ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer


CQE Sample Test #2

1. The elements of project management are :

Ⅰ. Objectives. Ⅱ. Planning. Ⅲ. Scheduling. Ⅳ. Controlling.

A. I, II and III only

B. I, II and IV only

C. I, III and IV only

D. II, III and IV only

2. Organizational roadblocks to project management implementation are a result of :

Ⅰ. Competition for the same resources Ⅱ. Resistance to project team type organizational structure Ⅲ. Support by upper management Ⅳ. Changes in objectives
A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only

C. I, III and IV only

D. II, III and IV only

3. Work breakdown structure means : A. Project management can only be applied to tearing down buildings, not construction of new structures. B. The workers have organized and have delayed the project until their demands are met. C. The project plan has failed due to lack of support by upper management. D. The statement of work is divided into the detailed listing of activities required to complete the project.

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Sample Test #2

4. Consider the following network, with events marked within the circles and durations in weeks : The critical path is :

A. 1-3-6-8-10

B. 1-3-6-9-10

C. 1-4-6-8-10

D. 1-4-6-9-10

5. What would occur if the quality goals were not a part of the strategic plan ? A. There would be no strategic goals. B. There would not be as much emphasis on quality. C. The total quality effort would not suffer. D. The quality department would still maintain the quality goals.

6. Strategic quality goals must be subdivided. Thus, they are : A. Delegated. B. Distributed. C. Accountable. D. Deployed.

7. Your top management staff has asked you, the acting quality manager, to help them install TQM. In what general order would you recommend that they proceed with the following ?

Ⅰ. As a group, study the gurus. Ⅱ. Have the CEO study the beliefs of the gurus. Ⅲ. Go to any identified workshops. Ⅳ. Decide on a philosophy.



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ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer)

8. One of Dr. Deming's 14 points for Management states release dependence upon inspection as a way to achieve quality. The underlying tenet of this statement is which of the following ? A. Many American companies employ too many inspectors; perhaps 5 - 10% of the work force. B. Quality should be built into the product not inspected in. C. In most cases, the workers should perform his/her own inspection and not rely on someone else. D. Most manual inspection will miss 10 -20% of defects under typical working conditions.

9. The MOST important step in vendor certification is to : A. Obtain copies of the vendor's quality manual. B. Familiarize the vendor with quality requirements. C. Analyze the vendor's first shipment. D. Visit the vendor's plant.

10. A vendor quality assurance function has been adopted; which of the following provisions would you advise top management to be the LEAST effective ? A. Product audits. C. Certificate of analysis. B. Source inspection. D. Certificate of compliance.

11. The MOST desirable method of evaluating a supplier is : A. A history evaluation. C. A questionnaire. B. A survey evaluation. D. Discussion with the quality manager on the phone.

12. Which of the following is the BEST definition of configuration management ? A. The collection of all product information and activities. B. A documentation system. C. A change order, record keeping system. D. A product production management plan.

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Unanticipated. What is the MOST important consideration for customers who stay with a company ? A. IV . Training records are needed because ? Ⅰ. ISO 9000 certification number and registrar. I. A small manufacturing enterprise has placed a call to your office. I. D. II. Basic. A. They can satisfy an audit requirement. I. You are the supplier quality engineer in charge of procured parts for manned flight space vehicles. IV C. III D. MIL-STD-45208A requirements. Ⅱ. II & III only C. You request which of the following key information from them ? Ⅰ. Prompt service. I. I. I only B. Service quality. III B. They can satisfy an OSHA requirement. Expected. Ⅲ.Sample Test #2 13. Ⅳ. Ⅱ. I. Ⅲ. 16. They can satisfy an ISO 9000 requirement. II. Ⅲ. A copy of their Quality Manual. II and IV only C. II. IV. A. & IV only D. III. C.4 - . A. seeking to become a supplier. Ⅱ. I. Desired. Courteous technicians. I and IV only B. Product quality. Customer expectations follow what sequence in the hierarchy of needs ? Ⅰ. II. Process capability indices on key processes. & IV 14. IV. They can satisfy a Malcolm Baldrige requirement. II and III only D. Ⅳ. III. B. II. II. III. III and IV 15. I. Ⅳ. II.

Ⅱ. D. the customer is always right. There is no conflict. Matrices can be developed in several ways. L-type. 19. Process flow diagram. I only B. III and IV . I. C. I. B. As you work through a conflict situation with a customer : A. The company should maintain its position. which new quality tool would be used ? A. D. B. Which of the following matrix types illustrates relationships in three planes ? A. Affinity diagram. with many of the events or milestones unknown. T-type. I and IV only D. III and IV only C. B. The matrix diagram is used to show the relationship between 2 variables. Cause and effect diagram. The process should not embarrass either party. D. Ⅳ. Limited access to human resources. C. Y-type. In developing a chart to plot a course of action. B.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 17. D. A. II. Special company audits are performed. Sharing of critical business information. All steps and procedures are strictly followed. An Ishikawa diagram is also known as a : Ⅰ. Only plant managers agree on agendas. Ⅲ. Fishbone diagram. Process decision program(PDPC) chart. 18.5 - . C-type. A key characteristic of a business partnership is : A. C. 21. 20. Scatter diagram. Matrix diagram. C. Activity network diagram.

Which problem solving tool uses a cumulative line such that the defect class constituting 60% of all defects can be easily determined ? A. This distribution is truncated. Which of the following statements BEST describes a bimodal distribution ? A. A. I only B. The probability of event A occurring and event B occurring is equal to the probability of event A occurring multiplied by the probability of event B occurring if : Ⅰ. At the beginning as the first category. C. This distribution shows stratified data and two distinct peaks. Checksheets. Ⅱ. 25. Events A and B are mutually exclusive. Scatter diagram.6 - . B. Cause and effect diagram. B. Gantt charts. Histogram D.Sample Test #2 22. Where it falls according to indicated frequency. Events A and B are independent. 24. This distribution shows a single mode and bell shaped distribution. I and III only C. This distribution has several distribution peaks. When constructing a Pareto diagram where should the other category be placed ? A. Ⅱ. Tally sheets used for organizing and collecting facts and data include which two of the following ? Ⅰ. Ⅲ. I and III only C. 26. Directly in the center of the chart. B. D. I and II only B. The covariance of events A and B is zero. Ⅲ. C. II and IV only D. C. II only D. I and V only 23. Measles chart. D. II and III only . Ⅳ. PERT charts. Pareto diagram. At the end as the last category. A.

The mean of either a discrete or a continuous distribution can always be visualized as : Ⅰ.0100 B. A population value. II and III 32. A positive number between 0 and 1 inclusive. The probability that both will be defective is approximately : A. 0.75 C.7 - . C. 0. Ⅱ. The point where 50% of the values are to the left side and 50% are to the right side. 31. The "y" axis of a cumulative probability function shows : A. 5. The solution to a problem. Ⅲ.4 B. B. A sampling scoop samples about a hundred units per trial.184 B. II only C. C. A. Its center of gravity. A statistic is : A.0082 D. A sample value. The point where most values in the distribution occur. 28. 0. Five pieces are selected at random for inspection. 0.8 . D. A process is producing material which is 20% defective. 4.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 27. A sample of two is drawn without replacement. The probability of events equal to or less than a given "x". 1.205 D. 0. 0. A lot of 50 pieces contains 5 defectives.051 30. The incremental probability of events.0010 C. 3. The relative frequency of events. B. What is the probability of exactly three good pieces being found in the sample ? A. I. 0. D. II and III only D. 0. I only B.0093 29. The probability of an event for a given "x". What must be the approximate defect average for there to be a 95% chance that at least one defect will be found in the sample ? A.061 C.0 D.

37. Ⅱ. The width of a confidence interval increases as the population size increases. Determine the process capability.Sample Test #2 33.4013 C. The main purpose for using a control chart is to : A. I. 36. I and II only B. D. 2 of 3 consecutive points outside the 2-sigma warning limits. D. A 90% confidence interval is wider than a 95% confidence interval. II and III 35. Ⅲ. C. Measure process capability. C. A trend of 9 points in an upward direction. B. B. Detect non-random variation in processes. 0. D. II and III only C. What is the probability of the average diameter of 10 randomly selected ball bearings being greater than 77 ? A. Determine if defective parts are being produced. B. 0. 0.8 - . 10 consecutive points above or below the center.2146 D. Which of the following indicate an out of control condition ? Ⅰ.0210 34. I and III only D. Determine when the process is not within specification limits. Detect assignable causes of variation. Detect non-conforming material. . Determine causes of process variation. A. The width of a confidence interval increases as the population size decreases. C. 0. The diameter of a population of ball bearings is normally distributed with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 8. Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A.3751 B. The width of a confidence interval decreases as the sample size increases. A control chart is used to : A.

