ANS: space.

Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave

Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a.Marconi c. Maxwell b.Bell d. Hertz ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a.Marconi c. Maxwell b.Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a.Marconi c. Maxwell b.Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a.a transmitter and receiver b.a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c.a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d.a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2 f c. the phase angle 0 .f 2 d. none of the above
i r x ÷ ir

ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a.the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b.the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a.sub-channeling c. SINAD b.signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a.Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement b.Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above

ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a.Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing b.Frequency Domain Measurement d. none of the above ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a.equal to f c b.equal to c c.the distance a wave travels in one period far the signal can travel without distortion
÷ ÷ A ,

ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a.creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b.baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c.shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d.all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a.frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b.Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a.approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b.20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a.the sender c. the channel b.the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: that sparks c. static b.temperature d. all of the above ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a.transistors and diodes c. copper wire b.resistors d. all of the above ANS: D

17. Shot noise is generated in: a.transistors and diodes c. copper wire b.resistors d. none of the above ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a.the same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies b.greater at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a.random noise c. white noise noise d. partition noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a.equal power per Hertz b.equal power per octave ANS: B 21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a.VT = sqrt( V 1 V 1 + V2 V 2) c. V T = sqrt( V 1 V 2 ) b.VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. V T = V 1 + V 2
× × ×

c. constant power d. none of the above

ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a.signal voltage divided by noise voltage b.signal power divided by noise power c.first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d.none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a.signal voltage divided by noise voltage b.signal power divided by noise power c.first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d.none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: much noise is in a communications system much noise is in the channel much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d.signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C

The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ANS: bandwidth 7. ANS: FDM 9. The more information per second you send. ANS: 1863 2. and direction b. In . . band.25. ANS: greater larger wider 8. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. or parts. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ANS: zero 6.its amplitude and frequency d. . multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ANS: base 4.its amplitude c. ANS: TDM 10. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ANS: channel 5. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple . the the bandwidth required. its amplitude. frequency. . Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ANS: 1901 3. its amplitude. In signals. VHF stands for the frequency band. The telephone was invented in the year . The part. . frequency. .

Name five types of internal noise. noise can be a serious problem. A radio signal's ANS: wavelength 14. The VHF band starts at MHz. meters per second. In free space. is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: 300 13. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. series. Transmitter.Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. Destination 2. ANS: Source.ANS: very high 11. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. . The UHF band starts at MHz. ANS: solar 19. radio signals travel at approximately ANS: 300 million 15. Channel. . Mathematically. a spectrum is represented by a ANS: Fourier 17. in a conductor. Receiver. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. For satellite communications. . ANS: 30 12.

. µ µ ANS: 50 V µ 6. 5. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. ANS: 1. NF = 100 8. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. transit-time 3. Find its noise figure. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. both across the same 100-ohm load. 1/f. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. ANS: 20 dB. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from another noise source. Shot. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. Likewise. Find NF. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. both in dB and as a ratio. Find the total NF for the pair. Partition. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. ANS: 5. the output of which is a noise current.5 9.ANS: Thermal. 4. Likewise. Calculate the total noise voltage. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB.4 10. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum.

Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a.base time c. charge time b.transit time d. Miller time ANS: B 2. A real capacitor actually contains: a.capacitance and resistance only b.capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. Bypass capacitors are used to: a.remove RF from non-RF circuits b.couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. A resonant circuit is: a.a simple form of bandpass filter b.used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a.raise the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q b.lower the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no effect on Q ANS: B 6. The "Miller Effect" can: a.cause an amplifier to oscillate c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier b.cause an amplifier to lose gain d. all of the above ANS: D 7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a.using a common-emitter amplifier b.using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: a.inductance of collector lead c. base-to-emitter capacitance b.collector-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance ANS: D c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. it cannot be avoided c. both a and b d. none of the above c. neutralize amplifiers d. reduce the Miller effect c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance d. reactance only


9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with: a.RC coupling c. direct coupling b.transformer coupling d. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a.adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b.bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c.decoupling it d.none of the above ANS: A 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires: a.a nonlinear circuit b.a linear amplifier c.a signal containing harmonics input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a.loop gain equal to unity b.phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c.both a and b, but at just one frequency d.none of the above ANS: C 13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a.the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria b.the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. The Hartley oscillator uses: a.a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant b.a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal ANS: A 15. The Colpitts VFO uses: a.a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant b.a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal ANS: B 16. The Clapp oscillator is: a.a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator b.a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built with FETs

used in tuner circuits b.a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. the output: a.a voltage-controlled capacitor c. w i l l c o nt a i n = ( + b ) / 2 d.used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c.contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. "VFO" stands for: a.used for a precise frequency b. In a balanced mixer. Va = sin( t) and Vb = sin( bt). A varactor is: a. . If two signals. the output: a.will contain 1 = + b and 2 = – b b.a fixed-frequency RF generator d.a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. At UHF frequencies and above.all of the above ANS: D 19.a dioded.Voltage-Fed Oscillator c.none of the above ANS: A co co a w w w c o w w a a w w w c o w w a a co co co a 20.contains the input frequencies c. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ANS: short 2. are fed to a mixer.does not contain the input frequencies d.will contain 1 = / b and 2 = b / c . Generally. all of the above ANS: D 18. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator ANS: B 22.made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d.17. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator b. .same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1.Variable-Frequency Oscillatord. elements must be considered as instead of as being "lumped".

ANS: shielding 5. Electrically. the placement of wires and ANS: components 6. it is called a ANS: ground-plane 4. ANS: neutralization 12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ANS: capacitive 13. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ANS: Q 9. A value of to be valid. a piezoelectric crystal has both a resonant frequency. A circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.ANS: distributed 3. the extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. In high-frequency RF circuits. . ANS: decoupling 7. parallel and a voltage divider to provide feedback. ANS: bypass 8. A capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. ANS: tuned circuit 11. In a class C RF amplifier. ANS: series. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. collector current). Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called . can be critical. between . ANS: 10 10. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using them.g. or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations of the tuned circuit.

Two sinusoidal signals. 5.14. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. a mixer must be a nonANS: linear circuit. V1 and V2. 15. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. V2 is a 5MHz signal. a diode or a transistor can act as a -law mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal.4 H p. To produce sum and difference frequencies. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . At some bias point. 0.1 4. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. 2.05% 7. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1.

What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 . Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.8.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.

m = (Va / Vc)2 co c a c co  a c b. none of the above ANS: A 3.Amplitude Modulation d.the baseband signal c.m = / c. ( + ) / 2 a n d ( – ) / 2 d.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.Audio Modulation c.m = Va / Vc ANS: B d. is: a. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a.the carrier signal d. the amplitude signal b. it will produce the frequencies: a. the total sideband power is: a. If Va sin( t) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin( t). v(t) = (E c + E m sin( t)) sin( t) co × c m c ANS: D 5. + and 2 + 2 0 .equal to the carrier power c. Overmodulation causes: a. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. m = (Emax – Emin ) / (Emax + Emin ) b.v(t) = (Ec + Em ) sin( t) + sin( t) × co c m c d. Antenna Modulation ANS: B 2. both a and b b. none of the above ANS: C 6. AM stands for: a. is: a.distortion c. m = V a / c a 4. m = (Emax + Emin ) / (Emax – Emin ) ANS: C 7. half the carrier power b.twice the carrier power d.m = Emin / Emax c. 1.v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin( t) c. then the modulation index.414 carrier power × . The modulation index.splatter d.m = Emax / Emin d. none of the above co c a c c c o ( c o c c o c  c a c c a c a c w c 0 ) c a c a ANS: A 8. m. v(t) = (E c E m ) × c × c × sin( t) co m × sin( t) c c b. At 100% modulation. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. Angle Modulation b. + and – a c. m. If the audio Va sin( t) modulates the carrier Vc sin( t).

1000 watts c. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. you would expect: a.requires too much bandwidth c.suppressed-carrier d. none of the above ANS: C 12. all of the above ANS: C 13.requires less bandwidth d.Peak Envelope Power b.Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. none of the above ANS: B 15. 0 watts ANS: D 17. Peak Envelope Product d.ANS: C 9. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. As compared to plain AM. none of the above ANS: B 10. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. both a and b more efficient b. PEP stands for: a. 1. all of the above ANS: D 11.all of the above ANS: D 14.the time-domain signal c.single-carrier c.5 kHz c.500 watts d.the received RF signal to increase d. sideband-carrier b.the frequency-domain signal d. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index.requires too much power d. what will it radiate with no modulation? a.requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. 250 watts b. none of the above .the audio to get louder at the receiver c. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a.10 kHz d. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b.005 MHz b. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. AM is susceptible to noise c. SSB AM: a.

the power in the LSB is ANS: the same . . none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. The total modulation index is: a.A disadvantage of AM is its ANS: inefficient 3. use of power.( m 1 + m 2 ) / 2 d.commercial AM stations use low power c. digital data b. all of the above ANS: D 19. sqrt( m 1 m 1 + m 2 m 2 ) x x x x ANS: D 20. Two tones modulate an AM c. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. ANS: envelope 4.An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ANS: simple 2. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. . To demodulate a USB SSB signal. sidebands. m1 + m2 c. the receiver must: a. sqrt( m 1 m 2 + m 2 m 1 ) 0.commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d.Compared to the USB.all of the above ANS: C set to USB mode c.The of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. .reinsert the carrier d. both a and b b. the information in the LSB is ANS: the same 6.Compared to the USB.In AM. modulating with a single audio tone produces ANS: two 5.

11. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is . and 0. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. as the modulation index increases. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3.4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index? ANS: watts .5. it will put out with 100% modulation. 0. total sideband power is always than the carrier power. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation.0. In AM. ANS: one 10. 9. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. With a 1-MHz carrier. In AM. ANS: less 8. then the USB will extend up to .3. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation.707 4. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. the carrier power ANS: remains constant . a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ANS: 6000 Hz . if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz.6 7. In AM.

5. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts. what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts . A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna.

The FM modulation index: a.Non-Broadcast FM d. none of the above ANS: C 6. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a.ordinary trigonometry and algebra c.the capture effect c.Bessel functions d. Mathematically.increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. Taylor series b.integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. the noise effect is equal to the frequency deviation c. the limit effect ANS: B . FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a.integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b.National Broadcast FM c. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a.differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. NBFM stands for: equal to twice the deviation ANS: B is band-limited at the receiver d. One way to derive FM from PM is: a.the threshold effect d.Armstrong's Rule c. Narrowband FM ANS: D 7. fractals ANS: B 5.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. it is called: a.the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4.increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. Carson's Rule b. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise.Bessel's Rule d. Near Band FM b.there can only be a finite number of sidebands b.decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d.

uses DSBSC AM modulation c.allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10.increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a.PM is extensively used in communication. the "two-station" effect b.the time it takes for the circuit to work b.FM and PM are two forms of ANS: angle 2. . An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a.can use FM modulation d. is not compatible with mono FM ANS: A 12.the threshold effect d.increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d.only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. is monaural b. FM stereo: a.using measurements at points where J 0 equals one implemented using an SCA signal d.using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. An SCA signal: a.the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. all of the above ANS: D 13.the time delay between the L and R channels d.increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. ANS: data modulation. has a higher S/N than mono FM b.the time-constant of the filter circuits used µ ANS: D 11.can use amplitude modulation c.using measurements at points where J 0 equals zero c.8. none of the above ANS: A 9. Pre-emphasis is used to: a.the capture effect c. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to: a.

the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ANS: infinite 10. the modulation index ANS: decreases . their power ANS: decreases 11. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ANS: stay constant 7. ANS: any number 12. In FM. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ANS: better 4. . as the modulating frequency decreases. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous modulating signal. Mathematically. Compared to AM. . In FM. Mathematically. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. . . as the frequency deviation decreases. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as . ANS: C 6. FM transmitters can use Class amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. 5. . In FM. of the of the as modulation is applied. ANS: amplitude 8. ANS: frequency 9. the modulation index ANS: increases 13.3. Compared to AM. the bandwidth of FM is usually ANS: wider greater . The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the modulating signal.

the number of significant sidebands . 1-kHz audio signal? 14.4. . If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. As the FM modulation index increases. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt.

