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Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A

AnimalPractice Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which represent adaptations to the same environmental challenge?


a. gastrovascular activity, two-layered body, and torpedo shape
b. large volume, long tubular body, wings
c. external respiratory surface, small size, two-layered body
d. complex internal structures, small size, large surface area
e. branched internal surfaces, small size, moist outer covering
____ 2. Which of the following ideas is not consistent with our understanding of animal structure?
a. The environment imposes similar problems on all animals.
b. The evolution of structure in an animal is influenced by its environment.
c. All but the simplest animals demonstrate the same hierarchical levels of organization.
d. Different animals contain fundamentally different categories of tissues.
e. Short-term adjustments to environmental changes are mediated by physiological organ
systems.
____ 3. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to
a. organs.
b. membranes.
c. organ systems.
d. organelles.
e. organisms.

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

____ 4. Which of the following numbers represents a tissue rich in hydroxyapatite?


a. 1
b. 5
c. 6
d. 9
e. 13
____ 5. Which of the following numbers represents a tissue rich in fat?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 6
d. 9
e. 13
____ 6. Which statement about standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BMR) is correct?
a. SMR measures energy use during exercise, and BMR is measured at rest.
b. SMR is a measure of metabolic rate in endotherms, and BMR is a measure of metabolic
rate in ectotherms.
c. The measurement of both SMR and BMR is temperature dependent.
d. Human females have a higher BMR and a lower SMR than males.
e. Both SMR and BMR are measured in a resting, fasting, nonstressed state.
____ 7. An extended low-fat diet will have the most significant effect on which of the following?
a. muscle mass
b. glucose utilization
c. basal metabolic rate (BMR)
d. standard metabolic rate (SMR)
e. energy reserves

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 8. Which of the following is the best example of an effector's response in negative feedback?
a. an increase in body temperature resulting from shivering
b. an increase in body temperature resulting from exercise
c. an increase in body temperature resulting from exposure to the sun
d. an increase in body temperature resulting from fever
e. a decrease in body temperature resulting from shock
____ 9. Most amphibians and land-dwelling invertebrates have what in common?
a. They are ectothermic organisms.
b. They use behavioral adaptations to maintain body temperature.
c. When on land, most have a net loss of heat across a moist body surface.
d. When in water, they are mainly thermoconformers.
e. Invertebrates have nothing in common with amphibians when it comes to regulating body
temperatures.
____ 10. Where is the thermostat of vertebrates located?
a. medulla oblongata
b. thyroid gland
c. hypothalamus
d. subcutaneous layer of the skin
e. liver

Match the terms below to the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all
A. ectothermy
B. endothermy
C. evaporation
D. torpor
E. thermogenesis

____ 11. absorption of heat from the surroundings


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 12. Which one of the following statements about obesity is false?
a. The majority of the people in the United States are either obese or overweight.
b. Obesity contributes to diabetes, cancer of the colon and breasts, and cardiovascular
disease.
c. Inheritance is a major factor in obesity.
d. As adipose tissue increases, leptin blood levels rise.
e. If a person's excess calories were stored as carbohydrates instead of fat, that person
would weigh less.
____ 13. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin C
d. iodine
e. calcium

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 14. Which of the following digestive processes requires enzymes?


a. ingestion
b. peristalsis
c. absorption
d. hydrolysis
e. elimination
____ 15. To leave the digestive tract, a substance must cross a cell membrane. During which stage of food processing
does this take place?
a. ingestion
b. digestion
c. hydrolysis
d. absorption
e. elimination
____ 16. Which one of the following has a shape most like an animal with a gastrovascular cavity?
a. a drinking straw
b. a baseball bat
c. a garden hose
d. an umbrella
e. a vase
____ 17. Most enzymatic hydrolysis of the macromolecules in food occurs in the
a. small intestine.
b. large intestine.
c. stomach.
d. liver.
e. mouth.

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

The following questions refer to the digestive system structures in the figure below.

