A. FTP D. DNS B. B. Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access. DHCP C. WMI B. SNMP D. Subnet mask Answer: A.E QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor details on page counts? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Implement anti-virus software on the server. MIB Answer: D QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses? A.com rtK ille r.c om 56 . Implement anti-spam software on the server. Implement ACLs. SNA server C. WINS C. Mail server D. Gateway address B.

c Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance for memory? om . NIC teaming C. Registered memory C. RAID B. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected that the disk queue length is high. Clustering B. ECC D. OSPF D.www. Add more memory to stop paging to disk. Increase the amount of virtual memory. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 193 "Slay Your Exams" . Add a faster processor. Memory pairing ille r.certkiller.com 57 Ce rtK A. B. Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation? A. C. D. VLAN tagging Answer: B QUESTION NO: 191 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 192 An application server is running slowly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 190 A server is configured with two network cards. which of the following load balancing techniques should be used? A. Add more disk drives. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at the same time without assigning more than one IP address.

Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load B. Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage. Differential backup Answer: A A. System image B. Verify if server consumes 220V C. Partitioning management Answer: D QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data? A. Attach a USB drive to one of the servers. CHKDSK C. RAID array management B. B. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective solution to add storage to both servers? ille QUESTION NO: 195 r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive? A. C. Verify CPU load Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 58 .www. D. The internal drives are at capacity and the company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before installing new servers? A. Monitoring agents D.com rtK Two file servers have run out of local disk space.certkiller. System state restore D. Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution. Incremental backup C. Add a NAS to the environment Answer: D QUESTION NO: 196 An administrator will replace five current servers.

CD-RW B.certkiller. RAID B.www.com rtK ille r. CAS D. Fiber optic B. ECC C. Thicknet Answer: A QUESTION NO: 199 Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and subsequently fixed? A. Flash Answer: B QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic eavesdropping? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. CD-R C. SDRAM Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Coaxial D. DVD-RW D.c om 59 . Verify if server consumes 110V Answer: C QUESTION NO: 197 Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is WORM media? A. Fast Ethernet C.

Manufacturer's regulations D. Four drives with RAID 3 "Slay Your Exams" . VT D. iSCSI C. HBA Answer: D QUESTION NO: 201 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel? A. NX C. Escalation procedure regulations C. Four drives with RAID 0 B. XD B. Local laws and regulations B.c om .com 60 Ce An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving an error.certkiller. Server OEM regulations Answer: D QUESTION NO: 202 A.www. Hyperthreading Answer: C QUESTION NO: 203 Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance? A. SCSI D. SATA B. Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error? rtK ille r.

"Slay Your Exams" . Disk B. How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup? A. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives. Multiple types of network cards were used. Hardware used is not on the HCL. The environment is outside of the DMZ. 2 B. D.c om 61 . Four drives with RAID 5 D. Tape C.certkiller. B.com rtK ille Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized environment? r. Optical D. Flash Answer: D Ce A. 4 D. C. 3 C. Four drives with RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 204 A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday through Saturday.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.www. 5 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 205 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments? A.

Thursday. and Friday. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded C. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS. To fully restore the server. and Saturday. Four Answer: C Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication? A. C. which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. Two C.certkiller. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . prior to booting into Linux. and differential backups on Tuesday.www. Wednesday. The database will be replicated between multiple servers. D. Cost and performance are the most important considerations.com 62 Ce QUESTION NO: 209 rtK ille r. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support. Too many SCSI devices on one system Answer: C QUESTION NO: 210 An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 207 An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server boots into Windows. One B. Low communication latency B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 208 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. Improper termination D.c om . The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment. The system needs to boot to Windows first. A performance critical application will use this storage space for a database. Three D. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday. B. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. incremental backups on Monday.

www. The administrator finds that whenever a certain user prints the print spooler crashes. The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives D. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 212 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 213 An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on a default Windows installation. The user is using a PostScript driver. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives B. C. account operators.com rtK Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline? ille r. B. remote users. backup operators Ce A. D. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives C. C.c om 63 . server operators.certkiller. Performance Monitor "Slay Your Exams" . Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) C. The printer is not on the HCL. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. Replication Monitor D. System Resource Monitor B. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives Answer: B QUESTION NO: 211 Users are having trouble printing in terminal services.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array? A. D. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to: A. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print. B.

Humidity monitors. Biometrics. uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment. NIC ille Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity? r. Service level agreements.c QUESTION NO: 215 om Answer: D. Setting up a custom community name B. Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161 C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 214 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators when hardware and applications are having issues.E 64 . All devices are configured with SNMP. but the administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. Installing new MIBs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 216 Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new server? A. PBX C.com rtK A. A. fire suppression.certkiller. Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161 D. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices E. VoIP D.www. Cooling. and fire suppression B. Which of the following settings would BEST provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO). HBA B. rack space. Biometrics. and power requirements C. and power requirements Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . and CCTV D.

SQLServer E. Verify correct voltages are being supplied. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration. the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into Windows. Reseat the NIC.com 65 Ce QUESTION NO: 219 rtK ille r. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 217 While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. While powering on the server. Database server B.c om . NTP server C.E. D. and logs in to configure the NIC. DNS server F. D.www.F QUESTION NO: 220 "Slay Your Exams" . Once the administrator opens the NIC properties. DHCP server D. a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues. Use ESD equipment. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode Answer: D When configuring a DHCP server.certkiller. Boot into Safe Mode. C. B. B. which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP users? (Select THREE) A. reboots the DC. C. Domain name Answer: C. Install compatible PCI cards Answer: A QUESTION NO: 218 An administrator installs a driver. Which of the following could be done to prevent this problem? A.

Room temperature D. Fault tolerance and failure recovery B.com rtK ille r. After troubleshooting the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again. C. All IT contact numbers Answer: B QUESTION NO: 221 An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. B. Ease of access Answer: B QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 5? A. Zero configuration and high performance Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Payroll D. D. Emergency exits B. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take? A. Close the issue. Load on UPS B.www.certkiller.c om 66 . Rack temperature C. The test plan C. Implement preventative measures. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue Answer: C QUESTION NO: 222 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation? A. Fault tolerance and zero configuration C. which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Document the outcome.

High performance and fault tolerance Answer: A QUESTION NO: 224 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.com rtK A. Processor failure B. D. Third party memory C. More effective usage of computing resources D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 225 Answer: B. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? (Select TWO). Backplane failure ille r. Disk drive failure D.certkiller. it times out.D QUESTION NO: 226 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment? A. Higher administrative complexity B.www. Increased level of security C. ESD during the upgrade E. Improved performance for users Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . When the administrator restarts the server after the upgrade. om 67 .c An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5. C. B. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.

Higher data integrity B. but not using the central UPS. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an upgrade of the central UPS can occur? rtK ille r. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS. 16GB of memory. C. B. This server has two processors. and verify data. Lower cost of implementation C. D.certkiller. and restore data. and verify data.c om . Restore OS. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . and verify data. but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems.com 68 Ce A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the room and is causing power load problems. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher than stated Answer: B QUESTION NO: 230 There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) software. Additional power is available. restore data.www. B. restore backups. C. Increased performance Answer: B QUESTION NO: 228 Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server? A. Determine backups available. Higher redundancy D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 229 A. Restore applications. D. restore system applications. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 227 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN? A. restore backup data. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error. Contact end users of outage. Continue plugging into the central UPS. and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives.

RAID 1 B. Lighting C. SAS C.c om 69 . JBOD Answer: D QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating environment? A. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function. Temperature B. Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware and move onto software C. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional. Structural columns Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following is the MOST likely cause? A. reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem. Two failed sticks of memory D. Implement one change at a time. B. A failed RAID controller B. SAT A D. which of the following is the BEST course of action to take? A.www. D. Two failed processors C. Two failed drives Answer: A QUESTION NO: 231 When implementing a solution to a problem. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance? A.certkiller.com rtK ille r.

IP KVM E. Add more memory. Incremental D. Remote desktop software B. Telnet session D. Move the page file to a free drive. Delete the file. Full B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.c QUESTION NO: 235 om 70 . Which of the following would BEST resolve this problem? A. C. B. D. Differential C. Dedicated management card C. Database Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Remove the page file from system properties Answer: C Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO) A. The administrator notices that the file pagefile.com rtK ille r.sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space. VPN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 236 A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies? A.certkiller. Elevation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 234 The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server.www.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 237 Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN tunnel? A. Antivirus software version B. Which of the following is the NEXT step? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID 10 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 240 An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC.com rtK ille r. Shutdown delay timing Answer: B.certkiller. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. Battery replacement date C. IP address for network printer E. TKIP C. Wire shelving diagram D.E QUESTION NO: 239 Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the array? A. ISAKMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 238 Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation records? (Select TWO) A. 802.c om 71 . AES B.1q D. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens.www. RAID 3 B.

Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode.com rtK A. The change should be approved by management. B. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline. IP address C. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration. Reboot the server again.certkiller. Disk drive size B. number of files. C. average disk I/O. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change. Acceptable outage time D. D.www. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected. B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 241 All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT A. D. memory usage. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 242 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 243 Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server? A. Operating system version ille Which of the following information would be on a system classification list? r. Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. number of users. B.c om 72 . Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode. D.

Key recovery administrator B. a user encrypts several documents on a shared file server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 244 An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed. System I/O bus Answer: C QUESTION NO: 247 Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list? A. The system memory has different manufacture dates. Backside bus D. B. Trusted root certificate store D. Two of the memory sticks are defective.www. Verifying the OS manufacturers "Slay Your Exams" . That user account is then accidentally deleted. The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory. Root certificate store Answer: B Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. PCI B. Which of the following must be configured in order to decrypt those files? A. D.c om .certkiller. The server is using memory interleaving Answer: C QUESTION NO: 245 In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. the server only shows 1GB of memory during POST.com 73 Ce QUESTION NO: 246 rtK ille r. C. Key recovery agent C. Frontside bus C. however.

NAS D.certkiller.com rtK A. SAN ille Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an iSCSI connection? r. U-size templates B. Consulting with the system manufacturers D. Interviewing system owners Answer: A QUESTION NO: 248 Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly? A. Registered memory C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Baffles D.www. RAID B.c QUESTION NO: 249 om 74 . JBOD B. SDRAM D. Phase changers C. DAS C. Molex connectors Answer: A Answer: D QUESTION NO: 250 Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors? A. ECC Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Locating a hosting facility C.

c om 75 . Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the server data? A. Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem? "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. Diagnostic LEDs D. SCSI drives D. Optical Answer: A QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive? A. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline. Flash D. which of the following can present an environmental hazard? Ce A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array. SCSI backplane C.certkiller. The server OS crashed and the server will not boot.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 251 A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily. Remote management card C. Memory B. Tape B. Firmware update B. and needs to be stored for 20 years. SAN C. Motherboard Answer: C QUESTION NO: 254 When disposing of computer equipment.www. Multimeter Answer: A QUESTION NO: 253 A.

The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files. the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application.com 76 Ce rtK A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 256 A. CRT monitor Answer: D QUESTION NO: 255 An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server. B. Bezel B. SATA cable C. Cat5 cable D. The update has quarantined files that are false positives. The administrator needs to install a patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted. B. C.www. DC server first.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter. Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive B. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive D. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly. C. Which of the following is the BEST way to restart the servers? A. Immediately after the update. then the DC server second.certkiller. D. then the Exchange server second. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 257 Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array? A. Exchange server first. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? ille r. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive "Slay Your Exams" .c om .

certkiller. Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly.com 77 Ce Answer: C rtK A. WORM Answer: C. CD-R D. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? om .www. Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode ille r. there are no drives listed. Online troubleshooting tools B. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 258 Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified? (Select TWO) A.c An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID array. Restart the installation via WDS. Service Level Agreement (SLA) C. SDLT tapes E. Support forums Answer: C QUESTION NO: 261 "Slay Your Exams" . When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive. D. C. Vendor website D. Flash B. DLT4 tapes C.D QUESTION NO: 259 QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware? A. B.

and the drive shows up in Device Manager. the My Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS. Reformat the NTFS partition. Fault tolerance D. The cables are connected. however. USB D. Break mirror array B. PXE C.www. Higher capacity B. D.com rtK ille r. C. Optical media Answer: A QUESTION NO: 264 A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures. the drive has power.c om 78 . Run a check disk on the drive Answer: D QUESTION NO: 263 Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software? A. Replace cache battery Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Rewrite the MBR.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1? A. B.certkiller. Multiple failure fault tolerance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 262 A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive. Recreate the partition that was deleted. A. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive? A. Which of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO). Higher performance C. Network share B.

F8 D. Replace defective hard drives Answer: C. Local laws and industry regulations B. Hot site D. Replace hot standby D. F6 B. Project guidelines given by stakeholders D. Restore from back up E.com rtK A.E QUESTION NO: 265 Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a Windows set-up? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Mail server and backup capacity Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . F7 C. Disk-to-disk replication ille Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network? r.c om 79 . F9 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 266 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy? A. Server clustering C.certkiller. Company policies and guidelines C. Server-to-server replication B.www.

Smaller datacenter footprint F. UAC D.E QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator needs to update the anti-virus. security patches. and then the BIOS. Update the web software.B. B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 270 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel SAN connectivity? A. and then the web software. security patches. Smaller backup window needed D. Update security patches. Little to no maintenance needed Answer: A. C. BIOS. USB C. security patches.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE) A. only one change at a time should be done. Update anti-virus. and the web server software on a production system. D. NIC Answer: A QUESTION NO: 271 Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple processors? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . web software. Better server hardware leverage B.c om 80 . BIOS. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this? A.certkiller. Lower power consumption E.www. Increased application security C. HBA B. The order does not matter. anti-virus. BIOS software. and then the anti-virus.com rtK ille r.

Explore the ramification of the change before implementation. Hot site B. 64-bit processing D. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation. Hyper-V Answer: D QUESTION NO: 272 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1? A. C.www. ille Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server? r. Striping with parity D. B.certkiller. Mirroring B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation. D. Warm site Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK A. Active/passive clustering at the same site C.c om 81 . Disk-to-disk replication in the same server D. Multicore C. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation. Striping C. Striping with mirroring Answer: A QUESTION NO: 273 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 274 Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant? A. Symmetric multi-processing B.

The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded Answer: C QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO) A. CCTV systems D.certkiller.com rtK ille r. ID0 B.D QUESTION NO: 278 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Proxy card readers Answer: B. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose power.c om 82 . The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network. however. D. C. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk. Cable select D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second device on an IDE cable? A. Master Answer: C QUESTION NO: 276 A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC. B. ID2 C. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance. the SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic. Mantraps B. The size of the presented drive is 700GB. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Retina scanner E.www. Fingerprint scanners C.

Which of the following is the reason that these clients are unable to access the server? A. Choose two. QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. Also known as internal cache. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses. but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet. D. WINS server is not responding QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. Answer option D is incorrect. the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. it is included in every CPU.c om 83 . known as SRAM. B. Server response time C.C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer: B. DNS entries were not created. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A new server was installed.www. It stores a backlog of the commands so that. Also known as external cache. C. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. if a wait state is encountered. outside the CPU. Date of server purchase B. it runs faster. It is also known as external cache. This slows down computer operations. A. D. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can successfully access the server. for caching. C. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access the server. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips. it is included in every CPU.certkiller. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. Incorrect default gateway on the server. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard. This is known as a zero wait state operation. Disk performance statistics Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder r. QUESTION NO: 281 Answer: C. Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive. QUESTION NO: 282 When you start your computer. Network bandwidth Answer: B. such as phone number and date of birth.C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.www. Choose two. Answer options B and A are incorrect. . B. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive. C. Using personal information in the server room password D. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt.c om Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The personal information. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer options A and D are incorrect.com 84 Ce rtK ille A. can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. Using a phrase for the server password C. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network.D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. D.certkiller.

