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**BRILLIANT’S MOCK TEST 3
**

FOR STUDENTS OF

AIEEE 2011 MTP 3/QNS

OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE TOWARDS

**ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011
**

MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY

Time: 3 hours IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Maximum marks: 432

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432. 2. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response. Part A − MATHEMATICS (144 Marks) − Questions No. 1 to 9 and 13 to 21 and 25 to 30 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 10 to 12 and 22 to 24 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part B − PHYSICS (144 Marks) − Questions No. 33 to 49 and 54 to 60 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 31 to 32 and 50 to 53 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part C − CHEMISTRY (144 Marks) − Questions No. 64 to 69, 73 to 90 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 61 to 63 and 70 to 72 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. 3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question.1/4 (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited 5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, page mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room 6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________

**Roll Number: in figures
**

: in words ___________________________________________________________________

**Examination Centre Number:
**

Name of Examination Centre (in Capitals): ___________________________________________________ Candidate s Signature: ___________________________Invigilator s Signature:____________________ ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns - 1

SEAL

2

PART A : MATHEMATICS

1. If cos 50° + sin 50° = p, then cos 100° is (1) (3) 2

2 p p

2 2

5. If p,q are real roots of x2 + px + q = 0 and x2 + px + q + k is non-negative, then possible value of k is (q ≠ 0)

(2) p 2 (4)

p 2

p

2

p

2

(1) 3 2

(2) ± 3 2

(3) 9 4

(4)

9 4

**2. The ratio of the greatest value of 2 − cos x + sin2 x to its least value is (1)
**

1 4 13 4

6. If x − 5 + x − 4 + x − 3 ≤ 6, then (1) x ∈ [0, 3] (3) x ∈ (3, 5) (2) x ∈ [3, 5] (4) x ∈ [5, ∞)

(2)

9 4

(3)

(4) None of these

7. If t7 = 9 in an A.P, then find common difference if t1t2t7 be least.

**3. If sin A + sin 2A = x and cos A + cos 2A = y, then x (1) 2y (3) x + y
**

2

y

2

x

2

y

2

3 =

(1)

33 20 3 20

(2)

13 20

(2) 2x (4) None of these

(3)

(4) None of these

4. Let α, β be the roots of x2 + x + 1 = 0. Then the equation whose roots are α235 and α1010 is (1) x2 − x − 1 = 0 (3) x2 + x − 1 = 0 (2) x2 − x + 1 = 0 (4) x2 + x + 1 = 0

8. Between 1 and 20, there are 3 numbers a, b, c having sum as 25; b, a, 2 are in A.P; 18, c, b are in G.P, then ab + c is divisible by (1) 12 (3) 15 (2) 13 (4) None of these

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AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns - 2

5. Statement 1: The foot of perpendicular from the point (3. then its equation is 2x + y − 3z = 14. statement 2 is true. 12. Statement 1: 13. 9. If distance of this plane from origin is maximum. statement 2 is true. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK x x 5 11. Each question contains two statements: statement 1 (Assertion) and statement 2 (Reason). b and c are coplanar iff a ⋅ b × c = 0. t + π] such that f′(c) = 0. Statement 2: The range of f(x) = is [0. For each real t. 6). Statement 2: If the plane passing 1 5 through the point A a is at maximum distance from origin. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . 6k are coplanar. then λ is equal to 100. Statement 2: The foot of perpendicular from the point c on the line r =a t b is a c a b b⋅b ⋅b . statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. The equation (x − 1)5 = m (x5 − 1) has 3 real roots. (2) Statement 1 is true. 1 ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. then normal to plane is vector a . there exists a point c in [t. if 0 < m < 16. 7. Statement 2: 10.3 Questions 9 to 14 are Assertion − Reason type questions. − 3). statement 2 is false. (3) Statement 1 is false. 16]. Statement 1: If the vectors 3 i i 3j 2k and 4 i 2j λj 2 k. statement 2 is true. statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. Statement 1: Let f(x) = 2 + cos x for all real x. 1. f(t) = f(t + 2π) for each real t. 5) on the line 2j r = i k 3j 5k + t 3i is (4. Statement 1: A plane passes through the point A(2. (4) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2: The vectors a . Select the correct choice from the following: (1) Statement 1 is true.3 .

