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OPC QUESTIONNAIRES AB6

TECHNICAL Page 1

que Which areas of the aircraft are not pressurized?


s1.
a. Bulk cargo compartments, Air conditioning compartments, Nose gear bay
b. Avionics compartments, Wheel wells, Nose radome
c. Aft cargo compartments, Nose radome, Nose gear bay
d. Nose radome, Wheel wells, Air conditioning compartments Ans. d

The fuselage has a circular cross section and is pressurized in all areas except:
- Nose radome
- Wheel wells
- Air conditioning compartments
- Tail cone AOM 1.1/1 P4

2. When will CABIN PRESSURE light at each door illuminates? (TAN-Z)


a. On ground, select door control handle to open with door mode selector in ARM position and the
evacuation system not activated.
b. On ground, select door mode to ARMED when cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 Mb (0.036psi)
c. On ground, select door mode to DISARMED when cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 Mb
(0.036psi)
d. On ground, select door control handle to open with door mode selector in ARM position when cabin
pressure is above 2.5 Mb (0.036psi) Ans. c
Cabin pressure light flash red when :
- Aircraft is on ground, and
- Door mode is in DISARMED position, and
- Cabin pressure is above 2.5 Mb (0.036psi)
AOM 1.1/3 P3
3. If the electrical power to the pack valve is lost, what is the position of the valve?
a. Open, because the valve is fail safe open
b. Closed, because the valve is controlled electrically
c. Open or closed depending on the pneumatic supply
d. Closed, because the valve is spring loaded to closed Ans. c

In the absence of air pressure, and independently of any electrical supply, the pack valve is spring-loaded
closed. It remains open in the absence of electrical supply, provided it is pneumatically supplied.

AOM 1.2 P1

4. How to operate packs, engines and wing anti-ice during volcanic ash encountered?
a. Engine and wing anti-ice on. All packs high flow to increase stall margin.
b. Engine and wing anti-ice on. All packs off to prevent volcanic dust in aircraft.
c. Engine and wing anti-ice off. All packs off to gain more thrust.
d. Engine and wing anti-ice off. All packs as required. Ans. a

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- Turn on engine and wing anti-ice system and place all air conditioning packs to high flow to further
improve engine stall margin by increasing bleed air flow.
- It may be possible to stabilize one or more engines at idle thrust setting where the EGT will remain
within limits. An attempt should be made to keep at least one engine operating at idle and within limits
to provide electrical power and bleed air for cabin pressurization until clear of the volcanic dust. AOM VOL2
3.3/10 p2

5. What will happen if the Max Cool P/B is selected to ON?


a. Temp control valve fully closed and cooling air modulating flap fully closed
b. Temp control valve fully open and cooling air modulating flap fully open
c. Temp control valve fully closed and cooling air modulating flap fully open
d. Temp control valve fully open and cooling air modulating flap fully closed Ans. c

Max cooling is obtained by fully closing the temperature control valve and fully opening the heat exchanger
cooling air-modulating flap.
AOM 1.2 P2
6. How is the temperature in each cabin zone controlled?
a. By the pack controller adjusting the pack discharge temperature
b. By opening or closing the hot air valve
c. By modulating the trim air valve to mix the hot air with cold air from the pack
d. By modulating the pack temperature control valve Ans. c

Individual zone temperature control is achieved by mixing the hot trim air with cold air from the packs.
The controller received signals from pack outlet temperature, compartment ambient temperature and
required temperature selected with the COMP TEMP selectors.
The trim air valve is then modulated by the controller to mix hot trim air from the hot air manifold with cooled
air from the pack to obtain required temperature for each compartment (zone).
The hot air manifold is supplied from pneumatic manifold downstream of pack valves through one hot air
supply valve that regulates the supply pressure at 4 PSI above cabin pressure. AOM 1.2 P2
7. Which case causes the pack valve to close by pneumatic pressure?
a. An overheat occurs at the compressor temperature outlet or turbine inlet
b. Pneumatic pressure is not supply to the Pack
c. Engine fire handle is pulled
d. Engine start selector is at CRANK, START A or START B Ans. a

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Pack valve P/B in auto mode, the valve will close when:
- The ENG fire handle is pulled
- Outflow valve P/Bs are selected OFF
- ENG START selector is at CONT RELIGHT position and one of the two start valves is open
- ENG START selector is at CRANK, START A or START B position
- Over temperature occurs at compressor outlet or turbine inlet (pack valve closes pneumatically)
The valve is closed by spring force if not pneumatically supplied
The valve is closed by pneumatic pressure when overheat occurs at compressor outlet or turbine inlet of the
pack.

AOM 1.2 P14

8. Which statement is true after setting PACK mode SEL P/B to MAN and setting the PACK MAN CTL switch
toward cold?
a. Trim air valve moves toward close position
b. Pack temperature control valve moves toward closed position
c. Pack valve moves toward closed position
d. Hot air valve closes
Ans. b

PACK MODE SEL P/B


- Auto (push button in), Pack discharge temperature is automatically controlled depending on control
from the APU and pack temperature demand controller
- MAN (push button out, white MAN light on), pack discharge temperature is manually controlled by
adjusting the temperature control valve through MAN CTL switch AOM 1.2 P14
9. What will happen if the COMPARTMENT TEMP selector is set to MAN (bottom quadrant) and momentarily
turned toward COLD position?
a. Trim air valve moves toward closed position
b. Trim air valve moves toward open position
c. Pack temperature control valve moves toward closed position
d. Pack temperature control valve moves toward open position
Ans. a
COMPARTMENT TEMP selector (4)
- AUTO, the associated compartment temperature is controlled automatically. The pack discharge
temperature is controlled via APU and pack temperature demand controller
- MAN, when the selector is turned to the bottom quadrant, it is springloaded to the center position. The
temperature of the respective zone is controlled manually by momentarily turns the selector to COLD or
HOT position
COLD Trim air valve moves toward closed position.
HOT Trim air valve moves toward open position.
AOM 1.2 P15

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10. What will caused the cargo compartment ISOL valve to close automatically?
a. Trim air overheat condition
b. A disagreement between P/B and the actual ISOL valve position
c. Smoke is detected in a cargo compartment
d. Fan for air extraction in the cargo compartment has stopped Ans. c

ISOL VALVE P/B (2)


- ON (P/B in). The valve is opened and fan runs. If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment, the
associates isolation valve and the trim air valves will close and the fan stops automatically.

- OFFR (P/B out, white OFF light on). The isolation valve closes and the fan stops. The smoke detection
circuit is reset.
- FAULT (amber). Indicates disagreement between P/B selection and actual valve position.

AOM 1.2 P15


11. What is the function of the RAM air inlet valve?
a. To allow air supply to the cold air manifold
b. To allow air supply to the hot air manifold
c. To allow air direct into the cabin to aid the pressurization system
d. To allow air direct to the avionics compartment to aid the ventilation system Ans. a
RAM AIR P/B (guarded)
- ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ram inlet opens to allow ram air supply to the cold air manifold.
- OPEN (green). Illuminates when the ram air inlet is fully open. The FWD and AFT outflow valves open
simultaneously to permit unrestricted ventilation.
AOM 1.2 P14
- OFF (P/B out). The ram air inlet closes. The FWD and AFT valves return to normal regulation.
12. What is the automatic function after selecting the ram air inlet to open?
a. Both packs will shutoff
b. Both outflow valves will close
c. Both outflow valves will open
d. Nothing happens automatically Ans. c

An emergency ram air inlet, which is located forward of the air conditioning pack 1 cooling air inlet, provides
for ventilation of the pressurized fuselage with ram air. The opening of the ram air inlet is only authorized in
flight when the cabin differential pressure is lower than 1 psi.

When cabin pressure is in AUTO mode, the FWD and AFT outflow valves will open simultaneously to permit
unrestricted ventilation. AOM 1.2 P2, 14

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13. Where does the airflow for cooling and ventilating of the avionics equipment come from?
a. Cooling air distribute duct in the cockpit
b. Air in the avionics compartment
c. Air from outside the aircraft which is drawn by the blower
d. a. and b. are correct Ans. d

Airflow for cooling and ventilation of avionics equipment is either from cooling air distribute duct in the
cockpit or drawn from air in the avionics compartment by the blower. The air is directed to the circuit breaker
panels, all panels in the cockpit and all equipment in the avionics compartment.
After cooling all equipment, air is directed towards either three positions overboard valve or the inboard
valve which discharges air to forward cargo under floor area. AOM 1.2 P4

14. What are the positions of the inboard and overboard valve while aircraft is on ground and ENG stopped?
a. Inboard and overboard valve closed
b. Inboard valve opened and overboard valve closed
c. Inboard valve closed and overboard valve opened
d. Inboard valve opened and overboard valve partially opened Ans. c

The operating condition of the two valves depending on flight phase as follows:
On ground with one engine stopped
- Overboard valve is fully opened
- Inboard valve is closed
In flight, or on ground with both engines running
- Overboard valve is fully closed
- Inboard valve is opened
- If the cooling of the avionics compartment is found insufficient, the overboard valve can be partially
opened.
AOM 1.2 P18
15. When does the ground-cooling unit operate?
a. Both packs are off, both ENG fuel levers are off

b. Both packs are off, both ENG fuel are off and outlet temperature of the unit exceeds 25o C
c. Both packs operating, both ENG fuel levers are off and GND COOL OVRD P/B is selected ON
d. Both b. and c. are correct Ans. d

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GND COOL CTL P/B

- AUTO (P/B in). If both packs are off and both ENG FUEL levers are off, the outflow valves of the
ground cooling unit is open. The fan runs when the outflow is fully open. The ground cooling unit
operates if the outlet temperature of the unit exceeds 25o C.
- FAULT (amber). Illuminates if a failure is detected at ground cooling unit system.
- OFF (P/B out, white OFF light on). Outflow valve closed, fan and cooling unit stopped.
PACK OVRD P/B
- NORMAL (P/B out). Ground cooling system operates according to CTL P/B function.
- ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ground cooling unit operates with packs operating if both ENG
FUEL levers selected OFF
AOM 1.2 P18
16. Which pneumatic source is not recommended for air conditioning systems?
a. Low pressure ground connection
b. High pressure ground air supply unit
c. Ram air inlet when air conditioning system is not operating

d. Engine compressors Ans. b

The require bleed air for the air conditioning system is supplied either by engine compressors or APU or a
high pressure ground air supply unit (it is recommended not to use external HP air for conditioning due to
possible refrigeration pack contamination)
Condition air can also be supplied directly to the cabin air distribution system by a low-pressure ground.
A ram air inlet is also provided for fresh air ventilation in flight when the air conditioning systems are not
operating.

AOM 1.2 P1
17. How does outflow valves operate?
a. By 3 electric motors, which are controlled by one of the two automatic system or the manual system
b. By 3 electric motors, which are controlled by the two automatic system
c. By 2 electric motors, which are controlled by one of the two automatic system or the manual system

d. By 2 electric motors, which are controlled by the two automatic system Ans. a

OUTFLOW VALVES
One is located in forward of the air conditioning bay, the other aft of the bulk cargo
compartment.
Each valve is actuated by three electric motors, which are independently controlled by
one of two automatic systems or the manual system.
AOM 1.2 P5
Each outflow valve can be closed from overhead panel, where its position is displayed.

18. Condition: A/C is on ground and both engines stop Ans. b


If you found the cabin pressure system 1 green triangle illuminated, which system will operate in flight?
a. System 1
b. System 2
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The transfer from 1 system to the other is automatic:


- At every second engine start
- If the associated REG P/B switch is selected to off
- If the associated REG FAULT light illuminates. AOM 1.2 P16
19. Which statement is true if you select the cabin pressurization system to MAN PRESS CTL?
a.....Cabin V/S CTL switch is no longer available
b. CAB PRESS on ECAM SD page is
still available
c. Cabin pressure warning is no
longer available
d. Both outflow valves will close Ans. c
MAN PRESS P/B
ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ON light illuminates associated with amber arrow light to indicate that
the V/S CTL switch is operative and controls the manual operation of the outflow valve.
OFF (P/B out). The V/S CTL switch is inoperative as long as the amber arrow light is not on
⇐ (Amber). The arrow illuminates when:
- Both OFF light integrated into REG 1 and REG 2 P/B are ON, or
- The MAN PRESS P/B is selected ON
The V/S CTL is operative
In this configuration, no cabin pressure warning and no cabin pressure indication on ECAM display is
available. AOM 1.2 P16
20. Regarding the “ON GROUND EMERGENCY” procedure, why do you need to check that ∆ P is zero if CAB
MAN PRESS is selected?
a. To facilitate the cabin doors opening
b. To ensure the outflow valves opening
c. To ensure the ram air inlet valve is opened
d. To prevent rapid decompression of the cabin during cabin doors emergency opening Ans. d
Ram air is selected ON is to facilitate the cabin doors opening but in case of CAB MAN PRESS is selected
AOM Vol2 4.1/2-
in flight, to avoid to decompression the aircraft rapidly, the procedure is called for set CAB V/S up until ∆ P
20
read zero.
21. What occurs after selecting both OUTFLOW P/B (guarded) switches to OFF?
a. Both outflow valves are closed
b. Both outflow valves, and the two pack valves are closed
c. Both outflow valves, two pack valves, and the overboard extract valve are closed
d. Both outflow valves, two pack valves, the overboard extract valve and the ram air inlet valve are closed Ans. d
OUTFLOW (guarded) (2)
The P/B are used to close the related outflow valves.
When both P/B are selected to OFF (when ditching), Both outflow valves, two pack valves, the overboard
extract valve and the ram air inlet valve are closed. AOM 1.2 P17

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22. When will over pressure safety valves open?


a. cabin differential pressure exceeds 8.4 psi
b. cabin differential pressure exceeds 8.85 psi
c. negative differential pressure exceeds 0.5 psi
d. both b and c Ans. d
OVER PRESSURE SAFETY VALVES
Two fully mechanical safety valves are installed forward or the air conditioning bay. Normally, these valves
are closed but they will provides safety relief protection in case the cabin differential pressure exceeds 8.85
psi or negative differential pressure exceeds 0.5 psi. AOM1.2 P6
23. When landing elevation is higher than the theoretical cabin altitude, which cabin rate of change will be
used?
a. 500 ft/min
b. RATE theoretical
c. RATE limit (selected on the RATE LIMIT selector)
d. The lowest of RATE theoretical or RATE limit (selected on the RATE LIMIT selector) Ans. c
Generally, the cabin altitude is regulated towards the theoretical cabin pressure altitude determined by the
controller, or to the landing field elevation, which is the higher.
The ∆ P increases with the increase of pressure altitude up to the operating ceiling.
When the theoretical altitude is higher than the landing elevation, the rate of changes is the lowest of the
two following values:
- RATE theoretical
- RATE limit (selected on the RATE LIMIT selector)
When the landing elevation is higher than the theoretical altitude, the rate of change is the RATE limit. AOM 1.2 P5
24. What causes the AIR COND ECAM page to display magenta XX on one zone temperature?
a. That compartment temperature selector is set to manual
b. COMP / DUCT TEMP DISPLAY selector is set to the another position other than CRT
c. The zone temperature indicator failure
d. That compartment was overheated Ans. b
COMP / DUCT TEMPERATURE DISPLAY SELECTOR
Selects the zone for which COMP and DUCT temperature reading is desired on COMP / DUCT indicator.
At CRT position, indications are displayed on ECAM.
When any other position is selected, temperature indication of the selected zone is replaced by magenta XX
on the CRT. AOM 1.2 P15
25. What is the procedure for turning the packs ON again when taking off with both packs OFF? Ans. c
a. Turn both packs on when convenient after airborne
b. Turn one pack on after set climb thrust, the other as desired
c. Turn one pack on after set climb thrust, the remaining one after slat retraction
d. Turn both packs on after thrust reduction

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AIR CONDITION……………………..SET
When taking off with both packs off:
- For passenger’s comfort, after setting climb thrust, set one pack on.
- After slats are retracted, set the remaining pack on.
- Check flow bars in line and all air conditioning indicates are normal.
When taking off with both supplied by APU: AOM VOL2
- Set APU bleed switch to off after setting climb thrust. 3.2/2 p9
26. What is the procedure for turning the packs ON again when taking off with both packs supplied by APU?
a. set APU bleed switch OFF after setting climb thrust
b. set APU bleed Switch OFF after slat retraction
c. set APU bleed switch OFF when perform climb checklist
d. set APU bleed switch OFF at any time after airborne Ans. a
AIR CONDITION……………………..SET
When taking off with both packs off:
- For passenger’s comfort, after setting climb thrust, set one pack on.
- After slats are retracted, set the remaining pack on.
- Check flow bars in line and all air conditioning indicates are normal.
When taking off with both supplied by APU:
- Set APU bleed switch to off after setting climb thrust.
AOM VOL 2
ECON flow may be selected ON if required. Approx. 68% airflow is provided. 3.2/2 p9
27. During flight, if yaw damper 1and pitch trim 1 dropped together with speed limit flag displayed on PFD.
Which system has failed?
a. Yaw damper and pitch trim computer channel 1
b. Flight augmentation computer channel 1
c. Green hydraulic system
d. ADC 1 Ans. b
FLIGHT AUGMENTATION COMPUTERS (FAC)
Two FAC’s are installed in the avionics compartment. The computer design is based on digital and analog
technology. The computer consists of circuits required for yaw damping, pitch trimming, flight envelope
protection and maneuvering speed computation. The yaw damper as well as pitch trim system consists of
two independent computing channels: a command channel and a monitor channel. When a failure is
detected by comparison of channels, the corresponding yaw damper or pitch trim lever trips to off. The FAC
provides yaw command to the rudder and a trim command to the horizon stabilizer. AOM 1.3P9
28. Which statement is not a function of the yaw damper? Ans. a
a. Yaw assist during manual takeoff and engine failure
b. Yaw assist during automatic go-around and engine failure
c. Turn coordinate during manual flying
d. Dutch roll damping during manual flying

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YAW DAMPER
This system provides the following functions:
- Dutch roll damping, which is armed during the whole phases of flight. This function is activated if the
IRS detects a yaw rate.
- Turn coordination, which is armed if no autopilot is engaged in CMD. This function is activated if the
EFCU detects a roll control wheel deflection, which is above a predetermined threshold.
- Autopilot assistance in case of an engine failure. This function is activated if the IRS detects a lateral
AOM 1.9/4
acceleration, which is above a predetermined threshold when AP is engaged in CMD with SRS or G/A
MODE. P1
29. If you fly the aircraft with high nose up attitude and found the pitch trim moving, which part of the pitch trim
system is working?
a. Electric trim
b. Auto trim
c. Mach trim
d. Alpha trim Ans. d
PITCH TRIM
This system provides the following functions:
- Electric trim: - This basic trim function provides pitch axis stabilization and enables cancellation of the
load on the control column by means of the pitch trim control switches (rocking lever) on the control
wheel.
- Automatic trim or autotrim: - This function, which is armed at AP engagement in CMD or CWS. The
rocking levers are deactivated in this mode and the electrical control signals come from the FCC.

- Mach / VC trim: - This function improves the longitudinal static aircraft stability as a function of mach
number or VC (IAS). Mach trim is active in clean configuration.
- Angle of attack trim (alpha trim): - The purpose of this function is to counter any
- Nose up tendency at high mach number when no AP is engaged and speed brakes are
not extended. AOM 1.9/5
- o
Excessive angle of attack at low speed (greater than 19 ). P1
30. If you fly the aircraft with high nose up attitude and found the throttle moving to full thrust. Which part of the Ans. d
FAC system is engaged?
a. Speed limit protection
b. Stall warning protection
c. Alpha trim protection
d. Alpha floor protection

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FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION


The following signals are generated in the FAC:

- Stick shaker speed (VSS)

- Max selectable speed ( VMAX)

- Lowest selectable speed (VLS)


- Min speed for flap and slat retraction ( F and S speed)
- Engine out operating speed in clean configuration ( green dot speed)

- VC trend, which is the predicted speed in arrow trend and the aircraft, would reach that speed in 10
second.
- Alpha floor protection
Alpha floor function is active above 100 ft provided ATS is armed. When the FAC detects a too high
angle of attack, it engages THRUST LATCH (THR L) mode (with thrust corresponding to the selected
mode on the TRP) in TCC. AOM 1.3P5
O
31. When does the SRS command bar allow A/C nose up attitude of as much as 21.5 instead of the normal
pitch attitude?
a. Windshear protection engaged
b. Stall protection engaged
c. Both pitch trim levers dropped off
d. Alpha floor protection engaged Ans. a
Windshear guidance principle
In windshear conditions and when windshear intensity becomes close to the aircraft limits. The SRS law will
progressively adapt its control to a survival strategy:

- Control airspeed (VSEL + 10 Kt) as long as positive vertical speed is maintained.