____ 18. Where does the complete digestion of carbohydrates occur?


a. 3 only
b. 4 only
c. 1 and 4
d. 3 and 4
e. 1, 3, and 4
____ 19. Where are the agents that help emulsify fat produced?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
e. 9
____ 20. Where does the digestion of fats occur?
a. 3 only
b. 4 only
c. 1 and 4
d. 3 and 4
e. 1, 3, and 4
____ 21. How does the digestion and absorption of fat differ from that of carbohydrates?
a. Processing of fat does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of
carbohydrates does.
b. Fat absorption occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small
intestine.
c. Carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not.
d. Most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter
the blood.
e. Only fat must be worked on by bacteria in the large intestine before it can be absorbed.

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 22. In humans, about 7 liters of fluid are secreted each day into the intestinal tract. Which of the following does
not secrete fluid?
a. salivary glands
b. stomach
c. liver
d. pancreas
e. large intestine
____ 23. Which portion of the digestive tract is most like a hallway in a school building, connecting one classroom to
another?
a. stomach
b. esophagus
c. small intestine
d. liver
e. pancreas
____ 24. Which of the following would probably contribute to constipation? A substance that
a. contains plenty of fiber.
b. promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine.
c. speeds up movement of material in the large intestine.
d. decreases water reabsorption in the large intestine.
e. stimulates peristalsis.

Refer to the diagram of the human heart in the figure below to answer the following questions.

____ 25. Which sequence of blood flow can be observed in either a reptile or a mammal?
a. left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
b. right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation
c. pulmonary vein → left atrium → ventricle → pulmonary circuit
d. vena cava → right atrium → ventricle → pulmonary circuit
e. right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 26. Average blood pressure is lowest in which structure(s)?


a. the aorta
b. arteries
c. arterioles
d. capillaries
e. venae cavae
____ 27. Which of the following is correct for a blood pressure reading of 130/80?
I. The systolic pressure is 130.
II. The diastolic pressure is 80.
III. The blood pressure during heart contraction is 80.

a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II, and III
____ 28. If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the
hydrostatic pressure, then
a. hemoglobin will not release oxygen.
b. fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues.
c. the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase.
d. most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues.
e. plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries.
____ 29. Human plasma proteins include which of the following?
I. fibrinogen
II. hemoglobin
III. immunoglobulin

a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III only
d. II and III only
e. I, II, and III

The following phrases refer to the five terms below. Each term can be used as an answer once, more than
once, or not at all.

A. low-density lipoproteins
B. immunoglobulins
C. erythropoietin
D. epinephrine
E. platelets

____ 30. speeds up heart rate


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 31. part of the cellular elements of the blood


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

Match the following phrases to the conditions. Each condition may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.

A. atherosclerosis
B. arteriosclerosis
C. hypertension
D. heart murmur
E. cardiovascular thrombus

____ 32. defect in one or more of the valves of the heart


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 33. plaque formation by infiltration of lipids into arterial smooth muscles
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 34. Which of the following features do all gas exchange systems have in common?
a. The exchange surfaces are moist.
b. They are enclosed within ribs.
c. They are maintained at a constant temperature.
d. They are exposed to air.
e. They are found only in animals.
____ 35. All of the following respiratory surfaces are associated with capillary beds except the
a. gills of fishes.
b. alveoli of lungs.
c. tracheae of insects.
d. skin of earthworms.
e. skin of frogs.
____ 36. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg. Oxygen gas is approximately 21% of the total gases in the
atmosphere. What is the approximate partial pressure of oxygen?
a. 0.2 mm Hg
b. 20.0 mm Hg
c. 76.0 mm Hg
d. 160.0 mm Hg
e. 508.0 mm Hg

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 37. Which one of these statements about lungs is false?


a. Gas exchange takes place across moist membranes.
b. The gases move across the exchange membranes by diffusion.
c. The total exchange surface area is relatively large.
d. The lining of the alveoli is only one cell thick.
e. The concentration of CO2 is higher in the air than in the alveolar capillaries.

Use the data shown below to answer the following questions.

