1. The Revised Penal Code shall be applied even outside the Philippines in which of these cases?

a. Should commit an offense while on a Philippine ship or airship

b. Should forge or counterfeit any coin or currency note of the Philippine
Islands or obligations and securities issued by the Government of the
Philippine Islands;
c. Should be liable for acts connected with the introduction into these islands of the obligations and securities mentioned in the presiding
number;
d. While being public officers or employees, should commit an offense in the exercise of their functions;
e. Should commit any of the crimes against national security and the law of nations, defined in Title One of Book Two of this Code.
f. All of these
2. Acts and omissions punishable by law are:
a. felonies b. crimes c. offense d. infractions
3. Felonies are committed not only be means of deceit (dolo) but also by means of:
a. Fault/culpa b. malice
4. There is deceit when the act is performed with deliberate intent and there is fault when the wrongful act results from imprudence,
negligence, lack of foresight, or
a. lack of skill b. Lack of diligence
5. This is committed by any person performing an act which would be an offense against persons or property, were it not for the inherent
impossibility of its accomplishment or an account of the employment of inadequate or ineffectual means.
a. impossible crimes b. Indeterminate offense
6. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem proper to repress and which is not punishable by law, it shall render the
proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Executive, through the _______, the reasons which induce the court to believe that said act
should be made the subject of
legislation.
a. Supreme Court b. Department of Justice
7. If the judge feels that the penalty imposed by the law is excessive, he/court shall submit to the Chief Executive, through the
Department of Justice, such statement as may be deemed proper, without suspending the execution of the sentence, when a strict
enforcement of the provisions of this Code would result in the imposition of a clearly excessive penalty, taking into consideration which of
these?
a. the degree of malice
b. the injury caused by the offense
c. Both of these
8. A felony is _______ when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
a. Consummated b. Frustrated
9. A felony is _________ when the offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the felony as a consequence but
which, nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
a. consummated b. frustrated
10. The felony is ______ when the offender commences the commission of a felony directly or over acts, and does not perform all the acts
of execution which should produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than this own spontaneous desistance.
a. frustrated b. attempted
11. Light felonies are punishable only when they have been consummated, with the exception of those committed against:
a. person b. Property c. Both of these
12. Conspiracy and proposal to commit felony are punishable only in the cases in which the law specially provides a penalty therefor. The
statement is:
a. true b. False
13. This _______ exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony and decide to commit it.
a. conspiracy b. proposal
14. This takes place when the person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to some other person or persons.
a. conspiracy b. proposal
15. _________ are those to which the law attaches the capital punishment or penalties which in any of their periods are afflictive.
a. grave felonies b. Less grave felonies
16. _______ are those which the law punishes with penalties which in their maximum period are correctional.
a. grave felonies b. Less grave felonies
17. These are those infractions of law for the commission of which a penalty of arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both is
provided.
a. grave felonies b. Light felonies
18. Offenses which are or in the future may be punishable special laws are not subject to the provisions of the Revised Penal Code. The
statement is:
a. true b. False
19. The Revised Penal Code shall be supplementary to _______, unless the latter should specially provide the contrary.
a. constitution b. Special laws
20. Which of these is requisite of self defense?
a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself. d. all of these
21. Which of these is requisite of defense of relatives only?
a. unlawful aggression
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. in case the revocation was given by the person attacked, that the one making defense had no part therein
d. all of the above
22. Which of these is requisite of defense of strangers only?
a. unlawful aggression
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. the person defending be not induced by revenge, resentment, or other evil motive
d. all of the above
23. Which of these is requisite of avoidance of greater evil?
a. That the evil sought to be avoided actually exists;
b. That the injury feared be greater than that done to avoid it
c. That there be no other practical and less harmful means of preventing it. d. All of these
24. An imbecile or an insane person is exempted from criminal liability, unless the latter has acted during:
a. a sleep b. Lucid interval
25. Surrender to be mitigating must be made to which of these?