- Control attitude as long as speed is above stick shaker speed.
- Control speed above stick shaker speed as long as needed.
This control law maintains the survival strategy whatever the longitudinal or vertical windshear in takeoff or
go-around conditions. The maximum pitch attitude reaches as much as 21.5O instead of the normal pitch
attitude. This control law is available on the flight director whether flown manually, in control wheel steering
or autopilot in command. In all cases, pitch attitude is limited by a stall protection. AOM 1.3P6
32. Regarding the AP system, what does the Fail Operational capability mean? Ans. c
a. If the disagreement occurs between the two AFS computers, the affected computer is disabled before it
may affect the A/C guidance
b. If the disagreement occurs between the two AFS computers, both system will disengage before it may
affect the A/C guidance
c. If the active system fails, the second system takes over automatically
d. If the active system fails, this system is still engaging

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AFS computer redundancy


The computations performed by the command and monitor channels are permanently compared. In case of
disagreement between the two channels, the affected system is disabled before it may affect the aircraft
guidance. A self-monitored system is referred to as being Fail Passive capability.
If the active system fails, the second system takes over automatically. In operational terms, this system
redundancy provides a Fail operational capability. AOM 1.3P7
33. What will cause the LOC scale and FD roll bar to flash on both PFD when in the capture or tracking phase?
a. Both LLZ receiver fails
b. One ILS receiver fails
c. Both VOR/NAV/ILS switch is not in the ILS position
d. Localizer signal is NCD or invalid Ans. d
LOC mode
Engagement and operation
Note 3
If one ILS receiver fails while in the arming phase, the LOC mode disarms in the affected side.
If one ILS receiver fails while in the capture or tracking phase, the on- side AP/FD disengages (if previously
engaged).
Note 4
If localizer signal is NCD or invalid while in the capture or tracking phase, the LOC scale and FD roll bar
flash on both PFD. AOM 1.3P39
34. When takeoff with 1 engine inoperative, which speed does SRS command?
a. The FCU selected speed +10 or the existing speed at the time of the engine failure, whichever is higher
b. The FCU selected speed or the existing speed at the time of the engine failure, whichever is higher
c. The FCU PRESET speed or the existing speed at the time of the engine failure, whichever is higher
d. Speed is maintain slightly above Vss or the existing speed at the time of the engine failure, whichever
is higher Ans. b
In pitch axis, speed reference system (SRS) mode is engaged.
The SRS mode acquires and maintains:
- With 2 engines operating:
The FCU selected speed +10 kt (the selected speed is V2 at takeoff and Vapp in Go-around)
- With 1 engines inoperative:
The FCU selected speed or the existing speed at the time of the engine failure, whichever is higher AOM 1.3 p31
35. What does it mean if THR L flashes on the FMA? Ans. d
a. Go levers are triggered while slats retracted
b. A/C encounters with alpha floor condition
c. A/C leaves the alpha floor condition
d. a. and c. are correct

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Thrust latch (green THR L on FMA) mode:


If one ATS lever is armed, the THR L mode automatically engages if:
- The alpha floor protection is activated, or
- The go-levers are triggered in flight, with slats retracted.
THR L is green and steady if THR L is engaged by the alpha floor protection, and flashes when the aircraft
exists the alpha floor condition.
THR L is green and flashing if THR L is engaged by the in-flight activation of go-levers with slats retracted. AOM 1.3P25
36. Condition: A/C on ILS RW21L in LAND mode at 600 ft AGL
If the clearance is changed to land on RW 21R instead, can we change the ILS frequency window?
a. No, below 700 ft AGL ILS frequency and course selector knob are inhibited
b. Yes, ILS frequency and course selector knob are inhibited when below 500 ft AGL
c. Yes, ILS frequency and course selector knob are inhibited when below 200 ft AGL
d. No, below 1000 ft AGL ILS frequency and course selector knob are inhibited Ans. a
Engagement and Operation
Once LAND mode has been armed; both AP can be engaged in CMD.
Note 1
With LAND mode arm and one AP engaged in CMD, the DC bus tie contractor automatically opens in order
to assure an independent electrical power supplies for the AP/FD1 and 2
In case of DC bus tie contractor failure to open the landing capability does not change from CAT2 to CAT3
after the engagement of the second AP and no alert provided
Note 2
Below 700 ft AGL, the ILS frequency and course selector knobs are inhibited.
Note 3
If FPV is used for the approach, FD bars automatically replace the FPV when FLARE mode engages or if a
go-around is initiated. AOM 1.3 p41
If LAND is deselected by pressing the pushbutton a second time, the FD bars flash during 10 sec.

37. Which statement is true, regarding the AP yaw control? Ans. c


a. AP controls the rudder for the whole phase of flight, if engaged
b. AP controls the rudder only when slats are retracted
c. AP controls the rudder only when slats are extended
d. If the engine failure occurs during AP engaged, AP will stabilize the A/C with the rudder without any
crew action

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Yaw control:
In CMD, the AP controls the rudder only when the slats are extended. In straight flight, the AP commands
the rudder deflection to obtain and maintain a zero aileron deflection.
At slats retraction, the rudder is smoothly returned to neutral (in 10 sec, then the AP yaw actuators
declutches).
In case of engine failure, with SRS or GO AROUND mode engaged, the yaw damper immediately reacts to
compensate the lateral asymmetry. The AP yaw actuator takes over to achieve a zero aileron deflection. If
the engine failure occurs with AP engaged (the rudder trim is normally set at 0), the AP stabilizes the aircraft
with rudder. At slat retraction, the crew must maintain the rudder deflection and trim the aircraft manually
with the rudder trim. AOM 1.3P29
38. When can both autopilots be engaged at the same time?
a. CWS mode
b. Land mode
c. Go around mode
d. Both b and c Ans. d
In CWS, only one AP can be engaged at a time. In CMD, two AP’s can be engaged in approach (after
selection of LAND mode) and in go-around.
If one AP is engaged, the engagement of the second AP disengages the first engaged AP (except in CMD
after selection of LAND mode or in GO AROUND mode). AOM 1.3P28
39. What causes the V/S mode to automatically change to LVL/CH mode?
a. ATS reaches full or idle thrust

b. VLS + 5 or VMAX is reached during climb or descent


c. Preset speed is reached during climb or descent
d. New altitude is set during ALT* engaged Ans. b
Mode reversion
To maintain the selected v/s, the speed may:
- Decrease down to VLs+5 kt, in climb, or
- Increase up to Vmax, in descent.
If Vls+5 (in climb) or Vmax (in descent) is reached, an automatic mode reversion from V/S to LVL/CH
occurs.
The mode reversion is indicated by:
- The FMA annunciation,
- The illumination of the LVL/CH pushbutton, and
- The V/S window which becomes ”-“ AOM 1.3P33
40. Will the autopilot disconnect after you applied a constant counteracting force on the control column?
a. Yes, in LAND or GO AROUND mode
b. Yes, at any time regardless of altitude or autopilot mode
c. Yes, at any time but only by applying the push or pull force on the control column
d. No, the autopilot can only be disconnected by the engage/disengage switches or instinctive disconnect
switches on the control wheels Ans. c

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Supervisory control wheel operation:


The supervisory control wheel operation enables the crew to manually assist the autopilot in capturing a
LOC or GS beam or in capturing or tracking a VOR radial. The supervisory control wheel operation
combines the orders and characteristics of the CWS and CMD modes. By smooth inputs on the control
column and control wheel, the crew can temporarily adjust the flight path of the aircraft.
AP actuator override:
The AP roll or yaw actuator is overridden if a force is greater than the given value is applied on the control
wheel or the rudder pedals.
Overriding the AP pitch actuator is not possible. Any attempt to override the AP in pitch results in the
automatic disengagement of the AP.
AP automatic disengagement:
The AP automatically disengages if a force greater than the given value is applied in pitch on the control
column. The AP also automatically disengages if the pitch trim motion is stopped by holding the pitch trim
wheel. AOM 1.3P30
41. What can cause the FD bars to flash?
a. A failure of the respective FD system
b. ALT* condition is lost during a new altitude setting
c. The respective command is invalid
d. The command is not compatible with the autopilot mode Ans. b
FD ROLL & PITCH COMMAND BARS
Blanked when:
- The respective command is invalid.
- The command is not compatible with the engaged autopilot.
Flash when:
- Return to basic mode.
- LAND mode disengages.
- ALT* condition is lost during a new altitude setting. AOM 1.3P18
42. What is the maximum intercept angle for capturing localizer?
a. 115
b. 120
c. 125
d. 130 Ans. a
Note 2
The maximum intercept angle for capturing a localizer is115°.
AOM 1.3P39
43. When will RETARD mode disengage and throttles declutch?
a. V/S mode is selected

b. Throttles retard to idle (5O) in profile mode


c. Throttles retard to idle (5O) in LVL/CH mode
d. FLARE mode engaged during auto land Ans. c

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RETARD mode engagement


- In LVL/CH mode
- During landing when aircraft descent through 30 ft radio height
- In PROFILE mode (P DES) when throttles are fully retracted
RETARD mode disengagement
In LVL/CH mode
- At each time A/THR function disengages.

- When throttle levers retard to idle (5O) position in any AP/FD mode except PROFILE.
AOM 2.3/2P6
- When throttle levers are stopped manually during throttle reduction to obtain the desire thrust.
Note:
In PROFILE descent, RETARD green remains displayed as long as idle thrust is required.
When RETARD is engaged with LVL/CH or PROFILE, the throttles can be manually stopped at any
intermediate position.
When the throttle levers reach idle, or if levers are manually stopped while retarding, RETARD mode
disengages and the ATS declutches (A/THR blue on the FMA). AOM 1.3P24
44. What is the speed limit for using the autopilot to capture the LOC and GS?
a. 210 and 200 kt
b. 200 and 210 kt
c. 200 kt
d. 210 kt Ans. a

AOM 2.3/3P1
45. If your rate of descent is 1500 ft/min, when will you expect the ALT* engage?
a. At 100 ft before selected altitude
b. At 300 ft before selected altitude
c. At 500 ft before selected altitude
d. At 700 ft before selected altitude Ans. c
ALTITUDE ACQUIRE
ALT ACQ mode is armed automatically when the AP/FD is engaged in V/S, LVL/CH, TAKEOFF (SRS), or
GO-AROUND mode.
ALT (blue) → ALT* when ALTITUDE selected – ALTITUDE aircraft = vertical speed / 3 AOM 2.3 P2

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46. When will the V/S mode automatically engage?


a. When a new altitude is selected on the FCU during altitude capture phase
b. When pulling SPD knob during P CLB or P DES mode
c. When pushing LVL/CH button twice during A/C descending in LVL/CH mode
d. When pushing HDG SEL or NAV button during G/A Ans. a
V/S mode engage automatically:
- On the ground, at the AFS power up,
- When on FD is selected ON while no AP is engaged or no FD is displayed,
- If an AP is engage in CMD while its associated FD is not displayed or not operative,
- If any engaged vertical mode (ALT HLD, LVL/CH, PROFILE) is disengaged by pressing its associated
pushbutton a second time.
- If the target altitude is changed during altitude capture (ALT* green) and the new target altitude is
beyond the capture range.
- If LAND mode is deselected, between GS* and LAND green on FMA, or
- When the AP/FD re-engages following an AP/FD temporary disengagement (both FD bars flash for 10
seconds). AOM 1.3 p32
47. After go-around with both AP engaged, which statement is true about AP 2 disengagement?
a. Disengage by manually engage other pitch mode
b. Disengage by manually engage other roll mode
c. Disengage automatically when the aircraft capture the go-around altitude
d. All of above Ans. d
Mode Transitions
An automatic mode transition occurs when the aircraft reaches the go-around altitude, altitude capture
(ALT*) and HDG mode engage.
When go-around mode disengages, AP2 disengages if both AP were engaged.
A manual mode transition occurs if another pitch mode is engaged (V/S. ALT, LVL/CH, ALT* or PROFILE
when in NAV). The SRS mode is annunciated on the FMA.
A manual mode transition occurs if another roll mode is engaged (HDG SEL, NAV). The SRS mode is
annunciated on the FMA.
Note
The V/L and LAND modes must not be used to manually disengage the go-around mode. AOM 1.3 p45
48. What action you must perform if you wish the aircraft to descent automatically with PROFILE mode at T/D Ans. b
point?
a. Set the altitude selector to new altitude
b. Set the altitude selector to new altitude and pull before T/D point
c. Set the altitude selector to new altitude and push the IMM DES prompt at CDU RLSK
d. Set the altitude selector to new altitude and push the knob at T/D point

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Descent is required at T/D point in PROFILE mode


- Set altitude selector to the new altitude and pull
- P DES is armed. AP/FD holds the CRZ altitude until T/D is reached. At 30 sec before T/D, P DES will
flash to indicate that the descent will be initiated without further action.
- IMM DES prompt appears on the FMS CDU F-PLN page.
- Throttles start to retard and A/C starts to descend on the computed path and level off when new altitude
is reached.
- Vertical deviation scale appears on ND/MAP and the VDEV value is displayed on the FMS PROG page
in line 1R. The VDEV indicates the vertical distance between A/C position and the computed descent
path. AOM 1.3 P46
49. When will the yaw bar disappear if you take off from an ILS R/W?
a. At 30 ft radio height
b. At 100 ft radio height
c. After selecting gears up
d. After retracting slats Ans. a
RWY mode (runway)
RWY mode is available if the departure runway ILS/LOC frequency and course are selected and signals are
valid.
The RWY mode engages if the aircraft heading is less than 10O away from the selected ILS/LOC course
when the go-levers are triggered.
In RWY mode, a yaw bar replaces the FD roll bar allowing A/C to be maintained on the localizer beam.
At 30 ft, RWY mode automatically disengages and HDG/S or NAV mode engages if previously armed.
Otherwise, HDG mode engages. FD roll bar displays in view instead of yaw bar.
The RWY mode also disengages if the A/C heading departs by more than 40O from the selected ILS/LOC
course.
HDG/S and HDG mode
If ILS/LOC frequency and course have not been selected, the HDG/S mode engages if previously selected.
Otherwise, HDG mode engages.
If HDG mode is engaged for takeoff, the FD roll bar remains center while on ground. After lift-off, the FD roll
bar provides guidance to maintain existing A/C heading. AOM 1.3 P32
50. If engine trim is inoperative, do not use ATS for takeoff.
a. true
b. false Ans. a

2.1. TAKEOFF ROLL


Taxi into takeoff position at the end of the runway or
at an approved takeoff point. Align the aircraft on or
close to the runway center line.
Caution
The use of autothrottle is prohibited during takeoff if AOM Vol. 2 3.3/2
ENG TRIM/EPR MODE is inoperative P2

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51. With regards to AUTOLAND warning light, which statement is not correct?
a. Flashes below 200 ft, if excessive LOC or GS beam deviation warning is activated
b. Radio altimeter 1&2 reading differ by more than 10 ft during 1 sec (in LAND track phase)
c. Flare duration (starting at 50 ft) is greater than 13.5 sec.
d. Manual disconnect of autopilot Ans. d
LAND mode engages at 400 ft AGL or below provided GS and LOC modes are engaged in tracking phase.

The guidance in LAND green mode is similar to GS green and LOC green.

Once engaged, LAND mode cannot be disengaged except by engaging the GO AROUND mode. LAND
mode engagement is indicated on the FMA only (LAND green).

FLARE mode typically engages at 50 ft RA. Engagement is adjusted as a function of the aircraft vertical
seed. Engagement is indicated on the FMA (FLARE green).

In manual landing, at 30 ft RA, the FD roll bar is replaced by the yaw bar.

Rollout mode engages at main landing gear touchdown and is annunciated on the FMA.

When roll-out mode engages, the A/THR disengages (MAN THR on FMA)
AOM 1.3P42
52. With regards to the AUTOLAND function (both AP engaged), which statement is not true?
a. At 400 ft., land track phase engages provided LOC and GS track have been engaged for more than 10
sec.
b. At 50 ft., flare mode engages
c. At 30 ft., yaw bar comes in view
d. At touch down, retard mode and A/THR function disengage, ROLLOUT phase engages Ans. c
- Engage second AP when stabilized on the GS beam, GS track phase engages automatically.
- At 400 ft, land track phase engages provided LOC and GS track have been engaged in tracking phase.
- At 50 ft, flare mode engages.

- At 30 ft, align maneuver starts (the yaw bar comes in view if no AP is in CMD), ATS also retards the
throttle levers to idle (5o).
- At touch down, retard mode and A/THR function disengage ROLLOUT phase engages. AOM 1.3P41-42
53. What does it mean, if you see the LOC deviation index and scale flashing on the PFD?
a. LOC deviate more than 0.3 dot
b. LOC deviate more than half full scale
c. LOC deviate more than 1 dot
d. LOC failure Ans. a
LOC DEVIATION WARNING DISPLAY
Index and scale FLASH.
Indicates excessive LOC beam deviation (> 1/3 dot) if LAND mode selected and LOC track engaged with
CAT 2 or CAT 3 landing capability indicated on FMA.
Inhibited below 15-ft radio height. AOM 1.3P18

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54. What is the limitation of APU starter motor duty cycle?


a. After 3-duty cycles of 70 seconds each, separated by one minute cool-down, 60 min. must be allowed
for cool-down.
b. After 3-duty cycles of 30 seconds each, separated by one minute cool-down, 60 min. must be allowed
for cool-down.
c. After 3-duty cycles of 70 seconds each, separated by one minute cool-down, 120 min. must be allowed
for cool-down.
d. After 3-duty cycles of 30 seconds each, separated by one minute cool-down, 120 min. must be allowed
for cool-down. Ans. a

1.7 STARTER MOTOR DUTY CYCLE


After 3-duty cycles of 70 seconds each, separated by
one minute cool-down, 60 min must be allowed for
cool-down. AOM 2.4 p2
55. How does the APU control the constant speed of its turbine?
a. By varying air flow through the compressor
b. By varying pneumatic load by modulating Inlet Guide Vanes.
c. By varying fuel flow by Fuel Control Unit (FCU) and the Electric Control Box (ECB)
d. By varying speed of the accessory gear box Ans. c
The APU engine is composed of three main components:
- The power section has a two-stage centrifugal compressor driven by a three-stage axial turbine
governed to a constant speed by variation of fuel flow which is controlled by the fuel control unit (FCU)
and the electric control box (ECB).
- The load compressor has a single-stage centrifugal compressor directly driven by the power section
and delivers bleed air to the aircraft pneumatic system, controlled by modulating Inlet Guide Vanes
(IGV).
- The accessory gearbox is directly driven by the power section and carries the fuel control unit,
lubrication pump, AC generator, cooling air fan and starter motor. AOM 1.4P1
56. What is the function of APU surge valve?
a. To open or close APU air bleed to the pneumatic system
b. To ensure sufficient air bleed from the APU to the pneumatic system and maintain an adequate surge
margin
c. To control the APU exhaust gas
d. To control that APU RPM increases during engine start and anti-ice operation Ans. b
APU BLEED AIR SYSTEM
The bleed air, delivered by the APU load compressor, is ducted to the aircraft pneumatic system via the
APU bleed valve which can be controlled by the APU bleed switch on the overhead panel if the APU is
running more 95% RPM. A surge valve, installed between the compressor and the APU load control valve,
ensures that sufficient air is diverted from the load compressor to maintain an adequate surge margin.
When no bleed air is required (APU bleed valve closed), the air is route via the surge valve to the APU
exhaust. If bleed air is required, the surge valve is closed or modulates depending on the bleed demand.
For extension bleed air demand during engine start and anti-ice operation, the APU RPM is increase. AOM 1.4P2

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57. When can you read the after landing checklist “APU……..STARTED”?
a. The ON white light on the START p/b comes on
b. The blue ACCEL light comes on
c. The blue AVAIL light comes on
d. The blue ACCEL light goes off and the blue AVAIL light comes on Ans. d
The APU is started by a DC starter motor, which is fed by DC ESS bus. The APU can be started after the
fuel pump LOW PR light has gone out.
Selecting the master switch to ON arms the starting circuit. When the START p/b is pushed, the automatic
start sequence being as follows:
- The white ON light in the START p/b comes on.
- The blue ACCEL light comes on after air intake flap has fully opened and the starter is engaged.
- At 7% RPM, the ignition is initiated and fuel is supplied.
- At 50% RPM, the starter disengages and the white ON light in the START p/b goes off.
- At 95% RPM, the ignition is terminated, the blue ACCEL light goes off and the blue AVAIL light comes
on. AOM 1.4P2
58. What will cause the APU RPM to increase to 102.5%?
a. START p/b selected on
b. APU bleed switch selected on

c. APU bleed switch selected on and OAT > 35O C


d. Wing anti-ice supply p/b selected on Ans. d
The electronic control box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital electronic APU controller that performs
the bulk of the APU system logic for all modes of engine operation including self-testing, shutdown
protection and continuous monitoring of essential APU parameters as follows:
- Sequence of starting and shutdown
- Monitoring of starting, RPM, EGT and bleed air
- Automatic shutdown
Speed is monitoring according to bleed air demand.
 APU BLEED SW OFF = 100 %RPM
 START P/B selected on = 101.4 %RPM

 APU BLEED SW ON (OAT< 32o) = 100 %RPM


 APU BLEED SW ON (OAT> 35o) = 101.4 %RPM
 Wing anti-ice supply selected ON = 102.5 %RPM AOM 1.4P3
59. Which statement is not true when an APU fire is detected on ground? Ans. a
a. Fire extinguisher bottle is discharged immediately
b. The cockpit APU fire handle illuminated
c. The APU fire shutoff valve and the isolation valve closed
d. Red light on the nose gear illuminated and the horn is activated simultaneously

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To permit APU ground operation without constant supervision, the normal automatic shutdown system is
complemented by an automatic fire extinguishing system. If an APU fire is detected by the fire detection
circuits, the cockpit APU fire warning a red light on the nose gear bay and the horn are activated
simultaneously. At the same time an automatic APU shutdown is initiated. The fuel fire shutoff valve and the
isolation valve close.
After a ten second delay, the fire extinguisher bottle is discharged. AOM 1.4P3
O
60. When selected the APU MASTER SW to OFF, after a time delay, you will notice the EGT rises above 585
C momentarily before APU shutdown.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
APU EGT INDICATION (on ECAM APU page)
Normally green, but flashes if EGT exceeds 540 O C and turns amber if EGT exceeds 585 O C.
An overlimit is displayed during APU shutdown when the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, independent
of the real EGT value. AOM 1.4P12
61. What is the altitude limit for APU start during flight with engine generator?
a. 15000 ft
b. 20000 ft
c. 25000 ft
d. 40000 ft
Ans. d

AOM 2.4P1
62. What is the altitude limit for APU to supply one pack with the wing anti-ice and to supply both packs?
a. 15000 ft / 20000 ft
b. 20000 ft / 25000 ft
c. 15000 ft in both cases
d. 20000 ft in both cases Ans. a

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AOM 2.4P1
63. What the minimum oil quantity for APU operation?
a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 3/4 Ans. a

AOM 2.4P1
64. How do you set the air condition system before takeoff if you desired to use APU bleed to supply pack
together with wing anti-ice?
a. APU bleed ON
b. APU bleed and wing anti-ice ON
c. APU bleed and wing anti-ice ON, one pack OFF
d. APU bleed and wing anti-ice ON, both pack OFF Ans. c
APU is capable of supplying electrical power simultaneously with both packs or one pack + wing anti-ice

AOM 2.4P1
AIR CONDITIONING…………………..SET
If FLX TO temp is 40O C or less, select both packs off. APU may be used to supply the packs. If APU bleed AOM VOL 2
is used and wing anti-ice is required, one pack must be selected off. 3.2/2 p9
65. Which statement is correct in regards to the PARKING checklist “BATTERIES….SET”?
a. Set battery switches to OFF
b. Leaves battery switches to ON
c. Set battery switches to OFF only if the flight is terminated
d. Set battery switches to OFF if the flight is terminated and the APU is shutdown Ans. d
PARKING CHECKLIST
18. BATTERIES………SET AOM VOL 2
Set battery switches to OFF provided APU is shutdown. 3.2/2 p13