The population means are equal. what is the correlation coefficient ? A. 0. B. All interactions are measured. 0. The mean of the population is not 2. A. C.9. The number of rows must equal the number of columns. Which of the following CANNOT be a null hypothesis ? A. and given the sum of squares for error is 28.9 or -0.07 C.9 - . 3. The number of trials must be 8. The coefficient of determination is a measure of the amount of variability explained by the regression model. The square of the result is analyzed. For a Latin Square design : A. 42. The mean of the sample is 2. Given a coefficient of determination of 0.5.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 38. C.02" . 0. The sample means are equal.02" C. A process calls for the mean value of a dimension to be 2. Which of the following should be used as the null hypothesis to test whether or not the process is achieving this mean ? A. The independent variable is plotted on the x-axis.9487 D. compute the F-statistic.02". B. 0. and the mean square between treatments is 21.9 B. C. the mean square error is 7.45 B.85 43.5 D. The difference in the population means is 3. 0. The mean of the sample is not 2. the sum of squares between treatments is 86. D.02" D. The mean of the population is 2. The residuals are assumed to be normally distributed.02" B. 8.9487 or -0.81 C. Given a one-way ANOVA. Which of the following is NOT correct in reference to regression ? A. There is one independent variable and one or more dependent variables.81 or -0.302 41.9487 40. 1. 39. P' = 0.22 D. B. D.

This error is due to lack of uniformity of the material used in the experiment and to inherent variability in the experimental technique. D. In a well-designed experiment there is no interaction effect.Sample Test #2 44.68 with 2 and 20 degrees of freedom. There were no significant differences among the means. F D. 48. When constructing a factorial experiment. If. in a designed experiment. C. D. D. In every experiment there is experimental error. D. t C. you would conclude that : A. A correlation problem : A. They must be the same for each factor B. Chi-Square 47. . C. B. This error can be changed statistically by increasing the degrees of freedom. Considers the joint variation of two measurements. you obtained an F-ratio of 0. C. The null hypothesis was rejected. neither of which is restricted by the experimenter. 45. Which table should be used to determine a confidence interval on the mean when s is NOT known and the sample size is 10 ? A.10 - . C. You had made an error. Is the one case where the underlying distributions must be geometric. the factors must be quantitative. B. The variances were equal. Factorial experiments may not contain any number of levels per factor. Is solved by estimating the value of the dependent variable for various values of the independent ' variable. z B. Is solved by assuming that the variables are normally and independently distributed with mean = 0 and variance = s 2 46. Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A. B. which of the following is TRUE ? A. Contrasts and treatment combinations are the same. In factorials. Confounding takes place in factorials when we run a fractional part of the complete experiment. The error can be reduced only by improving the material.

FMEA. Specification tolerances are established after the production tolerances. 53. A meaningless variation specification has been indicated. The drawing dimensions were specified in terms of a normal value +/-3 standard deviations. Verify that a quality system continues to meet requirements. B. To compare actual practice to a defined standard. Completing an FMEA. C. Which of the following would be considered the WEAKEST reason to initiate an audit ? A. C. The Risk Priority Number is used when : A. D. C. 52. The natural manufacturing process spread will be acceptable. Describes an information dimension. Describes the location of a large number of similarly shaped features. D. B. Describes a normal datum dimension. Constructing a fault tree. This is an indication that A. Fault-tree.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 49. Describes a feature from which tolerances are established.73% of the typical process output would be approved. . B. MIL-STD-217. Predicting reliability. Which of the following is best suited for modelling the reliability of a complex piece of equipment ? A. 50. Identify the root cause of a recent problem. A reference dimension on a drawing A. B. C. Vector Space Analysis. Approximately 99. which is not to be inspected. C.11 - . D. Follow-up on corrective action. D. Auditing safety hazards. B. 51. D.

B. D.73 grams. Ⅲ. 15 +/ . C.00 grams. D. That the firm is quality conscious.Sample Test #2 54. 115 +/. Which of the following statements is FALSE ? A.61 grams. The scope and objectives of the audit. 20 +/ . C. D. A. A. Ⅱ. That a quality system has been developed. The final audit report should contain Ⅰ.12 - . 115 +/. what is the expected weight and variation of the final product ? Ingredient A Ingredient B Ingredient C Ingredient D 70 +/ .00 grams. 57.00 grams.73 grams.1.1. Using the data below.4. II. The audit team membership. That a quality system has been implemented. III and IV only C. The same tone and content as the audit. II and IV only D.3. A quality audit should be structured. B. 10 +/ . A quality audit should avoid determining blame. That the firm has a quality manager.46 grams.1. III and IV only B. III and IV . 115 +/. Ⅳ. this means A.5. During the pre-award survey at a potential key supplier.7. A quality audit should include recommendations. II. A quality audit should be done on a surprise basis.73 grams. A description of any key observations or findings. C. you discover the existence of a quality control manual. I.3. Four ingredients are blended to make a final product. B. 55. 115 +/. 56.

0. What is the ARL for an X bar control chart(n = 5) assuming the process remains in control ? A. B. 370 62.058 C. What is the upper control limit for a p chart (proportion defective) when the average daily production is 2500 units with an established fraction defective of 0. 0.93 nonconformities per 5 units. 63.066 .063 D. Increase in alpha risk.13 D. The specification limits replace the control limits on the chart. D. The primary purpose of an process audit is A. The process capability index is greater than 1.10 B.05 ? A. Given an average of 1. The process is capable. 6.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 58. 3 B. Increase in beta risk. 60. Provide data to direct operator and / or inspector training. 3. C. 2.13 - .79 61. If two-sigma limits are substituted for conventional three-sigma limits on a control chart. Decrease in alpha risk. Increase in sample size. 283 D. B. 59. C. C. B. which of the following occurs ? A. None of the above. 0. 7. 8 C. 0.0. Measure the effectiveness of the current quality system.45 C. Detect and reject defective products missed by normal inspection. D. then A.054 B. D. Provide data in case operator disciplinary action is required. If the specification limits are wider than the control limits. what is the upper limit of the control chart used in this situation ? A.

0. The supplier requests the inspection to save them potential shipping expenses.14 - . Upon review of the last 30 plot points. A lot is known to be 1.Sample Test #2 64.00141 D. II and IV only C. Ⅱ. Ⅲ.9985 B. I. The criticality of the product warrants it. III and IV only D. The key inspection points are hidden after assembly at the suppliers' plant. 12 D. What are the applicable standards.2% defective.01 C. A. 9 C. 67. Consider the following statement "A defect which might affect the appearance or general function of essential parts" This definition describes a seriousness classification described as: A. What is the probability of the lot being rejected ? A. Ⅳ. Incidental. II. What records must be kept. 4 B. An X-bar and R chart with n = 5 has been plotted for some time and has demonstrated random variation. 16 65. What must be done with non-acceptable parts. Critical. 0. Which of the following are the most logical reasons for providing source inspection ? Ⅰ. II. C. 0. 0. and the lot is accepted if 1 or fewer defects are found. Five units are randomly selected from the lot. I. The supplier has consistently shown poor out-going quality. D. Which of the following would NOT be considered as part of detailed inspection instructions ? A. Major. Minor. D. C.00223 . Whether the product or service conforms to specifications. B. II and IV only B. B. 68. III and IV 66. the expected number of runs around the centerline on the X-bar chart is expected to be approximately which of the following ? A.

what is the sample size code letter for ANSI/ASQ Z1. C B. Slack times to be added to the critical path. 71. The use of Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) requires A. Creating the Gantt chart. D. Defining the specifications. Single and Double sampling plans are available. Plans exist for LTPD protection and to provide a specified AOQL.9 ? A. C. What is the inspection level code letter for inspection level II and a lot size of 500 when using ANSI/ASQ Z1. B. D D. D.4 ? A.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 69. For special inspection level 3. Defining the objective. Securing resources. E C. B. Less data than a Gantt chart. and a lot size of 300. B. The first and most important project planning step is A.15 - . Time estimates for each activity in the network. . The critical path to be known in advance. A B. 73. C. D. C. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Dodge-Romig sampling plans ? A. I 72. G D. They apply only when rejected lots are 100% inspected. C C. F 70. They were developed in the 1960s.

