357. Intermaxillary suture are sometimes raised forming a longitudinal midline ridge known as: (AFMC 2003) a.

Torus auditory b. Torus mandibularis c. Torus palatine d. Torus maxillaris

358. Peritonsillar abscess is also known as: (Karnataka [snip]) a. Retropharyngeal abscess b. Tonsillar abscess c. Quinsy d. Thornwaldt¶s abscess

359. Third molar caries with extension of the lesion towards tonsillar fossa and shift of tonsil reveals which of the following complication? (UP 2002) a. Parapharyngeal abscess b. Retropharyngeal abscess c. Tonsillar abscess d. Dental abscess

360. Peritonsillar abscess can extend posteriorly into: (Delhi 2000) a. Anterior triangle of neck b. Parapharyngeal space c. Posterior triangle on neck d. Submaxillary space 361. Swelling between tonsillar area and superior constrictor muscle is know as: (AI 1991) a. Quinsy b. Dental abscess c. Parapharyngeal abscess d. Retropharyngeal abscess

362. The most common malignancy of the oropharynx: (MP 2006) a. Tonsil b. Soft palate c. Tongue base d. Valleculae 363. Killiance dehiscence is seen in (JIPMER 1999) a. Oropharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Cricopharynx d. Vocal cords

364. Odynophagia is (MH PGM CET 2000) a. Pain during swallowing b. Difficulty in swallowing c. Bad odour from mouth

Apertures c. Extensive consolidation of lung 367. Indications for tracheostomy are all EXCEPT: a. Peritonsillar abscess c. Surgery d. Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate c. Removal of stenosed part with anastomosis 371. After a long-standing tracheostomy patient developed almost complete stenosis of trachea. Pneumonia d. Most common complication of Tracheostomy is: (JIPMER 2000) a. Retropharyngeal abscess d.d. Stenosis b. Laryngeal malignancy d. Not true regarding pterygopalatine fossa: (Orissa 2005) a. Psychiatric disease 365. with portex tracheostomy tube. Respiratory failure 368. Pyogenic cervical abscess b. TB lymphadenitis 369. treatment is: (AIIMS 2001) a. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube b. Acute epiglottitis b. Tracheal dilation b. Any of the above 366. Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as: (CMC 2002) a. Maxillofacial trauma c. Jet ventilation 370. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004) a. Which of the following is best next step in the management? (AIIMS May 2004) a. A tracheostomised patient. developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. Holes b. which connects the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine . Laser with stent c. in the ward. Suction of tube with saline d. Infection c. Vents d. Inferomedial to the foramen rotundum lies the Vidian (Pterygoid) canal.

Pearly white membrane b. Keratosis c. Diphtheria c. Bleeds when membrane is removed d. Leukoplakia b. Medially. TB lymphadenitis 376. Candidiasis 373. Addison¶s disease d. Ludwig¶s angina d.fossa. Acute epiglottitis c. Croup b. The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis pending culture sensitivity report is: (Kar 2001) a. 372. Pyogenic cervical abscess b. Quinsy 377. Adenoviral pharyngitis 374. Streptococcal tonsillitis b. Peritonsillar abscess c. Ampicillin . Membrane can be removed easily 375. the pterygopalatine fossa communicates through the pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal fossa c. Erythromycin b. Steeple sign is seen in: (SGPGI 2005) a. Retropharyngeal abscess d. It contains the sphenopalatine ganglion and the third segment of the maxillary artery. White oral lesions are seen in EXCEPT: (Kar 2002) a. Rolitetracycline c. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004) a. Doxycycline d. Bleeding occurs if the membrane is tried to remove c. d. It communicates with the middle cranial cavity through the foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal. All of the following cause a grey-white membrane in the throat EXCEPT (SGPGI 2005) a. Laryngomalacia d. b. True statement about faucial diphtheria is: (Delhi 2001) a.