The value of 7 2 ⋅7 4 ⋅7 8 . 2 18.4 . . The value of lim 3 x→0 2 x 3x is 16. 7 taken all at a time is (1) 132 (3) 154 (2) 143 (4) 165 (1) log 9 8 9 8 x x f(x) = log 1 sin x is (2) R − {nπ/n ∈ Z} (4) (− ∞.. Statement 1: If A and B are two independent events and if P(A) = 0. The sum of the digits in the unit place of all numbers formed with the help of 4.6 and P A ∪ B = 0. then n is equal to r (2) 255 (4) 1023 19.4 14. π} (3) R − {2nπ/n ∈ Z} 20. ∞) 2x (1) R − { − π. Total number of divisors of 12600 is equal to (1) 48 (3) 72 1 1 (2) log 8 9 (2) 60 (4) 84 21. If (1 + x) (1 + x2 ) (1 + x4 ) (1 + x8 ) . the value 17. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . then P(A ∩ B) = P(A) ⋅ P(B). (1 + x512 ) = (1) 127 (3) 511 r=0 ∑ n x . ∞ is (1) 1 (3) 49 (2) 7 (4) 343 of k is (1) 1 2 (2) 2 5 (3) 1 5 (4) 3 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. 15. The domain of the function Statement 2: If A and B are independent.. 1 (3) − log (4) log 72 log 5 x lim x→0 log 5 = k. 6.8. 5. then P(B) is 1 ...

The solution of k t m 1 (3) 7 7 (4) None of these (1) v = Ce 25. 5 . If f(x) = (x2 − 4) x3 − 6x2 + 11x − 6 + x 1 x 11 . 5 4 (4) None of these k v= m g is (1) 2 (2) 3 27. then the set of points at which (2) 7 11 θ cos 2 θ sin 2 7 C the function f(x) is not differentiable is (1) (3) 23. 3 1 1 x x (4) None of these 26. (3) 2. 6 and 7 is 1 2 1 3 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 6 1 7 (2) 3. 2x + 3y + 4z = 0 admits non-trivial solution is (1) 2. The values of k ∈ R for which the following system of equations x + ky + 3z = 0. 3 . AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . 3 7 (3) 11 11 7 C (4) 1. 2. 1. 2 . 2. 4 . kx + 2y + 2z = 0.5 22.5 . 0. The value of the integral 2 ∫ 1 1 cos θ cos θ θ tan 2 7 9 7 (2) v = C dθ is (3) ve k t m mg e k =C 7 (1) 11 11 7 mg k C (4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. 5 2 5 4 dv dt mg k k t m equals 1 2 (1) − 1 (2) 1 2 (3) − (4) 1 24. d dx 2. The greatest of the numbers 1. 0 sin cot 2 1 (2) 2. Ltd. 3 2.

The variance of the data 6. 49. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .. then P(A = 6. If 3x + y + λ = 0 is normal to the parabola y = − 12x. 30 is (1) 24 (3) 48 (2) 36 (4) 72 30. 12.6 28. . One ticket is selected at random from 50 tickets numbered 00. 01. Suppose A and B are sum and product of digits found on the ticket. 02. then λ = (1) 98 (2) 99 (3) 100 (4) 102 2 29.. 24. 18.. B = 0) is given by (1) 1 49 (2) 1 28 (3) 1 14 (4) 1 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.6 .