Rest frequency is another name for an FM ANS: carrier frequency. ANS: capture 20. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency.ANS: increases 15. . what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. rule. The effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Bessel 18. such as 2. SHORT ANSWER 1. For certain values of mf. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ANS: Carson's 17.4. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz . The effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. ANS: threshold 19. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely usingfunctions.

At a modulation index of 2.ANS: C 5. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. Then do the calculation: = fm mf where mf will have one of the known values. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Using Carson's rule. then is 11 kHz. Using a spectrum analyzer. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. At a modulation index of 2. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4. 5.1.  ×  . For example.5. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7.4 watts 6. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. Record the audio frequency.4.5. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. At a modulation index of 2.2 watt) 8. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier.

the RF amplifiers must be linear d.ANS: C Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. ALC stands for: a. Baseband compression produces: a. none of the above . maximize transmitted power d. Accurate Level Control d.the RF amplifiers must be Class B c.the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. With low-level AM: a. all of the above ANS: D 3. ALC is used to: a.all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. With high-level AM: a.a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB ANS: C 8.Amplitude Level Control b. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. may require water cooling b.expansion d. In an AM transmitter. With high-level AM: a. all of the above c.agility c.keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6.none of the above ANS: B 4.the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. minimum RF power is required b.Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5.minimum modulation power is required d.the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d.heats the transmitter d. VFO b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C b.a smaller number of signals d.a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud a measure of efficiency c. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. all of the above ANS: A 7.keep the modulation close to 100% b.

none of the above ANS: C 13.the RF amplifier d. In high-level AM.75 ohms resistive d. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a.the modulating amplifier c.T network d. has variable frequency b.a heavy load c. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. the resistor must be: a. "high-level" refers to: a. both a and b b. In high-level AM. the power level of the final RF amplifier b. 1% tolerance or better b.50 ohms resistive c. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. a test load ANS: B 16. none of the above ANS: D 11. essentially pulse-duration modulation .approximately twice the DC supply voltage c.a dummy load d. the resistor is called: a. a temporary load b. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. all of the above ANS: B 17.approximately half the DC supply voltage b. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. the driver stage b. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna.has variable amplitude d.approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. all of the above ANS: B 10. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna.9. very efficient c. 300 ohms resistive complex c.noninductive d. the carrier ANS: A 12.wire-wound c.the power level of the carrier c. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14.the power level of the modulation d.pi network c. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. A Class D amplifier is: a.

varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. To generate a SSB signal: a.requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b.a crystal filter d. An indirect FM modulator: a.both a and b d. The carrier is suppressed in: a.a balanced modulator c.the carrier frequency can be raised b.a mechanical filter c.varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. all of the above 18.integrates the modulating signal c. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D d. essentially mixers b. none of the above ANS: B 25.both a and b d. Automatic Frequency Control b. Frequency multipliers are: a. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a.start with full-carrier AM c.the carrier frequency can be lowered c. none of the above ANS: A 20.essentially Class C amplifiers d.Automatic Frequency Centering d.the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value . a frequency multiplier b.essentially balanced modulators c.none of the above ANS: A 22. start with a quadrature signal b. With mixing: a. Audio Frequency Control ANS: C 24. none of the above ANS: C 21. both a and b b.none of the above ANS: B 23.b. AFC stands for: a. all of the above ANS: B 19.a mixer d.Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. A direct FM modulator: a.start with DSBSC d.

the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. . Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ANS: compression 7. ANS: FCC 3. In the USA. ANS: Industry Canada 4.d. ANS: agility 5. . ANS: efficiently 10. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more . ALC is a form of ANS: compression 9. The opposite of compression is called . a stage is used. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be . In Canada. is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of . The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ANS: carrier 2. ANS: expansion 8. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. the sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. . Frequency retuning. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ANS: PEP 6. frequency. ANS: linear 11. sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's oscillator.

Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ANS: D 21. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ANS: 50 14. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ANS: harmonic 16. ANS: higher 13. levels. . as well as into one "box". modulation. can destroy a transmitter's output stage. network for -ohm load.ANS: buffer 12. ANS: DSBSC is used to operate at amplifiers. it is common to modulate the the power amplifier in transistor modulators. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a impedance matching. To allow a high modulation percentage. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ANS: receiver 18. more than one frequency. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is than the DC supply voltage. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulseANS: duration 20. it is common to start with a signal. ANS: driver 19. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. Severe impedance ANS: mismatch 17. ANS: mixing 22. ANS: T 15. To generate a SSB signal.

25. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. To pass the USB. Indirect FM is derived from ANS: phase 24.005 MHz 6. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75.8% 3. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. modulation. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. Assuming high-level modulation.23.001%. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz 500 hertz ± 2. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ANS: reactance modulator. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a loop. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC.

Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. ANS: First. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation.7. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. .

the spurious response and the tracking d.Seeley d. Hertz ANS: C 3.the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c.the tuner c. Armstrong b. all of the above ANS: D 6. Trimmers and padders are: a. the mixer b. image frequency c. "Skin effect" refers to: a. AGC stands for: a. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. small adjustable capacitors . Active Gain Control b. Active Gain Conversion ANS: B 8.the sensitivity and the selectivity b. is above the RF frequency c.the signal and the noise ANS: A 2.intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7.two types of adjusting tools b. indeterminate frequency d. small adjustable inductors d.Foster c. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a.none of the above ANS: C 5.the RF amplifier d.small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4.the increase of wire resistance with frequency d.the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b.Automatic Gain Control d.the number of converters and the number of IFs c. The frequency of the local oscillator: a.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. "IF" stands for: a. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a.Audio Gain Control c.intermediate frequency b.

a value of 1.b.the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b.a value of 1.a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b.707 is ideal d. Basically.a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. typically at 455 kHz. Phase distortion is important in: a. the IF amplifiers b. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. monochrome video receivers b. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. ANS: C 9. none of the above .with two signals close in fixed.the mixer c. both values are basically equivalent d. When comparing values for shape factor: below the RF frequency is cheaper ANS: D 10.0 is ideal b. When comparing values for shape factor: well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B increases selectivity d.a value of 0. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. all of the above ANS: B c.the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d.the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. all of the above ANS: D 15.voice communications systems c.none of the above ANS: A 11.can be either above of below the RF frequency d. well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d.414 dB is ideal gives a greater reduction of spurious responses increases sensitivity c. sensitivity measures: a.the detector d.color video receivers d.the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. there is no ideal value ANS: C 13. selectivity measures: a.

prior to mixing c.the AGC c. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. the dynamic range of the receiver b. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. A common SSB detector is: a.envelope detector d. all of the above ANS: D 22. An image must be rejected: a. a BFO b. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. prior to detection b. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. enter the mixer. images cannot be rejected ANS: A 19. An FM detector is the: a.PLL c. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. enter the mixer.a PLL c.prior to IF amplification d. enter the mixer.they are faster than silicon diodes b.all of the above ANS: C 23.ratio detector d. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. A common AM detector is the: a. are transmitted on the same frequency b.noise generated in the receiver d.PLL c. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17.they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. all of the above ANS: B 21.having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. a product detector ANS: D .having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b.none of the above ANS: C 20.having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. quadrature detector b. ratio detector b.a dioded.they are cheaper than silicon diodes c.16.

Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. The function of a limiter is: a. to limit dynamic range b. BFO stands for: a.Autodyne Frequency Compensation d. Autonomous Frequency Control ANS: C 32. LNA stands for: a. The function of AFC is: a. Logarithmic Noise Amplification .maintain a constant IF frequency b. envelope detection b.24.use double conversion d. a PLL detector b.Audio Frequency Compensator c. you need to: a.Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator b. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. all of the above ANS: C 28. limiting ANS: B 30. ratio detection ANS: B remove amplitude variations c. Low-Noise Audio d. Which would be best for DSBSC: a.use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B limit spurious responses d. Automatic Frequency Control b.a quadrature detector d.squelch d. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC.Foster-Seeley detector c.Barrier Frequency Oscillator d.AGC c. to limit noise response ANS: A 29.reinject the carrier c.use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b.carrier detection c.Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31.coherent detection d.match the local oscillator to the received signal c.Limited-Noise Amplifier b. Bistable Frequency Oscillator ANS: A 25. AFC stands for: a. AFC b.

Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year . SINAD stands for: a.Dynamic Signal Properties c. TRF stands for: a.keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. The main function of the AGC is to: a.Direct Signal Phase d.Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1.none of the above ANS: B 33.Symmetrical Audio Wave b. allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35.Tuned Radio Frequency b. SAW stands for: a. DSP stands for: a. Transmitted Radio Frequency d.keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Silicon-Activated Wafer d.Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B stabilizes the audio in a receiver b.Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Distorted Signal Packet b.all of the above ANS: C 36. The important property of a SAW is: a.c.Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Digital Signal Processor ANS: D 37. Software-Activated Wave . Almost all modern receivers use the ANS: superheterodyne 2. c. Tuned Receiver Function c.lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d.keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. it is a stable bandpass filter d. none of the above c.Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38.

the other changes with it. the ANS: front end 7. the output of the goes to the IF amplifiers. than the received signal frequency. the frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: AGC 10.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: track 4. In low-side injection. ANS: Sensitivity . ANS: mixer 8. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. the local oscillator is ANS: lower 12. ANS: 1918 6. An converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. The superhet was invented in the year . ANS: intermediate IF 9. In a receiver. The ANS: skin 5. The circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. When two tuned circuits each other. refers to the input filter and RF stage. ANS: autodyne 11. In a superhet. In a superhet. ANS: Selectivity 13.

. ANS: amplitude 24. An detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. A dual. Unlike the PLL detector. .14. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ANS: image 16.receiver. A demodulator is also called a . A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in input signal. detection circuit. ANS: noisy 26. A BFO produces a locally generated ANS: carrier 20. FM detectors have a characteristic ANS: S 22. While still commonly found. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: detector 17. ANS: product 19. A detector is used for SSB signals. Diode mixers are too to be practical in most applications. A DSBSC signal requires a ANS: coherent 21. frequencies. ANS: conversion 15. of the -shaped curve. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class . the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are . ANS: obsolescent 23.MOSFET is useful for AGC. ANS: gate 25.

ANS: A 27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually top and steep sides. ANS: over 28. Multiple IF stages can be ANS: stagger 29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ANS: adjustment 30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a signal. ANS: higher 31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is ANS: fixed constant 32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the ANS: IF 3 3 . A n -meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: S 34. The effectiveness of FM ANS: limiting 35. A refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. amplifiers. . frequency than the incoming . -tuned to increase the bandwidth. coupled for the response to have a flat

ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz?


20 kHz 2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1.25 4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1.5 MHz 100 hertz

6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0.06 7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0.01

Chapter 7: Digital Communications
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first digital code was the: a.ASCII code c. Morse code b.Baudot code d. none of the above ANS: C 2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using: amplifier c. a regenerative repeater b.a filter d. all of the above ANS: C 3. TDM stands for: a.Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester b.Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester ANS: A 4. Hartley's Law is: a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N) b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max ANS: A 5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N) b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max ANS: B 6. The Shannon Limit is given by: a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N) b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max ANS: C 7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N) b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max ANS: D 8. Natural Sampling does not use: a.a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate b.true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter ANS: A

Foldover distortion is caused by: a. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. PPM b.Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.too many samples per second d.They are the same thing. Companding is used to: a. all of the above ANS: C 11. The immediate result of sampling is: a.the Logarithmic Law c. PCM b. d.decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. companding uses: a. c. the Law (alpha law) b. In North America. PPS ANS: D 13.decreases as the sample rate increases b.the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a.You can have one or the other. PDM ANS: B 12.a sample alias c.decreases as the sample rate decreases c. too few samples per second b. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a.PWM d.decreases as the bits per sample increases d.the A Law d.none of the above ANS: A 15. the Law (mu law) cx µ .the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a.maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16.PDM c. b.reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. ANS: D 10.9.compress the range of base-band frequencies b. but not both.They are two types of sampling error.PAM d.noise c.the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c.preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d.

the Logarithmic Law c. In Europe. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c.ANS: D 17. Manchester coding: a. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a.Coder-Decoder b. In delta modulation.has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. companding uses: a. Compared to PCM.the signal changes too rapidly c.with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c.requires a much higher sampling rate d. the bit rate is too high b. unipolar NRZ b. 12-bit numbers b. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. the sample is too large ANS: B 22.Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. Codec stands for: a. Compared to PCM.8-bit numbers d. delta modulation: a. none of the above . all of the above ANS: D 21. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a.the A Law d. can suffer slope overload b.with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. the Law (alpha law) b.provides strong timing information d. "granular noise" is produced when: a.the signal does not change d. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a.AMI c. Code-Compression d.Manchester d. only over shorter distances b.4-bit numbers c.all of the above ANS: D 25.transmits fewer bits per sample c. the Law (mu law) cx µ ANS: B 18. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B a biphase code b.