This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. The data cable is used to transfer data.wikipedia. and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]" QUESTION NO: 283 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A.certkiller.c om 85 . is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. port number 25. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server.mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers.com rtK ille r. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post. Through this protocol. a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. it tries to fix the sector. Answer options C is incorrect. With Thorough option. Answer option D is incorrect. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. DEFRAG. a Windows-based utility. Reference: "http://en. e. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. NNTP B. IMAP D. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface. Answer option A is incorrect. It will not help in resolving the issue. SMTP C. Reference: TechNet. Answer option A is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. which allows users to manage the network. However. distribute.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers.

and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. Answer option B is incorrect.Backup" QUESTION NO: 285 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A. Sequential backup D.c om . or are new. and handheld devices. also known as COM ports. IEEE 1394 D. DIN B. RS-232 C. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. Answer option D is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. serial ports.www. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. "Slay Your Exams" . It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Incremental backup C.com 86 Ce rtK ille r. Daily backup B. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 284 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A. since the last incremental or full backup. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Full backup Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Contents: "Chapter 12 . These devices include consumer audiovisual components. or RS. It needs only one tape to restore data. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards.232 ports. Answer option A is incorrect. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. traditional PC storage devices.certkiller. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data.

www. rtK ille r. When the user runs the infected file in the disk. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. QUESTION NO: 286 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? A. B. Contents: "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 287 A.C. SCSI cable B. Choose three. Typically. 10Base2 cable C.certkiller. also known as Thinnet Coax.com 87 Ce Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Parallel cable D. D. This type of virus hides system files. bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them. Serial cable Answer: B.D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable. Therefore. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin. "Slay Your Exams" . It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code. this changes the signature of the virus. Reference: TechNet. it loads virus into the RAM. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters . This virus is very complicated and hard to detect.c om . C. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files.

QUESTION NO: 289 Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology? A. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. C. Answer option C is incorrect. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. Answer option A is incorrect.c om 88 . such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. and SCSI-3. or remove and replace a failed device.www. The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system. without powering off the system. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem. Answer option B is incorrect. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. QUESTION NO: 288 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. For example. B. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. C. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. SCSI-2. It allows to install a new device. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error. The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation.com rtK ille r. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor. B. reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. During the boot process. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. a server displays a POST error. The system log is used to store security-related events. SCSI devices. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. The parallel channel is fast.certkiller. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log.

com 89 Ce rtK ille r. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. 12 meters D. Using this technology. Answer options D and C are incorrect. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID). if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface? A.www. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. or for storage devices. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1. It allows to store more than one file using the same name. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface.5 meters C. SCSI-2. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. SCSI devices.certkiller. The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives.5 meters . "Slay Your Exams" . the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters . or remove and replace a failed device. 1. 3 meters B. The replacement can be due to a device failure. and SCSI-3. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support these bus lengths. 6 meters Answer: B Explanation: If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. Answer: C Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. etc. QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of useful life"? A. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.c om . Answer option A is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. QUESTION NO: 290 What will be the maximum SCSI bus length.

% Network utilization B. For example. The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. Broadcast frames received/second Answer: A. A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20 minutes when new. Since each computer processes every broadcast.D Explanation: The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. The IEEE defines "end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.C. Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded. Total frames received/second D. Choose three. A. What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.www. Reference: TechNet. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.c om 90 . Answer option B is incorrect. D. C. high broadcast levels mean lower network performance. will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its defined "end of useful life".com rtK ille r. Answer: D Explanation: A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. QUESTION NO: 292 Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.certkiller. Contents: "Monitoring Performance" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Pages/sec C.

certkiller. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. Using DMA. D. C. especially servers. The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Change the boot sequence to C:.c om 91 . It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. Answer: C Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM. NT. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU).www. B. C. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. Remove the boot files from C: drive. the computer can move data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU intervention. He wants that whenever he boots his computer. that have to process a great deal of information quickly. B. It is helpful on high-end systems. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. Answer option B is incorrect. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. Disable the hard disk drive. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. QUESTION NO: 294 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. How will he accomplish this? A. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Answer option D is incorrect. the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. Hence. A:.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true? A.

C: in the BIOS. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. Answer: D Explanation: To accomplish the task. If a portion of a physical disk fails. on the motherboard. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. A. What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. QUESTION NO: 295 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Spanned D. Mirrored F.www. Basic E. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. RAID-5 B. Reference: TechNet. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk.c om 92 . You can create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Dynamic C. spanned. C:. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk.E Explanation: Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. You are installing Windows 2000 Server on a new computer. Answer options B and D are incorrect. and mirrored volumes. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume.C. In case of failure of one disk. Change the boot sequence to A:.certkiller. Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volume types. It supports two to thirtytwo disk drives. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Choose three. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Parity Answer: A. Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. In Windows 2000/2003. Contents: "Configuring Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It can be created on dynamic disks only.

Choose two. you should take the following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. Clothing. High humidity B.c om . Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. Low temperature Answer: B Explanation: Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. RIMM Answer: A. you experience a mild shock. and flooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD. If you set the component down. DDR DIMM B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Dynamic Volumes" QUESTION NO: 296 Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest? A.certkiller. if possible. and roll up your shirt's sleeves. footwear. Low humidity C. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. High temperature D. SO-DIMM D. Dry air is a poor conductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water molecules carry static electric charge away. SIMM C. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com 93 Ce rtK ille r. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD.D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. A.www. do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table. Remove your shoes.

Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and 184 pins. The number of chips on a 184pin DIMM may vary.c om . but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184.0 TCP/IP-based network. and Athlon systems. PC3200. It was developed by Rambus. and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. 30-pin and 72-pin. PC3500 and faster. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in two types. It was introduced for laptops. The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. NETSTAT C. but are more expensive than DIMMs. and Kingston .375" high. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot.DIMMs come in smaller packages.www. 184-pin DIMMs are 5. Intel. PC2700.certkiller. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. Your company has a Windows NT 4. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base. and the heights may vary. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base.com 94 Ce rtK ille r. NBTSTAT B. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. TRACERT D. TELNET "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 298 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. SO. consume lesser power. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. Pentium 4.375" long and 1.

The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections.www.com 95 Ce rtK In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. Therefore. to access files. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. NBTSTAT helps you view. ISA Answer: B. ille r. What is an EISA bus? Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a superset of a 16.D Explanation: You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) bus slots.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses.bit ISA bus. This is accomplished by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. Choose all that apply. Answer option C is incorrect. remove. Reference: TechNet.certkiller.c om . What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. and facilitates remote administration. PCI D. Answer option D is incorrect. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. update the NetBIOS name cache. The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot. VESA B. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. offers the ability to run programs remotely. both ISA "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies" QUESTION NO: 299 A. EISA C. incoming and outgoing data. and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache.

Reference: "http://www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. The fdisk command is a menubased command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. You cannot insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots. import. GPMC is used to back up. and copy group policy objects. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. such as the display subsystem.html" QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your Windows NT computer? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. Answer option B is incorrect.c om 96 . In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt. There is no such command as shutdown -rst. This command can perform the following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk. Change the partition type. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator to manage group policy settings across multiple sites. restore. Answer option D is incorrect. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) C. Answer option C is incorrect. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to the fdisk command. Answer options C and A are incorrect. Display the partition table. fdisk Answer: A Explanation: Answer option A is correct.certkiller. or even forests. It also provides a reporting interface on how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. DOWN -f B.com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h enuk mm4.com rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 300 Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage.www. domains. It provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related tasks. Shutdown -rst D. you will have to run the DOWN -f command. Create a partition on a hard disk.novell. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. Which of the following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt? A.

D. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. will not show the contents of any data. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information. Choose two. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. IPCONFIG. C. however. but again. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Explanation: A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks.C ille r. QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om 97 . A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. it will not show the contents of any data. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Answer option A is incorrect. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition.com rtK Answer: B. Performance Monitor D. Because of the nature of the data. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. but not data information. striped volume (RAID-0). Network Monitor Answer: D Explanation: Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic.EXE B. NETSTAT. QUESTION NO: 303 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.www. Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. Both the partitions must be of same size. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. it is often useful to have some of the frames for review. A.EXE C. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes.

If the server is not physically connected to the network. Users are providing incorrect passwords. A faulty hub. Choose two. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam You work as a Network Administrator. Either the network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub. It uses TCP port 23 by default. D. QUESTION NO: 304 A. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. the destination host responds with a series of replies. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. Your Internet service provider (ISP) has a UNIX-based server. Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server.c om . You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to connect to the rest of the workstations on the network. You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. TRACERT E. Answer: B. using a text-based connection? ille r.www. C. A. B. IPCONFIG C. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of the problem as all users are having this problem. These replies can be used to "Slay Your Exams" . Users are providing incorrect usernames. TELNET B. users complain that they are unable to connect to the server. PING D. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. which connects all the workstations and the server. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.certkiller. is faulty. FTP Answer: A Explanation: TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. to access files. On receiving the packets. the workstations on the network cannot access the server. offers the ability to run programs remotely. and facilitates remote administration.D Explanation: There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure. One morning.com 98 Ce rtK You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. Answer option C is incorrect. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.

D. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.com rtK ille r. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software. After completing the check. Run MAKEDISK. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. of a networked computer. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. B. Boot the computer with the diskette. Check the partition with the startup disk. he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus. A. This will run a boot sector virus check. Answer option B is incorrect. Choose all that apply.c om 99 . such as IP address. boot the computer with that diskette.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam determine whether or not the network is working properly. Reference: TechNet. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Once the diskette is created. How will he confirm this? A. B. C. C. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk. remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite.. Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server" QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: D Explanation: MAKEDISK. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Mail Server" QUESTION NO: 305 Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails. Answer option E is incorrect. When he examines the problem. TRACERT is a routetracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. Reference: TechNet. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. subnet mask. The MAKEDISK.www.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette. Answer option D is incorrect. default gateway etc.certkiller.

The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.www. Slot 1 type CPU connector. Pentium II B. is similar to an expansion card. it will be safe in case of any disaster. and other critical material necessary for organizational survival.B Explanation: Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1. QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. and phone numbers for crisis management staff.c om . Pentium pro D. QUESTION NO: 308 Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD K6 Answer: A. A. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8.certkiller. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings. C. Pentium III C. If the documents are stored on an offsite location. "Slay Your Exams" . The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. Answer option D is incorrect. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. Choose all that apply. copies of insurance contracts. addresses. and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media. B. clients. also known as single edge connector (SEC). AMD K6 processors use Socket 7.B Explanation: The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.com 100 Ce rtK ille r. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents in floppy disks. Answer option C is incorrect. general staff members. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only. Answer: A. containing the names. A disaster recovery documentation for a small organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller. instead of a socket. as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media.

Answer option D is incorrect.aspx" Ce A. Choose three. Reference: "http://technet.C. in incidents per second. The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent.10).com/eses/library/cc778758(WS. Write Copies/sec B.D Explanation: The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec counter shows the rate. Answer option B is incorrect. Segments Retransmitted/sec D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Segments Received/sec C. When power to the disk array is discontinued. and time settings when a computer's main power is off.c om 101 . Answer option C is incorrect. Segments Sent/sec "Slay Your Exams" . The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 309 Answer: B. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery.microsoft. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration.certkiller. date. r. at which segments were received. including those received in error. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in the cache. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from elsewhere in physical memory. The CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were retransmitted. Answer: A Explanation: The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID controller.com rtK ille Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www.

wikipedia. the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or becomes corrupt.c om . Answer option C is incorrect.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 310 Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed? A. There is no such type of backup as daily backup. The CPU sends instructions to the hard disk controller on this I/O address. 1F0-1F8 D. Answer option B is incorrect. Full backup. Differential backup B. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup methods. involves backing up the entire hard disks and files of a machine. also known as normal backup. 3F0-3F7 C. After a full backup is performed. Incremental backup Answer: D Explanation: added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed.certkiller.com 102 Ce rtK ille r. Reference: "http://en.org/wiki/Incremental_backup" QUESTION NO: 311 Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller? A. all archive bits are reset to 0. Daily backup C. Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental backup. When the full backup type is set up. a user should choose which files. 278-27F B. Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. 3F8-3FF Answer: C Explanation: A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. Answer option B is incorrect. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Full backup D. folders. Answer option A is incorrect. COM1 serial port uses the I/O address range 3F8-3FF. It requires minimum space to backup data. It is faster as compared to full backup. Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as they were created. and hard disks are to be backed up. Answer option D is incorrect. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O "Slay Your Exams" .

Answer: B Explanation: Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. The CPU needs a memory address. B. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. 14 inches D. its I/O address. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. Answer option A is incorrect. The primary "Slay Your Exams" . ille r. This allows faster access to BIOS information. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.certkiller. D. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. Resources such as I/O addresses. IRQ.5 inches . I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. QUESTION NO: 312 What is the height of the 8U server rack? A. When you configure shadow RAM.5 inches C. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. The 15U server rack has a height of 26. 21 inches B. Answer option B is incorrect.c om . Answer option D is incorrect. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup. to communicate with any peripheral device.25 inches Answer: C QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS? A. 26. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam address range 3F0-3F7. C. 31. Answer option A is incorrect. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC.25 inches . LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 27827F . Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory. The 18U server rack has a height of 31. known as Input/Output (I/O) address.www. Whenever a component.com 103 Ce rtK Explanation: The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . IRQs.

on the motherboard. Reference: TechNet. SCSI devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.org/wiki/SCSI" "Slay Your Exams" .wikipedia. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.certkiller. Ultra 160 SCSI D. On the computer case D. Fast-Wide SCSI B.c om . Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]" QUESTION NO: 314 You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer. But. Where will you look for it? A. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive.D Explanation: The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer options A and B are incorrect. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. SCSI-2.www. and SCSI-3. On the motherboard Answer: A Explanation: You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program. Ultra 320 SCSI Answer: C. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Reference: "http://en. Fast SCSI C. In BIOS setup program B. On the microprocessor C.com 104 Ce rtK ille r. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Choose all that apply. A.

QUESTION NO: 317 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network? A. Answer option D is incorrect. The company's network has a storage area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. LAN Analyzer B. The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. This tab also displays warning messages if there are any problems. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. Answer option B is incorrect. Reliability Monitor C. The servers on the network must connect to the SAN. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network.certkiller. DirectX Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and fix them. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. is used to detect the reasons for computer failure. The Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable period of time. Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . a tool introduced in Windows Vista. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 105 . DXDIAG Answer: A Explanation: LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network.com rtK ille r. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. Time Domain Reflectometer D. provides tests for both DirectDraw and Direct3D.www. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. The Reliability Monitor. This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure.

as it is time consuming. Answer option B is incorrect. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the backed-up data gets corrupted. FactWhat is full backup? Full backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log. There is no such technology as Fibre Thicknet Bus. What should be his first step before installing Windows NT 4. Install the latest network operating system updates C. It allows multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. A switch offers better system throughput than a hub. he will loose the files. the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric.www. Verify backed-up data D. Answer option A is incorrect. Andrew cannot install operating system updates before installing the operating system. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre Channel technology.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. routing frames dynamically.0 Server. The server contains critical files. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server. QUESTION NO: 318 A. Format the system partition B.0 Server.com 106 Ce rtK Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. working as a file server. Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified.0 Server? ille r. A Fibre Channel switch intelligently manages connections between ports. A Fibre Channel fabric uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs.5 Server. The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate. The company's network consists of a Windows NT 3. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B.5 Server files and install Windows NT 4. Andrew takes full backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive.c om . You may loose files if the backup gets corrupted. He decides to remove the Windows NT 3. Instead.certkiller. Fibre Channel fabric Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology. Answer option B is incorrect. SCSI bus D. Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored before installing Windows NT 4. Answer option C is incorrect. PSTN cannot provide such a high speed connection. Recreate the partition Answer: C Explanation: As a precautionary measure. Taking a full backup daily is impractical. Fibre Thicknet Bus C. a well-defined backup strategy should be "Slay Your Exams" .

Pentium II C. Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and detect viruses. Answer option C is incorrect. It detects viruses on the computer.com 107 Ce rtK ille r. 486DX D.www. QUESTION NO: 320 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer options B and D are incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup. D. over time. 486DX processors use Socket 0. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7? A. The Alert. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. C.c om . Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. "Slay Your Exams" . Create reports for use in analyzing performance. It measures the processor utilization on the computer.certkiller. Pentium Pro B. Pentium Answer: D Explanation: Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7. over time. Choose two. It monitors hard disk utilization. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. A. B. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Answer option A is incorrect. also known as Slot 1.C Explanation: Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization. View. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. instead of sockets. It captures network traffic. Answer option B is incorrect. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Answer: A. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.

View B. Wire crimper is a device that is used to attach connectors to the cables. a short cable. You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor.com rtK ille r.www. a transposed wire pair. Log D. is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. Answer option A is incorrect. or some other problem. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. QUESTION NO: 322 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) Answer: B Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. Answer option D is incorrect. you will have to use a media tester. Which of the following devices will you use to accomplish the task? A. Which of the following views will you use? A.000. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. transposed wire pairs. and various types of crosstalk.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 321 You are creating a network for Net World Inc. You decide to implement a star network. The company has a Windows NT domainbased network. you want to test the wires for attenuation. After you complete the wire connections. Media tester C. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables.certkiller. A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit. It tests for shorts. Alert Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. Chart C. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. open circuits. Tone generator B. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively.c om 108 . A tone generator is an electrical cable testing device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit. attenuation. What is a media tester? A media tester. also called a media certifier. Wire crimper D.

