Set-w 1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?

(A) Punctuality and sincerity (B) Content mastery (C) Content mastery and reactive (D) Content mastery and sociable 2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with (A) The children (B) The principal (C) The teacher himself (D) The community 3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ? (A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9 (C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5 4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is (A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour (C) Fatigue (D) Worry 5. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum. (B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions. (C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education. (D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation. 6. A successful teacher is one who is (A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (B) Quite and reactive (C) Tolerant and dominating (D) Passive and active Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12. The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point.Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstractimages and models developed in the human mind.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat. Action research means_ (A) A longitudinal research . Percepts are what some people describe as reality. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept. Percept means (A) Direct observation through the senses (B) A conceived idea (C) Ends of a spectrum (D) An abstract image 13. in contrast to mental images. implying that they are not real. and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them. In the passage. 7. yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. there has been a continuing interplay between things and events.The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. Concept means (A) A mental image (B) A reality (C) An idea expressed in language form (D) All the above 10. their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classesof things. The relation of Percept to Concept is (A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Reflective (D) Absolute 11. professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable. In any one field of scholarship. The problem raised in the passage reflects on (A) thought process (B) human behaviour (C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion 8. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. which are theoretical. the earth is taken as (A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat (C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet 12.How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered. Concepts determine what the observer perceives. human beings have mostly in mind (A) Observation of things (B) Preparation of mental images (C) Expression through language (D) To gain knowledge 9. According to the passage. the mental image is described as a concept.

A common test in research demands much priority on (A) Reliability (B) Useability (C) Objectivity (D) All of the above 16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ? (A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.(B) An applied research (C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem (D) A research with socioeconomic objective 14. Post-modernism is associated with (A) newspapers (B) magazines (C) radio (D) television 21. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of (A) Basic Research (B) Action Research (C) Applied Research (D) None of the above 18. Research is (A) Searching again and again (B) Finding solution to any problem (C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem (D) None of the above 15. (B) Survey of related literature (C) Identification of problem (D) Searching for solutions to the problem 17. Normal Probability Curve should be (A) Positively skewed (B) Negatively skewed (C) Leptokurtic skewed (D) Zero skewed 19. In communication. a major barrier to reception of messages is (A) audience attitude (B) audience knowledge (C) audience education (D) audience income 20. Didactic communication is (A) intra-personal (B) inter-personal (C) organisational .

D is the son of B. message. E is married to C. message (C) Source.(D) relational 22. receiver. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 37. receiver (B) Source. The day of the week on January 12. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society. (C) (A) is true. ? (A) 63 (B) 65 (C) 67 (D) 69 . channel. how HINDRANCE will be coded ? (A) CADNIHWCE (B) HANODEINR (C) AENIRHDCN (D) ECNARDNIH 30. If water is called food. channel. earth is called world. C is the daughter of B. tree is called earth. Identify the correct sequence of the following : (A) Source. message. message. which of the following grows a fruit ? (A) Water (B) Tree (C) World (D) Earth 28. the percentage error in the area of a square will be (A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2 26. but (R) is false. 50. Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character. Find the next number in the following series : 2. (D) Both (A) and (R) are false. 5. 25. 26. food is called tree. In communication. 1980. On January 12. receiver. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square. receiver 24. channel. How is D related to E ? (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law 29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI. but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). channel (D) Source. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true. 17. it was a Saturday. 1979 was (A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday 27. E is the son of A. 10. the language is (A) the non-verbal code (B) the verbal code (C) the symbolic code (D) the iconic code 23.

