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Minute opening of the tubular structure playing an important role in germination of seeds is a) Arillode b) Caruncle c) Micropyle d) Hilum 2. Polyuronic acids are the salts of a) Sod & calcium b) Calcium & magnesium c) Sodium & Magnesium d) Potasium & Calcium 3. Type of endorphins helpful in relieving pain are a) alpha b) gamma c) delta 4. Opium alkaloids are derived from a) Tyrosine b) phenylalanine

d) beta

c) ornithine

d) mevalonic acid

5. Number of Hydroxyl groups present in Pyrogallal are a) three b) two c) four 6. “Liliaceae” is the family of a) Ginseng b) Bitter almond

d) one

c) Cascara

d) red squill

7. During Nitric acid test of aloe, color obtained was Brownish-green. variety of aloe is a) Zanzibar b) Cape c) Curacao d) Socotrine 8. Carsara contains Cascarosides, which are reported to have a) O-glycosides b) C-glycosides c) both a & b 9. All statements about Digitalis thapsi are false except a) it is 3 times more potent than Digitalis Purpurea b) does not possess calcium oxalate crystals c) presence of non-glandular trichomes d) absence of cuticle 10. Enzymatic biotransformation of pervoside from thevetia gives a) digitoxin b) digoxin c) encordin

d) N-glycosides

d) neriifolin

11. All microscopical statements are true for “Rattlesnake root” except a) starch grains are present b) absence of phloem fibres c) medullary rays are lignified d) presence of diarch primary xylem 12. Vanillin shows all IR peaks (cm-1) in the region below, except one a) 1050-1150 (COR stretch) b) 1720 (C=O stretch) c) 3650 (OH stretch)

d) 1650 (NH bend)

13. A test that differentiate between pale catechu & black catechu is a) vanillin & Hydrochloric acid gives Pinkish red color b) green fluorescence with petroleum ether & ethanolic sodium hydroxide c) reddish brown fluorescence with chloroform d) Brownish red color with ferric chloride. 14. Chief active constituent present in Anethum graveolens is a) Fenchone b) carvone c) anethole d) cineole

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 15. Abietic acid present in colophony is the salt of a) calcium b) potassium c) copper 16. Under Deuterium lamp, Rhapontic rhubarb will give color a) deep violet b) deep blue c) black

d) sodium

d) yellowish

17. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Eugenia caryophillus are a) Cluster b) Rossette c) acicular d) prismatic 18. In Jalap, Convolvulin on hydrolysis yields rhamnoconvolvulic acid, exogenic acid & a) atropine b) abietic acid c) tiglic acid d) umbellic acid 19. Number of basic isoprene units present in Bixin are a) six b) eight c) ten 20. Type of steroisomer cinchonine is a) + b) 21. Characterstic odour of cocaine is due to a) methyl benzoate b) methyl salicyalte

d) five

d) ±

d) optically inactive

c) vanillin

d) asiragalin

22. Artemisinin is a sesquiterpene lactone from Artemisia annua, should contain active constituent not less than a) 0.75 % b) 1 % c) 0.1% d) 0.05 % 23. All statements are true for Bromelain except a) inhibits COX enzyme c) Source is Serratia bromosus

b) mixture of proteolytic enzymes d) family is bromeliaceae

24. A water soluble component from Claviceps purpurea is a) ergocornine b) ergocristine c) ergotamine

d) ergometrine

25. Murexide test is done for the presence of caffine, uses potassium chlorate & Hydrochloric acid treatment with the drug gives characterstic a) yellow color b) purple color c) purple ppt d) green ppt 26. During friability studies, tablets are supposed to be best that lose weight less than a) 1.3 % b) 0.5-1 % c) 5 % d) 2-3 % 27. Find the sparingly soluble category of 1 mg drug tested for its solubility a) 100-1000 ml b) 10-30 ml c) 30-100 ml d) more than 1000 ml 28. A tablet excipient that is disintegrant as well as binder a) acacia b) PVP c) PEG 29. A diluent used in vitamin tablets is a) anhydrous lactose b) mannitol