all of the above ANS: C 27. 48 ANS: B 34.544 Mb/s c. a. 24 b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b.544 MB/s c. 4 b. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 4 8 × 106 . 56 kb/s b.544 b. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. A T-1 cable uses: a.carry signaling d.6 c. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a.56 k ANS: A 30. The number of frames in a superframe is: a.2 d.bipolar RZ AMI coding d. 56 kb/s b.1.a.1.1 c. pulse-width coding ANS: B 33. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b. NRZ coding b.64 kb/sd.12 d. 8 kb/s ANS: B 31. 8 ANS: A 26. 1.1 b.detect errors c.detect errors c. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. A typical T-1 line uses: 0.64 kb/sd. In DS-1. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 64 k d.8 k c.Manchester coding c. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a.carry signaling d. all of the above ANS: B 28.2 ANS: D 29.

constructing a model of the transmission medium b. onto a carrier. The value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel.coaxial cable d.on-hook/off-hook condition c. A vocoder implements compression by: a. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually as the length of the channel increases. ANS: binary . microwave ANS: A 35. Digitizing a signal often results in ANS: improved better 2.using lossless techniques ANS: B 37.constructing a model of the human vocal system c. transmission quality. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. Compared to standard PCM systems. ANS: digitized 4. all of the above ANS: D 36.a. ringing b.finding redundancies in the digitized data d. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. To send it over an analog channel.twisted-pair wire c. a digital signal must be ANS: modulated 3. fiber-optic cable b. To send it over a digital channel. about the same b. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a.somewhat better d.much better c. In analog channels.busy signal d. an analog signal must first be .

ANS: Time 10.6. . Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital ANS: Nyquist 16. and bandwidth. The format. Ignoring noise. ANS: Shannon-Hartley theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission 13. A repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of in digital transmission systems. sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ANS: Natural 15. Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: Shannon 14. All practical communications channels are bandANS: limited 11. There are techniques to detect and ANS: correct some errors in digital transmission. -division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. information capacity. ANS: error noise 9. ANS: Hartley's 12. ANS: regenerative 7. The limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. 8. ANS: Foldover . the for a given bandwidth.

modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: Quantizing 21. -law equation. compression is done using the ANS: µ -law equation. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulseANS: amplitude 19. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to bits before being compressed to 8 bits. In Europe. ANS: Pulse-code 20.17. Delta modulation requires a reproduction. ANS: higher sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of . ANS: Companding 22. means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. . noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: 12 26. ANS: codec 25. ANS: Aliasing 18. modulated signal. compression is done using the ANS: A 24. In North America. A is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. mu 23. In a PCM system. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ANS: 1 one 27. is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth.

ANS: half 32. . Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ANS: DC 33. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about of PCM. In delta modulation. ANS: timing 37. bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ANS: Granular 29. DS-1 uses a ANS: framing 39. ANS: step 31. In AMI. ANS: slope 30. overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. channels in a DS-1 frame. Manchester coding provides information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. In DS-1.28. Ther e ar e ANS: 24 38. ANS: transition 36. continuity. Long strings of ANS: zeros 35. The size varies in adaptive delta modulation. the bit rate . Manchester code has a level in the center of each bit period. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ANS: polarity 34. each channel is sampled ANS: 8000 40. times per second. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of bits per second. should be avoided in AMI.

000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. From a group of twelve frames. ANS: superframe 42.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. it.ANS: 1.544 10 6 × 41. . ANS: 5 seconds 2. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do frame. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ANS: sixth 43. What is the approximate dynamic range. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a . in dB.

388 volt? µ ANS: 0. what is the output voltage of a -law compressor if the input voltage is 0. what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8.833 volt .ANS: 64 kbps 7. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.

Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c.occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c.a local calling area c.Dial Tone Master Frequency d.a toll station d.occurs only on long-distance cables d. none of the above ANS: B 7. DTMF stands for: a.Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. Local Area Transport Access ANS: A 5.trunk lines d.Private Switched Telephone Network d.Local Access Telephone Area d. a central office b.a tandem office c. PSTN stands for: a. an interexchange office ANS: C 8. Digital Trunk Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Primary Service Telephone Network b. POTS stands for: a. A LATA is a: a. Local Area Telephone Access b.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.a type of digital local network d.Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Numbers ANS: A 3.Local Access and Transport Area c. both a and b b. LATA stands for: a.Private Office Telephone System b. Dual-Tone Multifrequency b. Local loops terminate at: a. Primary Operational Test System d. a way of accessing a central office ANS: A 6.occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. a way of accessing a tandem office b. Plain Old Telephone Service .cannot occur in the public telephone network b.local loops c. Central offices are connected by: a. Call blocking: a.

crossbar control d.when it is off hook d.48 volts DC c.20 A to 80 A c. 20 mA to 80 mA µ µ µ µ ANS: D 15.when it is on hook c. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 20 hertz AC d.increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. 90 volts. as long as it is attached to a local loop b.Point Of Presence d. FITL stands for: a. Loading coils were used to: a. DC current flows through a telephone: a. only when it is ringing ANS: B 14.reduce crosstalk d.twisted-pair copper wire c. 2 mA to 8 mA b. In telephony. ESS ANS: C 16. coaxial cable b. Framing In The Loop b.Post Office Protocol c. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. fiber-optic ANS: A 11.Fiber In the Toll Loop d.48 volts.shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. Fiber-In-The-Loop ANS: D 12. none of the above ANS: B 10. Power-On Protocol b. common control b. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a.reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. 90 volts DC b. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a.step-by-step switching control c.Framing Information for Toll Loops c. POP stands for: a.ANS: D 9.provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 200 A t o 800 A d. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: .

a.48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b.48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS: D 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a.allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed b.prevent "singing" d. all of the above ANS: C 19. VNL stands for: a.voltage net loss b.volume net loss ANS: C 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a.eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio b.prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. The reference noise level for telephony is: a.1 mW c. 1 pW b.0 dBm d. 0 dBr ANS: C 22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a.6 c. 24 b.12 d. 60 ANS: B 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a.supergroups c. jumbogroups b.mastergroups d. all of the above ANS: D 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using: a.SSB c. PDM b.DSBSC d. PCM ANS: A 25. PABX stands for: a.Power Amplification Before Transmission b.Private Automatic Branch Exchange c.Public Automated Branch Exchange d.Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. via net loss d. voice noise level

26. SLIC stands for: a.Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card b.Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit ANS: C 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to: a.provide synchronization c. cancel echoes b.carry signaling d. check for errors ANS: B 28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a.compensation c. justification b.rectification d. frame alignment ANS: C 29. ISDN stands for: a.Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network b.Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network ANS: A 30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: took to long to develop is too slow has been surpassed by newer technologies d.all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a.All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line b.Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line ANS: B 32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: a.much faster c. much more expensive b.about the same speed d. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1.A is a local calling area. ANS: LATA 2.Central offices are connected together by lines.

ANS: trunk 3. One central office can be connected to another through a office. ANS: tandem 4. With 7-digit phone numbers, office. ANS: ten 5. Call is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: blocking 6. New switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. thousand telephones can connect to a central

ANS: digital 7. Most local loops still use ANS: twisted-pair 8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a intermediate switch. ANS: flat 9. coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: Loading 10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called . ANS: ring 11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called ANS: tip 12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ANS: green 13. A telephone is said to have ANS: seized 14. The functions are provided by a SLIC. the line when the central office sends it dial tone. wire is positive with respect to the other. . network never needs more than one copper wire.

A coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: C-message 23. In a crosspoint switch. signal voltage. Because of "bit robbing". ANS: hybrid 16. In FDM telephony. not all can be in use at the same time. amplifiers are called . ANS: lines 17. ANS: 56 kbps when bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: conditioned 20. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is . ANS: guard 25. . In the telephone system. weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. the modulation is usually . ANS: repeaters 21. ANS: DTMF 19. converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. In FDM telephony. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only used to send digital data. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ANS: large 18. A line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. An echo ANS: suppressor 22.ANS: BORSCHT 15.

The A in ADSL stands for ANS: asymmetrical 35. signals because they use the same pair of bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ANS: TE1 34. channel is used for common-channel signaling. . A is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. In ISDN. SS7 is the current version of signaling. In DS-1C. Busy and dial tone are referred to as wires as the voice signal. In ISDN. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER than the speed in the . ANS: superframe 27. the ANS: B 33. channels are used for voice or data. -switched data network. ANS: in-channel 29. ANS: stuff 28.26. the ANS: D 32. ANS: common-channel 30. SS7 is a ANS: packet 31. the speed from the network to the subscriber is opposite direction. In ADSL. equipment.

the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. For a certain telephone. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? ANS: 1000 ohms 2.1. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP .) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. If the loop current is 40 mA. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. For a certain telephone. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. If the loop current is 40 mA. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. ANS: 1 dB 5.

escape characters d.character sets d. Character codes include: a. binary data d. they do not have any other name b.over short distances only c.American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. Line Feed c.American Standard Code 2 d. ASCII stands for: a. Line Forward c.Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7.the Morkum Company c. both a and b ANS: C 4. Emile Baudot ANS: D 3.alphanumeric characters b. all of the above ANS: B 5. all of the above . Western Union b.the Teletype Company d. In practical terms. none of the above ANS: C 8. parallel data transmission is sent: a. over any distance b.FIGS data c. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. LF stands for: a. Data codes are also called: link control characters ANS: D 6. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. and CR are examples of: a.usually over long distances d. numerical data b. graphic control characters d. BS. control characters b. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a.American Standard Character-set 2 b.character codes c. FF.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.nonstandard character codes c.

the CRC bits b.about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. the time between consecutive frames is: a. equal to the start and stop bit-times b.equal to one bit-time d.128 bytes long d. not a set length ANS: D start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. the frames are: a.frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock is easier to implement than asynchronous d.not synchronized at is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a.the clock bits c. In asynchronous transmission.long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. UART stands for: a.Unaltered Received Text d.the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d.Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10.Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c.equal to zero c.all of the above ANS: A 14.frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. In synchronous transmission. Synchronous transmission is used because: a.transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c.1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. In asynchronous transmission. the transmitter and receiver are: a. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a.much longer than asynchronous frames c.the data bits d. Link Forward 9. a separate clock line ANS: B 15.the channel must be noise-free . Link Feed ANS: A d.b. In synchronous transmission.Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11.frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b.

The use of flags in SDLC requires: a.ANS: A 16. Huffman codes: a.ARQ d. HDLC: a. False Error Condition ANS: C 22. is identical to SDLC b. automatic request for queue ANS: B 20.Control Receiver Code c.correct bit errors c.automatic request for resynchronization c. VRC is another name for: a.Fixed Error Control c. parity ANS: D 23. FEC b. requires the use of DLE an IBM product c. none of the above ANS: A 21.Forward Error Control d. ARQ ANS: A 19.allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. automatic receiver queue b. ARQ is used to: a. Cyclic Redundancy Check b."bit-stuffing" c.different flags at either end of a frame a bit-oriented protocol a character-oriented protocol d. Cycle Repeat Character ANS: C 24. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. Forward Error Correction b.Correct Received Character d. CRC stands for: an IBM product c. FEC stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 17.allow errors to be detected and corrected c. all of the above ANS: B 18.automatic request for retransmission d.FEC c. LRC b.allow alphanumeric data to be corrected .correct synchronization problems d. put data into a temporary buffer b. BISYNC: a.

allows the use of digital signatures b. Synchronous Data Link Character d. compress data d. Run-length encoding is used to: a. HDLC is: a. Public-key encryption: a. The term "baud" was named after Emil c. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. SDLC stands for: a. Parallel transmission can be used only for distances. encrypt data c.a bit-oriented protocolc. . d. ANS: short 2. problem" all of the above avoids the "password ANS: B 26. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27.based on SDLC d. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. Synchronous Data Line Character c.d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D correct data none of the above 25. an ISO standard b. b. Synchronous Data Link Control b.

ANS: ASCII 5. . Data codes are also called ANS: character 4. The two letters designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. The code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. ANS: Baudot 3. ANS: FF codes..