a. person in authority b. Agent of a person in authority c. All of these
26. The voluntary confession of guilt must be made:
a. prior to the presentation of evidence for prosecution
b. after the presentation of evidence for the prosecution
27. Which is a condition before being deaf and dumb, blind or otherwise suffering some physical defect may be considered mitigating?
a. they must restrict the offenders means of action, defense, or communications with his fellow beings
b. they must be so grave in nature and certified by a government physician
28. Night time, uninhabited place, or by a band, are aggravating if:
a. whenever such circumstances may facilitate the commission of the offense
b. whenever specially sought for by the offender to insure or afford impunity c. all of these
29. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense, it shall be deemed to have
been committed by a
_____.
a. brigands b. band
30. He is one who, at the time of his trial for one crime, shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
a. Quasi recidivist b. recidivist
31. The aggravating circumstance where the offender has been previously punished by an offense to which the law attaches an equal or
greater penalty or for two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty.
a. recidivist b. Reiteration/habituality
32. There is _________ when the offender commits any of the crimes against the person, employing means, methods, or forms in the
execution thereof which tend directly and specially to insure its execution, without risk to himself arising from the defense which the offended
party might make.
a. treachery b. alevosia c. cuadrilla d. Some of these
33. This aggravating circumstance states that the wrong done in the commission of the crime be deliberately augmented by causing other
wrong not necessary for its commissions.
a. ignominy b. cruelty
34. These are those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and effects of the crime
and the other conditions attending its commission.
a. aggravating circumstances b. Alternative circumstances
35. Which of these is alternative circumstance?
a. relationship b. intoxication
c. degree of instruction and education of the offender d. all of these
36. The alternative circumstance of relationship shall be taken into consideration when the offended party is which of the following?
a. the spouse, ascendant, descendant, legitimate, natural, or adopted brother or sister, or relative by affinity in the same degrees of the
offender.
b. Brothers, sisters, nephew, niece cousin of the offender.
37. The intoxication of the offender shall be taken into consideration as a _______ circumstances when the offender has committed a
felony in a state of intoxication, if the same is not habitual or subsequent to the plan to commit said felony.
a. mitigating b. Aggravating
38. Intoxication shall be aggravating if:
a. habitual b. Intentional c. both a and b d. accidental
39. Which of these is criminally liable for grave and less grave felonies?
a. principal
b. accomplices
c. accessories
d. all of these
40. Which of these is criminally liable for light felonies?
a. principal d. only a and b
b. Accomplices e. Principal only
c. accessories
41.Those who directly force or induce others to commit it is a principal by what?
a. direct participation b. Inducement/induction
42. Those who cooperate in the commission of the offense by another act without which it would not have been accomplished, is what
type of principal?
a. direct participation b. Indispensable cooperation
43. These are persons who, not principals, cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
a. accomplices b. accessories
44. They are those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, and without having participated therein, either as principals or
accomplices, take part subsequent to its commission.
a. principal b. Accomplices c. accessories
45. Which of these is an act of an accessory?
a. By profiting themselves or assisting the offender to profit by the effects of the crime.
b. By concealing or destroying the body of the crime, or the effects or instruments thereof, in order to prevent its discovery.
d. By harboring, concealing, or assisting in the escape of the principals of the crime, provided the accessory acts with abuse of his public
functions or whenever the author of the crime is guilty of treason, parricide, murder, or an attempt to take the life of the Chief Executive, or is
known to be habitually guilty of some other crime.
e. All of these
46. Which of these relatives is an accessory but exempted however from criminal liability?
a. spouses, ascendants, descendants, legitimate, natural, and adopted brothers and sisters, or relatives by affinity within the same
degrees
b. Cousins, nephews, nieces, uncles and aunties.
47. No felony shall be punishable by any penalty not prescribed by law prior to its commission. The statement is:
a. true b. false
48. Penal Laws shall have a retroactive effect insofar as they favor the persons guilty of a felony, who is not a what?
a. recidivist b. Habitual criminal
49. Which of these is effect of pardon by the offended party?
a. A pardon of the offended party does not extinguish criminal action
b. Civil liability with regard to the interest of the injured party is extinguished
by his express waiver.
c. All of these