Lakshmana is a morally good person because (A) he is religious (B) he is educated (C) he is rich (D) he is rational 33. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India ? (A) National Sample Surveys (B) Agricultural Statistics (C) Census (D) Vital Statistics 42. Which of the following is an example of circular argument ? (A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image. (C) Both (a) and (b) follow. In a large random data set following normal distribution. (A) Only (a) follows. (C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer ? (A) 2 . Some religious people are morally good. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). 34. Some religious people are rational. (D) Rama is great because he is Rama.31. Conclusions : (a) Rationally religious people are good morally. the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points. II. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows. (B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God. Supposing the statements are true. (b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good. (B) Only (b) follows. Certainty is (A) an objective fact (B) emotionally satisfying (C) logical (D) ontological 41. 32. which of the following conclusions can logically follow ? I. is (A) ~ 50% (B) ~ 67% (C) ~ 97% (D) ~ 47% 43.

Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23 ? (A) 01011 (B) 10111 (C) 10011 (D) None of the above 46. (C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities. Computers on an internet are identified by (A) e-mail address (B) street address (C) IP address (D) None of the above 49. Which one of the following is different from other members ? (A) Google (B) Windows (C) Linux (D) Mac 47. The Right to Information Act. Dioxins are produced from (A) Wastelands (B) Power plants (C) Sugar factories . Where does a computer add and compare its data ? (A) CPU (B) Memory (C) Hard disk (D) Floppy disk 48. State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body. 2005 makes the provision of (A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person. (D) All of the above 50. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System ? (A) Microsoft Word (B) Microsoft Excel (C) Microsoft Access (D) Microsoft Windows 45. (B) Establishment of Central. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives? (A) Hydrological (B) Hydro-meteorological (C) Geological (D) Geo-chemical 51.(B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 16 44.

but (R) is correct. (C) (A) is correct. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of (A) Disciplines covered by both being the same. (B) Education. biodiversity 4. 2. (A) (A) is correct. 3 and 4 (D) 1. which is not a progressive decision. (D) (A) is false. 2 and 3 (C) 1. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for (A) Social forestry programme (B) Clean Air programme (C) Soil conservation programme (D) Environmental protection programme 53. Hydrogen and Nitric oxide (D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide 54. 57. forest fires 3. ground water Identify the correct combination according to the code : Codes : (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1. . (C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920. the institution is free from renewal of grading. (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3 and 4 56. in general. Reason (R) : The population of the world has been growing significantly.(D) Combustion of plastics 52. 55. the environment has degraded during past several decades. The main constituents of biogas are (A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide (B) Methane and Nitric oxide (C) Methane. soil moisture 2. but (R) is false. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole. (B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach. (D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned. Climate change has implications for 1. (B) (A) is correct. is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976. (C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC. Which option is not correct ? (A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of Union list. there is duplication of efforts. (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) It is celebrated on 11 November every year. are not permitted to (A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees. (B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956. (C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education. (D) It is being celebrated since 2008. 58.(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86 Constitutional Amendment. each question carrying two (2) marks. Paper-II 2 J-5510 1. Dr. LABOUR WELFARE Paper – II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions.W. Which statement is not correct about the“National Education Day” of India ? (A) It is celebrated on 5 September every year. (C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC. Taylor management (b) Henri Fayol Behaviour (c) Elton Mayo (d) HugoMunsterberg (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (i) Application of psychology to (ii) Sociological concept of Group (iii) Time and Motion Study (iv) 14 Principles ofManagement . Match the following : th th th Management Thinkers Contributions (a) F. Abul Kalam Azad. (D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council. Attempt all the questions. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I List – II(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions) (a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals (b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India (c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level (d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 60. 59.