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66. Which statement is not true regarding HF communication?


a. Both receivers are able to operate simultaneously
b. Both HF systems are able to transmit simultaneously
c. There is only one antenna for both HF systems
d. HF can be operated in amplitude modulation (AM) and single side band (SSB) Ans. b
Two HF systems allow a two-way long-range communication. The use of duplicated coupler in the tuning
system permits simultaneous operation of both receivers, although only one transmitter can be operated at
a time and both receivers will be muted.
The two HF transceivers are located in the avionics compartment. Two antenna couplers and one antenna
are all located in the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer. AOM 1.5/1P1
67. Do not tune or transmit on an HF system during fueling since fire and/or personnel injury may result.
a. True
b. False Ans. a

AOM 2.5P1
68. For an aircraft equipped with the operational ACARS system, VHF COM 3 cannot be used for voice
communication.
a. True
b. False Ans. a

AOM 2.5P1
69. What does the ACARS message “NO COMM” mean?
a. VHF COM 3 failure
b. ACARS failure
c. ACARS is unable to send the downlink massage
d. Ground station does not acknowledge the downlink message Ans. d
DOWNLINK
Downlinks require the ground acknowledgement, which is generated by the ground station upon receipt of
an error-free downlink. The MU retransmits the message if it does not receive the acknowledgement within
15-25 sec. If the MU does not receive any response after 5 retransmission (6 downlinks total), the MU will
enter “NO COMM” condition and provides an alert to the flight crew. The message may be saved for
transmission at a later time. The MU will not attempt to transmit further downlinks, except for link test, until it
exists the “NO COMM” condition.
On receipt of the acknowledgement, the MU clears the message from its memory. AOM 1.5/8P3

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70. On the ACARS main menu, what is the purpose of the SITUATION prompt?
a. To request for the ground assistance due to A/C malfunction
b. To be used when A/C is hi-jacked
c. To be used when A/C has an emergency
d. To communicate with the dispatch office Ans. b
ACARS SITUATION REPORT page
The situation report downlink message is formatted and encoded as hi-jack message. Thus, this report can
be sent if only the aircraft is hi-jacked. The downlink message may cause an alarm to the network controller
and the airline dispatch. AOM 1.5/8P23
71. On the OOOI (out-off-on-in) STATUS, when does the OUT event occur?
a. A/C movement
b. A/C starts to taxing
c. First engine is started
d. A/C becomes airborne Ans. a
ACARS OOOI STATUS
OUT:
Time displayed when the A/C has left the terminal but not yet airborne. (i.e. first aircraft movement and all
doors closed)
OFF:
Time displayed when the A/C becomes airborne. (i.e. strut switch = air)
ON:
Time displayed when the A/C has landed. (i.e. strut switch = ground)
IN:
Time displayed when the A/C is at the terminal. (i.e. at least one door opened) AOM 1.5/8P24
72. What is the purpose of ICSD?
a. Controls the AC generator to produce the constant voltage
b. Converts the variable engine RPM to produce output at a constant speed
c. Converts the variable engine RPM to produce output at a constant AC voltage
d. To connect or disconnect the corresponding generator from the electrical system by means of IDG
disconnect P/B Ans. b
INTEGRATED CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE (IDG)
The ICSD converts the variable engine accessory gearbox speed (about 4500 to 9075 RPM) to provide a
constant AC generator rotation speed (12000 RPM). Generator frequency is, therefore, maintained at 400 ±
4 HZ. A disconnect mechanism permits disconnection of the ICSD from the engine at any time.
Reengagement is possible on ground only when the engine is stopped. Oil temperature in the ICSD is
monitored through ECAM. AOM 1.6P1

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73. Which statement is true regarding the ICSD?


a. To disconnect the ICSD, push the IDG disconnect P/B for more than 3 sec
a. ICSD is separate from engine driven generator
b. ICSD is not a part of APU generator

c. ICSD temperature indicates amber on ECAM when temperature > 100O C Ans. c
APU drives an identical generator kept at constant speed by the APU speed control system
AOM 1.6P1
74. What does not happen automatically as a consequence of GEN fault?
a. The transfer contractor 1 and/or 2 are closed
b. The fault generator’s line contractor is opened
c. ECAM activated
d. GCU reset the faulty generator and returns the generator to normal operation Ans. d
GEN P/B
The P/B switch controls:
- The operation of the generator field and the generator line contractor closure.
- The rearming of the protection system after failure.
FAULT (amber):
The fault light comes on in the event of: -
- A protection trip initiated by the associated generator control unit (GCU). The line contractor
automatically opens.
- An opening of a line contractor except after one of the following manual actions:

 GEN P/B switch selected OFFR.


 Both OVRD SUPPLY 1 and 2 P/B switches selected ON.
Illumination of the FAULT light is accompanies by ECAM activation.
The failed generator field is deenergized and the corresponding line contractor is opened.
The transfer contractor 1 and/or 2 are closed and the affected AC BUS is automatically supplied by the APU
generator if operating or the remaining generator. AOM 1.6P8
75. Condition: Engine No. 2 and APU are running.
Which generator supplies AC BUS 1?
a. GEN 1
b. GEN 2
c. APU GEN
d. GEN 2 or APU GEN whichever comes first on the transfer line Ans. c
When both APU generator and external power are available, the external power has priority. The main
generators have priority over the APU generator or external power for the associated bus, but have less
priority on the opposite bus. AOM 1.6P2

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76. Condition: External power is connected to the aircraft and the AVAIL light illuminates.
How can you turn on the cabin lighting without operating any aircraft avionics system?
a. Press the external power P/B on the overhead panel to ON
b. Press the external power P/B on the overhead panel to ON, switch off AC BUS 1 and 2
c. Turn on the maintenance bus switch
d. It is not possible to operate the cabin lighting separately from the A/C system Ans. c
When external power is connected to the aircraft (AVAIL light on) but not supplying the aircraft (ON light off),
the service buses can be supplied by selecting the MAINT BUS switch located on the forward cabin circuit
breaker panel to ON.
The switch is magnetically latched if the external power electrical parameters are normal (as long as the
AVAIL light is on in the EXT PWR P/B).
- AC GROUND / FLIGHT BUS and AC GROUND BUS are directly supplied.
- DC GROUND / FLIGHT BUS and DC GROUND BUS are supplied through TR 2. AOM 1.6P2
Lighting, cargo doors operation, cargo loading, and refueling are operative. AOM 1.6P11
77. In flight and one generator fails, which the AC BUS supplies the main and secondary galley?
a. Main galley is supplied by AC BUS 1 and 2, secondary galley is supplied by AC BUS 1
b. Main galley is supplied by AC BUS 1, secondary is supplied by AC BUS 2
c. Main galley is supplied by AC BUS 1 and 2, secondary is automatically shed
d. Main galley is automatically shed, secondary galley is supplied by AC BUS 1 Ans. d
GALLEY P/B
If the external power is not available:
- When two generators are operating, the main galley is supplied by the AC BUS 1 and 2; the secondary
galley is supplied by the AC BUS 1 only
- When both transfer contractor 1 and 2 close, which occurs if only one generator supplies the whole
electrical network, the main galley is automatically shed and only the secondary galley is supplied by
the AC BUS 1.
If an overload is detected after the automatic shedding of the main galley:
- In flight, the secondary galley electrical supply remains on.
- On ground, the secondary galley is no longer electrically supplied.
If the external power is available and coupled:
- Both transfer contractor 1 and 2 are closed but the main galley and secondary galley are electrically
supplied. AOM 1.6P8
78. What should you do if the GEN HI light (amber) on the GALLEY P/B illuminates during the flight? Ans. a
a. Manually shed the galley by momentarily pushing the GALLEY P/B
b. Manually shed the galley by momentarily pushing the GALLEY P/B, but the secondary galley will never
shed, only the main galley does
c. Nothing to do because both galley will automatically shed
d. Inform the cabin crew to shut down the galley equipment

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GALLEY P/B
SHED: The light comes on when the main galley and the secondary galley are no longer supplied.
The shedding may be performed:
- Manually by action on the galley P/B.
- Automatically on ground any time the load of any generator is above the white arc on the AC load
indicator.
GEN HI (amber): The light comes on when the load of any generator is above the white arc on the AC load
indicator.
This may occur when only one generator is supplying the entire electrical load of the aircraft and the
automatic shedding of the main galley has failed. AOM 1.6P8
79. In flight, if AC BUS 1 off light comes on along with AC ESS OFF light, what action should you do to recover
AC ESS BUS?
a. Switch off all equipment that are affected by AC BUS 1
b. If GEN 1 is available, select the OVRD SUPPLY 1 P/B to ON
c. Switch off GEN 1, so that the GEN 2 will take over and recover the AC BUS 1
d. Nothing, because it would be only sub bus of AC BUS 1 failure Ans. b
- AC BUS 1 normally supplied by GEN 1
- AC BUS 2 normally supplied by GEN 2
- AC ESS BUS normally supplied by AC BUS 1 through the essential transfer contractor 1 and can be
connected upstream of the line contractor to the engine driven generator 1 or 2, via essential transfer
contractors using AC ESS BUS OVRD SUPPLY P/B switches in case of BUS 1 or 2 failure. AOM 1.6P4
80. Which is correct procedure for disconnect IDG (TAK-Z)?
a. Push to disconnect IDG for 3 sec.
b. Push to disconnect IDG not more than 3 sec.
c. Push to disconnect IDG for more than 3 sec
d. Release disconnect push button as soon as the GEN FAULT light illuminates Ans. d
IDG……………………..DISCONNECT
- The PUSH TO DISC IDG push button switch must be released as soon as the GEN FAULT light
illuminates.
NOTE
- If the DISC position is maintained for more than 3 seconds, damage to the disconnect solenoid may
occur.
AOM VOL 2 EM
Checklist 6.21
81. Which statement is true regarding the OVRD SUPPLY P/B?
a. Connects AC ESS BUS to the respective GEN when one of the two P/B’s is pressed
b. When OVRD SUPPLY P/B is pressed, AC ESS BUS and AC BUS 2 are supplied directly by GEN 2
c. When both OVRD SUPPLY P/B’s are pressed, AC ESS BUS is supplied by GEN 2
d. When both OVRD SUPPLY P/B’s are pressed, AC ESS BUS is supplied by GEN 1 in case of GEN 2
failure Ans. a

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OVRD SUPPLY P/B


These P/B switches have two functions
- When one of the two P/B’s is pressed:
 The ON light illuminates white and the flow bar is visible to indicate connection between the AC
ESS BUS and respective GEN.
 This configuration is used when automatic supply of AC ESS BUS is inoperative.
- When both P/B’s are pressed in simultaneously:
 Both ON lights come on white
 The AC ESS BUS is directly supplied by GEN 1 and both line contractors 1 and 2 are open.
 Switching over to GEN 2 is automatic if the supply from GEN 1 becomes inoperative.
AOM 1.6P9
82. Since there is no warning light on the overhead panel that indicates the lost of AC EMER BUS, how do you
confirm that AC EMER BUS is lost? (for TAC-TAZ)
a. By right ECAM indication
b. By the master caution light illuminating
c. By the illumination of CAB PRESS REG 1 FAULT together with SLAT SYS 2 FAULT
d. By the lost of LP PFD Ans. c
- The ELEC/AC page on right ECAM CRT will not appear atomically.
- The AC EMER BUS failure can be identified by the illumination of CAB PRESS REG 1 FAULT light and
SLAT SYS 2 FAULT light
- If these two lights are not illuminating together, check if AC BUS 2 OFF light is illuminated (which AOM VOL 2
indicates failure of AC BUS 2). If AC BUS 2 OFF light is not illuminated, the warning comes from the
failure of one FWC. EM Checklist
- The AC EMER BUS OFF warning may be caused by a failure in a sub- BUS. 6.10
83. What conditions cause the STBY GEN to start automatically? (600R)
a. DC NORM BUS OFF and DC ESS ON BAT.
b. DC NORM BUS OFF, DC ESS ON BAT, and GREEN HYD is available
c. DC NORM BUS OFF, DC ESS ON BAT, the line contractor 2 open, and GREEN HYD is available
d. DC NORM BUS OFF, DC ESS ON BAT, the line contractor 2 open, GREEN HYD is available, and
aircraft in flight Ans. d
STANDBY GENERATOR
AC/DC standby generator is achieved by a generator, driven at a constant speed by a hydraulic motor
powered by green system.
The standby generator will operate automatically only in flight when DC ESS BUS is on BAT, DC NORM
BUS is OFF and line contractor 2 is opened provide the green hydraulic is available. AOM 1.6P7
84. What part of AC BUS would the standby generator supply to, if the standby generator were running? (600R) Ans. c
a. AC ESS BUS
b. AC ESS BUS 1
c. AC ESS BUS 2
d. AC EMER BUS

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For aircraft with standby generator, the AC ESS BUS is divided into two parts: the AC ESS BUS 1 and AC
ESS BUS 2. The AC ESS BUS 1 is supplied normally by AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS 2 by AC ESS BUS 1.
But in standby generator mode, the AC ESS BUS 2 will be switched to connect to the standby generator. AOM 1.6P4
85. What will happen if you push the STBY GEN to OVRD (P/B in) on ground? (600R)
a. STBY GEN will run for 2 minutes (ground test)
b. STBY GEN will run for the rest of the flight
c. STBY GEN is armed and will operate in flight
d. STBY GEN will not operate on ground Ans. a
STBY GEN P/B
AUTO: Automatic starting is activated when these conditions are met:
- DC NORM BUS OFF
- The line contractor 2 open
- BAT OVRD P/B not ON
- Green hydraulic power available
- DC ESS ON BAT, and
- Aircraft in flight
OVRD: The STBY GEN is forced to run as soon as the following conditions are met:
- BAT OVRD P/B is not on
- Green hydraulic power available
If forced starting has been initiated:
- In flight, STBY GEN will continue to run to after landing
- On ground, STBY GEN will run for 2 minutes (ground test) AOM 1.6P11
86. How can you confirm the operation of STBY GEN? (600R)
a. DC NORM BUS OFF extinguished
b. DC ESS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights illuminated
c. DC ESS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights extinguished
d. STBY GEN ON light illuminated Ans. c
STBY GEN operation confirm by: AOM VOL 2
- DC ESS ON BAT………………………………………Extinguished EM Checklist
- AC EMER ON INV…………………………………….Extinguished 6.2,6.3
87. Condition: STBY GEN operates. Ans. d
During APU starts sequence, what is the electrical source supplying the DC ESS BUS? (600R)
a. STBY GEN DC channel
b. DC ESS BUS
c. DC NORM BUS
d. BATTERIES

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Check of APU MASTER switch to OFF is requested to confirm operation of standby generator (performed AOM VOL 2
by checking that DC ESS BUS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights are extinguished). Indeed with APU
MASTER switch set to ON and APU N < 60% during STBY GEN operation, DC ESS BUS is supplied by EM Checklist
batteries and therefore DC ESS ON BAT light is illuminated.
6.2,6.3
88. When land mode armed on FCU and Both AP engaged which ELEC source supply DC ESS BUS?
a. DC NORM BUS
b. Battery
c. AC ESS BUS via ESS TR
d. Both b. and c. are correct Ans. d
With LAND mode armed on FCU and both AP engaged, connects the batteries to the DC ESS BUS to
increase the reliability of the autopilot ‘s power supply for CAT 3 operations.
AOM 1.6 p2
With LAND mode armed and both AP engaged in CMD, the DC bus tie contractor automatically opens in
order to assure an independent electrical power supplies for the AP/FD 1and2
In case of DC bus tie contractor failure to open, the landing capability does not change form CAT 2 to CAT 3
after the engagement of the second AP and no alert provided. AOM 1.3 p41
89. What does not cause the DC BUS TIE contractor to open?
a. DC ESS BUS loses power
b. DC NORM BUS loses power
c. Both AP engaged in CMD and LAND mode is selected
d. Reverse current from DC ESS BUS to DC NORM BUS Ans. a
The DC BUS TIE contractor control is fully automatic and will open according to the following logic:
- Loss of electrical supplies to the DC NORM BUS, from both AC BUS 1 and 2.
- When both AP engaged in CMD and LAND mode is selected.
- When reverse current is detected in the direction DC ESS BUS / DC NORM BUS (DC ESS BUS
supplying DC NORM BUS) is more than 60 A. AOM 1.6P5
90. What action will cause the batteries to connect to the DC ESS BUS?
a. APU starting
b. BATT OVRD P/B is selected to ON
c. Both AP in CMD and LAND mode is selected
d. All of above Ans. d
The batteries will be connected to the DC ESS BUS under these conditions:
- For APU starting
- As a back up power when the DC ESS voltage drops below 25 V
- For battery charging if the battery voltage drops
- When both autopilots are engaged and LAND mode is selected AOM 1.6P9

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91. Which statement is true after selecting BATT OVRD P/B to ON?
a. Batteries flow bar are invisible
b. The battery overheat detection is inhibited
c. Batteries are isolated from the DC ESS BUS
d. DC BUS TIE contractor is closed Ans. b
BATT OVRD P/B
The P/B allows overriding the battery charge controller unit by forcing all battery line contractors to close.
The battery charge controllers are overridden and all battery line contractors are closed. The battery
overheat detection is inhibited. AOM 1.6P10
92. Which statement is not the function of the charge controller unit (CCU)?
a. Restore the DC ESS BUS in case normal supply has failed
b. Control battery charging
c. Detect the battery over current
d. Detect the battery overheat Ans. c
During normal operation, the batteries are constantly charged by the Charge Controller Unit (CCU). The
CCU automatically opens or closed the associated battery contractor in such a manner as to keep the
battery charged for its function as back up power for the DC ESS BUS.
The main functions of the CCU are to:
- Automatically restore the essential DC network when normal supply has failed, by closure of the three
battery contractors.
- Control battery charging.
- Detect overheat of battery. AOM 1.6P2
93. How do you know which battery triggered the BAT OVHT light on the overhead panel?
a. By ECAM activation
b. By seeing which batter’s flow bar is invisible
c. By turning of all batteries and turn them on one by one
d. By checking the DC volt indicator on the overhead panel Ans. b
BAT OVHT activation is an indication that an excess charge rate has been detected by the battery charge AOM VOL 2
limiter which, if not corrected, could lead to an increase in battery temperature.
EM Checklist
The affected battery is automatically disconnected and the corresponding flow bar is extinguished.
6.13
94. Which equipment is not operative when all battery P/B switches are selected to OFF? Ans. d
a. Clock time bases
b. The refueling system in battery mode
c. The extinguisher cartridges (engines and cargo)
d. The APU fire protection

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With battery P/B switches OFF, the following equipment is still powered;
- Clock time bases
- The extinguisher cartridges (engines and cargo)
- The refueling system in battery mode
- IRS 1, 2 and 3 AOM1.6 p2
95. Which equipment is still operative after ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch is selected in SHED? (TAA-TAF)
a. The minimum equipment bay
b. Only the equipment connected to the AC ESS BUS
c. Only the equipment connected to the AC EMER BUS
d. Only the equipment connected to the DC ESS BUS Ans. a
SMOKE DRILL
If smoke from an electrical source is detected, the procedure is to shed all bus and retain only some of the
essential loads.
With OVRD SUPPLY 1 and 2 P/B’s ON. The AC ESS BUS will be connected directly to the generator 1 with
generator 2 standing by and all AC BUS 1 and 2, DC NORM BUS power supply will be cut off.
With ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch in SHED, AC ESS BUS, AC EMER BUS and DC ESS BUS supply only
a small part of their equipment installed in the smoke proof box in the minimum equipment bay is still
operative. AOM 1.6P6
96. How long can the batteries supply the DC ESS BUS (DC ESS ON BAT light illuminated)? (TAA-TAF)
a. 26 min
b. 38 min
c. 45 min
d. 1:45 hrs Ans. c
NORM BAT ENDURANCE: 45 MIN AOM VOL 2
Battery endurance is based on batteries supplying the DC ESS BUS only (AC EMER BUS remains supplied EM Checklist
from AC ESS BUS).
6.18
97. How long can the batteries supply the whole aircraft system?
a. 26 min with 2 APU start attempts
b. 38 min with 2 APU start attempts
c. 38 min without APU start, 26 min with 2 APU start attempts
d. 45 min Ans. c

AOM 2.6P1

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98. How do you restore some parts of DC NORM BUS in case DC NORM BUS OFF light came on?
a. Pull out all CB’s in the minimum equipment bay (shade area)
b. Select LAND RECOVERY P/B switch to on
c. Select ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch to SHED
d. Select BAT OVRD to on Ans. b
LAND RECOVERY P/B
Allows restoring electrical supply to some equipment which had been isolated by:
- action on both OVRD SUPPLY P/B, or
- Loss of all normal electrical supply (battery only configuration) AOM 1.6P10
99. At what altitude are the oxygen masks automatically presented in the cabin?
a. 9500 ft

b. 9500 ± 350 ft
c. 11000 ft
d. 14000ft (+ 0, - 500ft) Ans. d
PASSENGER OXYGEN SYSTEM
The oxygen masks rest unsecured on the inside of the module door and free fall when the door is opened.
The user shall position the mask to cover mouth and nose to breathe.
The oxygen masks are automatically presented whenever cabin altitude exceeds 14000ft (+ 0, - 500ft). The
flight deck crew can override the automatic control. AOM1.7/1P1
100. How can you confirm that the oxygen masks have already dropped in the cabin in case of decompression?
a. By the ECAM SD (PRESS) page
b. By the ECAM MEMO page
c. By the illumination of the OXYGEN SYS ACTUATED light on the overhead panel
d. By checking with the cabin attendant Ans. c
Passenger oxygen masks drop automatically and OXYGEN SYS ACTUATED light illuminates green when AOM VOL 2
cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft.
EM Checklist
Confirm system activation by selecting the OXYGEN PASSENGER guarded switch to MAN OVRD.
2.1
101. What is the normal setting position for the quick donning mask (for cockpit crew) dilute demand regulator? Ans. b
a. N (normal)
b. 100%
c. N or 100% as desired
d. Emergency pressure position

