CompTIA SK0-003

SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ ( 2009 Edition )

Practice Test
Version 3.2

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 1 Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4 Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 2

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. FTP Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 8

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9 Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server's manufacture website Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11 Which of the following is the MOST common problem that occurs in server rooms? A. Excessive cooling B. Dust buildup C. Poor ground wires

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c om 5 .www. The memory is not the correct speed. SATA hard drive C. SDLT Tape drive Answer: B QUESTION NO: 14 An administrator is adding memory to a server.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Once the system boots up. The memory does not have the correct timing. D. Load differential tape B. the same amount of memory appears as before the upgrade. Verify backup C. Blu-Ray drive D. Compact flash drive B. The memory is not installed in the correct slot. Perform a full backup Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13 Which of the following internal storage media types has the GREATEST storage capacity? A. Wet floors Answer: B QUESTION NO: 12 Which of the following is the FINAL step in the backup process? A. C. B. The memory is not the correct CAS latency. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Load new tapes D. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A.certkiller.

Replace memory chips with known good memory chips.www. Higher simultaneous thread processing D. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? A. The error states: system cannot log you on to the domain because the system's computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect? Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this error? "Slay Your Exams" . 728GB Answer: C QUESTION NO: 18 A user selects their proper domain and is unable to log into their Windows computer. D. 288GB B. The system administrator has decided to configure all six drives in a RAID 5 array. the administrator notices that the memory has not changed. Doubles memory requirements C. Upgrade the server OS QUESTION NO: 17 A. How much usable disk space will this array have? rtK ille Answer: B r. Smaller initial investment B. 360GB C. B. All drives are attached to a RAID controller.c om . Once the server in turned back on.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is an advantage of SMP? A. 432GB D.com 6 Ce A server consists of two 72GB SCSI drives and four 146GB SCSI drives.certkiller. Reset the memory chips. The system board website says the board should accept the new amount of memory. Decreases overhead Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16 An administrator is upgrading memory on the server. C. Update the BIOS.

Reboot the file server. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Ask the user what they were doing when they noticed the problem. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 21 After a virus outbreak. D. The user's account was removed from Active Directory. B. Implement an application exception. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST way to allow web software through the server firewall? A.www. C. WSUS B. The user typed in the wrong password Answer: C QUESTION NO: 19 A user calls the system administrator and states that they can no longer access the file server they had been working on all morning. B. Terminal services C. Implement port blocking on port 80. B. Implement an access control list (ACL).com 7 Ce rtK ille r. Open the corporate firewall to allow port 80. To troubleshoot this problem. D. which step should the administrator take FIRST? A. Group policy "Slay Your Exams" . C.c om . Ask the user to ping the default gateway and report the response times back to the administrator. Remote management cards D. which of the following can be used to deploy a hotfix in a Microsoft environment? (Select TWO) A. Ask the user to reboot their PC.certkiller. The computer's account was removed from Active Directory. C. The computer was disjoined from the domain.

RAID 0 D.certkiller.com rtK A. RAID 1 ille A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following can be done to ensure that systems avoid OS exploits? A. C. Many of the servers have been infected with viruses in the past. Vendor supported C. RAID 1+0 C.D QUESTION NO: 22 An administrator has been having problems with server security. Lower cost E. Higher number of available component choices D. Implement stronger user passwords. Enhanced stability B. SNMP Answer: A. Answer: A Answer: B QUESTION NO: 24 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO) A. Enhanced security Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS). RAID 5 B.www. D. Implement a dual-factor authentication method.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam E. Implement a patch management process. B.c QUESTION NO: 23 om 8 . Which of the following RAID levels would provide the FASTEST performance? r.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 25 A company's legal and regulatory departments have drafted a new policy in which emails must be retained for no longer than three years. Email server E.www. No configuration Answer: C Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. High performance D.c om QUESTION NO: 26 . SMTP gateway F. Backup tapes C. Architecture diagrams D. Hardware compatibility list Answer: D QUESTION NO: 28 Which of the following disaster recovery sites requires power and cabling to be run before it can be used? "Slay Your Exams" . A. Server build checklist B. Proxy server Answer: D Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of RAID 0? A. Domain controllers D. Ease of failure recovery C. Which of the following locations should an administrator configure when complying with the new policy? (Select THREE).certkiller. Local workstations B. High fault tolerance B.com 9 Ce QUESTION NO: 27 rtK ille r. Server baselining tools C.

the SCSI adapter.c om 10 .www. E. Shared bus topology D. Cold site C. Light switch is turned off C. the last device.certkiller. Point-to-point bus topology Answer: D QUESTION NO: 31 When installing external SCSI devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. the server's parallel port. the first device. Hot site B. Sensitivity to background noise B. D. Warm site D.com rtK ille r. Height of the card C. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. Smart cable is disconnected D. each device. terminators are required on: (Select TWO) A. C. UPS needs a firmware update Answer: A QUESTION NO: 30 Which of the following is the major advantage of PCI-e over PCI-X? A. Battery needs to be replaced B. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Failover site Answer: B QUESTION NO: 29 An administrator has a malfunctioning uninterruptible power supply (UPS).

Answer: A QUESTION NO: 33 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 34 A. Default domain policy B. Group Policy C. D. Implement the change. C. SATA om Which of the following is the MOST likely connection type for a backup external modem? 11 . IEEE 1394 B.www. Templates Ce Which of the following tools restricts device installation? "Slay Your Exams" . Verify full system functionality. B. Test the theory to determine the cause.c A.certkiller. Root cause analysis. Serial D. File share properties Answer: B QUESTION NO: 35 Which of the following would allow an administrator to incorporate a new Windows service pack into an installation when the media does not include the service pack? A.com rtK ille r. SCSI C. Disk Management D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 32 Which of the following describes the FINAL step in the troubleshooting process? A.

Half Height.3v PCI-X card C. B. Half Height.com 12 Ce rtK A server has a single.3v slot available. half height. 3.3v PCI card E.c om . Ghost D. D. Slipstreaming Answer: D QUESTION NO: 36 An administrator needs to implement a security patch policy on the network that adheres to an internal SLA. PCI-X 3. C. Which of the following actions BEST achieves this task? A. Define a test server group. Half Height. Which of the following cards can fit in this slot? (Select THREE) ille r. Full Height. Define a test server group. schedule installation on production servers and then install all updates and patches.E QUESTION NO: 38 Which of the following key sequences will allow a technician to install third party drivers during a Windows installation? A.D.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. install the patches and if successful schedule installation on production servers. Half Height. Half Height. Full Height. x16 PCI Express Card D. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 37 A. Press F6 "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. RIS C. Install the patches during a non-working hour. 3. Send an email to all company users and request the best time for installation. Universally Keyed PCI card B. x8 PCI Express Card Answer: A. Universally Keyed PCI card G. Universally Keyed PCI-X card F.

Update the RAID controller firmware.c om . The driver is incorrect on the server. The administrator powers up the server. B. The NIC is not on the HCL. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to troubleshoot the problem? ille r. C.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Install the latest hard drive firmware rtK An administrator has just upgraded a server from non-hot plug storage to all hot plug storage.com 13 Ce A. Check the server BIOS. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives B. Press any key D. Blade servers allow for more RAM Answer: B QUESTION NO: 40 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 41 An administrator has just installed a new NIC into the server. Blade servers are typically faster D. "Slay Your Exams" . B. Check the backplane cabling. but it does not receive an IP address. during POST the RAID controller is recognized but none of the drive lights flash. Blade servers offer more rack density C. Press ESC C. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? A. The system POSTs fine and the NIC is recognized by the OS. D. Press Alt+F8 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 39 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server? A.certkiller. The patch cable has not been seated properly. C.

The web server was not installed properly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. RAID 0 B. SAS B.certkiller. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. D. The administrator tests the web server from a workstation and can access the website. The customers continue to report issues. After bringing the system online. SATA Answer: C QUESTION NO: 43 Which of the following RAID levels provides the HIGHEST fault tolerance possible? A. The server's firewall is misconfigured.www. RAID 6 D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 42 Which of the following storage protocols would be suitable for transport across an IP network? A. iSCSI D. customers notify the administrator that they cannot connect to the server.com rtK ille r. SCSI C. The server's timeout feature is set incorrectly.c om 14 . RAID 5 C. B. RAID 10 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 44 An administrator has just installed a web server for the company's Internet site. The NIC is not seated properly. C. The company firewall is misconfigured Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

C. Which of the following RAID solutions would provide fault tolerance and fast write operations without the use of parity? A. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 47 A. DDR Answer: B QUESTION NO: 48 A new storage array must be configured for a database server. Perform a root cause analysis. which of the following describes the NEXT course of action if a change does not solve the problem? A. DNS round robin Answer: D QUESTION NO: 46 When an administrator is troubleshooting a system. Active/passive cluster B. This array will store transaction logs that are always being written. Reverse the change. xD D. Log shipping D. RAID 0 "Slay Your Exams" . Active/active cluster C.certkiller. which of the following technologies provides the LOWEST cost solution? A. Implement the next logical change. EDO B. L1 C.c om .com 15 Ce Which of the following memory types is located in the processor chip? rtK ille r. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 45 When load balancing traffic between two web servers. D.www. Establish a new theory of probable cause.

100. Which of the following is the BEST way to correct this problem? A.0/24 subnet.0/24. A DHCP server is available on subnet 192. D. RAID 3 C. Full control can only be set using share permissions. B. Ensure that all server documentation is completed and up to date. C. Full control can only be set using file permissions. C.certkiller. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 50 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following is a differentiating feature of file permissions as compared to share permissions? A. Add a DHCP relay to the 192.0/24 subnet "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. Assign the workstation a static IP address.101.168.168. C. Which of the following would BEST resolve the problem? r. File permissions are more granular than share permissions. Ensure that each server is accessible via a KVM over IP.c om 16 .100. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 49 An IT manager is concerned about server administrators having to be cross-trained to work on every server.168. Add a DHCP server to the 192. D.168. Ensure that server baselines are documented for each server. B. File permissions are less granular than share permissions. B. Ce A.0/24.com rtK ille A workstation is added to a newly created subnet using 192. D. RAID 6 D.0/24 subnet.168. The user is unable to lease an address from the DHCP server. Ensure that each server is processed through the change control board.www. Add a second DHCP server to the 192.101.100.

certkiller.www. B. the install fails.c Which of the following server types performs the same function as the HOSTS file? om 17 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 52 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. DHCP C. C. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server Answer: A QUESTION NO: 53 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 54 SMP is considered to be a form of: A. FTP B. D. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 55 Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D. When the administrator runs the patch installer. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed. C. B. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. WINS r. DNS D. mapped printer. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install. The administrator tries again. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server. mail protocol. and the installer fails again.com rtK ille A. multi-processing. monitoring protocol.

Riser cards B.www.com rtK ille r. Native RIS integration D. C. Shroud D. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary B.certkiller.E Ce "Slay Your Exams" . All expansion cards stop working simultaneously. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained. Expansion cards D. Motherboard B. Remote configuration B.c om 18 . Heat sinks Answer: D. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 56 Which of the following server virtualization features would BEST allow an administrator to quickly prepare a virtual server so that it is ready for use? A. Baffle E. No physical hardware to setup C. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN. Operating system C. D. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Riser cards QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following assists with airflow in a server? (Select TWO) A. Clone the machine from a template Answer: B QUESTION NO: 57 Multiple expansion cards are installed in a rack mount 1U server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Water cooling C.

ECC B.certkiller. B. Pairing D. L3 cache operates faster than the system processor B.c om . A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through dedicated channels.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 59 Which of the following BEST describes a DAS? A. RAID C. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 60 Which of the following storage technologies connects by TCP/IP and is separate from the company LAN? A.www. C. "Slay Your Exams" . L3 cache runs at the speed of the processor. Optical jukebox D. C. Registered Answer: A QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following statements is true about L3 cache? A. SAN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 61 A. A collection of disks presented as storage to multiple servers through an existing network. L3 cache can deliver data in as little as 15ns. Tape library B. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through directly attached technologies D. A collection of disks presented as storage to a single server through an existing network. NAS C.com 19 Ce Which of the following memory technologies has the HIGHEST cost to implement? rtK ille r.

Extreme temperature variances B. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following factors is the MOST likely cause of a power supply fan failure? A. 10 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 65 When running a Windows server. L3 cache runs at the speed of the system bus. -a C. Extreme humidity variances C.certkiller. -v D. which option is used with the ping command to convert numerical addresses to host names? A. -n Answer: B QUESTION NO: 66 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Power stability fluctuations D. -r B.c om 20 . 4 C.com rtK ille r. 5 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. 3 B. Excessive dust accumulation Answer: D QUESTION NO: 64 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives required for a RAID 10 array? A.www.

The disk drive is out of free space D. Verify the change control process can be implemented D. Determine the correct power requirements Answer: D QUESTION NO: 69 A user is unable to connect to the company's intranet server by FQDN. an administrator must ensure which of the following? A. /all Answer: D QUESTION NO: 67 Memory utilization by the print spooler process is constantly climbing after users begin to print to a certain type of printer. Warm air flow is permitted through the front bezel B. Corrupted print spooler software B.com rtK ille r. Memory leak in the print spooler Answer: D QUESTION NO: 68 After a server has been installed into a rack. Other users are not having a problem. /release D. The problem is persisting after running ipconfig /flushdns.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which switch should be used with the ipconfig command if an administrator wants to test the functionality of a DHCP server? A. The system is labeled so that it can be identified C. Memory leak in one of the print drivers C.certkiller. /flushdns C. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . /renew B. but can connect by IP address.c om 21 .www. An administrator verifies that the user can successfully ping the server by IP address and can properly resolve the FQDN using nslookup.

Peer-to-Peer Application Server D. D. C. There is a fire hazard potential if a power outage occurs. Distributed Application Server B.www. The UPS will draw more power from the circuit to compensate. Flush the cache on the WINS server. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. 0-15 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 71 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following can occur if the maximum rated load is exceeded on an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)? A.certkiller. 1-16 C. Flush the cache on the DNS server. The runtime of the UPS will be insufficient if a power outage occurs. B. Dedicated Application Server C.com rtK A. 1-7 B. File and Print Server ille Which of the following describes a server that is hosting only an Anti-virus program? r. Examine the Imhost file. The last system plugged into the UPS will not be provided any power. 0-7 D. Examine the hosts file Answer: A QUESTION NO: 70 Which of the following are possible SCSI ID ranges on a wide SCSI adapter? A. C. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B.c om 22 .

www.c om .certkiller. . DDR3 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 73 Which of the following memory types has the FASTEST speed? A. SODIMM B. Fan "Slay Your Exams" .Ini C. . Which items should the administrator monitor using performance monitoring tools? (Select TWO). System Temperature D. A. DDR2 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 74 Several reports are logged stating that an application server is performing slowly. Network Utilization Answer: B. During the investigation.exe B. Disk Utilization C. .com 23 Ce QUESTION NO: 75 rtK ille r. the administrator notices that the hard drives on the server appear to have a high level of activity. Page File B.msi D.E Which of the following file types can Microsoft servers package for remote installation by default? A. Processor Utilization E. . SDRAM C.dll Answer: C QUESTION NO: 76 Which of the following components channels air flow through a server chassis? A.

certkiller. Shroud D. Multicast B. CUPS D. Differential C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. PXE support C. Active/active cluster D. Active/passive cluster C. GFS Answer: C Answer: B QUESTION NO: 79 Which of the following technologies can provide geographically based load balancing with high availability between two web servers with static content? A. Heat sink C.www. FTP server B. Installation CD ille Deploying an operating system using WDS without a boot disk would require which of the following? r.com rtK A. DNS round robin Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Radiator Answer: A QUESTION NO: 77 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for restoring data? A. Incremental B. Full D.c QUESTION NO: 78 om 24 .

Logon scripts C. The server event logs Answer: D QUESTION NO: 81 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that all users receive a mapping to multiple shared drives? A. The Internet D. some open files were corrupted on one affected file server.com rtK ille r. Decreased performance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 83 An administrator notes that after a recent power outage.c om 25 . Which of the following is the FIRST place the administrator should look for specific information about the problem? A. Set NTFS permissions Answer: B QUESTION NO: 82 A power loss during a firmware update would MOST likely result in which of the following? A. The supporting documentation B. Local policy D.certkiller. Which of the following items should the administrator consider to determine the cause of this corruption? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. Damage of the hardware C. Configure individual user accounts B. The vendor website C. Loss of storage data D. Increased heat output B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 80 An administrator has encountered a problem with a particular piece of software installed on the server and begins the troubleshooting process.

Add another wireless access point. The server's NIC teaming configuration Answer: A QUESTION NO: 84 A company has implemented a wireless network for its employees. individuals have been receiving duplicate IP addresses causing network issues. Let cables hang loosely behind the servers C. Add another DHCP server. The server's memory B. Schedule system down time Answer: A QUESTION NO: 86 When cabling a rack.www. Change the default gateway of the wireless router Answer: D QUESTION NO: 85 A. Implement the change C. The server's processor D. Use rack specific cabling hardware B. Document the change D.certkiller. and all network cables down the center D.c om .com 26 Ce rtK An administrator is planning an upgrade of a major software package on an application server. Since implementing the new network. Identify necessary operating system updates B. C. D. Channel all power cables down the sides. which of the following is BEST practice? A. The software has been tested successfully in a test environment and it is ready to go into production. B. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next? ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Disable the wireless DHCP server. The server's RAID controller battery C. Which of the following would resolve this issue? A. Keep cables close to the front of the rack for better access "Slay Your Exams" .

C. Multiple operating systems sharing the same physical hardware to leverage higher usage. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide full restore? A. Take a differential backup while the server is online. D.c om . SNMP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 88 Which of the following BEST describes a virtualized server environment? A. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 90 "Slay Your Exams" .com 27 Ce rtK ille r.www. C. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 87 Which of the following servers would dynamically allocate IP addresses to workstations? A. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 89 An administrator is creating a comprehensive backup system to backup a single web server. Take an image backup nightly while the server is online. Take an incremental backup while the server is offline. DNS D. A distributed computing environment where many lower cost machines are combined to increase processing power and overall performance D. A single operating system using multiple physical hardware chassis to leverage higher availability. Take a monthly snapshot backup while the server is online.certkiller. B. A physical server environment utilizing only RAM storage with no physical disk medium to enhance performance. NTP B. DHCP C.

SNMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 92 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 93 An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. 6 D. C. 8 rtK How many wire pairs are in a standard CAT6 cable? ille r. 3 B. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 91 Which of the following is a connection oriented transport layer protocol? A. Use fire suppression techniques until the fire department arrives.c om 28 . B.com A. UDP C. TFTP D. Update the firmware to the latest version. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows? A. TCP B. D. D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Configure IPMI on the new board. Notify staff of the potential service outage. Grab the backup tapes and exit the server room. B. Update the time and date in the BIOS. 4 C. Evacuate all personnel. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The server room that an administrator manages has just caught fire.www.certkiller. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller. Which of the following is the FIRST thing that the administrator should do? A.

Imaging utilities C. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 95 After performing a copy backup of a file server. Which of the following methods should an administrator use to BEST comply with this policy? A. Set the default homepage to the corporate website on the base computer image. C. Set the default homepage to the corporate website in Group Policy. Copied Answer: A QUESTION NO: 96 Which of the following could BEST be used to recover a failed RAID 1 disk after it has been replaced? A. Partitioning utilities D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 94 A company's computer policy dictates that all users' workstations must use the company corporate web page as their default home page.c om 29 . Set D.com rtK ille r. Deleted B.www. Unchanged C. Manually configure the homepage on all workstations and setup trace logs to ensure compliance. Array management utilities Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. the archive bit on the backed up files will be which of the following? A.certkiller. D. Tape restore utilities B. Configure a logon script to set the homepage at logon.

Mirroring with striping B. the system administrator has determined that the video firmware should be updated. Which of the following should be setup on the Windows server to allow the monitoring server to access this information? (Select TWO). Full. Which of the following describes this backup method? A. Server manufacturer D. Incremental C.www.certkiller. Shareware file sharing site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 100 An administrator is configuring one server to monitor hardware level information on a second Windows server.com 30 Ce While troubleshooting a video problem on an application server. Third-party manufacturer B. "Slay Your Exams" . Greatest. Video chipset manufacturer C. Striping with distributed parity D. Striping with dedicated parity C. Monthly. Partial. rtK QUESTION NO: 99 ille r.c om . Which of the following sources should be used to locate an appropriate update for this hardware? (Select TWO).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 97 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Weekly. Daily D. Independent disks with shared parity Answer: B A. Incremental Answer: C QUESTION NO: 98 RAID 5 can be BEST described as which of the following? A. Full. Sequential B. Operating system manufacturer E. Final. Differential.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. WMI B. RIS C. DNS D. SNMP E. SMTP Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 101 Which of the following will corrupt the BIOS? A. Applying the BIOS settings in the incorrect order B. Power being lost during the upgrade process C. Installing the OS before applying the BIOS upgrade D. Imaging the system after performing a BIOS upgrade Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 102

An administrator reboots a ten drive server, with a RAID 10 array, after a power failure and receives an error logical drive failed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. Corrupt file system table B. Backplane failure C. Multiple drive failure D. Bad cable Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 103 Which of the following RAID levels would provide the BEST performance with no fault protection? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 5 Answer: A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity? A. SAS B. SATA C. Flash D. SCSI Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following backup types will not reset the archive bit on backed up files? A. GFS B. Full C. Differential D. Incremental Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106

A server has been assigned the 192.168.100.127/25 IP address. The server is experiencing strange network connectivity related problems. Which of the following would BEST describe the problem? A. IP address is classful. B. IP address is a subnet broadcast address. C. IP address is a subnet network address. D. IP address is classless Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107 An administrator is planning to bring a newly purchased server online. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 32

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Follow the pre-installation plan and procedures. B. Review the system logs to check for errors. C. Notify all users that the old system will be taken offline. D. Apply all security updates to the system. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108 Which of the following describes the purpose of a network topology diagram? A. To display the logical layout this can differ from the physical layout B. To enhance a user's understanding of the datacenter layout C. To create a physical map of the datacenter to provide to guests D. To provide a blueprint for recreating the same server setup for another client Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 110 Which of the following can limit cabling mistakes? A. Proper labeling B. Asset management C. Keeping good vendor logs D. Keeping up-to-date repair logs Answer: A

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A. SATA B. iSCSI C. SCSI D. Fiber channel E. PAT A

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 111 In which of the following configurations should a SAS hard drive jumper be placed for single drive operation? A. The jumpers should be placed in the single/master position. B. There are no configuration jumpers needed on a SAS hard drive. C. The jumpers should be placed to give the drive a SCSI ID of 1. D. The jumpers should be placed in the slave position. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 112 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to send alerts when hardware and applications are having issues. Which of the following must be installed on the monitoring server so that it can properly monitor details on vendor specific devices? A. MIBs B. SMTP C. WMI D. DHCP Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113

A server will not power on. Which of the following devices should the administrator use FIRST to determine the problem? A. Loop back plugs B. Power supply tester C. System logs D. TDR Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 114 When troubleshooting hardware issues with a server, which of the following is MOST likely to cause a problem in receiving vendor support?

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Third party cables B. DAS D. ECC E.com rtK ille r. EXT3 C. Hot spare Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Third party memory C. JBOD B. NAS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following file systems are native to *nix? A. Memory RAID C. FAT B. Registered memory D.certkiller.c om 35 . Server type Answer: A QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is BEST described as a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through a fiber channel? A. FAT32 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following will allow a server to continue to function if a stick of memory fails? (Select TWO) A. NTFS D. Chipkill B. Signed drivers D.www. SAN C.

D. however. Which of the following is the BEST solution to address this problem? A. Virtual Center Answer: C. C. Memory failure D. A. when the server is booted into the Windows OS the new drives fail to appear in My Computer. The current system configuration should be documented for future use. Server diagramming and environmental topologies should be documented. Disk Management E.D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Computer Management D. Hard disk failure ille r. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 118 An administrator is running proprietary server software that requires services to be reconfigured every time the server is upgraded to the latest vendor version. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 119 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 120 A new array of hard drives has been added to an existing server. Which of the following is the cause? om 36 .c An administrator identifies that a server is shutting down. From which of the following locations can the new storage drives be added? (Select TWO).com rtK A. A copy of the latest pre-installation plan should be developed and utilized. CPU overheating C. Format command B. The administrator powers up the server and OS loads but after a few minutes it powers down again. Hypervisor C.certkiller. Vendor support should be contacted so that they can correct the issue. Redundant power supply failure B.www.

Digitally signed device drivers C.c om . Restore the server using last backup tape. Which of the following steps should the technician take in order to identify whether it is a software or hardware problem? A. Reseat all main components B. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 122 A server is experiencing an undetermined problem. RAID 0+1 C. Boot using recovery console and restore the previous driver.certkiller.www. RAID 1 B. Virtual machine components "Slay Your Exams" . then striping of the disks? A. Boot the server with ASR option. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve the problem? rtK QUESTION NO: 123 ille r. C. Flash the BIOS D. Reinstall the operating system Answer: B A. the server reboots and fails to restart. B.com 37 Ce After applying a new driver to a NIC. D. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following should an administrator utilize FIRST after installing a new HBA? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following RAID arrays performs mirroring of the disks first. Try to replicate the problem C. Boot the server. RAID 6 D. New Technology File Systems (NTFS) B. press F8 and access last known good configuration.

com rtK A. Increase the size of the swapfile. Divide the data and back up half one night and half the next Answer: A. Inadequate RAM B.C QUESTION NO: 126 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 127 A technician has found that the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) connected to a server does not have sufficient battery power to allow the server to shutdown gracefully. Install an extended battery pack into the UPS Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Enable compression on the LTO2 drive B. Excessive network traffic ille Which of the following bottlenecks would MOST likely cause excessive hard drive activity? r. PCI bus D. A.c om 38 . Reduce the amount of data on the backup D. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Slow processor C. Multiple RAID configurations Answer: B QUESTION NO: 125 An administrator is required to backup 250GB nightly utilizing a single LTO2 tape.certkiller. D. B.www. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to allow this server to shutdown gracefully? A. The administrator reports that the tape drive is running out of available space before the job completes. Replace the LTO2 with LTO3 drive and tapes E. Utilize LTO3 tapes in the existing drive C. Which of the following would allow the administrator to backup this data? (Select TWO). Increase the size of the pagefile. Install a second UPS.

com rtK ille A. No fault tolerance C. Wash the outside of the servers D.certkiller. Replace the server fans r. Replace the rubber mats in the server room B. FC Initiator B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 128 Fibre channel requires which of the following elements? A. Fibre Target Management Agent Answer: C QUESTION NO: 129 Answer: B QUESTION NO: 130 Which of the following is a disadvantage of RAID 10? A. Multi-Mode fibre C. Not supported by many RAID controllers D. Clean the servers to limit dust buildup C.c om Which of the following is an environmental server maintenance task that should be performed every three months? 39 . Higher cost Answer: D QUESTION NO: 131 Which of the following will allow devices to be added without turning the server off? A.www. Poor performance B. Plug and Play Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Physical Adapter D.

A device transfers data directly to the memory. B.com A. A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. KVM over IP C. Telnet D. E. Remote Desktop rtK ille Which of the following would an administrator use to configure a server's BIOS settings even if the OS crashes? r. Hot plug D. VPN B. Install redundant NICs Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . A device transfers data to the processor and then on to the memory. Increase the amount of RAM B.C QUESTION NO: 133 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 134 A technician wants to increase the reliability of a DHCP server. Warm site C. A device handles mediation between thesouthbridge and the processor Answer: A. A device connects to another device without involving the processor. Hot site Answer: C QUESTION NO: 132 Which of the following is a bus mastering method? (Select TWO). Use a lower voltage power supply C. Which of the following components should be installed to increase the server's uptime on the network? A.certkiller. Add a hardware firewall D.c om 40 . C. A device handles mediation between the northbridge and the processor.www. D.

IPCONFIG /release C. Full and differential C.www. Currently.certkiller. Defrag B. Which of following backup methods were used if the system crashes on Friday and only requires two backup sets to recover the system? A. Full and incremental D. Incremental and snapshot B. Replace the backup software with a more efficient application. the server has a single attached LTO2 tape drive.c om 41 .com rtK ille r. Replace the single tape drive with a tape library Answer: D QUESTION NO: 137 Weekly backups of the system are done on Sundays. and daily backups are done the rest of the week. Differential and incremental Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Replace the LTO2 tape drive with an LTO3 tape drive. Which of the following should the server administrator do to provide enough backup capacity for the nightly job? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following should be done before and after a service or repair is performed on a server? A. C. Baseline Answer: C QUESTION NO: 136 A SAN attached production file server is required to be backed up nightly according to company policy. D. Reduce the amount of data to be backed up. Recently the data to be backed up has increased to approximately 4TB. Firmware update D. B.

certkiller. Downtime necessary to reinstall the repaired drive B. 172. Data security policies and procedures C. Striping with mirroring C. Striping with parity B.c om .254.40 B. Which of the following actions should be taken to resolve this user problem? A.31.100.76 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 139 A tape drive containing a jammed tape must be taken off-site to be repaired. Redundant or replacement data backup solutions Answer: B Which of the following BEST describes RAID 0? A.1 D. Mirroring D.100.www.15. Striping Answer: D QUESTION NO: 141 A user is reporting that access to a file server is much slower than it has been.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is a public IP address? A.168. Potential cooling problems due to the missing drive D.16. 192. 10. The comparison shows that there are no significant changes in the use of system resources. The system administrator completes a test of the server using a system monitoring tool and compares it to the previously taken baseline.11.1 C.com 42 Ce rtK QUESTION NO: 140 ille r. Which of the following should be considered FIRST? A. 172. Add additional RAM to the user PC "Slay Your Exams" .

RAID 5 across all 6 drives C.c om . RAID 1 across drive pairs totaling 3 pairs B. Troubleshoot the user PC C. When the server is running POST the controller does not appear as present. Multi-tasking D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. The server BIOS firmware is out-of-date. C.www. D. Multi-processing C. The server hard drives have not begun to spin. The server has too little memory installed. Add additional hard drive space to the server Answer: B QUESTION NO: 142 A server has a processor that allows it to calculate two applications at the same time. RAID 10 across all 6 drives D. RAID 0 across all 6 drives "Slay Your Exams" . Multi-threading Answer: B QUESTION NO: 143 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 144 A system administrator needs to maintain 1. Which of the following describes this capability of the processor? A.com 43 Ce A. B. Add additional RAM to the server D.2TB of storage for a database server. There are six 250GB drives available in the server for storage space. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice given that performance and fault tolerance are important factors? A. The server does not have the correct drivers. Which of the following could be the reason for this? r. Dual processing B.certkiller. rtK ille An administrator recently installed a new array controller into a server.

Hot site replication Answer: D QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following RAID levels would be the BEST choice if performance was the only determining factor? A.c om 44 . RAID 1 C. RAID implementation B. Before installation C.www. Disk-to-disk replication C. RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 147 At which of the following times should the administrator refer to the HCL? A. After installation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following offers the MOST redundancy for a system but is also very costly? A.com rtK ille r. RAID 0 B. When installing drivers D. Prior to purchasing hardware B. RAID 5 D. Server-to-server clustering D.

A backup site must be available if the entire data center site should become unavailable.www. Mirroring with striping B.c om . this backup site does not need to be up and running at all times ready for failover. Cold site D. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L2 cache Answer: B QUESTION NO: 150 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 151 An administrator is creating a redundant environment for a current data center. Snapshot C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. To reduce costs. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs in one bank C. Differential backup B.com 45 Ce rtK A. Which of the following site types should be considered to meet these requirements? A. Incremental backup Answer: C QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following defines memory interleaving? A.certkiller. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the processor D. Hot site B. Warm site C. VSS D. Striping with distributed parity ille Which of the following BEST describes RAID 10? r. Mirroring with fault tolerance C. It must contain equipment and the ability to restore data from the data center. Active failover site "Slay Your Exams" . Striping D. The distribution of data written across all the memory DIMMs and the L1 cache B.

which of the following should be the FIRST step after a full boot into a newly installed Windows Server OS? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers? A. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? "Slay Your Exams" . Incremental D.c om QUESTION NO: 153 . C.www. Remove the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security configuration. Disk imaging C. B. D. SAT A C.com 46 Ce rtK ille r. Disable the Guest account. Tape backup Answer: C Which of the following will attach to an EIDE connector? A. SATA-2 B. Apportion additional storage. SCSI Answer: C QUESTION NO: 154 According to best practices. ATA-2 D. Full B. Apply all relevant updates and patches. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 155 A technician wants to compare a new server performance over a period of time.certkiller.