its speed is double of what it was (1) zero (2) at a height h above the tower. 1. 1.7 PART B : PHYSICS 31.50. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when at the maximum height H is mv 2g 1 3 2 3 mv (3) 4 2g 3 (4) 2m 2 g H SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.018. 1. In an experiment the value of refractive index of glass was found to be 1.025.54. 1.52 ± 5% (3) 1.48. When the ball reaches a distance h below the tower. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .49. 1.53 ± 0.54 ± 0.52 ± 0. The greatest height reached by the ball is (1) 4 h 3 (2) 5 h 3 (3) 7 h 3 (4) 8 h 3 34.52 ± 2% (2) 1. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v at an angle of 45° with the horizontal.7 .53.52 ± 0.53 ± 4% (4) 1. 1.032. 1.56. From the top of a tower T.54 ± 2% 33. 1. 1. 1. Which one of the following is dimensionally incorrect ? (1) Inductance L = ML2 T − 2A − 2 (2) Specific resistance ρ = ML3 T − 3A − 2 (3) Magnetic dipole moment µ = M0L2 T0A (4) Capacitance C = ML2 T − 2A3 32. a ball is thrown vertically upwards. 1.04. The value of µ in terms of absolute error and percentage error are (1) 1.55. Ltd.51 in successive 8 measurements.

5 N ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . Ltd.0 N (1) 4.0 N (3) 5. when P rests on Q and moves with it is (1) 7.8 35. A block P weighs 6 N and block Q weighs 12 N.8 N (4) 6.5 N (4) 5. The coefficient of friction between all surfaces in contact is 0.3.2 N (3) 6. The acceleration of the particle is a 2 a 3 2 37. when P and Q are connected by a light flexible cord and passing around a fixed frictionless pulley is (1) 8.0 N (2) 8. The force F necessary to drag the block Q to the left with a constant speed 36.8 . when P is held at rest by a massless thread fixed to the wall is (1) as R as R 2 (2) a 4 4 a s R as R 2 4 2 4 (3) (4) a 4 2 2 3 Question numbers 36 − 38 are based on the following paragraph.4 N (2) 6.0 N (2) 4.4 N SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (3) 9. A particle moves in a circle of radius R with a speed v = a s. where s is the distance covered and a is a constant.0 N 38.5 N (4) 9.

statement 2 is true. voltage. The linear speed of the sphere on reaching the bottom of the inclined plane will be (1) 3 m⁄ s (3) 7 m⁄ s (2) 5 m⁄ s (4) 8 m⁄ s the the the The Question numbers 43 and 44 contains statement 1 and statement 2. statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. 44. 40. statement 2 is true.9 . The value of acceleration due to gravity g is same as that at a height of 6 km.9 39. the first resonance occurs at 30 cm. Statement 2: Transformer is based on the phenomenon of mutual induction.35 m. The length of the pipe. In a closed pipe. Ltd. The excess of pressure inside a spherical drop of water is 5 times that of another drop.c. statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. statement 2 is false. (3) Statement 1 is false. (2) Statement 1 is true. choose the one that best describes the two statements. at which the third resonance occurs is (1) 80 cm (3) 150 cm (2) 120 cm (4) 185 cm SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. A point lies at a depth below surface of the earth. Statement 2: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. The height of the inclined plane is 0. statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. point lies at a depth of (1) 9 km (3) 11 km (2) 10 km (4) 12 km 41. statement 2 is true. Of the four choices given after the statements. Statement 1: Transformer cannot work with d. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . The mass ratio of the respective bubbles is (1) 1 : 125 (3) 1 : 96 (2) 1 : 100 (4) 1 : 80 42. (1) Statement 1 is true. A solid sphere of mass 900 g and radius 20 cm rolls down on an inclined plane without slipping and without loss of energy. 43. (1) Statement 1 is true. statement 2 is true. Statement 1: The slope of momentum versus time graph gives the acceleration. (4) Statement 1 is true.