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N / 100% SELECTOR
The mask delivers 100% oxygen. The system is automatically locked in this position.
The mask delivers diluted oxygen when cabin altitude is below 35000 ft and 100% oxygen above 35000 ft.
This configuration is obtained by pressing simultaneously UNLOCK lever and N / 100% selector.
EMERGENCY PRESSURE SELECTOR
When pressed, a momentarily overpressure is generated.
When turned in the arrow direction, a permanent overpressure generated. AOM1.7/1P5
Set N / 100% manual control to 100% AOM VOL 2
3.2/2 p4
102. Which light in the cockpit will remain illuminated if only the batteries are supplying the aircraft systems?
a. Cockpit dome light
b. Aft right cockpit dome light only
c. Storm light
d. Overhead panels light Ans. b
FLIGHT DECK EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM
The captain and center instrument panels use the same lights powered by DC ESS BUS. This emergency
lighting is automatically activated in case of a complete normal AC power loss. The intensity of these lights
is then no more adjustable.
The aft right DOME light is available when aircraft batteries only supply electrical power. AOM1.7/2P1
103. Conditions: A/C’s electrical system is normal, EMER EXIT LT SELECTOR in DISARM position.
After you enter the A/C, you found the floor path markings were illuminated, why?
a. EMER P/B on the purser panel is pressed
b. DC ESS BUS is lost
c. Emergency lighting system has failed
d. It is the normal condition while A/C is on ground Ans. a
The electrical power for this system is supplied from DC ESS BUS or from integral batteries in emergency
power supply units.
Batteries are charged from AC NORM BUS. The battery capacity provides approx 12 minutes of
illumination.
Cabin ceiling lights exit signs and floor path markings automatically illuminate when:
- EMER EXIT LT selector is selected to ON
- Automatically if EMER EXIT LT selector is at ARM and the DC power supply fails
- EMER P/B on the purser panel is pressed
- The cabin is in excessive decompression. AOM1.7/2P1

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104. After you enter the A/C, you found the EXIT signs do not illuminate, which switch in the cockpit do you
suspect to be OFF?
a. EMER EXIT LT selector
b. FASTEN SEAT BELT switch
c. NO SMOKING switch
d. Battery switch Ans. c
Exit signs automatically illuminates when no smoking switch is ON or AUTO with landing gear extended. AOM1.7/2P1
105. How “Emergency oxygen” operation duration calculates from?
a. Decompression at Fl 350, one minute delay, descent to Fl 100 in 9 min then continuation of flight at Fl
100.
b. Decompression at high altitude, one minute delay, descent to Fl 100 in 9 min then continuation of flight
at Fl 100.
c. Decompression at Fl 350, one minute delay, descent to Fl 140 in 9 min then continuation of flight at Fl
100.
d. Decompression at Fl 350, one minute delay, descent to Fl 140 in 9 min then continuation of flight at Fl
100 Ans. b

AOM 2.7 p1
106. Which cabin doors have no pneumatic assist for opening in emergency mode (slide armed)?
a. Door 1 L and R
b. Door 2 L and R
c. Door 3 L and R
d. Door 4 L and R Ans. c
CABIN DOORS
There are six passenger doors (type A) and two emergency exit doors (type 1). The doors can be operated
from inside or outside.
NORMAL mode
The doors are opened and closed manually.
EMERGENCY mode
Emergency mode is selected by placing SLIDE ARMING LEVER to ARMED position. In this mode, the
doors are opened pneumatically (type A doors) or manually (type 1 doors). An escape slide or slide/raft
installed in each door is automatically deployed and inflated when the door is opened.
The type A doors are equipped with dual lane escape slides/rafts, type 1 with single lane escape slides. AOM1.7/5P2
107. After ditching, do the slides/rafts inflate if the water is at the same level as the doorsill? Ans. b
a. Yes
b. No

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A slide/raft pack must drop down a min of 15 cm to actuate automatic inflation. The slide/raft may not inflate
automatically if the pack falls on the water, which has the same level with the doorsill. For this case, a
manual inflation handle must be pulled when the slide/raft pack has dropped below the door threshold. AOM1.7/5P5
108. How many HALON and WATER fire extinguishers are there in the cabin?
a. 3 and 2 respectively
b. 5 and 2 respectively
c. 5 and 3 respectively Ans. a
d. 3 and 3 respectively

AOM1.7/4P1,2
109. How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for the engines and APU?
a. Two bottles for each engine, one bottle for APU
b. Two bottles for both engines, one bottle for APU
c. Two bottles for each engine, and two bottles for APU
d. Two bottles for both engines, and two bottles for APU Ans. a
Each engine and APU are equipped with two independent fire detection loops, which respond to
temperature change. Two fire extinguisher bottles are provided for each engine, one bottle is provided for
the APU. AOM1.8P1
110. What condition will not cause the fire warning to activate?
a. A fire signal on both loop A and B
b. A fire signal on one loop, while the other loop selected off
c. A fault signal on one loop
d. A fault signal on both loops within a time limit Ans. c
A fire warning is activated when:
- A fire signal is generated from both loop A and loop B.
- A fire signal is generated from one loop if the other loop is selected off.
- A fault signal is generated by both loops. AOM1.8P1
111. The engine fire warning can be generated with both loops selected off.
a. True
b. False Ans. a

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LOOP A AND B P/B


ON: The fire detection unit of the related loop is activated for fire detection.
OFF: The fire detection unit of the related loop is deactivated, accompanied by ECAM.
LOOP A/B : Light comes on, accompanied by ECAM , when
- The loop is engaged (on) and a fire overheat is detected.
- A loop test is performed to indicate a successful test.
- The control unit detects a fault signal.
Light goes out when the respective ENG FIRE handle is pulled.
The engine fire warning is also activated when both loop A and B are selected OFF and the fire detection
control unit generates a fire or a fault signal related to both LOOP A and LOOP B. AOM1.8P10
112. Which statement is true after you pulled the ENG fire handle and a fire still persists?
a. The aural warning is activated
b. The loop lights are illuminated
c. The ENG FIRE handle light is illuminated
d. If the fuel lever is still on, the light is extinguished Ans. c
Pulling the ENG FIRE handle will shut off fuel and hydraulic fluid supply, close the appropriate bleed air
valves, deactivate engine generator, silence aural warning, extinguish LOOP lights, illuminate SQUIB lights
and arm the corresponding AGENT P/B.
The ENG FIRE handle light and ECAM warning remain on as long as fire warning persists. The fuel lever
HP VALVE light remains on until the lever is selected off or the fire warning disappears. AOM1.8P2
113. Which valve is not electrically closed, with regards to the pneumatic system, after pulling the ENG FIRE
handle?
a. ENG bleed valve
b. Pneumatic high pressure (HP) bleed valve
c. Wing anti-ice valve (if engaged)
d. Both ENG anti-ice valve Ans. d
Pulling the ENG FIRE handle electrically closes the associated:
- Engine fuel LP valve.
- Hydraulic fire shutoff valve.
- Pneumatic high pressure (HP) valve, bleed valve and cross feed valve.
- Wing anti-ice valve (When engaged)
- Air conditioning pack valve
In addition, it deactivates the generator, silences the aural warning, reset the LOOP lights, illuminates the
associated SQUIB lights and arms the AGENT discharge P/B’s.
The engine anti-ice valve will be closed due to loss of pneumatic supply. AOM1.8P10

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114. Which source will not cause AVIONIC SMOKE light to illuminates?
a. Flight deck instrument panels
b. Overhead panel.
c. Weather radar transceiver
d. IRS 1 Ans. d
AVIONICS SMOKE LIGHT
Comes on, when smoke is detected in ventilation duct from:
- Flight deck instrument panels,
- Overhead panel,
- Circuit breakers panel,
- Weather radar transceiver,
- Electronic Racks,
- IRS 2
- Under floor area equipment.
Illumination of this light is accompanied by ECAM activation
AOM 1.8 p12
115. When will DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?
a. When agent 1 bottle pressure drops to a preset value
b. When agent 2 bottle pressure drops to a preset value
c. 60 minutes after agent 1 has been discharged
d. 60 minutes after agent 2 has been discharged Ans. c
Agent 1 will be discharged first. After 60 minutes the DISCH AGENT2 light comes on. This reminds the crew
to discharge AGENT 2 in order to maintain the required concentration of extinguisher agent if the remaining
flight time exceeds 60 minutes after AGENT 1 has been discharged. AOM1.8 p3
116. 1ST AGENT can be discharged immediately after pulling the ENG FIRE handle in case engine fire on
ground.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
PARKING BRK……………………………..SET
FUEL LEVER……………………………….OFF
FIRE HANDLE………………………………PULL AOM VOL 2
ST
1 AGENT…………………………………..DISCHARGE EM Checklist
The 10-sec delay before discharging agent is not required on ground. 8.5
117. What is not the automatic action in case of APU automatically shutdown due to fire on ground? Ans. c
a. The APU will automatically shutdown with a time delay of 3 sec
b. The fire extinguisher will automatically discharge into the APU 10 sec after the fire is detected
c. The APU FIRE light on the nose gear interphone panel will automatically extinguish
d. The APU fuel isolate valve will close automatically

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If an APU fire is detected on ground, the APU will automatically shutdown with 3 sec time delay. The fire
extinguisher will discharge 10 sec after the detection. The external warning is silenced or can be silenced by
pressing APU SHUTOFF P/B on the nose gear interphone panel, or the APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN
P/B on the refuel / defuel panel.
Action on the APU FIRE handle initiates an automatic APU shutdown, isolates fuel supply, closes the bleed
valve, deactivated the generator, silences the aural warning, extinguishes LOOP lights, illuminates the
SQUIB light and arms the AGENT discharge P/B.
APU FIRE light on the nose wheel interphone panel and APU FIRE handle remain on as long as the fire
warning persists. AOM1.8P2
118. Which statement is true, regarding the cargo compartment smoke detection?
a. There is one detection circuit in each cargo compartment
b. There are two detectors in each cargo compartment and the smoke warning will come on only when
both detect smoke
c. There are two detectors in each cargo compartment and the smoke warning will come on when either
or both detectors detect the smoke
d. There is no automatic action in case of cargo smoke detection Ans. c
The cargo compartment fire detection system consists of two smoke detectors in each FWD, AFT and BULK
cargo compartment.
When either or both detectors detect a smoke signal, the corresponding SMOKE light comes on,
accompanied by ECAM activation.
As soon as a smoke warning is given, the air conditioning system in the endangered cargo compartment is
automatically switched off. AOM1.8P2
119. Which statement is true, regarding the cargo fire extinguishing system?
a. There is one fire extinguisher bottle and equipped with only one squib
b. There is one fire extinguisher bottle and equipped with two squibs
c. There are two fire extinguisher bottles and equipped with only one squib
d. There are two fire extinguisher bottles and equipped with two squibs Ans. d
Two identical fire extinguisher bottles are provided. Each bottle has two discharge heads with two squibs,
one squib for the FWD and the other for the AFT and BULK cargo compartments. The compartment is
selected by the appropriate AGENT switch.
AGENT 1 will be discharged first. After a time limit, the DISC AGENT 2 light comes on. This reminds the
crew to discharge AGENT 2 in order to maintain the required concentration of extinguisher agent. AOM1.8P3
120. Which statement is true, regarding to the cargo smoke warning light? Ans. b
a. After discharging AGENT 1, the DISH 2 light will not illuminate
b. Expect the smoke warning to remain after AGENT has discharged
c. The smoke warning goes out after discharge AGENT 1
d. The smoke warning goes out after discharge AGENT 2

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Smoke warning activation automatically closed the ISOL and TEMP CONTROL valves.
Note:
Expect SMOKE warning to remain after AGENT discharge, even if the smoke source is eliminated.
Gases from smoke source are not evacuated and smoke detectors are sensitive to extinguishing agent as AOM VOL 2
well.
EM Checklist
Once the ISOL and TEMP CONTROL valves are closed, the cargo is not ventilated and cargo temperature
is no longer reliable. 8.3
121. Where is the minimum equipment bay smoke light located and how can you confirm the smoke?
a. On the minimum equipment circuit breakers panel, and by the sniffer fan
b. On the minimum equipment circuit breakers panel, and by ECAM activation
c. On the electrical panel, and by the sniffer fan
d. On the electrical panel, and by ECAM activation Ans. a
The electrical smoke detection system has three smoke detectors installed on the ventilation duct to detect
the presence of any combustion gases.
Each detector triggers a SMOKE light on the ELEC PWR panel and ECAM.
The SMOKE light for the minimum equipment bay is located on the minimum equipment bay circuit breakers
panel on the aft part of the overhead panel.
A fan installed in the avionics compartment provides the confirmation of smoke via a sniffer located at the
RP’s side console. AOM1.8P3
122. Where do you suspect the smoke come from, if you found AVIONICS SMOKE, MIN EQPT BAY SMOKE or
BAT SMOKE warning was triggered simultaneously?
a. From the ventilation duct
b. From the avionics compartment
c. From the air conditioning system
d. From the cabin Ans. c
If several smoke warning activated:
AIR CONDITIONING SMOKE……………………………..SUSPECT
AOM VOL 2
As a result of contamination within the air conditioning system, AVIONICS SMOKE, MIN EQPT BAY
SMOKE or BATT SMOKE warnings may be triggered simultaneously EM Checklist
Apply AIR COND SMOKE procedure only if visible smoke or strong odor is encountered. 8.6, 8.7, 8.8
123. Which control surfaces are not controlled electrically? Ans. d
a. Spoilers and speed brakes
b. Rudder and aileron trims
c. Slats and flaps
d. Elevator and horizontal stabilizer

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The flight controls are divided into two groups:


- Primary flight controls consisting of elevators, ailerons, roll spoilers, rudder and trimmable horizontal
stabilizer.
- Secondary flight controls consisting of flaps, slats, Kruger flaps, notch flaps, speed brakes and ground
spoilers.
All control surfaces are actuated by hydraulic servo control actuator, which are controlled by mechanical
linkages except for the lift damper surfaces (spoilers and speed brakes), yaw and roll trims, flaps and slats
which are electrically controlled. AOM1.9/1P1
124. What is the purpose of the servo shut off valves?
a. To give priority to the components downstream of the valves in case of hydraulic low pressure
b. To give priority to the components downstream of the valves in case of hydraulic fluid lost
c. To isolate the respective hydraulic system in case of the servo actuator jam
d. To stop the movement of the control surfaces downstream of the valves in case of control surface
runaway Ans. c
Three servo shutoff valves, one installed on each servo manifold, control supply of hydraulic power to all
flight control servo actuators.
In the event of servo actuator jamming, isolation of the respective hydraulic servo manifold is possible by
means of the servo shutoff valve that can be manually controlled from the cockpit. This allows the flight
controls to be powered by the remaining servo manifolds. AOM1.9/1P2
125. What will happen when we select all 3 servo shutoff valves to off?
a. Green servo shutoff valve will be open to avoid complete loss of power to flight controls
b. All 3 servo shutoff valves will be opened
c. All 3 servo shutoff valves will be closed
d. All 3 servo shutoff valves will be opened or close depends on hydraulics pressure Ans. b
To avoid complete loss of power to flight controls due to inadvertent selection of all servo shutoff valves to
off, an automatic protection is provided such that all servo shutoff valves will be open when all three
selectors are selected off. AOM 1.9/1 p2
126. What will happen if you select flap full with speed above VFE for flap full?
a. Flaps will extend not more than 25 degrees
b. Flaps will extend to full
c. Flaps will extend to full but over speed warning will be generated
d. Flap light will illuminate on SFPI Ans. a
A load relief system is provided to minimize the design loads on the flap support structure and the flapjacks.
Load relief function can only be engaged when the slat/flap control lever is in full.
The load relief system receives CAS from the ADC and will:
- Retract flaps from full to 25 degrees when the speed exceeds178 Kt.
- Extend flaps from 25 degrees to full when the speed is below 173 Kt. AOM1.9/2P2

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127. After a go around, if you retract slat/flap handle to 0/0 degree while A/C is maintaining high pitch attitude
(Angle of attack more than 7.5O), What will occur?
a. Slats / Flaps will remain at go around flaps
b. Flaps will retract to 0 degree, while slats will retract to 15 degrees
c. Slats / flaps will retract to 15 degrees
d. Slats / flaps will retract to 0 degree Ans. b
When aircraft angle of attack is greater than 7.5O, retraction of slats below 15O is inhibited. This function is
called α - lock. If the slat/flap control lever is move to 0 O, slats will be retracted and stop at 15O and the
Kruger flaps, Notch flaps, and Aileron droop remain extended until the angle of attack is reduced to below
7.5O where the α - lock function is no more valid. The slats will then follow the command of the handle to
0O. The α - lock function is not activate when speed less than 60 Kt. AOM1.9/2P2
128. What does it mean, if both slats system 1 & 2 and flaps system 1 & 2 fault lights come on overhead panel?
a. Slat or flap system jammed
b. Slat or flap motor failure
c. Slat or flap mechanical failure
d. Slat / flap handle is held between gates Ans. d
SLAT / FLAP fault light
Each fault light comes on when the associated hydraulic motor is inoperative.
Both SLAT (or FLAP) FAULT lights will come on simultaneously if the slats (or flaps) stop due to system
jam. Reverse selection is possible and the surfaces will move to the selected position if jamming is released.
If the above warning is associated with SLAT (or FLAP) light on SFPI, it indicates a mechanic failure of the
system. In such a case, the system is deactivated for the rest of the flight.
Activation of FAULT light is accompanied by ECAM activation.
If the lever is held between the gates, the system drives to the last demanded position and after 10 seconds
all the slats and flaps FAULT warnings illuminate. AOM1.9/2P1,5
129. What is the maximum altitude for slat / flap operation?
a. 10,000 Ft
b. 15,000 Ft
c. 20,000 Ft
d. 25,000 Ft Ans. c

AOM2.9P1

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130. In case of overweight landing, how can you extend slats or flaps to next step if VLS is higher than VFE?

a. Select slat/flap to the next step, disregard the VLS


b. Set speed to below VLS then select slats / flaps when speed reaching VFE next
c. Set slats / flaps to the next step while reduce speed to follow the VLS
d. Land at this configuration as you are unable to extend slats / flaps any further Ans. c
In case of overweight landing : AOM VOL 2
If VFE next is lower than VLS, the slats / flaps lever can be set one notch further extended while the speed is EM Checklist
decreased to follow VLS reduction as surfaces extend. The over speed warning should not be triggered. In
this case, disconnect the A/THR. A/THR can be reengage when the landing configuration is obtained. 9.11
131. What is the duty of Electronic Flight Control Unit (EFCU)?
a. To control the movement of aileron
b. To control the movement of roll spoilers

c. To control the aileron droop of 10O after slats are extended


d. To control the aileron trim Ans. b
Two computers - Electronic Flight Control Unit (EFCU) electrically control the roll spoilers, without mechanic
backup (fly by wire technique).
The spoiler control law is such that they are not usually used unless the control wheel is moved enough.
Control and monitoring of the spoiler channels is done by means of P/B switches on the overhead panel. AOM1.9/3P1
132. What is true, regarding the roll spoilers, if one aileron control cable becomes jammed?
a. Roll spoilers are able to operate as speedbrake only
b. Roll spoilers operate normal
c. Roll spoilers are not available
d. Roll spoilers operate but with downgraded operation Ans. d
AILERONS
The control input is transmitted to the ailerons by dual cable runs providing fail-safe operation. In each wing,
the input is transmitted to a differential unit receiving additional inputs from:
- Artificial feel unit
- Aileron droop signal
- Trim srewjack
In case of jamming of one control cable, the interconnected spring can be overcome to permit control of the
other wing. Spoiler control in this case is still available but downgrade.
Roll spoiler control is degraded, so that:
- If Crew member (CM1) control run jams, CM2 controls roll spoilers 4 and 6.
- If CM2 control run jams, CM1 controls roll spoilers 3, 5 and 7. AOM1.9/3P1

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133. By how much is the fuel consumption increased if Kruger flaps do not retract?
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 18% Ans. b

AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
9.10
134. How much is the fuel consumption increased if slats or flaps cannot be retracted respectively?
a. Multiplied by 1.7 and 2.2 respectively
b. Multiplied by 1.5 and 2.0 respectively
c. Multiplied by 1.2 and 1.5 respectively
d. Multiplied by 1.0 and 2.0 respectively Ans. a

AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
9.22,9.23,9.8
135. What statement is true, regarding the rudder system?
a. Rudder travel reduces the rudder deflection as the function of increasing airspeed
b. When both channels of rudder travel are engaged, SYS 1 is active and SYS 2 is on standby
c. Rudder trim is electrically controlled
d. All above Ans. d
RUDDER
The trim actuator is electrically signaled and driven by an electrical motor.
The rudder travel limiter reduces the pedals and rudder deflection from ± 30O at speed below 165 Kt to ± 5O
at 310 Kt or above. The travel limit is calculated by two independent rudder travel channels in the Feel and
Limitation Computers that receive inputs from ADC and SFCC.
In normal operation, RUD TRAVEL SYS 1 is active, and SYS 2 is in standby.
Yaw damper command is transmitted via a differential unit with no feedback to the rudder pedals. AOM1.9/4P1

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136. Which statement is not a correct procedure for trimming the rudder in flight?
a. Ensure thrust setting is symmetrical
b. Trimming the rudder can be done when the aircraft maintains cruising level with ALT hold mode or
PROF mode
c. Trimming the rudder can be done while autopilot is engaged
d. Trimming the rudder until control column deflection is zero Ans. b
TRIM PROCEDURE
The minimum drag for cruise flight is obtained when the control wheel is neutral. This condition is obtained
by the following procedure:
- Ensure symmetrical thrust. Disengage auto thrust if required.
- Ensure symmetrical fuel loading.

- With autopilot engaged in ALT hold mode, note the direction of control column’s lateral deflection. Trim
the rudder in the direction of the deflection until the control column is centered. Rudder trim between
1.5O L and 1.5O R is typical normal range. Any deflection in the control column will cause the roll spoilers
to raise thus increasing drag.