D. activate the scopes. all of the following steps are required for a DHCP server EXCEPT r. D. ille In a workgroup. The server administrator should ensure adequate levels of cooling. B. Multicore C. RISC B. C. Symmetric multi-processing D. Remove the floppy drives from the system. C. Hyper-V Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK A.www. Servers should be kept in a warm and dark environment. Constantly check the task manager C.certkiller. authorize the server. Establish a baseline for the server Answer: D QUESTION NO: 156 Which of the following is the MOST important factor when considering environmental factors? A. Use performance server logs D. B. Server room access should be limited to authorized personnel.c om 47 . configure the scopes. install DHCP service.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Monitor processor performance logs B. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 157 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following technologies causes a single processor to appear as multiple processors within System Properties in a Windows Server? A.

The cache is from a different manufacturer C. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user on the IT directory? A. System logs B. B. Which of the following can provide important information to begin to troubleshoot the cause? A.0GHz 1Mb cache processor in it with a single empty socket. The server currently has a single 3. Which of the following is the BEST reason why this upgrade will not work? A.com rtK ille r.0GHz 2Mb cache model. C. Firmware updates C. The only processor that is available from a manufacturer is a 3.www. Set folder permissions to 760.certkiller. The processors do not match D. Set folder permissions to modify D.c om 48 . Set folder permissions to 770. Application logs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 162 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 159 A company would like to upgrade an old server to a multi-processor box. Set folder permissions to full control Answer: B QUESTION NO: 161 A server is having problems booting into the operating system. the administrator verifies permissions are set for the directory. POST messages D. The socket size does not match B. Processors cannot be upgraded after server has been deployed Answer: A QUESTION NO: 160 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory.

B. Host OS Answer: B QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following actions will prevent a driver from being reinstalled automatically? A. C. Run the disable command. Gather information from users. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 164 Which of the following is the correct term for a virtual machine? A. Review manufacturer manual. D. the operating system partition. an external USB 1. Virtual Center D. D. but has not determined the cause of the problem and is not able to replicate the problem. uninstall the driver. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following should the administrator do prior to escalating the issue? A. Apply the latest service packs to the operating system. C. D. B.com rtK ille r. the optimal place for the system swap file is on A. Perform a root cause analysis Answer: D QUESTION NO: 163 In order to provide the lowest access latency. B. Hypervisor B. Disable the device using Device Manager.certkiller. logon in Safe Mode. Reboot the server. Reboot the server. C.www. the fastest storage device available in the system.1 4200RPM drive with 8MB of Cache.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam An administrator is troubleshooting a problem on an application server. a10K RPM SCSI Drive with 2MB of Cache.c om 49 . Guest OS C.

c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is an appropriate reason for adjusting the SNMP thresholds? A.com 50 Ce rtK ille r. Ultra320 SCSI D. Which of the following tools would allow the administrator to test name resolution? "Slay Your Exams" . To allow more email to come through Answer: C QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds? A. An administrator wants to test that the sites are properly resolving to an IP address. ARP C. To monitor use of VPN traffic D. SAS Answer: C QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to MAC addresses? A. Ultra2 SCSI B. SAT A C.certkiller. DNS D. RARP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 169 Users have reported that they cannot access certain Internet sites. DHCP B. To eliminate excessive alerts B.www. To increase the number of threads C.

www. Move the architecture from 32-bit to 64-bit. C. never uses an IP address for network connectivity D.certkiller. Second HBA D. Second CPU C. ipconfig C. Which of the following is the BEST solution to accomplish this? A. is attached to a local disk controller. Install a PBX card. Install a second NIC card. net view B. ifconfig Answer: B QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following expansion cards would be necessary to increase fault tolerance in a VoIP server? A. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 172 A NAS differs from a SAN because NAS: A. Install a fail-over cable. B.com rtK ille r. dig D. B. does support multipath I/O. always uses an IP address to access data. Second Modem B. D. Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 51 . Second PBX card Answer: D QUESTION NO: 171 An administrator needs to add fault tolerance capabilities to a server. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.

Identify the least critical systems and then power those systems on first. Uninstall TCP/IP r. Retrieve the latest backup tapes for immediate system restore using the GFS rotation. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 176 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. Restart the server C. Which of the following could BEST be used to help reduce the load on the HVAC system? A. D. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST once the power is restored? A. Determine the cause of the power outage and install UPS systems to prevent its reoccurrence. Replacing traditional racks with water cooled racks C.c Which of the following is the FIRST thing that should be done in order to begin reinstalling TCP/IP on the server? om QUESTION NO: 174 52 .com rtK ille A.certkiller. Replacing the CAT5 cables with CAT6 cables B. C. Turning off non-critical application servers during non-business hours D. Taking the second power supply out of non-critical servers Answer: B Answer: D QUESTION NO: 175 A data center has had a power outage. Notify users D.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 173 A company has had problems with their HVAC system being able to cool their datacenter as they have grown. Configure netsh settings in case of backup B. Identify which systems are the most critical and bring them up by level of importance.

Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 177 Which of the following types of DNS records enables support for email? A. Normal D. The ports on the switch C. High Density C. Which of the following connectors is image D? ille r. Default gateway B. Port security on the server's switch port D. Incremental C.c om 53 . High Density D.com rtK Click on the Exhibit button.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following backup methods should be used nightly to ensure backups capture all necessary data in the LEAST amount of time? A. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot.www. Daily B. 80 Pin SCSI Connector B. Ethernet cable Ce A. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. Low Density "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. AAAA Answer: B QUESTION NO: 178 QUESTION NO: 179 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. 50 Pin SCSI Connector. 68 Pin SCSI Connector. MX C. A B. PTR D. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A.

The manager is an administrator on the temporary server Answer: C QUESTION NO: 181 A mail server keeps shutting down. The manager is a power user on the temporary server. D. The spool folder is full. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A.com rtK ille r. After the move. The temporary server was formatted as FAT32. D.c om 54 . The drivers for the printers are failing. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 180 A Windows file server has run out of space. The spool folder is not on the C drive. Case fan Answer: B QUESTION NO: 182 An administrator is notified that all network printers are not printing. B. Heat sink D. The temporary server was formatted as NTFS. a manager reports that they are able to access and modify some of the items that have been moved. A network printer was disconnected. The administrator gets an error message over temperature error? Which of the following should the administrator replace FIRST? A. C. C. In the interim the administrator is moving several archived confidential folders that have been encrypted off the file server and onto an older server file shares. The administrator reviews the server and the print service is started. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue? A.certkiller. CPU fan C. Power supply fan B.www. Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

UID switch B. Convert the filesystem to VMFS. The administrator checks the server and finds that the server has 100GB of free space. "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this? A. Convert the filesystem to FAT32 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 184 A small push button typically found on the inside of a server case is MOST likely used for which of the following purposes? A. Copy D. C.com 55 Ce QUESTION NO: 185 rtK ille r. D.www.c om .certkiller. Snapshot B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 183 A user reports that they are getting an error when trying to save a video file to a share on a server running Windows Server 2003. Cooling fan switch D. the DHCP server must have configurations for at LEAST which of the following? (Select TWO). The administrator looks at the file and finds that it is 5GB. Differential Answer: B QUESTION NO: 186 For client computers to access the Internet when using DHCP. Chassis intrusion switch Answer: D Which of the following archiving methods only backs up data that has changed since the previous full backup? A. Power switch C. Convert the filesystem to EXT3. This file needs to be saved on the server. Convert the filesystem to NTFS. B. Incremental C.

DHCP Answer: B QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following is the MOST effective method to restrict staff members from accessing a service on a company server? A. Gateway address B. B. DNS B. Web server E. Subnet mask Answer: A.c om 56 .com rtK ille r. FTP D. Disable accounts for staff members who do not require server access. SNA server C.certkiller. WINS C. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .E QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following must be configured on printers so that the server can properly monitor details on page counts? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. SNMP D. Implement ACLs. WMI B. DHCP C. C. Implement anti-spam software on the server. Implement anti-virus software on the server. D. Mail server D.www. MIB Answer: D QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following server types translates NetBIOS names to IP addresses? A.

Which of the following could BEST resolve the situation? A. which of the following load balancing techniques should be used? A. Memory pairing ille r.certkiller. RAID B. After viewing performance monitoring data it is detected that the disk queue length is high.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 190 A server is configured with two network cards. To utilize the bandwidth of both network cards at the same time without assigning more than one IP address. VLAN tagging Answer: B QUESTION NO: 191 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 192 An application server is running slowly. D. Clustering B. Add a faster processor.c Which of the following technologies when implemented allows for the GREATEST fault tolerance for memory? om .www. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 193 "Slay Your Exams" . Add more memory to stop paging to disk. ECC D. Add more disk drives.com 57 Ce rtK A. OSPF D. C. NIC teaming C. Registered memory C. Increase the amount of virtual memory. B.

B. D. Partitioning management Answer: D QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows an administrator to recover the MOST data? A. Install fiber cards into the servers and add direct attached storage.com rtK Two file servers have run out of local disk space. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective solution to add storage to both servers? ille QUESTION NO: 195 r. System image B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following storage tools could be used to initiate the rebuilding of a failed hard drive? A. The internal drives are at capacity and the company has traditionally only used local disks for storage. Differential backup Answer: A A. Verify CPU load Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Incremental backup C. CHKDSK C. Which of the following is the MOST important to review before installing new servers? A. System state restore D. Install fiber cards into the servers and implement a SAN solution.www.certkiller. Verify uninterruptible power supply (UPS) load B. Verify if server consumes 220V C. Add a NAS to the environment Answer: D QUESTION NO: 196 An administrator will replace five current servers. C.c om 58 . Attach a USB drive to one of the servers. RAID array management B. Monitoring agents D.

CD-R C. Coaxial D. DVD-RW D. CAS D. CD-RW B. Verify if server consumes 110V Answer: C QUESTION NO: 197 Which of the following internal storage devices has the GREATEST storage capacity and is WORM media? A. ECC C.www. Fast Ethernet C.certkiller. RAID B.com rtK ille r. Thicknet Answer: A QUESTION NO: 199 Which of the following memory technologies allows for single bit errors to be detected and subsequently fixed? A. Flash Answer: B QUESTION NO: 198 Which of the following cable types can be used to decrease susceptibility to electronic eavesdropping? A. Fiber optic B. SDRAM Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 59 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.

SCSI D. Escalation procedure regulations C. HBA Answer: D QUESTION NO: 201 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A. Which of the following should be enabled to resolve the error? rtK ille r.www.certkiller. Manufacturer's regulations D. NX C. iSCSI C. Hyperthreading Answer: C QUESTION NO: 203 Which of the following RAID arrays should be used to achieve the BEST fault tolerance? A.c om . XD B.com 60 Ce An administrator is attempting to use Hyper-V on a server with an AMD processor but is receiving an error. Four drives with RAID 3 "Slay Your Exams" . Four drives with RAID 0 B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 200 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a SAN via a fiber channel? A. SATA B. Server OEM regulations Answer: D QUESTION NO: 202 A. Local laws and regulations B. VT D.

"Slay Your Exams" . Disk B. D. Four drives with RAID 10 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 204 A full backup is performed every Sunday and incremental backups are performed daily Monday through Saturday. B. C.com rtK ille Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a feature is not available in a virtualized environment? r. 4 D. The environment is outside of the DMZ. Optical D. Multiple types of network cards were used. How many tapes would be required to perform a full restore if a complete failure occurred on Thursday before the incremental backup? A. Tape C.c om 61 . Flash Answer: D Ce A. 5 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 205 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 206 Which of the following media types is the MOST durable in harsh environments? A.certkiller.www. 3 C. Internal hard drives were used for storage instead of external hard drives.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. 2 B. Hardware used is not on the HCL. Four drives with RAID 5 D.

Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . D.certkiller. and Friday. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. The OS settings are not set properly for Linux support. To fully restore the server. Too many SCSI devices on one system Answer: C QUESTION NO: 210 An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage space for a server. Thursday. The system needs to boot to Windows first. Three D. One B. Wednesday. prior to booting into Linux.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 207 An administrator is attempting to start a server from a bootable Linux disk but instead the server boots into Windows. and Saturday. B. C. Maximum drive capacity is exceeded C. Low communication latency B. A performance critical application will use this storage space for a database. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday. incremental backups on Monday. The Linux disk is not supported in a Windows environment. which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. Improper termination D. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 208 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. and differential backups on Tuesday. Four Answer: C Which of the following MOST likely causes problems with SCSI communication? A.com 62 Ce QUESTION NO: 209 rtK ille r. Two C. The boot order is set incorrectly in the BIOS. Cost and performance are the most important considerations.www. The database will be replicated between multiple servers.c om .

The administrator finds that whenever a certain user prints the print spooler crashes. D. server operators.com rtK Which of the following tools can an administrator use to get a server baseline? ille r. C. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. account operators. RAID 0 with four 250GB hard drives D. D.c om 63 . remote users. backup operators Ce A. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives Answer: B QUESTION NO: 211 Users are having trouble printing in terminal services.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice for the storage array? A. The printer is not on the HCL. Performance Monitor "Slay Your Exams" . C. System Resource Monitor B. B. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives C. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) C. The user does not have the appropriate permissions to print. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 212 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 213 An administrator needs to grant privileges to other server staff members to run archive utilities on a default Windows installation. The printer driver is not installed on the terminal server. Replication Monitor D. The user is using a PostScript driver. The administrator needs to set the minimum permissions to: A. B.certkiller. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives B.

Configuring the Windows Firewall to block port 161 D.E 64 . A. Humidity monitors.certkiller. Biometrics. Cooling.c QUESTION NO: 215 om Answer: D. Which of the following settings would BEST provide additional monitoring security? (Select TWO). NIC ille Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity? r. VoIP D. and power requirements Answer: B Ce "Slay Your Exams" . All devices are configured with SNMP.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C QUESTION NO: 214 An administrator has purchased monitoring software that can be configured to alert administrators when hardware and applications are having issues. Configuring the network to block traffic on port 161 C. but the administrator wants to further secure the SNMP traffic. and fire suppression B. Service level agreements. and CCTV D. Biometrics. Setting up a custom community name B.www. uninterruptible power supply (UPS) deployment. Installing new MIBs Answer: A QUESTION NO: 216 Which of the following is the MOST important physical consideration when deploying a new server? A. HBA B. Setting SNMP to read only on the devices E.com rtK A. PBX C. rack space. fire suppression. and power requirements C.

and logs in to configure the NIC. which of the following can the administrator define for DHCP users? (Select THREE) A.www. B.E. Boot into Directory Services Restore Mode Answer: D When configuring a DHCP server. C. Domain name Answer: C. Install compatible PCI cards Answer: A QUESTION NO: 218 An administrator installs a driver. Once the administrator opens the NIC properties. DHCP server D. a series of beeps were emitted and the server did not POST.c om . C. SQLServer E. B. D. DNS server F. D. NTP server C.F QUESTION NO: 220 "Slay Your Exams" . reboots the DC. Use a system board tester to check for compatibility issues. the server bluescreens and now will no longer boot into Windows. Boot into Safe Mode. Boot into Last Known Good Configuration. Which of the following could be done to prevent this problem? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 217 While installing a new PCI card the administrator touched the motherboard. Use ESD equipment.certkiller. Database server B. Reseat the NIC. While powering on the server. Verify correct voltages are being supplied. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? A.com 65 Ce QUESTION NO: 219 rtK ille r.

Zero configuration and high performance Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Close the issue.www. Load on UPS B.certkiller.c om 66 . Payroll D. C.com rtK ille r. D. Fault tolerance and failure recovery B. B. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the administrator should take? A. Room temperature D. Question other users to make sure they are not having the same issue Answer: C QUESTION NO: 222 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system. Rack temperature C. Document the outcome. Fault tolerance and zero configuration C. Ease of access Answer: B QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 5? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is MOST important to include on the disaster recovery documentation? A. Emergency exits B. After troubleshooting the administrator is able to resolve the issue and verify that user is able to access email again. All IT contact numbers Answer: B QUESTION NO: 221 An administrator receives a call from a user who is unable to receive email. The test plan C. which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Implement preventative measures.

Disk drive failure D. Third party memory C. When the administrator restarts the server after the upgrade. C. Backplane failure ille r.D QUESTION NO: 226 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtualized server environment? A. ESD during the upgrade E. Higher administrative complexity B. RAID 6 uses more parity drives than RAID 5.certkiller. RAID 5 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 6 does not.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. B.com rtK A. High performance and fault tolerance Answer: A QUESTION NO: 224 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between RAID 5 and RAID 6? A. Improved performance for users Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: C QUESTION NO: 225 Answer: B. RAID 5 uses more parity drives than RAID 6.www. Increased level of security C. Which of the following could be the cause of the problem? (Select TWO). om 67 . it times out.c An administrator has shut down a server to install additional memory. D. Processor failure B. More effective usage of computing resources D. RAID 6 uses a dedicated parity drive and RAID 5 does not.

Answer: C QUESTION NO: 229 A.com 68 Ce A datacenter has exceeded the load on the central uninterruptible power supply (UPS) for the room and is causing power load problems. but put the UPS on bypass to avoid load problems. Higher data integrity B. and verify data. restore data. and restore data.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 227 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN? A. D. C. Continue plugging into the central UPS. but not using the central UPS. C. and a RAID 5 array with 10 drives. When one of the servers starts up it displays a logical drive failed error. Additional power is available. Which of the "Slay Your Exams" . restore system applications. restore backups. Which of the following is the BEST temporary solution for adding new servers until an upgrade of the central UPS can occur? rtK ille r. Continue plugging into the central UPS because the actual load supported is actually higher than stated Answer: B QUESTION NO: 230 There is a power outage and all servers are shut down properly by the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) software. and verify data. restore backup data. Increased performance Answer: B QUESTION NO: 228 Which of the following is the BEST sequence to bare metal restore a server? A. B. B. Add stand alone UPSs for new servers not wired off the central UPS. This server has two processors. Higher redundancy D. Lower cost of implementation C.certkiller. Determine backups available.c om . Restore OS. and verify data. Restore applications. 16GB of memory. Contact end users of outage. Plug the servers directly into the power that is not on the UPS.www. D.

which of the following is the BEST course of action to take? A. Two failed drives Answer: A QUESTION NO: 231 When implementing a solution to a problem.certkiller. Structural columns Ce "Slay Your Exams" . reversing the change if it has not resolved the problem. Purchase new parts for the system to confirm that they function. Two failed processors C.com rtK ille r. Implement one change at a time. Two failed sticks of memory D. JBOD Answer: D QUESTION NO: 233 Which of the following is the GREATEST environmental concern for a server operating environment? A.c om 69 .www. D. RAID 1 B. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 232 Which of the following provides the MOST storage capacity without fault tolerance? A. B. Lighting C. Temperature B. Replace all components simultaneously to ensure that the system is functional. SAS C. Replace all hardware associated with the problem first to eliminate the possibility of hardware and move onto software C. A failed RAID controller B. SAT A D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam following is the MOST likely cause? A.

Dedicated management card C. Add more memory.sys is taking up nearly 2GB of space. Which of the following would BEST resolve this problem? A.com rtK ille r. Remove the page file from system properties Answer: C Which of the following can be used to manage a server BIOS remotely? (Select TWO) A. VPN Answer: D QUESTION NO: 236 A bare metal backup requires which of the following backup methodologies? A. Delete the file. Incremental D. Differential C. Full B.certkiller. Remote desktop software B. The administrator notices that the file pagefile. C.c QUESTION NO: 235 om 70 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Telnet session D. Move the page file to a free drive. IP KVM E. B. Elevation Answer: A QUESTION NO: 234 The operating system partition on a server is nearly out of space on a Windows 2003 Server. Database Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" .www. D.

RAID 10 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 240 An administrator installs a new network card in a properly functioning DC.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 237 Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be used in the establishment of an IPSec VPN tunnel? A. 802. RAID 6 D. ISAKMP Answer: A QUESTION NO: 238 Which of the following should be kept in uninterruptible power supply (UPS) documentation records? (Select TWO) A. Wire shelving diagram D. Which of the following is the NEXT step? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Battery replacement date C. TKIP C. AES B.certkiller. RAID 3 B. IP address for network printer E. Antivirus software version B. Shutdown delay timing Answer: B.1q D.www.com rtK ille r.c om 71 .E QUESTION NO: 239 Which of the following RAID levels supports fault tolerance by writing parity to only one drive in the array? A. During the Windows boot up process the DC bluescreens. RAID 5 C.

B. D. Press F8 and boot to Directory Services Restore Mode. number of users.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. D.com rtK A. Press F8 and boot to Last Known Good Configuration. C. IP address C. Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . B. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 242 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 243 Which of the following is the FIRST course of action before implementing a change to a server? A. Disk drive size B. average disk I/O.www. The change should be approved by management. number of files. Survey users to get their response to the potential server change. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 241 All of the following are contained in a server baseline document EXCEPT A. C. Switch over to the alternate site so users are not affected. memory usage.certkiller. Implement RAID so the server does not go offline. Acceptable outage time D. C. B. Press F8 and boot to Safe Mode. Operating system version ille Which of the following information would be on a system classification list? r.c om 72 . Reboot the server again. D.

The server is using memory interleaving Answer: C QUESTION NO: 245 In a Windows Server 2003 environment using PKI.com 73 Ce QUESTION NO: 246 rtK ille r.certkiller. System I/O bus Answer: C QUESTION NO: 247 Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a system classification list? A. That user account is then accidentally deleted. Key recovery agent C.www. Two of the memory sticks are defective. Which of the following must be configured in order to decrypt those files? A. The OS does not support more than 1GB of memory. Backside bus D. B. The system memory has different manufacture dates. Root certificate store Answer: B Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. D. the server only shows 1GB of memory during POST. Frontside bus C. a user encrypts several documents on a shared file server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 244 An administrator is adding additional memory into a server that registers 1GB of memory in the OS and notices that the system has 2GB of memory physically installed.c om . Verifying the OS manufacturers "Slay Your Exams" . C. Key recovery administrator B. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. however. PCI B. Trusted root certificate store D.

Consulting with the system manufacturers D. Registered memory C. Locating a hosting facility C. Baffles D. SAN ille Which of the following is a storage system that can be connected to multiple servers through an iSCSI connection? r. DAS C. Phase changers C. Interviewing system owners Answer: A QUESTION NO: 248 Which of the following ensures that air is passed through a server chassis correctly? A. ECC Answer: D Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. U-size templates B.c QUESTION NO: 249 om 74 . NAS D.com rtK A. SDRAM D.certkiller. JBOD B. RAID B. Molex connectors Answer: A Answer: D QUESTION NO: 250 Which of the following technologies can detect and fix single bit memory errors? A.www.

Multimeter Answer: A QUESTION NO: 253 A. which of the following can present an environmental hazard? Ce A server has five hot pluggable SCSI disk drives in a RAID 5 array. Which of the following components would MOST likely have caused the problem? "Slay Your Exams" . Optical Answer: A QUESTION NO: 252 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive? A. Memory B. Remote management card C. Tape B. SCSI backplane C.www. Which of the following backup media is the BEST solution for archiving the server data? A. SAN C. Diagnostic LEDs D.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 251 A company has 100GB of data that needs to be automatically backed up daily. The administrator noticed that all of the disk drives have gone offline. The server OS crashed and the server will not boot.com rtK ille r. Flash D.c om 75 . SCSI drives D. Firmware update B. Motherboard Answer: C QUESTION NO: 254 When disposing of computer equipment. and needs to be stored for 20 years.

Number of drives X capacity of the smallest drive B. Which of the following is the BEST way to restart the servers? A. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files. C. D. B. Cat5 cable D. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 256 A. Restart both servers at the same time so the servers are down at the same time. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? ille r. Immediately after the update.www. B. the server begins to report file not found? errors for a mission critical application.certkiller. D. The administrator needs to install a patch and restart both servers while minimizing downtime. SATA cable C. Bezel B. C. The update has quarantined files that are false positives. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 257 Which of the following describes how to calculate the amount of storage in a RAID 5 array? A. The order in which the servers are restarted does not matter. Number of drives X capacity of the largest drive D. then the DC server second. (Number of drives 2) X capacity of the smallest drive C.c om .com 76 Ce rtK A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. (Number of drives 1) X capacity of the smallest drive "Slay Your Exams" . The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly. Exchange server first. DC server first. then the Exchange server second.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. CRT monitor Answer: D QUESTION NO: 255 An environment has a DC server and an Exchange server.

Shut down the server and check that all RAID drives are connected properly. Restart the installation from CD and press F6 to install RAID drivers. WORM Answer: C.c An administrator is installing Windows Server 2003 via CD on a new server with an SAS RAID array. Support forums Answer: C QUESTION NO: 261 "Slay Your Exams" . Restart the installation via WDS. Service Level Agreement (SLA) C.certkiller.www. D. Flash B. DLT4 tapes C. there are no drives listed. Go into the BIOS and set all RAID drives to compatibility mode ille r. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A QUESTION NO: 258 Which of the following is designed to guarantee that once data is written it cannot be modified? (Select TWO) A.D QUESTION NO: 259 QUESTION NO: 260 Which of the following is the BEST support channel for server software and hardware? A.com 77 Ce Answer: C rtK A. CD-R D. Online troubleshooting tools B. When the administrator reaches the option to select the target installation drive. B. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should do? om . SDLT tapes E. Vendor website D.

Multiple failure fault tolerance Answer: C QUESTION NO: 262 A Windows 2003 Server is no longer able to access its internal SCSI drive. USB D. Fault tolerance D. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in regaining access to the drive? A.certkiller. A. however. Rewrite the MBR. Network share B. Run a check disk on the drive Answer: D QUESTION NO: 263 Which of the following is the EASIEST way to centrally deploy software? A.c om 78 . B. Reformat the NTFS partition. Break mirror array B. the drive has power. and the drive shows up in Device Manager. Which of the following would be required to bring the server back to operational status? (Select TWO). Optical media Answer: A QUESTION NO: 264 A server configured with RAID 5 has recently suffered from two simultaneous disk failures.www. The cables are connected. PXE C. D. Higher capacity B. C. Replace cache battery Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Recreate the partition that was deleted.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following is a benefit of RAID 1? A.com rtK ille r. Higher performance C. the My Computer window does not show the drive that was previously working and formatted with NTFS.

Mail server and backup capacity Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Hot site D. Local laws and industry regulations B. Server-to-server replication B. Replace defective hard drives Answer: C. Server clustering C. Disk-to-disk replication ille Which of the following provides the MOST redundancy for a corporate server network? r. F6 B.E QUESTION NO: 265 Which of the following keystrokes allows installation of third party storage drivers during a Windows set-up? A. F9 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 266 Answer: C QUESTION NO: 267 Which of the following is the FIRST thing to consider when designing an email retention policy? A. Project guidelines given by stakeholders D. Restore from back up E. F7 C. Replace hot standby D.certkiller. F8 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Company policies and guidelines C.c om 79 .com rtK A.www.

C. security patches. and then the anti-virus. Update security patches. and the web server software on a production system. USB C. only one change at a time should be done. web software. Update anti-virus. B.E QUESTION NO: 269 An administrator needs to update the anti-virus. Lower power consumption E. Better server hardware leverage B.www. Smaller backup window needed D. and then the BIOS. BIOS. Smaller datacenter footprint F. Increased application security C. Update the web software. BIOS. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this? A. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 270 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide fiber channel SAN connectivity? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 268 Which of the following are benefits to server virtualization? (Select THREE) A. security patches.certkiller. NIC Answer: A QUESTION NO: 271 Which of the following technologies allows a single physical processor to do the work of multiple processors? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D.B.c om 80 . UAC D. BIOS software. The order does not matter. and then the web software. anti-virus. Little to no maintenance needed Answer: A. HBA B.com rtK ille r. security patches.

Active/passive clustering at the same site C. Warm site Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.com rtK A. Symmetric multi-processing B. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation. C. Striping C. 64-bit processing D. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation. Disk-to-disk replication in the same server D.www. D. Striping with mirroring Answer: A QUESTION NO: 273 Answer: A QUESTION NO: 274 Which of the following replication methods is MOST fault tolerant? A. Hyper-V Answer: D QUESTION NO: 272 Which of the following BEST describes RAID 1? A. Mirroring B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.c om 81 . Hot site B. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation. B. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation. Striping with parity D. Multicore C. ille Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server? r.

The size of the presented drive is 700GB. Master Answer: C QUESTION NO: 276 A server connects to iSCSI presented SAN storage array through a dedicated NIC. CCTV systems D. B. ID0 B. The administrator has noticed a decrease in storage performance. C. however. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The server power supply is starting to fail and causing the iSCSI NIC to intermittently lose power. Retina scanner E. the SAN traffic is passed on the same switches as the Ethernet network and VoIP traffic.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 275 Which of the following settings is the jumper set to when installing a DVD-RW as the second device on an IDE cable? A. Mantraps B. Fingerprint scanners C. The SAN is nearing capacity and should be expanded Answer: C QUESTION NO: 277 Which of the following are types of biometric devices used in server rooms? (Select TWO) A.c om 82 . ID2 C.com rtK ille r. D.www.certkiller. Cable select D. There are too many users attempting to access the iSCSI presented disk. Proxy card readers Answer: B.D QUESTION NO: 278 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The other network traffic is causing packet delays in the iSCSI network.

D. known as SRAM. Answer option D is incorrect. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information.c om 83 . It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state. DHCP has assigned the wrong addresses. the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. Answer option A is incorrect. it runs faster. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. It stores a backlog of the commands so that. it is included in every CPU. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips. Also known as internal cache. D. Most clients are located in the same subnet as the server and can successfully access the server. outside the CPU. It is also known as external cache. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. but have no trouble accessing other servers on their subnet. Choose two. C. QUESTION NO: 280 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A new server was installed. Disk performance statistics Ce "Slay Your Exams" . if a wait state is encountered. A. B. Which of the following is the reason that these clients are unable to access the server? A. Answer: B.com rtK ille r. This is known as a zero wait state operation. it is included in every CPU. This slows down computer operations. B. DNS entries were not created. Clients located on different subnets have been unable to access the server.C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. Incorrect default gateway on the server. C. WINS server is not responding QUESTION NO: 279 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. for caching. Date of server purchase B. Also known as external cache.certkiller. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard. Server response time C. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM.www.

Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder r. Choose two.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive. QUESTION NO: 282 When you start your computer. The personal information. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. Using a phrase for the server password C.c om Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure. B. Answer options A and D are incorrect. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline.certkiller. "Slay Your Exams" . Run DEFRAG on the hard drive. Network bandwidth Answer: B. can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. . Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option. D.C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. C.D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A. Using personal information in the server room password D. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.www.com 84 Ce rtK ille A. QUESTION NO: 281 Answer: C. such as phone number and date of birth. Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. Answer options B and A are incorrect.

is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance. a Windows-based utility. Reference: "http://en. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer options C is incorrect. and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post. Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]" QUESTION NO: 283 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A. However. Answer option A is incorrect. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector. It will not help in resolving the issue. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface. Reference: TechNet. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Through this protocol. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. Answer option D is incorrect.www. Answer option D is incorrect. With Thorough option. it tries to fix the sector.mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers.wikipedia. port number 25.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r. Answer option C is incorrect. SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors.certkiller. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. NNTP B. DEFRAG. which allows users to manage the network. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP. The data cable is used to transfer data. SMTP C. distribute.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server.c om 85 . IMAP D. e.

Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. Contents: "Chapter 12 . RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. Sequential backup D. or are new.232 ports.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 284 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A.c om . Daily backup B.Backup" QUESTION NO: 285 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A. Incremental backup C. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. These devices include consumer audiovisual components. traditional PC storage devices. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.com 86 Ce rtK ille r. since the last incremental or full backup. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Full backup Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. RS-232 C. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive.www. DIN B. It needs only one tape to restore data. Answer option A is incorrect. IEEE 1394 D. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. serial ports. and handheld devices. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. also known as COM ports. Reference: TechNet. "Slay Your Exams" . or RS.

also known as Thinnet Coax.c om . bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them. 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time. QUESTION NO: 286 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? A. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code. rtK ille r.com 87 Ce Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 10Base2 cable C. SCSI cable B.www. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives. it loads virus into the RAM. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin. This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. This type of virus hides system files. so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector. When the user runs the infected file in the disk. Choose three. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters . It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files. Contents: "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 287 A.certkiller. this changes the signature of the virus. Therefore. C. Serial cable Answer: B.C. B. polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. "Slay Your Exams" . Typically. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. Reference: TechNet.D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable. Parallel cable D. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing.

c om 88 . QUESTION NO: 288 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error. SCSI devices. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. The parallel channel is fast. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. It allows to install a new operating system without restarting the system. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. B. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Answer option A is incorrect. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end. QUESTION NO: 289 Which of the following statements is true about the hot swap technology? A. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. Answer option B is incorrect. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. For example.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. It allows to install a new device. The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor.com rtK ille r.www. and SCSI-3. The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. a server displays a POST error. It allows a new computer to join the network automatically. without powering off the system. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. C. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. SCSI-2. Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. During the boot process. B. or remove and replace a failed device. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. D. C. The system log is used to store security-related events. Answer option C is incorrect. reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer.