d) carnoba wax

c) calcium phosphate d) cellulose

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 30. Veegum “HV” is a) o/w

b) w/o

c) both

d) none

31. All Ranges of Tablet efficiency of a sugar coated tablet are acceptable except one a) 61 % b) 57 % c) 67 % d) 73 % 32. Kaolin, cocoa powder are used in one step of tablet sugar coating a) seal coating b) syrup coating c) sub coating d) polishing 33. A problem of tablet coating that can be relieved by replacing low melting point substances with higher melting point substances is a) orange peel effect b) lamination c) blistering d) picking 34. Hard gelatin capsule size possessing lesser volume (ml) is of size a) 00 b) 0 c) 2 d) 5 35. Propellent number of dichlorotetrafluoroethane is a) 114 b) 14 c) 112

d) 11

36. All statements are wrong regarding DOT test, except a) is the evaluation test of aerosols b) is “Di octyl thalate” test, very important test carried out for HEPA filter effeciency c) is done at -25’F d) best technique to produce class 100 room 37. All equations best suits to Fisher subsieve sizer for surface area determination except a) BET equation b) Poiseuille’s equation c) stokes equation d) kozeny carman equation 38. Critical micelle concentration (CMC) gets decreased by a) branching of hydrocarbon chain b) putting double bond in hydrocarbon chain c) increasing hydrocarbon chain length d) adding OH substitution to the hydrocarbon chain 39. Find the deflocculated sedimentation volume of paracetamol suspension in water. initial volume was 100 ml, final volume was find to be 44 ml (degree of flocculation is 1.5) a) 2.9 b) 1.2 c) 0.90 d) 0.29 40. Arrange the following processes in order of their formation a) Dissolution, disintegration, deaggregation, absorption b) Disintegration, dissolution, deaggregation, absorption c) Disintegration, deaggregation, dissolution, absorption d) Dissolution, deaggregation, disintegration, absorption 41. The drug with faster absorption is a) Phenytoin b) Barbiturates

c) Aspirin

d) Imipramine

42. The drug with high protein binding is a) A parentral solution b) Phenytoin tablet given in epilepsy

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 c) Nitroglycerine sublingual tablet d) Di sodium cromoglycate soft gelatin capsule 43. The drug which is not excreted rapidly in urine is a) Di sodium chromoglycate b) mecamylamine c) guanithidine

d) loperamide

44. Two statements are true regarding Urinary excretion data 1. Study is supposed to best if at least 5 half lives are determined 2. Study is supposed to best if at least 7 half lives are determined 3. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in changed/metabolite form 4. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in unchanged form a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 3 c) 2 & 4 d) 1 & 4 45. 500 mg Paracetamol was given to a patient. First order elimination rate constant is 10 and clearance is 50 ml/min. Find the plasma drug concentration. a) 10 mg b) 50 mg c) 100 mg d) 5 mg 46. An agent helpful in retention of powder over face is a) glycerine b) lanolin c) butyl stearate 47. A poly uronic acid derivative from Astragalus gummifer is a) gum acacia b) tragacanth c) Bentonite 48. Kaolin is the silicate of a) magnesium b) aluminium

d) lactose

d) sodium alginate

c) fluorine

d) both a & b

49. Pearlscent agents & sequestrants are added in the formulation of a) nail laquers b) depilatories c) shampoo d) hair gels & lotion 50. Polyoxyl stearates esters of polyoxyethylene glycols are named a) macrogols b) spans c) tweens d) poloxalkols 51. Identify the aprotic solvent a) chloroform b) triethylamine

c) ferric chloride

d) ammonia

52. An indicator used in Volhard method of precipitation reaction is a) pot permagnate b) ferric ammonium sulphate c) pot dichromate d) crystal violet 53. All are Reference electrode except a) silver silver chloride electrode c) glass membrane electrode 54. Identify the demasking agent a) iodide b) hydrazine

b) saturated calomel electrode d) standard hydrogen electrode

c) formaldehyde

d) cyanide

55. A graph between current and active ions in solution (ml) keeping voltage constant is plotted in a) polarography b) conductometery c) amperometery d) potentiometry 56. 0.001Å-0.005Å range is exhibited by type of rays

a) x-rays

b) radiowave

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 c) microwave

d) gamma rays

57. Near IR region ( cm-1) is a) 12500-4000 b) below 667

c) 4000-667

d) 1250

58. 11-cis retinal shows an alkene (CH bending) range at cm-1 a) 900 b) 3030 c) 600 59. NMR delta value of NH2 group is a) 2-3 b) 1-2