The ball which glows brightest is (1) grey ball (2) black ball (3) white ball (4) all the balls will glow with equal brightness 46. 49. An observer standing on a railway platform receives sounds of frequencies 2. (4) Statement 1 is true. The rise in temperature of the gas in cylinder B is (1) 51 K (2) 49 K (3) 47 K (4) 45 K Question numbers 49 and 50 are based on the following paragraph. statement 2 is true. grey and white can withstand hostile conditions up to 3000°C. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . statement 2 is true.10 (2) Statement 1 is true.8 kHz when a train approaches and recedes from the observer. The potential difference with the same charge when doubling the plate separation is (1) 1920 V (3) 2000 V (2) 1960 V (4) 2100 V simple harmonically with a period of (1) 1 s 6 (2) 1 s 4 (3) 1 s 3 (4) 1 s 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. 45. Speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. 6 The kinetic energy will be 75% of total energy after a time 47. The temperature of the gas in A rises to 35 K.10 . (3) Statement 1 is false. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 picofarad. Its plates are separated by 1 mm of air and charged to a potential of 1200 V. The velocity of the train is (1) 42 ms − 1 (3) 47 ms − 1 (2) 45 ms − 1 (4) 49 ms − 1 48. Starting from the origin. Three balls coloured black. The piston A is free to move while the piston B is held fixed. a body vibrates 1 s. Two cylinders A and B having pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300 K.4 kHz and 1. Ltd. The balls are thrown into a furnace where each of them attains a temperature of 2500°C. Same quantity of heat is supplied to the gas in each cylinder. statement 2 is false. statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

The wavelength of light used is (1) 5500 Å (3) 4500 Å (2) 5000 Å (4) 4000 Å 53.008 × 10 − 4 J (2) 1.208 × 10 − 4 J (1) 17 pF (3) 21 pF (2) 19 pF (4) 23 pF 51.51 × 10 − 21 kg ms − 1 (4) 13. The refractive indices of water and 4 8 and 3 5 respectively. A square coil of side 20 cm consists of 50 turns and carries a current of 10 A. the change in fringe width is 10 − 3 m.008 × 10 − 2 J (3) 1. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .03 mm. In Young s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ. The capacitance of the capacitor used in resonant circuit is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.1 × 10 − 31 kg) (1) 17.11 . The coil is suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 45° with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 2 T. The refractive index of glass with respect to water is glass with respect to air is (1) 4 3 (2) 5 4 (3) 6 5 (4) 7 6 56.2 × 10 − 21 kg ms − 1 52. The voltage across the electrodes of a cathode ray gun is 600 V. The distance between the slits d is 0. fringes are obtained on a screen placed at a distance d from the slits.51 × 10 − 24 kg ms − 1 (2) 13. Ltd.208 × 10 − 2 J (4) 1.2 × 10 − 24 kg ms − 1 (3) 17. The temperature at which a hot body will emit an electromagnetic wave of wavelength 5 µm is (1) 5000 K (3) 5600 K (2) 5800 K (4) 5400 K 55. An experimenter has a coil of 3 mH and wants to construct a resonant circuit of frequency 600 kHz. The magnitude of the torque experienced by the coil is (1) 20 Nm (3) 16 Nm (2) 18 Nm (4) 14 Nm 54. The energy needed to double the separation between the plates is (1) 1.11 50. When the screen is moved by 60 cm towards the slits. The momentum of the electrons is (me = 9.

6 × 10 − 4 Sm − 1 (2) 11.64 × 10 − 34 Js (3) 6.5 × 106 kWh 58.1 × 10 − 4 Sm − 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. A photon of wavelength 630 nm is emitted. The energy equivalent of 0. Ltd.12 57. the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of the incident light is Vs.6 × 10 − 5 Sm − 1 (4) 11.62 × 10 − 34 Js − 15 (1) A transition (3) C transition (2) B transition (4) D transition 59.9 kWh (3) 11.6 × 10 − 34 Js (4) 6. This transition corresponds to (h = 6.624 × 10 − 34 Js) 60.15 × 10 of Planck s constant is obtained in the experiment is (1) 6.8 kWh (2) 11.54 × 10 − 34 Js (2) 6.1 × 10 − 6 Sm − 1 (3) 10. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .12 .2 kWh (4) 12. In an experiment on photoelectric effect. The value found to be 4. The energy levels of the hydrogen atom of hydrogen element are shown below.94 × 1016 m − 3.5 g mass in kWh is (1) 10. The number density of electrons and holes in intrinsic silicon at a given temperature is 4. The conductivity of the silicon is (Mobility of electrons µe = 10 − 3 m2V − 1s − 1 and holes µh = 4 × 10 − 4 m2V − 1s − 1) (1) 10.