6 meters Answer: B Explanation: If you connect more than three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 1.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer options D and C are incorrect. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation. Answer option A is incorrect. The Ultra SCSI interface does not support these bus lengths. etc.com 89 Ce rtK ille r.certkiller. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. 1. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 25 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.c om . Answer: C Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.www.5 meters . 3 meters B. QUESTION NO: 291 Which of the following statements defined by IEEE for a UPS battery is true about the term "end of useful life"? A. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. The replacement can be due to a device failure. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. SCSI-2. Using this technology. SCSI devices. and SCSI-3. This technology is also available for Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID). if you connect four devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface? A. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. QUESTION NO: 290 What will be the maximum SCSI bus length. the maximum SCSI bus length will be 3 meters . or remove and replace a failed device.5 meters C. It allows to store more than one file using the same name. If you connect up to three Ultra SCSI devices to a single-ended Ultra SCSI interface. 12 meters D. The hot swap facility is available for both SCSI and IDE hard drives. or for storage devices.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B.certkiller. Since each computer processes every broadcast.c om 90 . Contents: "Monitoring Performance" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What is IEEE? Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) is an organization of engineers and electronics professionals who develop standards for hardware and software. A UPS battery that supports a full load for 20 minutes when new. A. Pages/sec C. QUESTION NO: 292 Which network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The threshold of the network traffic depends on the network infrastructure and topology. % Network utilization B. will support the same load for only about 15 minutes when it reaches its defined "end of useful life".C. The IEEE defines "end of useful life" for a UPS battery as being the point when it can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Broadcast frames received/second: This counter is used to create a baseline. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. C. A value of higher than 40 percent for this counter indicates excessive network traffic. Total frames received/second D. Total frames received/second: This counter indicates when bridges and routers might be flooded. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 50 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.com rtK ille r. Answer: D Explanation: A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time.D Explanation: The following network segment object counters are useful in monitoring network traffic: % Network utilization: This counter indicates how close the network is to full capacity. The Pages/sec is the memory object's counter that indicates the number of pages read from or written to the hard disk. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 80 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours. Choose three. Broadcast frames received/second Answer: A.www. For example. high broadcast levels mean lower network performance. D. The "end of useful life" for a UPS battery occurs when the battery can no longer supply 10 percent of its rated capacity in ampere-hours.

Disable the hard disk drive. The number associated with DMA indicates the direct memory access channel that the component or device uses to transfer data to and from the memory. the computer should first search for the boot files on the floppy disk drive and then switch to IDE master hard disk drive. Using DMA. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. It is a technique in that the CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached. Direct Memory Access (DMA) is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU).com rtK ille r. the computer can move data directly from the network adapter card's buffer to the computer's memory without CPU intervention. Answer option B is incorrect. especially servers.certkiller. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk. Answer: C Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique for compensating the relatively slow speed of DRAM. Hence. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The Intel Orion chipset is one that does support memory interleaving. It is a technique that some components and devices use to transfer data directly to and from memory without passing through the Central Processing Unit (CPU). Remove the boot files from C: drive. It is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in RAM. operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes. C. Answer option D is incorrect. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. It is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes up to 640 KB. B. Change the boot sequence to C:. that have to process a great deal of information quickly. It is helpful on high-end systems. He wants that whenever he boots his computer. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. C.c om 91 . Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. D. How will he accomplish this? A. B.www. Multiple memory banks take turns supplying data. QUESTION NO: 294 Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NeTech Inc. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. NT. A:.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 293 Which of the following statements about memory interleaving is true? A. The CPU can access alternative memory sections immediately without waiting for memory to be cached.

on the motherboard. Contents: "Configuring Ce "Slay Your Exams" . users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Parity Answer: A. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. QUESTION NO: 295 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. In case of failure of one disk.E Explanation: Windows 2000 Server supports Raid-5. Choose three. What is mirrored volume? Mirrored volume is a fault-tolerant volume that keeps same data on two physical disks. It can be created on dynamic disks only. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. and mirrored volumes. Mirrored F. RAID-5 B. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Basic and dynamic are disk types and not volume types. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. Answer: D Explanation: To accomplish the task.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.C. It supports two to thirtytwo disk drives. Change the boot sequence to A:.c om 92 . spanned.www. C: in the BIOS. In Windows 2000/2003. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. You can create mirrored volumes only on dynamic disks. Dynamic C. A. Which volume types does Windows 2000 Server support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Basic E. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.com rtK ille r. What is spanned volume? A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Andrew will have to change the boot sequence to A:. Spanned D. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. C:. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. You are installing Windows 2000 Server on a new computer.certkiller. Reference: TechNet.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Dynamic Volumes" QUESTION NO: 296 Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest? A. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. High temperature D. Clothing. Low humidity C. Choose two. A.c om . and flooring material are important considerations in evaluating the potential for ESD To reduce the risk of ESD. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. and roll up your shirt's sleeves. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. QUESTION NO: 297 Which of the following memory modules have 184 pins? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Low temperature Answer: B Explanation: Low humidity increases the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD). Dry air is a poor conductor of electricity and it increases the risk of ESD Humidity reduces the risk ESD because water molecules carry static electric charge away. you should take the following precautions while installing new hardware: Work on a tile floor instead of carpeting.www. SIMM C. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. you experience a mild shock. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. If you set the component down. footwear. RIMM Answer: A.D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components.certkiller. SO-DIMM D. Remove your shoes. High humidity B.com 93 Ce rtK ille r. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. if possible. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. do not let the component touch the table before your hand touches the table. DDR DIMM B.

It was developed by Rambus. and Kingston . QUESTION NO: 298 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base.c om . Pentium 4. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins.375" long and 1. TRACERT D. Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in two types. A 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base. Answer option C is incorrect.375" high. Intel. but they have 92 pins on both sides of DIMM for a total of 184. PC2700. 184-pin DIMMs are 5.www. NETSTAT C. NBTSTAT B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) has 184 pins. Answer option B is incorrect. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module. but are more expensive than DIMMs. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. The number of chips on a 184pin DIMM may vary.DIMMs come in smaller packages. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. The 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules that are available in Pentium III. and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. Double Data Rate Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that also comes with 168 and 184 pins. and the heights may vary. PC3200. 30-pin and 72-pin. and Athlon systems. Your company has a Windows NT 4. SO. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot. It was introduced for laptops. You want to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses.com 94 Ce rtK ille r. The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers. PC3500 and faster. consume lesser power. Which of the following utilities will you use? A.0 TCP/IP-based network. TELNET "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.

ille r. NBTSTAT helps you view.D Explanation: You can insert ISA cards in Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) bus slots. Reference: TechNet. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. It uses TCP port 23 by default. EISA C. This is accomplished by providing the slot with two layers of connectors. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer.certkiller. and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: NBTSTAT with /c switch is used to list the cache of NetBIOS names and IP addresses. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot. Answer option D is incorrect. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer.com 95 Ce rtK In which of the following slots can ISA cards be inserted? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. Choose all that apply. PCI D. Therefore.www. Contents: "Troubleshooting tools and Strategies" QUESTION NO: 299 A. remove. update the NetBIOS name cache. ISA Answer: B. offers the ability to run programs remotely. to access files. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. VESA B. incoming and outgoing data. The bottom layer is used by an EISA device but ignored by an ISA device. and correct the dynamic and static entries in the NetBIOS name cache. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. both ISA "Slay Your Exams" . The top layer is identical to a 16-bit ISA slot. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. and determine the registered names and scope IDs.c om .bit ISA bus. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. What is an EISA bus? Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion bus designed as a superset of a 16.

DOWN -f B. Answer option B is incorrect. fdisk Answer: A Explanation: Answer option A is correct. It provides administrators a single consolidated environment for working on group policy-related tasks. import. QUESTION NO: 300 Your company uses a Novell Netware 6 server for the purpose of file storage. Shutdown -rst D. It also provides a reporting interface on how group policy objects (GPOs) have been deployed. you will have to run the DOWN -f command. Display the partition table. Create a partition on a hard disk. The fdisk command is a menubased command available with Linux for hard disk configuration. This command can perform the following tasks: Delete a partition on a hard disk. restore. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. GPMC provides a single interface with drag-and-drop functionality to allow an administrator to manage group policy settings across multiple sites.com/documentation/oes/sos__enu/?page=/documentation/oes/sos__enu/data/h enuk mm4. or even forests. domains. There is no such command as shutdown -rst. Which of the following commands will you use to shut down the server without a prompt? A. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements.c om 96 .www. Change the partition type. Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller. Reference: "http://www. In order to shut down the Novell Netware 6 server without a prompt. Answer options C and A are incorrect. GPMC is used to back up. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. Note: The sfdisk command-line utility is an alternative to the fdisk command. Answer option C is incorrect. Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) C.html" QUESTION NO: 301 Which of the following utilities will you use to capture and view packets that are received by your Windows NT computer? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . such as the display subsystem.com rtK ille r. The Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) is a tool for managing group policies in Windows Server 2003. and copy group policy objects.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam and EISA devices can work in an EISA slot. You cannot insert ISA cards in PCI and VESA bus slots.novell.

Both the partitions must be of same size. QUESTION NO: 303 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .EXE B. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity.c om 97 . It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives. If a portion of a physical disk fails. QUESTION NO: 302 Which of the following statements about software RAID-5 are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. D. It has a slower read performance than mirrored volumes. NETSTAT will show TCP/IP connections. striped volume (RAID-0). Two hard disks are used in mirrored volumes. it is often useful to have some of the frames for review. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. IPCONFIG will display your IP settings and DHCP information. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. B. will not show the contents of any data. but again.C ille r.com rtK Answer: B. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition.EXE C. C. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.certkiller. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. A. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. but not data information. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. Because of the nature of the data. It has a better read performance than mirrored volumes. Performance Monitor D. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. Explanation: A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Performance Monitor is used for gathering statistical information.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). it will not show the contents of any data. Answer option A is incorrect. however. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller.www. NETSTAT. Network Monitor Answer: D Explanation: Network Monitor is used to analyze traffic. IPCONFIG.

The company has a TCP/IP-based network. C. Your Internet service provider (ISP) has a UNIX-based server. If the server is not physically connected to the network. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. Choose two. is faulty. D. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. You are configuring an Internet connection for your company. to access files. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. which connects all the workstations and the server. A.com 98 Ce rtK You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. TRACERT E. Users are providing incorrect passwords. On receiving the packets.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam You work as a Network Administrator. Answer: B. Which of the following utilities will enable you to access the UNIX server. PING D. These replies can be used to "Slay Your Exams" .www. Incorrect usernames or passwords are not the cause of the problem as all users are having this problem. users complain that they are unable to connect to the server. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. Users are providing incorrect usernames. Answer option C is incorrect. One morning. offers the ability to run programs remotely. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. B. Network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server. Either the network cable is not attached properly to the network card on the server or the hub. TELNET B.c om .certkiller. QUESTION NO: 304 A. FTP Answer: A Explanation: TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. You check the server and find that it is working properly but is unable to connect to the rest of the workstations on the network.D Explanation: There can be two most likely causes for a connection failure. using a text-based connection? ille r. the destination host responds with a series of replies. It uses TCP port 23 by default. and facilitates remote administration. the workstations on the network cannot access the server. IPCONFIG C. A faulty hub.

Answer option E is incorrect. Run MAKEDISK. which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. default gateway etc.BAT file on the Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM to create diskette.c om 99 . Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam determine whether or not the network is working properly. C. C.BAT utility is used to check if the boot sector is infected with virus. such as IP address. B. Boot with the MS-DOS and format the hard disk.. TRACERT is a routetracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. remove the diskette and proceed to the next pre-installation step. Choose all that apply. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. Answer: D Explanation: MAKEDISK. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks. Boot the computer with the diskette. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. boot the computer with that diskette. Answer option D is incorrect. How will he confirm this? A. of a networked computer. After completing the check. D.certkiller. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Reference: TechNet.www. This will run a boot sector virus check. Contents: "Mail Server" QUESTION NO: 305 Derek tries to install a Windows 2000 Server on his Pentium-II machine but the installation fails. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Reference: TechNet. The MAKEDISK.com rtK ille r. Once the diskette is created. Boot with Windows 2000 Server installation CD-ROM and run a third party Antivirus software. subnet mask. Answer option B is incorrect. he suspects that it may be due to a boot sector virus. When he examines the problem. Check the partition with the startup disk. A. Contents: "Installing and Configuring MS Windows 2000 Server" QUESTION NO: 306 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.BAT utility creates a diskette to check the boot sector for virus.

A disaster recovery documentation for a small organization may be simply a printed manual stored safely away from the primary work location.B Explanation: Pentium III and Pentium II processors use Slot 1. instead of a socket. AMD K6 processors use Socket 7. Choose all that apply. containing the names. Answer option C is incorrect. Pentium III C. copies of insurance contracts. is similar to an expansion card.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. addresses. general staff members. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8.c om . Answer option D is incorrect. It prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. AMD K6 Answer: A. It provides power backup to the server connected to the RAID controller. B. C. It is not recommended to store disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents in floppy disks.certkiller. as it is considered less reliable media than other storage media. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only. and vendors along with the location of the offsite data backup storage media. Pentium II B. Answer option C is incorrect. A.www. it will be safe in case of any disaster. "Slay Your Exams" .B Explanation: The following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true: The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes. Answer: A. It prevents loss of the drive array configuration settings. and other critical material necessary for organizational survival. clients. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. Answer option D is incorrect. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only. If the documents are stored on an offsite location. also known as single edge connector (SEC). Slot 1 type CPU connector. QUESTION NO: 307 Which of the following processors use Slot 1? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com 100 Ce rtK ille r. Pentium pro D. QUESTION NO: 308 Which of the following statements is true about the battery on a RAID controller? A. and phone numbers for crisis management staff.

Answer option C is incorrect. The battery on a RAID controller does not provide power backup to the server that is connected to the RAID controller. in incidents per second. QUESTION NO: 309 Answer: B. date. the data stored in the cache memory that is not written on the disk are cached in memory in write-back mode by getting power from the battery on the RAID controller. including those received in error.com rtK ille Which of the following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.c om 101 .www. Answer option D is incorrect. Segments Sent/sec is a subset of Segments/sec. Reference: "http://technet. Answer option B is incorrect. The Write Copies/sec counter shows the rate at which page faults were caused by attempts to write that were satisfied by copying the page from elsewhere in physical memory. Answer option A is incorrect. The Segments Sent/sec counter shows the rate at which segments were sent.10).D Explanation: The following counters of the TCP object are used to monitor network bottlenecks: Segments Received/sec Segments Sent/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec The Segments Received/sec counter shows the rate. r. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. Choose three. Answer: A Explanation: The battery on a RAID controller prevents loss of data stored in the write cache. at which segments were received. Battery modules can support cache memory for several days and save unwritten data in the cache. When power to the disk array is discontinued.microsoft.certkiller. The battery on a RAID controller cannot prevent loss of the drive array configuration settings. The CMOS battery prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It prevents loss of the BIOS configuration of the server connected to the RAID controller. Write Copies/sec B.com/eses/library/cc778758(WS.C. Segments Received/sec C.aspx" Ce A. The Segments Retransmitted/sec counter shows the rate at which segments containing one or more previously transmitted bytes were retransmitted. Segments Retransmitted/sec D. Segments Sent/sec "Slay Your Exams" . Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery.

278-27F B.certkiller. Incremental backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full or incremental backup.c om . It requires minimum space to backup data. Answer option D is incorrect.wikipedia. Reference: "http://en. Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Full backup D. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 310 Which of the following backup types backs up files that have been added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed? A. Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup.com 102 Ce rtK ille r. folders. After a full backup is performed. Incremental backup Answer: D Explanation: added and all data that have been modified since the most recent backup was performed. Incremental backups must be restored in the same order as they were created. involves backing up the entire hard disks and files of a machine. all archive bits are reset to 0. 1F0-1F8 D. Full backup. Answer option B is incorrect. The CPU sends instructions to the hard disk controller on this I/O address. If any incremental backup in the incremental backup set is damaged or becomes corrupt.www. There is no such type of backup as daily backup. When the full backup type is set up. Differential backup B. 3F0-3F7 C. also known as normal backup. Incremental backup provides a faster method of backing up data than most other backup methods. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups. the data backed up after corruption cannot be restored. 3F8-3FF Answer: C Explanation: A hard disk controller uses the I/O address range 1F0-1F8. and hard disks are to be backed up. Answer option B is incorrect. A floppy disk controller uses the I/O "Slay Your Exams" . Daily backup C. Answer option A is incorrect.org/wiki/Incremental_backup" QUESTION NO: 311 Which I/O address range is used by a hard disk controller? A. a user should choose which files. It is faster as compared to full backup. COM1 serial port uses the I/O address range 3F8-3FF.

31. This allows faster access to BIOS information. IRQ. B. Data stored in RAM and adapter cards are copied to the extended memory. D. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. 26. BIOS routines are copied into the RAM at computer startup. Answer: B Explanation: Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. QUESTION NO: 312 What is the height of the 8U server rack? A. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. BIOS routines are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking. Answer option A is incorrect. Resources such as I/O addresses. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer.5 inches . Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range.com 103 Ce rtK Explanation: The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches .c om .5 inches C.www. IRQs. The primary "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option D is incorrect. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam address range 3F0-3F7. 14 inches D.certkiller. ille r. Data stored in conventional memory are copied to the extended memory. Whenever a component.25 inches . to communicate with any peripheral device. LPT2 port uses the I/O address range 27827F . Answer option A is incorrect.25 inches Answer: C QUESTION NO: 313 Which of the following is a consequence of configuring shadow RAM in the computer BIOS? A. 21 inches B. The CPU needs a memory address. Answer option B is incorrect. The 18U server rack has a height of 31. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches . When you configure shadow RAM. C. The 15U server rack has a height of 26. its I/O address.

Choose all that apply. SCSI-2. Fast-Wide SCSI B. Ultra 160 SCSI D. and SCSI-3. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. On the motherboard Answer: A Explanation: You can find the BIOS version ID in the BIOS setup program.www.D Explanation: The following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard: Ultra 160 SCSI Ultra 320 SCSI Answer options A and B are incorrect. Reference: TechNet. Fast SCSI C.org/wiki/SCSI" "Slay Your Exams" . On the computer case D. Contents: "Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528]" QUESTION NO: 314 You want to find the BIOS version ID of your computer. SCSI devices. QUESTION NO: 315 Which of the following devices fall under the SCSI-3 standard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The following devices fall under the SCSI-2 standard: Fast-Wide SCSI Fast SCSI What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Where will you look for it? A.certkiller. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. But.wikipedia. on the motherboard. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. In BIOS setup program B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs.c om . Reference: "http://en. A. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. Ultra 320 SCSI Answer: C. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.com 104 Ce rtK ille r. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. On the microprocessor C.

Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault.www.certkiller. The company's network has a storage area network (SAN) that uses Fibre Channel technology. and allows you to enable or disable hardware acceleration. The Reliability Monitor. Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. DXDIAG Answer: A Explanation: LAN Analyzer is a tool that can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network.c om 105 . Answer option C is incorrect. DirectX Diagnostic Tool (DXDIAG) is a troubleshooting tool used to find errors related to DirectX files and fix them. Which of the following must the servers use in order to connect to the SAN? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . What is a broadcast storm? A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. Answer option B is incorrect. The servers on the network must connect to the SAN. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. The Display tab of the tool shows your current display settings. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. This tool is very helpful for detecting any intermittent failure. QUESTION NO: 317 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The Reliability Monitor tool is used to get an overview of the reasons of failures over a configurable period of time. is used to detect the reasons for computer failure.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 316 Which of the following tools can be used to detect the network adapter causing broadcast storm on the network? A. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. a tool introduced in Windows Vista. Time Domain Reflectometer D. Reliability Monitor C. LAN Analyzer B. This tab also displays warning messages if there are any problems. The Reliability Monitor reports the following events: Software installation and removal Application failure Hardware failure Windows failure Miscellaneous failure The Reliability Monitor can be accessed by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Reliability and Performance > Monitoring Tools > Reliability Monitor. provides tests for both DirectDraw and Direct3D.

Answer option B is incorrect. It allows multiple exchanges of information to occur at the same time between ports. Verify backed-up data D. Answer options A and D are incorrect. A Fibre Channel fabric uses a Fibre Channel switch to provide direct connections between node pairs. Andrew cannot install operating system updates before installing the operating system. Andrew takes full backup of the critical files on a cartridge tape drive. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cannot be used for connecting SANs to the server. There is no such technology as Fibre Thicknet Bus. he will loose the files. Instead. A Fibre Channel switch intelligently manages connections between ports. the servers must use a Fibre Channel fabric. What should be his first step before installing Windows NT 4. as it is time consuming. Format the system partition B. routing frames dynamically. FactWhat is full backup? Full backup backs up the entire database including the transaction log.com 106 Ce rtK Andrew works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. a well-defined backup strategy should be "Slay Your Exams" .www. You may loose files if the backup gets corrupted. Andrew should first verify that backed-up data is correctly stored before installing Windows NT 4.c om .5 Server files and install Windows NT 4.0 Server.5 Server. Fibre Thicknet Bus C. Fibre Channel fabric Answer: D Explanation: Fibre Channel fabric is a fibre channel communication network topology.certkiller. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) B. SCSI bus D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. The server contains critical files. Install the latest network operating system updates C. Recreate the partition Answer: C Explanation: As a precautionary measure. Answer option C is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 318 A. If Andrew removes the critical files on the server and the backed-up data gets corrupted. PSTN cannot provide such a high speed connection.0 Server. Answer option A is incorrect. Taking a full backup daily is impractical. He decides to remove the Windows NT 3. working as a file server. The company's network consists of a Windows NT 3. A switch offers better system throughput than a hub.0 Server? ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. As the storage area network (SAN) is using Fibre Channel technology. Formatting or recreating the partition should not be done unless the backup is verified. The connection between servers and SANs requires high data transfer rate.

certkiller. It monitors hard disk utilization. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8.c om . Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. 486DX D. QUESTION NO: 319 Which of the following models of a processor uses Socket 7? A. "Slay Your Exams" . 486DX processors use Socket 0. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. D. Pentium II C. Answer option B is incorrect. Pentium Answer: D Explanation: Pentium processors with 321 pins use Socket 7.www. Performance Monitor does not capture network traffic and detect viruses. instead of sockets. Answer: A. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Choose two. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. QUESTION NO: 320 Which of the following statements are TRUE about Performance Monitor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The Alert. It detects viruses on the computer. Pentium Pro B. Pentium II processors use a Single-Edge Connector (SEC) interface. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. It measures the processor utilization on the computer. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. It captures network traffic.com 107 Ce rtK ille r. B. C. A. also known as Slot 1.C Explanation: Performance Monitor measures the processor utilization and monitors hard disk utilization. over time. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. View.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam implemented as a weekly full backup and a daily differential backup. over time.

a short cable. a transposed wire pair. is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. Answer option C is incorrect. Alert Answer: C Ce "Slay Your Exams" . or some other problem.com rtK ille r.c om 108 . and various types of crosstalk. Media tester C. open circuits. transposed wire pairs. Which of the following devices will you use to accomplish the task? A. Answer option D is incorrect. A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit. A tone generator is an electrical cable testing device that can determine if the problem is an open circuit. Wire crimper D. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. You decide to implement a star network. After you complete the wire connections. Which of the following views will you use? A. Wire crimper is a device that is used to attach connectors to the cables. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. Log D. you want to test the wires for attenuation. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) Answer: B Explanation: In order to accomplish the task. You cannot use OTDR with copper cables. Tone generator B. also called a media certifier. Chart C. It tests for shorts. you will have to use a media tester.www.000. QUESTION NO: 322 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. attenuation. Answer option A is incorrect. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device. View B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 321 You are creating a network for Net World Inc. You want to create a measurement baseline using Performance Monitor. What is a media tester? A media tester. The company has a Windows NT domainbased network.certkiller.

Compact Disc File System (CDFS) C. Novell Storage Services (NSS) Answer: B. It supports file system recovery. NTFS also offers security features.51. A. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas.c om 109 . Windows 2000/2003. These features are not available on FAT volumes. View.1. It has recently ported to Linux. large storage media. What is HPFS? The High Performance File System (HPFS) was first introduced with OS/2 1. High Performance File System (HPFS) B. and Windows XP operating systems. Answer options A and D are incorrect. Novell Storage Services (NSS) is a file system used by Novell's Netware operating system. long file names. and 3.com rtK ille r.0 do not support and cannot access HPFS partitions. over time. Contents: "Monitoring and Optimizing Internet Information Server" QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.certkiller. Answer option E is incorrect. Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4. The Alert.www. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You will have to use the Log view to create a performance baseline using Performance Monitor. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Windows NT file system (NTFS) E. distributed link tracking. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Choose two. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. HPFS is only supported under Windows NT versions 3. and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. such as encryption and file and folder permissions. What is NTFS? NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows NT. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log-structured file system (LFS) D. over time. and other features. Create reports for use in analyzing performance. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers. Reference: TechNet. The HPFS and NTFS file systems are used on hard disk drives to install operating systems. and mounted drives.2 to allow greater access to larger hard drives. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .C Explanation: The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) and the Log-structured file system (LFS) are file systems that cannot be used to install operating systems. 3.5. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached. The CD-ROM file system standard is intended for making CD-ROMs readable on many different platforms. compression.

If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. 8 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. What is video RAM? Video RAM is a type of memory that stores information about the images that are displayed on the monitor screen. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end. It works as a buffer between the computer processor and the display and is often called the frame buffer. 32 D. B. Removing the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet will not help in protecting the computer parts.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 324 What precaution should be taken while installing a video-card with on-board video RAM? A.com rtK ille r. C. What is ESD? ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. QUESTION NO: 325 What is width of the data bus for a 486DX4 processor? A. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. 64 C. You should never turn the power on while installing hardware components on a computer. such as. Unplug other cards from the motherboard. Answer option B is incorrect. The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. Answer option A is incorrect. Switch on the computer. Wrist strap provides protection against Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. You are not required to unplug other cards from the motherboard while installing a video-card. chips on the motherboard or adapters. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems.c om 110 . Answer option D is incorrect. Remove the Switch Mode Power Supply from the cabinet. D. you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. Wear wrist strap. 16 B.www. Answer: C Explanation: As a precaution. All types of video RAM are special arrangements of dynamic RAM (DRAM).certkiller.

Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. To regenerate a RAID5 volume. Answer: A Explanation: When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails. use Disk Management. recreate the RAID5 volume. QUESTION NO: 326 As a Network Administrator. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume and then restore data from the tape backup. and then re-creates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. The Intel 80286 processor has a 16-bit data bus. and then restore data from the tape backup. Note: If Disk Management does not detect a new disk after Rescan Disks.www. In the console tree under Storage. What will you do? A. the volume must be locked by the operating system. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64-bit data bus. you may have to restart your computer. Choose two. All network connections to the volume are lost when a volume is regenerated. Use Disk Administrator to break the RAID5 volume. should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. A new area of free space of the same size.certkiller. Then create partitions and format new disks. You are using a RAID5 volume across six drives as your fault-tolerance solution. or larger than the other members of RAID5 volume. you find that one of the drives has failed. The next day. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486 series microprocessor has a 32-bit width data bus. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD: Disaster protection QUESTION NO: 327 Which of the following can cause a broadcast storm on the network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. What is the function of the Disk Management tool? he Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. the failed disk becomes an orphan. Intel Pentium microprocessors are also based on a 32-bit data bus.com 111 Ce rtK ille r. Take the following steps to create partitions and format disks : Go to Start menu > Programs > Administrative Tools > Computer Management. Replace the failed drive. C. "Slay Your Exams" . replace the drive. Replace the drive. D. select a new area of free space and then regenerate the volume. you are concerned about fault tolerance. click on Disk Management. go to Action menu and click Rescan Disks. and then regenerate the stripe set.c om .

c om 112 . FTP or Gopher objects. In case of a server that is down.C Explanation: A faulty Network Interface Card (NIC) and down server. Web Proxy logs.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. A down network server. Windows NT system log. Slow workstation or low fluctuation cannot cause a broadcast storm on the network. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic. "Slay Your Exams" . Which one of the following tools will help you determine where the SMTP traffic is coming from? r. Incoming TCP traffic that is destined for port 25 is addressed to the SMTP server. D. Network Monitor. thus generating traffic on the network. which may result in a broadcast storm. C. another computer on the network may attempt to communicate with the server by sending frequent requests. whereas SMTP traffic is redirected by the WinSock Proxy service. In case of a faulty NIC that sends a jabber packet. you can detect the faulty NIC through the network monitor software or by the elimination process. C.certkiller. Contents: "Using the Microsoft Network Monitor" QUESTION NO: 329 Ce A. Reference: TechNet. The Web Proxy service log contains information about client requests for HTTP. which serves network resources to the network client computer. Performance Monitor.www. The Windows NT system log contains information about various system events. An SMTP server is installed on the internal network. and cannot be used to monitor SMTP traffic. Faulty NIC on a networked computer. Slow workstation systems B. B. can cause a broadcast storm on the network. port etc. IP address. D. QUESTION NO: 328 Answer: D Explanation: The Network Monitor can capture frames from the network. which can be analyzed to determine the protocol.com rtK ille Your corporate network uses a Proxy Server for Internet access. Voltage fluctuation Answer: B. The Performance Monitor cannot provide source IP addresses.

What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. Surge protector D. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. IRQ is an infrared communication device.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam While installing a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. ille r. if you want to install a high capacity hard disk drive on an older machine. SMPS B. The hard disk controller C. The motherboard B. IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU.Administering Windows NT Systems QUESTION NO: 331 Which of the following devices is used to resolve the low voltage problem? A.certkiller.com rtK A. IRQ allows devices to communicate directly with the memory without using the CPU. which is not supported by an older BIOS. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. what will you have to upgrade? A. D. Reference: TechNet. Switch Ce "Slay Your Exams" . C. UPS C. The System's BIOS Answer: D Explanation: A BIOS upgrade is required. on the motherboard. RAM D. In general. QUESTION NO: 330 Which of the following statements is true about IRQ? Answer: D Explanation: IRQ is a series of standard signals used by devices to request for attention from the CPU. Contents: Chapter 1 .c om 113 . B. only one device should be assigned to each IRQ.www. IRQ is a section of the system's memory used by devices.

A wrist strap is a simple wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a clip on the other end. Synthetic clothes can transfer ESD charges from your skin when they rub against your clothes and can damage the computer components. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. Answer: B Explanation: To minimize Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) problems. while the computer gets normal power. A plastic CPU cover cannot decrease the ESD problem. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. you should attach uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to a computer. It also provides protection against power surges. A wrist strap. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect.Planning a Reliable Configuration" Which of the following options will you use to minimize ESD problems? A. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. An antiglare screen. A plastic CPU cover. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: To resolve the low voltage problem.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 332 r. Contents: "Chapter 4 . The clip is connected to a common ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on.www. It happens when your body or clothes come in contact with computer components. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Wearing synthetic clothes in the computer lab.certkiller. using battery backup. When power surge occurs. Reference: TechNet. This reduces the network traffic. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. An antiglare screen on the monitor is used to protect the eyes from radiation.c om 114 . D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. Answer option D is incorrect.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. you should wear a wrist strap when you are working on computer components. Wearing synthetic clothes can make the ESD problem worse. B.