Blood entering a capillary bed of a vertebrate was measured for the pressures exerted by various factors.
Arterial End of Capillary Verous End of
Bed Capillary Bed
Hydrostatic pressure 8 mm Hg 14 mm Hg
Osmotic pressure 26 mm Hg 26 mm Hg
PO 2 100 mm Hg 42 mm Hg
P CO 2 40 mm Hg 46 mm Hg

____ 38. Which of the following is false concerning the hemoglobin molecule?
a. It contains amino acids.
b. It contains iron.
c. It is composed of four polypeptide chains.
d. It can bind four O2 molecules.
e. It is found in humans only.
____ 39. The innate immunity that protects a person digging in the garden from developing a microbial infection
includes all of the following except
a. lymphocytes.
b. the skin.
c. mucous membranes.
d. acidic secretions.
e. antimicrobial proteins.
____ 40. A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do which of the following?
a. inactivate the hemocytes
b. stimulate apoptosis of body cells
c. stimulate release of interferons
d. stimulate natural killer cell activity
e. activate a group of proteins called complement
____ 41. The clonal selection theory implies that
a. brothers and sisters have similar immune responses.
b. antigens activate specific lymphocytes.
c. only certain cells can produce interferon.
d. a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
e. the body selects which antigens it will respond to.

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 42. A patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but he does not produce antibodies against
viral infections. This is probably due to a disorder in which cells of the immune system?
a. B cells
b. plasma cells
c. natural killer cells
d. T cells
e. macrophages

For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them.
A. cytotoxic T cells
B. natural killer cells
C. helper T cells
D. macrophages
E. B cells

____ 43. These cells are involved in innate immunity, and a person lacking these cells may have a higher than normal
chance of developing malignant tumors.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 44. Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells?
a. B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs
b. body cell becomes infected with a virus → synthesis of new viral proteins → class I
MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface
c. self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released
d. complement cells → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines
released
e. cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines
released → cell lysis
____ 45. A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
a. respond to T-independent antigens.
b. lyse tumor cells.
c. stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
d. interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
e. interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
____ 46. When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by
a. the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions.
b. disulfide bridges between the antigens.
c. complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
d. bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
e. denaturation of the antibodies.
____ 47. The successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen
a. is dependent on the surface antigens of the pathogen not changing.
b. requires a rearrangement of the B cell receptor antibodies.
c. is not possible without knowing the structure of the surface antigens on the pathogen.
d. is dependent on the pathogen having only one epitope.
e. is dependent on MHC molecules being heterozygous.

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 48. What would be the major concern for an individual with type A blood who receives a transfusion of type B
blood?
a. the antibodies in the serum of the donor
b. the antibodies in the serum of the recipient
c. the anti-A antibodies produced by the donor
d. the production of memory cells that will occur in the recipient
e. antibodies in both the donor's and recipient's serum

Use the data below to answer the following questions..


Case 1 Case 2 Case 3
Mother Rh -
Rh -
Rh+
Fetus + -
Rh Rh Rh-

____ 49. In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give the mother anti-Rh antibodies before
delivering her baby?
a. case 1 only
b. case 3 only
c. cases 1 and 2 only
d. cases 1, 2, and 3
e. It cannot be determined from the data given.
____ 50. In which of the cases could the mother exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus?
a. case 1 only
b. case 3 only
c. cases 1 and 2 only
d. cases 1, 2, and 3
e. It cannot be determined from the data given.
____ 51. An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because
a. MHC molecules of the host may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue.
b. the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter
into an immune response.
c. a response to the graft will involve T cells and a response to the bacterium will not.
d. a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells.
e. the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.
____ 52. All of the following are usually considered disorders of the immune system except
a. AIDS.
b. SCID.
c. lupus erythematosus.
d. multiple sclerosis.
e. MHC-induced transplant rejection.
____ 53. A person with AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following diseases?
a. cancer
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. hepatitis
d. tuberculosis
e. influenza

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 54. In a typical multicellular animal, the circulatory system interacts with various specialized surfaces in order to
exchange materials with the exterior environment. Which of the following is not an example of such an
exchange surface?
a. lung
b. muscle
c. skin
d. intestine
e. kidney
____ 55. Which of the following is true about the activity levels of a snake?
a. A snake is less active in winter because the food supply is decreased.
b. A snake is less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators.
c. A snake is more active in summer because that is the period for mating.
d. A snake is more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction.
e. A snake is more active in summer as a result of being disturbed by other animals.
____ 56. Which of the following do not need a digestive system?
a. heterotrophs
b. autotrophs
c. herbivores
d. omnivores
e. carnivores
____ 57. In general, herbivorous mammals have molars modified for
a. cutting.
b. ripping.
c. grinding.
d. splitting.
e. piercing.
____ 58. Which of the following are the only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body
tissues without first returning to the heart?
a. amphibians
b. birds
c. fishes
d. mammals
e. reptiles
____ 59. Air flows in only one direction through the lungs of which animals?
a. frogs
b. birds
c. mammals
d. crocodiles
e. flying insects
____ 60. Why is the respiratory system of a bird more efficient than the human respiratory system?
a. The bird respiratory system does not mix exhaled air with inhaled air.
b. A bird lung contains multiple alveoli, which increases the amount of surface area
available for gas exchange.
c. The human respiratory system ends in small parabronchi, which reduce the amount of
surface area available for gas exchange.
d. Only B and C are correct.
e. A, B, and C are correct.