(B) Characteristics of the person performing the job. (c) Establishing enterprise objectives. ‘Grapevine’ is a type of (A) Written communication (B) Formal communication (C) Informal communication (D) Lateral communication 6. Which of the following provides a guideline to decision making ? (A) Strategy (B) Policy (C) Procedure (D) Programme 5. Role of staff in ‘line and staff’ organization is (A) Authoritative (B) Managerial (C) Superior (D) Advisory 7. Tests devised to assess a person’s ability to undertake a particular type of work or to learn a particular skill are called (A) Aptitude Test (B) Knowledge Test (C) Intelligence Test (D) Attitude Test 9. (b) Delegating the authority required to perform activities. (d) Identifying and classifying activities. (A) (c) (a) (d) (b) (B) (c) (d) (a) (b) (C) (d) (c) (b) (a) (D) (b) (c) (a) (d) 4. Which approach emerged from the findings of Hawthorne experiments ? (A) Systems Approach (B) Human Behaviour Approach (C) Human Relations Approach (D) Process Approach 3. (C) Characteristics of the organisation. Job description provides information about (A) Nature and characteristics of the job.(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 2. Which of the following statements is false ? . Sequence the following steps of organising process : (a) Forming supportive objectives. (D) Characteristics of the management.

Pestonjee (C) T.V. (B) Pay related decisions need not base on employer’s capacity to pay. The HRD matrix linking HRD subsystems with development dimensions has been evolved by (A) Dharani P. In which industry. Sinha (B) D. Quality circles in India were first introduced ? (A) Bharat Electronics Ltd.Mouton (C) W. 10. Which of the following is not a method of Performance Appraisal ? (A) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (B) Critical Incidence Method (C) Grading Method (D) Weighted Check List Method 12. Reddin . Who developed the ‘Managerial Grid’ Theory ? (A) Sydney and Beatrice Webbs (B) Robert Blake and Jane S. Al (b) BalanceScore Card (ii) Frederick Herzberg (c) Learningand Performance Cycle (iii) Ishikawa (d) Job Enrichment (iv) Kaplanand Norton Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 14. Match the following : (a) Fish-Bone Analysis (i) Paul Branthalet.(A) Good wage structure shall address to internal equity and external parity.J. (C) Bharat Heavy Plates and Vessels (D) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. (C) Wage survey is the method for knowing the ‘prevailing wages’. 15. What is the correct order of the following phases of training ? (i) Development Phase (ii) Design Phase (iii) Need Analysis Phase (iv) Implementation Phase (v) Evaluation Phase (A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (B) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) (D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) 13. Rao (D) Udai Pareek 11.M. (D) Low wages and high productivity is exploitation. (B) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.

1926 (B) The Factories’ Act. 2002 (C) Participation of Workers’ in Management Bill. 1948 (C) The Industrial Disputes Act. Systematic collection of data on aproblem. 1990 (D) Scheme of Employees Participation in Public Sector Undertakings (1983) 22.(D) Rensis Likert 16. 1947 . Sensitivity training evolved from thegroup dynamics concept of (A) French and Bell (B) Eric Bernie (C) Moreno (D) Kurt Lewin 18. 1969 (B) The Second National Commission on Labour. Which of the following is not a tripartite body ? (A) Indian Labour Conference (B) Standing Labour Committee (C) Wage Boards (D) Joint Management Councils 23. The Tripartite Declaration of Principles concerning MNEs and social policy enunciated by ILO was in (A) 1976 (B) 1977 (C) 1978 (D) 1979 21. A list of Unfair Labour Practices on the part of Trade Unions and Employers was inserted in (A) Trade Union Act. Which of the following is a groupphenomenon ? (A) Perception (B) Attitude (C) Morale (D) Motivation 19. analysis. The coverage of workers’ participation under a comprehensive labour relations legislation was recommended by (A) The First National Commission on Labour. Which of the following countries issaid to be the home of collective bargaining ? (A) United Kingdom (B) United States of America (C) Sweden (D) France 20. feedback andhelping organisation to take action toaddress the problem is called (A) Process Research (B) Field Research (C) Action Research (D) Business Research 17.