133 MB/second. It requires zero administration. A blade enclosure. D. Reference: "Upgrading and Repairing PCs" by Scott Mueller. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2. Though. Answer: B. Answer options A and D are incorrect. AGP enables high speed for 3D graphics and full motion videos. Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space.certkiller. A blade server requires administration and does not improve network performance. cooling. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM. Contents: "Motherboard and Buses" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . AGP provides improved server performance through load sharing. which enables fast video performance. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. D.c om 115 . provides services such as power. which can hold multiple blade servers. B. AGP provides improved network performance. A. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable. and B are incorrect. various interconnects and management.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 333 Which of the following are the benefits of implementing a blade server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: A Explanation: AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support.www. AGP enables quick file transfer to a remote system. It takes less space than conventional servers. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. networking. blade servers have many components removed to save space. C. D. It consumes less power. answer options C. Reference: "http://en.com rtK ille r. C. Choose two.C Explanation: A blade server takes less space and consumes less power than the conventional servers.wikipedia. Therefore. B. It improves network performance. minimize power consumption and other considerations.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 334 Which of the following is an advantage of AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? A.

c om . fire-resistant casing that emits little smoke.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 335 Which of the following materials is used in a Coaxial cable for the insulation and the cable jacket? A. Cotton ribbon D.com 116 Ce A. Computer hangs B. Processor damage D. Reference: TechNet. PVC is used in most coaxial cables. the heat generated by the processor will cause computer hang up and processor damage. The company has a server that has a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array with four hard disk drives. PVC C. it responds "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 337 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Plenum B. when it burns. Plenum rated cable has slow-burning. However. A plenum is the short space in many buildings between the false ceiling and the floor above. r. Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. Plenum cable can be used in the plenum area and in a wall without conduit. it emits poisonous gases. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Users report that when they query the database or update data. The server also runs the DNS service.C Explanation: In an event of processor fan failure. The server contains a database that is used by Intranet users on the company's network. PVC coaxial cable is flexible and can be easily routed in the exposed areas of an office. Choose all that apply. Floppy drive failure C. Hard drive failure rtK ille Which of the following can happen in an event of processor fan failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. QUESTION NO: 336 Answer: A. Fiber Answer: B Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a type of plastic used to construct the insulation and the cable jacket for a cable. Processor fan failure does not affect the hard disk drive or the floppy disk drive.www.

c om .Move the DNS service to another server. Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. Answer option D is incorrect. with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Five D.Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. B. Administrators should avoid putting a paging file on a fault tolerant drive such as a RAID-1 or RAID-5 volume. This will reduce the work load on the server and hence improve its performance. Move the DNS service to another server. Move the paging file to another partition on the RAID-5 array. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. 2. Both the partitions must be of same size.www. Two Answer: A Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID5 array. Since one hard disk drive is included as a spare disk. Paging files do not need fault-tolerance. Mark can take the following steps: 1. striped volume (RAID-0). Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Four B. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Answer: A. Implementing RAID-1 on the server will not improve the performance of the server. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. This will improve the read-write performance of the disks. A RAID5 array is a fault-tolerant volume. Thirty-three C. Choose three.Add a hard disk drive to the RAID-5 array. 3. Implement the RAID-1 disk array instead of RAID-5 on the server. four disks is the right choice.com 117 Ce QUESTION NO: 338 rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam slowly. and some fault-tolerant systems suffer from slow data writes because they write data to multiple locations. A.certkiller.B. "Slay Your Exams" . The read-write performance of RAID-1 is slower than RAID-5. FactWhat is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for a RAID5 array. including a spare hard disk drive? A. D. C.C Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. Which of the following steps can Mark take to improve the performance of the server? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. you can re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity.

Each processor shares the same memory. etc. multiple processors share the same memory and handle tasks in parallel. AMD Athlon MP. Answer: A. SMP is easier to implement. than RAID1 array. In this architecture. Reference: Windows 2000 Help. However in case of RAID1 array.c om . You will require five additional disks of same size to provide fault tolerance. Choose three. Cylinders B. mirror can be establish between two disks. 'Using mirrored volumes' QUESTION NO: 339 Which of the following are the three basic components of hard drive geometry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.certkiller. It is easier to implement than Asymmetric Multi-Processing (ASMP). C. as it has multiple processors and other components "Slay Your Exams" . r.B. Heads are used to read and write data on the hard disk. thus if the data is stored on five hard disks only one additional disk is required to provide fault tolerance.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. Each processor runs all tasks in parallel.B. Heads C. RAID5 array has a better read performance. Cylinders and sectors are used by an operating system for hard disk organization. D.C QUESTION NO: 340 Which of the following statements about the SMP (Symmetrical Multi-Processing) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. RAID1 array is also known as Mirroring. Pentium III. A. Cluster Answer: A. Choose three. Sectors D. Content: 'Using RAID5 volumes'. which includes Pentium II.www. The lower-scale systems use Symmetrical Multi-Processing more commonly due to its low costs. Head and Sectors. The processors share a common front side bus (FSB) to access memory from which to collect and export data.com 118 Ce rtK ille Explanation: The hard drive geometry has three basic components Cylinders.D Explanation: Symmetrical Multi-Processing (SMP) is a type of multi-processor architecture. SMP is most commonly found on the x86-based architecture. B. A. Each processor has its own memory address space.

It allows computers to access disk drives over 504 MB. Implement the cluster server. It allows computers to access disk drives over 40 MB.com 119 Ce rtK Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. C. It allows computers to use more physical memory. Maintaining a hard copy of the data stored on the server will not improve the disaster recovery plan. It allows computers to access data faster. Mark will have to maintain a printed tape backup report. C. Maintain a printed tape backup report. Mark is testing the disaster recovery plan of the company. Answer: B Explanation: In order to improve the disaster recovery plan.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 341 What is the use of the LBA mode on older computers? A. During the testing of the recovery plan.e. Answer: C Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) mode allows older computers to access disk drives larger than 504MB. Implementing the cluster server has nothing to do with this issue. each processor has its own memory address space and the program tasks are divided on the basis of the tasks that the processors perform. D. Reference: "http://en. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. It will increase the administrative burden. D. I/O subsystem. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. he finds that some servers have been restored with another server's dat a. etc.www. QUESTION NO: 342 A. B. On the other hand.wikipedia. Maintain a hard copy of the data stored on the server. "Slay Your Exams" .c om .. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. Answer option C is incorrect. so that it can be confirmed that the data is getting stored on the appropriate server. Answer option D is incorrect. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are shared by them such as the memory. Answer option A is incorrect.Processing (ASMP). What will Mark do to improve the disaster recovery plan? ille r. which is used to access and manage the cluster. operating system.certkiller. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. a virtual server name. in Asymmetrical Multi. Remember which tape drive stores which server's data.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Remembering which tape drive stores which server's data is not a good practice. Restart Server -ns D. as it is possible that another administrator could work in place of Mark when the need arises. The company has offices at different locations of a city. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: 100BaseFX is a fast Ethernet network that runs at the speed of 100 Mbps using Multimode Fiberoptic (MMF) cable with segment lengths of up to 412 meters for half duplex connections and 2000 meters for full duplex connections. DOWN-f C. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .ncf file. Restart Server -na B. The similarity between 100BaseFX and other fast Ethernet specifications are the use of star topology. There is no such command as DOWN-fs. The following table lists the 100BaseFX specifications: Maximum segment length (half duplex) 412 meters Maximum segment length (full duplex) 2000 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable Fiber Optic QUESTION NO: 344 Which of the following commands runs the shutdown without a prompt on the Novell Netware 6 server? A. You decide to use 100BaseFX full-duplex Multimode Fiber-optic cabling for interconnecting the offices. The Restart Server -ns command restarts the server without using the startup. Answer option A is incorrect. 2000 meters B. DOWN-fs Answer: B Explanation: The DOWN-f command forces the server to shutdown without prompting. 100 meters C. Answer option D is incorrect. 10 meters D.certkiller. What is the maximum length of cable you can use for this network? A.com rtK ille r.www. QUESTION NO: 343 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc.ncf file.c om 120 . The Restart Server -na command restarts the server without using the autoexec. Answer option C is incorrect.

ARP D. There is no utility such as IPSTAT. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. SNMP C.c om 121 . NETSTAT B. Answer option D is incorrect. update the NetBIOS name cache. IPSTAT Answer: A Explanation: The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Which of the following will you use? A. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets. You want to get the protocol statistics and the active TCP/IP network connections of your computer. NBTSTAT E. Windows Backup utility D. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network.www.com rtK ille r. Automated System Recovery (ASR) B. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. QUESTION NO: 346 Which of the following is used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003? A. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. and determine the registered names and scope IDs. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option E is incorrect. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. which allows users to manage the network. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. incoming and outgoing data.certkiller. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) Answer: A Ce "Slay Your Exams" .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 345 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. NTDSUTIL utility C.

AUTOEXEC. Choose two. or less.www. the current Disk Queue Length is 4. Network adapter B. Managing and controlling operations master roles. Note:The NTDSUTIL utility is supposed to be used by experienced administrators. is considered normal and is not a sign of a CPU bottleneck. Answer option C is incorrect. ERD includes portion of the registry. Monica should add another disk or replace the existing disk with a faster one.com 122 Ce Monica monitors various performance counters on a Proxy Server computer that has one CPU and one hard disk. How to create an ASR set? Show Answer option D is incorrect. An ASR restore includes the configuration information for devices. and click OK. go to Start menu > Run.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a feature of Windows Server 2003. and arranged in a RAID configuration to increase speed. an excessive amount of input/output to the "Slay Your Exams" . She discovers that the percent Processor Time is 75%. On the other hand. Removing metadata left behind by domain controllers. ASR backs up the system data and local system partition.BAT. Hard disk C. CPU D. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. To restore the information from ERD. and Network Interface Output Queue 9Length is 1. and cannot satisfy all the requests in a timely fashion. The best configuration for running a Proxy Server is a computer with a high amount of content cache on multiple disks that are attached to separate SCSI controllers. QUESTION NO: 347 A. Answer option B is incorrect. To start RDISK. which of the following devices are possible bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. A current Disk Queue Length value that is greater than 2 indicates that the disk is subjected to excessive amount of input/output. These files are stored in compressed format.D Explanation: % Processor Time value of 90. Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. rtK ille r.EXE is a command-line tool that is used to manage Active Directory. Memory Answer: A.EXE utility. The Windows Backup utility cannot be used to recover the operating system in Windows Server 2003. It is used to perform a restore of the system state data and services in the event of a major system failure. the Cache Hit Ratio is 90%.LOG. ERD can be created through the RDISK.SYS). and CONFIG. computer's default profile (NTUSER. This utility is used to perform the following tasks: Performing database maintenance of Active Directory.c om . Therefore.DAT). Based on this information. NTDSUTIL. type RDISK. ERD is not self bootable. It does not back up folders and files.certkiller.

a blank screen is displayed. Answer options B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam hard disk can be caused by insufficient memory. Pages/sec B. The most likely cause for this is that the HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive.com 123 Ce rtK Explanation: The question clearly states that when Andrew powers on the computer after adding the hard disk drive. HDD cable is not inserted properly in the hard disk drive. ille r. Answer: A QUESTION NO: 349 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults? A..www. Floppy drive cable is not inserted properly in the floppy drive. Incompatible hard disk drive. While adding a hard disk drive to a computer. Network Interface: Output Queue Length value of less than 2 is a sign that the network interface is working properly. i. C.c om . To determine if memory is a bottleneck. Pages Writes/sec D. Pages Input/sec Answer: A Explanation: The Pages/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults. What is the most likely cause? A. the memory Pages/sec counter should be monitored. BIOS configuration error. When he powers on the computer. Contents:Chapter 8 .Monitoring Performance QUESTION NO: 348 Andrew adds a hard disk drive to a computer. The Pages Writes/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free "Slay Your Exams" .e. the HDD and IDE controller ends. and an incompatible hard disk drive have nothing to do with this problem. An improperly inserted floppy drive cable. D. a blank screen is displayed. and that most of the client requests are serviced from the cache. and D are incorrect. make sure that the HDD cable is inserted properly at both ends. BIOS configuration error.certkiller. C. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Pages Outout/sec C. B. A Cache Hit Ratio of 90% indicates that the cache is correctly configured. The Pages Outout/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were written to disk to free up space in physical memory. Reference: TechNet.

Choose all that apply. An operating system that supports SNMP B.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. An operating system that supports SCSI devices Ce "Slay Your Exams" . D.com rtK ille r. Which of the following operating systems will you select to take full benefit of hardware? A. Install both hard disks on the secondary IDE controller and designate both hard disks as Slave. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master.www. QUESTION NO: 351 Your company has recently purchased a motherboard that supports eight processors. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. Install both hard disk drives on the primary IDE controller and designate both drives as Secondary. Which of the following are the possible combinations that can be used? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.certkiller.D om 124 . Explanation: While installing two hard disk drives on a computer. Answer option C is incorrect. B. or Slave. Install the drives.c Answer: B. Reference: "http://technet. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave.10). The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive.Install the drives. any one of the following two combinations can be used: 1. none of them will work. Answer option D is incorrect.microsoft. If two drives are attached to one controller.Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. A. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Pages Input/sec counter shows the rate at which pages were read from disk to resolve hard page faults. Slave. An operating system that supports Plug and Play functionality D.aspx" QUESTION NO: 350 You are installing two hard disk drives on a computer. There is no such setting as Secondary.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam up space in physical memory. 2. one each on the primary and secondary IDE controllers and designate both as Master. Install both drives on the primary IDE controller and designate one as Master and the other as Slave. An operating system that supports SMP C. C.

Answer: D Explanation: Shadowing is a method that improves system performance by copying code in ROM BIOS to the extended memory. or SCSI device will not be able to take advantage of hardware mentioned in the scenario. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into the extended memory. Instructions stored in the hard disk will be copied into the extended memory. An operating system supporting SNMP. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into hard disk. C.www. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. With proper operating system support. you have to select an operating system that supports Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP). But it should be done only as the last resort.c om . "Slay Your Exams" . Plug and Play.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B Explanation: In order to take full benefit of hardware. and security. SMP systems allow any processor to work on any task no matter where the data for that task are located in memory. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices and to manage configuration. the system performance can suffer each time the hardware code is executed from the ROM BIOS.org/wiki/Symmetric_multiprocessing" QUESTION NO: 352 What will happen when shadowing is enabled in the ROM BIOS of a computer? A. also known as low-DOS or base memory. Answer options A. the Plug and Play compliant operating system automatically detects it. When a Plug and Play device is connected to a computer. treating them as separate processors. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. Reference: "http://en. the SMP architecture applies to the cores.wikipedia. devices. C. B. and configures the device appropriately. What is SNMP? SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is exclusively used in TCP/IP networks. What is conventional memory? Conventional memory. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. statistics collections. and device drivers. SMP systems can easily move tasks between processors to balance the workload efficiently. Instructions stored in the ROM BIOS chip will be copied into conventional memory. The hardware code is typically stored in ROM. Many BIOSs allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. What is Plug and Play? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support.com 125 Ce rtK ille r. performance. because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. In the case of multi-core processors. Most common multiprocessor systems today use an SMP architecture. D. installs the required drivers. All versions of Windows above Windows 9x support the Plug and Play feature. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is a technique that involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory. As ROM is relatively slower than RAM. and D are incorrect.

QUESTION NO: 354 How many devices can be connected together from a standard SCSI controller? A. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. B. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone. radiation from the power cable. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam is the portion of memory in RAM which starts at zero bytes and goes upto 640 KB. you experience a mild shock. Surge C. C. Nine devices. Answer option C is incorrect. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. Answer option A is incorrect. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. thereby increasing the traffic.com rtK ille r. EMI Answer: D Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable. Reference: TechNet. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD.certkiller. known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) . excluding one host bus adapter card. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card. consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Six devices. Answer option B is incorrect. ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems. Eight devices.www. It is used to load and process data needed by the active programs. Contents: Shadow RAM Basics [Q78528] QUESTION NO: 353 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable? A. including one host bus adapter card. may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. including one host bus adapter card. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. Broadcast storm D. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one end and a plug or clip on the other end.c om 126 . A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. ESD B.

Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r. A RAS (Remote Access Service) server is a specialized computer which aggregates multiple communication channels together. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. Two devices. QUESTION NO: 355 Which of the following servers provides remote access through a dial-up connection? A.org/wiki/Remote_Access_Service" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Because these channels are bidirectional. the user will not be able to communicate with anyone on the network or access network resources. A database server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. so that they can communicate with other network services. including one host bus adapter and up to seven drive controllers. Reference: "http://en. and a single entity connecting to multiple resources. Access Providers often use RAS servers to terminate physical connections to their customers. Hence. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. for example customers who get Internet through some form of modem. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. IP address-to-host name mappings. Both physical and virtual resources can be provided through a RAS server: centralized computing can provide multiple users access to a remote virtual operating system.certkiller. including one host bus adapter card. Both of these models are widely used. a user cannot obtain necessary addresses from the server. Answer option A is incorrect. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers. DNS server D.c om 127 . Answer: C Explanation: A SCSI controller allows up to eight devices to be connected to the SCSI bus.www. RAS server C. DHCP server B. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Note: If the DHCP server is offline. A DHCP server does not provide remote access through a dial-up connection. information about the domain tree structure.wikipedia. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network and runs on servers only. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. etc. Database server Answer: B Explanation: A Remote Access Service (RAS) server provides remote access though a dial-up connection. two models emerge: multiple entities connecting to a single resource. Answer option C is incorrect. without valid TCP/IP addresses from the DHCP server.

Small Computer Serial Interface. since the last incremental or full backup. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. You are designing a data backup plan for your company's network. a backup tape less than twenty-four hours old should be kept offsite. D. Take a full backup daily and use six-tape rotation.certkiller. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this? A. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 357 What does SCSI stand for? A. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Small Component Systems Interface. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Description of Full. For safe storage. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Explanation: The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of data. It needs only one tape to restore data. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data.com rtK ille r. Keep Monday's backup offsite. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. C. F:Take a full backup on Monday and a differential backup on each of the following weekdays. you should take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. Take a full backup daily with one tape taken offsite weekly. or are new.www. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Small Computer Systems Interface. Incremental. Take a full backup on Monday and an incremental backup on each of the following weekdays. The backup policy of the company requires high security and easy recovery of dat a. C. Take a full backup daily with the previous night's tape taken offsite. E. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive.c om Answer: C 128 . Full backup is a good choice because it makes data restoration easier as compared to differential or incremental backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. B. Take a full backup on alternate days and keep rotating the tapes. B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 356 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Soft Inc. Reference: TechNet. Therefore.

SCSI-2. C. These steps will not help in running the TELNET client on the computer.wikipedia.www. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. D. Type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Type the telcli command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. Contents: "Chapter 19 . are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI devices. you will type the telnet command on the command prompt and press the Enter key. C. to access files. such as hard disk drive and CDROM drive. and SCSI-3. ESD occurs between two objects that have no electric potential. Answer: C Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. "Slay Your Exams" . Reference: TechNet.certkiller. It uses TCP port 23 by default. B.c om . ESD occurs due to electric fluctuation. offers the ability to run programs remotely. Answer: D Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer. Reference: "http://en.com 129 Ce rtK ille r. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories > Terminal.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Serial Computer Systems Interconnect. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Go to Start > Programs > Communication > Terminal.org/wiki/Telnet" QUESTION NO: 359 Which of the following statements is true about Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) ? A.Device Management" QUESTION NO: 358 Which of the following steps will you take to run the TELNET client on a Windows 2000 Server computer? A. There is no such command as telcli. B. and facilitates remote administration. Answer option A is incorrect. ESD occurs between two objects that have the same electric potential. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices.

like an adapter or drive. C. TRACERT Answer: C. IPCONFIG B. date. The computer will hang frequently.certkiller. you find that the date and time. QUESTION NO: 360 How will you determine that the CMOS battery in the computer has failed or discharged? A.com rtK ille r. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. and few other settings are lost. The computer will start losing the date and time. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration. Answer: D Explanation: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) occurs when two objects of different electric potential come in contact with one another and exchange the charge in order to standardize the electrostatic charge. If you touch any sensitive electronic component.www. NETSTAT C. PING D. Choose two.D Ce Explanation: When you turn off the computer and turn it on again.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. The computer's processing speed will slow down. B. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS battery has failed. there will be no static difference between them that can cause ESD.c om 130 . with your hand. "Slay Your Exams" . D. ESD protection is based on charge equivalence. Answer: D QUESTION NO: 361 Which two of the following utilities are similar in function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. and time settings when a computer's main power is off. A. ESD occurs between two objects that have different electric potential. The computer will take time to reboot. What is a CMOS battery? A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard.

the motherboard supports only same type of memory module.c om 131 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: PING and TRACERT are similar in function. incoming and outgoing data." The motherboard supports only same type of memory module. Answer option B is incorrect. incoming and outgoing data. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. You can install multiple memory module of same type with different sizes on the motherboard. According to its manual. like SIMM or DIMM. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. of all memory modules on the motherboard. Same size of all memory modules on the motherboard. TRACERT traces the path taken by TCP/IP packets from a computer to a remote computer by sending ICMP echo requests and replying to messages. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Contents: "Networking . Answer option B is incorrect. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. default gateway etc. of a networked computer. B. What does this indicate? A. "Same type. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. Same slot of all memory modules on the motherboard. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. D. Answer option A is incorrect. Both are diagnostic utilities used to diagnose a TCP/IP configuration and use ICMP echo requests to diagnose network connection problems. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected.com rtK ille r.www. C. Same type. like DIMM or SIMM of all memory modules on the motherboard.certkiller. such as IP address. It is not important that there are different manuurers for same type of RAM. QUESTION NO: 363 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .TCP/IP" QUESTION NO: 362 You are upgrading your server. subnet mask. Reference: TechNet. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Same manuurer of all memory modules on the motherboard. like DIMM or SIMM.. PING sends ICMP echo requests from a computer to a remote computer to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network.

What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Fans are also used to improve air circulation in the CPU box. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.www. it does not provide fault tolerance. However. What is mirrored volume (RAID-1)? A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. It uses a disk file system called a stripe set. RAID levels 3 and 5 provide data redundancy. To make CPU faster. Fans cannot make CPU faster or improve performance of a computer. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Answer options A and D are incorrect. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. To improve air circulation in the CPU box. To improve performance of the computer. If a portion of a "Slay Your Exams" . all the data is lost. or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Contents: "Chapter 5 Keeping Connected" QUESTION NO: 364 Which of the following RAID levels creates a stripe set but does not provide data redundancy? A. Level 1 C. A.c om . RAID level 1 is also known as disk mirroring and provides data redundancy. To keep CPU temperature low. B. Choose all that apply.com 132 Ce rtK ille r. Data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Why do we use fans inside the Central Processing Unit (CPU) box? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume. Answer option B is incorrect. Level 3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID level 0 is commonly known as disk striping. like volume sets. C.C Explanation: High temperature can be harmful for a computer's peripheral devices. Disk striping offers the best overall performance among all the Windows NT Server disk management strategies. striped volume (RAID-0).certkiller. Level 5 B. The fans inside the CPU box throw the hot air out of the CPU box and therefore help in keeping the CPU temperature low. If any partition in the set fails. Level 0 D. Both the partitions must be of same size. D. Answer: A. Reference: TechNet.

After installing the device driver for the SCSI adapter. the server is unable to boot. om Answer: C . you will have to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS. Which of the following actions will you take to enable the server to boot properly? A.www. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect. After installing the device driver. Reinstall the SCSI adapter device driver. Therefore. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. C. B. Two C. Answer: D Explanation: In order to enable the server to boot properly. D. Four D.wikipedia. Answer option C is incorrect. You cannot reinstall the device driver because the server is unable boot. You find that the server is unable to boot.com 133 Ce rtK ille r. the Scandisk utility cannot be run on the server. Increase RAM on the server. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a "Slay Your Exams" . Disable the SCSI adapter BIOS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam physical disk fails.c Explanation: The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) system supports four devices and the Integrated Drive Equipment(IDE) system supports two devices. It can only improve the performance of the server if the server is in use. Eight B. Increasing RAM will not help the server boot properly. Reference: "http://en. One QUESTION NO: 366 You have installed a SCSI adapter device driver on a file server in the network. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. you need to disable the SCSI adapter BIOS so that the driver is not loaded during boot process.org/wiki/Redundant_array_of_independent_disks" QUESTION NO: 365 How many devices does the EIDE system support? A. you restart the server. Run the Scandisk utility on the server. It indicates that the recently installed device driver is creating problems in the server. If the server is not booted.

while the computer gets normal power. A fully charged UPS battery is not required for a server to communicate with the UPS. using battery backup. D. You discover that the server is not communicating with the UPS. The battery of the UPS is not fully charged. SRAM is used for caching. Answer option B is incorrect.certkiller. SRAM is made of a special circuit called a flip-flop. rtK ille r. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. SRAM is made of capacitors. D.www. it does not have to be "Slay Your Exams" . You install a new UPS and connect it to a server through a serial cable. What is the most likely cause? A.D Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of memory chip made of a special circuit known as flip-flop. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. UPS is not configured to a power source. QUESTION NO: 368 Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. B. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. UPS and server always use serial port and not the parallel port to communicate with each other. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Choose three. C. Unlike DRAM memory chip circuits.com 134 Ce Explanation: The most likely cause of the server not communicating with the UPS is that the software provided with the UPS is not properly configured. When power surge occurs. UPS cannot be configured to a power source. It also provides protection against power surges.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It is significantly faster than DRAM. B. Answer option C is incorrect. The UPS software is not properly configured. C. SRAM is more expensive than DRAM.c om Answer: A . A. UPS is not connected to the server's parallel port. Answer: A. QUESTION NO: 367 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Answer option D is incorrect.C.

com rtK ille r.www. as it needs to be refreshed. Answer option B is incorrect. SRAM memory chips are generally used for caching.c om 135 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam refreshed because it uses the flip-flop circuit to store each bit. DRAM is slower than SRAM. QUESTION NO: 369 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below. identify the area to which you connect a hard disk drive.certkiller. It has a disadvantage that it is more expensive than DRAM. Answer: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) memory chip circuits are made of tiny capacitors.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r.www.certkiller.c om 136 .

ATX. The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT. WINS B. the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manuured in a single step. which is in charge of moving the heads around the platters. Choose two.com rtK ille r. the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows: The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below: QUESTION NO: 370 Which of the following services provide name resolution service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om 137 . known as platters. On the typical motherboard.certkiller.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Hard disk drive uses 40 or 80 wire cables to connect to a motherboard that has an integrated IDE controller. The read/write heads are attached to the head actuator. These platters are attached to the spindle motor. What is a motherboard? A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components. The read/write heads are responsible for reading and writing to the platters. improves on the AT design. based on the IBM AT motherboard. IIS C. A hard disk drive can also connect to a 40-pin connector on an IDE controller adapter using 40 or 80 wire cables. DNS Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Browser service D. A. Hard disk drives are magnetic storage devices that contain several disks.www. A more recent motherboard specification. In both the AT and ATX designs.

They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-100 drive. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries.host name mappings.10). Answer option C is incorrect.www. Reference: "http://technet. File Transfer Protocol (FTP). They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-166 drive. C. IP address-to.microsoft. configuration. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Answer option C is incorrect. he purchases an ATA-100 disk drive and connects it to the primary IDE interface.D Explanation: The DNS and WINS services provide name resolution service. and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). What will be the maximum data transfer rate of both drives? ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. In order to store data and get a better data transfer rate. as the motherboard chipset is not compatible with the ATA-100 data transfer rate. the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources. The ATA-66 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. Answer option D is incorrect. and management. Internet Information Services (IIS) is a software service that supports Web site creation. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts.com rtK Mark has purchased a computer that has an ATA-66 motherboard with a single ATA-66 hard drive on the primary IDE interface.c om 138 .com/en-us/library/cc755374(WS. B. information about the domain tree structure. Microsoft Internet Information Services includes Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). The ATA-100 hard drive will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. D. along with other Internet functions. the maximum data transfer rate will be 66 MB/sec due to the chipset limitation. If an ATA-100 hard disk is installed on an ATA-66 motherboard.certkiller.aspx" QUESTION NO: 371 A. The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. Answer: B Explanation: Both drives will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. There is no such motherboard or hard disk as the ATA-166.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network. and the ATA-100 hard drive will operate at its maximum data transfer rate. They will operate at the maximum data transfer rate of the ATA-66 drive. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. etc. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

It has better performance than a mirror set.c om 139 . is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. You have to decide the disk configuration for the computer to obtain better performance. The company has a TCP/IP-based Windows NT network. stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Which of the following RAID levels will you choose to fulfil the requirement? A. RAID-5. RAID-3 Answer: C Explanation: RAID-0. Among the three RAID levels.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 372 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. Both the partitions must be of the same size. Answer option A is incorrect. RAID-0 D. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). RAID-5 C. Windows NT does not support RAID-3 and RAID-4. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. you can re-create data on the failed portion from the parity information. Mirrored set is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. Answer options E and D are incorrect. SCSI Identification Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Master/Slave setting D.www. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. A fault tolerant disk configuration is not a requirement. also known as stripe set. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Contents: "NT Server and Disk Subsystem Performance" QUESTION NO: 373 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.com rtK ille r.certkiller. RAID-1 has the poorest performance. Answer option B is incorrect. If a portion of a physical disk fails. LUN C. I/O address B. also known as mirrored set. You are configuring a computer that will be used as a file server on the network. Reference: TechNet. RAID-1. also known as stripe set with parity. RAID-4 E. RAID-1 B.

Reference: TechNet. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. IRQ. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. Each device on a SCSI bus must have a SCSI ID different from that of other devices. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15.com 140 Ce rtK ille r.www. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device.certkiller. SCSI devices. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device "Slay Your Exams" . The CPU needs a memory address. Answer option B is incorrect. SCSI Identification Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Answer option A is incorrect. Resources such as I/O addresses. The IDs assigned to the devices on a SCSI bus are important to the performance of the computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. Therefore. IRQs. LUN C. Master/Slave setting D. Whenever a component. I/O address B. Answer option C is incorrect. SCSI-2. known as Input/Output (I/O) address.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: The SCSI ID is unique for each device in a SCSI chain. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1.c om . SCSI ID 7 has top priority. and SCSI-3. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. its I/O address. Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives" QUESTION NO: 374 Which of the following is unique for each device in a SCSI chain? A. to communicate with any peripheral device. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam gets access to the bus. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use ID 0 to 7, and wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use ID 0 to 15. SCSI IDs of wide SCSI buses are divided into two groups, 0 to 7 and 8 to 15. 0 to 7 has priority over 8 to 15. Higher ID numbers in the group have higher priority within that group. Therefore, SCSI ID 7 has top priority. The host adapter generally uses highest ID (7 or 15) and hard disk drives typically use IDs 0 and 1. Answer option C is incorrect. Master/Slave setting is used on IDE drives. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. Answer option B is incorrect. A logical unit number (LUN) is a sub classification within a SCSI ID. It enables multiple devices to use a single ID. Answer option A is incorrect. I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. The CPU needs a memory address, known as Input/Output (I/O) address, to communicate with any peripheral device. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. Resources such as I/O addresses, IRQs, and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. Whenever a component, such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC, its I/O address, IRQ, and DMA channels must be correctly configured. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Managing File Systems and Drives"

Answer:

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You are designing a TCP/IP-based network. You have to connect various offices in a premise. The major concern is to choose the appropriate technology that supports your requirement. Drag and drop the maximum cable lengths supported by their networking technologies to their respective boxes.

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QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Explanation:

The maximum cable lengths supported by different technologies are shown in the table below: TechnologiesMaximum Cable Length 1000BaseSX550 meters 100BaseFX2000 meters 100BaseTX100 meters 1000BaseCX25 meters 1000BaseT100 meters

QUESTION NO: 376 HOTSPOT

In the image, identify the interface used to connect a USB modem to a computer.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 377

Which of the following can be configured in the BIOS of a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mouse type B. RAM size C. Boot sequence D. Shadow RAM E. Hard disk drive parameters F. Date and time G. Floppy disk drive parameters Answer: C,D,E,F,G

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Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE"

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the BIOS will issue a warning. Create a new server baseline. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60-100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. The security log does not store log about success or failure of application installations. If the hardware is not configured according to the BIOS configuration. C. Answer option C is incorrect. The company has a Windows 2000based application server that serves applications to the users. Mark is concerned about the performance of the application server. the server baseline will be helpful to analyze the server performance after the installation of the application. Once a baseline for network usage has been determined. Print the server hardware configuration. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended memory for use by other programs. D.c Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. the additional bandwidth available for the highest streaming traffic can be estimated. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. There is no need to take a printout of the hardware configuration.certkiller. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably. used to compare different configurations. As he is concerned about the performance of the application server. Explanation: After the installation of the application.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The following can be configured in the BIOS: Hard disk drive parameters Floppy disk drive parameters Boot sequence Shadow RAM Date and time When you boot the computer. He is installing a thirdparty application on the server.www. This allows faster access to BIOS information. Mark should create a new server baseline. What is baseline? Baseline measures maximum system capacity and performance. ille r. Check the security log to ensure the successful installation of the application.com rtK A. as there is no change in the hardware of the server. Answer option D is incorrect. Ce Answer: B "Slay Your Exams" . B. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from readonly memory (ROM) to RAM at startup. Monitor disk utilization. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. What will Mark do next after installing the application properly? om QUESTION NO: 378 145 . But. The next step should be creating a baseline instead of monitoring disk utilization so that Mark can compare the server performance using the previous and new server baselines. Answer option A is incorrect. the hardware is checked according to the BIOS configuration. When you configure shadow RAM.