A.2 to allow greater access to larger hard drives. Windows 2000/2003. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. The Alert. over time. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4. and other features. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. and 3. It supports file system recovery. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. High Performance File System (HPFS) B. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. View. long file names.certkiller.com rtK ille r. 3. distributed link tracking. It has recently ported to Linux. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Windows NT file system (NTFS) E. such as encryption and file and folder permissions. NTFS also offers security features. large storage media. and mounted drives.www.5. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. and Windows XP operating systems. Choose two. Reference: TechNet.51. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by Novell's Netware operating system. What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT. compression. Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing Internet Information Server" QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. What is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1.C Explanation: The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems that cannot be used to install operating systems. These features are not available on FAT volumes. The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) C. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas.1. Novell Storage Services (NSS) Answer: B. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Answer option E is incorrect.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions. over time. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3. Log-structured file system (LFS) D.c om 109 . Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Create reports for use in analyzing performance.

you experience a mild shock. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. C. Unplug other cards from the motherboard. Answer: C Explanation: As a precaution. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. You should never turn the power on while installing hardware components on a computer.www. What is video RAM? Video RAM is a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor screen. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the computer parts.certkiller. D. Answer option B is incorrect. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet. Switch on the computer. The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. B. such as. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. 16 B. It works as a buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer. Wear wrist strap. 32 D.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 324 What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM? A. You are not required to unplug other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card.c om 110 . 8 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. 64 C. chips on the motherboard or adapters. Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM). QUESTION NO: 325 What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor? A. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end.

Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. replace the drive. C. the failed disk becomes an orphan. go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. Choose two. Then create partitions and format new disks.com 111 Ce rtK ille r. All network connections to the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. The next day. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume. and then regenerate the stripe set. Take the following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs > Administrative Tools > Computer Management. use Disk Management. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks. What is the function of the Disk Management tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. recreate the RAID5 volume. click on Disk Management. Replace the failed drive. QUESTION NO: 326 As a Network Administrator. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. Intel Pentium microprocessors are also based on a 32-bit data bus. you may have to restart your computer.c om .www. A new area of free space of the same size. B. you find that one of the drives has failed. Replace the drive. and then restore data from the tape backup. In the console tree under Storage.certkiller. To regenerate a RAID5 volume. or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume. Answer: A Explanation: When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails. you are concerned about fault tolerance. You are using a RAID5 volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks. The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus. D. the volume must be locked by the operating system. "Slay Your Exams" . and then re-creates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. select a new area of free space and then regenerate the volume. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus. What will you do? A. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection QUESTION NO: 327 Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.

www. port etc. B. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic. Performance Monitor. and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic. which can be analyzed to determine the protocol. Slow workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network. An SMTP server is installed on the internal network. In case of a server that is down. Faulty NIC on a networked computer. Windows NT system log. A down network server. IP address. Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP traffic is coming from? r. Web Proxy logs. you can detect the faulty NIC through the network monitor software or by the elimination process. Network Monitor. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to the SMTP server. C.certkiller. The Web Proxy service log contains information about client requests for HTTP. C. whereas SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service.C Explanation: A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server. Reference: TechNet. can cause a broadcast storm on the network. Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor" QUESTION NO: 329 Ce A.c om 112 . thus generating traffic on the network. D. D. The Windows NT system log contains information about various system events. which may result in a broadcast storm. Voltage fluctuation Answer: B. which serves network resources to the network client computer. "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. another computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent requests. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses. QUESTION NO: 328 Answer: D Explanation: The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network. Slow workstation systems B. FTP or Gopher objects. In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.

Surge protector D. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. B. IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices. on the motherboard. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. only one device should be assigned to each IRQ. QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following statements is true about IRQ? Answer: D Explanation: IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. ille r. Reference: TechNet. if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine.Administering Windows NT Systems QUESTION NO: 331 Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem? A.c om 113 . The hard disk controller C.www.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. UPS C. The System's BIOS Answer: D Explanation: A BIOS upgrade is required. The motherboard B. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip.com rtK A. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU. what will you have to upgrade? A. Switch Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAM D. Contents: Chapter 1 . IRQ is an infrared communication device. which is not supported by an older BIOS. SMPS B. IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. C. In general. D.

Answer option C is incorrect. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Reference: TechNet. It also provides protection against power surges. you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components. A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a clip on the other end.www. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model. When power surge occurs. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Chapter 4 . B. It happens when your body or clothes come in contact with computer components.Planning a Reliable Configuration" Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems? A. A plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem. Answer option A is incorrect.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. C. An antiglare screen. Wearing synthetic clothes can make the ESD problem worse. This reduces the network traffic. A plastic CPU cover. you should wear a wrist strap when you are working on computer components. Answer: B Explanation: To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems. D.c om 114 . What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Answer option A is incorrect. An antiglare screen on the monitor is used to protect the eyes from radiation. while the computer gets normal power. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: To resolve the low voltage problem.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 332 r. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab. using battery backup. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges.certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination. A wrist strap. Answer option C is incorrect. Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on.

and B are incorrect. D. A blade server requires administration and does not improve network performance. A. minimize power consumption and other considerations. Answer: A Explanation: AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It requires zero administration. B. Contents: "Motherboard and Buses" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. C.C Explanation: A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. which can hold multiple blade servers. blade servers have many components removed to save space. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM. Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller. D. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. answer options C. Reference: "http://en. various interconnects and management. cooling. Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 333 Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2. Answer: B.c om 115 .wikipedia.certkiller. C. AGP provides improved network performance. D. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system. Therefore. It improves network performance. provides services such as power. AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing.com rtK ille r. Answer options A and D are incorrect. It takes less space than conventional servers.133 MB/second. networking. Though. It consumes less power. B. which enables fast video performance. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? A. Choose two. A blade enclosure.

com 116 Ce A. Floppy drive failure C. it emits poisonous gases. Cotton ribbon D. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. it responds "Slay Your Exams" .c om . The company has a server that has a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 335 Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket? A. when it burns. Processor fan failure does not affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive. Processor damage D.certkiller. the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang up and processor damage. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning. Users report that when they query the database or update data. Computer hangs B. The server also runs the DNS service. Fiber Answer: B Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket for a cable. The server contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network. Answer options D and B are incorrect. r.C Explanation: In an event of processor fan failure. Plenum B.www. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false ceiling and the floor above. QUESTION NO: 336 Answer: A. Answer option A is incorrect. PVC C. Reference: TechNet. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 337 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Hard drive failure rtK ille Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. However. PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily routed in the exposed areas of an office. fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke. Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit. Choose all that apply.

C Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. D. "Slay Your Exams" . Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. including a spare hard disk drive? A. Two Answer: A Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. Answer option D is incorrect.Move the DNS service to another server. Both the partitions must be of same size. Since one hard disk drive is included as a spare disk. A. Move the DNS service to another server. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). C. Answer: A. The read-write performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5. you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. four disks is the right choice.certkiller. Five D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam slowly. This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. 2.c om .Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array.www. and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes because they write data to multiple locations. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server. B. What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence improve its performance. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. Four B. Thirty-three C. with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. Mark can take the following steps: 1. If a portion of a physical disk fails. A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array.B. Choose three.com 117 Ce QUESTION NO: 338 rtK ille r. Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. striped volume (RAID-0). 3. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Paging files do not need fault-tolerance. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume.Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array.

B.www.C QUESTION NO: 340 Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel. as it has multiple processors and other components "Slay Your Exams" . Head and Sectors.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP). The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due to its low costs. etc. multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel. You will require five additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. Choose three. 'Using mirrored volumes' QUESTION NO: 339 Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring. RAID5 array has a better read performance. Cylinders and sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization. Choose three. Reference: Windows 2000 Help.com 118 Ce rtK ille Explanation: The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders. A. Each processor has its own memory address space. However in case of RAID1 array. The processors share a common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data. B. Sectors D. A. Heads C.B. AMD Athlon MP. Cylinders B. D. SMP is easier to implement. Cluster Answer: A.c om . SMP is most commonly found on the x86-based architecture. Pentium III. Each processor shares the same memory. which includes Pentium II.D Explanation: Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. r. Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes'. Heads are used to read and write data on the hard disk. C. Answer: A. In this architecture. thus if the data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance.certkiller. than RAID1 array. mirror can be establish between two disks.

wikipedia. It allows computers to access data faster. On the other hand. It allows computers to use more physical memory. D. operating system. It will increase the administrative burden. a virtual server name. I/O subsystem. B.certkiller. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server.c om . It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. D.. Maintain a printed tape backup report.e. Answer: B Explanation: In order to improve the disaster recovery plan. Reference: "http://en.Processing (ASMP). QUESTION NO: 342 A. which is used to access and manage the cluster. he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's dat a. Answer option D is incorrect. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the disaster recovery plan.www. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB. During the testing of the recovery plan. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. Implement the cluster server. Answer: C Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than 504MB. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. C. What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan? ille r. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. in Asymmetrical Multi. Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. etc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are shared by them such as the memory. B. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server. C. each processor has its own memory address space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform. Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup report.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 341 What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers? A. Answer option A is incorrect. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i.com 119 Ce rtK Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.

The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet specifications are the use of star topology. Answer option A is incorrect.ncf file.ncf file. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications: Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic QUESTION NO: 344 Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6 server? A. The company has offices at different locations of a city. Restart Server -na B. 100 meters C.www. DOWN-fs Answer: B Explanation: The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting. Restart Server -ns D. QUESTION NO: 343 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network? A. 10 meters D. The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec.c om 120 . The Restart Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup.com rtK ille r. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: 100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiberoptic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000 meters for full duplex connections. DOWN-f C. as it is possible that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises. 2000 meters B. Answer option C is incorrect. You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for interconnecting the offices.certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect.

certkiller. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. SNMP C. NETSTAT B. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. Answer option C is incorrect. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. Answer option E is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 346 Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003? A. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). There is no utility such as IPSTAT. incoming and outgoing data.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 345 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Which of the following will you use? A. ARP D. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. NTDSUTIL utility C. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.c om 121 .www. Windows Backup utility D. NBTSTAT E. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Automated System Recovery (ASR) B. update the NetBIOS name cache. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your computer. Answer option D is incorrect. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.com rtK ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. which allows users to manage the network. IPSTAT Answer: A Explanation: The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.

An ASR restore includes the configuration information for devices. Hard disk C. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer option D is incorrect. and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely fashion. She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%. or less. the current Disk Queue Length is 4. and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1.D Explanation: % Processor Time value of 90. To start RDISK. go to Start menu > Run. Answer option C is incorrect. an excessive amount of input/output to the "Slay Your Exams" . computer's default profile (NTUSER. rtK ille r.com 122 Ce Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU and one hard disk. Choose two.EXE is a command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. Answer option B is incorrect. Therefore.BAT. NTDSUTIL. Memory Answer: A.certkiller. It does not back up folders and files. which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is subjected to excessive amount of input/output.SYS). Network adapter B. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. QUESTION NO: 347 A. To restore the information from ERD. ASR backs up the system data and local system partition.www. The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003. AUTOEXEC. ERD can be created through the RDISK. is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU bottleneck. the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%. Based on this information.c om . On the other hand.EXE utility. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one. and CONFIG.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003. This utility is used to perform the following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory. type RDISK. Note:The NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators. and arranged in a RAID configuration to increase speed. ERD is not self bootable.DAT). These files are stored in compressed format. ERD includes portion of the registry. and click OK. The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers.LOG. CPU D. It is used to perform a restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. Managing and controlling operations master roles.

BIOS configuration error. a blank screen is displayed. Pages Input/sec Answer: A Explanation: The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults. Pages Writes/sec D. i. the memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. BIOS configuration error. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the cache is correctly configured. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer. Pages/sec B.www. the HDD and IDE controller ends. Contents:Chapter 8 . C. C. B. Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is working properly. Answer option B is incorrect.com 123 Ce rtK Explanation: The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk drive. D. To determine if memory is a bottleneck. Pages Outout/sec C. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults? A. Answer options B. and D are incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect..c om . Reference: TechNet. What is the most likely cause? A. and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache. ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. a blank screen is displayed. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable.e.Monitoring Performance QUESTION NO: 348 Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer. When he powers on the computer. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. Incompatible hard disk drive. and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem.certkiller. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. make sure that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free "Slay Your Exams" .

www. and Cable Select types of jumper settings.certkiller. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. Choose all that apply. Explanation: While installing two hard disk drives on a computer.aspx" QUESTION NO: 350 You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. D. Answer option D is incorrect. Which of the following are the possible combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. none of them will work.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam up space in physical memory. 2. If two drives are attached to one controller. or Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. Which of the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware? A. The Pages Input/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS.10). Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave. Install the drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive.c Answer: B. Reference: "http://technet. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as Secondary. An operating system that supports SNMP B. An operating system that supports SCSI devices Ce "Slay Your Exams" .D om 124 .Install the drives.com rtK ille r. C. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. any one of the following two combinations can be used: 1.microsoft. Slave.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. Answer option C is incorrect. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality D. QUESTION NO: 351 Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. An operating system that supports SMP C. A. B. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. There is no such setting as Secondary.

All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs.certkiller. In the case of multi-core processors. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP architecture. D.c om . Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk. statistics collections. also known as low-DOS or base memory. Answer options A. and security. installs the required drivers. or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. Plug and Play. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration. treating them as separate processors. Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. and configures the device appropriately. As ROM is relatively slower than RAM.com 125 Ce rtK ille r. What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. devices. because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. What is SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory. An operating system supporting SNMP. the SMP architecture applies to the cores. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM. What is conventional memory? Conventional memory. B. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory. With proper operating system support. the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the ROM BIOS. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no matter where the data for that task are located in memory. When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer. and device drivers. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: In order to take full benefit of hardware. SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 352 What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer? A.wikipedia. you have to select an operating system that supports Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). the Plug and Play compliant operating system automatically detects it. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory. "Slay Your Exams" . performance.www. But it should be done only as the last resort. C. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory. C. and D are incorrect. Answer: D Explanation: Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the extended memory. Reference: "http://en.

170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. Contents: Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528] QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable? A. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly. including one host bus adapter card.www. B. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. It is used to load and process data needed by the active programs. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Six devices. known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) . ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. thereby increasing the traffic. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. Nine devices. you experience a mild shock. Reference: TechNet. ESD B. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. radiation from the power cable. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. including one host bus adapter card.com rtK ille r. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Answer option A is incorrect. EMI Answer: D Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. Eight devices.c om 126 . Surge C. excluding one host bus adapter card. Broadcast storm D. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card. C. QUESTION NO: 354 How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller? A. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems.

A database server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. information about the domain tree structure. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Two devices. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers only. so that they can communicate with other network services. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Answer: C Explanation: A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus. DNS server D. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. the user will not be able to communicate with anyone on the network or access network resources. etc. including one host bus adapter card. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. including one host bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers.wikipedia. and a single entity connecting to multiple resources.www. Hence. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference: "http://en. DHCP server B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.certkiller. A RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple communication channels together. QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection? A. IP address-to-host name mappings. Database server Answer: B Explanation: A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. Both of these models are widely used. a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical connections to their customers. Both physical and virtual resources can be provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a remote virtual operating system.c om 127 .org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . for example customers who get Internet through some form of modem. without valid TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server. Because these channels are bidirectional. two models emerge: multiple entities connecting to a single resource.com rtK ille r. Note: If the DHCP server is offline. RAS server C. A DHCP server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries.

What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Explanation: The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. Keep Monday's backup offsite. D. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Small Computer Serial Interface. Therefore. since the last incremental or full backup. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. B.c om Answer: C 128 .www. you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. C. a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite. Small Component Systems Interface. Small Computer Systems Interface. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 356 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. Reference: TechNet. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of dat a. or are new. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays.certkiller. C. B. For safe storage. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 357 What does SCSI stand for? A. Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Full backup is a good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental backup. You are designing a data backup plan for your company's network. Incremental. It needs only one tape to restore data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this? A. Contents: "Description of Full. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Keep Monday's backup offsite. E. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed.com rtK ille r. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly.

ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential.wikipedia. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation. and facilitates remote administration. B.org/wiki/Telnet" QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ? A. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal. B. you will type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. C. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect. SCSI-2. and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet. to access files. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. D. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software.com 129 Ce rtK ille r. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal. such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.certkiller. Answer: D Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer. SCSI devices. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential. There is no such command as telcli. offers the ability to run programs remotely. These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the computer. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Reference: "http://en. Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.www. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: C Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Contents: "Chapter 19 .Device Management" QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer? A. C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1.c om .

com rtK ille r.certkiller. you find that the date and time. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 361 Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. date. The computer's processing speed will slow down. and few other settings are lost. D. B. IPCONFIG B. "Slay Your Exams" . TRACERT Answer: C. Answer: D Explanation: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge. ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. NETSTAT C. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. and time settings when a computer's main power is off.www. The computer will start losing the date and time. If you touch any sensitive electronic component. The computer will hang frequently. QUESTION NO: 360 How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged? A.c om 130 . like an adapter or drive. there will be no static difference between them that can cause ESD. with your hand.D Ce Explanation: When you turn off the computer and turn it on again. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed. PING D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. C. Choose two. The computer will take time to reboot. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential. A.

com rtK ille r. PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. D. like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the motherboard. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.certkiller. incoming and outgoing data." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module.c om 131 .. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. What does this indicate? A.www. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. It is not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM. default gateway etc. Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard. of a networked computer. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages. such as IP address. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. the motherboard supports only same type of memory module. B. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Reference: TechNet. subnet mask. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. "Same type. Answer option A is incorrect. like SIMM or DIMM. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems. of all memory modules on the motherboard.TCP/IP" QUESTION NO: 362 You are upgrading your server. C. According to its manual.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: PING and TRACERT are similar in function. QUESTION NO: 363 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Networking . It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is. Same type. Answer option B is incorrect. incoming and outgoing data. Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard. Answer option B is incorrect. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard. You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. like DIMM or SIMM.

The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The fans inside the CPU box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low. Reference: TechNet. To keep CPU temperature low. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. To make CPU faster. RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring and provides data redundancy. it does not provide fault tolerance. Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box. Level 1 C. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Answer: A. Level 3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping.www. Answer option B is incorrect. Level 5 B. To improve air circulation in the CPU box. Both the partitions must be of same size. Answer options D and B are incorrect.C Explanation: High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy? A. Level 0 D. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. To improve performance of the computer. However. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. If a portion of a "Slay Your Exams" . striped volume (RAID-0). Disk striping offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management strategies.certkiller. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. D. If any partition in the set fails. B. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. C. Data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array. Choose all that apply.c om . A. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). all the data is lost.com 132 Ce rtK ille r. like volume sets. RAID levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. Answer options A and D are incorrect.

Run the Scandisk utility on the server. Eight B. If the server is not booted. Increase RAM on the server. you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.www. Answer: D Explanation: In order to enable the server to boot properly. you need to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process.certkiller. the server is unable to boot. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. you restart the server. You find that the server is unable to boot. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. Two C. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. One QUESTION NO: 366 You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver. Answer option A is incorrect. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam physical disk fails. It indicates that the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server.com 133 Ce rtK ille r. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. Which of the following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly? A. Answer option B is incorrect.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks" QUESTION NO: 365 How many devices does the EIDE system support? A.wikipedia. It can only improve the performance of the server if the server is in use. Therefore. D. Four D. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option C is incorrect. C. the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server.c Explanation: The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices. After installing the device driver. om Answer: C . After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. Reference: "http://en. Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.

Answer option C is incorrect. B. QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS. using battery backup. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop. What is the most likely cause? A. It is significantly faster than DRAM.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. The UPS software is not properly configured. UPS is not configured to a power source. Choose three.com 134 Ce Explanation: The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided with the UPS is not properly configured. D. SRAM is used for caching. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. It also provides protection against power surges. A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS.D Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. D. it does not have to be "Slay Your Exams" . UPS cannot be configured to a power source.C. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits. B. UPS and server always use serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. QUESTION NO: 367 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc.c om Answer: A .certkiller.www. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged. rtK ille r. Answer: A. A. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port. Answer option B is incorrect. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM. C. When power surge occurs. Answer option D is incorrect. while the computer gets normal power. C. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. You install a new UPS and connect it to a server through a serial cable. SRAM is made of capacitors.

QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below. as it needs to be refreshed.certkiller.www. DRAM is slower than SRAM.com rtK ille r. Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny capacitors. Answer option B is incorrect. identify the area to which you connect a hard disk drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit.c om 135 . SRAM memory chips are generally used for caching. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM. Answer: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

c om 136 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www.certkiller.com rtK ille r.

Choose two. The read/write heads are attached to the head actuator. A more recent motherboard specification.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE controller. known as platters.com rtK ille r. WINS B. On the typical motherboard. IIS C. DNS Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Browser service D.c om 137 . the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter using 40 or 80 wire cables.www. The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT. The read/write heads are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. ATX. the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows: The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below: QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. In both the AT and ATX designs. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several disks. A. What is a motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components. These platters are attached to the spindle motor.certkiller. improves on the AT design. based on the IBM AT motherboard. which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters.

The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. as the motherboard chipset is not compatible with the ATA-100 data transfer rate. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network.host name mappings. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. Answer: B Explanation: Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. and management. he purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface. If an ATA-100 hard disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard.D Explanation: The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 138 . The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive.certkiller. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested. What will be the maximum data transfer rate of both drives? ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings.www. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). C.com rtK Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive on the primary IDE interface. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no such motherboard or hard disk as the ATA-166.microsoft. Reference: "http://technet. and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive. B. Answer option D is incorrect. and the ATA-100 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. D.aspx" QUESTION NO: 371 A. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A. etc.com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS. information about the domain tree structure. along with other Internet functions. the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service that supports Web site creation. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Answer option C is incorrect. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate. IP address-to. configuration. the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due to the chipset limitation. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).10).

Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. RAID-4 E. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the network. SCSI Identification Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Both the partitions must be of the same size.c om 139 . RAID-1 B. If a portion of a physical disk fails. I/O address B.com rtK ille r. RAID-1 has the poorest performance. RAID-1. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance. Answer option A is incorrect. Among the three RAID levels.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 372 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Master/Slave setting D. also known as stripe set. Which of the following RAID levels will you choose to fulfil the requirement? A. Reference: TechNet. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. RAID-3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID-0. LUN C. It has better performance than a mirror set. also known as mirrored set. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. RAID-0 D. Answer option B is incorrect. you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. Contents: "NT Server and Disk Subsystem Performance" QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. also known as stripe set with parity. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance. A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. The company has a TCP/IP-based Windows NT network.www.certkiller. Answer options E and D are incorrect. RAID-5. RAID-5 C.

Answer option A is incorrect. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives" QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. Whenever a component. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. SCSI devices. and SCSI-3.www. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device "Slay Your Exams" . The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. I/O address B.c om . Master/Slave setting D. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Answer option B is incorrect. IRQs. IRQ. The CPU needs a memory address. SCSI-2. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. Answer option C is incorrect. SCSI Identification Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain.com 140 Ce rtK ille r. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. LUN C. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups. Therefore. Reference: TechNet. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. Resources such as I/O addresses. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. its I/O address. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI ID 7 has top priority. to communicate with any peripheral device. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID.certkiller. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

Answer:

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You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective boxes.

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QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Explanation:

The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below: TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length 1000BaseSX550 meters 100BaseFX2000 meters 100BaseTX100 meters 1000BaseCX25 meters 1000BaseT100 meters

QUESTION NO: 376 HOTSPOT

In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 377

Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mouse type B. RAM size C. Boot sequence D. Shadow RAM E. Hard disk drive parameters F. Date and time G. Floppy disk drive parameters Answer: C,D,E,F,G

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Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

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The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new server baselines. The company has a Windows 2000based application server that serves applications to the users. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. If the hardware is not configured according to the BIOS configuration. C. But. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. the server baseline will be helpful to analyze the server performance after the installation of the application. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Ce Answer: B "Slay Your Exams" . Explanation: After the installation of the application. as there is no change in the hardware of the server. Mark is concerned about the performance of the application server. used to compare different configurations.com rtK A. What is baseline? Baseline measures maximum system capacity and performance. The security log does not store log about success or failure of application installations.www. What will Mark do next after installing the application properly? om QUESTION NO: 378 145 . Mark should create a new server baseline. When you configure shadow RAM. the hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration. the additional bandwidth available for the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. Print the server hardware configuration. This allows faster access to BIOS information.certkiller. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. As he is concerned about the performance of the application server. B. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. ille r. Once a baseline for network usage has been determined. the BIOS will issue a warning. Answer option D is incorrect. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. There is no need to take a printout of the hardware configuration. Create a new server baseline.c Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Monitor disk utilization.

General protection fault C. QUESTION NO: 380 Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment? A.certkiller. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit. Configure a subnet mask on the computer. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. A. Hardware resource conflict B. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. D. Answer: D Explanation: The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation. Hardware resource conflict occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer options C and A are incorrect. B. Answer option A is incorrect. full-time connection to a network. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Answer option C is incorrect. Plan the installation. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. Choose two. C.installation plan. A broadcast storm on the network. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system.com rtK ille r. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. Create a backup strategy. D. Answer: D Explanation: Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow around the chips and result in short circuit.c om 146 .www. The general protection fault does not occur due to humidity. Creating a backup strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre.

industry and consumer statistics.certkiller. provides services such as power.wikipedia. minimize power consumption and other considerations. various interconnects and management.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the smallest single-user systems computers). Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. cooling. blade servers have many components removed to save space. and A are incorrect. typically bulk data processing. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the computing spectrum. Most modern motherboards have the following major components: "Slay Your Exams" . Blade servers C. Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications. Microcomputers B. Reference: "http://en. Choose three.c om . ERP.B. minimize power consumption and other considerations.www. Minicomputers Answer: B Explanation: Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. C. A. A blade enclosure. No components are removed from these.D Explanation: A modern motherboard has several components built in. PCI Slot C. Though.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following have many components removed to save space. which can hold multiple blade servers. Hard disk drive D. Mainframes D. CMOSBattery B. networking. ROM BIOS E.com 147 Ce rtK ille r. Floppy disk drive Answer: A. Answer options D. and financial transaction processing. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer? A.

75 x 20) inches. 35 inches C.certkiller.85 inches D. They are separate units. Answer option B is incorrect.75 inches .c om 148 . 1. QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit? A.25 inches Answer: A QUESTION NO: 384 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below. 5.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Processor-slot/socket Chipset ROM BIOS SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots CPU voltage regulator Battery Answer options C and E are incorrect. or height of racks. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the motherboard. ille r. identify the area showing the Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) slots. 1. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .75 inches B. U is the standard unit of measure for designating the vertical usable space.com rtK Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.

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DDR SDRAM C. Which of the following types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task? A.com 150 Ce You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots.c om . EDO RAM "Slay Your Exams" . such as the display subsystem. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. RDRAM D. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path. SRAM B.Hardware Support" rtK ille r. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. Reference: TechNet. Contents: "Appendix C .certkiller. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. The company has a database server. EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. He wants to use a type of RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10. PCI slots are usually white in color.7 GB/sec. Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM. EISA bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: QUESTION NO: 385 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements.www. These slots are larger than PCI or VESA slots. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot.

SNMP v2 D. Answer options A and C are incorrect. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SNMP v1 and v2 have a number of common features.www. QUESTION NO: 386 Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities? A.7 GB/sec. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. One B. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Answer option A is incorrect. SNMP v3 C.c om 151 . QUESTION NO: 387 You are installing Windows 2000 Server. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite.2 GB/sec. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. such as additional protocol operations. Two Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication feature. DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3. SNMP v6 Answer: B Explanation: SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server. Answer option D is incorrect. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5 volumes? A. but SNMP v2 offers enhancements.certkiller. which allows users to manage the network. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports bandwidths from 1. SNMP v1 B. Unlike DRAM.7 GB/sec. With a bus frequency of 200 MHz.com rtK ille r. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for fault tolerance. Answer option D is incorrect.6 GB/sec to 10.

Do not reuse passwords. 21 inches C. Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. Thirty-two Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. Choose all that apply. Do not reuse passwords. RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored or extended. C. 31.com rtK ille r. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Store the password.C QUESTION NO: 389 What is the height of the 30U server rack? A. 52. you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good password policies. D. In case of a physical disk failure.certkiller. RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks.5 inches Answer: D Explanation: Ce Explanation: The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly.www.c om 152 . Answer: A. 14 inches B. do not reuse the previous password. Change the password regularly. Three D. B. A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. While you are changing the password.5 inches D. Discuss the password with anyone. QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. "Slay Your Exams" .

The 18U server rack has a height of 31. and AMD's K6. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer options C and A are incorrect.com 153 Ce What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers. Slot 1 and Socket A Answer: B Explanation: Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . B. Answer: C. Slot 2 and Socket 370 B. and some K5 model processors use Socket 7. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 30U server rack has a height of 52. With an access time of 15 to 30 nanoseconds. Intel's Pentium.www.5 inches . Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory. Slot 2 and Socket 7 D.5 inches . DRAM requires more power than that of SRAM. r. Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and Duron processors use Socket QUESTION NO: 391 A. QUESTION NO: 390 Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors? A. C. Answer option D is incorrect. Choose two. therefore. SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more. Slot 1 and Socket 370 C. rtK ille A. D. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be refreshed.certkiller. Pentium MMX.D Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed. The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches .c om . SRAM is faster than DRAM. Answer option B is incorrect. DRAM is faster than SRAM. "Slay Your Exams" .

certkiller.www. EDO RAM. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card. You find that a POST error has occurred. Answer option C is incorrect. D. C. Answer option B is incorrect. and D are incorrect. ROM BIOS Answer: D Explanation: The ROM BIOS. QUESTION NO: 393 A. Boot the computer. A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system.com 154 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Insert the card into an open bus slot. How will you use it? rtK ille r. When a computer is turned on or "Slay Your Exams" .c om . The error codes will display on the adapter. It also does not print error codes. B. such as the keyboard. Answer: A Explanation: POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. Microprocessor D. Boot the computer. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. C. When you turn on or restart a computer. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error. It does not store instruction for the POST operation.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 392 Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test? A. Insert the card into an open bus slot. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. Answer option A is incorrect. a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard. stores instruction for Power On Self Test. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manuurer. Insert the card into an open bus slot. The error codes will print. It does not store instruction for the POST routine. Boot the computer. Answer options B. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk. Motherboard C. is plugged in on the computer's motherboard. Connect the card to a serial port. it begins a Power On Self Test (POST) routine. EDO RAM B. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation. a type of random access memory.

000. SCSIBIOS.SYS C.c om .SYS B.com 155 Ce rtK ille r. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS. It is an expensive device that costs around $30.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam restarted. Media tester. Punch down tool Answer: B Explanation: Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. SCSI. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. NTBOOTDD. Optical time domain reflectometer C. What will you do to upgrade "Slay Your Exams" . It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively.certkiller. Tone generator B. and A are incorrect. and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables.SYS D. Answer options C. D.www. But your system does not support the 4GB hard disk. SCSIBOOT. when using SCSI controller with BIOS disabled. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. punch down tool. QUESTION NO: 396 You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk. QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables? A. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections.SYS Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD. such as keyboard. QUESTION NO: 394 You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system. Media tester D. Which file is required if your system uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled? A.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system.

Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. a computer "Slay Your Exams" .com 156 Ce A. If no partition is set as Active. it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one additional disk for the volume. you can upgrade by the Flashing method. Install a new operating system. After uploading the software and rebooting the machine. Then he must create a RAID5 volume using six disks. C. The network has a Windows 2000 server. If your motherboard is using an Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip. Mark wants to reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network.certkiller. new BIOS will be functional. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard. In this method. and the volume should have the maximum space for storing data. and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. A RAID5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. B. QUESTION NO: 397 Answer: B Explanation: To support fault tolerance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the BIOS? A. B. you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume. What will he do to accomplish this? r. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer.www.c om . D. ROM BIOS chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version. while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. Configure the disks to an active partition. C. rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. First he must backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume. Answer option C is incorrect. The server has eight 40GB hard disks. Replace the motherboard. Configure the disks to a spanned volume. If a portion of a physical disk fails. D.

etc. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. Spoofing Answer: C Explanation: A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway" QUESTION NO: 399 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . In Windows 2000/2003. etc. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Answer option A is incorrect.c om 157 . because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. chatting on-line. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. Answer option A is incorrect. When an attacker sends TCP SYNs repeatedly.www. PING attack C.certkiller. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. email address.com rtK ille r. However. the target computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP address. A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. "Using mirrored volumes" QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open? A. it is known as a PING attack. SYN attack D. the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to handle any more connections. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state. In IP spoofing. For each SYN packet received.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam does not boot from the hard disk drive. Using this technique. caller ID. It can be created on dynamic disks only. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. Reference: Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes". It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. Hacking B. thereby denying service to legitimate users. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. it attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. Reference: TechNet. an attacker sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer.