Statement of work. what may be needed ? A. Ⅲ. IV. II. III. A. Ⅳ. Total quality control. Project objective. Dr. Effective problem solving. Increased employee incentives. I D. A. Ⅲ. D. Budgets. III. I. Dr. C. lII. The initiation of pilot projects. II. Work breakdown structure. Ⅳ. C.Sample Test #2 74. The quality explosion. Feigenbaum. I. II. W. IV C. 77. . Company wide quality control.16 - . Stephen Covey. B. The quality trilogy. Armand V. III. C. II. 76. B. I 75. Consider the following list of quality concepts and then identify the appropriate quality management luminary that is NOT identified with any of them Ⅰ. Signal to noise ratio. The project planning sequence is Ⅰ. Ⅵ. A thorough review of the works of the major quality gurus would indicate which of the following to be the most effective way to create quality ? A. Benchmarking the best competitive practices. B. Ⅱ. Zero defects. Continuous process improvement. D. IV B. Increased basic training company wide. For employee involvement efforts to succeed. Kaoru Ishikawa. Edward Deming. Ⅱ. D. Dr. Ⅴ. Employee understanding of how they can make a difference. IV. Modern statistical control techniques. Dr.

Show relationships between variables. C. Analyzing each step in detail. Historically.17 - . A. II and IV only C. III only D. Eliminate the trivial many. A control chart. P(B/A)=P(B) D. What other problem solving tool is customarily used to compliment the fishbone diagram ? A. Highlight assignable causes. 0. A Pareto diagram. D. D. Brainstorming. 80. then A. 0. Force field analysis 79. Process flow improvement steps normally do NOT include Ⅰ. Display the significant few. D. Ⅱ. 0. The most widely used technique for distinguishing between chronic and insignificant problems is A. Ⅴ.2869 C. IV only 82. A scatter diagram. A comparison with processes different than your own. Asking what would make it "perfect". Pareto diagrams. 0. Asking why we do it this way. C. the number of flaws in the finish of surface has an average of 0. B. What is the probability of a randomly selected item having more than 1 defect in the surface finish ? A. P(B/A)=P(A) B. B. I and V only B. C. A and B above . Ⅳ. Scatter diagrams are useful in problem solving because they A.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 78. 81. Scatter diagrams. P(A/B)=P(B) C. B.3624 83. Ⅲ. The use of Pareto diagrams. If Events A and B are independent.45.0755 B.6376 D. A cause and effect diagram.

0. In a given month. Ⅱ. The mean is between the mode and the median. a company hires 4 people per month. There is fairly strong correlation between the two variables.Sample Test #2 84. D. D. 0 B. If a distribution is skewed to the left A. Both the x and y intercepts will show positive values. II. The mode is greater than the median. I. The term poka-yoke refers to A.proofing of a process. 87.18 - . A. A and B above. III and IV . 0. As close to zero defects as possible. I. B. C. The relationship between the two variables reflects a "negative" slope. The mode is between the median and the mean. III and IV only D. II. Which of the following are true statements regarding the regression line shown ? Ⅰ.0595 C. The mistake . Consider the linear relationship between two variables in the figure below. The regression line should always go through the origin and this one doesn't. Ⅳ. The institution of just-in-time procedures. what is the probability that exactly 7 people will be hired ? A. 0. 86. B. The control of product flow via colored markings. II and III only B.4487 D. Ⅲ. On average. C. III and IV only C.0087 85.

The descriptive name for a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is which of the following ? A. III. II. Pareto diagram. Improving the design of products. 89. Ⅳ. Variable correlation. II and V only D. Upper control limit. Process average. I. D. 91. Flow charts. Pareto. II. Which of these quality tools would NOT be expected to be used during the results confirmation stage of a problem solution ? A. Scatter diagram. D. Which of the quality tools below is BEST suited for directing attention to problems in a systematic manner ? A. Pareto diagram. Cause and effect diagrams. I. Ⅴ. B. Flow chart. Control chart. C. Ⅲ. Scatter. D. A.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 88. Which of the following terms apply to control charts ? Ⅰ. Studying a business that is a leader in their field and using some of their activities. 90. Ⅱ. III and IV only . C. B. Reengineering is BEST described as A. Process median. Cause and Effect. Histogram.19 - . C. 92. Installing state of the art equipment and processes. B. III and IV only C. B. D. Control chart. C. Process standard deviation. IV and V B. Rethinking and radically redesigning the business.

C. The mean and mode have the same value but the median is different. Decreased need for management efforts to maintain quality. 95. Improved communication between managers and quality team members. A greater benefit to the company than it is to the supplier.20 - .Sample Test #2 93. the relationships among the median. The primary reason for evaluating and maintaining surveillance over a supplier's quality program is to A. B. Ⅱ. I. II and III . Cost savings from participative problem solving. II and III only D. D. Which of the following items is (are) valid reasons for taking this action ? Ⅰ. mean and mode are that A. A successful quality team program should produce all of the following benefits EXCEPT A. B. B. Each has a value different from the other two. Ⅲ. A support feature for which suppliers are normally charged. Perform product inspection at the source. For the normal probability distribution. The mean and median are the same but the mode is different. An optional luxury which is not a company responsibility. The audit team normally advises the auditee immediately upon the discovery of a finding during an audit. They are all equal to the same value. Motivate suppliers to improve quality. III only C. D. 97. If corrected immediately. Make sure the supplier's quality program is functioning effectively. it shows genuine auditee interest in the objectives of the audit. C. C. A. D. Improved worker morale. If corrected immediately. I only B. 96. B. If corrected immediately. D. A great public relations gesture when personnel are available. it demonstrates the strength of an ongoing audit program. 94. Eliminate incoming inspection costs. the findings may be eliminated from the audit report. C. Technical service to suppliers is A.

Is the audit schedule progressing as planned ? Ⅲ. A.21 - . Ⅳ. I. Ⅲ. 100. It has defined management objectives. It is initiated because of a recent customer complaint. II and IV only C. Is there a need for a technical specialist ? Ⅳ. Which of the following parties. II and III only B. It checks system elements on a scheduled ongoing basis. Is the level of compliance satisfactory ? A. A quality systems audit is generally MOST effective if Ⅰ. C. II. They may be performed internally or externally. The plant manager. which of the following are key considerations ? Ⅰ. Which of the following statements CANNOT be made regarding a process audit ? Ⅰ. I. Ⅱ. II and III only C. It is the result of a widely recognized internal product quality issue. II and IV only D. During the performance of an audit. Ⅱ. I and IV only D. D. The client. B. II and IV only 99. II and III only D. I.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 98. They can be helpful in improving the process in question. II only B. They are more formal than a system audit. I and III only C. They require less planning than a systems audit. I. The lead auditor. What sampling plans may be necessary ? Ⅱ. The auditee. III and IV 101. II and IV only . traditionally initiates an audit ? A. A. Ⅳ. Ⅲ. II and IV only B.

C. II and III 105. II and III only D. II and III only D. Least material condition. What is the meaning of the G D & T symbol below ? A. a materials control plan must have procedures to control which of the following events ? Ⅰ. Regardless of feature size. The total measurement process may be more expensive. D. B. II and III . I. Inspection prior to a painting or masking operation. Ⅲ. A. I and II only C. When non-conforming product is encountered. I and III only D. I. Ⅱ. The measuring instrument may be more expensive. Disposition. Maximum material condition. Which of the following would be the most important considerations when establishing inspection points within a production operation ? Ⅰ. Ⅲ. I only B. II only B. I and II only C. 103. I. More measurement time may be required.Sample Test #2 102. A. I and II only B. Ⅲ. Projected tolerance zone. Ⅱ. Segregation. I and III only C. Ⅱ. The best argument(s) to avoid unnecessary accuracy in dimension measurement is(are) which of the following? Ⅰ. A. II and III 104. Inspection to prevent defects from entering the system. Inspection after all operations (both manual and automated).22 - . Identification.