The general protection fault does not occur due to humidity. full-time connection to a network. C. A. Answer options C and A are incorrect. The faulty NIC can be detected either by using the Network Monitor software or by the elimination process. Answer: D Explanation: The following are the parts of the pre-installation plan: Plan the installation.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 379 Which of the following can occur in a high humidity environment? A. D. Answer option A is incorrect.installation plan. Configure a subnet mask on the computer.www. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. A broadcast storm on the network. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. Create a backup strategy. Answer: D Explanation: Damage of electronic components due to high humidity can cause the electrical current to flow around the chips and result in short circuit. QUESTION NO: 380 Which of the following are the parts of the pre-installation plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. B. General protection fault C. Hardware resource conflict occurs when the hardware on a system is assigned to use resources already being used by other devices. Hardware resource conflict B. Damage of electronic components resulting in short circuit.c om 146 . Plan the installation. Broadcast storms occur due to a faulty network interface card (NIC) on the computer. Answer option C is incorrect. A broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly and create traffic on the network. Answer option B is incorrect. Choose two. Network interface cards provide a dedicated.certkiller. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Check hardware compatibility with the operating system. Creating a backup strategy and configuring a subnet mask on the computer are not part of the pre. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .com rtK ille r.

and financial transaction processing. Blade servers C. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer. provides services such as power. while still having all the functional components to be considered as a computer? A.B. minimize power consumption and other considerations. A. different blade providers have differing principles around what to include in the blade itself. various interconnects and management. blade servers have many components removed to save space.c om . ERP. Though. Reference: "http://en. typically bulk data processing. A minicomputer is a class of multi-user computers that lies in the middle range of the computing spectrum. A blade enclosure.D Explanation: A modern motherboard has several components built in.org/wiki/Blade_server" QUESTION NO: 382 Which of the following components does a modern motherboard contain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Floppy disk drive Answer: A.certkiller. industry and consumer statistics. Choose three.wikipedia. Hard disk drive D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 381 Which of the following have many components removed to save space. in between the largest multi-user systems (mainframe computers) and the smallest single-user systems computers). ROM BIOS E. Answer options D. Whereas a standard rack-mount server can function with (at least) a power cord and network cable.www. minimize power consumption and other considerations. cooling. No components are removed from these. PCI Slot C.com 147 Ce rtK ille r. Minicomputers Answer: B Explanation: Blade servers are stripped down computer servers with a modular design optimized to minimize the use of physical space. CMOSBattery B. Mainframes D. C. Microcomputers B. Most modern motherboards have the following major components: "Slay Your Exams" . Mainframes are computers used mainly by large organizations for critical applications. networking. which can hold multiple blade servers. and A are incorrect.

75 inches .85 inches D.c om 148 . or height of racks. 35 inches C.www.certkiller.com rtK Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. 1. U is the standard unit of measure for designating the vertical usable space.75 x 20) inches. 5. ille r. QUESTION NO: 383 Which of the following is the height of the 1U rack unit? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Processor-slot/socket Chipset ROM BIOS SIMM/DIMM/RIMM(RAM memory)Sockets ISA/PCI/AGP bus slots CPU voltage regulator Battery Answer options C and E are incorrect. 1.25 inches Answer: A QUESTION NO: 384 HOTSPOT In the image of the motherboard given below. identify the area showing the Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) slots. They are separate units. Hard disk drives and floppy disk drives are not part of the motherboard. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1.75 inches B.

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DDR SDRAM C. An EISA bus has 32-bit data path. 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements. EISA bus uses 8Mhz clock speed of an ISA slot to ensure compatibility with ISA cards. The company has a database server. Reference: TechNet. SRAM B. EDO RAM "Slay Your Exams" .www. He wants to use a type of RAM that can operate at 1200 Mhz and transfer data up to 10.7 GB/sec.Hardware Support" rtK ille r. What is a PCI bus? Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high-performance. PCI slots are usually white in color. What is an ISA bus? Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) is an 8-bit expansion bus that provides an interface from devices on expansion cards to the computer's internal bus. What is a VESA bus? VESA is an expansion bus standard developed by Video Electronics Standards Association to provide highperformance video and graphics capabilities. Contents: "Appendix C .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: QUESTION NO: 385 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. A later version of ISA bus comes with a 16-bit expansion slot.certkiller. These slots are larger than PCI or VESA slots. Mark wants to improve the server's performance by upgrading the RAM. Which of the following types of RAM will he install on the server to accomplish the task? A. EISA slots provide two layers of connectors that maintain backward compatibility with ISA. RDRAM D. such as the display subsystem.com 150 Ce You can identify an EISA bus on the motherboard by its black colored slots.c om .

Answer option D is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Mark will have to install RDRAM on the server. EDO RAM does not operate at 1200 Mhz and cannot transfer data up to 10.com rtK ille r. Answer option B is incorrect. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM.7 GB/sec.6 GB/sec to 10. which allows users to manage the network. Unlike DRAM. Two Ce "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 386 Which version of SNMP adds security capabilities? A. With a bus frequency of 200 MHz. You decide to use RAID-5 volume disk configuration for fault tolerance. SNMP v2 uses the simple and unsecure password-based authentication feature.7 GB/sec. SNMP v1 and v2 have a number of common features. such as additional protocol operations. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.2 GB/sec. Answer options A and C are incorrect.certkiller. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card.www. SNMP v2 D. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. but SNMP v2 offers enhancements. There is no such version of SNMP as SNMP v6. SNMP v6 Answer: B Explanation: SNMP v3 defines a security capability to be used in conjunction with SNMP v2 features. QUESTION NO: 387 You are installing Windows 2000 Server.c om 151 . SNMP v3 C. What is the minimum number of disk drives required for implementing RAID-5 volumes? A. One B. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP v1 B. RDRAM can operate at 1200 Mhz and supports bandwidths from 1. DDR SDRAM gives a maximum transfer rate of 3.

14 inches B. Answer: A. B.C QUESTION NO: 389 What is the height of the 30U server rack? A. Store the password. Change the password regularly. D. Three D. "Slay Your Exams" . RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped across three or more physical disks. Choose all that apply. QUESTION NO: 388 Which of the following are good password policies? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www.com rtK ille r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. 31. Discuss the password with anyone. While you are changing the password. 21 inches C. you can recreate the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity.5 inches D. Note: You can create RAID-5 volumes only on dynamic disks. RAID-5 volumes cannot be mirrored or extended. A. Answer options B and D are incorrect. Do not reuse passwords. Thirty-two Answer: C Explanation: A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 volumes. 52. Storing a password and discussing it with anyone are not good password policies.5 inches Answer: D Explanation: Ce Explanation: The following are good password policies: Change the password regularly. C. do not reuse the previous password.certkiller. In case of a physical disk failure.c om 152 . Do not reuse passwords.

Intel's Pentium. With an access time of 15 to 30 nanoseconds. and some K5 model processors use Socket 7. Choose two. Answer option C is incorrect. The 12U server rack has a height of 21 inches .c om . and AMD's K6. QUESTION NO: 390 Which of the following is used by Intel Celeron processors? A. Pentium III Xeon processors use Slot 2. Slot 2 and Socket 370 B. SRAM has in-built switches and does not have to be refreshed but DRAM needs to be refreshed. B. Slot 1 and Socket 370 C.www. SRAM is faster than DRAM that has an access time of 80 nanoseconds or more.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The 30U server rack has a height of 52. Slot 2 and Socket 7 D. therefore. "Slay Your Exams" . Slot 1 and Socket A Answer: B Explanation: Intel Celeron processors use Slot 1 and Socket 370. The 8U server rack has a height of 14 inches . The 18U server rack has a height of 31. Answer: C. C. Answer options C and A are incorrect. DRAM is faster than SRAM. rtK ille A. Answer option D is incorrect. AMD's Athlon (Thunderbird) and Duron processors use Socket QUESTION NO: 391 A. DRAM requires more power than that of SRAM.certkiller. SRAM is faster than DRAM.com 153 Ce What is the difference between SRAM and DRAM? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. D. r. Answer option B is incorrect. SRAM is mostly used in desktop computers.5 inches .D Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) has in-built switches that do not have to be refreshed. Pentium MMX. DRAM is used in Cache memory and SRAM is used in Video memory. Answer option A is incorrect.5 inches . Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) uses capacitors instead of switches that need constant refresh signals to keep information in the memory.

It does not store instruction for the POST operation. a type of chip plugged in on the system's motherboard. It also does not print error codes. The error codes will print. You find that a POST error has occurred. The error codes will be stored on a floppy disk. C. When you turn on or restart a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. When a computer is turned on or "Slay Your Exams" . Insert the card into an open bus slot. Answer option C is incorrect. it begins a Power On Self Test (POST) routine. D. Boot the computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 392 Which of the following parts of a personal computer stores instruction for Power On Self Test? A.com 154 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. such as the keyboard. Answer option A is incorrect. Insert the card into an open bus slot. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card. a type of random access memory. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. C. Motherboard C. Boot the computer.certkiller. and D are incorrect. A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system. The error codes will display on the adapter. Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. How will you use it? rtK ille r. Connect the card to a serial port. ROM BIOS Answer: D Explanation: The ROM BIOS. stores instruction for Power On Self Test. EDO RAM B. It does not store instruction for the POST routine. QUESTION NO: 393 A. The motherboard is the main board on the computer. Boot the computer. B. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manuurer. Answer: A Explanation: POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters. Insert the card into an open bus slot. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's motherboard. The microprocessor does not store instruction for the POST operation.www. Answer options B. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error. is plugged in on the computer's motherboard. EDO RAM.c om . Microprocessor D.

Which file is required if your system uses a SCSI controller with BIOS disabled? A. Tone generator B.SYS B.SYS C. Media tester D.SYS file is required for a Windows NT system. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. such as keyboard. and tone generator are all used on networks that use copper cables. SCSI.com 155 Ce rtK ille r.000. D. which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manuuring faults on fiber optic cable connections. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. Punch down tool Answer: B Explanation: Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device.www.SYS D. SCSIBIOS. when using SCSI controller with BIOS disabled. Optical time domain reflectometer C. and A are incorrect. NTBOOTDD. Answer options C.c om .certkiller. So you decide to upgrade the BIOS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam restarted. What will you do to upgrade "Slay Your Exams" . QUESTION NO: 394 You are making boot diskettes for your Windows NT system.SYS Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD. QUESTION NO: 395 Which of the following devices can be used to test breakage in fiber optic cables? A. SCSIBOOT. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. Media tester. It is an expensive device that costs around $30. But your system does not support the 4GB hard disk. punch down tool. QUESTION NO: 396 You purchase a new 4GB hard disk to replace an older 500MB hard disk.

Install a new operating system. If no partition is set as Active. while a mirrored volume uses another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. Mark wants to reconfigure the six hard disks into a fault tolerant volume. First he must backup the data on the striped volume and delete the striped volume. B. If your motherboard is using an Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip. Replace the motherboard. you can upload new BIOS software to the EEPROM chip by using a special software provided by the BIOS manuurer. you can upgrade by the Flashing method. Mark will have to configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. a computer "Slay Your Exams" . After uploading the software and rebooting the machine. RAID5 provides data redundancy at a cost of only one additional disk for the volume. The server has eight 40GB hard disks. QUESTION NO: 397 Answer: B Explanation: To support fault tolerance. A RAID5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. Configure the disks to a RAID5 volume. Purchase a new hard disk of smaller capacity. Answer option C is incorrect. C. In this method. The network has a Windows 2000 server. If a portion of a physical disk fails. C. new BIOS will be functional. Then he must create a RAID5 volume using six disks. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. it is possible to re-create the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. and restore the data to the new RAID-5 volume. D. Configure the disks to an active partition. B. Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS software is contained in a ROM chip that is plugged in on the motherboard.com 156 Ce A. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. D. ROM BIOS chip can be upgraded by replacing it with a newer version.www.certkiller. Replace the ROM BIOS chip on the motherboard. What will he do to accomplish this? r. Configure the disks to a mirrored volume. rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Six hard disks on the server are configured as a single striped volume. A RAID-5 volume has a better read performance than a mirrored volume. Configure the disks to a spanned volume. and the volume should have the maximum space for storing data.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the BIOS? A.c om .

There can be only one active partition in a computer.c om 157 . When a computer sends ICMP echo requests repeatedly to another computer. chatting on-line. etc. email address. A spanned volume is made up of disk space on more than one physical disk. It is used to combine free space on different hard disk drives installed in a computer in order to create a large logical volume. caller ID. Answer option B is incorrect. In Windows 2000/2003. Contents: "Building a Secure Marble OFX Gateway" QUESTION NO: 399 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . it attempts to resend the SYN-ACK. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.com rtK ille r. Spoofing Answer: C Explanation: A SYN attack is a common denial of service (DoS) technique. Using this technique. an attacker sends multiple SYN packets to the target computer. users can combine SCSI and IDE hard disk drives by using a spanned volume. "Using mirrored volumes" QUESTION NO: 398 Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open? A. PING attack C. the target computer allocates resources and sends an acknowledgement (SYN-ACK) to the source IP address. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. it is known as a PING attack. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition. Answer option D is incorrect. SYN attack D. Because the target computer does not receive a response from the attacking machine. It can be created on dynamic disks only. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. the target machine eventually runs out of resources and is unable to handle any more connections. When an attacker sends TCP SYNs repeatedly.certkiller. For each SYN packet received. Reference: Windows Help Contents: "Using RAID5 volumes". However. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam does not boot from the hard disk drive. A spanned volume is not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. thereby denying service to legitimate users. It supports two to thirty-two disk drives. Hacking B. etc.www. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference: TechNet. This leaves TCP ports in a half open state. In IP spoofing. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network.

com rtK ille r. SCSI-2 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 20 MB/sec. C. The server has a dual processor motherboard and a 10/100 Mbps network card. Adding a processor will improve the performance of data processing on the server. Add a processor to the server's motherboard. Adapter teaming offers better network throughput by distributing traffic efficiently between the network adapters. B. SCSI-3 Answer: D Explanation: Ultra 320 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 320 MB/sec. Adding more RAM to the server will not help in improving the server's network connection speed. Ultra 320 SCSI E. QUESTION NO: 400 A. Install one more network adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming. Mark wants to increase the speed of the server's network connection. Add more RAM to the server. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option B is incorrect. Adding a higher capacity hard disk drive to the server will not affect the server's network connection speed. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Add one more higher capacity hard disk drive to the server. Mark will have to install one more adapter on the server and configure adapter teaming.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. It also improves network uptime by protecting the network in the event of a network adapter failure. Ce Which of the following SCSI interface disk subsystems supports the fastest data transfer rate? "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: A Explanation: In order to accomplish the task.c om 158 . What will he do to accomplish this? A. Answer option E is incorrect.certkiller.www. Ultra 900 SCSI C. Answer option D is incorrect. SCSI3 has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 40 MB/sec. SCSI-2 D. It will not increase the network connection speed. The company's network has a file server that uses the TCP/IP protocol for all communication. It can only help in improving the server's data processing performance. Ultra 160 SCSI B. The server is connected to the network through a 10/100 Mbps switch. D. Ultra 160 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of up to 160 MB/sec. There is no such SCSI interface as Ultra 900 SCSI.

Processors do not have jumpers. What is POST? Power On Self Test (POST) is a function performed by a chip known as ROM BIOS that is plugged into a computer's "Slay Your Exams" . The BIOS is not flashed. Committed Bytes B. Commit Limit Answer: C Explanation: The Available Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use. The Committed Bytes counter of the memory object shows the amount of committed virtual memory. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 401 Which of the following counters of the memory object shows the amount of physical memory immediately available for allocation to a process or for system use? A. Cache size is not a requirement for starting Power On Self Test (POST). The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect. Cache Bytes Peak C. Answer option D is incorrect. that can be committed without having to extend the paging file. B. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference: "http://technet. Available Bytes D.aspx" QUESTION NO: 402 A. in bytes.com/es-es/library/cc778082(WS. D. After the upgrade. the server does not start on Power On Self Test (POST) checking. The processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect.microsoft. The original cache size in the BIOS differs from the new processor's cache size. What is the most likely cause? rtK ille r. Answer option A is incorrect.com 159 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for InfoNet Inc. the most likely cause is that the processor is not correctly inserted in the slot. The Cache Bytes Peak counter of the memory object shows the maximum number of bytes used by the file system cache since the system was last started. in bytes.c om . Therefore. You upgrade a server's processor.10). There is no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor. C.certkiller. The Commit Limit counter of the memory object shows the amount of virtual memory. it does not start the Power On Self Test (POST). Answer: C Explanation: Since the server was working before the upgrade.www.

D. Answer option A is incorrect. malfunctioning add-on cards.B.com/faq/performance_monitor_network_interface_p1. The Output Queue Length counter provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface. E. Add more RAM. and the failure of cooling devices such as "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following steps can Mark take to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com 160 Ce rtK ille r.c om . It measures the total amount of data (in bytes) moved between a computer and the network. B.aspx" QUESTION NO: 404 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Reference: "http://www. which reboots when the workload reaches a certain level. Examine the server log. Answer option D is incorrect. Run the hardware diagnostic utility. Bytes Total/sec B. Choose three. loose hardware contact. such as keyboard. Current Bytes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks. The company's network contains a file server. Check the cooling components inside the server cabinet. it begins the Power On Self Test (POST) routine. It displays the amount of bandwidth the network interface has. Answer: A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam motherboard. C. There is no such counter as Current Bytes/sec. QUESTION NO: 403 Which of the following counters is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks? A. A. the server was handling the same level of workload without any problem.www. Output Queue Length D. The POST routine determines the available amount of real memory and verifies the presence of required hardware components. Some weeks ago. Current Bandwidth C.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect.sql-serverperformance.D Explanation: Server rebooting problems mostly occur due to malfunctioning hardware such as RAM failure. When a computer is turned on or restarted. Restore recent data on the file server from the tape backup.

Restoration of the data is useful when data on a disk is corrupt or lost due to any accident or disaster. PING Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Run the hardware diagnostic utility for a hardware checkup to see if it is working properly. processor fan. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable B. corrupt data cannot be a reason for server reboot. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam the fans inside the server cabinet. Check the cooling components such as heat sink. QUESTION NO: 405 Which of the following uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector? A. These problems can be identified by taking the following steps: Examine the server log for entry of any configuration error or hardware failure. Contents: "Building a Home Network. NSLOOKUP D. You are having DNS resolution problem. VGA/SVGA video adapter uses DB-15 15-pin female connector.www. An RJ-45 connector is similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector but larger in size. Serial port uses DB-9 9-pin male connector.com rtK ille r. 10BaseT Ethernet cable Answer: D Explanation: A 10BaseT Ethernet cable uses RJ-45 8-pin male connector to connect to the network adapter jack on a computer. Reference: TechNet. Rebooting problems mostly arise due to malfunctioning hardware. IPCONFIG C.c om 161 . Moreover. An RJ-45 connector has eight conductors while RJ11 has only four conductors. Hence. Serial port C. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) cable uses RJ-11 4-pin male connector. VGA/SVGA video adapter D. Answer option E is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. It can be useful to improve server performance. and SMPS fan. Answer option C is incorrect. He also has to check whether the fans attached with the processor and SMPS are running properly. The administrator has to check that the heat sink is in contact with the chip to transfer the heat. TRACERT B. Part 1" QUESTION NO: 406 You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. adding more RAM cannot help to resolve the issue. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem? A.

and data transfer rate of the tape drive is 2. It is also used to display. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Tuesday E. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. Contents: "Description of the PING and TRACERT Tools [Q217014]" QUESTION NO: 407 A. Monday B. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. If you plan to start the backup at 5 PM on any day except Friday. Wednesday C. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.com 162 Ce You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. The management does not want the backup plan to interfere with the network during business hours.11GB/hour. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. and debugging other server-related problems. Reference: TechNet.certkiller. or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. Friday D. The size of data to be backed up is 45GB. On receiving the packets. What is the "Slay Your Exams" . This means that it will take approximately 23 hours to perform a full backup.11GB/hour. The company's business hours are Monday to Friday .c om .9 AM to 5 PM. it will run on the following day and will therefore interfere with the business hours of the company. Thursday Answer: C Explanation: The question states that the size of data to be backed up is 45GB. the destination host responds with a series of replies. On which of the following days can you perform a full backup? rtK ille r. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. Answer option A is incorrect. You are planning a data backup plan for the company's network.www. register. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. You configure a tape drive having a data transfer rate of 2. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. Answer option D is incorrect. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. Answer option B is incorrect.

www. Wrong IRQ is assigned to the hard disk drive. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Faulty RAM on print server D. When you run the DIR command on D: drive. Hard disk drive is not configured in BIOS. since the last incremental or full backup. Hard disk drive is not formatted. you access the hard disk as D: drive. Hard disk drive has no partition. A. Choose two. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup.certkiller. Incremental.com rtK ille r. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. D. It needs only one tape to restore data. you receive an error message. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. Ce Explanation: The two most likely causes of printing junk characters are as follows: Faulty printer driver Loose printer cable Other answer options will not produce junk characters. Printer cable is loose B. and Differential Backups [Q136621" QUESTION NO: 408 David configured a system as a print server on the network. or are new. Contents: "Description of Full. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. E. B. When he prints a Word document. Reference: TechNet. on your system. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time.c om 163 . What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. What is the most likely cause? A. "Slay Your Exams" . Faulty printer cartridge C. the page is printed with junk characters. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. When you boot the system with a bootable floppy disk. Faulty printer driver Answer: A.D QUESTION NO: 409 You have installed a new hard disk drive as slave. Hard disk drive cable is faulty.

BACKUP D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: The most likely cause of the error message is that the hard disk drive is not formatted. The question clearly states that you access the hard drive as D: drive. Category 3 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 10 Mbps. RDISK B.com 164 Ce rtK Explanation: Category 5 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 100 Mbps. in that case you cannot access the hard disk drive as D: drive.c om . It consists of four twistedpairs with three twists per foot. NTBACKUP C. Category 5 Answer: D QUESTION NO: 411 You want to create an Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) on your Windows NT server. ERD /NT Answer: A Explanation: Emergency Repair Disk (ERD) is a floppy disk that contains critical system files necessary to recover a Windows NT computer in case of failure. Therefore. which can carry voice but not data. It consists of four twisted-pairs. Answer option C is incorrect. Category 4 UTP cable is used for data transmissions up to 16 Mbps. Answer option A is incorrect. Which utility will you use? A. this option is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 410 Which of the following categories of UTP cables has a maximum data transfer rate of 100 Mbps? A. Category 1 B. Category 1 refers to the traditional Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) telephone cables. These files are stored in compressed format. Answer option B is incorrect. If the hard disk is not partitioned. BIOS configuration and faulty cable are not the cause of the problem because. ille r. you cannot access the hard disk as D: drive.www. Category 3 C. It consists of four twistedpairs of copper wire. "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. Category 4 D.

www. You have checked and verified that the application is working properly.BAT.LOG. AUTOEXEC. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam ERD includes portion of the registry. To start RDISK. computer's default profile (NTUSER. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. and computer's configuration files (SETUP. To restore the information from ERD. D. and A are incorrect. Answer options D.certkiller. B. Install the latest service pack on the server. go to Start menu > Run. B. DHCP server Answer: B Explanation: The Network-attached storage (NAS) server provides network file storage. Run Disk Defragmenter on the server. DNS server D.SYS). What should you do next? A. boot with NT Setup diskettes and select the Repair option and insert ERD to restore the information. ille r.c om . A NAS unit is a computer connected to a network that only provides file-based data storage services to other devices on the network. ERD can be created through the RDISK. ERD is not self bootable. Proxy server B. Reference: TechNet. NAS server C. Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous clients. and CONFIG.com 165 Ce rtK Explanation: After installing a new application on the server. you should create a new server baseline. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. Add more RAM to the server. Although it may "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: C QUESTION NO: 413 Which of the following servers provides network file storage? A. Create a new server baseline. and click OK.DAT). Contents: "Description of Windows NT Emergency Repair Disk [Q156328]" QUESTION NO: 412 Your company's network has a file server. You have installed a new application on the server. type RDISK. All these steps can be taken before installing the application on the server.EXE utility. C.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam technically be possible to run other software on a NAS unit. Parity error occurs due to faulty memory. C. available from a different server. or other resource. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. such as a file. information about the domain tree structure. often using a browser. and are controlled and configured over the network. The most foolproof way to resolve this problem is to swap out each piece of memory. For example. Answer option D is incorrect. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. B. A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. The processor is in charge of checking the accuracy of the parity bit. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the hard disk. Answer option C is incorrect. A DHCP server is used to provide IP addresses to computers in the network. Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. Reference: "http://en. connection. etc. Each byte (eight bits) of RAM storage actually takes nine bits of information. the "parity bit".certkiller. requesting some service. until the problem disappears. ille r.org/wiki/Network-attached_storage" What is the meaning of parity error? Explanation: Parity error indicates a problem with data stored in the memory. but it is almost always a hardware problem.wikipedia. Reference: TechNet. A parity error can be caused by different circumstances.com 166 Ce Answer: B rtK A. is used to store the parity of the data. the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client. D. Parity error indicates the problem of a bad sector in a floppy disk.c QUESTION NO: 414 om . Parity error indicates the problem of BIOS. IP address-to-host name mappings. web page. and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. If the request is validated by the filter. Eight bits are used for the data and the last bit. Answer option A is incorrect. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service.x [Q93521]" QUESTION NO: 415 Which of the following counters of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter? "Slay Your Exams" . Contents: "Parity Errors in Windows 3. NAS units usually do not have a keyboard or display.www. A client connects to the proxy server. Parity is a basic check of information integrity. it is not designed to be a general purpose server. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response.

What can happen in an event of power failure? A. Level 0 C. Level 5 Answer: A Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a method for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems.Tabson-Your-Network-Traffic. which is not fault-tolerant. Level 3 D. The Disk Queue Length is not a counter of the network interface object. "Slay Your Exams" . Distorted display. Bytes Total/sec Answer: D Explanation: The Bytes Total/sec counter of the network interface object provides the number of bytes sent and received per second by the network interface adapter. which of the following RAID levels refers to mirroring? A. Answer option A is incorrect. Damage of components. Level 1 B. The Output Queue Length counter of the network interface object provides the number of packets waiting to be transmitted by the network interface.com/netsysm/article. C.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. CMOS battery failure. Windows NT/2000 supports the following three RAID levels: Level 0 or disk striping.php/10954_3328281_2/Keep.htm" QUESTION NO: 416 In Windows NT/2000.certkiller. Level 5 or disk striping with parity. Answer option B is incorrect. The Current Bandwidth counter of the network interface object is used to monitor network interface bottlenecks.c om . Reference: TechNet. Current Bandwidth B. Answer option C is incorrect. Output Queue Length counter C. Level 1 or mirroring.com 167 Ce rtK ille r." QUESTION NO: 417 Your computer is not connected to the UPS. Reference: "http://www. B.enterprisenetworkingplanet. Disk Queue Length D. Contents: "Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration.

power failure may cause damage to peripheral components. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. It also provides protection against power surges. while the computer gets normal power. Choose two.D Explanation: The MT-RJ and LC connectors can be used with the SFF fiber-optic cables. BIOS takes backup power from the CMOS battery to preserve information stored in the CMOS chip. QUESTION NO: 419 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing RAID-5? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RJ-11 C. Answer: B Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS.c om 168 . In an event of power failure. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/. Answer option A is incorrect. so it doubles the port density of fiber-optic LAN equipment. The connector is a 2-fiber connector and takes up no more room than an RJ-45 jack. Which of the following connectors can you use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.com A. only the UPS charging circuit is affected. r. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. The company wants to use Small Form or (SFF) fiber-optic cables for the backbone of its network. using battery backup. Reference: TechNet. Contents: "Glossary" QUESTION NO: 418 Answer: C. The MT-RJ fiber connector is less than half the size of the SC duplex connector and transceiver. Power failure does not cause CMOS battery failure. RJ-45 B.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector. What is an MT-RJ connector? The MT-RJ connector is the most recent type of small form or fiber optic connector. LC D. MT-RJ rtK ille You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for SoftTech Inc.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D.www.certkiller. BIOS configuration is reset. Answer option D is incorrect. When power surge occurs. Distorted display does not occur due to power failure. Answer option C is incorrect.

Users can use remote-access connections to manage servers. It involves the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. is a fault tolerant disk subsystem with data and parity information striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. In-band connection relies on operating-system network drivers to establish computer connections. Answer option C is incorrect. Thirty-two D. The most common in-band remotemanagement hardware device is the network adapter. However.c om 169 . Unlike out-of-band connection. Four E. It is used for auditing the network activities. B. Contents: "Using RAID-5 volumes" QUESTION NO: 420 Which of the following statements is true about out-of-band management? A. Out-of-band management is not used for taking backups or auditing network activities. It involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance.band port that resides on the target server. It has better performance as compared to a mirror set.certkiller. Three B. D. administrators need network access when problems occur. Two C. To manage network servers and routers remotely. the same problems that cause the network to go down also result in the loss of management access to those devices. Reference: TechNet. Five Answer: A Explanation: RAID-5. In-band management is the use of regular data channels (usually through Ethernet) to manage devices.www. Explanation: Out-of-band management involves the use of a dedicated management channel for device maintenance. The remote-access connection is made through the in. in-band connection is available only when the server is initialized and functioning properly. Out-of-band management addresses this limitation by employing a management channel that is physically isolated from the data channel. Reference: "http://en.org/wiki/Out-of-band_management" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It allows a system administrator to monitor and manage servers and other network equipment by remote control regardless of whether the machine is powered on. also known as stripe set with parity. C. It is used for taking backups.com rtK Answer: B ille r.wikipedia. Answer options A and D are incorrect. you can re-create data on the failed portion from parity information. If a portion of a physical disk fails. Stripe set with parity uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.

This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. 386DX. and debugging other serverrelated problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. A. 486DX. 80486 and Pentium are 32-bit processors. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. "Slay Your Exams" . 80486 processors were introduced in computer models such as 486SX. It uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.c om . QUESTION NO: 422 Answer: C Explanation: The TRACEROUTE utility can be used to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval. 80386 C. 80386 processors were introduced in computer models such as 386SX. 486DX2 and 486DX4.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 421 Which of the following is a 32-bit processor? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.www. TRACEROUTE is a route-tracing utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach its destination.C. Answer option D is incorrect. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues. TRACEROUTE D. Choose three. Which utility can you use to find out the segment of the network or server that is causing the slow retrieval? ille r. 8088 B.D Explanation: 80386. TRACERT C. verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone. NSLOOKUP rtK You have got a complaint that data retrieval on Linux-based servers is very slow in the network. Ping B. Pentium processors were introduced as Pentium and Pentium MMX. Pentium Answer: B.com 170 Ce A. 80486 D.certkiller.

Terminate all external SCSI devices. C. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. The terminating resistor must not be disabled on the adapter.c om . SCSI devices.wikipedia. and SCSI-3. Answer option A is incorrect.certkiller. The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. Terminate only the internal SCSI device.www. "Slay Your Exams" . The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option B is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. the destination host responds with a series of replies.org/wiki/Traceroute" QUESTION NO: 423 You install a SCSI adapter on your system to control both the external and internal devices. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). B. Answer: B Explanation: The terminating resistor must be disabled on the adapter. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It provides interface for connecting the computer to auxiliary devices. The first and last devices in the SCSI bus should be terminated. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. NIC is a hardware device used to expand a network in several geographic locations. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. QUESTION NO: 424 Which of the following statements is true about Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. NIC is a software installed on a computer and is used to communicate with Web servers. Reference: "http://en. C. NIC is an expansion card installed in a computer. B. How will you achieve this? A. Terminate both the last internal and last external devices.com 171 Ce rtK ille r. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. D. SCSI-2. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. On receiving the packets. D.

rather it helps in protecting against an indirect lightning strike.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brownout_(electricity)" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line.c om 172 . It is a voltage increase that occurs over a longer period of time. It is installed after an antenna and prior to the transmitter or receiver. This device does not provide protection from a direct lightning strike.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: Network Interface Card (NIC) is an expansion card installed in a computer. The typical lightning arrestor. or switching surge. the current from the surge is diverted around the protected insulation in most cases to the earth. has a high voltage terminal and a ground terminal. such as for one or two seconds.certkiller. Brownouts are quite harder for computer equipments than blackouts. Lightning carries millions of volts.www.com rtK ille r. a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. Reference: TechNet. Reference: "http://en. NIC is also known as network adapter. A surge protector is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipments from power surges. Answer option A is incorrect. Content: Glossary QUESTION NO: 425 Which of the following statements about brownout is true? A. and if a home or office takes a direct hit. It indicates there is enough power on the grid to prevent blackout or a total power loss but there is not enough power to meet the current electrical demand. When the induced current from a lightning strike travels to the antenna. C. It is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. It provides interface for connecting the computer to Local Area Network (LAN). also known as surge arrestor. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Answer: D Explanation: A brownout shows that the demand of the electrical power exceeds the capability of the electrical power supply system and reduces the voltage for everyone. Answer option B is incorrect. B. travels down the power system to the arrestor. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. the lightning arrestor shunts the excess current to the ground and protects the system from damage. D. Answer option C is incorrect. It frequently occurs during informal weather conditions such as suddenly cold or hot spell. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. It is a device used to protect computers and other electronic equipment from power surges. A brownout lasts longer than a power sag and corrupts more data. A lightning arrestor is an in-series device that protects a WLAN device from an indirect lightning strike. When a lightning surge.