It is diffuse cellulitis affecting the floor of the mouth c. Sternocleidomastoid muscle 381.1.2. local application is quite helpful d. 3. A patient presented with a 3. Which of the following statement is true for Ludwig¶s angina? (Delhi 2000) a. Back blows Select the correct sequence form the codes given below: Codes: a. The next investigation to be done: (CMC 2005) a. What is the correct sequence of the following while resuscitating an infant with Foreign Body Airway Obstruction? (UPSC 2004) 1. None 380.378.3. Submandibular space infection is known as: (Manipal 2002) a. Internal jugular vein d. Multiple sclerosis c.1. Guillain Barre syndrome 382. Chest thrust 2. Epilepsy b.5 cms size lymph node enlargement. 1. Triple endoscopy . which was hard and presented in submandibular region. CXR b. painful condition of Pectoralis minor muscle b. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: (SGPGI 2005) a. Ludwig¶s angina b. 3. Parapharyngeal abscess d.1 c.2 d. Vagus nerve b. Tongue-jaw lift 3. Which of the following structures are preserved in radical neck dissection? (Kar 2002) a. It is an ischemic. Accessory Nerve c. None of the above 379.3 383.2 b. Vincent¶s angina c. Cerebellar infarction d. 2. Glycerin nitrate. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion.

Causes of posterior soft tissue nasopharyngeal mass include all EXCEPT: (AMU 1996) a. MRI 386. Inferior constrictor c. Most common tumor to produce metastasis to cervical lymph nodes: (AIIMS MAY 2002) a. Investigation of choice for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: (MP 2002) a. Palatoglossus c. Glottic Carcinoma b. Supravital staining of oral mucosa d. Chordoma 388. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c. Tensor palati b.c. Aneurysm of the carotid artery e. All muscles of Pharynx are supplied by cranial accessory nerve except: a. Helical CT d. Plasmacytoma b. Thornwaldt¶s Cyst d. Palatopharyngeus d. CECT d. Stylopharyngeus . Carcinoma lip 385. Angiography b. All muscles of Palate are supplied by cranial accessory nerve except: a. Thyropharyngeus b. MRI b. Laryngoscopy 384. None 389. Angiography 387. Choanal atresia c. CECT c. Carcinoma Base of tongue d. Biopsy c. Best diagnostic modality for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: (AIIMS 1997) a.

All muscles of Tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT: a. Promontory in middle ear d. Cranial accessory nerve supplies: (Orissa 99) a. Laryngocele d. Geniculate ganglion 396. Palatoglossus c. None 393. Hyoglossus 391. Palate b. Palatoglossus d. Carotid bifurcation b. Tensor tympani c. Myoglossus b. Examination revealed red swelling/mass . Both d. The main differential diagnosis is second branchial cleft cyst include all EXCEPT: a. Jugular foramen c. Ranula 395. Upper third of posterior border of sternocleidomastoid b. Which of the following is not the site for PARAGANGLIOMA? (AIIMS Nov 2003) a. Cystic hygroma c. Pharynx c. Thyroglossal duct cyst b. Genioglossus d. Supraclavicular fossa 394. All 392. Most frequent site of branchial cyst is at: (MH-SS-CET 2005) a. Mandibular nerve supplies: (PGI 89) a. Lower third of anterior border of sternocleidomastoid c. Superior constrictor 390. Upper third of anteromedial border of sternocleidomastoid d.d. Bano Begum presented with bleeding from ear. Tensor palati b. tinnitus and increasing deafness. pain.