III and IV .ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 106. Ⅲ. which of the following would be considered advantages of automated inspection systems ? Ⅰ. 107. Disposition of any set-aside non conforming products. Monitoring the effectiveness of the quality system. I. B. Lower operating costs. Greater accuracy. Greater flexibility. B. D. II.23 - . Shorter inspection times 109. Inspection operations typically A. Ⅱ. Greater mobility. B. III and IV only D. Compared to traditional inspection. 108. Which of the following is an advantage of automated inspection over conventional inspection ? A. Require precise equipment in most instances. I and III only C. C. The duties of a materials review board (MRB) do NOT include A. A review of non-conforming product. C. D. Ⅳ. Faster report generation. Shorter inspection times. C. Lower initial costs. Help in assuring satisfactory quality. Reduce the usability of the product or service involved. A. D. II. Occur between all manufacturing operators. II and III only B. Development of corrective action plans to correct non-conformities.

Greater sensitivity and reproducibility in the measurement. The use of standards traceable to NIST provides assurance that the measuring equipment is Ⅰ. Ⅲ. Sensitive. Length. Accurate. An exception to this rule is the category for 112. B. Most A. C. Ⅳ. Mass. II and III . I. An expanded display of surface roughness and surface defects. A.Sample Test #2 110. Substance. III only C. It provides a surface free of minor vibration. It provides an accurate reference surface. It provides a chemically resistant work surface. D. I. II and III only D. Temperature. II. I and II only C. A. I. C. More illumination of the edge of the test object. II and III only D. II only B. Ⅱ. 113. D. Ⅱ. I only B. Valid. Precise. The use of a magnifying lens on an optical comparator helps ensure Ⅰ. The most essential value of a surface plate in precision measurement application is which of the following ? A. III and IV 111. of the base units of the SI measurement system can be produced via laboratory B. It provides a flat working surface. experimentation. Ⅲ.24 - .

2. II and IV only C. I. Suspending measuring equipment from use when conditions warrant. Ⅲ. 6. With little precision. 2. I. 4. Maintaining an adequate record system. Consider the following incomplete list of liquid penetrant steps 1. 4. 6. A. 4. A liquid penetrant is applied. II and IV only D. Which of the following are true statements regarding the use of visual inspection ? Ⅰ. Excess penetrant is washed off the test piece. 6. 3. The test piece surface is cleaned. I. Precision costs and performance are related. II. 2. 3. 3. Ⅳ. It is relatively expensive. With too much precision. 4 D. 3. The typical responsibilities of a calibration department would include which of the following ? Ⅰ. I. The acceptable parts are post-cleaned. II and III only B. Reference standards can be used. performance will improve. 6. I and IV only B. A. Ⅱ. 2. It can be quickly performed. 3. B. I. C. 5 C. . Ensuring traceability of all calibrations to a standard laboratory. The developer is applied to the part. 1. III and IV 116. With too little precision. 2. Identify equipment with a label indicating calibration status. 5. A. III and IV only D. Ⅱ.25 - . II and IV only C.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 114. III and IV 115. Ⅲ. Which of the following is the BEST statement to make regarding the relationship between product precision and product production ? A. 5 B. An accept/reject decision is made. Ⅳ. 1. 5. production costs increase. I. 4. II. 6. production costs increase. It provides consistency between inspectors. D. 1. 1. 5 117.

If the quality of the submitted lots is ten percent defective. A single sampling plan calls for a sample size of 80 with an acceptance number of 5 and a rejection number of 6. AQL and producer's risk. D. then the percent of lots expected to be accepted in the long run is approximately A. Two quantities which uniquely determine a single sampling attributes plan are A. no-go gaging does. Predetermined intervals. It is more scientific. B. D.4 for equivalent quality assurances. B. AQL and LTPD. Corporate rules and procedures. Equipment stability. D. purpose. C. D. C. It requires a larger sample than go. Sample size and rejection number. Calibration intervals of "Measuring & Test Equipment" must be based upon (per MIL-STD-45662): A. It requires greater skills. It provides the most information per piece inspected. . 6% B. Do not depend upon the process average. C. B. Require larger samples than ANSI/ASQ Z1. Are the same in principle as the table. Measurement gaging is preferable to go. B. no-go gaging of a quality characteristic because A. 30% 122. 20% D. C.Sample Test #2 118. 121. The Dodge-Romig sampling tables for AOQL protection A. Intervals assigned by the Department of Defense. and degree of usage. 119. Require sorting of rejected lots.26 - . 10% C. 120. LTPD and consumer's risk.

An active parallel system. C. To decide when to investigate causes of variation. A. D. I. To fix the risk of accepting poor product. To establish an acceptable quality level. 124. Redundancy. The cause and effect diagram. Ⅱ. The Shewhart or Deming cycle is often referred to as A. II. 126.27 - . Cause and effect diagram. Pareto diagram. B. Analyze the problem. A number derived from sample data. B. Parameter. III. A series system. The quality tool widely used to analyze the relationship between two variables is A. D. 128. I. C. The affinity diagram. III. which describes the data in some useful way. Critical value. A standby parallel system. This is an example of A. III. Run charts. II. What is the corrective action sequence for the options below ? Ⅰ. Scatter diagram. C. D. II. Statistic. Variables control charts are designed with which of the following objectives ? A. III. IV D. IV 127. is called a A. C. When the system is first activated all capacitors are operating. To reduce sample size. I. Constant. Problem solving flow chart. Plan-do-check-act. IV C.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 123. II. Ⅲ. B. Install necessary controls. The system continues to operate as long as at least 1 capacitor is operating. IV B. B. C. D. Ⅳ. D. Assign an investigator to the problem. I. Assess the importance of the problem. B. 125. . A system was designed with 3 capacitors.

369 D.0 20. B.P(E and F) . The solution to a statistical problem.28 - .500 134. a parameter is A. 5. 0. 21 130. A box contains 27 black and 3 red balls. Which of the following measures of variability is NOT dependent on the exact value of every measurement ? A. Range. B. A population value. P(E and F) = P(E) + P(F) . Variance. A random variable. 17. C. 120 sets. A random sample of 5 balls is drawn without replacement. Estimate the variance of the population from which the following sample data came 22. 108 sets.108 B. D. A sample value. 18 sets. 133. D. P(E or F) = P(E) + P(E|F) D.Sample Test #2 129. What is the probability that the sample contains one red ball ? A.P(E and F) B. C.9 18. D. Which one of the following is a true statement of probability ? A.1 C. 54 sets. how many sets can be arranged in lots of 3 but always in a different order ? A. 4. Given 6 books. C. 0.270 C. 0. 2. D. Mean deviation. P(E or F) = P(E) + P(F) . In statistical quality control. P(E and F) = P(E) + P(F) C. Standard deviation. A. 131. 1. 0.3 B. B. 132.

00 represents a perfect relationship. Observations are from populations with equal variances. and C yielding the following "coded " data: A B C 6 5 3 3 9 4 5 1 2 2 As a major step in your analysis. II and III only D.76. C. I and III only C. II. .00 represents the absence of a relationship. The relationship between the two variables must be nonlinear. 3 138.29 - .ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 135. 6 D. I and II only B. D. Improvement can be obtained by Ⅰ. A. I. Ⅲ. You have just conducted a designed experiment at three levels A. Ⅲ. r = 0. II and III 136.76 has the same predictive power as r = -0. Which of the following statements concerning the coefficient of simple linear correlation. r. and III 137. I and III only C. 7 B. r = 0. Ⅱ. B. However. Basic assumptions underlying the analysis of variance include Ⅰ. A change in the production process through substitution of new tooling or machinery. the average fraction defective is too high to be satisfactory. 9 C. A change in the basic design of the product. I. Observations are from populations with equal means. II and III only D. I only B. is NOT true ? A. A. A p-chart has exhibited statistical control over a period of time. Observations are from normally distributed populations. r = 1. you calculate the degree of freedom for the "error" sum of squares to be A. Ⅱ. B. Instituting 100% inspection.