There is no need to check the size of the memory on Power On Self Test (POST) to increase memory on the server.com rtK ille r. You should purchase memory only after verifying that a blank memory slot is available on the motherboard. you will have to replace the motherboard to increase memory on the server.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 426 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.c om 173 . Answer: A Explanation: You must verify the availability of a memory slot on the motherboard of the server before purchasing memory. Although you should check the compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. Check the memory size on POST. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller. Otherwise. If a blank memory slot is not available on the motherboard. QUESTION NO: 427 DRAG DROP Answer: Ce Drag and drop the correct connector names in the boxes provided below the connectors as shown in the image. Count the pins of the memory you are purchasing. Answer option B is incorrect. "Slay Your Exams" . you will have to change the existing memory. Verify the availability of memory slot. Verify compatibility of the purchased memory with the existing memory. What will be your first step before purchasing memory? A. Answer option D is incorrect. C. without replacing the motherboard. D. B.www. it is the second step. There is no need to count the memory pins to increase memory on the server. You want to increase memory in a database server on the network.

D Explanation: The default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are 161 and 162.certkiller. QUESTION NO: 428 Which of the following are the default ports used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 161 Answer: B. By default. Answer option A is incorrect. A. 162 C. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. What is SNMP? Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Choose two.www.com 174 Ce rtK ille r. "Slay Your Exams" . It is an inexpensive connector. 80 B. which allows users to manage the network. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses port 443 for secured communication. The pin of the connector is actually the center conductor of the coaxial cable. which is used in TVs and VCRs.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: The image displays the following connector types: F-type: An F-type connector is a threaded medium performance coaxial signal connector. Answer option C is incorrect.c om . 443 D.

On a Monday morning. Answer option A is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 429 Which of the following statements are true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. CD-ROM drives. tape drives. C. external bus for a computer that brings the Plug and Play capability of hardware devices. Both the drives are connected to a common SCSI card in the server. The RAM on the server is faulty.C Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a standard-based.c om . USB supports hot plugging. D. B. C. He finds that the server does not recognize the tape drive. You can connect up to 127 peripheral devices to a single USB port. scanners. USB supports hot plugging. What is the most likely cause of the issue? A. keyboards.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam HTTP uses port 80 as the default port. Answer: B Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the tape drive has no input power to operate. The SCSI card is faulty. You can connect up to 16 peripheral devices to a single USB port. The "Slay Your Exams" . and cameras. Mark comes to his office and starts the server. Answer option D is incorrect. The SCSI card driver is not installed.certkiller. even though the hard disk drive is working properly. Topic: Appendix C Hardware Support QUESTION NO: 430 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The tape drive has no power supply. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. B. This indicates that the SCSI card driver is installed properly. Answer: A.www. You can use a single USB port to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. A.com 175 Ce rtK ille r. which means that you can install or remove a USB device while the computer is running and the operating system automatically reconfigures itself accordingly. USB does not support Plug n Play installation. D. including speakers. USB eliminates the need to install internal cards into dedicated computer slots and reconfigure the system. The hard disk drive that is connected to the SCSI card is working properly. The file server has an external DLT tape backup drive and a hard disk drive. The company's network contains a file server. Choose two.

D. Run setup in Recovery mode on Server1 using the Windows NT Server CD.c om . A. Server1 and Server2. Boot Server1 with the Last Known Good Configuration. Since zip drive. Monica has to restore Server1 to its previous state as quickly as possible. Restart Server1. heads. Reference: TechNet. as the hard disk drive connected to the card is working properly. Use a parallel installation of Windows NT Server to restart Server1. LBA uses a different method to identify the sectors on a hard disk drive. restart Server1. it assigns a unique identifier to each sector on the drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam SCSI card is not faulty. and C are incorrect. C. DVD. D. C. LBA must be supported by both the system BIOS and the hard disk drive. Now. Instead of using cylinders.com 176 Ce rtK ille r. To allow use of RAM of more than 512MB. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of two Windows NT servers. After setup completes. and sectors. Contents: "Logical Block Addressing (LBA) Defined [Q122052]" QUESTION NO: 432 Monica works as a Network Administrator for Blue Well Inc. To allow use of zip drives. Monica wants to upgrade the device driver for the SCSI disk controller installed on Server1. She installs a new device driver for the controller. Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . LBA is not used with them. Use an old copy of the SCSI driver file to overwrite the new file. and RAM have their own addressing method. In order to work. To allow use of Digital Video Disc (DVD).certkiller. Use the Recovery Console to restart Server1. What should she do to accomplish this? A. To allow use of hard disk drive of more than 504MB. B. Answer options D. Server1 is unable to boot properly. QUESTION NO: 431 What is the purpose of using Logical Block Addressing? A. Answer option C is incorrect. A faulty RAM will cause the server to hang up. B.www. Answer: B Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) is used to allow DOS and Windows operating systems to use hard disk drives of more than 504MB. LBA is the most common method of addressing used these days.

1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. USB devices are non-Plug and Play. Intel. Contents: "Universal Serial Bus Support for Windows CE" Ce Answer: C "Slay Your Exams" . In this case.certkiller. Contents: "Troubleshooting and Support". the configuration of the computer is saved in the registry. Answer option B is incorrect. As the problem can be resolved immediately using the Last Known Good Configuration. you do not need to provide a device driver separately. Answer option A is incorrect. IBM. USB supports hot plugging. What is Last Known Good Configuration? The Last Known Good Configuration is a copy of the system state stored when a user last successfully logged on. This configuration is stored in the HKLMSystemCurrentControlSet registry key. keyboards. One can boot the computer by using this configuration through the Last Known Good Configuration. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. if an operating system is restored using the Last Known Good Configuration option. though. Server1 is not booting properly because Monica has changed its configuration by installing a new SCSI device driver. Software drivers are not required for USB devices. USB 2. and Northern Telecom.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. Answer option D is incorrect. A computer has to be restarted to install a USB device. Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. such as CD. Reference: TechNet. "Recovering Windows NT After a Boot Failure on an NTFS Drive [Q129102]" QUESTION NO: 433 Which of the following statements is true about the installation of Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices? A. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Whenever a user logs on to a computer. USB 1. reinstalling Windows NT Server is not required. Therefore. Microsoft.1. Software drivers are required for USB devices. Reference: TechNet. scanners etc. It is not required to restart the computer to install USB devices.www. whereas USB 2. Last Known Good Configuration is the quickest way to resolve problems caused by faulty drivers. Answer options C and A are incorrect. "Windows NT". Recovery Console is a feature of Windows 2000 and is not applicable here. A USB device can be plugged to a computer without restarting it. tape drives. which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running.com rtK ille r. Note: All system setting changes made after the last successful startup are lost. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. she should use the Last Known Good Configuration to boot with the previous configuration. C. NEC. B. DEC. "Knowledge Base". that the drivers for your USB devices are already available on the computer.ROM drives.c om 177 . It is possible.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.

C. Answer option A is incorrect. Instead. Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the Invalid System Disk error message is that a non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:.www. Although media failure on the hard disk drive can cause this message to occur. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. networking files. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 434 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. A virus can infect boot sector. Media failure on the hard disk drive. However. What is a virus? A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. According to Rick. a Sales Manager. If a floppy drive fails at the time of booting. QUESTION NO: 435 What is the purpose of jumper settings on the network interface card? "Slay Your Exams" . virus attacks deteriorate computer performance or increase the size of the system files. the computer shows the Floppy Drive Failure error message. and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. The next time he turned on the computer. infect those targets. Rick. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. and system files. B. it showed the Invalid System Disk error message.com 178 Ce rtK ille r. A non-bootable floppy disk is inserted in drive A:. When the computer did not find the system files on the floppy disk. In most cases. when he turned on his computer this morning. his computer was working properly till last evening and he got the Invalid System Disk error message only when he started his computer this morning. it displayed the following error message: Invalid System Disk What is the most likely cause? A. The computer is infected with virus. the computer searched for operating system files on the floppy drive first.c om . Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected. Floppy drive failure. It is possible that he inserted a floppy disk in the floppy drive and forgot to remove it after finishing his work. reports that his computer was working properly till last evening. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer.certkiller. D. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. it is rare. a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program.

They use software setup programs instead. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. This physical address assigned to NIC is used for mapping in TCP/IP network communication. and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. he can access all other sites. However. Nowadays most expansion cards do not use jumpers or DIP switches. Answer option C is incorrect. to communicate with any peripheral device. The CPU needs a memory address. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote "Slay Your Exams" . TRACERT D. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. To configure I/O address. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. What is I/O address? I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.c om . To configure MAC address. ROUTE Answer: C Explanation: The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer.com 179 Ce rtK ille r. its I/O address. Resources such as I/O addresses. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. To configure data transfer speed. Which of the following tools will help you diagnose the problem? A. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Whenever a component. C. A user complains that he is unable to access the abc. full-time connection to a network. D. To configure transceiver type.www.com site. Answer: D Explanation: The jumper settings on the network interface card are used to configure I/O address. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. QUESTION NO: 436 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. B. TELNET C. IRQ. What is MAC address? Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 48-bit address assigned to the network interface card (NIC) by the NIC manuurer. IRQs. The network is connected to the Internet through a firewall.certkiller. IPCONFIG B. The Media Access Control (MAC) address is built-in on the network interface card and cannot be changed by users.

offers the ability to run programs remotely. and facilitates remote administration. 7 inches C. QUESTION NO: 438 Which of the following processors have 64-bit data bus width? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service.75 inches . such as IP address.75) inches.c om 180 . Add.com rtK ille r. 386SX B. Therefore. Print.75 inches B. Answer option B is incorrect. the height of the 4U rack unit would be 7 (4 x 1. Answer option D is incorrect. The 20U rack unit has a height of 35 (1. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. and Change are some of the important command switches that are used with the ROUTE command. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. AMD K6 D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam host. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Delete.75 x 12) inches.75 x 20) inches. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. 1.www. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Choose three. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. The 12U rack unit has a height of 21 (1.75 inches . 21 inches Answer: B Explanation: The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. default gateway etc.. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Answer option A is incorrect. of a networked computer. to access files. A. It uses TCP port 23 by default. subnet mask. AMD Athlon C. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. QUESTION NO: 437 Which of the following is the height of the 4U rack unit? A. ROUTE is a command-line utility used to view or modify a route table. Answer option A is incorrect. The 1U rack unit has a height of 1. 35 inches D. Pentium 4 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller.

Moving some applications to another server can also resolve the issue. What is stripe set (RAID-0)? Stripe set (RAID-0) stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. The 386SX processor has 16-bit data bus width. Employees complain about the poor performance of this server. QUESTION NO: 439 David works as a Network Administrator for Blue Wells Inc. disk striping is not required. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance.com rtK ille r.certkiller. Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. One of the servers is configured as a File and Print server and has a Pentium-133 MHz processor with 32 MB RAM and a 2 GB SCSI hard disk drive. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: B. He will add another processor to the server. but offers better performance as compared to mirror set and stripe set with parity. The system processor indicates a bottleneck if the % Processor Time is more than 80%. Disk striping is used to improve disk performance. Since there is no bottleneck in the processor. Answer option A is incorrect. Since the problem does not occur due to high network usage. This counter reports the percentage of time the processor is busy.C. Therefore. A bottleneck in the processor occurs. This indicates a bottleneck in memory.D Explanation: The following processors have 64-bit data bus width: AMD K6 Pentium 4 AMD Athlon Answer option A is incorrect. To overcome this. B. David will add more memory to the server to enhance its performance. Reference: TechNet. What is %Processor Time? The %Processor Time counter is used to monitor processor statistics of a computer. when the value of this counter exceeds 80%. He will add another network card to the server. C. Answer option C is incorrect. He will add more memory to the server. Answer: B Explanation: Performance Monitor statistics shows 100% usage of memory. Answer option D is incorrect. there is no need to add another network card.c om 181 . David runs Performance Monitor on the server and gets the following results: % Processor Time70% Memory Usage100% Bytes Total/sec84364 % Disk time70% What will he do to enhance server performance? A. The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of five Windows NT servers and hundred Windows NT workstations. either the processor should be upgraded or another processor should be added. Contents: "Performance Analysis and Optimization of MS Windows NT Server" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . there is no need to add another processor. He will use disk striping.www. Since the problem is not due to disk performance.

c om . By setting a jumper on the hard disk drive C. QUESTION NO: 441 Answer: D Explanation: As the question states. Network interface card rtK Edward Inc. John has been installed all required hardware on the computer. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. due to which John is unable to connect to the network.certkiller.www. By adding an add-on card Answer: B Explanation: You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. Networking protocol stack B. full-time connection to a network. or Slave. none of them will work. So this is the problem of missing network interface card in the computer. Network client software D. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. But some hardware may have been missed during the installation. But due some missing hardware he is unable to connect to the network. Which hardware is missing? ille r. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Network device driver C. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. has recently added John's computer as a part of the network.com 182 Ce A. All the required hardware has been installed on John's computer. If two drives are attached to one controller. By changing the CMOS setting D. By setting a jumper on the motherboard B. What are the jumper settings on IDE/EIDE drives? Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 440 How will you designate a hard disk drive as a Master or a Slave drive in an IDE system? A. QUESTION NO: 442 "Slay Your Exams" . Slave.

He tries to take full backup of the server on the DAT drive but fails to do so as the DAT drive runs out of space. He will purchase two more 25 GB DAT drives. It prevents viruses from corrupting user data. it is unnecessary to purchase two DAT drives. Since purchasing one additional DAT drive can solve the problem. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and take a full backup on Monday afternoon. It is not possible to take a full backup of the server's 40 GB hard disk drive on a 25 GB DAT drive. He will use the original 25 GB DAT drive and backup different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive. Which of the following backup strategies will Tom implement to accomplish this task? A.com rtK Explanation: Since Tom has to backup the 40 GB hard disk drive of the server .c om Answer: A 183 . The company has a Windows NT domain-based network consisting of a Windows NT Server and 500 Windows NT workstations.certkiller. Backing up different 25 GB portions of the server's hard disk drive everyday is a manual process and will increase the administrative burden. Tom configures the server with a 25 GB DAT drive. Answer option D is incorrect. and a differential backup every night. the other takes over the job. Answer option B is incorrect. This will provide him enough space and will not cause any problem during backup. everyday. C. Answer: B Explanation: Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The server has two 40 GB hard disk drives configured as mirror set. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Tom works as a Network Administrator for Tech Media Inc. the other shuts down automatically. Answer option C is incorrect. he should purchase one more 25 GB DAT drive. Therefore. the other node provides resources. so that he can take a full backup every night using both drives. so that he can take a full backup every night using all three drives. D. B. B.www. he must use at least two 25 GB DAT drives. ille r. QUESTION NO: 443 Which of the following statements is true about a two-node cluster? A. If one node of the cluster experiences a bottleneck. If one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. D. He will purchase another 25 GB DAT drive.

DMR D.certkiller.c om 184 . on an expansion card. and Athlon personal computers. also known as an AMR slot. which is used to access and manage the cluster. It has two rows of 23 pins each. the other takes over the job. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise-sensitive elements from the motherboard's communication systems.www. such as sound cards and modems.. Visually there is no such similarity. PCI-X is often confused with PCI Express.org/wiki/PCI-X" QUESTION NO: 445 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Pentium 4. making a total of 46 pins. PCI-X B. It supports V.com rtK ille r. There is no such slot as DMR.wikipedia.90 analog modem. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III. Answer option C is incorrect. What is a cluster? A cluster is a group of two or more servers working together as a single system. is an expansion slot. commonly abbreviated as PCIe. multi-channel audio. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality. The audio/modem riser (AMR).CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam In a two-node cluster. It is a double-wide version of PCI. Each member server of the cluster is called a node. PCI-X has been replaced in modern designs by the similar-sounding PCI Express.e. Reference: "http://en. the other node cannot provide its own resources to the bottlenecked node. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. phone-line-based networking. Also PCI-X slots are longer than PCIe. but is otherwise similar in electrical implementation and uses the same protocol. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. A two-node cluster does not prevent data from being corrupted by viruses. a virtual server name. In case of a bottleneck on a node. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as modems and audio devices. if one node of the cluster experiences a hardware failure or loses power. Answer option B is incorrect. A cluster provides redundant operations in the event of hardware or application failure. All the computers in a cluster are grouped under a common name i. running at up to four times the clock speed. AMR Answer: A Explanation: PCI extended (PCI-X) is a computer bus and expansion card standard that enhances the 32-bit PCI Local Bus for higher bandwidth demanded by servers. QUESTION NO: 444 Which of the following slots is longer than PCIe? A. CNR C.

Windows Server 2003Enterprise Edition B. The Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition supports 32-bit processing.D Explanation: Following are the operating systems that support 64-bit processing: Sun Solaris 9 Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 Mac OS X Panther Answer options C and B are incorrect. Windows 2000 Server C.C. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition D.certkiller. Red Hat Enterprises Linux 3 B. What will he need in order to accomplish the task? A. A. Choose all that apply.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Sun Solaris 10 D. QUESTION NO: 446 Answer: A.www. Mac OS X Panther E. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition and Windows 2000 Server do not support 64-bit processing. Due to a substantial loss of data. The company's network has a server that is used for backup purposes. om 185 . QUESTION NO: 447 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. A DLT tape drive and its driver B. A DAT to DLT converter and its driver Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Mark wants to restore data from an older DAT tape.E Explanation: The following operating systems support 64-bit processing: Mac OS X Panther Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 Sun Solaris 10 Answer option B is incorrect. Red HatEnterprise Linux 4 Answer: A. The server was recently upgraded from a Digital Audio Tape (DAT) to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT) tape backup system.com rtK A. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition C. Choose two.D. Sun Solaris 9 ille r.c Which of the following operating systems support 64-bit processing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

Answer option C is incorrect. The DAT tape can support data transfer rates of about 2 MBps.5 inches wide and the cartridges come in several storage capacities from 20GB to 40GB. Ctrl + Alt + Esc B. What is CMOS? CMOS stands for Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor. Mark also needs a DAT tape drive. heads. When the computer is booted. Shift + Alt +Del rtK ille Which of the following key combinations would you press to start the CMOS setup program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Digital Audio Tape (DAT) is a type of magnetic tape that is used to record data. There is no need of a DLT tape drive. the old DAT tape can be read and restore data on the server. It is a chip installed on the motherboard. A DLT drive is faster than most other types of tape drives. BIOS issues a warning. Using the DAT tape drive. In CMOS. and sectors CMOS setup program can be started by pressing the DEL key or CTRL+ALT+ESC at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST). It has data transfer rates of up to 2. It is 0.certkiller. A DAT tape drive and its driver Answer: D Explanation: In order to restore data from an old DAT tape. QUESTION NO: 448 Answer: A. the computer configuration can be changed using a menu driven application. If the hardware is not configured according to the CMOS configuration.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. DATs are sequential-access media. Ctrl + Alt + Shift C. It can hold up to 24GB of data. Choose two.www. Only a DAT driver will not accomplish the task. Note: Some types of systems uses floppy based setup programs to change the CMOS settings. Mark needs a DAT tape drive and its driver. r. The following information is stored in CMOS: Date and time CPU type and memory size Floppy disk drive parameters Hard disk parameters such as cylinders. as it cannot read a DAT tape.C Explanation: You can start the CMOS setup program by pressing the Del key or Ctrl + Alt + Esc at the time of system startup during Power On Self Test (POST).c om . There is no such device as a DAT to DLT converter. In CMOS. A DAT driver D. which stores hardware configuration of the computer. Answer option A is incorrect. the hardware is checked according to the CMOS configuration. you can change the configuration of your computer using a menu driven application. Answer option B is incorrect. A DAT cartridge is a little larger than a credit card in width and height. If a user forgets the password for CMOS "Slay Your Exams" .com 186 Ce A. Digital Linear Tape (DLT) is a type of magnetic tape storage device developed by DEC. Del D.5 MBps.

D . he will not be able to change the CMOS configuration. on some new motherboards.com 187 Ce Explanation: Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS provides a backup power source that remains on standby while the main power is within an acceptable range. If the main power varies outside the range. and a correctly configured port.www. the power supply switches from the mains to the battery circuit and the load of the computer and other devices gets disconnected from the mains and connected to the battery. the user can remove the password by removing the CMOS backup battery for a few seconds. he will have to short the CMOS jumper. To remove the password assigned. A true-online UPS will not have any switch over time. Offline UPS and Line conditioner UPS are not types of UPS. Standby Power Source (SPS) UPS QUESTION NO: 450 Which of the following specification cables will you use to take advantage of bi-directional printing? A. Line conditioner UPS C. Today most UPS are of the SPS type.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam configuration. However. Choose two. The Trueonline UPS is more expensive than the SPS. The True-online UPS has continuous load on the battery. rtK ille r. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Offline UPS B. you must have an IEEE 1284 specification compliant printer cable.certkiller. The time required to switch from mains to battery is called switch over time and it should not be less than 6 milliseconds. bi-directional cables "Slay Your Exams" .c om Answer: C. QUESTION NO: 449 Which of the following are types of UPS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A true-online UPS requires more maintenance because the circuitry is always under a load and the battery is always being charged. Typically. IEEE 1394 C. a bi-directional printer. IEEE 1284 B. DB-9 Answer: A Explanation: To take advantage of bi-directional printing. instead of shorting the CMOS jumper. True-online UPS D. RS-232 D. A.

It is also known as serial port.www. Answer: A. QUESTION NO: 452 How many devices. QUESTION NO: 451 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. You have installed an external Ultra2 SCSI RAID storage unit with a new Web server. such as modems and pointing devices to a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam have the number 1284 printed on them. These devices include consumer audiovisual components.C. and other serial devices to the personal computer. Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. two rows. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. excluding the SCSI adapter. male connector. B. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up.232 ports. Not connecting the RAID subsystem to the server while it is powered up. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 is a standard for high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. Answer option C is incorrect.c om 188 . Answer option B is incorrect. It is a 9-pin. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to30 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. D. Connecting the subsystem to the server while it is powered up can render the subsystem or server hardware to a malfunctioned state. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. A DB-9 connector is used by the serial interface. A. does a Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus support? A. on the back of a PC used for connecting mouse. traditional PC storage devices. Keeping the maximum differential cables length limit up to 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices. Which of the following practices will keep the system working properly? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. modem. C. and handheld devices.certkiller.D Explanation: The following practices will keep the system working properly: Not powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on. Choose three. or RS. also known as COM ports. Powering off the RAID subsystem when the server is turned on can be a cause of data corruption or data loss.com rtK ille r. serial ports. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports. The maximum differential cables length limit is 25 meters for the connection outside the cabinet. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .

4 D. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1.www. Contents: "Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Bus Configuration [Q103436]" QUESTION NO: 453 Which of the following counters is used to measure the usage of CPU? A. SCSI-1 and Fast SCSI-2 have an 8-bit bus with device numbers ranging from 0 to 7. SCSI devices.com 189 Ce rtK ille r. and SCSI-3. Fast-Wide SCSI-2 has a 16-bit bus.microsoft. Reference: TechNet. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. System: System Calls/sec D.c om . Answer option A is incorrect. 7 Answer: B Explanation: A Fast-Wide SCSI-2 bus supports 15 devices excluding the SCSI adapter.com/enus/library/cc768048. 15 C.certkiller. These partitions use the FAT file system. System: Processor Queue Length Answer: D Explanation: The System: Processor Queue Length counter is used to measure the usage of CPU. You want to change the existing stripe set with parity with the "Slay Your Exams" . Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B. The Processor: %Privilege Time counter is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. The System: System Calls/sec counter is a measure of the number of calls made to the system components and Kernel mode services. Reference: "http://technet. The adapter is usually preset to ID 7. Processor: %Privilege Time C. The Processor: %Processor Time counter provides a measure of how much time the processor actually spends working on productive threads and how often it was busy servicing requests. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. including the SCSI adapter and seven other devices. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. Processor: %Processor Time B. Answer option C is incorrect.aspx" QUESTION NO: 454 Your Windows 2000 Server has a stripe set with parity with a basic disk configuration. SCSI-2.

What is a basic disk? A basic disk is a physical disk that contains primary partitions and extended partitions with logical drives. A. B. Upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. Break stripe set with parity and then create RAID volumes. C. Windows 95/98. Windows 2000 Server Manual. RAID5 volumes (stripe sets with parity). dynamic RAID5 volumes. A dynamic disk cannot contain partitions or logical drives. respectively. or spanned volumes (volume sets) become dynamic mirrored volumes. D. striped volumes (stripe sets).com 190 Ce rtK ille r. A hardware location chart is helpful to administrators who want to plan the installation of equipment in the server rack. Answer option A is incorrect. and any version of Windows NT. There is no such facility to break stripe set with parity. Answer option C is incorrect. It cannot be accessed by MS-DOS. Upgrade basic disk to dynamic disk. What will you do to accomplish this with minimum effort? A. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. C. Any existing mirrored volumes (mirror sets).www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam dynamic RAID5 volumes. Installing heavy equipment as near as "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: D Explanation: On upgrading a basic disk to a dynamic disk. and RAID-5 volumes created using Windows NT 4. Basic disks can be accessed by MS-DOS and all Windows-based operating systems. you want to change the existing stripe set with parity to the dynamic RAID5 volumes and not to a volume set.0 or earlier. Change stripe set with parity to a volume set. The lightest weight equipment should be installed at the bottom of the server rack. According to the question. It can only contain volumes created through Disk Management. B. Answer option B is incorrect. Reference: TechNet Technical Information CD. Article "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 455 Which of the following statements are true regarding the installation of equipment in a server rack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.certkiller. mirrored.C Explanation: It is recommended that the administrator install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the server rack such as the uninterruptible power supply (UPS) unit. D. dynamic striped volumes. Choose two. the existing partitions on the basic disk become simple volumes on the dynamic disk. striped. What is a dynamic disk? A dynamic disk is a physical disk that is managed by the Disk Management tool of Windows 2000. or dynamic spanned volumes. The heaviest equipment should be installed at the top of the server rack. There is no such option to upgrade stripe set with parity with RAID5 volumes. It can also contain spanned.c om . Answer: A.

a back-channel is not required in forward error correction. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. Answer: B Explanation: Column Address Strobe (CAS) latency is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. either during the process of transmission. Installing heavy equipment at the top of the server rack will create problems while changing the location of the equipment. Error-correcting codes are frequently used in lower-layer communication. DVDs. hard disks. C. An ECC (errorcorrecting code) or forward error correction (FEC) code is a system of adding redundant data. or parity data. the lower the CAS latency. or on storage. to a message. It is a system of adding redundant data. and it is therefore suitable for simplex communication such as broadcasting.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam possible to the bottom of the server rack will be helpful while changing the location of other equipment on the upper side of the rack.c om 191 . to a message. Answer option D is incorrect. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . The different schemes/architectures are named by the word RAID followed by a number.com rtK ille r. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. and RAM. as well as for reliable storage in media such as CDs. B. Answer option A is incorrect. Moreover. In general.certkiller. Since the receiver does not have to ask the sender for retransmission of the data. the better. placing heavy equipment at the top will put unnecessary load at the top of the rack. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components. either during the process of transmission. via the technique of arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components.www. such that it can be recovered by a receiver even when a number of errors (up to the capability of the code being used) were introduced. It is the delay time between the moment a memory controller tells the memory module to access a particular memory column on a RAM memory module. QUESTION NO: 456 Which of the following statements is true about CAS latency? A. A hardware location chart helps administrators to plan the location of hardware in the server rack. and the moment the data from the given array location is available on the module's output pins. Answer option B is incorrect. It is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. RAID is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. or on storage. or parity data. RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks.

When multiple physical disks are set up to use RAID technology. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. FTP B. Various designs of RAID involve two key design goals: increased data reliability or increased input/output performance. and the heights may vary. PC2700.375" high. SMTP Answer: B Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Contents: "Test IP-addressto-MAC-address Resolution by Using ARP". Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). but they have 92 pins on both side of DIMM for a total of 184. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email messages between servers over the Internet. Reference: "http://en. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. which allows users to manage the network. 184-pin DIMMs are 5. Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes with 168 and 184 pins. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the primary TCP/IP protocol used to transfer text and binary files between computers over a TCP/IP network. ARP C. RAID 1.www. 184-pin DIMMs are for DDR SDRAM modules which are available in Pentium III and Pentium 4 and Athlon systems. PC3200 and PC3500 and faster. DIMMs have a small notch on the bottom of the module.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam as in RAID 0. "How to Troubleshoot Basic TCP/IP Problems" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets.certkiller. Reference: MSDN. but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system as one single disk. DIMM with 168 pins has two notches on its base. they are said to be in a RAID array. Answer option D is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. This array distributes data across multiple disks.wikipedia. SNMP D. Answer option A is incorrect.c om QUESTION NO: 457 192 . The number of chips on a 184-pin DIMM may vary.com rtK ille r. A DIMM slot is larger than a SIMM slot. Answer option C is incorrect. etc. 184-pin DIMMs are available in PC2100. The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address.org/wiki/CAS_latency" Which of the following protocols is used to resolve IP address to MAC address? A.375" long and 1.

CD drive B.D Explanation: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) supports CD drive. Choose all that apply. B. Contents: "Storage Management Operations Guide" "Slay Your Exams" . Modem Answer: A. and C are incorrect. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 458 How many devices can be connected to an IDE channel? A. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. tape drive. and hard disk drive. to an IDE channel. etc. An IDE channel cannot support more than two devices. and Cable Select types of jumper settings. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. 4 D. none of them will work. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive.B.c om . CD-ROM drive. SCSI devices.com 193 Ce rtK Which of the following devices does SCSI support? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Reference: TechNet. 7 Answer: A Explanation: An IDE channel can support two devices. 3 C. Tape drive C. If two drives are attached to one channel.0" QUESTION NO: 459 A. and SCSI-3. Contents: "Performance Tuning for Windows NT Workstation 4. Reference: TechNet. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master. one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. first as a Master and second as a Slave. Slave. or Slave. You can connect devices such as hard disk drive. Hard disk drive E. ille r. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Sound card D. Answer options D. You can configure a device as Master or Slave using jumpers.www. 2 B.certkiller. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master. SCSI-2.

as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. of a networked computer. PING D. subnet mask. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.c om 194 . Answer option A is incorrect.. TRACERT C. the destination host responds with a series of replies. On receiving the packets. incoming and outgoing data. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.com rtK ille r. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. Contents: "Chapter 3 . Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller. What is the ping utility? The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: PING sends ICMP echo requests to verify that TCP/IP is configured correctly. Answer option B is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. References: TechNet.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 460 Which command lets you test and verify TCP/IP based network connections by sending an ICMP echo request and ICMP echo reply? A. NETSTAT B. such as IP address. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. default gateway etc.www.TCP/IP Troubleshooting" QUESTION NO: 461 Which of the following utilities provides information as per the format given below? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.

Answer option B is incorrect. as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. update the NetBIOS name cache.certkiller. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A. Reference: TechNet. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. TRACERT shows where the break in your packets route is at. The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. and determine the registered names and scope IDs.com rtK ille r. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. TRACERT Answer: D Explanation: TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. PING C.www. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer. This helps administrators to isolate the problem there. NBTSTAT D. Contents: "Chapter 3 .TCP/IP Troubleshooting" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . NETSTAT B.c om 195 . On receiving the packets. the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. incoming and outgoing data.

Choose two. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three hard disk drives.certkiller. It does not provide fault tolerance. Answer options A and C are incorrect. It provides fault tolerance. RAID 0 Answer: A. Since. A. It uses a minimum of two hard disk drives. Choose two. while mirrored volumes use another disk of the same disk size as that of the original data. RAID-5 provides data redundancy at the cost of only one additional disk for the volume. QUESTION NO: 463 Which of the following RAID levels support fault tolerance under the Windows NT Server 4.com 196 Ce rtK ille r. Data that is written to a striped volume is divided by the operating system into chunks of 64KB.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 462 Which of the following statements about RAID-0 is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. A.0 implementation? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.c om . RAID 2 D. a large amount of data is divided into identical portions. RAID 5 F. in a striped volume.E Explanation: RAID level 1 (mirroring and duplexing) and RAID level 5 (stripe set with parity). D. it is faster to read or write the data from a striped volume than from a spanned volume. It uses a minimum of three hard disk drives.D Explanation: Striped volumes are dynamic volumes that contain disk space from two to thirty-two hard disks. It also provides fault tolerance. If a portion of a physical disk fails. RAID 3 C. the data that was on the failed portion can be re-created from the remaining data and parity. The operating system stores each chunk on a separate disk. B. RAID-5 volumes have better read performance than mirrored volumes. RAID level 0 (stripe set) enhances disk performance but does "Slay Your Exams" . are the two RAID levels which support fault tolerance. Striped volumes are not fault tolerant. RAID-0 volumes are also referred to as striped volumes. What is RAID-5 volume? A RAID-5 volume is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. C. RAID 1 B. Answer: B. RAID 4 E.www. RAID-5 uses a minimum of three and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives.