Adding a processor will improve the performance of data processing on the server.www. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to the server will not affect the server's network connection speed. QUESTION NO: 400 A. Ultra 160 SCSI B. Answer option C is incorrect. The server has a dual processor motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. Ce Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate? "Slay Your Exams" . SCSI3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI.c om 158 . Answer option D is incorrect. B. Ultra 320 SCSI E. It will not increase the network connection speed. Answer option E is incorrect. Ultra 160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. Add a processor to the server's motherboard. D. It also improves network uptime by protecting the network in the event of a network adapter failure. Answer option B is incorrect. The server is connected to the network through a 10/100 Mbps switch.certkiller. Answer: A Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. SCSI-3 Answer: D Explanation: Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic efficiently between the network adapters. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection. Answer option C is incorrect. Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Answer option B is incorrect. What will he do to accomplish this? A. Add more RAM to the server. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server. Answer option A is incorrect. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. C. The company's network has a file server that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. SCSI-2 D. It can only help in improving the server's data processing performance. Ultra 900 SCSI C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.com rtK ille r. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in improving the server's network connection speed.

B. What is the most likely cause? rtK ille r. in bytes.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 401 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use? A. Answer option D is incorrect. Cache Bytes Peak C. Cache size is not a requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST).microsoft. Answer option B is incorrect. The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory. Reference: "http://technet.c om . that can be committed without having to extend the paging file. Answer option B is incorrect. Processors do not have jumpers. The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot.10). Commit Limit Answer: C Explanation: The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect. The Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory. it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST).certkiller.aspx" QUESTION NO: 402 A. C. Answer option A is incorrect.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. You upgrade a server's processor.com 159 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc.www. The BIOS is not flashed. in bytes. the most likely cause is that the processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started. There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. Answer: C Explanation: Since the server was working before the upgrade. Therefore. Committed Bytes B. D. Answer option A is incorrect. the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option D is incorrect. Available Bytes D. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size. After the upgrade.

c om . it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no such counter as Current Bytes/sec. Run the hardware diagnostic utility. E. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. Which of the following steps can Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. Reference: "http://www.B. which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam motherboard. malfunctioning add-on cards.com 160 Ce rtK ille r. Add more RAM.sql-serverperformance. When a computer is turned on or restarted. Answer: A. A. QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks? A. the server was handling the same level of workload without any problem. Examine the server log.com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1. C. B. such as keyboard. It measures the total amount of data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. Output Queue Length D.D Explanation: Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. Some weeks ago. Answer option A is incorrect. Current Bytes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup. Choose three. Current Bandwidth C. and the failure of cooling devices such as "Slay Your Exams" . loose hardware contact. Answer option C is incorrect. The company's network contains a file server. Bytes Total/sec B. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has.certkiller.www.aspx" QUESTION NO: 404 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.

VGA/SVGA video adapter D. 10BaseT Ethernet cable Answer: D Explanation: A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter jack on a computer. NSLOOKUP D. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps: Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. Serial port C. TRACERT B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the fans inside the server cabinet. The administrator has to check that the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. Check the cooling components such as heat sink. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem? A. He also has to check whether the fans attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly. Contents: "Building a Home Network. IPCONFIG C. PING Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable B. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector? A. adding more RAM cannot help to resolve the issue. Answer option B is incorrect. Part 1" QUESTION NO: 406 You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector. Hence. Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware.com rtK ille r. Run the hardware diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors. Answer option E is incorrect. You are having DNS resolution problem. Moreover. It can be useful to improve server performance. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male connector. and SMPS fan. Reference: TechNet. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in size. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 161 . processor fan. Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any accident or disaster. corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot.certkiller. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector.

The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. On receiving the packets.9 AM to 5 PM. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. Answer option B is incorrect. Thursday Answer: C Explanation: The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB. and debugging other server-related problems. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. You are planning a data backup plan for the company's network. and data transfer rate of the tape drive is 2. Friday D. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday . It is also used to display. Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools [Q217014]" QUESTION NO: 407 A. Answer option A is incorrect. the destination host responds with a series of replies. Tuesday E. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. Answer option D is incorrect. You configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2. Reference: TechNet. Monday B. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases.c om . The management does not want the backup plan to interfere with the network during business hours.com 162 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full backup. What is the "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt.certkiller.11GB/hour. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host.11GB/hour. register. On which of the following days can you perform a full backup? rtK ille r. Wednesday C. it will run on the following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company.www.

It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. "Slay Your Exams" . Printer cable is loose B. B. A. What is the most likely cause? A. you access the hard disk as D: drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data.certkiller. E. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Contents: "Description of Full. When you run the DIR command on D: drive.c om 163 . In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.com rtK ille r. or are new. on your system. Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. D.D QUESTION NO: 409 You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave. the page is printed with junk characters. C. Ce Explanation: The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters. Hard disk drive cable is faulty. Reference: TechNet. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Incremental. It needs only one tape to restore data. Faulty printer cartridge C. since the last incremental or full backup. Faulty printer driver Answer: A. Faulty RAM on print server D. When you boot the system with a bootable floppy disk. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. and Differential Backups [Q136621" QUESTION NO: 408 David configured a system as a print server on the network. Hard disk drive has no partition. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. When he prints a Word document. you receive an error message. Choose two. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Hard disk drive is not formatted.www.

ille r. BACKUP D. which can carry voice but not data. you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Therefore. The question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. It consists of four twistedpairs with three twists per foot. If the hard disk is not partitioned. It consists of four twisted-pairs. RDISK B. Category 3 C. Category 1 refers to the traditional Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables. QUESTION NO: 410 Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps? A. in that case you cannot access the hard disk drive as D: drive. NTBACKUP C. It consists of four twistedpairs of copper wire. this option is incorrect.www. Which utility will you use? A. BIOS configuration and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because.com 164 Ce rtK Explanation: Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. Category 5 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 411 You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. ERD /NT Answer: A Explanation: Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 16 Mbps. Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. These files are stored in compressed format. Category 4 D. Category 1 B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect.c om .

Create a new server baseline. To start RDISK. and click OK. type RDISK. A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. D. To restore the information from ERD. Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]" QUESTION NO: 412 Your company's network has a file server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam ERD includes portion of the registry. Proxy server B. ille r. you should create a new server baseline. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following servers provides network file storage? A. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. ERD can be created through the RDISK. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.c om . Run Disk Defragmenter on the server. Although it may "Slay Your Exams" . Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous clients. Answer options D. and CONFIG. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. NAS server C. C. computer's default profile (NTUSER. Reference: TechNet. go to Start menu > Run. You have checked and verified that the application is working properly. B.com 165 Ce rtK Explanation: After installing a new application on the server. ERD is not self bootable. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. and A are incorrect. DNS server D. Install the latest service pack on the server. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.DAT). What should you do next? A. You have installed a new application on the server.EXE utility.BAT.LOG.www.certkiller. Add more RAM to the server. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. AUTOEXEC.SYS). B. DHCP server Answer: B Explanation: The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage.

the "parity bit". and are controlled and configured over the network.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage" What is the meaning of parity error? Explanation: Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. until the problem disappears. Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows 3. For example. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. A DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network.certkiller. or other resource. such as a file. web page. the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client.wikipedia. B.x [Q93521]" QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter? "Slay Your Exams" . D. it is not designed to be a general purpose server. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Answer option D is incorrect. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit. NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display. Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS. requesting some service. Reference: TechNet. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of memory. information about the domain tree structure. Parity is a basic check of information integrity. often using a browser. If the request is validated by the filter. and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. Reference: "http://en. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. IP address-to-host name mappings. A parity error can be caused by different circumstances. Answer option C is incorrect. ille r. Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. but it is almost always a hardware problem.c QUESTION NO: 414 om . A client connects to the proxy server.com 166 Ce Answer: B rtK A. Parity error occurs due to faulty memory. available from a different server. etc. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response. Answer option A is incorrect. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers.www. is used to store the parity of the data. C. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information. connection.

php/10954_3328281_2/Keep. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or disk striping. Level 3 D. C. Reference: "http://www. What can happen in an event of power failure? A. Current Bandwidth B. Distorted display. Level 1 B. Level 5 or disk striping with parity. Reference: TechNet. CMOS battery failure.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.Tabson-Your-Network-Traffic. Level 1 or mirroring. Answer option B is incorrect. Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. The Output Queue Length counter of the network interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks.certkiller. The Disk Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object." QUESTION NO: 417 Your computer is not connected to the UPS. Level 5 Answer: A Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems. Damage of components.c om . Bytes Total/sec Answer: D Explanation: The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter. Answer option A is incorrect.www.htm" QUESTION NO: 416 In Windows NT/2000. "Slay Your Exams" . which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring? A. Answer option C is incorrect. which is not fault-tolerant. Output Queue Length counter C.com 167 Ce rtK ille r. Level 0 C.com/netsysm/article.enterprisenetworkingplanet. B. Disk Queue Length D.

170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds.certkiller. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure. RJ-11 C.com A. Reference: TechNet. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. while the computer gets normal power. When power surge occurs. MT-RJ rtK ille You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc. RJ-45 B. power failure may cause damage to peripheral components. so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. LC D.c om 168 . The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver. It also provides protection against power surges. r. The company wants to use Small Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Answer option D is incorrect. Contents: "Glossary" QUESTION NO: 418 Answer: C.D Explanation: The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge.www. using battery backup. In an event of power failure. Choose two. The connector is a 2-fiber connector and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack. Answer option C is incorrect. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector. Answer: B Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS. What is an MT-RJ connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector. QUESTION NO: 419 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in the CMOS chip. Answer option A is incorrect. BIOS configuration is reset. Which of the following connectors can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of management access to those devices. Four E. Reference: "http://en. also known as stripe set with parity.wikipedia. Three B. you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information. The remote-access connection is made through the in. D. In-band connection relies on operating-system network drivers to establish computer connections. C. Thirty-two D. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. To manage network servers and routers remotely. Out-of-band management is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Users can use remote-access connections to manage servers. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices. in-band connection is available only when the server is initialized and functioning properly.band port that resides on the target server.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK Answer: B ille r. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 169 . It is used for taking backups. Unlike out-of-band connection. administrators need network access when problems occur.certkiller. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. It is used for auditing the network activities. It has better performance as compared to a mirror set.www. Answer options A and D are incorrect. B. Explanation: Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. Five Answer: A Explanation: RAID-5. The most common in-band remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter. Reference: TechNet. If a portion of a physical disk fails. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes" QUESTION NO: 420 Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management? A. Two C. It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. However.

c om . 386DX.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. A. 80386 C.www. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and Pentium MMX. 80486 D. Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval? ille r. TRACEROUTE D. Choose three. 486DX. 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as 486SX.D Explanation: 80386. NSLOOKUP rtK You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt.certkiller. 486DX2 and 486DX4. Ping B. Answer option D is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 422 Answer: C Explanation: The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval.com 170 Ce A. Pentium Answer: B. "Slay Your Exams" . This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. 8088 B. 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors. TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. and debugging other serverrelated problems.C. TRACERT C. 80386 processors were introduced in computer models such as 386SX.

This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets. B. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address.org/wiki/Traceroute" QUESTION NO: 423 You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices.c om . What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Terminate all external SCSI devices. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). Answer: B Explanation: The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter.com 171 Ce rtK ille r. B. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer.wikipedia. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. C. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. D. Answer option A is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. SCSI-2. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Terminate only the internal SCSI device. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices.certkiller. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The first and last devices in the SCSI bus should be terminated.www. D. the destination host responds with a series of replies.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option B is incorrect. SCSI devices. C. How will you achieve this? A. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations. Reference: "http://en. QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. It provides interface for connecting the computer to auxiliary devices. and SCSI-3. "Slay Your Exams" . The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter.

The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. the current from the surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer. or switching surge. Answer: D Explanation: A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. B. This device does not provide protection from a direct lightning strike. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts. such as for one or two seconds. It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. Reference: TechNet. A lightning arrestor is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike. Answer option C is incorrect. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold or hot spell. When a lightning surge. It is installed after an antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver. Answer option A is incorrect. also known as surge arrestor. Answer option B is incorrect.c om 172 . travels down the power system to the arrestor.www. When the induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna. The typical lightning arrestor.certkiller. It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. NIC is also known as network adapter. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. It indicates there is enough power on the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current electrical demand. a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. A brownout lasts longer than a power sag and corrupts more data.com rtK ille r. the lightning arrestor shunts the excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. C. Content: Glossary QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following statements about brownout is true? A. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). Reference: "http://en. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges. and if a home or office takes a direct hit. Lightning carries millions of volts. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time. D.wikipedia.

Answer option B is incorrect. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. D. Although you should check the compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. You should purchase memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. Answer option C is incorrect. There is no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on the server. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard. What will be your first step before purchasing memory? A.certkiller. without replacing the motherboard. Check the memory size on POST. You want to increase memory in a database server on the network.www. Verify the availability of memory slot. you will have to replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server. QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP Answer: Ce Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown in the image. Otherwise.c om 173 . Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing. Answer: A Explanation: You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before purchasing memory. you will have to change the existing memory. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase memory on the server. B. C. Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r. it is the second step.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 426 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. "Slay Your Exams" .

161 Answer: B. Answer option C is incorrect. By default. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. 443 D. A.c om . Answer option A is incorrect.D Explanation: The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162. which is used in TVs and VCRs. Choose two. It is an inexpensive connector.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. 162 C.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded medium performance coaxial signal connector. The pin of the connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable. which allows users to manage the network. "Slay Your Exams" . Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication.com 174 Ce rtK ille r. 80 B.

On a Monday morning. What is the most likely cause of the issue? A. The SCSI card driver is not installed. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port. The SCSI card is faulty.www. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. keyboards. D. even though the hard disk drive is working properly. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system. Answer: B Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate.c om . Answer: A.C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based. Mark comes to his office and starts the server. and cameras. The company's network contains a file server. D. scanners. He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive. Answer option D is incorrect. including speakers. Both the drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. tape drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam HTTP uses port 80 as the default port. which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly. Topic: Appendix C Hardware Support QUESTION NO: 430 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port. QUESTION NO: 429 Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. CD-ROM drives. The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. C. C. The RAM on the server is faulty. external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices. USB does not support Plug n Play installation. B. USB supports hot plugging.com 175 Ce rtK ille r. USB supports hot plugging. The "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Answer option A is incorrect. B. The tape drive has no power supply. Choose two. A.

The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers. She installs a new device driver for the controller. restart Server1. LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk drive. QUESTION NO: 431 What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing? A. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB. Monica has to restore Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD).c om . Answer options D. D. After setup completes. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1.certkiller. C. and sectors. and RAM have their own addressing method. Monica wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. What should she do to accomplish this? A. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam SCSI card is not faulty. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days. Answer: B Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard disk drives of more than 504MB. D. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up. Reference: TechNet. To allow use of zip drives. Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to overwrite the new file. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB. DVD. LBA is not used with them. Answer option C is incorrect. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD. Restart Server1. and C are incorrect. Server1 and Server2. In order to work. B. C. Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined [Q122052]" QUESTION NO: 432 Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1. heads. it assigns a unique identifier to each sector on the drive. Since zip drive. Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Server1 is unable to boot properly. Now. A.www.com 176 Ce rtK ille r. Instead of using cylinders. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk drive. as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. B.

1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by installing a new SCSI device driver. Microsoft. keyboards.1. she should use the Last Known Good Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. In this case. Therefore.certkiller.com rtK ille r. It is not required to restart the computer to install USB devices.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. though. Software drivers are required for USB devices. "Windows NT". As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good Configuration. Intel. This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry key. Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty drivers. Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE" Ce Answer: C "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect.c om 177 . "Knowledge Base". whereas USB 2. "Recovering Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]" QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices? A. Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. C. What is Last Known Good Configuration? The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last successfully logged on.www.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. Answer option D is incorrect. reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. Software drivers are not required for USB devices. Reference: TechNet. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it. Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support". IBM. B.ROM drives. the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry. scanners etc. tape drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Whenever a user logs on to a computer. DEC. and Northern Telecom. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost. One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good Configuration. It is possible. D. USB 1. Answer options C and A are incorrect. if an operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option. Reference: TechNet. USB 2. USB supports hot plugging. Answer option A is incorrect. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device. that the drivers for your USB devices are already available on the computer. such as CD. USB devices are non-Plug and Play. you do not need to provide a device driver separately. Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. NEC.