An integrated circuit called a is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data.17. When receiving digital data. ANS: transitions 13. In the protocol. 11. ANS: buffers are used to hold data until they can be read. Synchronous communication is more than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. each frame starts with an 8-bit ANS: flag 16. BCC stands for check character. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ANS: 01111110 . 8. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. . . ANS: efficient 12. bits in synchronous transmission. the line will be at the ANS: mark binary 1 level. An asynchronous frame begins with the bit. 6. ANS: start 7. An asynchronous frame ends with the ANS: stop bit. In HDLC. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. ANS: UART 10. At the end of an asynchronous frame. 9. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ANS: data 14. ANS: BISYNC 15.

Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data . . ANS: burst 25. error correction. FEC stands for ANS: forward 2 2 . ANS: Burst 21. A is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. ANS: even 24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting errors. .ANS: block 18. Messages cannot be using a public key. A is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. HDLC uses bitANS: stuffing 20. private-key encryption can be quite secure. errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. enough. to prevent accidental flags. If the key is ANS: long 29. DLE stands for data link ANS: escape 19. A n ANS: ARQ 23. ANS: compression 26. ANS: cipher 27. scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: password 28. Parity fails when an number of bits are in error.

17. . BCC stands for check character. ANS: decrypted 30. public-key encryption can be slow. Because it is -intensive.

and two stop bits (it could happen). a parity bit. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. ANS: 66. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data.0% . Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS: 97. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2.7% 6. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1.

The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a.communication is half-duplex only b. slower c. In a circuit-switched network: a. Collision Detection b. token-passing rings are: a.Carrier Sense Multiple Access d.none of the above ANS: B 6. Compared to CSMA/CD systems.token d. Collision Delay ANS: C 3.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.use CSMA/CD d.hub c. not as widely used . node b. a very large CSMA/CD network b.connection is usually done using a bus topology networks requiring central monitoring c. The Internet is: a.each channel carries only one data stream c. not really a network at all ANS: A 4. use UTP cable b.a very large client-server network d. none of the above ANS: B 2. circuit ANS: C 8.all of the above ANS: B 7. Dumb terminals are still used: a. Each computer on a network is called a: a.are based on Ethernet c. Most LANs: a.Carrier Delay token-passing networks b.a network of networks c. Carrier Server Master Application b. all of the above ANS: D 5.Client-Server Multi-Access c. CSMA stands for: networks that cannot provide central monitoring d.Carrier Detection c.

collisions ANS: D 15.nodes d.a collision c.users d. multiple access ANS: A 13. carriers b. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. multiple access ANS: B 12. none of the above ANS: D 10. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. token-passing b.the network slows down d. Multiple Auxiliary Units b. a node b. it is called: a.nodes c. excess traffic b.3 . MAU stands for: a. packets b. IEEE 802.CSMA c. EIA 232 c. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14.the network goes down c.contention d. On networks. all of the above 9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a.a central bus d.Ethernet d. it is called: a. data is lost ANS: B 16.packets c.b. In an Ethernet-based network. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. none of the above ANS: A 17. The effect of too many collisions is: a. tokens ANS: A 11. more expensive ANS: D d. One type of network that never has a collision is: a.a central ring c. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time.contention d. the cable overheats b.Multiple Access Unit d. excess traffic b.a collision c.Multistation Access Unit c.

Three-Level encoding d. 50-ohm coaxial cable ANS: B 21. A 100BaseT cable uses: a.INTEL d.Network Interface Card b.Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25.the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c.fiber-optic cable c. an RJ45 connector c. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a.IBM prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c.all of the above ANS: C 24.twisted-pair copper wires d. Network Internal Code increase the data rate b. CCITT ITU-E 18. NRZ encoding can be used as the base for a backbone cable system increase the data rate b. IEEE 488. Ethernet was invented by: a. AMI encoding ANS: A 20.1 ANS: C d. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. NIC stands for: prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. Xerox b. Digital Equipment Corporation ANS: C make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d.all of the above ANS: C 23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a.none of the above ANS: A 22. RG-58U coaxial cable b.Manchester encoding c. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. a BNC connector c.the cable carries baseband signals b. Network Interface Code d.

all of the above ANS: C 31.b.are cheaper c. both a and b b. UTP stands for: a. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. a T connector ANS: C d.peer-to-peer networks is cheaper when used in large networks b. none of the above ANS: B .sends incoming packets out to specific ports c.modulate the data onto a carrier b.sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. A switch: a. an RS11 connector 26.cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network is faster when used in large networks c. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. all of the above ANS: C 28.Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire d. CAT-5 cables: a. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a.are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet b. allow faster bit rates b.use coaxial cables c.sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b.sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. Broadband LANs: a.are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30.all of the above ANS: D 32.cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. A hub: a.are easier to crimp connectors onto d.Untwisted-Pair copper wire reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. Unicode Text Packet ANS: B 27.are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d.client-server networks d.

A ANS: packet -passing. -switched network.UNIX-based c.basically.a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above ANS: A COMPLETION A LAN is a ANS: Local . a PC with no disk drives c.prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. In a communications. Ring networks often use ANS: token 7. 1. same as a "dumb" terminal b. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of of a network describes how it is physically connected together. A "thin" client is: a. circuit star networks network.WINDOWS-based d.33. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a.prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. Novell certified ANS: C 35. ANS: 5. The ANS: topology records securely on a server b. all nodes are connected to a central computer. multitasking b. Record locking is used to: a. Area Network. is a short section of a message in digital form.none of the above ANS: C 34. . The Internet is a network of ANS: 3. In a ANS: 4.

In CSMA/CD networks. ANS: backbone 13. all collisions must be . ANS: detected 11. In CSMA/CD. ANS: Contention 9. length to ensure that collisions are detected. to form. In CSMA/CD. A 100BaseTX cable is a ANS: fiber-optic 18. before using it. Hubs can be ANS: stacked 19. A switch looks at the ANS: address of each incoming packet. bits per second. one big hub. of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. packets must have a ANS: minimum 15. the ANS: length 16. cable. A " " cable links clusters of computers together. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ANS: quiet free unused available 12. ANS: NIC 17. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ANS: 100 mega 14. A occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. . A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its . ANS: collision 10. is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time.8. in effect.

so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. 2.What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. . 4. The collision would not be detected.What is a NIC address. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. send a packet. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers.Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.20.What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. 5. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. the entire network is inoperative. It still works like a token-passing ring. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce______________________. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory.Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. 3.

The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. 7 b.25 layer d. Frame Relay: a. MAN stands for: a.Small Network Access ANS: D 4.switched circuits d. link layer ANS: D 7. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. Systems Network Architecture . network b. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. Standard Network Architecture d.Standard Network Access b. all of the above ANS: D c. all of the above ANS: A layer d. frame ANS: C 8. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a.25 c.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.physical layer d. Packet switching is based on: c.frame layer c. Multiple Access Network ANS: C 2. SNA stands for: a. allows for variable length packets b. cable layer b.3 c. error-check layer b. Metropolitan-Area Network b. real-time delivery b.Manchester Access Network c. 8 ANS: C 5.does less error checking than X.5 faster than X. transport layer ANS: A 6.user c.physical layer c.Multiple-Area Network d.

is essentially forever b. Asynchronous Transmission Model b. UDP stands for: a.separates a network into "collision domains" b. HTTP stands for: a. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a.Transmission Control Protocol d.connection-oriented protocol c.5 layersc. Universal Data Packet ANS: A 17.Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. non-robust protocol ANS: C 15.7 layers d. User Data Packet b.all of the above ANS: D 11.Internet Process b.Asynchronous Transmission Mode d. Together. TCP/IP consists of: a.9. connectionless protocol b.depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. IP is a: a. none of the above ANS: B 13. ATM stands for: a. Transfer Connection Protocol b.looks at the address of each packet c. datagrams ANS: A 14. an application and a process b. TCP stands for: a.virtual circuit d.User Data Protocol d.Transmission Control Process approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16.User Datagram Protocol c.depends on elapsed time since transmission c. IP stands for: a.operate at the data-link level d. Automatic Test Mode ANS: A 10.Asynchronous Transfer Mode c. A bridge: a. Interconnect Procedure . Interconnect Protocol d.

high-speed file transfer d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer b.Internet Service Protocol b. File Test Procedure b. FTP stands for: a. none of the above ANS: C 19.Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. FTP is used to: a.File Transfer Protocol c.b.a 32-bit binary number c.transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. SMTP stands for: a. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d.File Transport Protocol d.Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d.none of the above ANS: A 23.transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. running out of available values b. web page layout b. ISP stands for: a.Short Message Transport Protocol b. telneting c. none of the above c.Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d.four groups of base-ten numbers d. Internet Service Procedure d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language ANS: A 20. all of the above c. browsers b.file transport d.dumb terminals c.test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. all of the above ANS: C 21. HTML stands for: a.Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. Fast Transport Packet ANS: A 22. HTTP allows the use of: a. HTML allows: a. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure . The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a.Hypertext Markup Language c.Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25.High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c.

OSI stands for: a.describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28.Domain Name System d. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1.Domain Name Server c. Open Systems Internet b. A -Area Network could extend across a nation.translates words to numbers c. A dedicated telephone line can be ANS: leased 4. DNS stands for: a. ANS: Wide 3. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29.a "brick wall" d. The use of digital circuitANS: switched 5. A is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a.a DNS c.stores all domain addresses d. Domain Naming System ANS: A 27. Domain Numbering System b. A DNS: a. ANS: forward become obsolete on the Internet b.Open Standard Interconnection d. ANS: Metropolitan 2. A -Area Network would extend typically across a city. a "firewall" b.Open Systems Interconnectionc.ANS: D 26. Packet switching is done on a store-and. on a monthly basis. lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. .

In X.25. The X. ANS: packet 13. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ANS: real 18.ANS: protocol 7. Compared to X. ANS: 53 17. ANS: frame 12.25.25. the network layer is called the layer. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ANS: network 10.25 protocol was developed by the ANS: CCITT 11. All ATM frames contain just bytes. Frame Relay does error checking. layer. Frame Relay requires channels with low rates. the data-link layer is called the layer. Bad frames are usually detected at the layer. ANS: bit-error 15. ANS: Repeaters -time communications. The physical route of a ANS: virtual 14. . . ANS: less 16. layer. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ANS: physical 8. In X. ANS: data-link 9. circuit changes each time it is used. simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network.

look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ANS: fiber-optic 26. TCP/IP goes back to the ANS: ARPANET DARPANET of the 1970s. that jump to other pages on the web. A protocol does not track packets after they are sent. . for security. Voice over ANS: IP 29. is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: Bridges 20. decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. " " is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: connectionless 24. ANS: Routers 21. cables. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ANS: firewall 28. ANS: Streaming 30. ANS: DNS 27. HTTP allows the use of ANS: hyperlinks 25.19. was used first. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ANS: ISP . 22.

it is considered to be one "hop".SHORT ANSWER 1. Subnet number. 5. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic. 3. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B'. Host number 2. More processing implies more time per packet. this number is reduced by one. 6. but it is not a direct circuit. At some point. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network. When it gets to zero. then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. 4. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. At each hop. ANS: Network number. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 7. which implies fewer packets per second through the network. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. . the packet is deleted from the network.