1 × 10 − 31 kg.003 m 64. The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species NH3. What weight of K2Cr2O7 is required to prepare 500 mL of 0.0019 m − 34 constant for the reaction 1 N + 3H NH3 is 2 2 2 2 (1) 0. In a fuel cell.13 .01%. [PtCl4] − 2. What is the half-life of radioactive substance if 87.91 mole present. hydrogen gas is oxidised at anode and oxygen is reduced at cathode as follows.9 g (2) 4. of K2Cr2O7 = 294) (1) 2.166 A (4) 400 A − → 2 H2O + 2e (4) dsp2.13 PART C : CHEMISTRY 61. Anode reaction : H2(g) + 2 OH Cathode reaction : O2 + 2 H2O + 4e → 4 OH If 44.45 g (3) 14.5 g (4) 98 g 63. sp2.8 litres of H2 at STP reacts in 20 minutes. hydrogen mixture in ratio 1 : 3 at 400°C and 100 atmosphere pressure in 24. PCl5 and BCl3 is (1) dsp2.66 A (3) 300 A (2) 32.wt.03 m (4) 0.0136 atm (4) 10. sp3 and dsp3 62. then the average current produced is (1) 321.5% of any given amount of the substance disintegrates in 40 minutes ? (1) 20 min (3) 160 min (2) 10 min (4) 13 min 20 sec 66. dsp2.136 atm − 1 (3) 1. h = 6. The equilibrium SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.00019 m (3) 0. sp2 and dsp3 65. sp2 and sp3 (2) sp3. sp3. The ammonia is in equilibrium with a nitrogen. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .36 atm Js) (2) 0.1 N solution in acidic medium ? (M.625 × 10 (1) 0. With what accuracy can we locate the position of this electron? (Mass of e = 9. sp3d and sp2 (3) dsp2. An electron has a velocity of 300 m sec−1 that is accurate to 0. Ltd. dsp3.36 atm (2) 0.

01 (2) 0. 44 g of CO2 and 16 g of CH4. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . sec − 1 (4) M.11 (3) 2. The partial pressure of CH4 is (1) 180 mm (3) 540 mm (2) 360 mm (4) 720 mm 72. at 400 K and exerting a pressure of 0.0821 atm? (R = 0. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm of Hg. Ltd. sec − 1 69. (4) CH3 − CH − CH2 − F F In the above reaction (D) is (1) BrCH2 − CH2 − CH2 − F (2) F − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − F (3) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − F 70.0821 lit atm mol−1K ) (1) 0. What is the density of CO2 (in gm lit −1 ) 71. sec − 1. The number of atoms in 100 g of an FCC crystal with density d = 10 g cm−3 and cell edge as 200 pm is equal to (1) 3 × 1025 (3) 1 × 1025 (2) 5 × 1024 (4) 2 × 1025 C in the above reaction is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. M (3) ML. Units of the rate constants for first and zero order reactions in terms of molecularity M units are respectively (1) sec − 1.14 67. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N2.5 (4) 4. ML − 1sec − 1 (2) sec − 1.44 −1 68.14 .