Ampere meter is an instrument for measuring the strength of an electrical current in amperes. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model. users report that the network has become quite slow. You find that the Pages/sec counter is 35 and the memory utilization is high. QUESTION NO: 464 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.com rtK ille r. LAN analyzer D.certkiller. Time Domain Reflectometer C. Which of the following tools can Mark use to identify the malfunctioning network card? A. Voltmeter is an instrument for measuring the voltage between two points in an electrical circuit.LAN analyzer is a hardware or software device that captures packets transmitted in a network for identifying problems on the network and the source of the problem. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. LAN analyzer can also store data packets on storage media for future analysis. LAN analyzer can be plugged into a port of a network switch or hub. This device is also known as packet sniffer. Voltmeter Explanation: In order to identify the malfunctioning network card on the network.www. Mark examines the network and suspects that a computer's network card appears to be causing a network broadcast storm. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard and a RAID-5 disk array. Files on the remote computers are taking a long time to open. What will you do to improve the server's performance? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . One morning. Answer option B is incorrect. QUESTION NO: 465 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. The company's network has a database server. Mark will have to use a LAN analyzer. It reads the data packets traveling on the network and decodes one or more protocols into a humanreadable format.c om Answer: C 197 . The server is also responding slowly to database queries. Ampere meter B. It analyzes the packets in real-time that helps administrators to troubleshoot the problems. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. The server's performance is decreasing day by day.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam not support fault tolerance.

Add more RAM.www. 3U is 5. Therefore. An existing equipment rack in the server room has only 11.e.5).certkiller. A rack unit is also known as U.com A. The rack unit size is based on a standard rack specification as defined in EIA-310. another processor cannot be installed on the motherboard.75 inches ( 44.wikipedia. The servers of size 7U and 9U will be bigger for the available space in the existing rack. Answer option D is incorrect. as the Pages/sec value is quite high. 11.5 inches space available. Answer: C Explanation: The Pages/sec counter statistics indicates the problem. The question clearly states that the server has a dual processor motherboard. 4U D. The problem is due to shortage of RAM.5". This suggests that there is not enough memory to cache information. Which of the following is the maximum size of the server that can be installed into the rack? ille r. 6 x1.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.75". in the question. D.45 mm ) high. According to the scenario. One rack unit is 1. Hence.5 inches space is available in existing rack. Answer options A and B are incorrect. B. Add one more microprocessor. 2U is 3. the value is 35. 6U rtK Your company has decided to purchase a new rack mount server.25" and so on.c om 198 . there is no need to change the network card. Change the network card with a high speed card. 7U B. Therefore. Reference: "http://en. Hence. The symptom mentioned in the question indicates that there is a bottleneck in the server's memory. C. Reboot the server.75 = 10. QUESTION NO: 466 Answer: D Explanation: A rack unit is a unit of measure used to describe the height of equipment intended for mounting in a 19-inch rack or a 23-inch rack. Answer option B is incorrect.org/wiki/Rack_unit" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . 9U C. Answer option A is incorrect. Rebooting the server will not help in accomplishing the task. The Pages/sec value should not be more than 5. the maximum size of the server that can be installed in the rack is 6U (i. However. Adding more RAM to the server will reduce this value and hence improve the performance of the server. a 1U product has a vertical measurement of 1.

Create reports for use in analyzing performance.File Systems QUESTION NO: 468 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . over time.www. Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. View. Recovery Console D. The company uses Windows 2000 Server for networking and NTFS partition on their disks. One of the users complains that his Windows 2000 Server is not starting. offering a variety of products and financial services. Monitoring errors. which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network. keyboard. Launch programs and send notifications when thresholds are reached.certkiller.c om 199 . such as mouse. Choose two. Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers.com rtK ille r. What is Performance Monitor? Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. You find that the NTFS-formatted system volume with corrupted or deleted system files is preventing the computer from starting.C Explanation: Microsoft Windows 2000 uses the Safe Mode and the Recovery Console for resolving the problem on the operating system files. Reference: Microsoft TechNet CD Chapter 17 . and Chart views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. over time. or installation of incompatible drivers or system services. Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames. Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 467 Prudential Insurance Company of America serves nearly forty million customers worldwide. Performance Monitor Answer: B. such as system corruption. Recovery Console is used by the Administrator to copy system files from the operating system CD and troubleshoot other systems without installing a second copy of the operating system. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Which tool will you use to resolve this problem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Safe Mode boot C. What is Safe Mode? Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers. The Alert. Network Monitor can perform the following functions: Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes. etc. Performance Monitor is used for the following: Monitor objects on multiple computers. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. What is Network Monitor? Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer. It bypasses blocking issues. Network Monitor B. What is the use of Recovery Console in Windows 2000 operating system? In Windows 2000 operating system. A. enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.

What is the function of DRAM? Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is used as the primary memory for computers and workstations. It analyzes all the traffic between a network and the Internet. D. SRAM is faster than DRAM. Lock the server on the server chassis. and provides centralized access control on how users should use the network. Choose two. Hide vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet. D. It is used to separate an internal network from the Internet. C. Contents: "Chapter 3 .www. Direct the incoming traffic to more trustworthy internal computers.B Explanation: Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card.certkiller. A firewall can also perform the following functions: Block unwanted traffic. Install a firewall on the server. SRAM is used for cache memory. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room.com 200 Ce rtK ille r. Log "Slay Your Exams" . What is a firewall? A firewall is a combination of software and hardware that prevents data packets from coming in or going out of a specified network or computer.c om . SRAM is used for main memory. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following statements about SRAM are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. Reference: TechNet. Implement an entrance password to enter the server room.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 469 Which of the following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Put a lock on the door of the server room. B. Answer: A. B. A. It requires having its storage cells refreshed or given a new electronic charge every few milliseconds. Installing a firewall on the server and locking the server on the server chassis cannot prevent unauthorized persons from entering the server room. Unlike DRAM. C. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied. SRAM is used for permanent storage of information and is also known as ROM. Choose all that apply. Answer: A.C Explanation: The following steps can be taken for a server's security for entrance purposes: Put a lock on the door of the server room. A.

5. 4. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. 1 = highest D. Choose all that apply. 8.D Explanation: SCSI ID 8 provides lowest priority while SCSI ID 7 provides highest priority to a device. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. 2. 9.certkiller. Level 3 B.c om . are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. 7 = highest E. while wide SCSI buses that support 16 devices use IDs 0 to 15.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam traffic to and from the private network.www. 0.com 201 Ce rtK ille r. and internal user IDs from external users. 8 = lowest B. SCSI ID 7 has the highest priority. such as computer names. 6. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1. Narrow SCSI buses that support eight devices use IDs 0 to 7. QUESTION NO: 470 In what order are SCSI ID numbers prioritized? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. The SCSI ID assigned to a device on a SCSI bus can be important to the performance of a computer because IDs dictate the priority in which a device gets access to the bus. QUESTION NO: 471 Which of the following cache memory levels is integrated with the microprocessor? A. Level 1 Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . SCSI devices. Higher ID numbers have higher priority. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. network topology. 14. A. network device types. 12. and SCSI-3. SCSI IDs are split into two groups. Hide information. 7 = lowest C. 15. 3. 13. 10. 1. 8 = highest F:1 = lowest Answer: A. 11. Level 2 D. Level 4 C. SCSI IDs determine device priority on a SCSI bus. Therefore. SCSI-2. with numbers 0 to 7 having priority over 8 to 15. The ID priority order on a SCSI bus is as follows: 7.

com 202 Ce Explanation: Following are the reasons for updating the baseline: Adding more RAM to the server Hiring more employees A new application is installed on the server. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. A new application is installed on the server. Answer: A. Choose all that apply. Hiring more employees C. The failure of a network device due to power surge cannot be a reason for updating the baseline. so that the microprocessor can access this information without delay. Answer option D is incorrect. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Adding more RAM to the server D. Answer options B and A are incorrect. A. Ampere hours Answer: D Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network.Capacity Planning" QUESTION NO: 472 Which of the following could be the reasons for updating the baseline? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. rtK ille r.170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. There are no cache memory levels such as level 3 and level 4. Ohm B. A network device has failed due to power surge. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information. B.c om . Reference: TechNet. Answer option C is incorrect. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network.C QUESTION NO: 473 Which of the following units is used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery? A. Cache memory on the motherboard is known as level 2 cache. Volt Ampere C. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline.certkiller. Hertz D. What is surge? Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/.www.B. Contents: "Chapter 3 .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Level 1 cache memory is integrated with the microprocessor.

B Explanation: The administrator should ensure the following during the test of a disaster recovery plan. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 203 . Ohm is the standard unit of electrical resistance. The ampere hours (AH) is the unit for measuring the capacity of a UPS battery. Ensure that the plan works properly C. When replacing the monitor. Answer: A. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. Shutting down all servers or clients will not help in testing the disaster recovery plan. When replacing a CD-ROM drive with a DVD writer. B. D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A UPS battery capacity is determined by the battery's ability to convert chemical energy into electrical current at a specified rate for a specified amount of time. Answer option C is incorrect. When the computer does not recognize the keyboard. C. crisis communication and reputation protection. Volt Ampere (VA) is a measurement of power in a direct current (DC) electrical circuit. QUESTION NO: 475 Which of the following is the most likely situation requiring an old BIOS upgrade? A. it means that it has a capacity of 1 AH. If a battery can provide one ampere ( 1 A ) of current for one hour. Answer option B is incorrect. Ensure that each member of the disaster recovery team is aware of their responsibility. When adding a hard disk with a capacity of more than 504 MB. Hertz is a unit of frequency. communications (such as networking) and other IT infrastructure. B. QUESTION NO: 474 Which of the following should the administrator ensure during the test of a disaster recovery plan? A. It is not used to measure the capacity of a UPS battery. and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. Answer option A is incorrect. Ensure that the plan works properly.com rtK ille r. D. Answer options C and D are incorrect.certkiller. and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT related infrastructure recovery / continuity. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications.www. data. Ensure that all client computers in the organization are shut down. What is disaster recovery? Disaster recovery is the process. policies. Ensure that all the servers in the organization are shut down. facilities. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel. hardware.

These situations do not require upgrading the BIOS. an upgrade of BIOS is required. on the motherboard. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. and D are incorrect. In this situation. CounterValue Pages/sec250 % Disk Utilization65% Average Disk Queue Length1 % Processor Time23% Which of the following "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. SCSI has three standards. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. What will be the technician's answer? A. Answer options B and A are incorrect. Andrew does not want to replace the existing tape drive. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at single-ended speed. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra2 speed. QUESTION NO: 476 Andrew asks a technician to replace a fast SCSI controller with a new Ultra2 SCSI controller on his computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: C Explanation: An old BIOS cannot support a hard disk having more than 504 MB capacity. SCSI-2.com 204 Ce rtK ille r. Since the tape drive is not an Ultra2 SCSI device. A. Answer: C Explanation: The technician will reply that the new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. He runs a performance test on one of the servers of the network and finds the following statistics. He asks the technician about compatibility issues. The new configuration will not work. it should support Ultra 2 speed and be connected to an Ultra2 SCSI controller.c om . are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. The computer has an external fast SCSI tape drive installed. The new configuration will work and the fast SCSI tape drive will operate at Ultra speed. Ultra2 SCSI controllers provide backward compatibility and support fast SCSI tape drives. D. QUESTION NO: 477 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. Answer options B. C. B. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip.www. SCSI devices. it will operate only at Ultra speed. SCSI-1. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. and SCSI-3. For a SCSI device to operate at Ultra 2 SCSI speed.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam objects has a bottleneck? A. Network subsystem B. Disk C. Processor D. Memory Answer: D Explanation: The Pages/sec counter investigates the paging settings. The recommended value for the Pages/sec counter of the memory object is less than 5. According to the value in the question, the memory object of the server has a bottleneck. What is Pages/sec counter? The Pages/sec counter indicates the number of times per second data is moved from RAM (Random Access Memory) to disk and vice versa. The recommended value for Pages/sec is less than 5. If the Pages/sec counter is high, the system RAM should be increased. Answer option B is incorrect. If the % Disk utilization counter of the disk object is less than 90%, it indicates that the disk does not have a bottleneck. Furthermore, the Average Disk Queue Length counter shows that it does not have a bottleneck. The Average Disk Queue Length value in excess of 2 indicates that the disk has a bottleneck, which could be one of the causes of slow performance on a computer. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such counter related to the Network subsystem object. Answer option C is incorrect. If the % Processor Time counter of the Processor object is less than 85%, it indicates that the processor does not have a bottleneck.

QUESTION NO: 478

A. The speed of the processor is faster than that of the memory. B. The speed of the processor is slower than that of the memory. C. The speed of the memory is faster than that of the processor. D. The speed of the processor matches that of the memory. Answer: D Explanation: Zero wait-states indicates that the speed of the processor matches the speed of the memory. When the processor processes data faster than the system RAM can deliver, it goes into a wait state. This slows down system performance. When a system is running without encountering wait states, it is known as zero wait-states operation. Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Hardware Cache Architecture and MS Windows 95/Windows NT"

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 479 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company purchases three computers with identical hardware. Mark installs Windows XP on all the three computers. On one of the computers, the operating system installation fails, while on the others, the OS installs successfully. What can Mark do to resolve the issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. B. Re-install the operating system on the computer. C. Remove the network cable from the computer's network adapter port. D. Remove and replace add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. Answer: A,D Explanation: In order to resolve the issue, Mark can take any of the following steps. Remove and replace addon cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time to identify faulty hardware. By removing and replacing add-on cards, RAM, and additional components one at a time, he can identify the faulty hardware. Use a hardware diagnostic utility to identify faulty hardware and then replace them. Answer option C is incorrect. Removing the network cable from the computer's network adapter port will not help resolve the issue. The network cable has nothing to do with installing operating systems on a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. As the operating system is installed properly on the other two computers having identical hardware, it indicates that there is some hardware problem in the other computer in which the operating system has failed. Therefore, re-installing the operating system will not help resolve the issue.

QUESTION NO: 480

Which of the following are provided by a DHCP server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Preferred DNS server address B. Internet connection sharing C. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway D. Network address translation Answer: A,C Explanation: The following are provided by a DHCP server. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, and gateway Preferred DNS server address Preferred WINS server address Answer option "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 206

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam B is incorrect. Internet connection sharing is not provided by a DHCP server. Internet connection sharing can be done with almost any kind of connection, including cable modems, DSL, modems, ISDN, dial-up, satellite, fixed wireless, etc. Internet connection sharing (ICS) provides the ability to connect a home network or a private network to the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses. NAT is configured at the server between a private network and the Internet. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address. NAT modifies the headers of packets traversing the server. For packets outbound to the Internet, it translates the source addresses from private to public, whereas for packets inbound from the Internet, it translates the destination addresses from public to private. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol"

QUESTION NO: 481 What is the full form of ESD? A. Extended System database B. Electrostatic Discharge C. Electrostatic Disk D. Enhance System drive Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 482 Which type of memory chip has 168 pins? A. SIMM B. DIP C. DMA D. DIMM Answer: D Explanation: The Dual inline memory module (DIMM) has 168 pins. 168-pin Dual inline memory module (DIMM) "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 207

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Explanation: The static electricity that we generate everyday creates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). If you walk across a carpet and touch someone you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge transfers from one charged entity to another that is sensitive to that charge.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 483

Which of the following statements about Serial ATA (SATA) are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SATA cable uses either a 40-conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to46 cm length. B. It is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. C. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. D. It supports hot plugging and hot swapping.

Explanation: SATA is a point-to-point connection that eliminates master/slave configuration issues. SATA cables provide better airflow than ATA cables. SATA supports hot plugging and hot swapping. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option A is incorrect. Parallel ATA (PATA) is a standard interface for connecting storage devices such as the hard disk and CD-ROM drive inside a computer. It is the most common and least expensive interface for connecting storage devices. A PATA ribbon cable uses either a 40conductor or an 80-conductor wire and is limited to 46 cm length. The new 80-wire ribbon cable appeared with the introduction of the Ultra DMA/66 mode. All forty additional wires in the new cable are ground wires, interleaved with the previously defined wires. The extra forty conductors "Slay Your Exams" - www.certkiller.com 208

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mirrored. A maximum of two devices can be connected to a PATA port. It uses TCP port 23 by default. But you are unable to do it.B Explanation: The volumes formatted with FAT or FAT32 cannot be extended. What is the most likely cause? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.www. What will he do to run the TELNET client on Windows 2000? A. You cannot extend volumes formatted using FAT or FAT32. The company's network has Windows 2000 and Unix servers. and RAID5 volumes cannot be extended. Striped. These partitions use FAT file system. and facilitates remote administration. you want to extend the existing striped volumes since the amount of existing data is large. Mark will have to type TELNET on the command prompt.wikipedia. You are not logged on as an Account Operator. Go to Start > Programs > System Tools. The new disk has no file system. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software. "http. Type TEL on the Run dialog box. Type TELNET on the command prompt. A volume can be extended only if it contains no file system or is formatted using NTFS. D. Go to Start > Programs > Accessories. Reference. A. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer. mirrored. C. D. and click Terminal. B.c om .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam are all ground lines. B. Mark wants to connect to a server using a TELNET client from a remote Windows 2000 server. to access files. Answer: A. placed there to provide additional shielding and protection against crosstalk between conductors. Choose two.org/wiki/Serial_ATA" QUESTION NO: 484 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. Answer: C QUESTION NO: 485 Your Windows 2000 Server has striped volumes with dynamic disk configuration. Parallel ATA (PATA) 133 has a data transfer speed of 1064 Mbps.//en. As an Administrator. and RAID5 volumes "Slay Your Exams" .certkiller. C. and click TELNET. Striped. offers the ability to run programs remotely. ille r.com 209 Ce rtK Explanation: In order to run the TELNET client.

and to limit exposures to concentrations of 7 percent and below to 15 minutes. "http.//en. FAT.B. file system is the overall structure in which files are named. libraries.com rtK ille r. and FM-200 can be used as a fire suppression agent at the data center. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . It is an effective gaseous fire suppression agent. TechNet. Water (H2O) Answer: A. gaseous halocarbon. odorless. What is Halon 1301? Halon 1301 is chemically known as Bromotrifluoromethane.wikipedia. These fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center. Where will you place the terminators? A. production equipment. Answer option D is incorrect. Carbon dioxide (CO2) B. It is used around valuable materials. It is considered a good practice to avoid all unnecessary exposure to Halon 1301.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam cannot be extended. stored. Before the dangers of Halon 1301 as an ozone depleter were known. What is FM-200? FM-200 is a colorless. Halon 1301 is dangerous for environment and health. and telecommunication switching centers. such as aircraft. What is NTFS? Reference. Currently. What is file system? In an operating system. and NTFS are the different types of file systems. Halon D. and data centers. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the external CD drive. mainframe computers. and organized.c om 210 . It is chemically known as heptafluoropropane and commonly used as a gaseous fire suppression agent. It can be used as a fire suppression agent for the safety of medical equipment.www. Reference. Using water as a fire suppression agent at the data center is harmful for the equipments.org/wiki/FM-200" QUESTION NO: 487 Your computer has an internal SCSI hard disk drive and an external SCSI CD drive connected to a SCSI controller. use of Halon 1301 is restricted in many countries. Contents. You have to be logged on as an Administrator or a member of the Administrators group to be able to extend volumes. many industrial chillers used it as an efficient refrigerant gas. and data centers.C Explanation: Halon. Place one terminator on the SCSI controller and one on the internal hard disk drive. FAT32. B.certkiller. "Storing data" QUESTION NO: 486 Which of the following fire suppression agents cause the least damage to equipments in a data center? A. carbon dioxide (CO2). FM-200 C.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C.100 nanosecond range while ROM access time is in the 125-250 nanosecond range. SCSI has three standards. a copy of Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) routines is copied from read-only memory (ROM) to RAM at startup.certkiller. Answer: D Explanation: If you have two SCSI devices. Simultaneous accessing to more than one block of memory improves performance because the processor can transfer more information or data to and from memory in the same amount of time that helps to reduce the processor's memory bottleneck.com 211 Ce rtK A. E. Place one terminator at the end of each drive. This allows faster access to BIOS information. What is shadow RAM? Shadow RAM is a technique that provides faster access to startup information. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. Access time in shadow RAM is typically in the 60.www. D. SCSI devices. Memory interleaving is not generally supported by most computer motherboards due to high cost. QUESTION NO: 488 Answer: B. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. internal and external. and SCSI-3. you should place one terminator at the end of each drive. are better suited in a network environment in which many users access shared drives simultaneously. om . Place one terminator on the SCSI controller. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. It is helpful on high-end systems such as servers that have to process a large amount of information in lesser time. Shadow RAM allows faster access to BIOS information. B. SCSI-1. D. The primary reason for disabling shadow RAM is to reclaim extended "Slay Your Exams" . It allows faster access to BIOS information. Place one terminator on the internal hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. ille r. such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive. SCSI-2.D Explanation: Memory interleaving is a technique to improve memory performance. Many BIOSes allow RAM shadowing to be disabled. It works by dividing the system memory into multiple blocks. It is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-toanalog converter on a video card. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory.c Which of the following statements about memory interleaving are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. When you configure shadow RAM. The SCSI controller will be placed in between the SCSI devices. Choose two. It increases bandwidth by allowing simultaneous access to more than one block of memory. C.

But. AUTOEXEC. ROM BIOS C. Reference. and allows the operating system to communicate with the various components of the computer. 2 C. BOOT. it should be done only as the last resort because disabling shadow RAM usually slows down a machine noticeably.certkiller. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer. BOOT.INI file? BOOT. SRAM does not have to be periodically refreshed. BOOT. Unlike DRAM.www.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. 3 D. The first instruction during startup is initiated by BIOS instead of the hard disk.INI.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam memory for use by other programs. What is BOOT. "Chapter 5 .BAT B. BOOT. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware. Hard disk Answer: B Explanation: When you start a computer. and D are incorrect.com rtK ille r. A. or AUTOEXEC.INI D. the ROM BIOS provides the first instruction to the computer. Answer options C. also known as the Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. 1 Ce "Slay Your Exams" .INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions.Setup Technical Discussion" QUESTION NO: 490 What is the minimum number of hard disk drives required for implementing a RAID 0+1 on a server? A. SRAM is significantly faster and more expensive than DRAM. 4 B. The BIOS software is stored in a ROM integrated circuit (IC) on the motherboard. QUESTION NO: 489 Which of the following provides the first instruction to a computer during startup? A. TechNet. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) is used for a computer's cache memory and as part of the random access memory digital-to-analog converter on a video card. Contents.c om 212 . Answer option A is incorrect.BAT file. SRAM retains data bits in its memory as long as power is being supplied.

but to a set of disks. Pinging the default gateway IP address failed What will be your next step to resolve this problem? A. The array continues to operate with one or more drives failed in the same mirror set. Purchase a new server B. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. a remote access server is disconnected from the network. What is RAID5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. RAID-5 requires a minimum of three disks. Data once lost cannot be recovered. RAID-0 and RAID1 require a minimum of two disks. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. Validate physical link integrity C. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk.www. Due to data redundancy. Re-installed TCP/IP protocol. It contains a minimum of three disks. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance.com 213 Ce rtK ille r. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. data is kept on two physical disks.certkiller. Check the server's subnet mask Answer: B Explanation: "Slay Your Exams" . When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. in case a disk in the set fails. but lower writing performance. If a disk fails. You perform the following steps to troubleshoot the problem.//en. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. the data on the RAID system is lost. The final disk contains the parity information. Reference.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 491 You work as a Network Administrator. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: A Explanation: RAID 0+1 is a striped set in a mirrored set that requires a minimum of four disks. but if the drives fail on both sides of the mirror. Re-install operating system D.wikipedia. also known as disk striping. It does not provide data redundancy. In mirroring. Just before noon. The key difference from RAID 1+0 is that RAID 0+1 creates a second striped set to mirror a primary striped set. It provides fault tolerance and improved performance but increases complexity. Answer option B is incorrect. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. Answer option C is incorrect. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. Re-installed the network interface card driver.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring.c om . "http. In this disk system. Pinging the remote access server resulted in proper response. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk.

QUESTION NO: 492 You purchase a new computer. Ce "Slay Your Exams" .c om 214 . TechNet. so there is no need to check the server's subnet mask. The subnet mask cannot change automatically. when you restart the computer.certkiller. The computer's Random Access Memory is faulty. Now. and display a blue screen.www. If the computer has faulty RAM. validation of physical link integrity will be the right step because there is no problem with the operating system. B. So the broken physical link or connection will be the most likely cause of the remote access server being disconnected from the network. What is the most likely cause? A. and re-installed the network interface card driver. you receive the following message.com rtK ille r. After partitioning and formatting your hard disk. You have checked the network card by pinging the server's IP address. Contents. choose the "Set Active Partition" option on the FDISK utility's main menu. Answer option B is incorrect. "NO ROM BASIC. you install the Windows 95 operating system. You have to select an active partition in addition to partitioning and formatting your hard disk. it will hang up the computer frequently. Err Msg When Booting System. Answer option C is incorrect. Reference. SYSTEM HALTED" and the computer halts. The only problem is that the remote access server is disconnected from the network. To select an active partition. Windows 95 is not installed properly. D. Answer: D Explanation: This message "NO ROM BASIC. NO ROM BASIC [Q67365] QUESTION NO: 493 HOTSPOT Mark the ST connector in the image given below. C.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam To resolve this problem. The hard disk has no active partition. The display card is faulty. If the display card has a problem. nothing will appear on the screen. SYSTEM HALTED" appears when you do not select an active partition.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: Explanation: QUESTION NO: 494 Mark works as an Administrator for a Novell Netware 6. and allows quick connect and disconnect of 125 micron multi-mode fiber.www. Which of the following commands will he use? A. RESTART SERVER -na Answer: A Explanation: The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. om .5 server.c The image displays the following connectors. He wants to shut down the server immediately without being prompted. RESTART SERVER -ns D. Answer option C is incorrect. "Slay Your Exams" . SHUTDOWN -p C.ncf file. DOWN -f B. There is no such command as SHUTDOWN -p. A straight tip (ST) connector is a fiber-optic connector used with multimode fiber.com 215 Ce rtK ille r.5mm shaft and bayonet locking ring. The RESTART SERVER -ns command is used to restart the server without using the startup. An ST connector has a 2.certkiller. ST. Answer option B is incorrect.

The next time such pages are requested. Virtual memory Ce "Slay Your Exams" . DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. Indexing maps words to Web pages.ncf file. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings. Once installed. Answer option D is incorrect.c om 216 . The index process occurs behind the scene. requiring no user input and minimizing demand on system resources. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. A proxy server has a database called cache where the most frequently accessed Web pages are stored. Cache memory B. and to locations within Web pages.certkiller. A DHCP server is used to provide dynamic IP configuration to computers in the network. DHCP server B. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. thereby greatly reducing the access time. The purpose of the proxy server is to enhance the performance of user requests and filter requests. "http. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. IP address-to-host name mappings. The proxy server can also be used for filtering user requests.org/wiki/Proxy_server" QUESTION NO: 496 Which of the following terms is used for a processor's internal memory? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer option D is incorrect.com rtK ille r. Only when a proxy server is unable to fulfill a request locally does it forward the request to a real Internet server.www. etc. the proxy server is able to suffice the request locally. information about the domain tree structure. A proxy server exists between a client's Web-browsing program and a real Internet server. Index Server for Windows and Wide Area Information Server (WAIS) for UNIX are some of the popular index servers. DNS server D. Proxy server C. Index server is used to enable Web searching on corporate intranets and Internet sites. QUESTION NO: 495 Which of the following caches web pages for future retrieval? A. Index server Answer: B Explanation: A proxy server caches web pages for future retrieval. Reference.//en.wikipedia. it automatically builds an index of a Web server that can be easily searched from any Web browser with the sample query forms. This may be done in order to prevent the users from visiting non-genuine sites.

Although this extends the computer's capabilities to execute the process even when RAM is not sufficient. Virtual memory is simulated RAM created by using a portion of the hard disk as a swap file. and 2000) move the data corresponding to older processes from the RAM to the virtual memory area on the hard disk. Answer option B is incorrect. The terms Random Access Memory (RAM) or Read Only Memory (ROM) are not used for internal memory.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Error codes beginning with 5xx indicate problems related to color monitor or video. ROM Answer: A Explanation: The memory internal to a processor is called cache memory. Contents. 5xx B.Capacity Planning" Which of the following error codes indicate problems related to memory? A. Contents. "Chapter 3 . operating systems (such as Windows 95/98. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference. Hence. 2xx D. Virtual memory is a temporary storage in the hard disk for storing additional data in the RAM. Error codes beginning with 3xx indicate problems related to keyboard. TechNet. Answer option B is incorrect. TechNet. NT. Answer option D is incorrect. so that the processor can access this information without delay. it slows down the processes and programs that use virtual memory and those that need to read and write to the hard disk.certkiller. and PS/2 Error Codes [Q35436]" QUESTION NO: 498 Which of the following should be created before placing a server in the network for service? Ce "Slay Your Exams" . RAM D. Reference. When the physical memory (RAM) is exhausted. Answer options C and D are incorrect.com rtK ille QUESTION NO: 497 r. Cache RAM on the motherboard is called level 2 cache. XT. Error codes beginning with 6xx indicate problems related to floppy disk drive. 3xx Answer: C Explanation: Error codes beginning with 2xx indicate problems related to memory. "IBM PC. 6xx C. Cache memory is used to store frequently used information.c om 217 . AT. space is created in the RAM for the newer processes.www. It is also known as level 1 cache.

Answer option C is incorrect. it cannot read the boot files from the floppy disk. Answer: A. He wants to boot a computer from a floppy disk. For example. a system log. the computer will not read the operating system file through the floppy disk drive. and C are incorrect. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. The boot sequence in the computer's BIOS is incorrect.com 218 Ce rtK Andrew works as a computer technician. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly.www. B. Answer options D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam A.c om . It helps administrators measure server performance. A. There is already a bootable partition on the computer's hard disk drive. If boot sequence in the BIOS is incorrect or is not set to boot from floppy disk first. The bootable partition on a computer's hard disk cannot prevent the computer from using a floppy disk for booting. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. Performance baseline C. Users list D. and a users list before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. He inserts a bootable floppy disk in the floppy drive of a computer and starts the computer.D Explanation: A computer fails to boot from a bootable floppy disk because of any one of the following reasons. C. He finds that the computer is not booting from the floppy disk. D. Application backup Answer: B Explanation: An administrator should create a performance baseline before placing a server in the network to be accessed by the users. What can be the likely causes for this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. System log B. Answer option B is incorrect. ille QUESTION NO: 499 r.certkiller. Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. There is no need to create an application backup. The active "Slay Your Exams" . The computer's hard disk drive has no active partition. The system log is used to store events logged by the Windows 2000/2003 Server system components. A. events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. If the head of a floppy disk drive is dirty. The event types logged by system components are predetermined by the Windows 2000/2003 operating system. The head of the floppy disk drive is dirty. The floppy disk drive should be cleaned using a floppy disk drive head cleaner to resolve the issue. This will prevent the computer from booting through the floppy disk. Choose two.

A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. SYN attack Answer: B Explanation: Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address. In this model.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam partition has nothing to do with this issue. all the computers act as both clients and servers. In this model. It is a protocol. email address. Answer option C is incorrect. Contents. It does not support centralized administration. PING attack D. Choose two. This model does not support centralized "Slay Your Exams" . When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer.level attack that can render a computer's network services unavailable.c om . all the computers act as both clients and servers.com 219 Ce rtK ille r. it is known as a PING attack. Spoofing C. A SYN attack affects computers running on TCP/IP protocol. TechNet. D. so that users can share printing resources and files.www. etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. In IP spoofing. A.certkiller. However. B. QUESTION NO: 500 Which of the following refers to the emulation of the identity of a network computer by an attacking computer? A. It provides centralized administration. etc. Hacking B. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network. also known as workgroup model. Answer option A is incorrect. caller ID. chatting on-line. spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet. C. Answer option D is incorrect. provides a way to connect a small group of computers. "Security Threats" QUESTION NO: 501 Which of the following statements is true about the peer-to-peer network model? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer: B. a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to his identity.D Explanation: A peer-to-peer network model. Reference. It provides user-level security.