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 61. The blood level of which gas is most important in controlling human respiration rate?
a. nitric acid
b. nitrogen
c. oxygen
d. carbon dioxide
e. carbon monoxide
____ 62. Which of the following is a false statement about innate immunity?
a. They include inflammatory responses.
b. They include physical and chemical barriers.
c. They must be primed by the presence of antigen.
d. They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes.
e. Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process.
____ 63. Which of the following is not a part of an antibody molecule?
a. the epitope
b. the constant or C regions
c. the variable or V regions
d. the light chains
e. the heavy chains
____ 64. A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to two weeks because
a. specific B cells and T cells must be selected prior to a protective response.
b. it takes up to two weeks to stimulate immunologic memory cells.
c. phagocytic cells must first be activated by the complement system.
d. antigen receptors are not the same.
e. V-J gene rearrangement must occur prior to a response.

Use the graph in the figure below to answer the following questions.

____ 65. When would memory cells be produced?


a. between 0 and 7 days
b. between 7 and 14 days
c. between 28 and 35 days
d. between 35 and 42 days
e. both A and C

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Name: ________________________ ID: A

____ 66. Which of the following is true of both T cells and B cells?
a. They produce effector cells against specific pathogens.
b. They are produced from stem cells of the bone marrow.
c. They can attack and destroy invading pathogens.
d. Only A and B are true.
e. A, B, and C are true.
____ 67. Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal?
a. Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens.
b. Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
c. Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell.
d. Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.
e. Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response.
____ 68. Which of the following types of cells is not involved in both antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated
immunity?
a. pathogenic cells
b. plasma cells
c. helper T cells
d. macrophages
e. memory cells
____ 69. A major difference between active and passive immunity is that active immunity requires
a. acquisition and activation of antibodies.
b. proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
c. transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
d. direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
e. secretion of interleukins from macrophages.
____ 70. There is usually no concern if the mother's blood type is different from that of the developing fetus unless the
Rh factor is involved. This is because
a. the mother naturally develops a passive immunity to Rh unless she has had an
Rh-positive child.
b. fetal blood cells can cross the placenta.
c. maternal blood cells can cross the placenta.
d. maternal Rh antibodies can cross the placenta, whereas those against the ABO blood
groups cannot.
e. maternal Rh antibodies cannot cross the placenta, whereas those against the ABO blood
groups can.

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ID: A

AnimalPractice Test
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.1


2. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.1
3. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.2
4. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.2
5. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.2
6. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.3
7. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.3
8. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.4
9. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.5
10. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.5
11. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.5
12. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.1
13. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.2
14. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.3
15. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.3
16. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.3
17. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
18. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
19. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
20. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
21. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
22. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
23. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
24. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.4
25. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.1 | Concept 42.2
26. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.3
27. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.3
28. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.3
29. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.4
30. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.2
31. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.4
32. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.2
33. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.4
34. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.1 | Concept 42.5
35. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.1 | Concept 42.5
36. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.6
37. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.6
38. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.7
39. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.1
40. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.1

1
ID: A

41. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.2


42. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.2
43. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
44. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
45. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
46. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
47. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
48. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4
49. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4
50. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4
51. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4
52. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4 | Concept 43.5
53. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.5
54. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.2
55. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 40.5
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.3
57. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 41.5
58. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.1 | Concept 42.2
59. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.6
60. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.6
61. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 42.6
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.1
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.2
64. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.2
65. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.2
66. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.2
67. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
68. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
69. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.3
70. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 43.4