True cut biopsy is investigation of choice c. Preoperative embolisation b. Iridium 399.behind the intact tympanic membrane that blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma: (Kerala 2005) a. The tumor blends with jugular vein c. Neo adjuvant chemotherapy b. Which of the following is the most beneficial technique of using chemotherapy with a course of radiotherapy in head and neck malignancies? (AIIMS NOV 2004) a. Main problem associated with carotid body tumor operation is: (Maharashtra 2000) a. It is highly vascular mass b. Concurrent chemotherapy d. Adjuvant chemotherapy c. Zenker¶s diverticulum b. Surgery d. The tumor blends with bifurcation of carotid artery b. Gold d. Radiotherapy has no effect . True about Carotid body tumor is all EXCEPT: (AIIMS Nov 2004) a. Vaso vagal Shock 401. Alternating chemotherapy and radiotherapy 398. Operative intervention is best avoided in elderly patients. I-131 c. Recurrence d. Achalasia cardia 400. Treatments for her include all EXCEPT: (AIIMS 2001) a. Caesium b. Meckel¶s diverticulum c. d. Interferons 397. he regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago. Radiotherapy c. Scleroderma d. Likely diagnosis is: (AIPGE 2001) a.

Lower esophageal sphincter: (AIIMS 2005 may) a. Peptic ulcer (stomach) 408. Excision of tumor b. Barium study in Trendelenburg position is done for the diagnosis of: (Kerala 2003) a. a double shadow behind the heart. Barium swallow b. CT chest 406. signs of aspiration pneumonia and absence of air in stomach is suggestive of: (KAR 2003) a. Relaxes on increasing abdominal pressure d. On a chest radiograph. Laryngoscopy d. Which of the following is the best choice of treatment for him? (AIIMS 2004 may) a. ³Rat-tail´ appearance on barium swallow examination is seen . Esophagoscopy c. Hiatal disorders c. Upper GIT disorders b. Has a tone which is provided by the sympathetic system c. USG with colour Doppler c. Crohn¶s disease 407. Radiotherapy c. The first investigation you will do is: (AIIMS may 2003) a. Achalasia c. Carcinoma esophagus d. CECT d. Investigation of choice for carotid body tumor? (AFMC 2004) a.402. Carotid artery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor 404. A 40 year old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Has no tonic activity b. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquids than solids. MRI 403. Chemotherapy d. Relaxes ahead of the peristaltic wave 405. Angiography b. Aneurysm of thoracic aorta b. Esophageal disorder d.

Carcinoma esophagus c. Hiatus hernia 410. Chronic Reflux oesophagitis 411. Manipal 2002) a. Obstruction by foreign body 414. Diffuse esophageal spasm . Carcinoma esophagus 412. Barret¶s esophagus d. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery c. Carcinoma esophagus b. Candidial oesophagitis b. Compression of esophagus by aberrant blood vessel 413. Esophageal diverticulum b. ³Cobble stone´ esophagus is feature of: (Orissa 94) a. Carcinoma of Esophagus b. Vigorous achalasia cardia b. Dysphagia lusoria due to: (AIIMS Nov 2003. Herpes oesophagitis d. Compression by aortic arch d. KAR 2001) a. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to: (Manipal 2002) a. Scleroderma c. Achalasia cardia b. Achalasia cardia d. Cytomegalovirus oesophagitis c. ³Rat tail Appearance´ in barium swallow is a feature of: (KAR 2005) a. Diffuse esophageal spasm d. Scleroderma c. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions? (AIPGE 2002) a. µCork-screw¶ esophagus is seen in: (AI 2002.in: (Maharashtra 2002) a. Achalasia Cardia c. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery b. Diffuse esophageal spasm 409. Esophageal web d. Aneurysm of aorta c. Hiatus hernia d.