(1) 5. The H+ ion concentration of a buffer solution containing 0.3 kJ 73. carriers a negitive charge.377 kJ (4) − 349.462 mm (3) 10. An arsenious sulphide sol. The metal which does not form coloured compound is (1) Cr (2) Fe (3) Zn (4) Mn 78.316 mm (2) − 890.732 mm (2) 16. The maximum precipitating power for this sol. (1) − 630.15 . mass = 60) in 50 g of water at 20°C. Water is said to be permanently hard when it contains (1) sulphates of Ca and Mg (2) bicarbonates of Mg and Ca (3) sulphates of Na and K (4) carbonates of Mg and Ca 75.34 kJ (3) − 960. The vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 17 mm.23 kJ 77. The heat of combustion of gaseous methane (CH4) at constant volume (3) (4) is measured in a bomb calorimeter at 298. Ltd.5 mole per litre CH3COOH is (Ka for acetic acid is 1. Calculate the vapour pressure of a solution containing 3 g of urea (Mol.694 mm (4) 8. is possessed by (1) K2SO4 (3) Na3PO4 (2) CaCl2 (4) AlCl3 74. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .15 (1) (2) (1) 2 × 10 − 5 (3) 2 × 10 − 3 (2) 2 × 10 − 4 (4) 2 × 10 − 2 76. Find the value of enthalpy change.2 K and is found to be − 885389 Jmol−1.8 × 10 − 5 ) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.2 mole per litre CH3COONa and 1.

P4O10 is not used to dry NH3 gas because (1) P4O10 reacts with moisture (2) P4O10 is not a drying agent (3) P4O10 is acidic and NH3 is basic (4) P4O10 is basic and NH3 is acidic 84.16 . sodium bicarbonate is precipitated due to (1) presence of NH3 (2) reaction with CO2 (3) low solubility product of sodium bicarbonate (4) high solubility product of sodium bicarbonate 80. In Gold-schmidt alumino thermic process. Ammonia on catalytic oxidation gives an oxide from which nitric acid is obtained. White lead is (1) basic carbonate of lead (2) Pb(OH)2 + Na2CO3 (3) Pb(OH)2 + PbCO3 (4) mixture of lead carbonate and lead oxide 83. The substance used to impart green colour to glass is (1) Cu2O (3) Cr2O3 (2) SnO2 (4) CdS 82. Chlorine is liberated when we heat (1) KMnO4 + NaCl (2) K2Cr2O7 + MnO2 (3) Pb(NO3 )2 + MnO2 (4) K2Cr2O7 + HCl SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . Ltd. The oxide is (1) N2O3 (2) NO (1) 3 parts of Fe2O3 and 1 part of Al (2) 1 part of Fe2O3 and 1 part of Al (3) 3 parts of Al2O3 and 4 parts of Al (4) 3 parts of Fe2O3 and 2 parts of Al (3) NO2 (4) N2O5 81. thermite contains 85. In Solvay ammonia process.16 79.

17 86. B in the above reaction is (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (4) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Rearrangement of an oxime to amide in the presence of strong acid is called (3) (1) Aldol condensation (2) Backmann rearrangement (4) (3) Fries rearrangement (4) Curtive rearrangement 87. The product of following reaction is 88.17 . Ltd. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .

18 89. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . Ltd. High octave gasoline contains a large proportion of (1) branched chain alkanes (2) Butadiene (2) cycloalkanes (3) Ethylene (3) arenes (4) Methyl methacrylate (4) straight chain alkanes SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 90. The raw material used in making nylon is (1) Adipic acid ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.18 .

19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.19 . AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .

Ltd. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.20 .

AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns .21 .21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

No deduction from the total score. use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 2. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care. AIEEE/MTP 3/MPC/Obj/Qns . No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material. 10. electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. On completion of the test. will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again.22 . the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. bits of papers. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. marked Space for Rough Work . For each incorrect response. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. 6. 5. 9. however. pager. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator. mobile phone. is prohibited. 13.. Ltd. 14. printed or written. 12. 8. should leave his/her seat. as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided. No candidate. 4. However.22 READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY 1. 3. 7. ♥ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.

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