- Verify that the bank angle is not too large for passengers comfort (1.5O appears to be reasonable value)
- Check again the lateral trim conditions and retrims of necessary when there is a noticeable change in
flight conditions. AOM VOL 2
- Reengage PROF mode as required once the trimming is completed. 3.3/4 p2
137. What does it mean if OFFR light and FAULT light of both rudder travel systems come on simultaneously?
a. Both rudder travel systems are OFF
b. Both rudder travel systems are in low speed configuration
c. Both rudder travel systems are in high speed configuration
d. Both rudder travel systems are faulty Ans. c
RUD TRAVEL SYS P/B
FAULT (Amber):
Light active when P/B in, comes on when a failure is detected in the respective system. The FAULT light is
accompanies by ECAM activation. The light goes off when the P/B is selected OFF.
However, if FAULT lights remain on with both P/B’s in OFF, it indicates a rudder disagree warning, i.e.
variable stop lever is not in low speed position when flaps are 20O or more. AOM1.9/4P4
138. What is not correct procedure for no flaps and no slats landing? Ans. a
a. Before commencing the approach, keep A/THR on and select GPWS to FLAP OVRD.
b. Early gear extension will aid in speed stabilization
c. At approximately 200 ft retard the throttles so as to reduce approach speed by 15 kt at touchdown

d. Fly on to the runway aiming at VA -15 kt touchdown speed at aiming point and lower the nose wheel
without delay.

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NO FLAPS AND NO SLATS LOANDING


Check speed for abnormal conditions from Em checklist
Before commencing the approach, disconnect A/THR and select GPWS to FLAP OVRD
Early gear extension will aid in speed stabilization.
Speed stabilization in level flight is a must before starting the final approach, using a normal glide path angle
maintaining green dot speed. Deceleration will be slow and acceleration rapid. At approximately 200-ft
retard the throttles so as to reduce approach speed by 15 kt at touchdown.
Over the threshold, retard the throttles to idle and use a slight flare (elevator effectiveness is very high). Fly
onto the runway aiming at VA-15 kt touchdown speed at aiming point and lower the nose wheel without
delay. Use reverse thrust immediately and maximum braking, if required. AOM3.3/7P6
139. What is not the correct procedure for jammed or inoperative stabilizer?
a. Reduce speed as soon as possible to aid the aircraft control
b. Select both pitch feel systems to OFF before reducing speed
c. The use of ATS is not recommend
d. Extend slats, flaps and gears as normal Ans. a
LANDING WITH JAMMED OR INOPERATIVE STABILIZER
If stabilizer becomes inoperative during flight, high sink rates body angles must be avoided particularity
during approach and landing. Improper techniques could result in insufficient elevator control if large
changes in pitch are required at low airspeed. Control of descent and pitch must be accomplished by
coordinated use of thrust and elevator. The use of ATS is not recommended.
Trimmed speed should be kept as long as possible before starting initial approach.
Before reducing speed, switch off both Pitch Feel systems.
AOM VOL 2
Large control input shall be avoided. Extend slats, flaps and gears in normal manner with normal pattern
and approach speed. 3.3/7 P5
140. Which statement is true, regarding to the pitch-uncoupling unit?
a. Uncoupled when aircraft is stationary
b. Locked during aircraft is taxiing and speed below 30 Kt
c. Uncoupled when aircraft speed is above 195 Kt
d. Locked when aircraft speed is between 30 and 195 Kt Ans. b
PITCH UNCOUPLING UNIT
The unit consists of a locking rod and a solenoid. It prevents accidental asymmetrical deflection of the
elevators during flight (left and right controls connected together) and allows uncoupling of the RH and LH
control systems during takeoff.
The coupling / uncoupling logic is:
- Locked at speed lower than 30 Kt or higher than 195Kt
- Uncoupled at speed between 30 and 195 Kt AOM1.9/5P1

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141. Which statement is true, regarding the pitch feel unit?


a. Pitch feel system is connected to the left control linkage only
b. When both Pitch feel switches are selected to OFF, that system actuators will retract to low speed
configuration
c. Both Pitch feel switches are selected ON, only one system is active
d. All above Ans. d
ATRIFICIAL FEEL UNIT
The elevator artificial feel unit is connected to the left control linkage only and will be provided by the
associated action of:
- A double action spring loaded rod.
- A torsion bar driven by a variable gain mechanism which generates a variable stiffness in the control.
The variable gain mechanism is actuated by either of the two electrohydraulic actuators. Each actuator is
controlled by an independent pitch feel channel, each one is included in a Feel and Limitation Computer
(FLC). The artificial feel unit provides increasing pitch control feel above 125 Kt. Below 125 Kt, the artificial
feel unit is a constant spring force.
The stiffness of the pitch feel varies with airspeed, mach number and stabilizer position. In case of failure of
the both control systems, the mechanism returns to the low speed configuration. AOM1.9/6P1
142. At what altitude and which flaps that is recommended to select if elevator becomes jammed?
a. Flaps 15 and altitude above 2000 ft
b. Flaps 20 and altitude above 2000 ft
c. Flaps 15 and altitude above 3000 ft
d. Flaps 20 and altitude above 3000 ft Ans. c
ELEVATOR JAM or HIGH PITCH FORCE procedure
For approach, normal slats and flaps configuration applies. However, flaps should be selected 15 above
3000 ft, when slats 15 / S-speed is established.
AOM VOL 2
During approach Flaps 15 must be selected above 3000 ft, since this initial flap extension requires rapid
trim adjustment and may lead to slight deviation from the flight path. EM Checklist
The trim changes with further flap extension are much smaller. 9.7
143. Which condition is not necessary to extend the ground spoiler after touchdown if the speed brake handle Ans. d
was not pulled upwards beforehand?
a. The “aircraft on ground signal”
b. Both throttles are at idle
c. Thrust reverser is selected on one engine
d. SPEEDBRAKE control lever must be pulled upwards only to extend ground spoilers

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GROUND SPOILERS
Speed brake and roll spoiler panels are used on ground as ground spoilers. Deflection angle is 50O
(maximum deflection) for all surfaces.
The control of all panels is computerized by means of two EFCU ’s. The logic is such that the ground
spoilers will extend when the following conditions are fulfilled.
- SPEEDBRAKE control lever is pulled upwards (when it is in RET position) or thrust reverser selected
on one engine, and
- Both engine throttle levers are idle, and
- The “aircraft on ground” signal is received AOM1.9/7P1
144. What is not the “aircraft ground signal” that is used to extend the ground spoilers after aircraft touchdown?
a. Two main landing gear aft wheel speeds are higher than 85 Kt
b. Main landing gear shock absorbers are compressed
c. Radio altimeter is less than 5 ft
d. Bogie beam movement is detected Ans. b
The “aircraft on ground” signal is received when:
- During takeoff or landing, two main landing gear aft wheel speeds are higher than 85 Kt, or
- At landing only, if the ground spoiler preselection has been made by speed brake control lever
selection:
 Radio altimeter is less than 5 ft, and
 Bogie beam movement is detected.
This signal is inhibited 3 sec after shock absorber compression.
Automatic extension is also activated for an aborted takeoff when the above conditions are fulfilled. AOM1.9/7P1
145. What is Theta trim? Ans. d
a. Nose up order to optimize the longitudinal stability and handling qualities
b. Nose down order to increase the pull-up stick force and prevent reaching an excessive angle of attack
c. Nose down order to assist the stall recovery
d. Nose down order to ease the control of the pitch rate and attitude and prevent pitch form exceeding 30

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Pitch trim is provided by the THS Mechanical stops are set at 3 nose down and 14 nose up. The THS is
operated by two independent hydraulic motors (green and yellow hydraulic systems)
The THS can be commanded:
- By the electric trim using either trim switches (rocking lever) on the control wheels, or
- Manually, by turning either trim wheel on the center pedestal, or
- Automatically, by AP (Auto-trim function) or,
- Automatically, by the FAC:
Speed trim (active above 200 kt) and Mach trim (active above M 0.7):
- Nose up order to optimize the longitudinal stability and handling qualities.
- The speed/Mach trim is available with AP off, in CWS or in CMD
- Alpha trim
- Stall trim
- Theta trim (active at high pitch rate and low speed):
Nose down order to ease the control of the pitch rate and attitude and prevent pitch from
exceeding 30 (Especially during go around).
The theta trim is available with AP off, pitch above 10 and speed below 180 kts. / M 0.37 AOM 1.9/5 p1
146. What will happen if we override the electric trim and Auto-trim by using the pitch trim control wheel?
a. Trimming action stops
b. Electric trim and Auto-trim have priority over pitch trim control wheel
c. Both pitch trim levers trip to OFF
d. Electric and automatic pitch trim commands can be override by pitch trim control wheel any time
without any effects to the pitch trim system Ans. c
Electric and automatic pitch trim commands can be overridden manually using the pitch trim controls wheel.
Overriding the electric trim and Auto-trim by using the pitch trim control wheel results in the automatic
disengagement of both pitch trim systems. Both PITCH TRIM levers trip to OFF
Each electric trim rocking lever actuates two switches. If switches provide contradictory orders, both pitch
trim systems disengage
Pitch Trim lever can be engaged if;
- Power supply is available,
- Associated FAC is operative,
- Associated ADC is operative, if flaps are retracted,
- Associated THS motor is operative.
For in-flight re-engagement, in addition to the above conditions and if slats are retracted, at least two angle-
of-attack sensors must be operative
If any pitch trim engagement condition is lost, the corresponding Pitch Trim lever trips to OFF.
ECAM warming is activated. The remaining pitch trim system continues to operate normally. AOM1.9/5P2

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147. Which statement is true, regarding to fuel tank?


a. Normally fuel is used from inner tanks, center tank and then outer tanks
b. Fuel can be transferred between tanks at any time
c. The engines and APU fuel can be used from any tank
d. Refueling / defueling can be achieved from left wing only Ans. c
The wing tanks supply the engines on their respective side. The center tank supplies both engines
simultaneously.
APU fuel is supplied from the left side of the cross feed manifold.
The engines and APU may be used from any tanks by mean of cross feed.
Wing loading and center of gravity consideration require fuel to be used in the following order:
- Center tank, then
- Inner tanks, and then
- Outer tanks
Fuel transfer between main tanks (wing tanks and center tank) is possible on ground only.
Refueling / defueling is achieved from each wing and controlled from refuel / defuel panel located
underneath the fuselage. AOM1.10P1
148. Which statement is not the purpose of fuel tank vent system?
a. To prevent tank from overpressure during refueling
b. To provide space for thermal expansion of the fuel
c. To allow air to enter the fuel tanks
d. To provide additional fuel for the outer tanks Ans. d
The fuel vent system ensures that the pressure within the fuel tanks is kept within limit, e.g. preventing tank
overpressure during refueling.
The vent surge tanks also provide additional thermal expansion space for fuel from the tanks.
Each fuel tank is vented via an individual vent duct and a vent float valve to a vent surge tank which is
vented to atmosphere by flush NACA intake located at the wing tip. The vent float valve allows air, but not
fuel, to vent during flight maneuvers.
Center tank, LH inner and outer tanks are vented to a vent surge tank on the LH wing. RH inner and outer
tanks are vented to a vent surge tank on RH wing. AOM1.10P1
149. Where does the fuel in the vent surge tank, if any, go to?
a. The associated inner wing tank
b. The associated outer wing tank
c. Overboard if vent surge tank is full
d. Both a. and c. Ans. d
Fuel in the vent surge tank siphons back to the associated inner wing tank when the fuel level in this tank
drops. However, fuel may be vented overboard when the vent surge tank is full. AOM1.10P2

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150. What condition does not cause the refuel / defuel valve to close during refueling?
a. Automatically closes when the preset quantity is reached
b. Manually closes by selecting the refuel / defuel valve switches at refuel / defuel panel to shut
c. Automatically closes when fuel reaches high level in each tank
d. Automatically closes when overflow sensor is activated Ans. d
Refueling or defueling is controlled from the refuel / defuel panel located on the lower right side of the
fuselage near the air-conditioning pack outlet.
The desired quantity of fuel can be selected by the fuel quantity pre-selector on the refuel / defuel panel.
The automatic logic loading sequence is so that the outer tanks are normally completely filled while
simultaneously the remaining fuel load is distributed to each inner and center tank depending on the fuel
load required. If the automatic system fails, refueling can be manually controlled by the refuel / defuel valve
switches.
Tank refueling is automatically stopped by the Fuel Quantity Indicating (FQI) when the preset quantity is
reached.
High level sensors are installed in each tank to signal the associated refuel / defuel valve to close when
maximum allowance fuel volume is obtained.
Overflow sensors are installed in each surge vent tanks to detect fuel overflow during refueling.
Complete main tank refueling approximately 25 min depending on refuel pressure. Maximum fuel pressure
is 50 psi. AOM1.10P2
151. How can the defueling be performed by using fuel tank pumps?
a. Turn on the tank pump that requires defueling
b. Turn on tank the pump that requires defueling and cross feed valve
c. Turn on the tank pump that requires defueling (and cross feed valve if necessary), and select the
transfer valve on refuel / defuel panel to open
d. Defueling can be performed by suction pressure through the refuel / defuel couplings only Ans. c
Defueling can be performed by suction pressure applied at the refuel / defuel couplings and / or using the
fuel pumps with the transfer valve open. AOM1.10P2
152. How can you refuel the aircraft to the maximum capacity (until overflow light illuminated)?
a. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches in order to refuel each tank, the valves will shut automatically
when the overflow light illuminates
b. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches and manually refuel until the high level light illuminates then
manually shut off the valve
c. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches and manually refuel until the overflow light illuminates then
manually shut off the valve
d. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches and manually refuel until the high level light illuminates then
select mode selector switch to defuel and continue refueling until overflow light illuminates Ans. d

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HIGH LEVEL INDICATOR LIGHTS


Come on when the max fuel quantity in the corresponding tank is reached. The appropriate refuel / defuel
valve closes automatically. Selecting the MODE SELECTOR to DEFUEL position can reopen the valve.
MAXIMUM CAPACITY FUELING
1. Refuel /defuel valve switches SET
- OPEN for receiving tank
- SHUT for other tank
2. Mode selector switch REFUEL
3. Monitor fueling until the corresponding HIGH LEVEL lights come on
4. Mode selector switch OFF
5. Refuel / defuel valve switches (5) SHUT
6. Mode selector switch DEFUEL
- Switch in DEFUEL will bypass the high level restriction
7. Refuel / defuel valve switches OPEN / SHUT
- OPEN for tank to be filled. When required volume supplied, set to SHUT.
AOM VOL 2
- If OVERFLOW light comes on, set switch to SHUT immediately.
8.1/1 p6
153. Will the engines flame out if you takeoff but forgot to turn on any fuel tank pump except R INR pump 1 and
cross feed valve which using them to supply the APU at that time?
a. No, fuel can be gravity fed
b. No, one pump alone is sufficient to supply fuel to both engines at maximum thrust
c. Yes, but only engine No.1 may flame out
d. Yes, both engines may flame out Ans. b
Each fuel tank is equipped with two centrifugal pumps to supply fuel to the engines. All pumps are identical
and the capacity of each pump is sufficient to supply both engines at maximum thrust. In the event of total
loss of tank pumps, fuel is fed to the engine by gravity. AOM1.10P2
154. If we want to use fuel from one wing in order to balance fuel load by select both inner tank pump on one
wing OFF, does automatic fuel feed mode remain active?
a. Yes, auto-feed mode remain active as long as at least one INR TK PUMP and one CTR TK PUMP are
on
b. Yes, auto-feed mode remain active as long as at least one CTR TK PUMP on
c. No, at least one pump in each INR TK and one pump in CTR TK must be on
d. No, at least one pump in each INR TK must be on Ans. a
Once Auto mode is activated, Auto-feed mode remains active as long as at least one INR TK PUMP and
one CTR TK PUMP are selected. This enables the application of the FUEL X-FEED in flight procedure (For
fuel balancing or in case of single engine operation) without deactivating the fuel Auto-feed mode.
To disengage the automatic fuel feed mode (when it is once engaged) both center tank pumps or all inner
wing tank pumps must be selected off. The automatic fuel feed mode can be reset by switching at least one
center tank pump and at least one pump on each inner wing tank to ON. AOM1.10P3

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155. When will fuel LO LVL lights come on?


a. Fuel quantity in related inner tank drops to approximately 900 kg
b. Fuel quantity in related outer tank drops to approximately 900 kg
c. Fuel quantity in related inner or outer tank drops to approximately 900 kg
d. Total fuel quantity drops to approximately 900 kg Ans. b
LO LVL warning lights
Low level lights come on amber when the remaining fuel quantity in the related outer tank drops to
approximately 900 kg.
The ECAM system is activated.
During pitch attitude changes, or in case of deceleration, the LO LVL lights may illuminate at a higher fuel
quantity. AOM1.10P15
156. Which statement is not true, regarding the automatic fuel feed sequence?
a. After first engine has started, CTR TK pumps (if not empty) will run for 3 min before INR TK pumps
stars
b. After airborne, CTR TK will start feeding (if not empty)
c. If CTR TK low level is reached, the CTR TK pumps are stopped
d. If CTR TK is not empty, CTR TK pumps will stop after slats are extended for over 3 min Ans. b
At first engine start, if the CTR TK contains fuel, the CTR TK pumps are activated to feed the engine for 3
min then switch to INR TK.
After takeoff and slat retracted, CTR TK feeds again until the fuel level uncovers the sensor then INR TK
pumps are activated.
3 min after reaching the INR TK low level, INR TK pumps are stopped and CTR TK feeds.
In case of a landing with fuel in the center tank and inner tanks, feeding will be transferred to inner tank 3
min after slats extension until engine shutdown. AOM1.10P3
157. What is the logic for transfer of fuel feeding between OUTR and INR TK?
a. By using OUTR TK shutoff valves
b. By using INR TK shutoff valve
c. By reducing OUTR TK pumps pressure to below the INR TK pumps pressure
d. By using automatic fuel feeding which has the same logic as INR TK and CTR TK Ans. c
The outer tank pumps are normally in continuous operation. However, each pump is equipped with
sequence valve, which reduces the delivery pressure to 17 psi. The center and inner tank pumps produce
40 psi delivery pressure. This results in priority flow from inner or center tank pumps. When manifold
pressure is below 17 psi, outer tank pumps then take over fuel feeding. AOM1.10P3
158. What does it mean, if two center tank pump P/B FAULT lights come on when the center tank is empty? Ans. a
a. Any center tank pump is still energized
b. Both center tank pumps are not energized
c. Both center tank pumps fault
d. Any inner tank pump is energized

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In automatic mode, the two center tank pump P/B FAULT lights come on when the center tank is empty and:
- Any center tank pump is still energized, or
- Both pumps of the left or right inner tank are not energized with fuel in the respective tank. AOM1.10P3
159. What does it mean if four inner tank pump P/B FAULT lights come on when the center tank is not empty?
a. Any center tank pump is still energized
b. Both pumps of the left or right inner tank are not energized with fuel in the respective tank
c. Both center tank pumps are not energized
d. All four inner tank pumps fault Ans. c
All four FAULT lights of both inner tank pump P/B’s come on when the center tank is not empty and:
- Both center tank pumps are not energized, or
- Any inner tank pump is energized AOM1.10P3
160. Which statement is not the function of the Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI)?
a. Provides the fuel indication in each fuel tank on the overhead panel ,refuel / defuel panel and ECAM
display
b. Provides the closing signal for refuel / defuel valve during refueling
c. Provides the low level warning for each outer tank
d. Provides the overflow light on the refuel /defuel panel Ans. d
The fuel quantity in each tank is indicated in kilograms on the FUEL QTY indicator on the overhead panel,
through the ECAM system and by the indicators on the refuel / defuel panel.
During refueling, the fuel quantity indicating system provides the closing signal to the refuel / defuel valve
when the respective tank reaches the selected fuel level.
A low level warning system is provided for each outer tank. The LO LVL light located on the fuel QTY
indicator on the overhead panel illuminates accompanied by the ECAM activation when the fuel level of the
corresponding tank drops below 900 kg. AOM1.10P4
161. Which statement is the function of Center of Gravity Control Computer (CGCC)? (600R) Ans. d
a. Display GW and CG on ECAM
b. Maintaining A/C CG target
c. Control the fuel transferring to and from the trim tank
d. All of above

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CENTER OF GRAVITY CONTROL SYSTEM


To maintain the CG target, fuel is transferred aft from the center or inner tanks to the trim tank, or forward
from the trim tank to the center tank.
Aft transfer is controlled by the CGCC, forward transfer is controlled by the CGCC or manually selected on
the fuel panel.
The CGCC has 3 main functions:
- Computing the aircraft CG and gross weight (GW) which are displayed on the ECAM,
- Monitoring the aircraft CG and maintaining the CG target,
- Controlling fuel transfer to and from the trim tank in order to maintain the CG target.
The CGCC is active when:
- The TRIM TK MODE P/B is at AUTO.
- At least one TRIM TK PUMP pushbutton switch is selected ON. AOM1.10P4
162. Which statement is not true, regarding the CGCC in normal mode? (600R)
a. TRIM TK ISOL valve automatically opens when A/C is above FL 205
b. Fuel automatically transfers forward and aft when A/C is above FL 205
c. CGCC initiates a fast forward transfer when A/C is descending below FL 205
d. CGCC maintains the CG 0.5% forward of the CG target. Ans. a
For CG control, the calculated CG target will be used under the following conditions:
- When the slats are retracted after takeoff, the TRIM TK ISOL valve automatically opens to allow fuel
transfer to and from the trim tank.
- In climb below FL 205, forward transfer occurs if the CG moves beyond the aft target due to fuel burn.
- Above FL 205, automatic forward and aft transfers are controlled by CGCC. The CG is maintained
0.5% forward of the CG target. If the CG moves aft of the target by more than 0.1%, a fast FWD is
initiated until CG is 0.5% forward of the target. Then CG control is remained.
- In descent crossing FL 205, the CGCC initiates a fast forward transfer in order to empty the trim tank. If
the forward CG limit is reached or the center tank is full, forward transfer is suspended. AOM1.10P5
163. How do you know that the CGCC is now entering the alternate mode? (600R)
a. Fuel will fast forward transfer form trim tank to center tank until trim tank is depleted
b. By ECAM message “TRIM TANK AFT XFR NOT AVAIL”
c. By ECAM message “TRIM TK SYS FAULT”
d. It is an internal failure and the system will not inform the crew Ans. b
ALTERNATE MODE
A discrepancy between the command and monitor channels in the CGCC will indicate partial failure of the
system and will switch the CGCC to enter the alternate mode, which only controls on forward transfer to
ensure that the CG is maintained within safe limit and that CTR tank is not overfilled.
Note:
- Fuel is automatically transferred forward from the trim tank in steps. No crew action is required.
- The message “TRIM TANK AFT XFR NOT AVAIL” is displayed on the left ECAM CTR. AOM1.10P5