Assist with complex data analysis. Ⅲ only. A. . A self-directed team is appropriate for which of the following activities ? A. Narrow skills and experiences. C. Ⅱ. All of the above. Formation of a quality council is a logical first step when an organization launches a quality improvement program Ⅰ. B. D. All of the above. The facilitator should have special training in improvement techniques in order to Ⅰ. B. Ⅰ. Ⅰ only. Solving a departmental procedural problem. The middle managers. Ⅱ. The upper managers. Project improvement team members normally have A. Diverse skills and experiences. Ⅲ only. D. Ⅰ. Resolving labor union issues. A. Ⅲ only. Keep the process on track. B. Because improvement is a strategic goal. Ⅲ. D. Defining purchase order requirements. Ⅲ. C. Ⅰ only. Ⅱ only. An organization quality council is usually composed of Ⅰ. Because improvement needs to be monitored. Diverse skills and narrow experiences. 142. C. B. Because improvement teams need to be well prepared and equipped. Implementing a new company-wide phone system. Ⅲ. Ⅱ. 143. Ⅱ. A.Sample Test #2 139. C. 141. Ⅱ only. B. Ⅰ. Ⅰ only. D. The workforces. Ⅱ. C. All of the above. Ⅲ only. Train team members in the improvement process. 140. D. Diverse experiences and narrow skills.30 - .

Ⅰ. C. A prospective vendor's capability for meeting quality standards. Detect nonrandom variation. Ⅱ. C. Ⅲ C. . 148. C. D. Correlation coefficients are generated from which of the following graphs ? A. Discover inherent variation in the process. B. Continuous improvement.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 144. Ⅲ. Control Charts. The adequacy of a current vendor's system for controlling quality. Ⅱ. B. Pareto chart. Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process ? A. Ⅰ. Ⅲ. Ⅳ. 147. The application of a specification to a unique situation. Ⅰ.31 - . Ⅲ D. Ⅳ. Ⅳ. Pareto diagrams. Ⅱ. Ⅲ B. Ⅳ 145. Control chart. Histogram. Scatter diagrams. D. Ⅳ. Temporary actions. The quality audit could be used to judge all of the following EXCEPT A. Ⅱ. Ⅱ. C. Find nonconformities. Measles charts. Containment actions. 146. D. Fish bone chart. A. B. Preventive actions. Rate the following actions or activities from short terms to long term Ⅰ. B. D. Discover the root cause of nonconforming quality characteristics. The adequacy of a company's own system for controlling quality. The major reason for using a control chart is to A. Ⅰ .

Pareto diagrams. B. B. Review of purchase orders for quality requirements falls into which one of the following quality cost segments ? A. Analysis of complaint cards. 152. Ⅳ D. D. Ⅲ C. 151. Project. Prevention. D. C. Customer call ins. Control charts. Appraisal. D. What does "the voice of the customer" refer to ? A. B. D. Affinity diagrams. Should be initiated by the vendee's engineering department. External Failures. Should be initiated by the vendee's purchasing department. what quality improvement tools could be utilized ? Ⅰ. Internal failures. If qualitative data were being considered. Ⅰ. It is generally easier to find a benchmarking partner in which of the following area ? A. Strategic. C. Process. Ⅲ B. Should be initiated by the vendor's quality control department. Communication with vendors on quality problems A. Ⅱ. C.32 - . Ⅲ. Ⅲ. Can be resolved only through personal visits between vendor and vendee. Ⅱ.Sample Test #2 149. C. Product. Flowcharts. 153. A. B. Ⅱ. 150. Listening to the customer. Ⅰ. Ⅳ . Ⅱ. Internal option polls. Ⅱ. Ⅳ.

D. Provides a prioritization system for the allocation of resources. Ⅰ B. B. Insures the resolution of specific quality problems. Ⅲ 158. D. with no apparent trends or patterns. The system are very complex and include computer controls. It varies from 0 through 1.MR chart. The most appropriate control chart for this process is which of the following ? A. Which statement is (are) TRUE regarding the correlation coefficient ? Ⅰ. np chart. . Which of the following quality tools would be LEAST important in the problem definition phase ? A.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 154. The advantages of a quality cost system would NOT include which of the following ? A. Ⅰ. The process is in control. and pneumatic actions. D. Process flow diagrams. Provides a manageable overview of quality. Your company produces one. C. MX bar . Ⅲ C. B. C. 155. Ⅱ. The range values have been within control limits as well. with no apparent trends or patterns. u chart. C. The next 20 sets of samples all had averages within the control limits. An X bar-R chart has been established based on 30 sets of 5 samples taken at 15 minute intervals. Aligns quality and company goals. C. Each system is custom built for the customer's application. The process has shown no assignable causes. Ⅱ D. Control Charts. It is always a positive number. Pareto diagrams. Ⅱ. A. D.33 - . Ⅲ. The sample average are normally distributed. 157. mechanical components. 156. or three automated assembly systems per order. B. 100% of the parts meet specifications. B. c chart. two. A negative relationship is indicated if X increases and Y decreases. Each system can have multiple problems which are found at final inspection. Fishbone diagrams. Which of the following statements may NOT be true ? A.

Ⅱ. . It is necessary to know when to investigate a process for cause of variation. Ⅲ. Ⅳ D. Terminate employment of nonproductive employees. Ⅱ. Request information from all organizational levels.000 of incidents. D. An "empowered" team is able to A.34 - . An acceptable quality level must be established. Ⅳ. The machine capability is wider than the specification. Ⅱ B. Ⅰ. Ⅲ. B. Ⅲ. A reduced sample size is needed. Ⅴ. Purchase up to $100. Ⅴ 160.Sample Test #2 159. Represent the organization in legal affairs. Ⅲ C. An X bar and R chart can be helpful in controlling a process when Ⅰ. C. The machine capability is smaller than the specification. A.

ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) Solution #2 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 D B D C B D A B B D A A C D B 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A A B D A C A A B C D D C C D 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 B C C D D C A D C B C C A A B 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 B A B D A C A B C A A D C D D 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 D C C D B D A C C B D C B D C 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 D C C C A D A C B 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 A 106 A 121 C 136 A 151 C B 107 A 122 B 137 A 152 B A 108 D 123 C 138 B 153 C B 109 D 124 C 139 D 154 C D 110 B 125 C 140 B 155 C B 111 C 126 D 141 D 156 A C 112 C 127 A 142 C 157 C C 113 A 128 B 143 D 158 B A 114 D 129 A 144 B 159 B C 100 B 115 A 130 D 145 D 160 B A 101 A 116 A 131 C 146 C C 102 B 117 C 132 C 147 B A 103 D 118 C 133 C 148 C B 104 D 119 B 134 C 149 A B 105 C 120 A 135 B 150 B .35 - .

Scheduling. project team members may not accept reporting to a project manager whose hierarchical position is lower than theirs. References: CQE Primer. Answer D is correct. Answer B is correct. pp. answer C is not a correct statement. Scheduling and Controlling. The total quality effort would possibly suffer if it is not part of the strategic plan. and Controlling. Therefore. The best choice is B. . 3. answer A is not correct. 2) deciding when to do it. 5. Quality department goals (answer D) would not be strategic in nature. including assignment of responsibility for each task to an individual or organizational group.. lack of emphasis. the elements of the project management process are II. Therefore. creating competition for the same resources. Answer D is correct. D The elements of project management are: Planning. III and IV. upper management may create organizational roadblocks to the project by making changes in the project objective. Finally. 597-607. The project manager is responsible for completion of the work breakdown structure. The quality effort needs commitment from top management. 2. 3rd ed. D The work breakdown structure (WBS) is a detailed plan which expands the statement of work into the detailed listing of activities required to complete the project. Upper management approves the project and thereby supports the project. They may also start too many projects at the same time. 4. However. Setting the objectives is an important step in the project process. B Strategic goals could exist without a quality element. can occur. B The wording of this question is somewhat tricky. At the same time.36 - . Project Management A Systems Approach to Planning. C The critical path is the task sequence which requires the greatest expected time. Answer B. after the project has started. This can be stated as 1) deciding what to do. H. One might argue that organizational roadblocks are due to all four factors listed above. 1. Section II and Kerzner.Sample Test #2 CQE Sample Test #2 : Solutions.. Answer B is correct. and 3) assuring that desired results are obtained.