50. A fine, shall be considered an afflictive penalty, if it exceeds 6,000 pesos; a correctional penalty, if it does not exceed 6,000 pesos but is
not less than 200 pesos; and a light penalty if it less than 200 pesos. The statement is:
a. true b. false

51. Any person sentenced to any of the perpetual penalties shall be pardoned after undergoing the penalty for _______, unless such
person by reason of his conduct or some other serious cause shall be considered by the Chief Executive as unworthy of pardon.
a. 30 years b. 40 years

52. The penalty of ______ shall be from twelve years and one day to twenty years.
a. reclusion temporal b. Prison mayor

53. The duration of the penalty of _______ shall be from one day to thirty days.
a. arresto mayor b. Arresto menor

54. Offenders who have undergone preventive imprisonment shall be credited in the service of their sentence consisting of deprivation of
liberty, with the ______ during which they have undergone preventive imprisonment, if the detention prisoner agrees voluntarily in writing to
abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners.
a. full time b. 4/5

55. Which of these is not entitled to credit of full time of preventive imprisonment?
a. recidivists or have been convicted previously twice or more times of any crime
b. Persons upon being summoned for the execution of their sentence they have failed to surrender voluntarily
c. all of these

56. In case the maximum penalty to which the accused may be sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after how many days of
preventive imprisonment?
a. 30 days b 40 days

57. This penalty shall deprive the offender during the time of his sentence of the rights of parental authority, or guardianship, either as to
the person or property of any ward, of marital authority, of the right to manage his property and of the right to dispose of such property by
any act or any conveyance inter vivos.
a. civil interdiction b. Bond to keep the peace

58. It shall be the duty of any person sentenced to this penalty, to present two sufficient sureties who shall undertake that such person will
not commit the offense sought to be prevented, and that in case such offense be committed they will pay the amount determined by the court
in the judgment, or otherwise to deposit such amount in the office of the clerk of the court to guarantee said undertaking. Penalty for this is
either 6 months or 30 days.
a. bond to keep the peace b. Bond for good behavior

59. Which of this is effect of presidential pardon?

a. A pardon shall not work the restoration of the right to hold public office
b. Pardon shall not restore the right of suffrage, unless such rights be expressly restored by the terms of the pardon.
c. A pardon shall in no case exempt the culprit from the payment of the civil indemnity
d. All of these

60. Which of these is pecuniary liability of the offender?

a. The reparation of the damage caused.
b. Indemnification of consequential damages.
c. The fine.
d. The cost of the proceedings
e. All of these

61. If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine, he shall be subject to a subsidiary personal liability at the rate of one day for
each eight pesos (or P481). This is:
a. subsidiary penalty/imprisonment b. Criminal liability

62. Every penalty imposed for the commission of a felony shall carry with it the forfeiture of the proceeds of the crime and the instruments
or tools with which it was committed. The statement is:
a. true b. false

63. The proceeds and instruments or tools shall be confiscated and forfeited in favor of the Government, unless they be property of a third
person not liable for the offense, but those articles which are not subject of lawful commerce shall be destroyed. The statement is:
a. true b. false

64. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the accessory in the commission of such felony.
The statement is:
a. true b. false

65. Whenever the law prescribes a penalty for a felony is general terms, it shall be understood as applicable to the attempted felony. The
statement is:
a. correct b. incorrect

66. When a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies, or when an offense is a necessary means for committing the
other, the penalty for the most serious crime shall be imposed, the same to be applied in its maximum period.
a. complex crime b. continuing crime

67. Aggravating circumstances which in themselves constitute a crime specially punishable by law or which are included by the law in
defining a crime and prescribing the penalty therefor shall not be taken into account for the purpose of increasing the penalty. The statement
is:
a. true b. False

68. There is no increase in the penalty with respect to any aggravating circumstance inherent in the crime to such a degree that it must of
necessity accompany the commission thereof. This statement is:
a. true b. false