1976 (C) Child Labour Act. HMS and UTUC adopted the code of conduct for Trade Union Rivalry in the year (A) 1948 (B) 1958 (C) 1968 (D) 1978 25.P.(D) None of the above 24. 1986 (D) Payment of Bonus Act. Lokhande (B) B. For which of the following social security legislations.M. Who among the following was the First Trade Union Leader in India ? (A) N. Wadia (C) G. 1926 (C) Contract Labour (Abolition and Regulation) Act. 1947 (B) Trade Unions Act. 1976 28. 1936 (B) Minimum Wages Act.L.K. 1965 29. Match the following : Trade UnionFederation Year of Formation (a) AITUC (i) 1947 (b) CITU (ii) 1948 (c) INTUC (iii) 1920 (d) HMS (iv) 1970 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 27. 1965 (D) Equal Remuneration Act. there is mention of “Principal employer” and “Immediate employer” ? (A) Industrial Disputes Act. Which of the following is not regarded as a wage legislation ? (A) Payment of Wages Act. 1970 . there has been created a central enforcement machinery ? (A) Maternity Benefit Act (B) Employees’ State Insurance Act (C) Workmen’s Compensation Act (D) Payment of Gratuity Act 30. In which of the following legislations. Nanda (D) M. Gandhi 26. Which of the following legislations is not based on the provisions given under the Directive Principles of State Policy in Indian Constitution ? (A) Maternity Benefit Act. 1948 (C) Payment of Bonus Act. AITUC. INTUC. 1961 (B) Equal Remuneration Act.

Which of the following legislations was amended to incorporate a separate chapter on safety for hazardous occupations as a result of Bhopal Gas Leakage ? (A) Mines Act (B) Factories’ Act (C) Plantation Labour Act (D) Shops and Commercial Establishment Act 32. 1926 ? (A) It provides only for registration of Trade Unions. 1947 (B) Trade Unions Act. 1965 34. 1926 (C) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act. The provision of “Protected Workmen” is given under : (A) Factories’ Act. Which of the following is given to workers in the unorganised sector or sweated industries ? (A) Living Wages (B) Fair Wages (C) Statutory Minimum Wages (D) None of the above 37. 1946 31. In which of the followinglegislations there are provisions of compulsory mediation and collective bargaining ? (A) Industrial Disputes Act. 1952 (C) Industrial Disputes Act. Which of the following statements is correct for the Trade Unions Act. 1946 (D) None of the above 35. Welfare is considered as (A) Total Concept (B) Social Concept (C) Relative Concept (D) All the above .(D) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act. Equal Remuneration Act. 1976 was mainly enacted to check (A) Child Exploitation (B) Men Exploitation (C) Women Exploitation (D) All the above 36. (B) It provides only for recognitionof Trade Unions. (C) It provides both for registration and recognition of Trade Unions. (D) None of the above 33. 1947 (D) Payment of Bonus Act. 1948 (B) Mines Act.

What has been the impact of globalization in India on State Regulation of Wages ? (A) Scope of State Regulation has increased. (B) There should be no wage differential in the country.38. (B) Scope of State Regulation has decreased. Which of the following statements appear to be correct ? (A) Wage differential is desirable for the growth and development of the society. Sharma (D) M. Housing is a statutory welfare under which of the following Acts ? (A) Factories’ Act (B) Mines Act (C) Shops and Commercial Establishment Act (D) Plantation Labour Act 42. (C) There has been no impact. (C) The state through regulation of wages can eliminate wage differentials. Arrange the following according to their comparative position from lowest to the highest : (a) Statutory Minimum Wage (b) Subsistence Wage (c) Living Wage (d) Fair Wage (A) (a) (c) (b) (d) (B) (b) (d) (a) (c) (C) (b) (a) (d) (c) (D) (a) (c) (d) (b) 44.M. (D) None of the above 43. preserving and increasing the efficiency of labour” is the theme of (A) Paternalistic Theory (B) Religious Theory (C) Functional Theory (D) Placating Theory 41. Paul Choudhury (C) A. Robert Owen. the founder of‘Welfare Movement’ conducted which of the following experiments ? (A) New Lanark Experiment (B) Hawthorne Experiment (C) Experiment on Illumination (D) None of the above 40. “Welfare work is a means of securing. The success of welfare work depends on six basic principles was advocated by (A) S.D. Moorthy 39. Punekar (B) D. .V.