However. . Answer D is correct. Item IV should be last. plant visits and incoming inspection will be futile. answer B explains the question best. It reflects a supplier's performance over a longer period of time in a number of areas (quality reliability. 11. 9. ineffective and costly. Accountable means to be responsible for the goals (answer C).B. the results should be valid. If the vendor does not conduct effective internal audits then the certificate of compliance can become routine and worthless.37 - . it is a snapshot of the supplier at one point in time. 8.C/D. responsiveness. An evaluation of a supplier's quality history is the best answer. They explain or expand some of the weaknesses or facts present during product inspection. B Answers A. If quality is built into the product then it doesn't matter if inspection misses a defect. 10. The decision on a plant philosophy should be undertaken only after a thorough management understanding. which makes answer A the best choice. If the requirements are not understood. A supplier will present themselves in the best possible light in a questionnaire or over the phone. then quality manuals. D Product audits (Answer A) and source inspection (Answer B) can be effective tools. This analysis is straight forward. These two answers are very weak.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 6. A A. A Logic indicates that the CEO should study the gurus first (item II). D Delegated means to be assigned goals (answer A). 7. A certificate of compliance (Answer D) can be shaky. C and D are true statements in many circumstances. incorrect. this action should be followed by the total management team (item I). B One of the fundamental steps in dealing with a vendor is to familiarize them with the basic requirements. choice. Answer D is the correct. Distributed means to be given goals (answer B). The defect isn't there. However. etc. A certification of analysis (Answer C) can indicate the composition of a product. If laboratory instrumentation has been calibrated properly. Inspection to improve quality is too late.). Deployed means to have the goals spread out into attainable portions. Answer A is correct. A survey evaluation is a valid answer. Answer D is the best choice.

14. but other information is also needed. brings the customer to you. Answer B is correct. 17. Thus. B Answers C and D contain elements of good quality service. service quality. but they are incomplete answers. Answer C is correct. The basic need is for the company to be ISO 9000 registered which includes having a Quality Manual. C and D are restrictive in their wording. MIL-STD-45208A is inferior to the ISO 9000 standards and would not be necessary. Configuration management will manage the evolution of a product from development to final product retirement. & IV are required. Only answer A starts with II. Answer D is correct. that will fabricate the part. Answer A is correct. D Training records would be needed to meet ISO 9000 requirements (item I) and possibly an audit requirement (item IV). Answer D is also an incomplete answer. encourages the customer to stay. A The hierarchy of customer expectations follow the stages of basic (II). Answer A indicates a sharing of critical information. product quality. desired (IV) and unanticipated (III). II. OSHA and Malcolm Baldrige audits may also require training documentation. which is needed for successful partnerships.Sample Test #2 12. and continues with the correct sequence. Answer A is correct. A For a partnership to work. there is joint cooperation and sharing of much information. answer D is the best choice. answer A is the best choice. all fabricated parts for the customer must be considered critical. A Configuration management requires documentation. Answer A is correct. items I. C Given that an aerospace company is indicated. Answer A. 15. 16. Answer B. expected (I). Thus. Therefore. Changes are a part of the system. but it is more than documentation.38 - . Process capability indices on key processes. are a definite necessity. 13. . Answers B.

ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer)

18. B There are companies that maintain that the customer is always right (answer A). This is a good principle and it works for some companies. The process should not embarrass either party, (answer B), is an even better principle. Answer C maintaining the company position and answer D, strict steps, are both poorer choices. The best selection is B. Answer B is correct.

19. D Answers A and B can be eliminated. These two types of charts contain elements on two planes (X and Y axis). The Y-type matrix is in three planes and is the proper choice here. The C-type matrix is a more complicated set of Y-type matrices projected into three dimensional space. This latter choice would seem to stretch the intent of the question. Answer D is correct.

20. C.

21. C The scatter diagram and process flow diagram are totally different problem solving tools. Answer C which includes both the cause and effect diagram and the fishbone diagram is the correct answer. Answer C is correct.

22. B Pert charts (III) and Gantt charts (IV) are project time management tools, they are not tally sheets. Both checksheets (II) and measles charts (I) are, or can be, used as tally sheets. Answer A is correct.

23. A Answer B best describes a normal distribution. Answer C describes any distribution that has had a portion of readings removed; such as by inspection. Answer D is incorrect because it is multi modal. A bimodal distribution has two modes or peaks. Answer A is correct.

24. B Answer A is incorrect because a scatter diagram shows whether there is the possibility of a relationship between one or more variables. Answer C is incorrect because it shows a static picture of the process. Answer D shows how various causes can possibly interact. Cumulative lines can be used with the Pareto diagram. Answer B is correct.

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Sample Test #2

25. C The others category is an accumulation of the trivial many and therefore is placed at the end of the diagram as the last category. Answer C is correct.

26. D If two events are mutually exclusive, the sum of their probabilities is 1. For example, on 1 flip of a coin, obtaining a head and obtaining a tail are mutually exclusive. It is impossible to have a head and a tail on 1 flip of a coin, but it is certain that either a head or a tail will be obtained. If two events are independent, the outcome of one event has no effect on the other event. An example of this is tossing a coin twice. The result of the first toss does not impact the second toss. If two events are independent, their covariance is zero. Answer D is correct.

27. D A statistic is a sample value. A parameter is a population value. Answer D is correct.

28. C The author knows several ways to solve this problem (or at least approximate the right answer). Perhaps the most straight forward is by use of the multiplicative law of probability.

29. C. This is a binomial probability problem.

30. D Without the word cumulative in the question, a good case could be made for answers A, B and C. The best of these answers would be B. When cumulative is included, then D becomes the correct choice. Answer D is correct.

31. B Item I describes the median of a distribution. Item III describes the mode of a distribution. Answer B is correct.

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ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer)

32. C This question requires the backward use of the Poisson table. Note the phrase "at least one defect will be found".For the sample to contain one or more defects with a 95% probability, the table must be used to determine a 5% probability of zero. Np = 3.0There must be three defects in the scoop of 100. Note that, if the scoop contained twenty units, there still must be three defects in it. Answer C is correct.

33. C The standard deviation of the average of a sample of 10 is equal to the standard deviation of the individuals divided by the square root of the sample size. In this case, the standard deviation of the average with a sample of 10 is 2.53. Using the equation below, this can be transformed to standard normal (mean = 0 and standard deviation = 1).The standard normal deviate is z = (77-75)/2.53 = 0.7906. The area under the standard normal curve to the right of 0.7906 is 0.2146.

34. D

35. D When a process is in control, there will be random variation. If the process is out of control, some "assignable cause" is adding more variability to the process. A control chart is used to distinguish between random variation, and variation due to an out of control condition. If the process is out of control, the process should be stopped, and the "assignable cause" fixed. The correct response is to detect non-random variation in processes. Answer D is correct.

36. C The primary purpose of a control chart is to detect changes in the process that are assignable. Answer C is correct.

37. A The expression for computing a confidence interval for the mean, given the population is normal and the standard deviation is known is Sigma is the population standard deviation, n is the sample size, and z is the standard normal deviate. A 90% confidence interval means that given the sample data, there is a 90% chance that the true population mean is contained in the interval. Thus, the wider the interval, the greater the confidence. Confidence is also increased by increasing the sample size. The size of the population does not enter into this equation.

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D 47. C. D The Risk Priority Number is part of a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA). A 48. Answer D is correct. B 49. and detection. B 44. 40.42 - . D 45. . B 46. A 41.Sample Test #2 38. B 39. severity. 43. A 42. It is the product of the measures of occurrence. C.

Vector space analysis does not apply to reliability. incorrect. Answer B is correct. A A fault-tree is a graphical method for modelling the reliability of complex systems. 54. The other answers are filler. A Answer A is the correct description of a reference dimension. If followed.standard and meaningless tolerance. choice. 52. The firm may or may not be quality conscious. Fault-tree is the correct response. not predict reliability. . The variation of the final product is determined by the equation below Answer C is correct. C The average weight is 115 grams. C and D apply. B This is a non .43 - . Answer C is the correct. Answer A is correct. The audit team may not be sufficiently knowledgeable to accomplish this objective. 51. ideally. This action would also compromise the independence of the audit function. C Audits. 53. They may have fired the quality manager for developing a quality manual that interfered with production. 55. There is insufficient information in the question to assume that the quality system has been implemented. A The existence of a quality control manual simply implies that at some point a quality system has been developed. Answer A is correct. Answer A is correct. FMEA (failure modes and effects analysis) is used to identify failure modes. various individuals might conclude that conditions like answers A. are not conducted to find root causes of problems. MIL-STD-217 is a standard for prediction of reliability for ELECTRONIC equipment.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 50.