69. Aggravating or mitigating circumstances which arise from the moral attributes of the offender, or from his private relations with the
offended party, or from any other personal cause, shall only serve to aggravate or mitigate the liability of the principals, accomplices and
accessories as to whom such circumstances are attendant. The statement is:
a. true b. false

70. The circumstances which consist in the material execution of the act, or in the means employed to accomplish it, shall serve to
aggravate or mitigate the liability of those persons only who had knowledge of them at the time of the execution of the act or their
cooperation therein. The statement is:
a. true b. false

71. He is a person who within a period of ten years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robo, hurto, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of said crimes a third time or oftener.
a. recidivist b. Habitual delinquent

72. A habitual delinquent may not be obliged to serve an additional penalty for more than _______.
a. 30 years b. 40 years

73: Which of these is a rule regarding computation of penalty of indivisible penalties?

a. When in the commission of the deed there is present only one aggravating circumstance, the greater penalty shall be applied.
b. When there are neither mitigating nor aggravating circumstances and there is no aggravating circumstance, the lesser penalty shall be
applied.
c. When the commission of the act is attended by some mitigating circumstances and there is no aggravating circumstance, the lesser
penalty shall be applied.
d. When both mitigating and aggravating circumstances attended the commission of the act, the court shall reasonably allow them to
offset one another in consideration of their number and importance.
e. All of these

74. Which of these is a rule to be followed in the application of penalties which contain three periods?
a. When there are neither aggravating nor mitigating circumstances, they shall impose the penalty prescribed by law in its medium
period.
b. When only a mitigating circumstances is present in the commission of the act, they shall impose the penalty in its minimum period.
c. When an aggravating circumstance is present in the commission of the act, they shall impose the penalty in its maximum period.
d. When both mitigating and aggravating circumstances are present, the court shall reasonably offset those of one class against the other
according to their relative weight.
e. When there are two or more mitigating circumstances and no aggravating circumstances are present, the court shall impose the
penalty next lower to that prescribed by law, in the period that it may deem applicable, according to the number and nature of such
circumstances. f. All of these
75. Upon a person over fifteen and under eighteen years of age who have acted with discernment the penalty next lower than that
prescribed by law shall be imposed, but always in the proper period. The statement is:
a. true b. false

76. A penalty lower by one or two degrees than that prescribed by law shall be imposed if the deed is not wholly excusable by reason of
the lack of some of the conditions required to justify the same or to exempt from criminal liability in the several cases mentioned in Article 11
and 12, provided that the majority of such conditions be present. The courts shall impose the penalty in the period which may be deemed
proper, in view of the number and nature of the conditions of exemption present or lacking. This statement is:
a. true b. false

77. When the culprit has to serve two or more penalties, he shall serve them simultaneously if the nature of the penalties will so permit.
The statement is:
a. true b. false

78. In the imposition of the penalties, the order of their respective severity shall be followed so that they may be executed successively or
as nearly as may be possible, should a pardon have been granted as to the penalty or penalties first imposed, or should they have been served
out. This is the rule on:
a. simultaneous service of sentence b. Successive service of sentence

79. The maximum duration of the convict's sentence shall not be more than threefold the length of time corresponding to the most severe
of the penalties imposed upon him. No other penalty to which he may be liable shall be inflicted after the sum total of those imposed equals
the same maximum period. This is the:
a. three fold rule on the service of sentence
b. Successive rule on service of sentence
80. In applying the three fold rule, the maximum duration or period shall in no case exceed how many years?
a. 30 years b. 40 years

81. A penalty composed of three distinct penalties, each one shall form a period; the lightest of them shall be the minimum the next the
medium, and the most severe the maximum period.
a. complex crimes b. Complex penalties

82. When a convict shall become insane or an imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution of said sentence shall be
______ only with regard to the personal penalty.
a. Suspended b. Continued

83. Any person sentenced to ________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated in the sentence, nor within the radius
therein specified, which shall be not more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
a. destierro b. Civil interdiction