d) 1350

c) 6-8

d) 1-5

60. detector used in IR spectroscopy is a) Bolometer b) Gieger muller counter

c) PMT

d) flame ionization detector

61. In interference filter, high dielectric constant films are suspended between two parallel rodes, these rodes are made up of a) gold b) silver c) Silicon oxide d) calcium fluoride 62. A term best describe for a decrease in the intensity of absorption is a) hypsochromic shift b) hypochromic shift c) bathochromic shift 63. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below

d) hyperchromic shift

a) 245 nm

b) 240 nm

c) 275nm

d) 270 nm

64. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below
O Cl C CH3

a) 240 nm

b) 256 nm

c) 270 nm

d) 275 nm

65. Nujol oil is used a sampling technique in a) IR b) UV c) mass spectroscopy 66. Unit of chemical shift is a) tesla b) PPM

d) NMR

c) hertz

d) dyne/cm

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 67. All are the solvent used in H-NMR except a) DMSO b) chloroform c) carbon disulphide 68. λ=2ήb/m is the equation of a) IR b) NMR

d) carbon tetrachloride

c) mass

d) UV

69. In mass spectroscopy, graph is plotted between a) m/e ratio vs velocity of ions b) m/e ratio vs magnetc field c) m/e ratio vs intensities of ions d) m/e ratio vs potential difference among ions 70. Number of H-NMR signals given by the compound shown below is
CH3 H2 C O CH3 O

a) 4

b) 2

c) 3

4) 5

71. All functional groups decreases fluorescence, except a) NH2 b) NO2 c) COOH 72. Amide-1 band (C=O stretch) is observed at cm-1 a) 1650 b) 1725 c) 1740

d) bromine

d) 1590

73. A coating substance that produces mid IR range is a) KBr coated zirconium b) KBr coated germanium c) polyethylene terpthalate d) polyoxyethylene barium 74. Spraying agent used for the detection of lipids in chromatographic plate is a) diphenyl hydrazine b) bromocresol green c) bromophenol blue d) aniline phthalate 75. Gradient technique is the technique of elution that includes a) changing adsorbent for different substances b) changing solvent composition c) keeping solvent system same throughout the process d) rising evaporating temperature 76. Technique used to improve the process of separation by the column/detector in gas chromatography is done by a) derivitisation by treatment with tetramethyl silane (TMS) b) making the component more volatile c) increasing active sites on solid support d) decreasing the thickness/amount of liquid film on solid support 77. Bragg’s law associated with X-ray diffraction studies is a) mλ=d (sin i±sin r) b) 2d sin θ=nλ c) x/m=kc 78. Kernicterus is caused by a) dapsone b) chloramphenicol d) ν=γBo/2П

c) prednisolone

d) phenytoin

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 79. Beta carbolines are the a) partial agonist of benzodiazepines c) pure antagonist of benzodiazepines b) pure agonist of benzodiazepines d) inverse agonist of benzodiazepines

80. An anticholinesterase mostly preferered in myasthenia gravis is a) physostigmine b) pilocarpine c) pyridostigmine d) neostigmine 81. Vasamicol act by a) blocking choline transport in to storage vesicles b) blocking choline uptake in nerves c) blocks releases of Ach from nerve endings d) stimulates releases of Ach from nerve endings 82. Phenylepherine is an a) α1 agonist b) β1 agonist c) α1 antagonist d) α2 agonist

83. Bretylium a) prevent the release of NA from nerve endings b) displaces NA from nerve endings c) stimulates the release of NA from nerve endings d) reduces the formation of NA 84. Ondansetron is a) 5-HT agonist

b) 5-HT antagonist

c) AT1 agonist

d) H1 antagonist

85. A prostaglandin useful in inducing abortion is a) carboprost b) misoprostol c) alprostadil 86. All are vasodilator except a) nitric oxide b) bradykinin

d) dinoprostone

c) captopril

d) histamine

87. An effective antidote in cyanide poisoning is a) pralidoxime b) erythrityl trinitrate c) atropine 88. Hypertrichosis is the side effect of a) sildenafil b) minoxidil

d) flumazenil

c) diazoxide

d) phenytoin

89. Most potent steroisomer of warfarin is a) R b) S c) Racemic

d) none

90. Colestipol is a hypolipidimic agent, act by a) inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase b) breaking cholesterol in to bile acids c) catalyse the hydrolysis of triglycerides d) inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol 91. Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug, comes under the category a) class 1B b) class 1C c) class 2 d) class 4 92. Anti-platelet effect of aspirin is mediated by inhibiting a) prostaglandins b) thromoxanes c) leucoteines