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164. What is not a condition that caused the CGCC to shifted the control target from 0.5% forward of the CG
target to 1.5% more forward? (600R)
a. Manual FWD transfer in flight continuously more than 10 sec
b. The accuracy of FQI data is degraded
c. When ECAM message “EXCESS AFT CG“ is displayed on ECAM
d. AFT CG reaches 37.8% MAC for the first time Ans. c
The calculated CG target is shifted 1.5% more forward if:
- MANUAL FWD transfer in flight is more than 10 sec., or
- The accuracy of FQI data is degraded.
If the AFT CG target reaches 37.8% MAC, the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will
be automatically shifted forward 1.5% MAC by a normal forward transfer. AOM1.10P6
165. When will the message “CG TARGET SHIFTED FWD” be displayed? (600R)
a. After manually FWD transfer in flight more than 10 sec
b. When the CGCC shifted CG target forward to 1.5% MAC
c. When the CGCC shifted CG target forward to 2.3% MAC
d. When the AFT CG reaches 38.8% MAC Ans. c
In case of undetected failure of CGCC, an aft CG limit monitoring is provided. The calculation is
independent of the CGCC by considering the position of the stabilizer and airspeed.
If the AFT CG reaches 37.8% MAC, the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will be
automatically shifted forward 1.5% MAC by a normal forward transfer.
During flight, if the AFT CG is detected again (the second time), the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC
then the CG target will be automatically shifted forward further 2.3% MAC by a fast forward transfer, and
ECAM status will display “CG TARGET SHIFTED FWD”.
If the AFT CG reaches 38.8% MAC, “EXCESS AFT CG” is displayed, and the flight crew must follow the
EXCESS AFT CG procedure. AOM1.10P6
166. After fuel is transferred forward to CTR TANK, the CGCC controls the CTR tank fuel quantity to be between
500 – 1700 kg until the trim tank is empty. (600R)
a. True Ans. a
b. False

AOM1.10P5
167. When would you consider using fuel from outer tanks first, then followed by inner tanks and center tank Ans. b
respectively? (600R)
a. When there is a fuel leak from the engine
b. When trim tank fuel is unusable
c. When inner tank pumps fault
d. Never, fuel must be used in the following sequence: CTR tank, INNER tanks and OUTR tanks

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OUTR TK ISOL VALVES………………………………………………CHECK IN LINE


OUTR TK PUMPS………………………………………………………CHECK ON
INR TK PUMPS (4)……………………………………………………..OFF
AOM VOL 2
CTR TK PUMPS (2)…………………………………………………….OFF
EM Checklist
 Tanks must be emptied in the following sequence, to reduce the probability of center of gravity
exceeding the aft limit, OUTER tanks, INNER tanks and CENTER tank. 10.10
168. Is the trim tank fuel still usable if both trim tank pumps failed? (600R)
a. Yes, by gravity feed only
b. Yes, by select TRIM TK MODE switch to FWD position
c. No, and TRIM TK ISOL VALVE switch must be selected to OFF to prevent fuel transfer more to trim
tank
d. No, and fuel in trim tank must consider as unusable fuel Ans. a
FORWARD TRANSFER
Forward transfer is only possible from trim tank to CTR tank. To perform forward transfer, the CGCC
activates the trim tank pumps and opens normal forward transfer valve, plus auxiliary transfer valve in case
of fast forward transfer.
Manual forward transfer is possible by selecting manually FWD on the MODE P/B. In this case the trim tank
pumps are activated and both (normal and auxiliary) forward transfer valves are open (fast forward transfer).
Forward transfer can also be performed by gravity, should both trim tank pumps fail. AOM1.10P7
169. How much fuel is trapped in each inner tank if fuel is gravity feeding in flight?
a. 1000 kg each inner tank
b. 2000 kg each inner tank
c. 3000 kg each inner tank
d. 4000 kg each inner tank Ans. b
TAA – TAZ FUEL GRAVITY FEED
If INR TK QTY above 2000 kg
MAX ………………………………………………………………..FL 200 /MEA / MORA
INR TK ISOL VALVE……………………………………………..CHECK IN LINE
OUTR TK ISOL VALVE…………………………………………..OFF
When INR TK QTY below 2000 kg
If an INR TK is affected, the respective OUTR TK must be isolated to prevent OUTR TK feeding.
AOM VOL 2
INR TK must be stopped, when the level reaches 2000 kg.
EM Checklist
Below this level, the non-return valve in the CTR TK feed line may not remain closed, resulting in fuel
surges and possible air suction. Consequence the OUTR TK must be used. 10.6
170. Which case will cause last digit of fuel quantity indicator to displayed dash (-)?
a. Probe compensator failure
b. Attitude sensor failure
c. Pitch angle greater than 15 for more than 4 min.
d. All above Ans. d

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Fuel quantity in each tank is displayed in a window in kg x 1000 (+/- 10 kg per tank)
Last digit at each indicator may be replaced by a dash (-) in case of :
- Probe compensator failure
- Cadensicon failure
- Attitude sensor failure
- Inadequate refueling procedure
- Pitch angle greater than 15 for more than 4 min.
This dash indicates that the quantity indication accuracy is degrading to +/-100 kg of the associated tank
capacity. AOM1.10P15
171. What is the correct maximum allowance for fuel unbalanced?
a. Inner tank 2000 kg and outer tank 900 kg
b. Inner tank 4000 kg and outer tank 900 kg
c. Inner tank 2000 kg at T/O, 4000 kg at L/D, and outer tank 900 kg at L/D
d. Inner tank 4000 kg at T/O, 2000 kg at L/D, and outer tank 900 kg at L/D Ans. c

AOM 2.10 p2
172. Which hydraulic pump does not use the YELLOW hydraulic fluid to operate?
a. A hand pump
b. A YELLOW Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
c. A Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
d. An electrical pump which is used to pressurize the brake accumulators Ans. b
Two non-reversible Power Transfer Units (PTU) provide power transfer from the pressurized GREEN
system to the BLUE or the Yellow system without fluid exchange.
If the engine driven pumps are not available, hydraulic power may generated by:
- Two electrical hydraulic pumps in the GREEN system, principally used for maintenance and checklist
purpose.
- One electrical hydraulic pump in the YELLOW system, used to pressurize the brake accumulators or to
operate the main cargo compartment doors.
- One Ram Air Turbine (RAT) driven pump in the YELLOW system to supply emergency hydraulic power.
- One hand pump in the YELLOW system, used to operate the main cargo doors when the YELLOW
electric pump is not available. AOM1.11P1

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173. Which statement is correct?


a. Hydraulic power is supplied to a/c various systems via servo control manifold only.
b. Servo control manifold supplies the primary flight controls and spoilers.
c. Priority valve will isolate the servo control manifold in the low-pressure condition.
d. Servo control selector valve is used to increase hydraulic pressure to the respective hydraulic system in
the event of a control surface jam or fluid loss Ans. b
The priority valve isolates the slats, flaps, krugers, landing gears and nose wheel steering (which supplied
by high-pressure manifold) when the pressure has dropped below 1885 PSI to give priority to the primary
flight controls.
AOM1.11P2
174. What will occur if you push hydraulic ENG PUMP P/B switch on the overhead panel to OFF?
a. Hydraulic shutoff valve will close
b. Pump will depressurize, the lubrication and cooling of that pump will discontinue
c. Pump will depressurize but the lubrication and cooling of that pump will continue
d. The ENG pump P/B LO PR light will illuminate Ans. c
ENG PUMP P/B (4)
ON (P/B in). Dump valve solenoid is de-energized, pump set for power generation
OFF (P/B out, white OFF light on). Engine pump is deactivated. Power generation stops due to pump
depressurization. Lubrication and cooling of pump will continue. An OFF selection activates on
ECAM.
LO PR (Amber). Light comes on, accompanied by ECAM activation if; with the respective PUMP P/B
pressed (ON), pump delivery pressure decreases below 1800 psi. The light goes out when the
pressure increases above 2200 psi. AOM1.11P6
175. What is the automatic function, if YELLOW reservoir quantity indicator drops to red dot?
a. YELLOW ENG driven pump will turn off
b. YELLOW FIRE SHUTOFF valve will turn off
c. YELLOW dump valve will turn on
d. YELLOW electric pump will turn on Ans. b
Hydraulic fire shutoff valves, which are shutoff the suction of each engine driven pump, isolate the hydraulic
fluid supply to the pump when the respective ENG FIRE handle is pulled.
For YELLOW system, the fire shutoff valve will close automatically if the fluid quantity drops below 5 liters to
stop fluid loss and reserve the remaining for RAT operation. AOM1.11P3
176. When you turn the GREEN electrical pump P/B switch to ON, both electrical pumps will run simultaneously.
a. True
b. False Ans. b
ELEC PUMPS P/B
ON (P/B in, white ON light on). Both electric pumps are activated. One pump operates immediately, the
other starts with 3-sec delay. AOM1.11P6

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177. Conditions: A/C is on ground and both engines stopped.


What does it mean, if you are in the cockpit and observe that the brake accumulator pressure indicator is
rising to fully charge without any crew action?
a. The main cargo compartment door is being opened or closed
b. The hand pump is being used to open or close the main cargo compartment door
c. The green electrical pumps are being operated
d. The brake pedals are depressed Ans. a
Pressurization of the complete YELLOW system by the electric pump is prevented by manifold check
valves. When the PARKING BRAKE ACCU press P/B is operated, the two brake accumulators only are
pressurized. When an OPEN/CLOSE selector is operated, the corresponding main cargo compartment door
operation circuit and the brake accumulators are pressurized. AOM1.11P2
178. What does the green arc duplicated of the hydraulic reservoir quantity indicator mean?
a. Hydraulic fluid over serviced indication
b. Normal usable range of hydraulic fluid on ground after the engine has been started
c. Normal usable range of hydraulic fluid in flight
d. Normal usable range of hydraulic fluid on ground when engine is shutdown but the tank is pressurized Ans. d
RESERVOIR QUANTITY INDICATOR (3)
GREEN ARC Normal usable range of hydraulic fluid.
UPPER SMALL GREEN ARC On ground, with reservoir pneumatically pressurized and hydraulic system
depressurized.
- Pointer within small green arc indicates normal fluid level in
reservoir
- Pointer at max limit of upper small green arc indicates max
normal fluid level in reservoir
- Pointer at min limit of upper small green arc indicates min
normal fluid level in reservoir
YELLOW ARC Fluid in reservoir is low.
RED DOT Remaining fluid is 5 liters, the ECAM system is activated. AOM1.11P6
179. Can we use the YELLOW system, which is being pressurized by RAT, until landing?
a. Yes, RAT is guaranteed to use in all phase of flight
b. Yes, RAT can be used until taxi speed
c. No, RAT cannot be guaranteed when speed is below 140 kt
d. No, due to low flow of YELLOW system, RAT can be used in flight only Ans. c
RAT should be extended if YELLOW circuit is lost provided YELLOW tank is not empty, if the YELLOW AOM VOL 2
circuit is powered by the RAT, YELLOW hydraulic pressure cannot be guaranteed below 140 kt and
therefore will not be available for landing. EM Checklist
11.1 / 11.2

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180. In what case of hydraulic system failure can you restore the system back to ON during approach?
a. System is lost by RSVR LO AIR PR
b. System is lost by RSVR OVHT
c. System is lost by RSVR OVHT and OVHT light is extinguished
d. Both a. and c. Ans. d

AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
11.7
181. Can you use the PTU to restore BLUE and/or YELLOW system in case of DUAL B + Y HYD SYS LO PR?
a. No, because it may decrease the reliability of the remaining GREEN system
b. Yes, both PTU can be used to restore both the failure systems
c. Yes, but limited to one PTU only
d. Yes, but you must turn on the GREEN electrical pumps Ans. a
DUAL B + Y HYD SYS LO PR (GREEN REMAINING)
Avoid using PTU
- It is recommended to avoid using PTU in order not to decrease the reliability of the remaining GREEN AOM VOL 2
hydraulic system.
EM Checklist
- If the PTU was used to repressurize the first affected HYD system, it is recommended to select the PTU
to OFF to maintain GREEN system full capability and integrity. 11.2
182. Hydraulic pressure cannot be guaranteed by?
a. EDP of the respective engine in case of that engine failure
b. PTU in case of the respective system fluid loss.
c. Yellow EDP in case of yellow fluid loss to a certain level. Ans. d
d. All of above. AOM 1.11
183. How many wing anti-ice valves are there in each wing?
a. One normal valve
b. Two normal valves
c. One normal valve and one alternate valve
d. One normal valve and two alternate valves Ans. c
Ice protection for each wing is provided b heating the leading edges of the slat No. 2 (outer half section) and
slat No. 3 (full length) with hot air.
Each wing is equipped with two parallel, electrically controlled, pneumatic operated wing anti-ice valves,
used for NORMAL and ALTERNATE operation. AOM1.12p2

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184. When will the four wing anti-ice valves (normal and alternate valves of each wing) open simultaneously?
a. Turn on wing anti-ice system with the engine bleed air supply
b. Turn on wing anti-ice system with the APU bleed air supply
c. Turn on wing anti-ice system and the fault light comes on
d. Turn on wing anti-ice system with engine bleed air supply and MODE SEL P/B switch is selected to
ALTN Ans. b
WING ANTI-ICE SUPPLY P/B
ON (P/B in, blue ON light comes on). Wing anti-ice valves open.
With engine bleed air supply:
- Two normal valves open, when MODE SEL P/B in NORM.
- Two alternate valves open, when MODE SEL P/B in ALTN.
With APU bleed air supply:
- Four valves open, regardless of MODE SEL P/B.
The indication “WING ANTI-ICE ON” is displayed on ECAM memo page. AOM1.12P10
185. What signal will not cause the wing anti-ice valve to close automatically?
a. Landing gear shock absorbers are compressed
b. ENG FIRE handle is pulled with the CROSS BLEED valve is closed
c. APU bleed switch is ON
d. Bleed air supply pressure is below 10 psi Ans. c
All wing anti-ice valves close automatically if main landing gear shock absorbers are compressed or if an
ENG FIRE handle is pulled while the AIR BLEED X-FEED valve is closed or when bleed air supply pressure
less than 10 psi. On ground, if wing anti-ice system is selected ON, overheating of slat is prevented by
means of a time delay relay, which limits the valve opening time to 10 seconds during the test operation. AOM1.12P2
186. Condition: Aircraft is in flight and both engine and wing anti-ice valves are turned ON.
What anti-ice valves will remain open in case of electrical system loss?
a. Wing anti-ice valves will close, engine anti-ice valves will remain open
b. Wing anti-ice valves will remain open, engine anti-ice valves will close
c. Both wing and engine anti-ice valves will remain open
d. Both wing and engine anti-ice valves will close Ans. a
WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Incase of electrical or pneumatic power loss, the valves are springloaded closed.
ENGINE ANTI-ICE
Each engine has its own anti-ice system, independent from the A/C pneumatic system. It is provided by
heating the nose cowl leading edge with hot air from high pressure compressor (GE: 11TH stage, PW 15TH
stage) through an electric controlled, pneumatic operated engine anti-ice valve. When an engine anti-ice
valve is opened, a signal is passed to the thrust control computer, which decreases the thrust limit relative to
the ambient conditions, engine conditions and anti-ice bleed load. If the electrical power supply to the
engine anti-ice valve circuit fails, the valve opens. AOM1.12P2

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187. What is the fuel consumption increase in the case that both wing and engine anti-ice are used during the
flight?
a. 1% increase in fuel burn
b. 2% increase in fuel burn
c. 3% increase in fuel burn
d. 5% increase in fuel burn Ans. b
Ice protection will reduce range or increase fuel consumption by:
- 1% when using engine ice protection AOM VOL 2
- 2% when using engine + wing ice protection 7.2/1P1
188. When would you consider using engine anti-ice on ground?

a. OAT is below + 8O C
b. OAT is below + 8O C and moisture is visible
c. OAT and dewpoint are within 3O C
d. Both b. and c. Ans. d
ENGINE ANTI-ICE OPERATION
ON GROUND
If OAT is below + 8O C and either moisture is visible or dewpoint and OAT are within 3O C of each other.
IN FLIGHT
If TAT is below + 8O C and there is visible moisture in the air. In general, the higher the temperature is, the
higher the cloud liquid content is and hence, the more severe are the icing conditions. At the temperature
below – 20O C, icing conditions can be expected to be less severe. Signs of ice build up on unheated
portions of the aircraft are visible from the cockpit (window frame, windshield wipers, etc.). AOM2.12P2
189. Which statement is correct regarding “Operation in icing condition”? Ans. c
a. Wing anti–ice must be used for ice removal not for prevent ice formation
b. It is possible to heat TAT probes on ground.

c. If wing anti-ice is inoperative and ice accumulation is detected, increase VL s in clean configuration by
15 Kt.
d. If wing anti-ice supply by APU, both packs are able to operate normally.

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Wing anti-ice
Wing anti-ice may be used either to prevent ice formation or to remove an ice accumulation from the wing
leading edges.
Wing anti-ice supply should be selected ON whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exists. This
can be evidenced by ice accumulation around the flight deck windows or on the flight deck windshield
wipers.
Wing anti-ice supply by the APU is possible up to 15000 ft, providing one air conditioning pack only is used
In case of suspected significant ice accumulation on non de-iced parts, increase the minimum approach
speed by 5 kt and multiply landing distance by 1.1
Note
Electrical power supply failure will cause the wing anti-ice valves to close, independently of control selector
position.
THR LIMIT corrections and performance penalties are applicable only when wing anti-ice system is supplied
by engine bleed air.
AOM VOL 2
If wing anti-ice is inoperative and ice accumulation is detected, increase VLS in clean configuration by 15 kt,
increase VLS when surfaces are extended by 10 kt and multiply landing distance by 1.2 8.3/2 P2
190. What does it mean, if “TAT IN ICING RANGE” comes on ECAM memo page?
a. A/C is encountering icing conditions

b. TAT is below + 8O C
c. TAT is between + 5O C and -15O C Ans. c
d. TAT is below 0 C O
AOM1.19/1P8
191. What is the limitation for ice accumulation on the wing surface?
a. Upper surface of wing must be free of ice
b. Ice on the upper surface of wing must not exceed 1.5 mm
c. Under surface of wing must be free of ice
d. Both wing surfaces must be free of ice Ans. a
SURFACE ICING and / or FROST ACCUMULATION
- Upper surface and vertical fin must be free of ice, snow and frost.
- Under surface of wing, frost and ice are permitted at takeoff, provided the depth does not exceed 1.5
mm. AOM2.12P1
192. What action must you perform if the aircraft is sprayed with de-icing fluid while engines are running? Ans. c
a. Close the engine bleed valves
b. Close the pack valves
c. Close the engine bleed valves and the pack valves
d. Nothing needs to be performed

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The following sentences summarizes the crew action associated with each de-icing option:
If APU running,
- Close APU bleed valve (before start spraying).
- Close PACK valves.
If ENG running,
- Close ENG bleed valves (before start spraying).
- Close PACK valves.
Upon completion of spraying operation,
- Restore APU / ENG bleed, as required. AOM VOL 2
- Set PACK valves ON. 8.3/3P2
193. Which statement is not true, regarding the window heating system?
a. Side windows heating have no temperature controller
b. Side windows have two heating levels while front windshields have only one heating level
c. Side windows heating level is the same as front windshields heating in low level
d. Front windshields high heating level is provided only in flight Ans. b
The front windshields are heated on two heating power levels. Low heating power is used on ground, high
heating power level is provided in flight. Two windshield anti-ice regulators control the front windshield
temperature to 35O C or 42O C. A temperature sensor in each windshield signals the actual temperature to
the related regulator, which activates or deactivates the heating power supply from regulator control to the
heating elements.
The side windows are heated on one heating power level only, without temperature control, corresponding
to the front windshield low heating power level. AOM1.12P2
194. Which statement is correct?
a. There are 2 pitot ports, 2 static ports and 2 alpha probes
b. Capt.’s pitot & static pressure supply the ADC 2
c. When select CAPT ADC INST P/B to SYS 2, Capt.’s altimeter read out is controlled by Capt.’s altimeter
as normal

d. We can synchronize only from Captain’s clock to F/O’s clock Ans. d


GMT and DATE selector
SYN- Synchronization of captain’s clock ;
- Holding the switch on F/O’s clock has no effect on any clock.
- Holding the switch on Capt.’s clock for 2 sec recopies both time and date of the F/O’s clock. During this
time, output to FMC 1 is lost AOM1.13/4P3
195. Which is not true regarding the ADC? Ans. c
a. There are 2 ADCs, if one fail, the other can supply both Capt. & F/O instruments.
b. ADC receives raw data from various systems, computes and supplies ADC data to flight crew’s
instruments and several systems.
c. STBY air data system is processed by both ADCs and use as a back up source.
d. We can share the other pilot’s ADC & FAC data by pushing the opposite primary source of ADC INST
P/B.

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STBY air data system information is not processed by any ADC. The STBY airspeed indicators and
altimeters are directly pitot-static instruments. Electrical power is not required for standby flight instruments'
operation. AOM1.13/2P1
196. How long does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) record communication for?
a. 30 min
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours Ans. c
A solid state cockpit voice recorder (SSCVR), using electronic solid state technology has been installed. It is
designed to record the last 120 minutes or 2 hours of radio communication, aural warning sounds, crew
conversations and announcements into solid state memory. AOM1.13/5P1
197. What is not recorded on the CVR?
a. LP audio selector panel
b. PA handset
c. Area microphone
d. First observer selector panel Ans. d
The recorder is done in four channels. The four recording channels are connected to the LP and RP audio
selector panels, the PA handset and the area microphone. AOM1.13/5P1
198. Why are the batteries switched OFF during on ground emergency?
a. To prevent the batteries from depletion
a. To stop the CVR and prevent tape erasure
b. To ensure that the emergency exit lights are illuminated by their own batteries
c. To protect the batteries from fire or smoke Ans. b

AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
20.12
199. Which system must be dispatched on every aircraft? Ans. d
a. Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR)
b. Digital Flight Data Acquisition Unit (DFDAU)
c. Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)
d. Either CVR or DFDR

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DIGITAL FLIGHT DATA RECORDER (DFDR)


The DFDR is an electric component consisting of the circuitry for the recording and the recording medium,
which is a solid state memory, enclosed in a crash and fireproof container.
The recording can hold information for approx. 25 flight hours (50 hours for HS-TAT – Z). After that, the
oldest data is erased and new data entered on a freed part. This process is continuous which means that
the memory holds data from the last 25 flight hours.