B. Answer option C is incorrect. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. virus attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. it showed the Invalid System Disk error message.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 434 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Media failure on the hard disk drive. The computer is infected with virus. A virus can infect boot sector. Floppy drive failure. it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely cause? A. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. D. Answer option B is incorrect. The next time he turned on the computer. a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program.c om . According to Rick.www. However. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk. infect those targets. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. the computer shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. the computer searched for operating system files on the floppy drive first. his computer was working properly till last evening and he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning.com 178 Ce rtK ille r. In most cases. networking files. a Sales Manager. Instead. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. What is a virus? A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. QUESTION NO: 435 What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card? "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. when he turned on his computer this morning. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected. Rick. reports that his computer was working properly till last evening. and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. and system files. It is possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his work. Although media failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur. C. it is rare. Answer option A is incorrect. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting.certkiller.

Which of the following tools will help you diagnose the problem? A. To configure I/O address. However. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface card and cannot be changed by users. Answer option C is incorrect.c om . Answer: D Explanation: The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. They use software setup programs instead. The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall. QUESTION NO: 436 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote "Slay Your Exams" . Resources such as I/O addresses. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. IPCONFIG B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. its I/O address. Nowadays most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. IRQs. TELNET C. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. TRACERT D. ROUTE Answer: C Explanation: The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer.com site. A user complains that he is unable to access the abc. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.certkiller. IRQ. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. D. The CPU needs a memory address. full-time connection to a network.www.com 179 Ce rtK ille r. B. C. To configure data transfer speed. Whenever a component. To configure transceiver type. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC manuurer. to communicate with any peripheral device. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. To configure MAC address. This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network communication. he can access all other sites.

The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. It uses TCP port 23 by default. default gateway etc. Print. Add. 386SX B. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table. Delete. 7 inches C. 35 inches D. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. subnet mask. the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7 (4 x 1. The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1. Therefore.c om 180 . AMD Athlon C. Pentium 4 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam host.75) inches. Answer option D is incorrect. 21 inches Answer: B Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1.75 x 12) inches. such as IP address. offers the ability to run programs remotely.75 x 20) inches. QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit? A. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. of a networked computer.75 inches B.www. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD K6 D. 1.75 inches . A. Answer option A is incorrect. Choose three.75 inches . Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.. to access files. QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. and facilitates remote administration. and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE command. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings.

Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B. Employees complain about the poor performance of this server. QUESTION NO: 439 David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. Moving some applications to another server can also resolve the issue. He will add another processor to the server. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT workstations. He will add another network card to the server. Answer option C is incorrect. disk striping is not required.c om 181 .D Explanation: The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer option A is incorrect. Therefore. when the value of this counter exceeds 80%. What is %Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a computer. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133 MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive. To overcome this. there is no need to add another processor. He will use disk striping. B. Answer option A is incorrect. This indicates a bottleneck in memory.certkiller. D.C. Answer option D is incorrect. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set (RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance. This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy. He will add more memory to the server. A bottleneck in the processor occurs.www. Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . either the processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. Since the problem does not occur due to high network usage. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width. Since the problem is not due to disk performance. David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk time70% What will he do to enhance server performance? A. C.com rtK ille r. there is no need to add another network card. Answer: B Explanation: Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory. Reference: TechNet. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Since there is no bottleneck in the processor.

By changing the CMOS setting D. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 440 How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system? A. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. If two drives are attached to one controller. By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive C. But due some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. Network device driver C. All the required hardware has been installed on John's computer. By setting a jumper on the motherboard B. full-time connection to a network. By adding an add-on card Answer: B Explanation: You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. QUESTION NO: 442 "Slay Your Exams" . Networking protocol stack B. Network interface card rtK Edward Inc.c om . has recently added John's computer as a part of the network. due to which John is unable to connect to the network.certkiller. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. Which hardware is missing? ille r. John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. So this is the problem of missing network interface card in the computer. Network client software D.com 182 Ce A. or Slave. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. Slave. QUESTION NO: 441 Answer: D Explanation: As the question states. none of them will work. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave.www. But some hardware may have been missed during the installation.

If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. so that he can take a full backup every night using all three drives. he must use at least two 25 GB DAT drives. C. Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem. everyday. C. It is not possible to take a full backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option C is incorrect. D. the other takes over the job.www. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive.c om Answer: A 183 . The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations. and a differential backup every night. ille r. B. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. the other shuts down automatically.certkiller. B. it is unnecessary to purchase two DAT drives. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon. he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer: B Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option D is incorrect. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom implement to accomplish this task? A. QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster? A. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup. Therefore. Tom configures the server with a 25 GB DAT drive. Backing up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will increase the administrative burden. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives. D. the other node provides resources.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc.com rtK Explanation: Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server . He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive. so that he can take a full backup every night using both drives. He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do so as the DAT drive runs out of space. It prevents viruses from corrupting user data.

90 analog modem. which is used to access and manage the cluster. AMR Answer: A Explanation: PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers.www. Reference: "http://en. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III. on an expansion card. The audio/modem riser (AMR). PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express. CNR C. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. Answer option B is incorrect. a virtual server name. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems. running at up to four times the clock speed. DMR D.certkiller. and Athlon personal computers.wikipedia. Visually there is no such similarity. if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. such as sound cards and modems. phone-line-based networking.org/wiki/PCI-X" QUESTION NO: 445 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 184 . What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio devices.e. making a total of 46 pins. commonly abbreviated as PCIe. multi-channel audio.. PCI-X B. Answer option C is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe? A. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. the other takes over the job.com rtK ille r. It supports V. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from being corrupted by viruses. There is no such slot as DMR. and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. It has two rows of 23 pins each. but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation and uses the same protocol. also known as an AMR slot. It is a double-wide version of PCI.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam In a two-node cluster. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe. In case of a bottleneck on a node. is an expansion slot. PCI-X has been replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express. Pentium 4. the other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node.

Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition B. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4 Answer: A. A. Mark wants to restore data from an older DAT tape.C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition C. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 B. Choose two. What will he need in order to accomplish the task? A. Sun Solaris 10 D. Due to a substantial loss of data. The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT) to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system.D. om 185 .c Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition D. Windows 2000 Server C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.E Explanation: The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect. A DAT to DLT converter and its driver Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Mac OS X Panther E. A DLT tape drive and its driver B. Sun Solaris 9 ille r. QUESTION NO: 446 Answer: A.www. QUESTION NO: 447 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Choose all that apply.com rtK A.certkiller. The company's network has a server that is used for backup purposes. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing.D Explanation: Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect.

Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based setup programs to change the CMOS settings. you can change the configuration of your computer using a menu driven application. BIOS issues a warning. the hardware is checked according to the CMOS configuration. A DAT driver D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.certkiller.c om . In CMOS. A DLT drive is faster than most other types of tape drives. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task. and sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). Choose two. Digital Audio Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. Using the DAT tape drive. Mark also needs a DAT tape drive. Ctrl + Alt + Shift C. It can hold up to 24GB of data. Ctrl + Alt + Esc B. It is a chip installed on the motherboard.com 186 Ce A. QUESTION NO: 448 Answer: A.5 MBps. DATs are sequential-access media. In CMOS. If a user forgets the password for CMOS "Slay Your Exams" . The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders. A DAT cartridge is a little larger than a credit card in width and height. If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration. A DAT tape drive and its driver Answer: D Explanation: In order to restore data from an old DAT tape.C Explanation: You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). Shift + Alt +Del rtK ille Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option B is incorrect. r. It has data transfer rates of up to 2. There is no need of a DLT tape drive. Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC. The DAT tape can support data transfer rates of about 2 MBps. Del D. as it cannot read a DAT tape. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor. heads. Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. It is 0. the computer configuration can be changed using a menu driven application. the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. which stores hardware configuration of the computer.www. When the computer is booted.5 inches wide and the cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB.

and a correctly configured port. The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. RS-232 D. QUESTION NO: 449 Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com 187 Ce Explanation: Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby while the main power is within an acceptable range. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing? A. Typically. IEEE 1284 B. Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam configuration. Today most UPS are of the SPS type. instead of shorting the CMOS jumper. The True-online UPS has continuous load on the battery. To remove the password assigned. rtK ille r. he will have to short the CMOS jumper. If the main power varies outside the range. DB-9 Answer: A Explanation: To take advantage of bi-directional printing. the user can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds. bi-directional cables "Slay Your Exams" . he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a load and the battery is always being charged. Line conditioner UPS C. A. IEEE 1394 C.certkiller. you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant printer cable. on some new motherboards.www. Choose two. the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. Answer options A and B are incorrect. However. The time required to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6 milliseconds.D . a bi-directional printer.c om Answer: C. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over time. True-online UPS D. Offline UPS B.

on the back of a PC used for connecting mouse. Answer option D is incorrect. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. QUESTION NO: 451 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support? A. D. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up.c om 188 .www. Answer option B is incorrect. A. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. Answer option B is incorrect. and other serial devices to the personal computer. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices.D Explanation: The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. A DB-9 connector is used by the serial interface.certkiller.com rtK ille r. Answer option C is incorrect. It is a 9-pin. excluding the SCSI adapter. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI RAID storage unit with a new Web server. B. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss. two rows.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam have the number 1284 printed on them. male connector. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet.C. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. QUESTION NO: 452 How many devices. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. serial ports. also known as COM ports. Which of the following practices will keep the system working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. or RS. Choose three. traditional PC storage devices. It is also known as serial port. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. modem.232 ports. and handheld devices. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. Answer: A. C. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Answer option A is incorrect.com/enus/library/cc768048.aspx" QUESTION NO: 454 Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration. Contents: "Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]" QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU? A. Reference: "http://technet. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has a 16-bit bus.certkiller. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. 15 C. You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the "Slay Your Exams" . are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. and SCSI-3. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. 4 D. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1.c om . The System: System Calls/sec counter is a measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services. SCSI-2. 7 Answer: B Explanation: A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter. including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy servicing requests. Answer option C is incorrect. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Processor: %Privilege Time C.com 189 Ce rtK ille r. SCSI devices. System: System Calls/sec D. Reference: TechNet. System: Processor Queue Length Answer: D Explanation: The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU.www. SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with device numbers ranging from 0 to 7. Processor: %Processor Time B. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. These partitions use the FAT file system.microsoft.

Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets). Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all Windows-based operating systems. Installing heavy equipment as near as "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000. or spanned volumes (volume sets) become dynamic mirrored volumes. dynamic RAID5 volumes. It can only contain volumes created through Disk Management. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. D. Choose two.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam dynamic RAID5 volumes. and any version of Windows NT. There is no such facility to break stripe set with parity. Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk. Answer: A. RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity). What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended partitions with logical drives. It can also contain spanned. or dynamic spanned volumes. mirrored.www.com 190 Ce rtK ille r. Answer option C is incorrect. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of equipment in the server rack. striped volumes (stripe sets). Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set. dynamic striped volumes. A. It cannot be accessed by MS-DOS. Windows 2000 Server Manual.C Explanation: It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. the existing partitions on the basic disk become simple volumes on the dynamic disk. striped.c om .0 or earlier. According to the question. you want to change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set. Windows 95/98. respectively. C. B. There is no such option to upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. D. Answer: D Explanation: On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk. B. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. C. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack.certkiller. Article "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 455 Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort? A. and RAID-5 volumes created using Windows NT 4. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives.

such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. Moreover. Answer option B is incorrect.www. either during the process of transmission. C. as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs. or on storage. DVDs. either during the process of transmission. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. It is a system of adding redundant data. the lower the CAS latency. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number. In general. and it is therefore suitable for simplex communication such as broadcasting. to a message. to a message. or parity data. placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of the rack. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. D.com rtK ille r. or on storage. B. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan the location of hardware in the server rack. RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks. QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency? A. Answer option A is incorrect. the better.c om 191 . a back-channel is not required in forward error correction. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAID is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other equipment on the upper side of the rack. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins.certkiller. or parity data. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. Installing heavy equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the equipment. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission of the data. Answer: B Explanation: Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. An ECC (errorcorrecting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in lower-layer communication. Answer option D is incorrect. hard disks. and RAM. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam as in RAID 0. but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk.wikipedia. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. Answer option A is incorrect. When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . and the heights may vary. etc. Answer option C is incorrect. A DIMM slot is larger than a SIMM slot.com rtK ille r. Contents: "Test IP-addressto-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP". RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes. Reference: "http://en. which allows users to manage the network. PC2700.375" high. FTP B. SMTP Answer: B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. This array distributes data across multiple disks. PC3200 and PC3500 and faster. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100.www. RAID 1. Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data reliability or increased input/output performance. they are said to be in a RAID array.375" long and 1. Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions.org/wiki/CAS_latency" Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address? A. SNMP D.certkiller. but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a total of 184. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. ARP C. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.c om QUESTION NO: 457 192 . Answer option C is incorrect. Reference: MSDN. 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon systems. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. Answer option D is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network. The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email messages between servers over the Internet.

Choose all that apply. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. Tape drive C. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. You can configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers. Slave. Reference: TechNet. CD-ROM drive. to an IDE channel.www. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. If two drives are attached to one channel. SCSI devices. etc.com 193 Ce rtK Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Reference: TechNet. 3 C. CD drive B. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. and C are incorrect.0" QUESTION NO: 459 A. first as a Master and second as a Slave. Hard disk drive E.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 458 How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel? A. Sound card D. and hard disk drive. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. B. tape drive. Answer options D.certkiller. An IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. 4 D. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. or Slave. 2 B. You can connect devices such as hard disk drive.B. none of them will work. Modem Answer: A. Contents: "Performance Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4. 7 Answer: A Explanation: An IDE channel can support two devices. Contents: "Storage Management Operations Guide" "Slay Your Exams" . ille r.D Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive. SCSI-2. and SCSI-3.c om . such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive.

PING D.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 460 Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply? A. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. TRACERT C. What is the ping utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. Contents: "Chapter 3 . References: TechNet. Answer option D is incorrect.. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. NETSTAT B. incoming and outgoing data. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. default gateway etc. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly. On receiving the packets. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. of a networked computer.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. subnet mask. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Answer option A is incorrect. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. such as IP address.c om 194 . It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect.www. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. the destination host responds with a series of replies.

The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. NBTSTAT D. NETSTAT B. PING C. Answer option A is incorrect. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. TRACERT Answer: D Explanation: TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. update the NetBIOS name cache. Contents: "Chapter 3 . the destination host responds with a series of replies. On receiving the packets.certkiller. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. Answer option B is incorrect. incoming and outgoing data.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. This helps administrators to isolate the problem there. Reference: TechNet. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 195 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at. and determine the registered names and scope IDs.com rtK ille r.

Answer options A and C are incorrect.www. a large amount of data is divided into identical portions. it is faster to read or write the data from a striped volume than from a spanned volume. Striped volumes are not fault tolerant. C. A. Choose two. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. QUESTION NO: 463 Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. RAID 2 D. It also provides fault tolerance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 462 Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. in a striped volume.certkiller.com 196 Ce rtK ille r. are the two RAID levels which support fault tolerance. Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB.c om . The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. B. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks.E Explanation: RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity). It does not provide fault tolerance. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. RAID 1 B. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. Choose two. RAID-0 volumes are also referred to as striped volumes. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: B. It provides fault tolerance.D Explanation: Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks.0 implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. If a portion of a physical disk fails. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. RAID 3 C. Since. A. RAID 0 Answer: A. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID 4 E. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. RAID 5 F.

www. Ampere meter B.certkiller. LAN analyzer D. Files on the remote computers are taking a long time to open. One morning.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam not support fault tolerance. Which of the following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card? A. Voltmeter is an instrument for measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. Mark will have to use a LAN analyzer. Voltmeter Explanation: In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network. This device is also known as packet sniffer. The server is also responding slowly to database queries. Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of an electrical current in amperes. Answer option D is incorrect. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. What will you do to improve the server's performance? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis. users report that the network has become quite slow. Mark examines the network and suspects that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. It reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a humanreadable format. Time Domain Reflectometer C. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. QUESTION NO: 465 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company's network has a database server. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array. QUESTION NO: 464 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Answer option A is incorrect.c om Answer: C 197 . You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to troubleshoot the problems. Answer option B is incorrect. The server's performance is decreasing day by day.com rtK ille r.

The Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. According to the scenario.5 inches space is available in existing rack. as the Pages/sec value is quite high. 6U rtK Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server.e. Answer: C Explanation: The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem. An existing equipment rack in the server room has only 11. there is no need to change the network card.wikipedia. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing rack.25" and so on. Therefore. The problem is due to shortage of RAM. Which of the following is the maximum size of the server that can be installed into the rack? ille r. QUESTION NO: 466 Answer: D Explanation: A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack. Answer option A is incorrect. 7U B. the value is 35. 4U D. Answer option D is incorrect. 3U is 5.c om 198 . Answer options A and B are incorrect.5). Hence. Add more RAM. 2U is 3.75". Answer option B is incorrect. However. 9U C. The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard.5".www. 11.75 inches ( 44. D. 6 x1. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310. a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1.45 mm ) high. Change the network card with a high speed card. One rack unit is 1. Reboot the server. Add one more microprocessor.org/wiki/Rack_unit" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Hence. another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Adding more RAM to the server will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task. C.75 = 10.com A. Reference: "http://en. the maximum size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i.5 inches space available. in the question.certkiller. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the server's memory. Therefore. B. This suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. A rack unit is also known as U.