d) epoprostinol

93. Wilson’s disease is caused due to the abnormal metabolism of an ion in body

a) copper

b) cobalt

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 c) mercury d) iron

94. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorphinramine are a) 4-chlorobenzylcyanide & 2-bromopyridine b) 2-chlorobenzylcyanide & 4-bromopyridine c) 4-chloropyridine & 2-bromobenzylcyanide d) 2-chloropyridine & 4-bromobenzylcyanide 95. An active metabolite of Sulindac is a) methyl sulphate b) methyl sulphur monoxide c) sulphur dioxide d) methyl sulphide 96. Permanent deafness is the side effect of a) amphotericin B b) streptomycin

c) ofloxacillin

d) erythromycin

97. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme isoleucyl tRNA synthetase is a) sodium fusidate b) cycloserine c) fosfomycin d) mupirocin 98. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase is a) cephalaxin b) novobioscin c) ofloxacilin d) rifabutin 99. Clofazimine is the choice of drug in a) tuberculosis b) epilepsy

c) laprosy

d) fungal infections

100. Nevirapine belongs to the class of anti viral drugs a) protease inhibitor b) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c) non nuclease reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor 101. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme haeme polymerase is a) mefloquine b) miconazole c) ethambutol 102. A novel PPAR agonist helpful in relieving hyperglycemia is a) metformin b) repaglinide c) rosiglitazone

d) atovaquone

d) acetoxamide

103. Mifepristone is a) estrogen antagonist b) estrogen agonist c) progesterone agonist d) progesterone antagonist 104. Match the following carbon numbers 1. Estradiol 2. Testosterone 3. Progesterone 4. cardenolides a) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

a. C19 b. C18 c. C21 d. C23 b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

105. Increased risk of artherosclerosis is associated with the decreased level of a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) triglycerides 106. 3,20-dione,11β,17α-hydroxy,6α-flouro,16α-methyl is a) Paramethasone b) dexametasone c) Prednisolone

d) Corticosterone

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 107. An ultra short acting barbiturate is a) pentobarbital b) butabarbital c) Phenobarbital 108. A vitamin possessing benzopyran basic ring is a) vitamin E b) vitamin C c) vitamin D 109. Progabide act by a) inhibits GABA reuptake in to nerve endings c) inhibits GABA metabolizing enzymes 110. Proglumide is useful in GIT problems, it is a) gastrin antagonist c) substance P antagonist

d) hexobarbitone

d) vitamin B6

b) GABA agonist d) GABA antagonist

b) neurokinin-1 antagonist d) prodrug of omeprazole

111. A precursor for the synthesis of nalidixic acid is a) 2-amino pyridine b) 2-methyl quinoline c) 2-methyl pyridine

d) 2-methyl isoquinoline

112. Probenicid-penicillin show drug interaction as a) probenicid increases its metabolism b) probenicid decreases its absorption c) probenicid increases its urinary excretion d) probenicid decreases its urinary excretion

113. A cardiovascular agent from Remijia padunculata is a) quinine b) stropanthidine c) quinidine

d) ouabain

114. All statements regarding the SAR of benzodiazepines are correct except one, identify
R3 O


2 A 7


B 5



a) electron withdrawing group at C7 in ring A increases the potency b) saturation of C=N bond in ring B reduces activity c) if branched phenyl ring is replaced by heterocyclic ring, activity rises d) C=O group at position 2 is essential for activity

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 115. An anticancer agent act by causing defected microtubules polymerization due to essential protein consumption inhibition is a) topotecan b) paclitaxal c) vincristine d) etoposide 116. About the correct answer of above question one thing is true, identify a) inhibits topoisomerase 1 b) inhibits topoisomerase 2 b) possesses cruciferous stomata d) is a diterpenoid 117. A drug that is agonist as well as antagonist to opioid receptor is a) meperidine b) pentazocine c) propoxyphene d) fentanyl 118. COMT’s inhibitor useful in Parkinson diseases is a) selegiline b) tolcapone c) deprenyl 119. Morphine under HCl treatment, 140’c/pressure gives a) heroin b) codeine c) apomorphine

d) pergyline

d) phencyclidine

120. All statements about prodrug are correct except one a) dipiveferine is the prodrug of adrenaline b) bambuterol is the prodrug of salbutamol c) hexamine is the prodrug releasing formaldehyde used in urinary tract infections d) hemisuccinate prodrug of propanolol is resistant to esterases in liver 121. Ritodrine and metaraminol are a) β2 agonist & α1 antagonist c) β2 agonist & β1 agonist b) β1 agonist & β2 antagonist d) β2 agonist & β1 antagonist