84. The penalty of ________ shall be served in the municipal jail, or in the house of the defendant himself under the surveillance of an
officer of the law, when the court so provides in its decision, taking into consideration the health of the offender and other reasons which may
seem satisfactory to it.
a. arresto menor b. Arresto mayor c. both a and b

85. The civil liability of the accused who died is extinguished if:
a. his death occurs before final judgment
b. his death occurs after final judgment

86. Which of these is a total mode of extinguishment of criminal liability?

a. Death of the convict
b. By service of the sentence
c. By amnesty, which completely extinguishes the penalty and all its effects
d. By absolute pardon
e. By prescription of the crime
f. By prescription of the penalty
g. By the marriage of the offended woman in certain crimes
h. By pardon by offended party
i. All of these except “h”

87. Crimes punishable by death, reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribe in twenty years.
Crimes punishable by other afflictive penalties shall prescribe in fifteen years.
Those punishable by a correctional penalty shall prescribe in ten years; with the exception of those punishable by arresto mayor, which shall
prescribe in five years.
The crime of libel or other similar offenses shall prescribe in one year.
The crime of oral defamation and slander by deed shall prescribe in six months.
Light offenses prescribe in two months.
These statements are all:
a. True b. False
88. The period of prescription shall commence to run from the day on which the crime is discovered by the offended party, the authorities,
or their agents, and shall be interrupted by the filing of the complaint or information, and shall commence to run again when such proceedings
terminate without the accused being convicted or acquitted, or are unjustifiably stopped for any reason not imputable to him. The statement
is:
a. true b. false

89. The term of prescription of crime shall not run when the offender is absent from the Philippine Archipelago. The statement is:
a. true b. false
90. The penalties imposed by final sentence or prescription of crime shall be as follows:
1. Death and reclusion perpetua, in twenty years;
2. Other afflictive penalties, in fifteen years;
3. Correctional penalties, in ten years; with the exception of the penalty of arresto mayor, which prescribes in five years;
4. Light penalties, in one year. These statements are:
a. True b. False

91. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the culprit should evade the service of his sentence,
and it shall be interrupted if the defendant should give himself up, be captured, should go to some foreign country with which this
Government has no extradition treaty, or should commit another crime before the expiration of the period of prescription. The statement is:
a. true b. false

92. Criminal liability is extinguished partially:

a. By conditional pardon;
b. By commutation of the sentence; and
c. For good conduct allowances which the culprit may earn while he is serving his sentence.
d. All of these

93. What is the effect of the convict’s non-compliance with any of the conditions of the conditional pardon?
a. it shall result in the revocation of the pardon
b. Article 159 shall be applied to him.
c. He will be sentenced to destierro
d. Some of these

94. The ___________ of the original sentence for another of a different length and nature shall have the legal effect of substituting the
latter in the place of the former.
a. reprieve b. commutation

95. The good conduct of any prisoner in any penal institution shall entitle him to deductions from the period of his sentence
a. allowance for good conduct/good conduct time allowance
b. exemplary behavior

96. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service of his sentence
under the circumstances mentioned in Article 58 of this Code, gives himself up to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a
proclamation announcing the passing away of the calamity or catastrophe to in said article. a. special time allowance for loyalty b. evasion of
service of sentence 97. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also civilly liable. The statement is:
a. true b. false

98. In default of the persons criminally liable, innkeepers, tavern keepers, and any other persons or corporations shall be civilly liable for
crimes committed in their establishments, in all cases where a violation of municipal ordinances or some general or special police regulation
shall have been committed by them or their employees. This also apply to employers, teachers, persons, and corporations engaged in any kind
of industry for felonies committed by their servants, pupils, workmen, apprentices, or employees in the discharge of their duties. This is:
a. subsidiary imprisonment b. Subsidiary civil liability

99. The (subsidiary) civil liability shall include:

a. Restitution;
b. Reparation of the damage caused;
c. Indemnification for consequential damages
d. All of these