In the equation I = ktB.too many bits low d. bits b. PSK b.FSK c.AFSK d.the eye is maximally closed d.too many bits high c. maximum number of symbols per second ANS: C 6. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a.Pulse-Shift Keying d.Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4.Frequency-Shift Keying d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. none of the above .Full-Shift Keying c. PSK stands for: a. I is measured in: a. bits per second ANS: C 5.the eye is maximally open c. the eye is half open b. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. QAM ANS: A c. FSK stands for: a. number of possible states per symbol b. Phase-Signal Keying b. intermodulation distortion b. M is the: a.Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a.amperes per second d. Phase-Shift Keying ANS: D 3.amperes c. QAM stands for: a.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.modulation index d. Full-Signal Keying b. none of the above ANS: B 2.margin of noise c.Pulse-Signal Keying c.

angles of /4. ANSI ANS: B 16.noise and interference b.separation of symbols in "symbol space" d. ITU is an abbreviation for: a.the U. 2 /4. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. IEEE b. For QAM. 180. frequency and phase angle b. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. full-duplex. a QPSK symbol contains: a.uneven phase and frequency response c. 225. FSK b. half-duplex.300 bps. 1200 bps.600 bps.Gaussian bits c. d.location of symbols in "symbol space" c.low SNR d.International Telephony Union d. and 315 degrees d.amplitude and phase angle d. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. For QAM.inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. The ITU is under the auspices of: a.amplitude and frequency c. and 270 degrees c. full-duplex. a dibit b. FSK c. 90.9.angles of 45. effects of noise on symbols b. /4 DQPSK uses: a.a byte c.N. International Telecommunications Units ANS: C 15. To reduce the need for linearity. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. full-duplex. a random sequence . Instead of a single bit. FSK ANS: A 14. a training sequence b.CCITT c. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. 135. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a.random bits d. double phase-shift angles ir ir ir ir ir ANS: B 11.4 bits d.angles of 0. International Telecommunications Union b. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. 1200 bps.International Telephony Unit c. and 4 /4 b. FSK d. all of the above ANS: D 12. 3 /4.

a DTR c. a modem would be: a. 5 b.error-correction protocols d. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. none of the above . both a and b b. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both: a. ISO-232C/D b. signal ground is pin: a.ANS: C 18.error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. the ITU b.a DSR d. MNP3. both a and b d. ANSI-232C ANS: B 23. a DTE ANS: C 24.a DTR c. MNP4. In RS-232. 7 ANS: C 26. 7 c.90 standard is issued by: a. In RS-232.XON/XOFF characters d. a DTE ANS: D 25.1 c. The official name for RS-232C is: a.RS-232C c.3 d.EIA-232D d.RTS/CTS handshake c.the TIA schemes c. In RS-232. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. none of the above ANS: C 22. a DCE b. MNP2. and MNP10 are all: a. a personal computer would be: schemes b. The V.1 c.a DSR d. 5 b. both a and b b. a DCE b. none of the above ANS: B 20. flow control is done using: a. the ISO ANS: C 19.the EIA c. signal ground is pin: a.3 d.

RD.XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS b. In a CATV system. Software flow control uses: a.TD and RD d.Cable Modem Terminal Server c. CTS.Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop ANS: C 32.+12 volts d. Cable Modem Transmission Server ANS: A 35. and signal ground b.ANS: C 27. DSR.Any DSL scheme c. RD. ADSL Lite b. +9 volts b. Digital Subscriber Line b. none of the above . RTS. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. HFC stands for: a.TD and RD d.Asynchronous DSL c. DSL stands for: a. ADSL stands for: a. RTS and CTS b.Cable Modem Transmission System d.Data Signal Line c. All DSL ANS: B 33. all of the above ANS: D 31.TD and RD c. TD.Hybrid Frequency Control d. and signal ground ANS: B 28. and signal ground d. DSR and DCD ANS: C 29.XON and XOFF c.+15 volts c. DSR and DCD ANS: A 30. RD. TD. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. In a CATV system.ADSL d.TD. Analog DSL b.Head Frequency Control c. CMTS stands for: a. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. Cable Modem Terminal System b. Hybrid Fiber Control ANS: C 34. Hardware flow control uses: a. Hybrid Fiber-Coax b.Asymmetrical DSL d.

line. different phase angles.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: Quadrature 6. ITU stands for International ANS: Telecommunications 12. . PSK. ANS: Data 5. DSR stands for Set Ready. coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy Union. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a . ANS: baud 7. QPSK uses ANS: four 9. ANS: CTS 3. In QAM modems. diagram. DPSK stands for ANS: Delta 10. The response to RTS is . RTS means Request To . The number of symbols per second is called the rate. . The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ANS: constellation 11. ANS: Send 2. ANS: dibit 8. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ANS: Keying 4. QAM stands for Amplitude Modulation.

A modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.ANS: Trellis 13. is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. . Between hardware flow control and software flow control. ANS: hardware 18. A voltage higher than volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. DSL. flow control is bps. a onto a fiber-optic backbone. ADSL stands for ANS: Asymmetrical 21. the line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: CMTS is used to put several channels of data network. preferred. In RS-232. A typical CATV system is organized as a ANS: tree 22. bps. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ANS: 20k 16. ANS: null 20. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ANS: 3 19. ANS: Equalization 14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ANS: 54k 15. In a CATV system using cable modems.

23. is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. .

How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. The version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. ANS: lite 26. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service.ANS: Ranging 24. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. A DSLAM is a DSL Access . modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. ANS: ADSL 25. A DMT system uses 4. ANS: 4000 2. ANS: DMT 27. If half the modems are active at any given time.

8 .

A DS-1 signal contains: a. Besides data bits.TDM is used in RF communications d.256 kbps d.64 kbps c.every frame c.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. every sixth frame b.the length of the channel d. 1.Time Domain Multiple Access b. When calculating the maximum number of users.the type of media used c.every other frame d.544 Mbps ANS: D 7.the signals come from different sources c. 32 channels b. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. TDMA stands for: a. 64 channels ANS: B 6.all the signals come from the same source b.timing bit c. 1.12 channels c. framing bit ANS: D 8. the bandwidth of each signal b. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a.Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. signaling bit b.T-bit d. every twelfth frame c. CDMA stands for: a.24 channels d. In DS-1. none of the above c. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a.they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. Tone Division Multiple Access d.Code-Division Multiple Access b. all of the above ANS: C 5.536 Mbps b. none of the above .Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a.

the S/N ratio b. crosspoint switch ANS: D 12. spreading gain b. signal switching b. improved signal-to-noise ratio ANS: C 16. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. a direct-conversion receiver b.RF gain c.bandwidth of original baseband d. a CDMA receiver . divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a.about the same bandwidth c.multiplexer c. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. all of the above ANS: D switching d.time switching c.the digital data bit rate c.TDM switch d. all of the above ANS: C 14. For a given data rate.frequency-hopping switching d. direct-sequence method b. compared to standard RF systems. line switching b. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a.ANS: C 9. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. direct-sequence method b. the chip size ANS: B 17. A digital space switch is a: frequency reuse c. To calculate processing gain.frequency-hopping d.much more bandwidth d. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. direct-sequence systems.time switching c. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. much less bandwidth b. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. computerized Strowger switch speed d. use: a.a narrowband receiver c.a wideband receiver frequency reuse c.

In TDM. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. TDMA. each signal uses part of the bandwidth of the time. In FDM. . Multiplexing allows many signals to ANS: share 2.non-orthogonal PN sequences d.cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. true-random PN sequences b. ANS: all 4. Using CDMA on a radio channel. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a.a wideband receiver d. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ANS: part 5. ANS: time 7.a narrowband receiver c.allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. all signals can transmit of the time.orthogonal PN sequences c. and ANS: CDMA 3. a channel. . DS-1 is an example of -division multiplexing. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19.cannot be used on an RF channel d. a direct-conversion receiver b. ANS: all 6. of the time. CDMA: a.ANS: A 18. CDMA requires the use of: a. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. For optimal performance.cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. The AM radio band is an example of ANS: frequency -division multiplexing.

switching. switching. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ANS: time 16. ANS: 8 13. ANS: difficult 20.544 Meg 12. ANS: 1. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ANS: 193 bits. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate ofbits per second. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ANS: superframe 14. It is to jam a spread-spectrum signal. A PN sequence is a ANS: pseudo 18. . ANS: Rayleigh 17. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency . ANS: 24 9. 11. 10. ANS: hopping 19. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains bits. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called fading.8. It is to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. T1 uses the ANS: AMI line code. -random noise sequence. . A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of channels. Switching signals from one line to another is called ANS: space 15.

The 'C' in CDMA stands for . ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission.ANS: difficult 21. 2. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called . So the more bandwidth available. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. ANS: code 24. ANS: chips 22. 5. the higher the possible bit rate. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. . And without knowing the exact sequence being used. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? times the bit rate of the data is common. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be . it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. A chipping-rate of at least ANS: ten 23. 4. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. by definition.

have no frequencies in common. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in time. f23.). the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. If the two sets of frequencies. f12. f12.) and (f21. . f13. as it is in spread-spectrum. f13. . suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.. f23. f22. f22. and so forth. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. . 6.. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission.. (f11. and so forth..

the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. equal reactances b.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ideal elements ANS: B 5. As frequency increases. changes periodically ANS: A 6. TDR stands for: a. an open-wire-line cable b.Total Distance of Reflection c.the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c.decreases d. As frequency increases. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8.Shorted Wave Radiation c.distributed d.increases c. the resistance of a wire: a. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. stays the same b.I2R loss c. the skin effect 0.decreases d.Sine Wave Response d. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. Time-Domain Response b.increases c. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a.the resistance per foot of the wire used b. all of the above ANS: A 4.lumped c.Time-Domain Reflectometer d. SWR stands for: a.the Ohmic effect d. Transmission Delay Ratio ANS: B 3. Shorted Wire Region b. stays the same b. none of the above ANS: D 2.300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a.a coaxial cable c.the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot . When analyzing a transmission line.

would reflect as a negative pulse c.would reflect as a negative pulse c. increases with voltage b. as large as possible b.would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. For best matching. all of the above ANS: B 12.increases with length c.would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. The optimum value for SWR is: c.lower than Z 0 c.would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. the inductance per foot b.the dielectric constant d.standing waves c.would reflect as a positive pulse b.would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. higher voltage peaks on cable b.higher than Z 0 d.increases with frequency d.ANS: D 9. equal to Z 0 b.would not reflect at all ANS: B d.would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a.would reflect as a positive pulse b.the wire resistance c.would reflect as a negative pulse c. the load on a cable should be: a. there is no optimum value ANS: B 16.would not reflect at all ANS: A 15.loss of power to load d. all of the above . none of the above ANS: D 11.

Compared to a 300-ohm line. A TDR is commonly used to: a. VSWR stands for: a. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: using a filter d.assuming it to be zeroc.transmission line impedances c. is the characteristic impedance b. On a Smith Chart. would be the same b.dividing it by 2 d. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. none of the above ANS: D 24. the characteristic impedance b. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. the impedance infinite c. none of the above ANS: C 25. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. voltage SWR c.would be less c. dividing it by Z0  t ANS: D 23. by using a "balun" b.find the position of a defect in a cable . you "normalize" the impedance by: a. transmission line losses ANS: A 20.propagation velocity d.variable SWR c. optimum length of a transmission line b.ANS: D 17. 50 ohms ANS: C zero d. none of the above ANS: C 18. multiplying it by 2 b.would be more d.the current d.vacuum SWR d. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: d.measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b.the voltage c. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a.directly c.

lines since both wires are symmetrical with .c. Parallel lines are usually operated as respect to ground. it is necessary to use lumped ones. ANS: low 5.replace a slotted-line d. ANS: magnetic 8. parameters instead of impedance. as the frequency increases. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ANS: skin 7. ANS: surge . A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ANS: unbalanced 2. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the the wire. Dielectrics become more ANS: lossy 9. field inside effect. ANS: balanced 3.all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively frequencies. Normally. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called impedance. To analyze a transmission line. ANS: distributed 6. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ANS: length 10. .

-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. can be used as capacitors or inductors. 15. . Besides heat from I2R. voltage of end of a cable.11. chart. Short transmission-line sections called ANS: stubs 18. A ANS: 3 20. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ANS: matched line. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart. the power a cable can carry is limited by the its dielectric. Any cable that radiates energy can also ANS: absorb 19. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ANS: Smith 17. SWR stands for ANS: standing -wave ratio. The ideal value for SWR is . you divide it by ANS: Z 0 . ANS: breakdown 22. 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the polarity. energy. ANS: opposite 13. ANS: standing 14. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a wave. It is often best to measure SWR at the ANS: load 21. ANS: one 16.

approximately.23. The diameter of the wire is . its characteristic impedance.8. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Calculate.6 . A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ANS: frequency domain. The of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. A cable has a VSWR of 10. what is the velocity factor for the cable? E r ANS: 0. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart.8. A wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0. ANS: one-quarter 25. Calculate its characteristic impedance. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0. what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts . ANS: center 24.62 4. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant = 2. how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12. A transmission line has 2. what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts. ANS: 386 ohms 3.5 ms 5.04 inch.6 meters 6. SHORT ANSWER 1.

7. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0.5. If a cable has an SWR of 1. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 .2 9. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line.5 8.

Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a.Armstrong c. Maxwell b.Hertz d. Marconi ANS: C 2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a.Armstrong c. Maxwell b.Hertz d. Marconi ANS: B 3. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a.the microprocessor chip c. high-power microwave transmitters b.the miniature cell-site d. all of the above ANS: A 4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a.high power levels c. reuse of frequencies b.high antennas d. all of the above ANS: C 5. Which of the following are electromagnetic: waves c. gamma waves b.light d. all of the above ANS: D 6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a.perpendicular to each other c. both a and b b.perpendicular to the direction of travel d. none of the above ANS: C 7. TEM stands for: a.Transverse Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic b.Transmitted Electromagnetic d. none of the above ANS: A 8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of: a.3 10 6 meters per second c. 3 10 6 miles per second 6 b.300 10 meters per second d. 300 106 miles per second
x x x x


9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a.vertical c. circular b.horizontal d. all of the above ANS: D 10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a.vertical c. circular b.horizontal d. all of the above ANS: D 11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a.1 c. 3 b.2 d. many ANS: B 12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: isotropic radiator c. a ground-wave antenna b.a vertically polarized radiator d. none of the above ANS: A 13. EIRP stands for: a.the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b.the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c.the Effective Internal Reflected Power d.the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a.losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b.losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c.the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d.the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. Ground waves are most effective: a.below about 2 MHz c. at microwave frequencies b.above about 20 MHz d. when using horizontally polarized waves ANS: A 16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a.a flat insulating surface of the right size c. a flat metallic surface of the right size b.a flat dielectric surface of the right size d. a flat body of water ANS: C 17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:

25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased

a. reflection

c. refraction

the radio horizon b. diffusion ANS: D d.reflected off the ionosphere c. cancellation due to reflection ANS: C 23."bounce" off the ionosphere c.same as sky waves d. in the "skip" zone .extend the range of a radio communications system d.high power c. Sky waves: a.diffraction d. diffraction 18. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. Space waves are: a.are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. spatial diversity ANS: A 22.close to the transmitter b.are line-of-sight b. Cellular phone systems rely on: a.far from the transmitter ANS: D 21.fading c.repeaters d.cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. frequency diversity b.send a message multiple times over a channel b.fading c. A "repeater" is used to: a. multipath distortion b.send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. the reuse of frequencies ANS: D waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. in the "silent" zone d.diffraction d.are same as space waves d.b.line-of-sight b. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a.

radio waves do not need a to travel through. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ANS: photons 6. not possible .middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. 5.a "funnel" receiver c.a "rake" receiver d. both cells will handle the call b. the power levels are increased b. multiple receivers b.used for radio telephony b. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere c. Radio waves are ANS: transverse 4.a "sectoring" process occurs d. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ANS: 300 10 6 × c. . .highest layer of the atmosphere b. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. the number of channels is reduced 26. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ANS: Hertz 3.25. m/sec. electromagnetic waves. also called "ducting" d. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. ANS: Maxwell 2. The troposphere is the: a. the cell area is increased c.a "handoff" process occurs c.used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Unlike sound or water waves. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by . none of the above ANS: B 28. To receive several data streams at once. the cell area is split ANS: B d.

The electric field of a radio wave is ANS: perpendicular 13. The watts per square meter of a radio wave space. ANS: perpendicular to its magnetic field. With polarization. At a far distance from the source. An antenna is said to have in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. 10. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ANS: 3 10 6 × volts per meter. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space.ANS: medium 7. ANS: decrease 17. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ANS: electric 12. as the wave-front moves through . field. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ANS: specular reflection. 8. to its propagation 14. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ANS: sphere . ANS: isotropic 9. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ANS: plane 11. ANS: gain 16. Waves from an source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: circular 15. -wave. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are direction.

ANS: Sky 23. The use of chips makes cell phones a practical technology. is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. The of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. ANS: reuse 28. ANS: diffraction 20. ANS: Space 21. ANS: skip 24. Cell phones typically operate at a ANS: low 27. ANS: Ground 22. waves interfering distortion. is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. power level. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by with direct waves. waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ANS: multipath 25.18. ANS: Sectoring 29. to reduce interference. ANS: Refraction 19. ANS: reflected 26. each covering a third of the cell area. The zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. ANS: microprocessor . The process of makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".

what is the power density 10. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour.3 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt.SHORT ANSWER 1. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. What. approximately. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? × ANS: 45 ohms 2.9 km 5. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 W/m2? µ ANS: 113 watts 4. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec .

slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. 10 dB b.standing wave pattern around the antenna c.3 dB d. between half-power points b. a Yagi antenna b. infinite ANS: A 8. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: wavelength c. radiation resistance of the antenna b. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. resonance ANS: A 7.the radiated signal c. Measured on the ground.directivity c. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.the reflected signal d. active antenna b.SWR along the feed cable d. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a.a Hertz antenna d. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a.from +90 to –90 c. the SWR b. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a.from front to back d. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a.0 dB two directions half-wavelength d. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. between the minor side-lobes ° ° .in one direction c. in all directions b. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. all of the above ANS: A 2. none of the above ANS: B 3.selectivity d.a Marconi antenna c.

mounted vertically c. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. At resonance.ANS: C 9.a shorted stub c.Faraday Rotation d. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. all of the above ANS: D c. at least one half-wavelength long b.gamma rays c. Equivalent Radiated Power d.resistive c. infinite ANS: A 16.fading d. ERP stands for: a.Equivalent Radiation Pattern b.faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A nonresonant antenna: a. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a.will not receive ANS: C 15. Effective Radiated Power .will not transmit b. at least one wavelength long ANS: A 12.dipole c. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. none of the above ANS: C 13.inductive d.mounted horizontally d. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a.folded dipole d. helical rotation b.Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. capacitive b.buildings and other structures on the ground c. all of the above c.a loading coil d. an LC network signals reflecting off the ground b. the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. ferrite "loop-stick" b.

As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. efficiency decreases . the number of lobes increases c.17.

edges d.collimated c.An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ANS: space. none of the above . Antennas are often tested in: a. LPDA stands for: a. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a reflector.Low-Power Directed Array d. parasitic b. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. Log-Periodic Dipole Array b. focus b.phased d. an EIRP meter b.Low-Power Dipole Array c. An array with one driven element. horn ANS: C 23.Marconi c.Yagi d.driven d. dispersed b. and one or more directors is called a: a. Arrays can be: a. . a vacuum chamber anechoic chamber d. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: c. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION d. Log-Periodic Dipole b. stacked array ANS: B 20. Log Power Dipole Array ANS: C echo chamber c. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave b. an RF reflective chamber ANS: B 24. all of the above ANS: D 19. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18.phased c.a slotted line c. none of the above ANS: A 22.a dipole d.

Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ANS: polar 9. ANS: 70 6. ANS: beamwidth . The resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. ANS: Directivity 12. . Antenna gain measured in ANS: dBd 11. ANS: 95 4. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ANS: elevation 8. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about  . coordinates. is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is dB. The length of a half-wave dipole is about % of a half-wave in free space. The of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. As compared to a ANS: point isotropic 10. is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: 0 13.ANS: dipole 3. source. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ANS: 280 – 300 7. a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi.  .

The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ANS: parasitic 25. 15. element. wavelength. is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. A vertical antenna has an ANS: omnidirectional 23. An LPDA is a dipole array. . A folded dipole has bandwidth than a standard dipole. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a plane. radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with polarization. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically . ANS: wider greater more 19. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. ANS: balun 17. ANS: one 24. A .14. ANS: ground 22. ERP stands for ANS: effective radiated power. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ANS: gain 16. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ANS: vertical 20. direction. ANS: horizontal 18.

ANS: log-periodic 26. ANS: five 27. A microwave ANS: horn 30. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ANS: focus 28. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. A beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.An chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. If an LPDA had five elements. ANS: collimated 29. the number of driven elements it had would be . If an antenna has 10. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. .

A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.6. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .

same as the microwave range .the shape of the waveguide c.TM 0 1 d. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. 100 GHz ANS: B is dominant c.depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: a . all of the above fixed b.both b and c ANS: D 8. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. T E 0 1 c.TM 0 1 d.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 10 GHz b. above the microwave range d. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a.of its circular symmetry d.with a magnetic field probe c. TM11 ANS: C 6.below the microwave range b.1 GHz d.inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a .the power level of the signal d. the point of signal injection b. it is the only mode possible b. TM 1 0 ANS: C 5. The UHF range is: a. TE 1 0 b. none of the above ANS: A 4. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. T E 0 1 c.depends on the frequency it carries c.with an electric field probe d. through a hole in the waveguide b. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a.100 MHz c. TE 1 1 b.

tuned circuit c. Traveling-Wave Transmission ANS: C 14.couple sections of waveguide c.their insertion loss c. a "magic" TEE H-plane TEE c. Traveling-Wave Tube b. none of the above ANS: A 12.separates signals among various ports d. A "circulator" is a device that: a.gallium arsenide b.their coupling specification d.couple waveguides to antennas d. An "isolator" is a device that: E-plane TEE d.separates signals among various ports d.ANS: D 9. TWT stands for: a. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. antenna b. none of the above ANS: C 11. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a.allows a signal to pass in one direction only c.Transverse Wave Transmissionc. gallium astenite d.prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16.Transverse-Wave Tube d.rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. all of the above ANS: D 10. couple components on a circuit board b. their directivity b.gallium assembly ANS: D c.prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. none of the above . GaAs stands for: a.defect in a waveguide d.isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. all of the above ANS: D 13. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. A resonant cavity is a type of: a.allows a signal to pass in one direction only c.

continuous transmission electric field c. magnetron b.induced mobility at transmission time d.a magnetic field d. mechanical pressure b. magnetron b. remote detection and ranging ANS: C 25.slots c.pulsed transmission c. all of the above ANS: D . YIG ANS: A 22. Fresnel lenses ranging depth and ranging d. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet b. IMPATT stands for: a.Yttrium-Iron-Germanium d. magnetron b.Yttrium-Iron-Gallium c. RADAR stands for: a. YIG stands for: a. YIG ANS: C 21.impact avalanche and transit time c. implied power at transmission terminal b. all of the above ANS: A 24.klystron d. none of the above ANS: A 18. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. radio detection and ranging b. YIG ANS: B 23.TWT c. the Doppler effect b. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. an "exciter" signal ANS: B 20.Yagis d. RADAR uses: a. none of the above ANS: C 19. A microwave phased array is often made using: a.17.TWT c.klystron d.TWT c.klystron d.

increases with increasing pulse duration c. In a waveguide. group velocity is always ANS: slower 9. none of the above ANS: B 27. impedance as frequency increases. mode is used because of its circular symmetry. than the speed of light. . A waveguide acts as a -pass filter. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. the field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. phase velocity is always ANS: faster 10. than the speed of light. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. In a waveguide. peaks in the waveguide cross section. mode.decreases with increasing repetition rate d. In a circular waveguide. In a waveguide. ANS: Dispersion 2. ANS: high 8. mode. In TE10 along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a.26. the electric field has ANS: two 6.increases with increasing repetition rate c. ANS: TM01 7. decreases with increasing pulse period b.decreases with increasing pulse duration d. The electric field is ANS: zero 3. In TE20 mode. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ANS: electric 5. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ANS: dominant 4. is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide.

A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ANS: resistance 15. A TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. ANS: slot 18. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ANS: high 13. The radar cross section of a target is typically than its actual size. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. than the transmitted signal if the . ANS: patch 19. compared to lumped LC circuits. with an adjustable plunger. ANS: hybrid 12. ANS: smaller 20. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow tubes. A wavemeter is a resonant ANS: cavity 14. . The frequency of the returned signal will be target is moving toward the radar antenna. ANS: wave 16. A antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm.ANS: decreases 11. A antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. Both klystrons and TWTs are -beam tubes. ANS: linear 17.

Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2.8 6. ANS: 14. ANS: 346 106 meters per second × 4.Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.ANS: 3 GHz 2. µ ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 173 millimeters 5.Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.sec duration pulses. ANS: 260 106 meters per second × 3.Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. ANS: 15 km 7.

a very wide microwave beam d. jump ANS: B 2.20 watts d. skip b. additional repeaters increase the: a. all of the above ANS: C 7. In digital microwave systems. jitter b.FM c. 200 watts b.reliability c. jitter ANS: A . LOS stands for: a. all of the above ANS: B 6. Too much antenna gain causes: a.9% b. 99. additional repeaters increase the: a. excessive noise b. Microwave systems use: a. jitter b.2 watts c. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. Line-Of-Signal ANS: C 8.noise level d.99% d. QAM b. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a.Loss Of Skip c.reliability c.section c.SSB d. In analog microwave systems. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. all of the above ANS: D 3.99% ANS: D 4.noise level d.hop d.Loss Of Signal d. none of the above ANS: A 5.a very narrow microwave beam c.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 99.90% c. Line-Of-Sight b.

none of the above ANS: A 11.baseband type d.diversity c.60% of the Fresnel zone d. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System .good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12.low level of transmitted power b.60% of the Faraday zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b.attenuation due to weather ERP level that exceeds a given value c.less bandwidth is required c.power d.accumulation of noise is reduced d. above 10 GHz b. all of the above ANS: D 13. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a.when distance exceeds line-of-sight d.high level of ERP c. Fading is caused by: a.9. ducting b.multipath reception c. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. all of the above ANS: D 16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. all of the above ANS: B 17. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a.a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. MMDS stands for: a.IF type c. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. below 10 GHz ANS: B energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. regenerative type b.good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. Microwave repeaters can be: a. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a.always c. it requires less power b. high-gain antennas b.

the energy per bit per ANS: noise density 7. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ANS: year 4. Adding more links causes ANS: jitter 5. In microwave systems. LMDS stands for: a.Local Microwave Distribution System b. ANS: temperature 6. ANS: studio 3. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of . In digital microwave systems.unidirectional d.bidirectional c.Local Multipoint Distribution System c. or less of downtime.Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. STL stands for -to-transmitter links.Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c.Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. LMDS is: a. it is more convenient to use noisethan noise figure in calculations.Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. ANS: fading is a key parameter. in a digital microwave system.Local Multichannel Distribution System d.b. ANS: hop 2. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. One microwave link is called a . . multidirectional b.

How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. watts of power. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of as a signal goes from link to link. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ANS: diversity . Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of in a microwave system. ANS: Repeaters 12. what would it be. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. MMDS is unidirectional. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ANS: baseband repeaters. approximately. 13. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. ANS: space diversity 9. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. 10. but ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. Microwave systems generally use less than ANS: ten 11. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? is bidirectional. ANS: noise 14. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance.4 meters 3.8. . If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km.

ANS: 201 K 5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. The noise power is –100 dBm. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB .4 dBm 4. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K.ANS: – 42.

NTSC stands for: a.525 c. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 625 : 525 ANS: B 8.National Television Systems Commission b.4 : 3 d. chroma b.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.25 c. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. RGB stands for: a. Red-Green Bandwidth b. Red-Green-Blue ANS: D 4. 3 : 4 c.FCC c.brightness c.Red-Green Burst c. Luminance refers to: a. EIA b. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 525 : 625 b. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a.National Television Systems Council d. 60 ANS: D 7. 1250 ANS: A 5.30 d.National Television Systems Committee c. raster . 60 ANS: B 6.Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a.contrast d. 1024 b.Red-Green Brightness d.625 d. 50 b.30 d.IRE d.25 c. IEEE ANS: C 3. 50 b.

The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a.white c.composite color signal. blacker than black ANS: B 12.maintain horizontal sync c.pic d. whiter than white ANS: B less than vertical resolution d. quadrature video color component d.horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. In a color TV receiver.composite video signal. blacker than black ANS: D 13. in-phase color component. horizontal resolution: a. IRE units b.foot-candles c. in-phase color component. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a.luminance signal. all of the above ANS: A 14. quadrature phase color component b. The smallest picture element is called a: a.maintain vertical sync d. none of the above ANS: C 16.ANS: A 9. pixel b. NTSC units ANS: C 10.max white c.a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A . in-phase video component.peak white d. whiter than white about the same as vertical resolution greater than vertical resolution b. quadrature phase color component c. equalize the DC level b. Y I Q refers to: a.lumins d. When measured in lines. Luminance is measured in: a.white c. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. all white d. whiter than white b. The maximum luminance level is called: a.

the flyback transformer b. sync audio pulse ANS: A 23. Compared to the luminance signal.the isolation transformer c. sync amplitude pulse b. SAP stands for: a. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a.electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c.vestigial sideband AM d.vestigial sideband AM d. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a.regenerate the color sub-carrier c. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25.SSB c. Compared to a monochrome CRT.all of the above ANS: D 22. much less b.electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal .magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b.17.separate audio program c.separate audio pulse d.vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: D 20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a.the video transformer d. much lower b. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. FM ANS: C 21. the yoke ANS: C 24.much greater c. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. suppressed-carrier AM b. FM ANS: B 19.about the same c.much higher d.about the same d.detect the presence of a color video signal b. The function of the "color burst" is to: a.SSB c.SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b.

AFPC stands for: a. . ANS: NTSC 3. Color information is called ANS: chroma chrominance 9. Brightness information is called . ANS: luma luminance 8. video signal. The ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. ANS: aspect 7. The NTSC specifies a ANS: composite 6. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1.automatic frequency and phase control d. Video systems form pictures by a ANS: scanning 4. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26.allowed full picture chroma c. is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. . automatic frequency and picture control b. process.d. During the horizontal blanking interval. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ANS: porch . ANS: Aquadag 2. from right to left. the electron beam ANS: retraces 5. The standard for TV has been in use since 1953.

ANS: phosphor 22. Vertical blanking lasts about ANS: 1. not including blanking. . Horizontal blanking lasts ANS: 10 13. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ANS: 525 16. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ANS: 3.58 18. The second anode of a CRT is often called the .5 12. MHz. .10. milliseconds. Odd and even fields are identified by the ANS: position of the vertical sync pulse.3 14. Each horizontal scan line takes microseconds. ANS: ultor 20. ANS: 62. The horizontal output transformer is called the transformer. SAP stands for audio program. 11. microseconds. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with to generate the picture. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ANS: green 17. ANS: separate 19. Picture elements are called ANS: pixels 15. kV. . The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ANS: 20 to 30 21. .

ANS: killer 25. The of the chroma signal represents the color hue.ANS: flyback 23. filter. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ANS: comb 24. The controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ANS: dBmV 26. The controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. ANS: convergence . The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ANS: head 27. The color turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. end. . ANS: vectorscope 28. A shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: purity 31. ANS: phase 30. Color intensity is called ANS: saturation 29. .

perigee and apogee constant b.780 km station c. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a.azimuth and declination d. solar cells b. 104 watts ANS: C 8. 500 to 2500 watts b.50 to 250 watts lower close to the earth than far from the earth d.800 km b.azimuth and elevationc.: a.apogee and perigee c.578 km c. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. uplink and downlink b. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a.35. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3.10 watts d.downlink d. respectively. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. declination and elevation b. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. 357. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a.transponders c.3.batteries higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: zero (freefall) c.10 1 watts c.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.5 to 25 watts c. 10 3 watts 2 b. footprint b. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. all of the above . plate ANS: C 4. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a.

TDMA stands for: a.power-level adjustments d. none of the above ANS: A 14. very small aperture terminal ANS: D 16.television receive only c.down-beam signal ANS: D 11.transponder-directed multiple antennas b.backdown c. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a.ANS: A 9. none of the above ANS: C 10. low power to a large antenna b. low-noise amplitude d. power-down satellite c.low-noise amplifier b.television repeater only d. VSAT stands for: a.low north angle ANS: A 12. On the uplink from a terminal.decibels of signal b. EIRP drop ANS: B 13.antenna maintenance signal antenna terminal d. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. very small antenna terminal b. direct-broadcast satellite .backoff d. direct-broadcast system d. ring b.television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15.mesh d. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. time-division multiple access d.high power to a small antenna c. transmit delay minimum aperture c. a VSAT system uses: a. DBS stands for: a. low-noise array c. orbital adjustments b. LNA stands for: a. television remote origin b.low power to a small antenna d. repeater c. TVRO stands for: a.

The is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. A satellite in a orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. For real-time communication.ANS: A 18. LEO systems require: a. LEO stands for: a.12 GHz and 14 GHz d. ANS: footprint 8. ANS: uplink 3.tracking dish antennasd. ANS: 35. .780 7. ANS: downlink 4.long elliptic orbit b. The is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ANS: orbital 6.4 GHz and 6 GHz c.low-earth orbit ANS: B c. ANS: 24 2. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. All satellite orbits are in shape. A geosynchronous orbit is about km above the earth. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. very high power b. satellites. ANS: geostationary 5. lateral earth orbit d. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes hours to complete one orbit. all of the above ANS: A 20.a constellation of satellites c. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. longitudinal earth orbit 19. A is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to.

VSAT systems commonly use a ANS: star 19. band operate on 12 GHz. A is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. The is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. . is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. . milliseconds. is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: larger . C-band antennas are than Ku-band antennas. network configuration. The is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. To date. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ANS: 500 16. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ANS: declination 14. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ANS: diameter 18. ANS: transponder 17. LEO satellite systems have been a financial ANS: failure 20.ANS: elliptical 9. An antenna's ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ANS: elevation 13. Satellites using the ANS: Ku 15. is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: perigee 10.

Calculate the G/T. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0. ANS: 25 dB 2. 3. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38.4 dB.000 km away.SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: 38 dB . Find its equivalent noise temperature.7 dB. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. ANS: 139 K. A receiver has a noise figure of 1. and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K.

Personal Communications Service b. Number Assignment Module ANS: D 8. Advanced Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Emission Strength Number d.Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.Electronic Serial Number b.Radio Cellular Carrierd. MIN stands for: a. MSC stands for: a. Number Access Module b.Radio Common Carrier c. ESN stands for: a.Mobile Switching Center b.Numerical Assignment Mode d. RCC stands for: a. PCS stands for: a.Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Personal Cell phone Service d.Numerical Access Mode c.Mobile Identification Number d.Minimum Transmitted Signal Output c.Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. Regional Cellular Carrier b. MTSO stands for: a. Mobile Transmission Time-Out ANS: C 6. Portable Communications Systems .Maximum Transmitted Signal Output d. none of the above c.American Mobile Phone System c.Manual Identification Number c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office b. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Minimum In-band Noise ANS: B 7. NAM stands for: a. AMPS stand for: a. Minimum Signal Carrier c.Analog Mobile Phone Service d. none of the above ANS: A 4. Maximum In-band Noise b. Advanced Mobile Phone System b.

Carrier Mode Attenuation Control ANS: A 16. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. System Identification Number b.Control Mobile Attenuation Code c.Station Antenna Tower b. DCC stands for: a. none of the above .Standard Identification Number d.base-station class d.Digital Color Code c.recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. Signal Class Mark d.Control Mobile Access Code d.recognize an AMPS system c.set its transmitted power level d. The CMAC is used to: a. SCM identifies the: a. Digital Communications Carrier b.set the transmit power of the cell phone the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C c. Central Mobile Access Control b. Direct Channel Code ANS: A 14.control access to the cell site b.Sequential Interrupt Demand c.Station Class Mark ANS: B c. SCM stands for: a. CMAC stands for: a.set the access code of the cell phone c. SAT stands for: a.9.identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. Serial-Code Mode 10. Signal Intensity Descriptor ANS: C 12.Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15.code number of a cell phone c.Digital Communications Code d.Service Class Mark b. Supervisory Access Tone d. maximum power level of a cell phone ANS: D 11. signal classification (analog or digital) b. SID stands for: a.

COMPLETION 17. In an AMPS system. FSK . voice is sent using: a. AM c.

number of users b. BSC stands for: a. none of the above ANS: D 23.2 km c.Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21.calls c.Code-Division Packet Data c. d. as small as possible b. 4 watts µ ANS: B 20. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a.increase the number of cells c. air interface ANS: D 22. CDPD stands for: a.b.erlangs d. Coded Digital Packet Data b. Basic Service Code . In an AMPS system. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. CDMA ANS: C 19. Cellular Digital Pulse Data ANS: B c. FSK b.MTSO d. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. control-channel signals are sent using: a.AM c. increase the ERP b. RF interface b. FM ANS: B d.less than 600 mW.BSC c.0.decrease the number of cells d. number of blocked calls ANS: B 24.Cellular Digital Packet Data d. between 1 and 2 watts b. Phone traffic is measured in: a.5 km d.Base Station Controller b. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. Basic Service Contract d.FM d.less than 600 W. c. CDMA 18. The optimum cell-site radius is: a.