AOM1.13/6P1
DFDR (repair interval CAT B)
May be inoperative provided the flight deck voice recorder is operative.
CVR (repair interval CAT A) AOM VOL 2
May be inoperative provided the flight recorder is operative. 3.1/1P62
200. What is the primary source of vertical speed indicator ?
a. ADC
b. IRS
c. Capt. and F/O static system

d. Both A&C Ans. b


The primary source of Vertical speed (V/S) indication is the IRS. An automatic switch over to ADC occurs
when an anomaly is detected on the Inertial Vertical Speed (IVS).
In normal operation, the VSI repeats the IVS data provided by the IRS. However, the IRS inputs are filtered
by a barometric information for the stabilization of V/S indication.
If IRS input is lost, the VSI will continuously operate on ADC only (the indicated vertical speed then has a
time lag).
If ADC data is lost, the VSI will operate on IRS data for only 30 seconds. AOM1.13/3P1
201. What is the tolerance between ALT 1 and ALT 2 vs. ground, and STBY ALT vs. ground?

a. ± 30 ft both primary and standby ALT vs. ground


b. ± 50 ft both primary and standby ALT vs. ground
c. ± 25 ft for primary ALT vs. ground and ± 80 for standby ALT vs. ground

d. ± 30 ft for primary ALT vs. ground and ± 50 for standby ALT vs. ground Ans. c

AOM2.13/3P1

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202. What is the tolerance between ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 and STBY ALT vs. ALT 1 or ALT 2? (TAG - TAZ)
a. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 50 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 100 ft
b. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 50 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 70 ft
c. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 30 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 50 ft Ans. a
d. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 30 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 80 ft AOM2.13/3P1

AOM2.13/3P1
203. Which of the following interlock circuit conditions does not prevent the selection of L/D gear to UP?
a. Main gear shock strut not fully extended
b. Bogie beam displaced from neutral position
c. Landing gear door not open
d. Nose gear not centered Ans. c
LANDING GEAR OPERATION
Normal retraction and extension is electrically controlled by signals from the landing gear control lever on
the center instrument penal. The gear is normally powered by GREEN hydraulic system.
The retraction and extension cycles are hydro mechanically sequenced.
The gear lever has a neutral position between UP and DOWN. When the lever is set in this position,
hydraulic pressure is removed from the system. This is the normal flight operation.
An internal interlock prevents selection of gear UP under any one of the following circumstances:
- Main gear shock strut not fully extended
- Bogie beam displaced from neutral position
- Nose gear not centered
The interlock system is duplicated for safety reasons and if one system is unserviceable, the other may be
selected by a switch. AOM1.14P2
204. How do the L/D gears down lock after gravity extension? Ans. d
a. Both main and nose L/D gears down lock by spring force
b. Both main and nose L/D gears down lock by aerodynamic force
c. Main L/D gears down lock by aerodynamic force and nose L/D gear down locks by spring force
d. Main L/D gears down lock by spring force and nose L/D gear down locks by aerodynamic force

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GRAVITY EXTENSION
The gear may be extended mechanically by using a hand crank in the cockpit if the normal extension is not
available due to loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure or electrical supply.
GREEN pressure line is isolated and the gear actuators are connected to the return lines. Door up locks
released and doors open. The gears then fall down by gravity and down locked by aerodynamic force for
nose gear and spring force for main gears. The doors remain open. AOM1.14P2
205. Which statement is true regarding the nose wheel steering system?

a. Rudder pedals can steer the A/C up to 65O


b. Moving the rudder pedals will drive the nose wheel steering handle
c. Rudder pedals have priority over nose wheel steering handle

d. If towing pin is inserted in the nose gear interphone box, the maximum nose gear steering angle is ±
65O Ans. b
NOSE WHEEL STEERING
Hydraulic pressure is available for the nose wheel steering via an electro valve if the following conditions are
met:
- Landing gears are down locked.
- Nose and main L/D gear shock absorbers are compressed.
Steering is controlled by either:

- Each handle on each side console (LH and RH), which permits nose wheel deflections up to 65O in
either direction and is intended for steering at low speed only,

- Rudder pedals for steering at high speed. The nose wheel deflection is limited to 6O in either direction.
The rudder pedals are mechanically linked to the steering control linkages in such a manner that moving
the pedals will drive the steering handle but the handle will not move the pedals.
The steering actuators also act as shimmy dampers.
A towing lever on the nose gear interphone box is secured with a pin in the towing position, cutting off
hydraulic power. The lever automatically returns to normal operating position when the towing pin is
removed. When towing, the maximum nose gear steering angle is ± 95O. AOM1.14P2,3
206. What is the maximum taxi speed during taxing in a straight line?
a. 15 kt
b. 20 kt
c. 25 kt
d. 30 kt Ans. d
Taxiway centerline should appear 2 cm right of autoland warning light on LP side when taxiing in a straight
line.
The normal taxi speed shall not exceed 30 kt.
When taxi speed trends to over 30kt at idle thrust, smoothly apply the brakes to slowdown the aircraft to
approx. 10 – 20 kt then release the brakes smoothly. This will cause less brake wear. AOM VOL 2
Slow down to less than 15 kt ground speed before making a turn. 3.3/1 P2

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207 What is the proper rotation technique to prevent tail strikes the runway?

a. Aim an attitude not higher than 12.0O NU until the aircraft leaves the runway
b. Smoothly rotation and the aircraft will lift off when pitch attitude reaches 10O NU
c. Avoid rotation rate exceeds 3O / sec

d. All of above Ans. d


ROTATE
Initially aim at an attitude not higher than 12.0O NU until the aircraft leaves the runway, confirming by an
increase in radio altimeter, then follow the FD bar. (If proper rotation rate is used, the aircraft should lift off
when the pitch attitude reaches 10O NU). Check that the required speed of V2 + 10 kt is maintained but do
not exceed 18O NU.
AOM VOL 2
Tail strike may occur if rotation rate exceeds 3O / sec or aircraft attitude higher than 12.8O NU when on
ground. 3.3/2 P3
208. Which statement is correct regarding the operation of brake fan?
a. Always taxi with brake fan OFF

b. Delayed the takeoff if brake fan is ON and brake temperature is above 150O C
c. When flight is terminated (night stop), leave brake to ON if brake temp is above 100O C
d. At transit station, set brake fan to OFF regardless of next takeoff time Ans. b
TAXI CHECKLIST
7. Brake temp & fan……………………………………….CHECKED & OFF

- If brake fans are ON and indicated temperature is above 150O C, the takeoff must be
delayed. Continue brake fan operation until indicated temperature drops below 150O C.
NOTE
Brake fans ON, a temperature indication of 150O C is equivalent to an actual temperature of 300O
C. Takeoff is only permitted with actual brake temperature below 300O C

- If brake fans are OFF, takeoff may be continued unless BRAKE TEMP HI caution appears, which
is activated at 300O C
PARKING CHECKLIST

9. Brake temp & fan…………………………….__O / OFF / ON


- Check brake temperature on SYSTEM display:

- If below 100O C with brake fan operation, set brake fan OFF

- If above 100O C, leave brake fan on AOM VOL 2


- If time delay for next take off is more than 2 hours, select BRK FAN OFF regardless of temperature 3.3/2 P9, 13
209. What should you do if the brakes are found inoperative during L/D roll? Ans. a
a. Selects the BRK – A/SKID switch to ALTN / OFF immediately and uses brake pressure at or below
1000 psi
b. Selects the BRK – A/SKID switch to ALTN / ON immediately and uses normal brake pressure
c. Recycles the BRK – A/SKID switch between NORM / ON and ALTN / ON
d. Uses the Parking brake

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If brakes are found inoperative, switch immediately BRK – A/SKID to ALTN / OFF and modulate brake
pressure as required at or below 1000 psi.
AOM VOL 2
Brake pedals should be released when the A/SKID is switch to off. Otherwise the pedal braking orders will
be taken into account and the aircraft will react strongly. 3.3/7 P3
210. During A/C is on ground, how can you ensure that the GREEN hydraulic has been used for the normal
brake system?
a. Release parking brake before taxi out and check the brake pressure triple indicator drops to zero
b. Release parking brake before taxi out while brake pedals are depressed and check the brake pressure
triple indicator drops to zero
c. Brake the A/C during taxi and check that the brake pressure triple indicator remains zero
d. Set the parking brake and check the brake pressure triple indicator indicates 1500 psi Ans. b
BRAKING
Brake check can be performed once the aircraft is moving or while stopped. To check the brakes while
stopped, depress both brake pedals with the parking brake SET. Then release the parking brake and check
that the yellow hydraulic pressure on the brake pressure triple indicator drops to zero (or below 130 psi). AOM VOL 2
The main purpose of the brake check is to check that GREEN pressure has taken over and that YELLOW
pressure has been cut off. 3.3/1 P1
211. Which statement is not true regarding the brakes / anti-skid system?
a. BRK – A/SKID switch position in NORM / ON, the GREEN pressure is used with YELLOW pressure is
backup
b. BRK – A/SKID switch position in ALTN / ON, the YELLOW pressure is used with YELLOW
accumulator pressure is backup
c. The parking brake uses YELLOW accumulator pressure only
d. The YELLOW accumulator is standing by for all modes of braking system Ans. c
There are four braking modes:
- Normal braking uses GREEN hydraulic pressure and includes an anti-skid system. It is electrically
controlled. The BRK – A/SKID switch is in NORM / ON position.
- Alternate braking with anti-skid uses YELLOW pressure. It is hydraulic controlled. The BRK – A/SKID
switch is in ALTN / ON position. If the BRK – A/SKID switch is in NORM / ON position and GREEN
pressure is not available or drops during braking, this mode is automatically selected.
- Alternate braking without anti-skid uses the same hydraulic lines as the alternate system. It is
automatically selected if both GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic system fail, or if the BRK – A/SKID
switch is moved to ALT / OFF. In the first case, power is supplied by two accumulators in the YELLOW
system which are charged by an electric pump and which contain sufficient fluid for seven full brake
applications. In the second case, normal YELLOW system pressure is utilized, backed up by the
accumulators. The anti-skid protection is not available.
- The parking brake uses YELLOW hydraulic pressure or YELLOW accumulator pressure. AOM1.14P3
212. Condition: Auto brake is armed in flight according to the Approach checklist.
When will the auto brake be activated after touchdown?
a. Main wheel shock absorbers are compressed
b. Nose wheel is on ground
c. One engine thrust reverser is selected
d. Ground spoilers are extended Ans. d

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AUTOBRAKE SYSTEM
The system is armed by selecting the LO, MED or MAX mode provided all the following arming conditions
are met:
- Landing gear lever is DOWN
- BRK – A/SKID selector is at NORM / ON or parking brake selected ON
- BRK FAIL light off
- Green pressure available
- No failure on the auto brake system
- Pressure transceivers and master valves normally operating
The system is initiated by ground spoiler extension command, i.e. whenever the ground spoiler is activated
the auto brake will function in the mode selected – LO, MED or MAX AOM1.14P3
213. Which statement is not true regarding the anti-skid system?
a. Eight normal anti-skid valves are supplied by GREEN hydraulic
b. The anti-skid in alternate mode uses the same servo valves as normal mode used
c. Anti-skid system uses the rotation speed of the nose wheel and one of the eight main wheels for
comparison
d. Release signal of the anti-skid system is shown as release bars on the wheel page of the ECAM Ans. b
There are two sets of the anti-skid regulator valves, one for normal system consisting of eight normal servo
valves, supplied by the GREEN hydraulic system, the other for alternate system consisting of four alternate
servo valves, one for two wheels, supplied by the YELLOW hydraulic system.
The anti-skid system is based on a comparison between a reference signal by the nose wheel and the
rotation speed of each of the eight wheels of the main landing gear.
When the two signals differ, a release signal is sent to the affected brake. Release indication is shown as
release bars on the wheel page of the ECAM. AOM1.14P4
214. Can we taxi with deflated tires? Ans. c
a. Yes, with maximum of 2 deflated tires on each main wheel.
b. No, a/c has to be towed only.
c. Yes, with maximum of up to 4 deflated tires on each main wheel but nose wheel steering is not
permitted.
d. No, a/c cannot be moved without deflated tire changed.

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Taxi with deflated tires :


If tire damage is suspected after landing, an inspection of the tires is required before taxiing.
If tires are deflated but not damaged, taxi can be done at low speed with the following limitations :
 Maximum of 2 deflated tires on each main gear (one per an axle) and /or one deflated tires on the
nose LDG
- Nose gear steering angle less than 20°
- Speed limited to 20 kt.
 Three deflated tires on the same main gear :

- Nose gear steering angle limited to ± 50°


- Speed limited to 10 kt.
 Four deflated tires on the same main gear :
- Nose wheel steering not permitted. AOM2.14 P1
215. Which causes the red L/D down arrow light illuminated with red master warning light and CRC?
a. One engine at idle, altitude below 1500 ft, and L/D gear not down
b. One engine at idle, altitude below 1000 ft, and L/D gear not down
c. Engine not in takeoff power, slats/flaps 15/20, altitude below 1000 ft, and L/D gear not down
d. Slats/flaps 30/40, L/D gear not down Ans. d
L/D gear not down – Approach
- L/D gear not down, and
- One engine at flight idle and the other not at T/O thrust, and
- Altitude below 750 ft.
( Able to cancel by using normal cancel switch)
L/D gear not down – Landing
- L/D not down, and slats/flaps is 15/20
- Engine not in T/O thrust
- Altitude below 750 ft.
L/D gear not down – Landing
- L/D not down and slats/flaps is 30/40 AOM1.14P15
216. After extending the L/D gear by gravity, normally we will not turn the hand crank back in order to reset the Ans. a
free fall system, but there are some cases that the checklist called for resetting the free fall system, what are
those cases and why?
a. Landing with nose or main L/D gear unsafe in order to close the L/D gear doors
b. Landing with dual hydraulic system failure (GREEN remaining) in order to steer the A/C on ground
c. Whenever made the overweight L/D together with L/D gear gravity extension in order to resume the
normal braking system
d. None of above

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LANDING WITH NOSE, ONE MAIN, or BOTH MAIN L/G ABNORMAL


GRAVITY EXTENSION hand crank………………………………BACK TO NORM AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
- Rotating the GRAVITY EXT hand crank to normal position may result in landing gear door(s) closure,
and under certain failure conditions pressurize the landing gear actuators. 14.9/10/11
217. By how much is the fuel consumption increased if flying with L/D gear door not close and with L/D gear
extended?
a. Fuel consumption is increased by 30% / fuel consumption is multiplied by 3.3
b. Fuel consumption is increased by 30% / fuel consumption is multiplied by 2.2
c. Fuel consumption is increased by 15% / fuel consumption is multiplied by 2.2 Ans. b
d. Fuel consumption is increased by 20% / fuel consumption is multiplied by 2.5

AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
14.3/4
14.6/7
218. What is the speed limit for the L/D gear extension? Ans. c
a. 240 / .53
b. 250 / .53
c. 270 / .59
d. 300 / .65

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Speed limits for gear operations:


- Extension…………………………………………………..270 / .59
- Extended……………………………………………………270 / .65
- Retraction…………………………………………………..240 / .53 AOM2.14P1
219. What is the correct meaning of VC trend speed (yellow arrow extend up or down from the actual speed
symbol)?
a. Speed that will be achieved in next 10 sec
b. Speed that will be achieved in next 15 sec
c. Speed increasing or decreasing by 10 kt depending on the thrust setting
d. Indicator of increasing or decreasing of speed in order to remind the pilot to reduce or advance thrust Ans. a
SPEED TREND
Presented by an arrow from the actual speed symbol. Trend for the next 10 sec. AOM1.15/1P4
220. What is the roll angle and nose up attitude that the FD will disappear?

a. Bank angle exceeds 30O and pitch attitude exceeds 25O


b. Bank angle exceeds 45O and pitch attitude exceeds 25O
c. Bank angle exceeds 45O and pitch attitude exceeds 30O

d. Bank angle exceeds 60O and pitch attitude exceeds 30O Ans. b
ROLL INDEX AND SCALE
If the bank angle exceeds 45O, the following information only remains displayed:
- Pitch and roll attitudes
- Speed
- Heading
- FPV (if selected)
All other information is cleared from the display.
The PFD display returns to normal when the bank angle decreases below 40O.
PITCH SCALE
If the pitch attitude exceeds 25O nose up or 13O nose down, the following information only remains
displayed:
- Pitch and roll attitudes
- Speed
- Heading
- FPV (if selected)
All other information is cleared from the display.
The PFD display returns to normal when the pitch attitude decreases below 22O nose up or increases
above 10O nose down. AOM1.15/1P4

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221. What does it mean, if ILS is flashing on the lower right corner of the corresponding PFD?
a. The ILS signal has lost
b. The LAND capability is downgraded
c. The LAND mode is selected but NAV-ILS-VOR switch is not in ILS position
d. The ILS signal is available but the LAND mode is not selected Ans. c
ILS REMINDER
ILS flashes if LAND mode is selected and NAV – ILS – VOR switch is not in ILS position. AOM1.15/1P5
222. What should you perform if the PFD information lost (PFD displays blanking with white diagonal line or
complete blanking)?
a. Select the PFD / ND XFR (affected side)
b. Select the EFIS SGU to using system 3
c. Turn off the affected side PFD brightness knob
d. Unable to recover the loss PFD Ans. c
LOSS OF PFD DISPLAY (TAA – TAZ)
 If loss of CRT is suspected (CRT is blank) or when PFD information required
PFD brightness knob (affected side)……………………………………OFF
- PFD information is recovered on the lower CRT (replacing ND information) by switching failed
PFD off using PFD brightness knob.
 If ND information required AOM VOL 2
PFD / ND XFR (affected side)………………………………………ON EM Checklist
- ND information can be recovered on the lower CRT by using PFD / ND XFR pushbutton. 15.7
223. If VOR 1 receiver failed, the marker receiver is also inoperative.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
VOR SYSTEM
Two independent VOR/Marker receivers are installed using a common VOR antenna located on the top of
the vertical stabilizer. Each system is tuned together with the DME either automatically by the FMS or
manually by the frequency selector on the VOR control panel.
MARKER SYSTEM
The marker receiver is an integrated part of the VOR/Marker receiver no.1 using an antenna located on the
bottom of the fuselage. The receiver is activated simultaneously with VOR 1. There is no control for the
receiver except for the volume control and the dimming of the marker light. AOM1.15/3P1
224. What is the meaning of the RA (red) displays on the PFD instead of the radio height readout?
a. The corresponding RA system fails
b. Both RA systems fails
c. DH indication (on EFIS control panel) fails
d. Both a. and b. Ans. b
RA 1 height is normally displayed on PFD 1 and RA 2 height on PFD 2. In case of failure of one system, the
other system automatically supplies the RA height to the affected side PFD. AOM1.15/7P1
When both RA’s fail, RA (red) is displayed in place of radio height readout. AOM1.15/7P2
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225. What is the definition of green dot speed?


a. The best climb gradient speed in clean configuration.
b. The recommended speed for holding because it is very close to the Max Endurance speed.
c. The maneuvering speed in clean configuration.

d. All of the above. Ans. d


GREEN DOT DEFINITION
The green dot speed is defined to give the best climb gradient capability in clean configuration (close to the
best lift to drag ratio). It is used for different purposes:
t
For the ENGINE OUT CONFIGURATION, it represents :
- The FINAL TAKEOFF SPEED and thus the optimum climb speed
- The DRIFT DOWN SPEED that provides the best descent flight path and thus ensures the best
obstacle clearance.

2.1 With ALL ENGINES OPERATING, it indicates the speed allowing the best climb gradient. For
example, it represents the target speed in LVL/CH mode or PROF (MAX CLB), when during
climb and the ATC requests to expedite through a given FL.

The GREEN DOT SPEED is very close to the MAX ENDURANCE SPEED; it is, therefore, used as :
- Recommended speed for holding pattern in clean configuration
- Lower limit for ECON SPD target.