57. 58. 60. if the plotted points are based on a sample of 100. Answer B may have some validity. IV should be included in the final audit report. D If the specification limits are wider than the control limits. incorrect. Answer A is the correct. C 61.44 - . B . This allows a schedule to be developed to correct deficiencies. 59. For example. then the standard deviation of the process is 10 times as great as the standard deviation of the sampling distribution being plotted on the control chart. no conclusions can be drawn unless the sample size is known. Remember that the standard deviation of the sampling distribution is inversely proportional to the square root of the sample size.Sample Test #2 56. A A quality audit should be done on a scheduled basis. Answer C is correct. D All of the choices I. Answer D is correct. Answer D is correct. but the best selection is answer C. C Answer choices A and D are very weak selections. choice. This is shown in the equation used to compute control charts limits below.

ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 62. choice. D 64. They are. however. 68. Answer B is correct. A Answer A is the objective of inspection. C Since no lot size is given. the binomial distribution can be used. Items II and IV could be valid reasons for source inspection. D The description fits that of a major seriousness characteristic. incorrect. 66. Thus. B 63. very good reasons to select another supplier. B Items I and III are poor choices for source inspection. The probability of obtaining exactly x successes in a sample of n items from a population with a fraction defective of p is given by the equation below. . A 65. C and D) are all part of the detailed inspection instructions. Answer A is the correct. Answer D is correct. The other answers (B.45 - . it is assumed that the population size is sufficiently large as to mimic sampling with replacement. 67.

. Answer C is correct. The critical path is the sequence of tasks which require the greatest expected time. and events on the critical path have a slack time of zero. the project may or may not have the desired outcome. incorrect. code letter D is the proper choice. so answer B is also incorrect. 71. For some projects. The Gantt chart can be constructed with less data than is required for the PERT chart. 72. If the objective is poorly defined.46 - . Time estimates are required for each activity in the PERT network. The Gantt chart can be constructed with minimal data. choice.Sample Test #2 69. the project objective is defined by a champion of the desired outcome for the project A logical sequence for the project steps listed as possible answers would be B-C-A-D. The table is shown in the figure below. so answer A is incorrect. while on other projects. B The first and most important project planning phase is the definition of the project objective. the objective is determined by upper management. Answer D is correct. not before. Answer C is correct. 73. so answer D is incorrect.4 (Sample Size Code Letters). The critical path is calculated after analysis of the network.9 is shown in the figure below The intersection of inspection level II and lot size 500 gives letter I. Answer B is correct. C The PERT chart requires time estimates for each activity in the network. D The Sample Size Code Letter table for ANSI/ASQ Z1. C From ANSI/ASQ Z1. 70. Slack times are for events not on the critical path. B The Dodge-Romig plans were developed in the 1920s. Step D could be done before step A. All of the project activities are intended to achieve the project objective. Answer B is the correct.

ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 74. C This question requires a general familiarity with the teachings of major quality gurus and an answer review.47 - . Answer D. Feigenbaum. V. production and service. Juran refers to quality improvement as part of his quality trilogy. Ishikawa. Dr. II. Each phase may only be completed after the information is available from the previous phase. C Increasing employee incentives indicates that one believes that incentives are a way to guarantee success (answer A). Juran. each defining the project with greater detail. I. Following the sequence for project planning phases. Deming's point 5 discusses the need for constant improvement to the process of planning. Covey are not identified. The phases of project planning are: objective. Crosby. Taguchi. Answer C. Philip Crosby's 14 step approach lists quality improvement teams. III. statement of work. is a basic step toward success. The concepts of Dr. The best answer is C. work breakdown structure. VI. Answers A. having employees understand how they can make a difference. B and D could be viewed as subsets of answer C. Answer C is correct. Dr. and project budgets. It is a very specific solution and may not be correct. Answer C is correct. but not the best choice. IV. 75. incorrect. the correct order is III. . D The appropriate concept and corresponding guru match is shown below : I. choice. Deming. Increase training is a good choice (answer B). 76. II. IV. Answer D is correct. D Project planning is completed as a series of phases. is another specific and somewhat restrictive solution. 77. which is the best choice. Answer D is the correct.

A scatter diagram depicts the relationship between variables. Potential causes are brainstormed into the fishbone without the scrutiny of initial criticism. Answer D is one advantage of control charts (perhaps histograms as well).Sample Test #2 78. C Scatter diagrams. Answer C is correct. 80. brainstorming is required to compliment the 4-M or fishbone diagram. . If the question stated common cause versus assignable causes.48 - . 79. A Answers C and D do not apply. Answer A is correct. an input variable may have an effect on an output variable. Pareto diagrams and force field analysis are analytical tools which may be useful in the problem solving cycle. However. the terms significant few (chronic) and the trivial many (less significant) refer to the Pareto diagram. then B would be correct. Answer C is correct. C Answers A and B describe the Pareto diagram. Specifically. However.

0. the probability of Event B occurring given Event A has occurred P(B/A). the probability of less than 2 defects is 0. Answer D is the correct. In this case. A The Poisson distribution is used to model rates. np=4. Answer V may be used in some cases.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 81.0755. The probability of exactly x events occurring can be computed using the Poisson distribution shown below Entering this equation with x = 0 and m = 0. 0.9245 = 0. incorrect.49 - . gaining information about one provides no information about the probability of the other event occurring. P(B). Answer A is correct. the median is between the mode and the mean. The probability of exactly x defects is Entering this equation with x = 7 and m = 4 gives the probability of 7 people will be hired.6376. 86. This answer can also be determined quickly from a Poisson Table. and the mode is greater than the median. Thus. 82.889) yields the answer 0.949) minus the probability that 6 or less (.05954. C If a distribution is skewed to the left. D Answer choices I. 85. II and III are all clearly parts of a process flow review.6376 + 0. Answer A is correct. 84.2869 = 0. B This is an application of the Poisson distribution. The probability of 7 or less (.45 gives the probability of exactly zero defects. Thus. .9245. Thus.45 gives the probability of exactly 1 defect. choice.2869. is equal to the probability of Event B occurring. Answer C is correct.06. C If two events are independent. Answer choice IV. Entering this equation with x = 1 and m = 0. A Poka-yoke consists of applying simple mechanical and electrical devices to minimize human error in a process. 0. the use of Pareto diagrams. is not used as part of this technique and is the correct wrong answer. 83. the probability of more than 1 defect is 1-0.

and outcomes of that process. are also referred to as cause and effect diagrams. A 89. Answer B is considered correct. There is a fairly strong "apparent" correlation between the two values. Item II is probably false because the chart is not scaled or identified. Item IV is clearly a correct statement. Answer B is correct. B Flow charts visually present a process showing the main steps. 88. A scatter diagram visually displays correlation between two or more variables. . 90.Sample Test #2 87. Answers A. The intercepts may both be negative values (although by convention they are both headed in more positive directions). although more information would be desirable to confirm the relationship. Fishbone diagrams. A Pareto diagram is used to show all categories by rank. The writers would tend to count item III as a true statement. sometimes called Ishikawa diagrams. C and D are incorrect. seperating the vital few from the trivial many.50 - . Installing state of the art equipment and processes and improving the design of products are some actions that might be taken in reengineering. Answer B is correct. B Item I is clearly an incorrect statement. branches. but not necessarily. B Studying the leader's business and copying some of their activities is benchmarking. Answer A is incorrect. Neither C nor D are the best choices.

The cause and effect diagram helps categorize ideas. A vendor audit is conducted to ensure that the supplier‘s quality program is functioning properly. False. 92. 96. False. and problem solving cost savings. incorrect. choice. The scatter diagram shows relationships between variables. Audit surveillance is not a threat to motivate suppliers D. Answer B is the correct. 93. B Although technical service is a good public relations gesture. B With quality teams there should be improved worker morale. and process standard deviation. (A). 95. B Control charts can use process average. and a nice support feature for suppliers. mode and median) and a comparison with the answers. Management must still maintain their quality efforts. A This question requires a review of the definitions of the terms of central tendency (mean. A The Pareto diagram is best suited to direct attention to problems in a systematic manner. The principal reason for a supplier audit is not to replace inspection C. The correct answer is B. The correct answer is A. True. The control chart is used to analyze process variation. increased communications between team members and management. 94. an upper control limit. There may or may not be a need for source inspection B.51 - . D A. Answer D is correct. . especially when limited resources are available. False.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 91.