. Frequency ANS: reuse 4. ANS: AMPS 3. AMPS uses the -MHz band. If a cell-site radius drops below km. . A MAC is a mobile ANS: attenuation code. ANS: land station 11. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class . The number of ERP classes in AMPS is . is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. ANS: 0. A occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. is what makes cellular phone systems complex. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the . A portable.5 6. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ANS: III three 10. handoffs will occur too frequently.COMPLETION 1. ANS: three 7. ANS: I one 8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ANS: 600 mW 9. ANS: handoff 5. . ANS: 800 2.

12. For security. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are . .

ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. A site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.6 . . ANS: 1. ANS: microcell 19.Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. Compared with AMPS. 2. . call. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. . digital cellular phones require bandwidth. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ANS: splitting 18. A mobile switching center is also called an ANS: MTSO 14.ANS: public 13. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ANS: traffic 15. 2. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ANS: dropped 17. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. . Very small cells called are used for reliable indoor reception. If a 28. Telephone call traffic is measured in ANS: erlangs 16.Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. ANS: picocells 20.

ANS: 30 4. . the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.

bigger c.800 MHz c. North America b.from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. from mobile to mobile d.3 d. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a.900 MHz d. AMPS was designed for: a. GSM is used in: a. third-generation b.2 c. all of the above ANS: D c.AT&T c. distributed b.first-generation c. PCS cell sites are: a. same as the uplink . higher-power ANS: B 5. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a.from the base to the mobile b. many ANS: B 7. use built into an automobile b.Europe d.smaller d.voice d.9 GHz b. all of the above ANS: D 6. Bell Labs b. 4 b. 1.Asia c. CDMA technology was invented by: a. Qualcomm ANS: D 8.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.Lucent d.second-generation d.POTS c. digital-generation ANS: B 2. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. Compared to AMPS.

GSM uses: a.TDMA d. all of the above ANS: C 17.TDMA d.less than in a TDMA phone c.Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. IS-95 uses: a. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a.traffic channels c.9. IMSI stands for: a. In GSM.TDMA d. Other things being equal. Subscriber ID Module b. CDMA b. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13.frequency hopping c. bearer channels b. CDMA b. AMPS uses: a.frequency hopping PCS system c. SIM stands for: a.CDMA modulation d.Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d.Subscriber-Initiated Message d. spread-spectrum b. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C better than in an AMPS phone d. Subscriber ID Method ANS: C 15. TDMA only b.GSM only d. CDMA b. voice channels are called: a. talking channels ANS: A 10.voice channels d.frequency hopping c. IS-136 uses: a. greater than in a TDMA phone b.Short Inbound Message c.Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. none of the above ANS: D 11. In GSM. all of the above .International Mobile Subscriber Identification c.

Compared to AMPS.each cell uses half the available frequencies c. Besides TDMA and CDMA.the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19.each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. in size. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. ANS: GSM 6. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1.faster data rates c. PCS stands for Communications System. ANS: second 3.all frequencies are used in all cells b.common c. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ANS: CDMA direct sequence . PCS cells are ANS: smaller 5.Internet access d.unique d. Current PCS systems are called -generation systems. PCS is assigned the -MHz band. orthogonal ANS: D 20. wider roaming area b. In CDMA: a. ANS: 1900 4. is also used in North America for PCS. rotating b. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a.ANS: B 18. In North America. ANS: Personal 2. .

RF channel S/N ratios than zero are typical in CDMA systems. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ANS: Walsh code. ANS: closed 17. CDMA uses a -rate vocoder. 10. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is . IMT stands for International ANS: Mobile 19. 9. A phone user typically talks less than ANS: 50 16. frequencies are used in all cells. ANS: variable 15. ANS: Universal Telecommunications. ANS: frequency hopping 8. . ANS: less 14. in CDMA ANS: all 11. Radio Service. Unlike other systems. GPRS stands for General ANS: Packet 18. UPT stands for Personal Telecommunications.7. ANS: Frequency 13. Unlike AMPS. CDMA allows for a ANS: soft handoff. ANS: random 12. diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. PN stands for Pseudo. % of the time during a conversation. CDMA requires -loop power control to work properly.Noise.

Why was PCS assigned to 1.What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. 5.What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.20. 2. To demodulate. UWT stands for Universal ANS: Wireless 21. 6. 8.If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. it never goes to zero.How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. 7.Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots.What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. 1. With offset QPSK. W-CDMA stands for CDMA. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER Telecommunications. and what causes it? . the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. 4. 3.What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA.

This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base. .ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near.

an encryption scheme used for pagers b.the VHF band only b. all of the above ANS: A 7.10 c. Industrial.Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. and Messaging b. require error detection b. Scientific. and Medical ANS: D addressing scheme used for pagers c. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. Industrial.Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d.all of the above ANS: D 5.IEEE Secure Messaged.both the VHF and UHF bands d.the UHF band only c.a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4.IEEE Standard Message c.all pages are sent from all transmitters b. POCSAG stands for: a. 802.the VHF band.transmitters use relatively high power d.require "handoffs" c. Pagers use: a.12 . ISM stands for: a.Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C error-detection scheme used for pagers d. 802. the UHF band.Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. In a one-way pager system: a.allow "roaming" d. Scientific.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A typical pager system does not: a.each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. CAPCODE is: a.

CSMA/CD d.11 ANS: B 8.Basic Service System d. QPSK b.2 to 4 nodes d. Bluetooth uses: a. infrared band ANS: C d.multinet d. 10 cm to 1 meter c.VHF band c. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a.CSMA/CA c. ISM band b. all of the above .VHF band c.CDMA c. infrared band ANS: C 13. 2 to 8 nodes b. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a.UHF band d. scatternet ANS: D 16. BSS stands for: a. TDD stands for: a.frequency hopping ANS: B 12. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. Bluetooth Service System b.13 9. Bluetooth uses the: a.Basic Service Set c. 10 cm to 100 meters d. CDMA b. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a.2 nodes c.b. Time Delay Difference b. TDD net b. none of the above ANS: A 11. 802. all of the above ANS: A 10.Time-Delayed Duplex d.Time-Division Duplex c.micronet c. 2 to 16 nodes ANS: C 15. Total Distance Delay ANS: A 14. 802. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. ISM band b.UHF band d.

1 meter c. The range of an IRDA system is: a.1 meter c.A POCSAG message uses a ANS: 10 5.Infrared Data Association b. -bit error correction code.can use diffused infrared beams d.The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of for wireless LANs. ANS: 802.10 meters d.b.Many pagers can share a frequency using . within 10 feet c. ANS: Post 4. . 1 foot b. can use reflected infrared beams b. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. all of the above ANS: D 20. 10 feet ANS: A d.Each pager has a unique address called a . ANS: capcode 2.The POCSAG was devised by the British Office. ANS: TDMA 3.cannot penetrate walls c. several thousand meters.IEEE covers wireless LANs. IRDA stands for: a. Infrared networks: a. ANS: D COMPLETION 1.11 6.several meters d. Infrared Roaming Data Area 19. several hundred meters b. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a.Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18.

. . band.ANS: 1 watt 7. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ANS: piconets 10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of . ANS: 1 meter . A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ANS: piconet 9. Bluetooth uses the ANS: ISM 8.

both a and b b.chromatic dispersion d.loss c.modal dispersion connect a transmitter to an antenna c.4 dB per km b.4 db per km c. zero loss ANS: C 8. waveguide dispersion b. generate EMI b.the same c. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. none of the above ANS: A 4.02 dB c.dispersion d. all of the above ANS: A 6.none of the above ANS: B 5. 0. Compared to the core.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. all of the above ANS: A 7.carry current c.greater an explosive environment b. 0. Scattering causes: a. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a.plastic d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a.cause crosstalk d. 1 dB . A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a.40 dB per km c. less b. all of the above ANS: D isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. intersymbol interference b.

zero-point current d. all of the above ANS: D 11. APD stands for: a.Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c.baseline current c. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. Advanced Photo Detector ANS: A COMPLETION 1.0.ST c.Avalanche Photodiode b. ANS: reflection . 3 dB 9. responsivity is measured in: amps per watt c.2 db d. dark current b. a phonon ANS: C 12. mA per joule W per amp d.b. LASER stands for: a. Avalanche Photo Detector d. E-H current ANS: C 15.02 dB c. For a light detector. 0. In a PIN diode. The quantum of light is called: a.Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14.0.Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays erg c. SMA b. 0. sec per W a. In the core. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a.Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. leakage current in the absence of light is called: e-v d.2 db ANS: A d. the angle of incidence equals the angle of______________________. a photon b. 3 dB ANS: B 10.µ µ µ c.Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b.SC d. 1 dB b.

The numerical aperture is the ANS: sine 6. For laser diodes. An electron-volt is a measure of. ANS: Intersymbol 13. ANS: critical 4. the term ANS: linewidth 11. is used instead of bandwidth. index has less dispersion than step index. reflection. With optical fiber. ANS: infrared 9. .2. Optical fiber relies on total ANS: internal 7. light is more common than visible light. The core is surrounded by the . Chromatic dispersion is also called ANS: intramodal 8. In multimode fiber. ANS: time 12. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ANS: loose-tube 14. dispersion. ANS: energy 5. of the angle of acceptance. Dispersion can be expressed in units ofrather than bandwidth. interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: graded 10. The angle is where refraction changes to reflection. cable. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a cable. ANS: cladding 3.

-mode fiber. A diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. A diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. . The quantum of light is called the ANS: photon 19. ANS: PIN 20. Good connections are more critical with ANS: single 17. ANS: pigtail 16.ANS: tight-buffer 15. For safety. ANS: laser 18. ANS: look at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is . A is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. you should never not connected to a light source.

SONET stands for: a.Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. FTTC stands for: a. FITL stands for: a.Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6.Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Frequency-Division Data Interface ANS: B 2.Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Frequency Input to The Loop b.Fiber In The Loop c. WDM ANS: A 8.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. FDDI stands for: a. type of optical network c. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a.Simple Optical Network b. DWDM stands for: a. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface b.type of particle ANS: C 7.Fiber Input Timing Loss d. type of pulse d.Fiber Digital Data Interface c.Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c.Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5.Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Synchronous Optical Network d. Fiber Input Timing Loop ANS: A 3.defect in the glass b.Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b.bit stuffing c. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: c.Fiber Distributed Data Interface d. none of the above .Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. A Soliton is a: a.bit-synch d. SDH b.

gain margin c. FITL stands for Fiber In The . excess gain .2. a.

Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. Synchronous Transmission System ANS: A 12.high-speed Ethernet d.b. Typically. not possible ANS: B 14. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a.1000 miles c. In SONET. STS stands for: a.FDDI c. 10 km ANS: C 10. system margin ANS: B d. FITL b. OTDR stands for: a.common c. OC-1 stands for: a. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. gigabit Ethernet b.Optical Coupler unidirectional d. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ANS: Curb . all of the above ANS: D 13. obsolete b. 100 km b.Synchronous Transport Signal c.FDDI c. Optical Time-Division Relay . Optical Channel one b.experimental d. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a.Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Optical Cable type 1 ANS: A 11. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. In SONET. Synchronous Transmission Signal b.Synchronous Transport System d.Optical Time-Delay Response b.Optical Carrier level one c. overdrive 9. c.100 miles d.FTTC d.

. ANS: opposite to synchronize two digital signals. ANS: Loop 3. SONET does not use bit ANS: stuffing 12. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in directions. ANS: token 14. FDDI stands for Fiber ANS: Distributed 7.84 11. Optical amplifiers use -doped glass. Optical Network.2. Data Interface. ANS: pointer 13. SONET uses a to denote the starting position of an information frame. The OC-1 line rate is ANS: 51. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ANS: Hierarchy 4. Mbps. ANS: pump 9. Dense allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. WDM stands for ANS: Wavelength 5. -division multiplexing. ANS: WDM 10. FITL stands for Fiber In The . ANS: erbium 8. . Optical amplifiers use a laser. FDDI systems use two rings to carry signals. SONET stands for ANS: Synchronous 6.

. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ANS: 810 20. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ANS: transport 25. SPE stands for synchronous payload ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. .1 5 . ANS: overhead 19. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ANS: 774 21. The data rate of an FDDI system is________________________bps. E a c h in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ANS: 9 22. ANS: 100 M 18. . What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . In SONET. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ANS: 4 23. than do DS frames for information . The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ANS: 1 24. FDDI uses mode cables. ANS: multi17. SONET frames have considerably more about signal routing and setup. . ANS: node 16. overhead. .

ANS: 86. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.6 nanoseconds . receiver.1 MHz 2.

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