122. An ester of veratric acid (3,4-dimethoxy benzoic acid) relaxing smooth muscles is a) papaverine b) mebeverine c) tubocurarine d) dantrolene 123. Amrinone is a potent inotropic agent, act by a) inhibiting Na-K ATPase b) inhibiting guanyl cyclase c) inhibiting phosphodiasterase enzyme d) activates adenyl cyclase 124. Forskolin reduces intraocular pressure & also causes bronchodilation. it is a a) sesquitepenoid b) sesterpenoid c) ditepenoid d) alkaloid 125. Propanolol can be assayed as per IP using a) 0.01 m methanolic NaOH b) 0.1 m TBAH

c) 0.1 m NaOH

d) 0.1 m HCl

126. A drug that is metabolized by sulphotransferase to active N-O sulphate is a) guanethidine b) minoxidil c) chlorthiazide d) losartan 127. Angiotensin 3 is a a) heptapeptide b) nonapeptide

c) decapeptide

d) octapeptide

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 128. Find the odd one a) phenindiones b) enoxapoarin c) protamine sulphate d) dicoumarol

129. Co-trimoxazole is the combination of trimethoprim with a) sulphisoxazol b) sulphadiazene c) sulphamethoxazole 130. Streptomyces veneszulae is the source of a) Tetracyclin b) Chloramphenicol c) Nystatin

d) proguanil

d) Mitomycin

131. Configuration of chloramphenicol most effective is a) D-threo R,R b) D-threo S,R c) D-threo S,S d) D-threo R,S 132. A beta lactamase/suicide inhibitor having oxazolidine moitee is a) tazobactam b) salbactam c) clavulinic acid d) imipenam

133. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorambucil are a) P-aminophenylbutyric acid & ethylene oxide b) P-aminophenylbenzoic acid & methylene oxide c) P-aminophenylbenzoic acid & ethylene oxide d) P-aminobenzylphenolic acid & ethylene oxide 134. An anticancer agent possessing Radiomimetic activity is a) mitotane b) cisplatin c) procarbazine 135. A folic acid derivative is a) lomustine b) busalphan

d) thiotepa

c) tegafur

d) methotrexate

136. A schedule describing factory premises for ayurvedic drugs comes under a) T b) U c) Q d) FF 137. A schedule describing labeling of drugs comes under a) D b) E c) G

d) M

138. A schedule describing contraceptives standards comes under a) W b) X c) R d) Q 139. Application for wholesale of drugs under category C, C1 but not in X is applied in a) 20 B b) 21 B c) 21 BB d) 20 BB 140. One is not an ex-officio member of pharmacy council of india. Identify a) the director general of health services b) the drug controller of india c) the director, pharmacy council of india d) the director of central drug laboratory 141. Michael’s index for grade B HEPA filter is a) 6.5 b) 5.5 142. Identify an optically inactive amino acid

c) 4.5

d) 3.5

a) alanine

b) valine

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 c) glycine

d) tryptophan

143. Paper chromatography is based upon the principle of a) absorption b) adsorption c) partition 144. SGOT is associated with a) liver infection b) Myocardial infaction c) peptic ulcer 145. Nitric oxide releasing amino acid is a) citruline b) arginine

d) ion exchange

d) kidney failure

c) cystine

d) methionine

146. A precursor for cori cycle is a) succinate b) pyruvate c) lactate d) glucose 147. All statements regarding gram negative bacteria are correct except a) multi layered b) Tiechoic acid is absent c) Lipopolysacchride content very high d) example is Vibrio cholrae 148. Gentamycin can be assayed using a) Staphylococus epidermis b) Staphylococus aurecus c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Bacillus pumilus 149. Immunological product for rabies is available as a) antiviral serum b) antibacterial serum c) antitoxin

d) toxoid

150. Measles vaccine is tested for checking freedom from neuro virulance on a) ox b) monkey c) horse d) pig 151. Roye’s sachet is used for the chemical validation of sterilization technique a) dry heat b) moist heat c) gaseous d) radiation 152. Microbe used for the biological validation of moist heat sterilization is a) Clostridium sporugenes b) Bacillus pumulis c) Pseudomonas dimnuta d) Serratia mercesense 153. Cold sterilisation is a) contineous dry heat sterilisation uder UV radiation b) continuous moist heat sterilization under UV radiation c) continuous moist heat sterilization under IR radiation d) continuous dry heat sterilization under IR radiation 154. The number of degree of temperature change to produce a ten fold change in D-value is called a) F-value b) lethal value c) Z-value d) R-value 155. An ideal emulsion parentral should have a drop size of a) 3 μm b) 5 μm c) 2 μm d) 7 μm