Lower oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium b. Lower third d. Upper oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium c. He is diagnosed to have cricopharyngeal diverticulum. Lower esophagus lined by pseudostratified epithelium 417. Oesophageal d. Upper third b. Compression lusoria is due to: (NOV.415. Management of choice is: ( AIIMS 2001) a. Laparoscopic myotomy c. Middle third c. Pneumatic dilatation b. Corrosive structure d. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus develops in: (AIPGE 2002) a. Botulinum toxin 416. Open surgical myotomy d. Barrett¶s esophagus b. Most common site for squamous cell Carcinoma esophagus is: (AIPGE 2001) a. Alcohol abuse 418. Barrett¶s oesophagus is: (AIPGE 2002) a. Lower esophagus lined by ciliated epithelium d. Cricopharyngeal myotomy alone . Gastro esophageal junction 419. Dysphagia a. Long standing achalasia c. Aneurysm of c. Oesophageal b. Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence: (AIPGE 2002) a. and dysphagia. presents with symptoms of regurgitation of foul smelling food. 2003 AIIMS ) diverticulum aorta web by aberrant blood vessels 420. Excision of the diverticula b. A 30 years old male.

Zenkers diverticulum b. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. Oesophageal web b. Achalasia cardia 425. He regurgitates food often at night. Myotomy with excision of the sac d. Scleroderma d. Marsupialisation of the diverticulum 422. LASER vaporization b. Treatment of choice will be: (AIIMS 2000) a. Koilonychia . Predisposes to malignancy c. A young patients with dysphagia move for liquids than solids. Jejunum c. Achalasia cardia b. Excision of the diverticulum d. Right colon d. dysphagia and pain. Zenker¶s diverticulum d. He was diagnosed to have cricopharyngeal diverticulum. except: (AIIMS Dec 97) a. Bhanwarilal presents with feature of foul smelling food regurgitation. CA oesophagus c. Stomach b. Excision of the diverticulum with cricopharyngomyotomy c. Left colon 423.c. Diffuse esophageal spasm 424. Ai 96) a. Meckels diverticulum c. Marsupialization of the sac 421. He regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago a gurgling sound is often heard on swallowing: Likely diagnosis is: (AI 2001) a. Best substitute for esophagus after esophagectomy is: (MP 99. Likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS May 1996) a. Radiography shows a rat-tailed appearance. All are true regarding Plummer Vinson syndrome.

Tylosis palmaris c. Achalasia acardia b. Upper third b. Methotrexate . Barrett¶s esophagus b. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is: (AI 2001) a. The adenocarcinoma of esophagus-developed in: (AI 2002) a. Which neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal carcinoma: (AI 1996) a. Benzene therapy 427. Plummer Vinson syndrome d. Gastro-esophageal junction 431. Corrosive structure d. Plummer-Vinson syndrome b. Hepatoma c. CA oesophagus 428. Carcinoma colon b. Cyclophosphamide c. Barrett¶s oesophagus c. Chronic smoking 430. Hyperkeratosis of palm and sole is seen in: (AIIMS Dec 97) a. Adenocarcinoma lung d. Alcohol abuse 429.d. Lower third d. Chronic Achalasia d. Long standing achalasia c. Middle third c. Cisplatin b. The following are predisposing factors for Esophageal carcinoma except: (AI 1996) a. Common in elderly males 426. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in: (AI 1998) a. Doxorubicin d.

432. Volvulus d. 40 cm from the incisor teeth 434. Difference between intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure. 435. d. Sphincteric action of lower esophageal muscle fibers or fibers of right cura. Thrombocytopenia c. The commonest side effect of cisplatinum in a patient using it for esophageal carcinoma is: (AIIMS May 01) a. Oesophageal stricture 436. Which of the following play vital role in preventing gastro oesophagus reflux? (PGI 2001) a. Aspiration pneumonitis c. Acute gastroesophageal angle. Pyriform fossa b. The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is: (AI 2005) a. Cardiomyopathy 433. Hepatic failure d. The hypopharynx includes all the following EXCEPT: (JIPMER 2003) a. Oesophagitis b. 10 cm from the incisor teeth b. Constrictions normally present in esophagus are all EXCEPT: (MH-PGM-CET-2000): a. Post cricoid region d. Acute tubular necrosis b. 15 cm from the incisor teeth c. 25 cm from the incisor teeth d. b. c. Mucosal flap produced by muscularis mucosa of the stomach. Valeculae . Epiglottis c.

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