in demanding times. work. In organisations there will always be some people who never give their best efforts no matter how hard HR and line managers try to engage them. while some others will commit to companies because doing so satisfies a powerful and basic need to connect with and contribute to something significant. ‘not-engaged’ and actively disengaged . Engagement challenge has a lot to do with how employee feels about the work experience and how he or she is treated in the organisation.S. “when you eatthe fruit. motivate and reward the workforce that fashions a radiant balance sheet. If an employer claims success through ‘hard work’ the first question that rises in anyone’s mind is whose hard work ? Behind many achievements there is a team of employees who genuinely ‘engage’ themselves for the growth of the company as well selves which is known as ‘employee engagement’. the employers and their ability to create conditions that promote employee engagement and interaction between employees at all levels. The challenge. employee engagement is driven by people. It is apparent that aprogressive corporate management team will be the first to recognise. Mill (d) SurplusValueTheory (iv) DavidRicardo (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) Read the following passage and answerquestions from questions 46 to 50 : It is commonly said. procedures and compensation. Match the following : Theories ofWages Propounders (a) SubsistenceTheory (i) Karl Marx (b) Wage FundTheory (ii) FrancisWalker (c) ResidualClaimantTheory (iii) J. In many cases. In any organisation. Therefore the employees may be categorised as ‘engaged’.is to keep the talent engaged. quality of life. employees tend to be both distracted and highly alert. These engaged employees develop an emotional attachment and an unflinching commitment to the interests of their employers. think of the person who labouredto plant the tree”. motivated and focused on the right goals by fostering creativity at every level of the organisation.The ‘engaged’ employees are .(D) None of the above 45. The three basic aspects ofemployee engagement are – the employeesand their own psychological make up and experience. opportunities.

undermine what their ‘engaged’ co-workers accomplish. . 46. The employees who tend to feel that their contributions are being overlooked are (A) engaged (B) disengaged (C) not engaged (D) actively disengaged 50. ‘Actively disengaged’ employees are “consistently against something”. Every day. LABOUR WELFARE PAPER – III Note : This paper is of two hundred (200) marks containing four (4) sections. Engaged employees are (A) always present in the company (B) innovators and passionate about work (C) actively disengaged (D) always undermining work of others 49. They sow seeds of negativity at every opportunity. On which of the following factor(s) employee engagement woulddepend ? (A) Psychological characteristics of employees (B) Physical facilities given to employees (C) Availability of workers for recruitment (D) All the above 48. Organisations should thus recognise employees more than any other variable as powerful contributors to a company’s competitive position. They work with passion and they drive innovation and move their organisation forward. Employee engagement means (A) getting employment (B) getting employment and handsome salary (C) commitment to organizational goals (D) all the above 47. They feel this way because they do not have productive relationships with their managers and coworkers. Candidatesare required to attempt the questions contained in these sections according to thedetailed instructions given therein. The ‘notengaged’ employees tend to concentrate on their task rather than the goals. They feel their contributions are overlooked and their potential is not and perform at consistently high levels. they. ‘Disengaged’ employees (A) are not against any thing (B) are not negative about people (C) do not appreciate what others accomplish (D) none of the above.