Answer B (which includes choices II and IV) represents principal concerns during the execution of the audit. Smart companies should not see technical service as an optional luxury. C Answer choice I is not valid. 98. making answer B a subset of answer A. However. C Answer choices I and IV are poor reasons for initiating quality systems audits. However. A The proper answer to this question is A. other parties may be the client. Answer (B). Under some conditions. B Answer choices I and III are considerations that should have been resolved during the planning and preparation phase of the audit. (D). greater benefit to the company than it is to the supplier. 100. 97. Answer C is correct. the finding must be included in the audit report. . II is the best answer choice and III is also valid.Sample Test #2 they are not the main reasons for providing this service. Answer B is correct. is the best choice. but as a valuable resource to help insure the quality of incoming products. There may be a need for corrective action and follow up in these cases. Answer C is the proper selection. The lead auditor and auditee are participants in the audit but do not initiate it.52 - . 99. the plant manager may be the client. Answer B is correct. Answer A is correct.

106. A The MRB can recognize and suggest the need for corrective action but will not necessarily develop the corrective action plan. D Answer II may be the very best choice. 105. D All of the items I . Answer D is correct.53 - . C and D are only partially correct. Answer A is the best choice. answers I and III are also valid.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 101. 107. Answer A is the correct. C Item II is incorrect. Answer A is the correct. However. Answer C is the correct choice. incorrect choice. . A Answers B. incorrect. choice. A Statements I. 102.III are important factors in the effective control of non-conforming product. C 103. III and IV are generally true descriptions of the process audit. It is not necessary to inspect after all operations. 104. Answer D is the best choice.

111. Answer C is correct. Answer C is correct. 110.Sample Test #2 108. B The use of appropriate standards only ensures accuracy.54 - . The standard unit of mass is a cylinder of platinum iridium alloy kept by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Sevres. Answer D is correct. The kilogram is the only base unit still defined by an artifact.IV are automated inspection advantages. 112. France. D 109. Answer B is correct. C This question is looking for an incorrect choice. Answer C is correct. . C The key phrase in this question is "MOST ESSENTIAL". D When properly set-up and maintained all of items I . The other answers are of varying lesser importance.

55 - . 116. Items II and III are false statements. 114. Answer A is correct. 118. Answer D is correct. A Item I is correct. 117. A Items I and IV are correct statements. . 115. Additionally.Answer A is the correct choice and it checks with reality. C The interval of calibration of measuring equipment should be based on stability. item 2 should precede item 6. The proper answer is C. purpose and degree of usage. Items II and III are filler. precision may positively or negatively affect cost and performance. D All of the listed items I . C Based on the circumstances.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 113. A A review of the listed items indicates that number 3 should be first and number 5 should be last. Answer C is correct. a magnifying lens will affect all characteristics of accuracy and precision. Answer A is the proper choice.IV are calibration department responsibilities.

C np for use with the Poisson table is (80)(. making answer C incorrect. 121. 122. sample size and either accept or rejection number. Answer C is correct. Answer A is correct. C.Sample Test #2 119. Answer A is filler.4 assumes no process average information. B Go.1%Please note that this is only an approximation of the binomial. Measurement gaging provides more information per piece inspected than does go. no-go gages. B Three quantities describe an attribute sampling plan. 100% inspection is required for lots rejected by Dodge Romig sampling. 120. Dodge Romig tables do utilize process average information. The two crucial factors are sample size and Ac or Re. Answer B is correct. no-go gages are easier to use and require less skill than the measurement gages.56 - .191 or 19. Answer B is correct. If the 2nd and 3rd capacitors were not operating until required. . C This is an example of an active parallel system. the system would be a passive parallel system. A Answers B and C: ANSI/ASQ Z1. The lot size is used to determine the sample size. Answers A. Answer D: Dodge Romig tables require smaller samples than ANSI/ASQ Z1.4. The probability of 5 or less is . 123. Answer C is correct.1) = 8. Lot size. Measurement (variable) gaging generally requires a smaller sample size than attribute gaging . and D are useful characteristics of various attribute plans but they do not exclusively describe any single attribute plan.

A statistic is derived from sample data.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 124. Equations: Where S = sample standard deviation V = variance. A critical value is a table value with which a test statistic is compared to derive a population inference. D There are some other basic steps left off the list of items. A 126. A parameter is a number derived from population data. A The quickest way to solve this problem is to determine sample standard deviation and square it to give the variance. n-1 must be used. . By use of a statistical calculator: S = 2. C The Shewart cycle is another name for Plan-Do-Check-Act. 127. Note that this problem does make an inference about the population. 125. A The wording of the question indicates a classic application of the scatter diagram. . 129. Answer C is correct.3. Answer A is correct. Answer D is correct. The best correct sequence is contained in answer D. A2. Thus. 128.0736.57 - . V = 4. . Answer A is correct. etc. Answer B is correct. e. One elimination technique would be to place both items I and II ahead of item III. B A constant is a fixed value .

Reinmuth & Beaver: "Numerical descriptive measurements computed from population measurements are called parameters those computed from sample measurements are called statistics." Answer C is correct.Sample Test #2 130. A parameter is a population value. Equation: Where n=number of distinct objects r = number of objects taken per time. mean deviation and standard deviation require the exact value for every measurement. incorrect. 135. Answer D is correct. C This question requires a comparison of the answers with the additive and multiplicative laws of probability. 131. B . Answer C is the correct.58 - . The range requires exact values for the highest and lowest measurements. A 136. Combination Permutation(ABC) (ABC) + (ACB) + (BAC) + (BCA) + (CAB) + (CBA). Answer A would be correct. C A statistic is a sample value. a permutation calculation. 133. If the question asked for distinct combinations the answer would be: One example of the difference between the permutation and combination answers. D This question requires a permutation calculation and comparison to the answers. not a combination calculation. is required. C Variance. Consider this definition from Statistics For Management and Economics Mendenhall. C 134. 132. choice. Solution: this problem does not imply distinct combinations therefore.

ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) 137. operators. 143. C Facilitator should not be into complex data analysis. D The quality council consist of members of upper management because of the strategic nature of the improvement process. A facilitator does keep team progress on track. Item Ⅰ and Ⅲ are the best choices. In some cases. B 138. engineers. the facilitator will provide training. mechanics. . B Normally the organization's quality council consist of members of upper management. Among other duties. D Self-directed teams traditionally work on inter-departmental issues. A 139. the council monitors progress and provides resources to the improvement teams. These individuals would normally have diverse skills and experiences. Answer A. 141. D. supervisors. etc. Project teams may have a composite membership of technicians.59 - . B and C are interdepartment issues that could be best addressed by project or cross functional teams. 140. 142.

immediate of containment actions are considered the first short term correction. 149. They don't have anything to do with correlation.60 - . Pareto charts are used to prioritize problems. The histogram displays a static picture of the process. Normally. B and D are valid reasons for the conduct of a quality audit. Continuous improvement is a long term activity." Control charts are used to statistically control a process. The review of purchase orders for quality requirements is a preplanning preventative activity which may avert many appraisal and failure costs later. Pareto diagrams show the "vital few" and the "trivial many. B Although companies have different structures and responsibilities. 147. B Measles charts indicate where. Answer B begins with item item Ⅲ. item Ⅱ followed by item Ⅳ. Answer C is the poorest choice. B This question requires knowledge of various corrective action and preventive action techniques and a review of the answers. Scatter diagrams can have a calculated correlation coefficient which measures goodness of fit. C This question requires basic quality tool knowledge. 148. C The key question word is "EXCEPT. It's also not clear if an audit or a tolerance review is called for with this answer. The fish bone chart shows how various causes could possibly interest. A control chart shows an ongoing dynamic picture of the process. A This is basic definition question. Ⅰ and ends with 145. D 146. The other two items are also in the proper order.Sample Test #2 144." Answers A. 150. the most common method of formally .

.ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer) communicating a vendor quality problem is through the purchasing department that place the order.61 - .

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