One of the users complains that his Windows 2000 Server is not starting. Network Monitor B. Recovery Console is used by the Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems without installing a second copy of the operating system. Which tool will you use to resolve this problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers. Choose two. Safe Mode boot C.c om 199 .File Systems QUESTION NO: 468 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . offering a variety of products and financial services. enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. What is Network Monitor? Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for networking and NTFS partition on their disks. View. or installation of incompatible drivers or system services.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 467 Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. etc. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. It bypasses blocking issues. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used. such as mouse. The Alert. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Network Monitor can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD Chapter 17 .com rtK ille r. over time.certkiller. Recovery Console D. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network. Performance Monitor Answer: B. over time. such as system corruption.C Explanation: Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem on the operating system files. You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted system files is preventing the computer from starting. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Monitoring errors. keyboard. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000 operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages.www. A. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer.

What is the function of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations.C Explanation: The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the door of the server room.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 469 Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. SRAM is faster than DRAM. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Lock the server on the server chassis.com 200 Ce rtK ille r. SRAM is used for cache memory. Put a lock on the door of the server room. Answer: A. Choose all that apply. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM. Direct the incoming traffic to more trustworthy internal computers. What is a firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from coming in or going out of a specified network or computer. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room. Contents: "Chapter 3 .certkiller. SRAM is used for main memory. Log "Slay Your Exams" .www. and provides centralized access control on how users should use the network.c om . It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Choose two. Unlike DRAM. Reference: TechNet. A. C. Answer: A. B.B Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. D. A. D. Install a firewall on the server. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. B. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet. C. It is used to separate an internal network from the Internet. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. A firewall can also perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1.www. SCSI IDs determine device priority on a SCSI bus. and SCSI-3. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. Level 2 D.certkiller. 12.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam traffic to and from the private network. SCSI devices. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0 to 7. SCSI-2. 8 = highest F:1 = lowest Answer: A. Higher ID numbers have higher priority. while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15.D Explanation: SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. network topology. 4. 8. QUESTION NO: 470 In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 9.c om . Level 1 Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . 15. 6. Level 4 C. 1. Level 3 B. Therefore. 3. Choose all that apply. Hide information. SCSI IDs are split into two groups. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. 13. 2. such as computer names. 11. A. 7 = highest E. 7 = lowest C. SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority.com 201 Ce rtK ille r. 14. 1 = highest D. 10. 5. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. 0. 8 = lowest B. network device types. and internal user IDs from external users. with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15. QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor? A.

Choose all that apply. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. A. B.www.certkiller.C QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery? A. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Hiring more employees C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor. Answer: A. A new application is installed on the server. Answer options B and A are incorrect.com 202 Ce Explanation: Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more employees A new application is installed on the server. Volt Ampere C. Ohm B.B. A network device has failed due to power surge. Adding more RAM to the server D. Contents: "Chapter 3 .Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Answer option C is incorrect. Ampere hours Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and level 4. The failure of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer option D is incorrect.c om . Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Reference: TechNet. so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. Hertz D. rtK ille r. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache.

When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB.certkiller. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard. Ensure that the plan works properly. The ampere hours (AH) is the unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery. Ohm is the standard unit of electrical resistance. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity.c om 203 . Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down. it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. communications (such as networking) and other IT infrastructure. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer options C and D are incorrect. B. and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process. C. QUESTION NO: 474 Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? A. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time.www. Volt Ampere (VA) is a measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. D. QUESTION NO: 475 Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade? A. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: A. data. D. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of current for one hour. facilities. Ensure that the plan works properly C. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications. hardware. B. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster recovery plan. When replacing the monitor.B Explanation: The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. policies. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer. crisis communication and reputation protection.com rtK ille r. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel. Hertz is a unit of frequency.

Answer: C Explanation: The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. it will operate only at Ultra speed. QUESTION NO: 476 Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on his computer. SCSI-1. on the motherboard. and D are incorrect. D. For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2 SCSI speed. QUESTION NO: 477 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. B. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Answer options B and A are incorrect. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended speed. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. and SCSI-3. SCSI has three standards. The new configuration will not work.com 204 Ce rtK ille r. He runs a performance test on one of the servers of the network and finds the following statistics. CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following "Slay Your Exams" . such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast SCSI tape drives. Since the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. What will be the technician's answer? A. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller.certkiller. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed. an upgrade of BIOS is required. He asks the technician about compatibility issues. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. In this situation. A. SCSI-2. Andrew does not want to replace the existing tape drive.c om . SCSI devices.www. Answer options B.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam objects has a bottleneck? A. Network subsystem B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: D Explanation: The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 478

A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory. B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory. C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor. D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory. Answer: D Explanation: Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory. When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 479 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully. What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. B. Re-install the operating system on the computer. C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port. D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. Answer: A,D Explanation: In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace addon cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed. Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.

QUESTION NO: 480

Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Preferred DNS server address B. Internet connection sharing C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway D. Network address translation Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 206

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems, ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 481 What is the full form of ESD? A. Extended System database B. Electrostatic Discharge C. Electrostatic Disk D. Enhance System drive Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 482 Which type of memory chip has 168 pins? A. SIMM B. DIP C. DMA D. DIMM Answer: D Explanation: The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM) "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 207

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Explanation: The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that charge.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 483

Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length. B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping.

Explanation: SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 208

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you want to extend the existing striped volumes since the amount of existing data is large. placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk between conductors. B. "http. Striped. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote Windows 2000 server. Choose two. and facilitates remote administration. Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt. Answer: A. Type TEL on the Run dialog box. and click TELNET. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000? A. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 485 Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration. These partitions use FAT file system. mirrored. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Type TELNET on the command prompt.www. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. Reference. C.certkiller. B. D. You are not logged on as an Account Operator. As an Administrator.com 209 Ce rtK Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client. to access files.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are all ground lines. and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. and RAID5 volumes "Slay Your Exams" . mirrored. A volume can be extended only if it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. But you are unable to do it. Striped. The company's network has Windows 2000 and Unix servers.c om . D.B Explanation: The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories. It uses TCP port 23 by default. and click Terminal. offers the ability to run programs remotely.//en. The new disk has no file system. A. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. Parallel ATA (PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps.org/wiki/Serial_ATA" QUESTION NO: 484 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. C. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools. ille r.wikipedia.

TechNet.B. What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane. FM-200 C. What is NTFS? Reference. and NTFS are the different types of file systems. many industrial chillers used it as an efficient refrigerant gas. It is an effective gaseous fire suppression agent. "http. Where will you place the terminators? A. and telecommunication switching centers.com rtK ille r. odorless. You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. It can be used as a fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment. B. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center.certkiller. gaseous halocarbon. Currently. such as aircraft. file system is the overall structure in which files are named. "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center? A. stored. Reference. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . FAT32. Before the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known.www. Water (H2O) Answer: A. It is chemically known as heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent. and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data center.org/wiki/FM-200" QUESTION NO: 487 Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller.wikipedia. and data centers. FAT. libraries. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data center is harmful for the equipments.c om 210 . and data centers. use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. What is file system? In an operating system. Contents. Halon 1301 is dangerous for environment and health. carbon dioxide (CO2). Carbon dioxide (CO2) B. and organized. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive. production equipment. and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive. Halon D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam cannot be extended.//en. It is used around valuable materials. mainframe computers. What is FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless. Answer option D is incorrect. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to Halon 1301.C Explanation: Halon.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. E.com 211 Ce rtK A. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory.100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller. QUESTION NO: 488 Answer: B. Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost. you should place one terminator at the end of each drive. It allows faster access to BIOS information. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup.certkiller. B.c Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended "Slay Your Exams" . D. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60. Choose two. ille r. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. This allows faster access to BIOS information. C. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. Shadow RAM allows faster access to BIOS information. om . It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks.D Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance. Answer: D Explanation: If you have two SCSI devices. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-toanalog converter on a video card. It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of information in lesser time. internal and external. SCSI-1. SCSI has three standards. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. Place one terminator at the end of each drive.www. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. SCSI devices. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. D. Answer option C is incorrect. and SCSI-3. SCSI-2. When you configure shadow RAM.

Contents. A.INI D. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. What is BOOT. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer. TechNet.certkiller. BOOT. BOOT.BAT B. AUTOEXEC.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware.www. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. Answer options C. and D are incorrect. ROM BIOS C.INI file? BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Reference.com rtK ille r. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. "Chapter 5 .c om 212 . 4 B. Unlike DRAM. and allows the operating system to communicate with the various components of the computer. BOOT. or AUTOEXEC. The BIOS software is stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard.INI. QUESTION NO: 489 Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup? A.Setup Technical Discussion" QUESTION NO: 490 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a server? A. The first instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk. But.BAT file. 1 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. 2 C. BOOT. 3 D. also known as the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer. Hard disk Answer: B Explanation: When you start a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam memory for use by other programs. Answer option A is incorrect.

a remote access server is disconnected from the network. Check the server's subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" .www. Validate physical link integrity C. Reference.wikipedia.certkiller. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. The array continues to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. "http. in case a disk in the set fails. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. Due to data redundancy. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next step to resolve this problem? A. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. Just before noon. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. If a disk fails. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. but to a set of disks. the data on the RAID system is lost. It provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. It contains a minimum of three disks. In mirroring. It does not provide data redundancy. You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem. but lower writing performance. The final disk contains the parity information. Data once lost cannot be recovered. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks.c om . The key difference from RAID 1+0 is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. Answer option C is incorrect. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. Pinging the remote access server resulted in proper response. In this disk system. RAID-0 and RAID1 require a minimum of two disks. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. Re-installed TCP/IP protocol.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. but if the drives fail on both sides of the mirror.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 491 You work as a Network Administrator. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. also known as disk striping. Purchase a new server B. data is kept on two physical disks. Re-installed the network interface card driver.//en. Answer option B is incorrect.com 213 Ce rtK ille r. Re-install operating system D. What is RAID5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk.

You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard disk. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer: D Explanation: This message "NO ROM BASIC. Answer option B is incorrect.www. D. nothing will appear on the screen. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's main menu. Err Msg When Booting System. If the display card has a problem. Now. Reference. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk. To select an active partition. so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. you receive the following message. and display a blue screen. "NO ROM BASIC. and re-installed the network interface card driver. So the broken physical link or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from the network. The display card is faulty. when you restart the computer.certkiller. validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is no problem with the operating system. QUESTION NO: 492 You purchase a new computer. B. If the computer has faulty RAM. The hard disk has no active partition. What is the most likely cause? A. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365] QUESTION NO: 493 HOTSPOT Mark the ST connector in the image given below. SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam To resolve this problem. TechNet.c om 214 . The subnet mask cannot change automatically.com rtK ille r. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP address. you install the Windows 95 operating system. Contents. it will hang up the computer frequently. Windows 95 is not installed properly. The only problem is that the remote access server is disconnected from the network. SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active partition. C.

om . and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber. RESTART SERVER -ns D. ST.5mm shaft and bayonet locking ring.ncf file.com 215 Ce rtK ille r.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. SHUTDOWN -p C.c The image displays the following connectors. "Slay Your Exams" . A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber. There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. DOWN -f B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: Explanation: QUESTION NO: 494 Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6. An ST connector has a 2.www. The RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup. Answer option C is incorrect. He wants to shut down the server immediately without being prompted. Which of the following commands will he use? A. RESTART SERVER -na Answer: A Explanation: The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user.5 server.

certkiller. This may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites. The index process occurs behind the scene. thereby greatly reducing the access time. Cache memory B. DHCP server B. information about the domain tree structure.org/wiki/Proxy_server" QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory? A.wikipedia. DNS server D. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance the performance of user requests and filter requests. the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option D is incorrect. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites. "http. QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval? A. The next time such pages are requested. Once installed. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. Reference. A proxy server exists between a client's Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the request to a real Internet server.www. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. etc. it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from any Web browser with the sample query forms. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.ncf file.c om 216 . Indexing maps words to Web pages. and to locations within Web pages. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network. A proxy server has a database called cache where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. IP address-to-host name mappings. Answer option C is incorrect. Proxy server C.com rtK ille r. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests. Virtual memory Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Index server Answer: B Explanation: A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval.//en. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers. requiring no user input and minimizing demand on system resources.

It is also known as level 1 cache. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to keyboard. Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive. 5xx B. and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]" QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer options C and D are incorrect. so that the processor can access this information without delay. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. ROM Answer: A Explanation: The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. Contents. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. NT. Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient.www.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 497 r. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. Reference. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video. "Chapter 3 . XT. AT. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM) are not used for internal memory. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. 2xx D. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. Hence. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. "IBM PC. Contents.Capacity Planning" Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory? A.certkiller. TechNet. 3xx Answer: C Explanation: Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. RAM D.c om 217 . Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. TechNet. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. 6xx C. Reference. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. Answer option A is incorrect. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk.

The floppy disk drive should be cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive.www. The active "Slay Your Exams" . The system log is used to store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. D. A. Answer: A. The event types logged by system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system. What can be the likely causes for this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline.c om . If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty.com 218 Ce rtK Andrew works as a computer technician. There is no need to create an application backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Performance baseline C. ille QUESTION NO: 499 r. For example. He inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer. and a users list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect.certkiller. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Users list D. Application backup Answer: B Explanation: An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. Choose two. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. a system log. The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. Answer option C is incorrect. A. Answer option B is incorrect. C. and C are incorrect. Answer options D. B. System log B. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. It helps administrators measure server performance. If boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty. He finds that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. the computer will not read the operating system file through the floppy disk drive. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.D Explanation: A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons.

PING attack D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam partition has nothing to do with this issue.com 219 Ce rtK ille r. etc. etc. "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 501 Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option C is incorrect. email address. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. D. This model does not support centralized "Slay Your Exams" . a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity. so that users can share printing resources and files. A. Answer: B. B. Choose two.D Explanation: A peer-to-peer network model. all the computers act as both clients and servers. Spoofing C. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. SYN attack Answer: B Explanation: Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. It is a protocol. chatting on-line. TechNet. A SYN attack affects computers running on TCP/IP protocol. Answer option D is incorrect.www. C. it is known as a PING attack.certkiller. caller ID. provides a way to connect a small group of computers. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer.c om . It does not support centralized administration. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. It provides user-level security. Hacking B. It provides centralized administration. all the computers act as both clients and servers. However. In IP spoofing. Answer option A is incorrect.level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable. Contents. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Reference. QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking computer? A. In this model. In this model. also known as workgroup model.

Answer options C and A are incorrect. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager. Answer option B is incorrect. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Full and differential backup D.com rtK ille r. Which of the following can you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. one of the applications hangs. Full and decremental backup C. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created. The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager.www. Full and incremental backup B. C. While working on multiple applications. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Choose two. TechNet. A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam administration or provide user-level security. Choose two. or have changed since the last full backup. The domain-based network model provides centralized administration and user-level security. as compared to full backup or incremental backup. You plan a backup policy for the network dat a.D Explanation: You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan. B. Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager. Incremental. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data. It needs only one tape to restore data. A. Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om 220 . The differential backup is the fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive.certkiller. There is no backup method such as decremental backup. The full backup backs up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. Daily full backup Answer: C. Reference. Description of Full. QUESTION NO: 502 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. and Differential Backups [Q136621] QUESTION NO: 503 Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system. since the last incremental or full backup. Contents.

ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards. and therefore. Choose three. By pressing CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0. Pressing CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager. A.D Explanation: The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are. Task Manager Answer: B. Performance console C. it is not the correct answer option.www. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) C. and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC.com rtK ille r. Choose two.certkiller. Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist. Extended DMA D.D Ce Explanation: The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are. Disk Manager B. QUESTION NO: 504 Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.B.c om 221 . The Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel. "Slay Your Exams" . Direct Memory Access (DMA) B.1 and 2 are supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA. Answer: B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Ultra DMA Answer: A. A. Network Optimizer D. You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager.D QUESTION NO: 505 Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

4 MBps Answer: A QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It provides detailed information about system's performance. including the system files and all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only) SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps. A. Answer option C is incorrect. Microsoft SQL Server files B. Answer option D is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000. It is used for an immediate overview of system activity and performance. What is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps.c om .www. 5 MBps C.Overview of Performance Monitoring QUESTION NO: 506 Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. Microsoft TechNet CD. Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps. Application files Answer: B. What is Performance console? Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. Following are the files included in the System State data. Reference. 160 MBps D. System state data C. Boot files. Choose two. ille r. 80 MBps B. This information can be used for troubleshooting and analysis of bottlenecks. Chapter 27 .com 222 Ce rtK Explanation: The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps.certkiller.C Explanation: System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility. System boot files D.