What are the challenges of International HRM ? How training can overcome these challenges ? 5. How can the social base of social dialogue be widened ? SECTION – II Note : This section contains three (3) questions from each of the electives/specializations. Are they effective ? Elective – II 3. Elective – I 3. What reforms would you suggest in Indian Labour Legislations today in the context of ongoing globalization in India ? OR It is said that. “Indian Labour Legislations are progressive but ineffective. Elective – III 3. OR Social dialogue in India currently is based on social exclusion. .” Discuss the future of OD in light of this statement. The candidate has to choose only one elective/specialization and answer all the three questions from it. “Organizational Development is about unleashing human spirit and human capabilities at the workplace. if a management considers unions as a problem it avoids them and if itconsiders them as a part of the solution it consults them and seeks their co-operation. “The purpose of HR is to create an organization that ensures employee’s pride to be members in the organization. What do you mean by Labour Management Co-operation ? How can this be achieved ? 5. shareholders confidence to invest in the organization and customer’s delight in the products and services of the organization” – Justify the statement and explain how HR strategy can be aligned with corporate strategy in order to achieve the aforesaid purpose. Each question carries fifteen (15) marks and is to be answered in about three hundred (300) words. 1.SECTION – I Note : This section consists of two essay type questions of twenty (20) marks each. What do you think will be the future of Industrial Relations in India ? 4.” – Comment.What can management and unions do together or independently to ensure fairness andbuild trust ? 2. What are the provisions of voluntary retirement scheme adopted in Indian Public Sector ? 4. Discuss the provisions of Code of Discipline. to be answered in about five hundred (500) words each.

10. It is almost a precondition for every country’s progress. SECTION – III Note : This section contains nine (9) questions of ten (10) marks. each country is making efforts to find out its solution. What are the determinants of labour force participation rate in a country ? SECTION – IV Note : This section contains five (5) questions of five (5) marks each based on the following passage. forms an important plank in the labour policy of every developed or developing country. Although. Still the problem has not been solved completely. 11. Examine the suggestions made by the 1st and 2nd National Commission on Labour in this regard. each to be answered in about fifty (50) words. psychological and even . There is an urgent need to examine the working of State and Central Implementation machinery in India. 9. The problem of industrial peace is common to almost all the industrially developed countries of the world and even since industrialisation began. 13.4. Maintenance of satisfactory industrial relations. social and political environment. Distinguish between conventions and recommendations of ILO. Explain any two theories of Labour Welfare. Industrial peace broadly implies the absence of industrial unrest or the existence of a harmonious relationship or co-operation between labour and capital in industry. Industrial disputes still arise and will continue to arise in future also. What are the essential features of an effective plan ? 7.industrial peace is one of the familiar terms in labour terminology and its concept is clear. the major prerequisite for industrial progress is the prevalence of industrial peace – a suitable climate in which the industries can thrive. therefore. Discuss Dunlop’s industrial relations system. What are the types of Trade Unions in India ? 12. Differentiate between management and leadership. yet its definition is somewhat difficult. 6. What is manpower planning ? What are its steps ? 8. Thus. 14. The factors which give rise to such discontent among the workers are mainly economic and partly also social. Industrial unrest is generally the result of worker’s discontent in some form or the another. Each question should be answered in about thirty (30) words. Explain Edgar Schein’s career planning model. The ways and methods in solving this problem differ from country to country depending upon its economic. What are the reasons for implementation of a very small number of ILO conventions and recommendations by the Indian Government ? How does it affect ILO’s influence on the growth of labour legislations in India ? 5.

What are the factors responsible for industrial unrest ? 18. Why the definition of industrial peace is difficult ? 19. therefore. highly purposeful. however. picketing etc. problem solving and cordial approach to the various human situations in the industry is developed. What are the exclusive parts of the industrial peace ? 17. Obviously. The industrial unrest is said to have taken an organized form when the work-people make a common cause of their grievances against the employers and may be manifested through strike. is not merely a negative concept signifying the absence of industrial unrest – the reconciling of hostile forces in order to avoid ruinous strife. What are the inclusive parts of industrial peace ? 16. organized demonstrations. industrial peace in the full and positive sense of the term is not the same as absence of industrial tension or unrest. 15. it is indicative of the state of relationship between organized bodies of workers and employers/managements where a positive. Industrial peace.political in character. What are the manifestations of industrial unrest ? . but it also signifies active presence of harmonious and good industrial relations generating amity and goodwill between the parties in an industry – a condition which is both the cause and effect of fruitful co-operation.

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