100. It is a misapprehension of fact on the part of the person who caused injury to another. He is not liable for absence of criminal intent.
a. mistake of fact b. ignorance of the law

101. It is that cause which in the ordinary and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause produces the injury.
a. probable cause b. Proximate cause

102. It is one where the purpose of the offender in performing an act is not certain.
a. indeterminate offense b. Material crimes

103. Those where the act of a person is said to be in accordance with the law. As a consequence he is freed from criminal and civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances b. Exempting circumstances

104. It is any unjust or improper conduct on the part of the offended party capable of inciting or irritating any one.
a. vindication of grave offense b. provocation
105. Those grounds for exemption from punishment because there is wanting/missing in the agent of the crime any of the conditions which
make the act voluntary or negligent.
a. exempting circumstances b. Mitigating circumstances

106. He is one who is old but has a mental development similar to children between the ages 2-7 years.
a. my classmate b. Imbecile c. moron d. idiot
107. The mental capacity of a minor to distinguish between right from wrong and to fully appreciate the consequences of his felonious acts.
a. lucid interval b. discernment

108. It is a force which produces such an effect upon an individual that, in spite of all resistance, it reduces him to a mere instrument and as
such incapable of committing a crime.
a. irresistible force b. Uncontrollable fear

109. The exempting circumstance presupposes that the accused is compelled by means of threat or intimidation by a third person to commit
a crime. a. irresistible force b. Uncontrollable fear

110. One which takes place when a peace officer induces a person to commit a crime. Without the inducement, the crime would not be
committed. It exempts one from criminal liability.
a. entrapment b. instigation

111. Those which if present in the commission of a crime, do not entirely free the actor from criminal liability but reduces only the penalty.
a. mitigating circumstances b. Aggravating circumstances

112. Are those which if attendant in the commission of the offense, would serve to increase the penalty.
a. aggravating circumstances b. Mitigating circumstances

113. That period of darkness beginning at end of dusk and ending at dawn.
a. uninhabited place b. nighttime

114. One where there are no houses or where the houses are scattered at a great distance from each other.
a. band b. Uninhabited place

115. It involves a determination to commit the crime prior to the moment of its execution and also to carry out the criminal intent which
must be the result of deliberate, calculated and reflective thoughts through a period of time sufficient to dispassionately consider and accept
the consequences thereof, thus indicating greater perversity.
a. treachery b. Evident premeditation

116. It is a circumstance characterized by trickery or cunning resorted to by the accused, to carry out his design. It is the use of intellectual
trickery and cunning on the part of the accused.
a. craft b. fraud

117. These are insidious words or machinations used to induce the victim to act in a manner which would enable the offender to carry out
his design.
a. craft b. fraud
118. It involves the deliberate effort of the accused to conceal his identity in the commission of the crime.
a. disguise b. Superior strength

119. It is a circumstance pertaining to the moral order, which adds disgrace and obloquy to the material injury caused by the crime. It is a
circumstance that tends to make the effects of the crime more humiliating, thus adding to the victim’s moral sufferings.
a. ignominy b. cruelty

120. This aggravating circumstance takes place when an entrance is affected by a way not intended for the purpose.
a. trespass b. Unlawful entry

121. It is a circumstance whereby the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary
physical pain in the consummation of his criminal act.
a. ignominy b. cruelty

122. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which exempts the individual on whom it is
bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed. It may be a conditional or absolute.
a. pardon b. amnesty

123. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts all arising from one criminal resolution. It is a continuous, unlawful act or series of act
set on foot by a single impulse and operated by an unintermittent force, however long time it may occupy.
a. complex crimes b. Continuing crimes

124. It means a group of two or more persons collaborating, confederating, or mutually helping one another for the purpose of gain in the
commission of a crime.
a. organized/syndicated crime b. Band
125It is an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or a general pardon for past offense, and is rarely exercised in favor of a single
individual, and is usually exerted in behalf of certain classes of persons who are subject to trail but not yet convicted.
a. amnesty b. Pardon

126. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the Government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time.
a. prescription of crim b. Prescription of penalty