Contents. The domain-based network model provides centralized administration and user-level security. The incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam administration or provide user-level security. Full and differential backup D. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Choose two. Full and decremental backup C. C. Right-click the Start menu > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Task Manager. It needs only one tape to restore data.D Explanation: You can implement a daily full backup or a full and differential backup plan. Which of the following methods can he use to access the Task Manager? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. It is inexpensive and can be easily setup.c om 220 . Answer options C and A are incorrect. One tape cartridge is sufficient to backup all the network data.www. Incremental. Answer option B is incorrect. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. QUESTION NO: 502 You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. and Differential Backups [Q136621] QUESTION NO: 503 Adrian uses a Windows 2000 system. There is no backup method such as decremental backup. You plan a backup policy for the network dat a. The full backup backs up all the selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time to backup. since the last incremental or full backup. as compared to full backup or incremental backup. one of the applications hangs.certkiller. Press CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then click Task Manager. Press CTRL + ALT + TAB and then click Task Manager. He wants to terminate this erring application by using the Task Manager. A. Full and incremental backup B. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A.com rtK ille r. Description of Full. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created. Reference. Daily full backup Answer: C. The differential backup is the fastest backup strategy and takes the least amount of space on a hard disk or network drive. While working on multiple applications. B. TechNet. Choose two. or have changed since the last full backup. Which of the following can you choose if you have only two tape cartridges available to backup data? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

www. A.D Explanation: The two methods of accessing the Task Manager mentioned in the answers are. Task Manager Answer: B.com rtK ille r. Performance console C.D Ce Explanation: The most commonly used data transfer protocols by IDE devices are. Pressing CTRL + ALT + TAB keys does not open up the Task Manager. "Slay Your Exams" . Disk Manager B. and therefore. A. Network Optimizer D.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) Direct Memory Access (DMA) Ultra DMA Ultra DMA protocol's mode 0. it is not the correct answer option.1 and 2 are supported by ATA-4 but are not available for ATA. Extended DMA D. ATA-2 and ATA-3 Interface standards.certkiller. Choose two. QUESTION NO: 504 Which of the following data transfer protocols are most commonly used for IDE devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Programmed Input/Output (PIO) C. Press CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. Choose three.c om 221 . Answer: B.B. By pressing CTRL + SHIFT + ESC. The Task Manager utility is not available in the System Tools option in the Control Panel. Ultra DMA Answer: A. and by pressing CTRL + ALT + DELETE and then clicking Task Manager. Extended DMA data transfer protocol does not exist. You can also select Task Manager by rightclicking the Taskbar and selecting Task Manager. Direct Memory Access (DMA) B.D QUESTION NO: 505 Which tools are used for monitoring performance of the system in Windows 2000? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

It is used for an immediate overview of system activity and performance. Ultra3 SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 160 MBps. Choose two. What is Task Manager? Task Manager is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. What is Performance console? Performance console is a monitoring tool provided in Windows 2000. including the system files and all files protected by Windows File Protection (WFP) Active Directory (on domain controller only) SYSVOL (on domain controller only) Certificate Services (on certification authority only) Cluster "Slay Your Exams" . System boot files D. Application files Answer: B.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: Performance console and Task Manager are the primary monitoring tools in Windows 2000. Boot files.c om . 160 MBps D. Microsoft SQL Server files B.Overview of Performance Monitoring QUESTION NO: 506 Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI? A. 4 MBps Answer: A QUESTION NO: 507 Which of the following should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Answer option D is incorrect. Asynchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 4 MBps. 80 MBps B. 5 MBps C. This information can be used for troubleshooting and analysis of bottlenecks.C Explanation: System state data and system boot files should be backed up using the Windows Backup utility.com 222 Ce rtK Explanation: The maximum data transfer rate of Ultra2 Wide SCSI is 80 MBps. ille r. Reference. It provides detailed information about system's performance. Following are the files included in the System State data. A. Synchronous SCSI has a maximum data transfer rate of 5 MBps.www. Chapter 27 . Microsoft TechNet CD. System state data C. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect.certkiller.

"Windows NT". Contents. "Windows NT Server".www. It needs only one tape to restore data. Reference. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. TechNet. D. To minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. Answer options B and C are incorrect. The company has a Windows NT based network consisting of four Windows NT servers. In case of server failure. On weekdays. A full backup takes maximum time and space. since the last incremental or full backup. Performing full backup on weekdays will not reduce the number of tapes to be backed up. He also wants to minimize the number of tapes to be restored in case of server failure. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and a differential backup every weekend. He will perform a full backup every weekend and an incremental backup on weekdays.c om 223 . Which of the following backup strategies will he implement to accomplish this task? A. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. or are new.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam database (on cluster node only) Registry IIS metabase Performance counter configuration information Component Services Class registration database QUESTION NO: 508 James works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. Answer: A Explanation: What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. C. James wants to implement a new backup strategy for Server1 to minimize the number of tapes to be backed up. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. "Concepts and Planning Manual" Chapter. He will perform a full backup on weekdays and an incremental backup every weekend. One of the servers named Server1 is configured for a daily full backup at 5. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. He will perform a full backup every weekend and a differential backup on weekdays. James will have to restore the last full backup and all the incremental backups since the last full backup. James has to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup.com rtK ille r. "Types of Backup" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . "Backing Up and Restoring Network Files" Topic. "Windows Product Family".certkiller. Answer option D is incorrect. In case of server failure. James should perform a full backup every weekend (instead of weekdays). B. This will increase the number of tapes to be restored. a differential backup will reduce the number of tapes to be restored. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. "Manuals".00PM.

Which settings are important on the IDE drives? A. It checks the processor's internal cache. TechNet. Each IDE drive must support the Master.certkiller. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). Configure hardware ID C. known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. devices. The Master and Slave setting is accomplished by jumper. Reference. D. B. C. and both are set as Master . and device drivers. The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip. It consults the chipset to determine which system resources are available for the card and then configures the new device. and Cable Select settings.www.c om . D. Slave. "Guided Tour for Administrators" QUESTION NO: 510 You want to attach two IDE drives to an IDE controller on your server system. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. What is BIOS? Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware components.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 509 What does BIOS do when a Plug and Play card is installed? A. you have to set one drive as the Master and the other as the Slave. none of them will work. Master and Slave jumper settings Answer: D Explanation: If you want to attach two IDE drives to a particular controller. What is Plug and Play feature? Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. Contents. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) first determines the available system resources and then configures the new device.com 224 Ce rtK ille r. It uninstalls the device drivers of other cards during the installation. a set of pins on the hard disk drive. If you are installing only one drive through the IDE controller. If you have two IDE drives in your system. on the motherboard. Place a terminator on the IDE controller. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. Place a terminator on the back of the hard disk drive. "Slay Your Exams" . Answer: D Explanation: At the time of the installation of a Plug and Play card. or both are set as Slave . B. It reads a device driver for the card. you should install it with the Master setting.

such as a single DSL line or cable modem. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. The initial stages of some network based installation systems (such as Solaris Jumpstart. It secures both data and password. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516.c om 225 . Answer option D is incorrect.certkiller. 8 B.www. It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet. QUESTION NO: 512 How many devices can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port? A. Answer option C is incorrect. TFTP can be implemented in a very small amount of memory. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. PPP supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. with the functionality of a very basic form of File Transfer Protocol (FTP). PPPoE Answer: A Explanation: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. TFTP C. TCP/IP.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 511 Which of the following protocols provides the highest level of VPN security with a VPN connection that uses the L2TP protocol? A. It can connect to a network running on IPX. It is used to transfer small amounts of data between hosts on a network. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol. It is useful for booting computers such as routers which did not have any data storage devices. PPP D. TFTP uses UDP port 69 for communication. 127 Ce "Slay Your Exams" . such as IP phone firmware or operating system images when a remote X Window System terminal or any other thin client boots from a network host or server. Answer option B is incorrect. Red Hat Kickstart and Windows NT's Remote Installation Services) use TFTP to load a basic kernel that performs the actual installation.com rtK ille r. PPP supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. or NetBEUI protocol. IPSec B. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP).

www.c Which of the following is used by a Pentium II processor? om . Slot A D. QUESTION NO: 514 How many bits is the width of the system data bus for Pentium Processors? A.1394 and USB".0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1. 32 C. Answer option D is incorrect. Microsoft. IBM.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps.I/O Interfaces from Serial and Parallel to IEEE. scanners etc. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. 16 "Slay Your Exams" . "Upgrading and Repairing PCs (Academic Edition)" by Scott Mueller Contents. "USB Technical Details" QUESTION NO: 513 Answer: B Explanation: Pentium II processors use single edge connector (SEC). which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. whereas USB 2.1. Socket 8 B. Pentium Pro processors use Socket 8. Intel. also known as Slot 1. is similar to an expansion card. tape drives. 1 Answer: B Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq. 256 D. such as CD-ROM drives. USB 1.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect. "Chapter 13 . keyboards. 64 B. USB 2. SEC C. AMD Athlon processors use Slot A. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices. USB supports hot plugging. and Northern Telecom.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps. A single edge connector (SEC). Pentium processors use Socket 7. NEC. Socket 7 r.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference. DEC.com 226 Ce rtK ille A.

An I/O address is a method of transferring information directly from a disk drive to a memory location. An I/O address is the display adapter address on the CPU.certkiller. IRQs. I/O address allows the CPU to send instructions to devices installed on the bus slot of a computer. The Intel Pentium Pro microprocessor has a 64bit data bus. which requires processor's attention. IRQ. I/O address is a hexadecimal number that the CPU uses to identify a device. Answer: B QUESTION NO: 516 Which of the following RAID arrays continues to operate with up to two failed drives? A.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. and DMA channels must be correctly configured. An I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU. "Slay Your Exams" . and DMAs are configurable aspects of communication between devices inside a PC. The CPU needs a memory address.www. known as Input/Output (I/O) address. its I/O address. 128 Answer: B Explanation: Intel Pentium microprocessors are based on 32-bit data bus width microprocessors. B. C. QUESTION NO: 515 Which of the following statements about I/O address is true? A. D. An I/O address is an event. such as a sound card or internal modem is installed in a PC. RAID 6 D. RAID 5 Answer: C Explanation: Ce Explanation: I/O address is a communication port between a device and the CPU.c om 227 . The Intel 80286 microprocessor has a 16-bit data bus. Resources such as I/O addresses.com rtK ille r. to communicate with any peripheral device. The Intel 486 series microprocessor also has a 32-bit data bus. RAID 0 C. Whenever a component. RAID 1 B.

www. It provides fault tolerance from two drive failures. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk. This type of disk array continues to operate with up to two failed drives. especially for high availability systems. The larger the drive.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID 6 is known as a striped set with dual distributed parity. It is a device used to filter out the effects of voltage spikes and surges. It supplies power to the devices in case of a power failure. These arrays cannot continue to operate with up to two failed drives What is RAID-5? RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. but lower writing performance. Answer option B is incorrect. the longer the rebuild will take. the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The surge protector is a device used to smooth out power variations by filtering out the effects of voltage spikes and surges that are present in commercial power sources. It is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. also known as disk striping. Sag is a brief decrease in "Slay Your Exams" .wikipedia. Answer: C Explanation: A brownout is the situation of voltage drop in power supply. in case a disk in the set fails. C. This parity information allows the disks in the array to keep functioning. but to a set of disks. Reference. The final disk contains the parity information.//en. Answer options D and A are incorrect. In mirroring. The overloading of a primary power source can cause brownouts. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume. RAID-5 provides fault tolerance. In this disk system. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk.com 228 Ce rtK ille r. If a disk fails. B. Dual parity gives time to rebuild the array without the data being at risk if a (single) additional drive fails before the rebuild is complete.c om . data is kept on two physical disks. This makes larger RAID groups more practical. the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. D. Answer option A is incorrect. What is RAID-1? RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault. Answer option B is incorrect. is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk.org/wiki/RAID" QUESTION NO: 517 Which of the following statements is true about a brownout? A. It contains a minimum of three disks.certkiller. "http. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. RAID 6 becomes increasingly important because large-capacity drives lengthen the time needed to recover from the failure of a single drive. Single parity RAID levels are vulnerable to data loss until the failed drive is rebuilt. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. What is RAID-0? RAID-0. data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks.tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. Due to data redundancy. Data once lost cannot be recovered. It is a brief decrease in voltage at the power source. It does not provide data redundancy.

only the UPS charging circuit is affected. Answer option D is incorrect. Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) continues to supply power to the devices in case of power failure. Users on the network report that the file server responds very slowly. The RESTART SERVER -na command is used to restart the server without using the autoexec. Answer option B is incorrect.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam voltage at the power source. Which of the following tools can Mark use to diagnose the issue? A. NSSMU B. It also provides protection against power surges. The Novell Storage Services Management Utility (NSSMU) is a console-based utility for managing NSS storage media on a server. the administrator can view the operational status such as the number of Current Disk Requests and the number of Open Files. RESTART SERVER -na D. while the computer gets normal power. QUESTION NO: 518 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. the problem can be diagnosed.com rtK ille r. QUESTION NO: 519 Which of the following is an error detection technique. NSSMU is the interface that is used to set up basic NSS storage solution during the NetWare installation.certkiller. FTP C.ncf file. The DOWN -f command is used to restart the server without prompting the user. MONITOR Answer: D Explanation: In order to diagnose the issue.c om 229 . DARPA B. The company's network has a file server with a Novell Netware operating system. Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) Ce "Slay Your Exams" . DOWN -f C. consisting of a cyclic algorithm performed on each block of data by both sending and receiving modems? A. Mark can use the MONITOR tool. EDI D. Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. using battery backup. When power surge occurs. The MONITOR tool is used to view the operational status of the server memory and disks. Using this information.www. What is UPS? Uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that allows a computer to keep running for a short period of time in case of power failure or low voltage. By typing MONITOR at the server console.

the hot spare disk is switched into operation. What will Mark do to ensure that the disk array continues to work properly? r. DARPA stands for Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency. and then copy data from the backup. RAID-5. A hot spare disk is a disk or group of disks used to automatically or manually (depending on the hot spare policy) replace a failing or failed diskin a RAID configuration. Replace all the disks of the array. DARPA was previously known as Advanced Research Project Agency (ARPA). thereby reducing the probability of a second disk failure and the attendant data loss that would occur in any single redundant RAID disk. The Internet suite of protocols was developed under DARPA auspices.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Answer: D Explanation: Cyclic Redundancy Checking (CRC) is a procedure performed on transmitted data at the data-link level and used for detecting errors. Contents. and then replace the failed disk from the array. The hot spare disk is active and connected as part of a working RAID. FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. and then replace the failed disk from the array. One of the hard disks fails in the array. Answer: A Explanation: In order to keep the disk array working after the failure of one of the disk drives. When the sending modem has accumulated a buffer full of data for transmission. Mark will have to ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. Copy data to the hot spare disk from the backup manually. D. Answer option B is incorrect.com 230 Ce rtK ille Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. TechNet. Ensure that the array has completed rebuilding using the hot spare drive. the receiving modem transmits a positive acknowledgment. and the receiving modem transmits a negative acknowledgment. it goes through the same calculation. such as RAID-1. If there is a transmission error. "Slay Your Exams" .c om .www. and then add this disk to the RAID5 array. The company's network has a file server that contains eight 20GB hard disk drives with a hot spare disk drive. it applies a formula to the data block for calculating a value. The application protocol offers file service in the Internet suite of protocols. When a disk fails. when ARPANET was built. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI). A Primer on Asynchronous Modem Communication QUESTION NO: 520 A. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference. C. is computer-to-computer exchange of data related to commercial transactions using agreed upon formats and networks.certkiller. Activate the hot spare disk drive before rebuilding the array. the second CRC value will not equal the original one. B. recreate a RAID-5 array. If these two CRCs match. The hot spare disk reduces the mean time to repair a RAID redundancy group. Answer option C is incorrect. The originating modem then re-transmits the data block. When the receiving modem gets the data block.

Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. TechNet. as all but one are working properly. without shutting down the system? A. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination.www. QUESTION NO: 521 Which of the following utilities is used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network? A. Answer option D is incorrect. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Reference. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG Answer: B Explanation: Protocol Analyzer is a utility used to view the contents of a packet traveling on a network and diagnose network related issues such as.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam RAID-10. TRACERT D. Contents. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. subnet mask. Read. Hot swap C. Protocol Analyzer C. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. Answer option B is incorrect. "SMTP. Mark needs to remove only the failed disk. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. There is no such facility to activate a hot spare disk drive. Full duplex B. Answer option C is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration. the destination host responds with a series of replies.. such as IP address. This method will not help Mark to add a disk to the RAID-5 array. On receiving the packets. Err Msg.com rtK ille r. default gateway etc. (52) Network Dropped Connection or Reset [Q100706]" QUESTION NO: 522 Which of the following features allows you to install a new disk drive. slow performance etc. There is no need to replace all the disks of the array.c om 231 .certkiller. PING B. or remove and replace a failed disk drive. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host. ReadyBoost Ce "Slay Your Exams" . of a networked computer.

Differential backup requires only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. It is faster as compared to full backup. which helps to provide inexpensive methods to improve performance where RAM is a bottleneck. devices. Answer option D is incorrect. A full backup every Friday and incremental backups from Monday to Thursday B. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). A differential backup every night "Slay Your Exams" . Which of the following backup policies will you choose? r. It requires minimum space to backup data.certkiller. A full backup once a month and an incremental backup daily C. The Plug and Play feature is a combination of hardware and software support. Plug and play Answer: B Explanation: The hot swap technology is used to install a new device. without shutting down the operating system or powering off the system.www.c om 232 . The number of tapes required to restore data should be minimized. or remove and replace a failed device. QUESTION NO: 524 Ce A. Full-duplex transmission is a two-way electronic communication that can send and receive data simultaneously. Answer option C is incorrect. Answer option A is incorrect. You are developing a backup policy for the company and want to accomplish the following goals. What is differential backup? Differential backup backs up files that are created or changed since the last full backup.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam D. QUESTION NO: 523 Answer: C Explanation: In order to minimize the number of tapes required to back up data. which enables a computer to recognize and adapt to hardware configuration changes without user intervention. The Plug and Play system requires the interaction of the operating system. This is because in the event of data loss. and device drivers. A full backup every Friday and differential backups from Monday to Thursday D. Using this technology. you will have to restore only the last full backup and the last differential backup. you should perform a full backup every Friday. Full-duplex is a hardware feature that is available in many sound and network cards. The number of tapes required to back up data should be minimized. Performing differential backups from Monday to Thursday will reduce the number of tapes required to restore data. ReadyBoost is a feature of Windows Vista. a device such as a disk drive or CD ROM drive can be replaced while the computer using it remains in operation.com rtK ille You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.

Choose two. Both GenericPrincipal and GenericIdentity classes are used in conjunction with each other to create an authorization scheme. These changes were made to improve efficiency and safety. Sam wants to ensure that only validated users are permitted to access WebService1 by entering their user names and passwords in TextBox controls. named Text1 and Text2.certkiller. WindowsPrincipal C. AT motherboards are older motherboards that do not support soft power on switch.D Explanation: The GenericPrincipal class represents a generic principal. using System. using Visual Studio .CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Which of the following supports soft power on switch? A.Threading. WindowsIdentity B. using System. AT D. QUESTION NO: 525 Sam works as a Software Developer for SamTech Inc. A. He also wants to ensure that users are assigned the Manager role and the Subordinate role by default. I/O B. I/O and DIN are not types of motherboards.NET Framework security class libraries to implement security. It implements rolebased authorization based on a SQL Server database containing user names.NET. which prevents users from putting it backwards by mistake.Principal. The 20-pin plug can only plug in one way. I/O stands for Input/Output. The GenericIdentity class represents a generic identity.com 233 Ce rtK ille r. He creates an XML Web service.Security. GenericPrincipal Answer: C. He wants to implement imperative security check on WebService1. Answer option C is incorrect. An ATX motherboard has a single 20-pin power connector. WebService1 uses the . DIN is a type of connector. ATX C. GenericIdentity D. An ATX motherboard has a logic switch. Sam adds the following statements to the Web service code. named WebService1. Answer options D and A are incorrect. These two classes can be used to prompt users for "Slay Your Exams" . DIN Answer: B Explanation: ATX is a type of motherboard that supports soft power on switch.www. which controls the power supply. ATX motherboards have had several modifications on the electrical side.c om . Which of the following classes will Sam use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.

"GenericIdentity Class". to check these values against a database. Imperative security check supports dynamic determination of permissions. These are the most widely used networks now-a-days. 200 meters B.NET Combined Collection. It works by instantiating security classes and using them directly. The topology used in these networks is star. What is imperative security check? Imperative security check is a security check that occurs on calling a security method within the code being protected.com rtK ille r. required in a given execution context. The following table lists the 100BaseTX specifications.NET Framework class library. 100BaseTX Ethernet uses twoof the four wire-pairs in the category 5 UTP cable. or member level. Contents.certkiller. You decide to use 100BaseTX cabling to interconnect the offices. It cannot be used to check the group membership of a user. What is the maximum length of cable that you can use? "Slay Your Exams" . The maximum cable segment length of 100BaseTX is 100 meters . The number 100 used in the name indicates that these networks run at the speed of 100 Mbps using category 5 UTP cable. What is declarative security check? Declarative security check is a security check performed on the declarative information in metadata. which is used to check the Windows group membership of a Windows user. It uses attributes to place security information into the metadata of application code. It can be isolated within an object or method. 5) Ce You are designing a TCP/IP-based network for Net Perfect Inc. WindowsPrincipal is a class of the . These attributes are used to indicate the type of demand or request.c om 234 . 2000 meters Answer: C Explanation: The 100BaseTX networks are known as fast Ethernet. Reference. Declarative security check provides optimized runtime execution of the application. The company's offices are in different buildings within a local premise. 1000 meters C.www. as it checks the declarative information in the metadata. "GenericPrincipal Class" QUESTION NO: 526 A. Declarative security check allows developers to invoke specified security functionality. "WindowsIdentity Class". "WindowsPrincipal Class". Answer option B is incorrect. It is used when the requested action and permission attributes are static.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam their user names and passwords. Answer option A is incorrect. Visual Studio . The WindowsIdentity class represents a Windows user. It can be performed either at load time or at runtime. 100 meters D. It can be used to check whether or not a user belongs to a domain user group. class. and to create principal and identity objects. Maximum segment length100 meters Speed 100 Mbps Topology Star Cable UTP (Cat. It is used when security decisions are to be taken on the basis of ors that are known only at runtime. and can be placed at the assembly.

Hence. Therefore. Add a tape drive. QUESTION NO: 528 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. 1GB RAM 600MHz Processor 10/100 mbps Ethernet NIC Hardware RAID5 subsystem You want to reconfigure the file server as a database server. C.c om . Adding a tape drive will not provide better performance. there is no need to add more RAM. processors are used extensively for data processing. Add an additional processor. A. Answer option B is incorrect. Answer: D Explanation: As the first step. Use data encryption C. The company's network has a file server with the following configuration. Install UPS systems on all important devices D. as a database server generates less traffic on the network as compared to a file server. What is a network interface card (NIC)? A network interface card (NIC) is a computer circuit board or card installed in a computer.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 527 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. A disk or its access path fails. Choose two.certkiller. There is no need to add an additional NIC on the server.com 235 Ce rtK ille r. having a single processor can be a bottleneck. full-time connection to a network. A sector on the disk cannot "Slay Your Exams" . What will be the first step you will take to improve performance? A. In a database server. The redundant information enables automatic regeneration of data if either of the following occur. B. you should add an additional processor on the database server. Network interface cards provide a dedicated. It provides physical connection between a computer and the network. Add an additional NIC. Add more RAM. The server has 1GB RAM. Answer option C is incorrect. D. Answer option A is incorrect. Install a RAID system Answer: A. Install and use a tape backup unit B.D Explanation: RAID is a fault-tolerant disk configuration in which part of the physical disk-storage capacity of a server contains a redundant data set.www. which is sufficient for a database server.

The Backup utility supports three modes of backup.certkiller. Reference. A tape backup can help by giving back the data. Answer option B is incorrect.com rtK ille r. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. Incremental.www. A. or are new.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam be read. TechNet. Choose two. which was backed up on the tape. Windows maintains a marker. Incremental Answer: C. A. Contents. for each file. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. Full D. Planning a Fault-Tolerant Disk Configuration. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. Answer option A is incorrect. Reference. "Description of Full. TechNet. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 530 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. i. Sequential B. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Differential C. it does not set the archive bit.e. There is no backup method such as sequential backup. earlier. Choose two. Differential Ce "Slay Your Exams" . since the last incremental or full backup. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure.D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup.. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. When a file changes later. Contents. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Sequential B. QUESTION NO: 529 Which of the following is a backup method that clears the archive bit of files after performing backup? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.c om 236 . It needs only one tape to restore data. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again.

D Explanation: Full and incremental backup methods clear the archive bit of files after performing backup. Windows maintains a marker. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure. i.com rtK ille r. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed. "Windows NT 4. Contents. You must run CONVERT.EXE to convert FAT partition to NTFS. Incremental. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. Reference.certkiller. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data.0 are. it does not set the archive bit. B.51 to Windows NT Workstation 4. for each file.e. EIDE. Contents. Answer option B is incorrect. When a file changes later.EXE to convert HPFS partition to NTFS.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam C. or ESDI hard disk 486/25 processor or better CDROM drive. You must upgrade the single speed CD-ROM. "Hardware requirement" + "Workstation". since the last incremental or full backup. "Description of Full. Incremental Answer: C. called the archive bit to allow backup programs to mark the files after backing them up. It needs only one tape to restore data. How will you proceed? "Slay Your Exams" . Full D. TechNet. or are new.www. C.0 Setup Troubleshooting Guide" Ce You want to upgrade your machine from Windows NT Workstation 3. Answer: D Explanation: Minimum hardware requirements for Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4. What is the Backup utility? Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. Differential backup does not mark files as having been backed up. SCSI. D. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. or active network connection Reference. There is no backup method such as sequential backup.0. You cannot upgrade this computer to Windows NT Workstation 4. TechNet. and Differential Backups [Q136621]" QUESTION NO: 531 A.0.c om 237 . The Backup utility supports three modes of backup. 12MB RAM VGA level video support Keyboard IDE. the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. Answer option A is incorrect.. Your machine has Intel 80386-33 MHz processor. floppy disk drive. Windows marks the file as requiring to be backed up again. You must run CONVERT.

C. running the Disk Defragmenter utility on the hard disk of the file server will improve its performance. What will you do to improve the server's performance? A. D. Over time. Therefore. When this utility is run on a computer.c om 238 . file data breaks into discontiguous fragments. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. The server has become slow after three months of working due to fragmentation of data on the file server's hard disk drive. the performance of the server has deteriorated. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks.www. Increase the paging file size on the file server. file data is written in contiguous blocks in a hard disk. Change the network adapter on the file server with a high speed card.certkiller. and the total space available on the computer's hard disk as shown below. however. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. unmovable files. After three months. contiguous files. The company's network has a file server. Answer: D Explanation: In order to improve the performance of the server. What is Disk Defragmenter? Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. you will have to run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. Run the Disk Defragmenter utility on the file server. The server responds slowly while users try to open their files. B. Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Run the SCANDISK utility on the file server. Although the hard disk is still able to read the file data. The server has two microprocessors on a dual processor motherboard.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 532 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc.com rtK ille r. it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files. Due to fragmentation. it takes a longer time.

CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 533 On your dual booting computer, you want to set Windows 98 as the default operating system at startup. In which file will you define this? A. BOOTSECT.DOS B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOT.INI D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C

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As per the analysis, it recommends the user whether or not the hard disk needs to be defragmented. A message appears automatically after the analysis of the hard disk is completed, and a user can take appropriate action accordingly. Answer option A is incorrect. Increasing the size of the paging file will increase the space occupied by it. This will not improve the performance of the file server, as the server has slowed down due to fragmentation of data on the hard disk drive. Answer option C is incorrect. Running the SCANDISK utility will not resolve the issue. What is SCANDISK? SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option B is incorrect. According to the question, the server has slowed down after working for three months. This clearly indicates that the network card cannot be the reason of slow performance. The problem is due to fragmentation of data on the server's HDD.

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CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam Explanation: You can define the default operating system at startup in the BOOT.INI file of a dual booting computer. BOOT.INI file describes the location of the boot partitions specified using Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) naming conventions. BOOT.INI contains information that NTLDR reads for loading the operating system. If multiple operating systems exist on a computer, BOOT.INI provides the choice of selecting an operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. BOOTSECT.DOS is a Windows NT/2000 file with hidden, system, and read-only attributes. NTLDR uses BOOTSECT.DOS when a computer is configured to multiboot option with MS-DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 9x. This cannot be used to configure the default operating system. Answer option B is incorrect. NTBOOTDD.SYS is the driver for a SCSI drive that does not have its BIOS enabled. Answer option D is incorrect. NTDETECT.COM file is one of the Windows NT/2000 startup files. It is located in the root of the startup disk. This file along with the NTBOOTDD.SYS file performs the initial hardware detection during the setup process and then passes the control to the kernel. The other files located in the root of the startup disk are NTLDR, BOOT.INI, and BOOTSECT.DOS (this file is available on a multiple boot system). Reference. TechNet, Contents. "Chapter 7 - Troubleshooting"

Answer: A

Explanation: Mark needs to check that the heartbeat cable is not cut or damaged and is connecting both servers properly. When the primary server is on, the failover server is in standby mode. The heartbeat cable is used to send messages from the failover server to the primary server. When the heartbeat cable no longer gets a reply message from the primary server, it switches the failover button on the external hard drives to the failover server. Within a few seconds, the failover server takes over and runs the hard drives. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Mark needs to first check the heartbeat cable that connects both servers to each other. Checking IP addresses could be a secondary option. Answer option D is incorrect. A DNS server has nothing to do with this issue.

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A. The heartbeat cable through which both servers are connected B. The failover server's IP address C. The primary server's IP address D. The DNS server on the network

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Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has two database servers with external hard disk drives. One server works as a primary server and the other as a failover server. Mark notices that the failover server takes over the primary server. However, the primary server is working properly. What will Mark first check in this condition?

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QUESTION NO: 535 Which of the following are the most likely causes of a virus attack? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Downloading a file from an unknown Website B. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source C. Installing a .DLL file from an unreliable source D. Installing an application from an unreliable source Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation: The following are the most likely causes of a virus attack. Using a floppy, a compact disk, or a pen drive from an unreliable source Downloading file(s) from an unknown Website Installing an application or a .DLL file from an unreliable source A virus is a program code that is written for the destruction of data. This program requires writable media. A virus can infect boot sectors, data files, and system files. A computer virus passes from one computer to another on the network in the same way as a biological virus passes from one person to another.

QUESTION NO: 536

Which of the following are coaxial cable connection hardware used in the networks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. BNC T connector B. The BNC terminator C. RJ-45 connector D. BNC barrel connector Answer: A,B,D Explanation: BNC T connectors joins the network interface card in the computer to the coaxial network cable. The BNC barrel connector is used to join two lengths of Thinnet coaxial cable to make one of longer length. Answer option C is incorrect. RJ-45 is a type of connector that is used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable and not with coaxial cable.

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QUESTION NO: 537 Which of the following techniques automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media? A. Failover clustering B. Datafile striping C. Storage area network (SAN) D. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) Answer: D

Explanation: Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a data storage technique which automatically moves data between high-cost and low-cost storage media. HSM systems exist because high-speed storage devices, such as hard disk drive arrays, are more expensive (per byte stored) than slower devices, such as optical discs and magnetic tape drives. While it would be ideal to have all data available on high-speed devices all the time, this is prohibitively expensive for many organizations. Instead, HSM systems store the bulk of the enterprise's data on slower devices, and then copy data to faster disk drives when needed. In effect, HSM turns the fast disk drives into caches for the slower mass storage devices. The HSM system monitors the way data is used and makes best guesses as to which data can safely be moved to slower devices and which data should stay on the fast devices. Answer option B is incorrect. Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Answer option C is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is a technique to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer option A is incorrect. Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2008 environment to provide high availability of applications. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hierarchical_storage_management"

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REGEDIT. Current Disk Queue Length C.com 243 Ce QUESTION NO: 539 rtK ille r. Answer option D is incorrect.EXE registry editor to edit registry entries of your Windows 2000 computer. REGEDIT. % Disk Time D. % Free Space B. The % Disk Time counter of the Physical Disk object is used to measure I/O bottlenecks on a physical disk array.EXE B. Answer option A is incorrect.www. Therefore. REGEDT32.certkiller. Answer option C is incorrect.EXE and REGEDIT. HARDREG. TechNet. Disk Writes/sec Answer: B Explanation: The Current Disk Queue Length counter of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available.0 [Q155267]" Which of the following counters of the Physical Disk object indicates how many I/O operations are waiting for the hard disk to become available? A.EXE D. the former is recommended for use in Windows 2000.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam QUESTION NO: 538 You want to change the hardware configuration settings in the registry of your Windows 2000 computer. Contents. REGEDITOR.c om .EXE is not recommended because it does not have a security menu or a read-only mode. "Registry Editors Installed by Windows NT 4. The Disk Writes/sec counter of the Physical Disk object shows the rate at which write operations were performed on the disk. Although both REGEDT32. But if the registry editor has to be used to modify configuration settings.EXE are installed during the setup of Windows 2000. Which of the following utilities will you use? A. "Slay Your Exams" .EXE Answer: A Explanation: You should use the REGEDT32. it is recommended that you modify configuration settings using either the Control Panel or Administrative Tools. Incorrect use of registry editor can cause serious problems in your computer.EXE C. Note. it is suggested that you either save a backup copy or open the file in read-only mode to prevent accidental modifications in the configuration data. The Registry Reference.

4740473b-b335-0d221994f685.microsoft.c om 244 . It is a counter of the Logical Disk object.certkiller.mspx?mfr=true" Ce "Slay Your Exams" . Reference.com rtK ille r. "http.com/technet/prodtechnol/exchange/guides/ExMgmtGuide/d145e28c.//www.www.CompTIA SK0-003: Practice Exam The % Free Space is not a counter of the Physical Disk object.

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