156. Pyrogens can be effectively expelled out from a parentral solution by methods a) Dry heat at 250’c for 30 min b) Passing through membrane filter

c) Reverse osmosis

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 d) All above

157. Maximum bubble pressure test is done for checking the efficiency of a) parentrals b) aerosols c) HEPA filter d) membrane filter 158. One statement is correct regarding parentrals a) High volume of distribution, high protein binding, high absorption b) Low volume of distribution, high protein binding, low absorption c) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, no absorption d) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, high absorption 159. Pyrogens are a) endotoxin & dec body temp b) exotoxin & inc body temp c) endotoxin & inc body temp d) exotoxin & dec body temp 160. A solution was shaken with high stress, soon it converted to thick gel. The solution was a) Pseudoplastic b) Plastic c) Dilatent d) Newtonian 161. Find the correct statement a) Adhesive force are the forces between particles of same types b) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of same types c) Cohesive forces are the forces between two rough surfaces d) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of different types 162. Match the following data of angle of repose & flow properties 1. Less than 25 a) very poor 2. 25-30 b) passable 3. 30-40 c) good 4. More than 40 d) excellent a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a 163. Hausner index is a) Poured density-tapped density b) Tapped density- poured density c) Tapped density/ poured density d) Poured density/ tapped density 164. Match the following HLB values 1. 3-8 a) sodium lauryl sulphate 2. 7-9 b) detergent 3. 13-16 c) span 4. Greater than 16 d) wetting agents a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a 165. Zeta potential of a solution can be a) Positive b) Negative 166. Match the following 1. Viscosity 2. Surface tension 3. Surface area

c) Zero

d) All of above

a) stokes equation b) BET equation c) stalagmometer

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 4. Surface diameter d) ostward viscometer a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b b) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 167. The tablets with very high bioavailability is a) Omeperazole chewable tablet b) Nitroglycerine sublingual tablet c) Ammonium chloride troches d) Nemusilide dispensing tablet 168. A cardiac glycoside obtained from Stropanthus gratus or Acocanthera schimperi is a) digoxin b) G-stropanthin c) ouabain d) b & c 169. Starting materials required for synthesis of Nifedipine are a) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoic acid b) Methyl acetic acid & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde c) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde d) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoate 170. Calcium channel blocker with benzothiazipene ring is a) nifedipine b) amlodipine c) verapamil

d) diltiazem

171. Starting materials for synthesis of Propanolol are a) α-napthol & epichlorohydrazine b) α-napthol & epichlorohydrin c) β-napthol & epichlorohydrazine d) β-napthol & epichlorohydrin 172. Isoxuprine is a uterine relaxant. It is a) β2 agonist b) β1 agonist c) β1 blocker d) β2 blocker

173. Guggulsterones are the steroids containing carbon numbers a) 18 b) 19 c) 21 174. An antidote for diazepam poisoning is a) dessferioxime b) dimercaprol

d) 24

c) furosemide

d) flumazenil

175. A substance that causes the problem of transplant rejection is a) calcitrol b) colcalciferol c) calcineurin 176. Heparin a) inhibits antithrombin 3 c) inhibits vitamin k epoxide reductase 177. All are true about sulfinpyrazole except a) COX inhibitor b) uricosuric agent

d) substance P

b) activates antithrombin 3 d) activates vitamin k epoxide reductase

c) antiplatelet

d) anti fungal

178. An indicator chiefly used in iodimetery is a) pot dichromate b) crystal violet c) carboxy methyl starch 179. A compound used as a solvent in UV spectroscopy is a) saturated aldehydes b) cyclohexane c) clyclohaxene

d) methylene blue

d) alkyl halides

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 180. The value of Geminal coupling (Hz) ranges from a) 0-15 b) 1-18 c) 5-18

d) 0-20

181. M/e ratio is dependent over a) magnetic field b) voltage & velocity

c) radius

d) magnetic field, radius & voltage

182. Mclefferty arrangement is a) migration of γ bond, breaking of β bond c) migration of α bond, breaking of β bond

b) migration of β bond, breaking of γ bond d) migration of γ bond, breaking of α bond