B.www. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.com rtK ille r. A full backup takes maximum time and space. Answer option D is incorrect. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. On weekdays. "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. "Windows NT Server". The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. "Windows NT". It needs only one tape to restore data. James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the last full backup.00PM. James has to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. or are new. Performing full backup on weekdays will not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. Contents. The company has a Windows NT based network consisting of four Windows NT servers. In case of server failure.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration information Component Services Class registration database QUESTION NO: 508 James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. C. James should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. Answer options B and C are incorrect. "Concepts and Planning Manual" Chapter. To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. a differential backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. Answer: A Explanation: What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend.certkiller. Which of the following backup strategies will he implement to accomplish this task? A. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. In case of server failure.c om 223 . He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend. "Windows Product Family". the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. since the last incremental or full backup. "Types of Backup" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Reference. D. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. He also wants to minimize the number of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. One of the servers named Server1 is configured for a daily full backup at 5. He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. "Manuals". TechNet.

The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by jumper. and device drivers. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). none of them will work. and both are set as Master . you should install it with the Master setting. Reference. It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then configures the new device. It checks the processor's internal cache. Master and Slave jumper settings Answer: D Explanation: If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.c om . B. or both are set as Slave . D. It reads a device driver for the card. Place a terminator on the IDE controller. B. "Slay Your Exams" . It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation.www. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive. What is Plug and Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. on the motherboard. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first determines the available system resources and then configures the new device. devices. Each IDE drive must support the Master. Contents. Which settings are important on the IDE drives? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 509 What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed? A. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. D. Slave. and Cable Select settings.certkiller. "Guided Tour for Administrators" QUESTION NO: 510 You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. If you have two IDE drives in your system. Configure hardware ID C. you have to set one drive as the Master and the other as the Slave. Answer: D Explanation: At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card.com 224 Ce rtK ille r. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE controller. TechNet. C. a set of pins on the hard disk drive. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system.

It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network. with the functionality of a very basic form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of memory. IPSec B. Answer option B is incorrect. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage devices. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol. Answer option C is incorrect. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . TFTP C. such as IP phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any other thin client boots from a network host or server. PPPoE Answer: A Explanation: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. It secures both data and password. It can connect to a network running on IPX. Answer option D is incorrect. 8 B. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. or NetBEUI protocol. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. TFTP uses UDP port 69 for communication. PPP D.c om 225 . Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet.www. QUESTION NO: 512 How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 511 Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection that uses the L2TP protocol? A.certkiller.com rtK ille r. The initial stages of some network based installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart. TCP/IP. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516. such as a single DSL line or cable modem. Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation.

Socket 7 r. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. USB 1. NEC.certkiller. Intel.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. and Northern Telecom.I/O Interfaces from Serial and Parallel to IEEE. is similar to an expansion card.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. AMD Athlon processors use Slot A. DEC. "Chapter 13 . Answer option D is incorrect. tape drives. scanners etc. Pentium processors use Socket 7. Socket 8 B. such as CD-ROM drives. Reference. 1 Answer: B Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. Answer option C is incorrect. 64 B. also known as Slot 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps.com 226 Ce rtK ille A. A single edge connector (SEC). keyboards. 32 C.1. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. "Upgrading and Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents. Slot A D. Answer option A is incorrect. USB supports hot plugging. QUESTION NO: 514 How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors? A. SEC C. whereas USB 2. 16 "Slay Your Exams" .www. USB 2.1394 and USB". IBM. 256 D.c Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor? om . A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. "USB Technical Details" QUESTION NO: 513 Answer: B Explanation: Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Microsoft.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64bit data bus. An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory location. IRQs. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. B.com rtK ille r. The CPU needs a memory address. which requires processor's attention. An I/O address is an event. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU.www. C. its I/O address.c om 227 . "Slay Your Exams" . 128 Answer: B Explanation: Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. RAID 1 B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 516 Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives? A. The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus. Whenever a component. to communicate with any peripheral device. The Intel 486 series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. RAID 5 Answer: C Explanation: Ce Explanation: I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. Resources such as I/O addresses. D. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC.certkiller. RAID 6 D. QUESTION NO: 515 Which of the following statements about I/O address is true? A. IRQ. RAID 0 C. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.

What is RAID-0? RAID-0. The final disk contains the parity information. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer: C Explanation: A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. The surge protector is a device used to smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. Answer options D and A are incorrect. but lower writing performance. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance. Data once lost cannot be recovered.wikipedia.com 228 Ce rtK ille r. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. It contains a minimum of three disks. the longer the rebuild will take. in case a disk in the set fails. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. In this disk system. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. especially for high availability systems. The larger the drive. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives.certkiller. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. D.c om . In mirroring. It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source. B. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is rebuilt. It provides fault tolerance from two drive failures. Due to data redundancy. This makes larger RAID groups more practical.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity. "http. It does not provide data redundancy. C. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. RAID 6 becomes increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the failure of a single drive. Reference. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. data is kept on two physical disks. but to a set of disks. also known as disk striping.www. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges. The overloading of a primary power source can cause brownouts. Answer option B is incorrect. If a disk fails. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. Answer option B is incorrect. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. Sag is a brief decrease in "Slay Your Exams" .//en. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 517 Which of the following statements is true about a brownout? A.

NSSMU B. When power surge occurs. RESTART SERVER -na D. Using this information. MONITOR Answer: D Explanation: In order to diagnose the issue. By typing MONITOR at the server console. Answer option B is incorrect. consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems? A. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. the administrator can view the operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files. Mark can use the MONITOR tool. It also provides protection against power surges. The MONITOR tool is used to view the operational status of the server memory and disks. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility (NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server.www. Answer option D is incorrect. while the computer gets normal power. Users on the network report that the file server responds very slowly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam voltage at the power source. NSSMU is the interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation. EDI D. using battery backup. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue? A. only the UPS charging circuit is affected.com rtK ille r.certkiller. DOWN -f C. DARPA B. QUESTION NO: 519 Which of the following is an error detection technique.ncf file. The company's network has a file server with a Novell Netware operating system. FTP C.c om 229 . The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) Ce "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 518 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. the problem can be diagnosed.

Reference. and then replace the failed disk from the array. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of data for transmission. RAID-5. Mark will have to ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. B.com 230 Ce rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. when ARPANET was built. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. recreate a RAID-5 array. and then add this disk to the RAID5 array. "Slay Your Exams" . and then copy data from the backup. Answer option A is incorrect. and then replace the failed disk from the array. the second CRC value will not equal the original one. The company's network has a file server that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. C. TechNet. D. is computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon formats and networks. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array.certkiller. such as RAID-1. it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication QUESTION NO: 520 A. Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually. DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA). Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk. Contents. Answer: A Explanation: In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives. Replace all the disks of the array. the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. When the receiving modem gets the data block. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive.www. the hot spare disk is switched into operation. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI). What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly? r. If these two CRCs match. The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. One of the hard disks fails in the array. DARPA stands for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency. If there is a transmission error. A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID configuration. The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to repair a RAID redundancy group. The application protocol offers file service in the Internet suite of protocols.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link level and used for detecting errors. it goes through the same calculation. and the receiving modem transmits a negative acknowledgment.c om . When a disk fails. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices.

Answer option A is incorrect. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. TechNet. or remove and replace a failed disk drive. This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array. Protocol Analyzer C. Answer option D is incorrect.. Contents. default gateway etc. of a networked computer. Answer option C is incorrect. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Err Msg. Reference.c om 231 . Answer option B is incorrect. without shutting down the system? A. subnet mask. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset [Q100706]" QUESTION NO: 522 Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive. "SMTP. QUESTION NO: 521 Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network? A.certkiller. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. such as IP address. On receiving the packets. slow performance etc.com rtK ille r. as all but one are working properly. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. Hot swap C. the destination host responds with a series of replies. Answer option C is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Read. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Full duplex B. IPCONFIG Answer: B Explanation: Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and diagnose network related issues such as. Answer option D is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array. TRACERT D. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive.www. PING B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID-10. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. ReadyBoost Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and receive data simultaneously. QUESTION NO: 524 Ce A.c om 232 . The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. you should perform a full backup every Friday. This is because in the event of data loss. Answer option C is incorrect. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.certkiller. Plug and play Answer: B Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. It is faster as compared to full backup. Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and network cards. A differential backup every night "Slay Your Exams" . The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista. and device drivers. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. Using this technology. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday B. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday D. You are developing a backup policy for the company and want to accomplish the following goals.com rtK ille You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support.www. you will have to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The number of tapes required to back up data should be minimized. Which of the following backup policies will you choose? r. It requires minimum space to backup data. Answer option D is incorrect. devices. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). What is differential backup? Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup. A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily C. which helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck. QUESTION NO: 523 Answer: C Explanation: In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. or remove and replace a failed device. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the number of tapes required to restore data.

Sam wants to ensure that only validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords in TextBox controls. ATX motherboards have had several modifications on the electrical side. These changes were made to improve efficiency and safety. named WebService1. AT D.Principal. Answer options D and A are incorrect.D Explanation: The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal. using System. GenericPrincipal Answer: C.com 233 Ce rtK ille r. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the Subordinate role by default. which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code. DIN Answer: B Explanation: ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch.Security. He wants to implement imperative security check on WebService1. using Visual Studio . An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following supports soft power on switch? A. The 20-pin plug can only plug in one way. The GenericIdentity class represents a generic identity.certkiller. GenericIdentity D. named Text1 and Text2. He creates an XML Web service. DIN is a type of connector. Answer option C is incorrect. I/O B. WindowsIdentity B. It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server database containing user names. I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards. WebService1 uses the . Choose two. AT motherboards are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch. Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. An ATX motherboard has a logic switch.NET Framework security class libraries to implement security.Threading.NET.c om . using System. I/O stands for Input/Output. QUESTION NO: 525 Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc. which controls the power supply. WindowsPrincipal C. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with each other to create an authorization scheme. A.www. These two classes can be used to prompt users for "Slay Your Exams" . ATX C.

Reference. 200 meters B. 100 meters D. "WindowsPrincipal Class". Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. class. to check these values against a database. "GenericPrincipal Class" QUESTION NO: 526 A. Visual Studio . It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code. What is imperative security check? Imperative security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being protected. "GenericIdentity Class". Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. 2000 meters Answer: C Explanation: The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet.c om 234 . It can be isolated within an object or method. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use? "Slay Your Exams" .www. These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request.NET Combined Collection. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. 5) Ce You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. which is used to check the Windows group membership of a Windows user. Declarative security check provides optimized runtime execution of the application. It is used when the requested action and permission attributes are static. Contents. required in a given execution context. and can be placed at the assembly. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group. "WindowsIdentity Class". and to create principal and identity objects. The maximum cable segment length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters . The number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using category 5 UTP cable. or member level. These are the most widely used networks now-a-days. The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke specified security functionality. as it checks the declarative information in the metadata. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of permissions. WindowsPrincipal is a class of the . What is declarative security check? Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in metadata. 1000 meters C.com rtK ille r. It cannot be used to check the group membership of a user. The company's offices are in different buildings within a local premise. The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam their user names and passwords. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect the offices. The topology used in these networks is star. Answer option B is incorrect.NET Framework class library. It is used when security decisions are to be taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime.

which is sufficient for a database server. QUESTION NO: 528 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. The company's network has a file server with the following configuration. as a database server generates less traffic on the network as compared to a file server. having a single processor can be a bottleneck.com 235 Ce rtK ille r. Install a RAID system Answer: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 527 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Add an additional NIC. Add a tape drive. What will be the first step you will take to improve performance? A. A disk or its access path fails. A sector on the disk cannot "Slay Your Exams" . Network interface cards provide a dedicated.c om . Therefore. A.D Explanation: RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a server contains a redundant data set. Use data encryption C. Adding a tape drive will not provide better performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Install and use a tape backup unit B. In a database server. Add an additional processor. Install UPS systems on all important devices D. Answer: D Explanation: As the first step. Add more RAM. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration of data if either of the following occur. D. full-time connection to a network. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. processors are used extensively for data processing. Answer option B is incorrect. Hence. Choose two. you should add an additional processor on the database server. There is no need to add an additional NIC on the server. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server.certkiller. C. there is no need to add more RAM. The server has 1GB RAM.www. Answer option C is incorrect.

. TechNet. Incremental. QUESTION NO: 529 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Full D. Choose two. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. for each file. Contents. earlier. Answer option B is incorrect.certkiller. Contents. It needs only one tape to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. or are new. "Description of Full. Reference. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Differential Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Sequential B. Windows maintains a marker. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup.www.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. Reference. A.com rtK ille r. A. since the last incremental or full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Differential C. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 530 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. which was backed up on the tape. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. it does not set the archive bit.e.c om 236 . TechNet. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. i. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam be read. Answer option A is incorrect. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. When a file changes later. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. A tape backup can help by giving back the data. Sequential B. Incremental Answer: C. Choose two. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up.

Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CDROM drive. or are new. for each file. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up.com rtK ille r. You must run CONVERT. Reference. "Windows NT 4. Answer option A is incorrect. or active network connection Reference. Answer option B is incorrect. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data..c om 237 . It needs only one tape to restore data. 12MB RAM VGA level video support Keyboard IDE. Incremental Answer: C. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 531 A.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS. C.0. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. B. Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor.www. Incremental. floppy disk drive. TechNet. "Description of Full. How will you proceed? "Slay Your Exams" . Windows maintains a marker.certkiller. D. EIDE. "Hardware requirement" + "Workstation". There is no backup method such as sequential backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS.51 to Windows NT Workstation 4.0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide" Ce You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3. since the last incremental or full backup. Contents. Answer: D Explanation: Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4.0 are. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4. SCSI. Contents. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. Full D. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. You must run CONVERT. TechNet.e.0. i. When a file changes later. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM. it does not set the archive bit.

however. contiguous files. The server has become slow after three months of working due to fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. and the total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below. Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. B. unmovable files.c om 238 . What will you do to improve the server's performance? A. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. After three months. it takes a longer time. The server responds slowly while users try to open their files. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data.com rtK ille r. you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The company's network has a file server.www. When this utility is run on a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 532 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Therefore. file data is written in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. file data breaks into discontiguous fragments. D. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. C. running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its performance. it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files. Over time.certkiller. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card. Due to fragmentation. the performance of the server has deteriorated. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. Increase the paging file size on the file server. Answer: D Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 533 On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at startup. In which file will you define this? A. BOOTSECT.DOS B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOT.INI D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C

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As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed, and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months. This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes. NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system. Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000 startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"

Answer: A

Explanation: Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this issue.

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A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected B. The failover server's IP address C. The primary server's IP address D. The DNS server on the network

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition?

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QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source D. Installing an application from an unreliable source Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.

QUESTION NO: 536

Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. BNC T connector B. The BNC terminator C. RJ-45 connector D. BNC barrel connector Answer: A,B,D Explanation: BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable. The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

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QUESTION NO: 537 Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media? A. Failover clustering B. Datafile striping C. Storage area network (SAN) D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) Answer: D

Explanation: Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations. Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

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REGEDT32. Note. Answer option A is incorrect. TechNet.www.EXE is not recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode. REGEDIT.EXE C.c om . Therefore. Answer option D is incorrect. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array. Current Disk Queue Length C. Incorrect use of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer. Disk Writes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available. REGEDIT. "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following utilities will you use? A. it is recommended that you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools. % Disk Time D.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000 computer. The Registry Reference.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 538 You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000 computer. REGEDITOR. % Free Space B. the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000. Answer option C is incorrect. The Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were performed on the disk. "Registry Editors Installed by Windows NT 4.0 [Q155267]" Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available? A. But if the registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings.EXE B.EXE are installed during the setup of Windows 2000. it is suggested that you either save a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the configuration data. Contents.certkiller.EXE D. HARDREG.EXE and REGEDIT. Although both REGEDT32.com 243 Ce QUESTION NO: 539 rtK ille r.EXE Answer: A Explanation: You should use the REGEDT32.

Reference. It is a counter of the Logical Disk object.microsoft.c om 244 .certkiller.4740473b-b335-0d221994f685.com rtK ille r.mspx?mfr=true" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c.//www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object. "http.www.

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