183. Match the following 1. Beer’s lambert law a. M/e= r²h²/2v 2. Fabrey parrot b. Λ=2ήb/m 3. Mass spectroscopy c. γH/2п 4. NMR frequency d. A=abc a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a b) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 184. T- shaped trichomes are present in a) artemisia & clove b) clove & feverfew c) feverfew & artemisia d) feverfew 185. The active constituent of plectranthus barbalus is a) taxol b) baccatin c) forskholin 186. Smell of Ferula foetida is due to a) asaresinotannol b) umbelliferone

d) bixin

c) disulphides

d) umbellic acid

187. Gibberellic acid a) induces beta amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation b) inhibits beta amylase, induces hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation c) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation d) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & inhibits gluconeogenesis 188. The precursor for cynogenetic glycosides is a) squaline b) mevalonic acids c) shikmic acid 189. Lignified trichomes are present in a) nux vomica b) digitalis purpurea

d) phenylalanine

c) digitallis thapsi

d) belladonna

190. St. John wort is the common name of a) senna b) rhubarb c) hypericum

d) aloe

191. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Urgenia indica are a) rosette b) cluster c) acicular d) raphids 192. A selective MAO B inhibitor is a) deprenyl b) tranylcypromine

c) phenelzine

d) isocarboxazid

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 193. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is a) phenelzine b) pergyline c) paroxetine

d) imipramine

194. The formation of esters from ketones is a) bayer villager rearrangement b) backmann rearrangement c) curtius rearrangement d) Hoffmann rearrangement 195. identify the named reaction



a) Perkin’s reaction c) Riemer tiemann reaction

b) Hell wolhard zensticky reaction d) Hoffmann bromamide reaction.

196. Find the odd one that is not the isoster of rest 3 options. a) NH b) CH2 c) O d) CH3 197. Identify the named reaction




a) wolf kishner reduction c) friedel craft’s acylation

b) kolbe reaction d) schotten baumann reaction

198. Benorylate is a prodrug of a) paracetamol & aspirin b) aspirin & sulindac c) nemiuslide 199. Lysuride is a) D1 agonist b) D2 agonist 200. Find the odd one a) clonidine b) methyl dopa

d) aspirin & nemiuslide

c) D1, D2 agonist

d) antagonist of both

c) yohimbine

d) guanabenz

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 ANSWERS 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a 5-a 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-b 11-a 12-d 13-b 14-b 15-c 16-b 17-a 18-c 19-b 20-a 21-a 22-c 23-c 24-d 25-b 26-b 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-b 32-c 33-d 34-d 35-a 36-a 37-a 38-c 39-d 40-c 41-c 42-b 43-d 44-c 45-c 46-b 47-b 48-b 49-c 50-a 51-a 52-b 53-c 54-c 55-c 56-c 57-a 58-c 59-d 60-a 61-b 62-b 63-a 64-b 65-a 66-b 67-b 68-d 69-c 70-c 71-a 72-a 73-b 74-c 75-b 76-b 77-b 78-a 79-d 80-c 81-a 82-a 83-a 84-b 85-d 86-d 87-b 88-b 89-b 90-b 91-b 92-b 93-a 94-a 95-d 96-b 97-d 98-d 99-c 100-c 101-a 102-c 103-d 104-d 105-a 106-a 107-d 108-a 109-b 110-a 111-c 112-d 113-c 114-c 115-b 116-d 117-c 118-b 119-c 120-b 121-c 122-b 123-c 124-c 125-c 126-b 127-a 128-c 129-c 130-b 131-a 132-c 133-a 134-b 135-d 136-a 137-c 138-c 139-b 140-c 141-c 142-c 143-c 144-b 145-b 146-c 147-a 148-a 149-a 150-b 151-c 152-a 153-d 154-c 155-a 156-d 157-d 158-c 159-c 160-c 161-b 162-a 163-c 164-b 165-d 166-d 167-b 168-d 169-c 170-d

171-b 172-b 173-c 174-d 175-c 176-b 177-d 178-c 179-b 180-d 181-d 182-a 183-b 184-c 185-c 186-c 187-c 188-c 189-a 190-c 191-d 192-a 193-c 194-a 195-c 196-d 197-d 198-a 199-c 200-c


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