The GREEN DOT SPEED is finally the recommended MANEUVERING SPEED in clean configuration, AOM Bulletin
which provides adequate margin relative to Vs (between 1.4 Vs and 1.5 Vs), for example, to follow a circuit
for approach or for holding pattern. No. 27
226. If you plan to takeoff with NAV mode to follow a cleared SID, which page of ND and VOR selector you
should set?
a. PF’s ND set MAP mode and PF’s VOR selector to VOR
b. PF’s ND set ROSE/ARC mode and PF’s VOR selector to VOR
c. PF’s ND set ROSE/ARC mode and PF’s VOR selector to NAV
d. PF’s ND set MAP mode and PF’s VOR selector to NAV Ans. d
USE OF FMS & NAV
If no SID is published or ATC clearance includes an interception of radial, PF’s ND should be set to ROSE
or ARC mode. The VOR selector on PF’s side must be selected in VOR position.
If the climb out is according to SID and is included in the FMS NAV database, entered the cleared SID in
FMS and check that all waypoints are according to published. PF shall monitor the aircraft track by selecting
MAP mode on ND and CTSR mode on EFIS control panel. In this case it is recommended to select PF’s
VOR selector to NAV position and remote tune the station used during departure in FMS if required.
PNF’s ND should be set as appropriate in order to best monitor the aircraft track.
AOM VOL 2
PF and PNF’s FMS should be selected to PROG and TAKEOFF page respectively. The two pages may be
selected in reverse if PIC deems necessary. 3.3/2 P1

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227. What is the recommended tilt angle of weather radar during takeoff?

a. 4O up
b. 4O - 7O up
c. 5O up

d. 3O - 5O up Ans. b
For departure with weather along the departure route, scan the departure area during taxi-out or initial
runway alignment for the smoothest track. Set the range to 15 – 30 nm and the tilt to about 4O - 7O up to give
the best picture of the departure weather with minimum ground clutter. If the level off is required shortly after
takeoff, lower tilt to about 3O - 5O up or until ground clutter interferes with the picture clarity.
When aircraft is cleared up and on initial climb, extend the range to 30 – 60 and set the tilt to 3O - 5O up.
When on the normal climb speed schedule between 10000-20000 ft, set the range to 60 – 120 and the tilt to
2O - 3O up. As the aircraft climbs to cruising altitude, the range and tilt can be adjusted for best reception of
interested targets.
For medium altitude cruise (around 20000 ft), the tilt will normally be about 0O and varied according to range
selected to show traces of ground clutter in the top of the picture.
For descents, use normal cruise procedures. If there is extensive weather in the area, check the different
ranges. Below 10000 ft, use 2O - 3O up-tilt for targets out of 40 miles. This will eliminate tilt adjustment during AOM Bulletin
approach. If there is extensive weather in the terminal area, adjust the tilt control to pick up light ground
clutter on the top of the screen, so no cells will go undetected. No. 25
228. Conditions: You found the weather cell when radar tilted 4O down and 50 nm ahead, and the cell
disappeared when adjust the tilt angle up to 2O down.
What is the clearance between aircraft and the top of the cell?
a. 5000 ft
b. 8000 ft
c. 10000 ft
d. 12000 ft Ans. c
For normal cruise altitudes, it will be difficult to detect cells lower than the cruise altitude inside of the 40
miles range due to ground clutter, particularly over land. For this reason, diversion tactics should be initiated
at least 40 miles from the target cell. Low level targets will not visible beyond the line of sight due to the
earth’s curvature. To determine the clearance between the aircraft and the top of the cell, slowly tilt the
antenna up until the target return disappears. The clearance in feet will be 100 times the distance to the cell
times the degrees the antenna is tilted down, i.e., a 55 mile target is lost at 2O down. Clearance will be (100) AOM Bulletin
(55) (2) = 11000 ft. Keep in mind that the top of the precipitation level is not necessary a safe level to
penetrate. There could be considerable turbulence above the cell. No. 25
229. What is the limitation of the weather radar operation on ground?
a. Do not operate while aircraft is refueling/defueling or nearby 300 ft of the aircraft being
refueled/defueled
b. Do not operate within 50 ft of personnel in the beam area
c. Do not operate within 300 ft of a large metal object in a 180 degrees sector in front of the aircraft Ans. d
d. All of above

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AOM2.15/5P1
230. What is the scale of the TCAS traffic displayed in front, abeam, and behind of the VSI?
a. 6.5, 4, 2.5 nm respectively
b. 5, 4, 3 nm respectively
c. 6.5, 2.5, 2.5 nm respectively
d. A radius of 6 nm Ans. a
A white aircraft symbol is displayed in the lower center of the VSI representing TCAS equipped aircraft. A
white range ring made up of 12 marks, each corresponding to a normal clock position, is included. The
range ring surrounds the aircraft with a radius of 2 nm and is intended to assist in interpreting TCAS traffic
information.
The scale of the VSI display is 6.5nm to the top display edge of the VSI (ahead of the aircraft), 4nm to the
left and right edges, and 2.5nm to the bottom (rear of the aircraft). AOM1.15/6P3
231. What is the vertical altitude of the TCAS Other Traffic (symbol ◊)?

a. ± 1200 ft
b. ± 1200 ft and in 6 nm range
c. ± 2700 ft and in 6 nm range
d. ± 2700 ft or ± 9900 ft and in 6 nm range Ans. d
Symbol for the TA/RA displays is as follow:

- Resolution advisory  (filled red square)


Represents intruder aircraft entering the warning area, 15-35 sec from the collision area.

- Traffic advisory  (filled yellow circle)


Represents intruder aircraft entering the caution area, 20-48 sec from the collision area.

- Proximate traffic ◆ (filled cyan diamond)


Represents aircraft within 6nm and ± 2700 ft vertically. Proximate traffic is shown to improve situation
awareness in the event of a potential conflict with higher priority RA or TA aircraft.

- Other traffic ◊ (unfilled cyan diamond)


Represents any transponder replying traffic not classified as an intruder or proximate traffic within
± 2700 ft and ± 9900 ft vertically at 6nm range.
Data tag which is made up of a two digit number, a + (plus) or – (minus) sign and vertical trend arrow
appears either above or below the intruder aircraft symbol. The data tag appears in the same color as the
advisory symbols. AOM1.15/6P4

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232. Does the TCAS display traffic that entered the caution or warning zone but is outside the range of the
display?
a. Yes, but the symbol will not move until the traffic comes within range
b. Yes, but display as a half symbol at the edge of the display area
c. No, TCAS is unable to display traffic outside the display range
d. No, TCAS is unable to detect traffic outside of the display range Ans. b
In the event of off-scale traffic advisory, i.e., TCAS tracks an intruder that is outside the range of the display
but has entered the caution areas, one-half of the appropriate symbol will appear at the appropriate bearing
at the edge of the display area. The symbol will appear in its proper color and have its data tag displayed if
there is room. AOM1.15/6P4
233. What is the priority sequence of the environment alert systems? (list from highest priority)
a. Stall, GPWS, TCAS and Windshear
b. GPWS, Stall, Windshear and TCAS
c. Windshear, TCAS, GPWS and Stall
d. Windshear, Stall, GPWS and TCAS Ans. d
TCAS is an environmental system similar to the GPWS and the Windshear Alert System. Higher alert rates
are expected for TCAS TA&RA as compared to the other systems on the aircraft. For this reason, TCAS
alerts and advisory are independent on the normal aircraft warning system. The priority of the environmental
alerts are listed in the priority sequence as follows:
- Windshear
- Stall
- GPWS
- TCAS
When TCAS is inhibited by Windshear, Stall or GPWS, TCAS will revert to the TA only mode. Voice alerts
will be inhibited. AOM1.15/6P1
234. How does the crossing aircraft, 6000 ft higher, display on the TCAS/VSI?
a. Traffic is always display as the Other traffic symbol on the VSI if it is within range

b. TCAS is unable to display the traffic outside ± 2700 ft vertically


c. By selecting the mode selector to ABV
d. By selecting the mode selector to THRT Ans. c
TCAS TRAFFIC DISPLAY MODE SELECTOR
THRT The TCAS traffic display is in “Threat traffic” configuration and has the following results:
- The Other and Proximity traffic can be shown only in case TA or RA are also present
ALL The TCAS traffic displays is in “All traffic” configuration. All the intruders are presented, even if no
TA or RA is present.
ABV The TCAS traffic display is vertically extend to – 2700 ft and + 9900 ft.
BLW The TCAS traffic display is vertically extend to – 9900 ft and + 2700 ft. AOM1.15/6P7
235. It is important that pilots must follow the TCAS RA even when there is an opposite avoiding instruction given
by the controller.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
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It is important that pilots follow all RA’s even when there is:
- An opposite avoiding instruction by the controller
If the RA is not followed, it can adversely affect safety when the other aircraft responds to a
coordinated RA.
- Conflict close to the top of the operating envelop
If a “Climb” RA is generated, it may be possible to climb at least a little but do not descent, opposite to
the RA.
- Traffic information from the controller
The slower update rate of the radar display means that the vertical situation seen by the controller may
be inaccurate, particularly when aircraft are rapidly climbing or descending.
- Visual acquisition
The wrong aircraft could be identified and the situation may be wrongly assessed.
AOM Bulletin
It is recognized that the workload is often high during a TCAS RA encounter, nonetheless crew shall notify
ATC as soon as possible using the standard phraseology (e.g. “(call sign) TCAS CLIMB”) No. 44
236. Which statement is not true regarding the Inertial Reference Unit (IRU)?
a. All three IRU’s have their own batteries
b. IRU 1 can be supplied by batteries for at least 30 min
c. IRU 2&3 can be supplied by batteries for 30 sec then shed
d. IRU 3 can be supplied by batteries for at least 30 min in case of IRU 1 failure Ans. a
In the event of 115 V AC primary power loss, the three IRU’s are automatically supplied by batteries, which
are also A/C batteries. With regard to electrical loads balance, only IRU 1 remain supplied until 28 V DC
battery power supply is not available (at least 30 min). IRU 2 and IRU 3, which are also supplied by the 28 V
DC batteries, are load sheds after 30-sec delay. If IRU 3 is previously selected (in case of IRU 1 failure),
only IRU 3 remains supplied by 28 V DC batteries. AOM1.15/8P1
237. What is the difference between IRS WARN light on the Mode Selector Unit (MSU) illuminated steady and
flashing?
a. Steady when IRS is internal failure, flashing when IRS power is failed
b. Steady when IRS navigation signal is lost, flashing when IRS is failed
c. Steady when IRS is failed, flashing when IRS navigation signal is lost
d. Steady when IRS is failed, flashing when IRS detects an error in present position loaded Ans. c
The system contains a number of reasonableness checks to prevent errors in present position loading. If an
error exceeds 3 + 3T nm (where T is time in NAV in hour), the ALIGN mode light flashes.
The system also contains a fault monitoring circuit that detects any system malfunction. The IRS WARN
light flashes if the navigation signal is lost and ATT must be selected. In case of IRS failure, IRS WARN light
comes on steady and the system must be shutdown. AOM1.15/8P2
238. Which FMS data does not clear after A/C on ground an engine shutdown? Ans. d
a. All variables using default values
b. All variables entered by the crew
c. All variables entered as a result by the FMS
d. All variables concerning the secondary flight plan

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Automatic clearing of data


On ground at the end of flight with both fuel flow indications < 200 kg/h:
- All variables using default values will be reset to these values.
- All variables entered by the crew or entered as a result by the FMS are cleared. AOM1.15/9
- Variables concerning the secondary flight plan are not cleared. P11
239. How can we check the radial error rate of each IRU?

a. Update FMC present position on PROG page by the Ramp position.


b. Check IRS 1/2/3 position from ISDU and insert each position at RLSK opposite BRG/DIST and
compare BRG/DIST of each IRS 1/2/3 to the ramp position (radial errors)

c. Compute radial error rates to be within 2.4 N.M./hr, otherwise enter in a/c Log.
d. All of the above. Ans. d

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AOM2.15/9
P22
240. Where does the COST INDEX come from?
a. Cost of fuel / cost of time
b. Cost of time / cost of fuel
c. (60) * (cost of time (1 sec) / cost of fuel (1 kg))
d. (60) * (cost of fuel (1 kg) / cost of time (1 sec)) Ans. c

AOM1.15/9
P18

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241. When is the FMS automatically updated on ground?


a. NAVAIDS is received
b. RWY threshold position is provided and GO levers are pressed
c. Aircraft is moved
d. The FMS can be updated only in the air and after receiving of NAVAIDS Ans. b
An automatic updating of the FMS navigation on the RWY threshold coordinates (corrected with TO. SHIFT
if inserted) is provided at T/O when GO levers are pressed.
AOM1.15/9
This automatic updating can occur only if a RWY has previously been entered into F – PLN (through SID
page) P31B
242. The required navigation accuracy on the FMS PROG page can be manually modified.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
Estimated Position Error
The EPE is a value, which represents an estimation of the FMS position accuracy. The EPE depends on the
current navigation mode. It is permanently computed by the FMS.
- When in pure Inertial navigation mode, the EPE increases continuously according to the IRS drift
model.
- When in Radio / Inertial navigation mode, the FMS computes an EPE which represents the achievable
accuracy according to the radio beacons which are tuned.
- If the aircraft position is invalid, either in flight or on the ground, the EPE is set at 17 N.M.
EPE initialization
- At power up, the EPE is initialized at 17 N.M.
- After IRS alignment, manual update on the ground or takeoff update, the EPE is set to 0.28 N.M.
- After a manual update in flight, the EPE is set to 4 N.M.
Required navigation accuracy
Depending on the flight area over flown (en route, terminal or approach), the FMS computes a default value
the required navigation accuracy. This value can be manually modified.
The default values are:
- En route area: 3.41 N.M.
- Terminal area: 2.07 N.M.
- Approach area: 0.36 N.M. (DME / DME update) AOM1.15/9
0.61 N.M. (VOR / DME update) P31C
243. Since only 20 waypoints can be inserted in the FMS DEFINED WAYPOINT page, if 21st WPT is entered, the
first one is deleted, unless it belongs to the F–PLN. In this case the second one is deleted.
a. True
b. False Ans. a

AOM1.15/9
P39B

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244. By what distance will FMS shift the threshold position after you press TO SHIFT prompt on the FMS
TAKEOFF page during the intersection takeoff?
a. 300 ft
b. 600 m
c. 970 ft
d. 970 m Ans. d
Insertion of a 970 m. shift from the runway threshold position during preflight by pressing RLS key adjacent AOM1.15/9
to the TO SHIFT select prompt is replaced by the TO SHIFT active prompt. Pressing the same key second
time removes the 970-feet shift. P34
245. How can you clear the alternate airport from the FMS (in flight)?
a. Delete the ALTN FLT PLAN from the F–PLN page
b. By the ALTN airport prompt which is branching from the FUEL PRED page
c. By clear the ALTN airport from the F-PLN INIT page A
d. By the NO ALTN prompt on the HOLD page which is branching from the LAT REV page Ans. d

AOM1.15/9
P28
246. In flight, VOR selector is recommended to set in NAV position in order to improve NAV accuracy.
a. True
b. False
Ans. a
USE OF FMS & NAV
During cruise both VORs should be tuned to cross check the aircraft position. However, when the VOR
selector is in VOR, the FMS automatic update function will be downgraded. Therefore, it is recommended to
leave the VOR selector in NAV and remote/auto tune. The VOR selection may be used to check radial at
interval stages if required.
PF’s CDU should preferably be set on PROG page but the other pages such as F–PLN may be selected if
necessary. PNF’s CDU should preferably be set on F–PLN page. AOM VOL 2
3.3/4 P1
247. What is the validity of the NAV database?
a. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page
b. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be extended for 2
days (+ 2 days)
c. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be expired 2 days
before (- 2 days)

d. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be extended for 2
days or expired 2 days before (± 2 days) Ans. d

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AOM2.15/9P1
248. What is the maximum difference limit of using NAV mode until MDA or LOC capture if NAV accuracy on
FMS PROG showed “I” or “LOW”?
a. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 1 nm
b. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 2 nm
c. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 3 nm
d. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 4 nm Ans. a
The arrival route/STAR may be flown by promulgated navigation aids or using the FMS if it is defined and
checked on the FMS flight plan page and “RI” or “HIGH” accuracy is shown in NAV mode of PROG page. If
“I” (IRS only) or “LOW” accuracy is displayed on PROG page then the FMS position must be checked by the
following procedure before using FMS arrival routes.
- Insert a VOR/DME ident in the FMS BRG/DIST TO function.
- Remote tunes the same VOR/DME on PROG page.
- Compare the DME distance from VOR and distance from PROG page. If the difference is less than
limit, FMS position is considered reliable.
 3 nm (or RNP requirement) en route
 2 nm in TMA (50nm)
 1 nm on approach (15 nm)
AOM VOL 2
If the distance is more than limit then FMS position is not reliable and the navigation must be based on raw
data. 3.3/6 P1
249. Which A/C system is direct supplied by ENG bleed air separately from pneumatic system?

a. Engine starting
b. Wing anti-ice
c. Hydraulic tank pressurization
d. Thrust reverser Ans. d
The pneumatics system supplies high pressure air for :
- Air conditioning /Pressurization,
- Engine starting,
- Wing anti-ice,
- Hydraulic tank pressurization, and
- Potable water tank pressurization.
Separate systems are used for :
- Engine air intake anti-icing , and
- Thrust reverser. AOM1.16P1

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250. What is the function of the bleed valve?


a. A shutoff valve
b. A flow control valve
c. A pressure regulate valve
d. A shutoff valve and a pressure regulate valve Ans. d
ENGINE BLEED AIR
Air is generally bled from intermediate stage of the engine HP compressor (IP stage).
During low engine speed, when the pressure from IP stage is low, air is automatically bled from the last
compressor stage (HP stage).
The bleed valve is installed downstream of the IP / HP ducting and acts as a shutoff and a pressure
regulator valve. When upstream pressure is sufficient, downstream pressure is regulated at 46 psi. AOM1.16P2
251. It is not recommend to use ground pneumatic power for?

a. Engine starting.
b. Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
c. Supply air conditioning packs.
d. Pressurize potable water system. Ans. c
Ground pneumatic power source
On the ground, the A/C bleed system can be supplied by HP ground air supply units. This allows :
- Supply to the air conditioning packs (not recommended due to possible pack
contamination).
- Engine starting
- Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
(Normally, potable tanks are pressurized by bleed air tapped from the left pneumatic duct-AOM 1.18 P1) AOM1.16P3
252. If HP VALVE P/B is in AUTO (P/B in), which condition will cause the HP valves to open?
a. Engine is set in high thrust
b. Bleed valve P/B is OFF

c. The valve upstream temperature is exceeds 393O C


d. Wing anti-ice system has been turned on Ans. d
HP VALVE P/B (2)
AUTO (P/B in) The valve is automatically opened provided the related BLEED VALVE P/B is selected in
AUTO
The HP valve remains opened when:
- The HP stage pressure is below 86 PSI, provided ANTI-ICE P/B is selected OFF.
- The HP stage pressure is below 141 PSI, provided ANTI-ICE P/B is selected
ON.

- The HP temperature is below 393O C (GE), 378O C (PW), and pressure below 73
PSI AOM1.16P8

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253. Which statement is not true, regarding the APU bleed valve?
a. When APU bleed valve switch is ON, both ENG bleed valves will close
b. When APU bleed valve switch is ON, the X-FEED valve will open provided that the mode selector
switch is at AUTO
c. APU bleed valve will close automatically if right wing leak is detected
d. APU bleed valve will close automatically if APU or the left wing LEAK is activated Ans. c
APU BLLED AIR
The APU bleed valve is pneumatically operated, electrically controlled butterfly valve. The valve is
automatically closed when:
- APU compressor speed below 95%
- Reverse flow in APU air bleed is sensed by an airflow sensor associated with a built in pressure switch
- An APU bleed leak or LH bleed leak is detected
When the APU bleed valve is open, the engine bleed valves are automatically closed.
In normal automatic operation, the crossfeed valve is controlled to the same position as the APU bleed
valve. AOM1.16P2
254. Which state is not true regarding the pneumatic manifold failure detection?
a. Single detection loop is installed in APU and pylon ducts
b. Dual detection loops are installed in each wing and center fuselage ducts
c. There are 3 leak lights on the overhead panel
d. The LEAK light will disappear after the corresponding switch is set to OFF Ans. d
MANIFOLD FAILURE DETECTION
Single detection loops are installed along the pylon and APU ducts. Dual detection loops are installed in the
center fuselage and in each wing around pneumatic and anti-ice ducts.
The warning system is divided into 3 zones; the right wing and pylon, the left wing and pylon, and the mid/aft
fuselage section.
An overheat is indicated by corresponding LEAK light on the overhead panel and by ECAM activation.
The LEAK warning lights remain on as long as the overheat condition exist. When the overheat condition
has disappeared, the circuit must be reset to reopen the valves. AOM1.16P4
255. When does the engine bleed valve close automatically? Ans. d
a. APU bleed switch is ON with APU available
b. Ambient overheat of the pylon, wing or fuselage duct is detected
c. The ENG FIRE handle is pulled
d. All of above

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The bleed valve close automatically in the following cases:


- Pneumatic controller fault.
- Overheat at the precooler outlet.
- Bleed leak detection.
- Failure of pressure regulator.
- Failure of temperature regulator at the precooler outlet
- Actuation of the associated ENG FIRE handle
- APU bleed valve open AOM1.16P2
256. Which statement is not true regarding the pneumatic manifold air leak detection?

a. There are 3 areas of overheat detection, which are engine pylon, wing & fuselage center section,
fuselage aft section and APU.

b. Some area is detected by single loop and some by double loop.


c. The LEAK light remains ‘ON’ as long as the overheat condition prevails.
d. When the overheat condition has disappeared the affected valve will be reopen automatically. Ans. d
In the event of overheat, the corresponding amber LEAK light on the overhead panel comes on and the
ECAM system is activated. This light remains on as long as the overheat condition prevails. But the valves
affected by the overheat are spring-loaded closed and the circuits must be reset to open the valves when
the overheat condition has disappeared. AOM1.16P4
257. During engine restart in flight with ignition at ‘CONT RELIGHT’ and START P/B selected ON, which Ans. b
statement is correct?

a. This configuration can be maintained at all time


b. This configuration can be maintained at short time to prevent in flight decompression
c. The packs valve will not be re-opened automatically when N2 reach 45 %
d. Both ignition circuits will be energized even the fuel lever is ‘OFF’

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e. Engine restart in flight


.
.
If restart unsuccessful
Fuel Lever………………………………OFF
After any starter assisted restart attempt
START P/B……………………………...Release
START OPEN LIGHT …………………CHECK Extinguished
PACK VALVES ………………………..CHECK OPENED
(IF restart is unsuccessful after a STARTER ASSISTED attempt, allow pack valves re-opening
(START pushbutton switch released–out), for maintaining aircraft pressurization, before proceeding
with a new start attempt)

SECOND RESTART ATTEMPT………………..CONSIDER


. AOM VOL 2,
4.1/2-17 P15-17
.
END
[Both air conditioning systems are deactivated if an engine is started with the ENG START selector in CONT AOM 1.17 (GE)
RELIGHT Position] P 17, PW P 20
258. GE engine: If one HP valve is closed, what should you perform to ensure that the thrust reverser on the
affected side will deploy after L/D?
a. Start APU and use APU bleed
b. Open the X-FEED valve
c. Open the X-FEED valve and select one pack OFF
d. Close the X-FEED valve manually Ans. c
TAA - TAH BLEED HP VALVE FAULT
FOR LANDING
AIR X-FEED………………………………………….MAN
AIR X-FEED………………………………………….IN LINE
ONE PACK…………………………………………..OFF AOM VOL 2
With the bleed HP valve closed, reverser on affected side may not deploy due to insufficient air pressure EM Checklist
from IP bleed. In order to ensure reverser deployment, it is recommended to open the air X-FEED valve and
select one pack OFF for landing. 16.4
259. Where does the EPR signal come from? (PW) Ans. b
a. The ratio between turbine discharge pressure and input pressure of high pressure compressor
b. The ratio between turbine discharge pressure and fan inlet pressure
c. The ratio between output pressure of high pressure compressor and fan inlet pressure
d. The ratio between output pressure of high pressure turbine against input pressure of low pressure
turbine

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EPR
The primary parameter for engine thrust control is the actual Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). It is the ratio of
turbine discharge total pressure (PT4.95) to fan inlet total pressure (PT2).
There are two PT 4.95 probes that sense PT 4.95 at two different locations. They join together to give
average pressure. AOM1.17PW
At the fan inlet, a combine PT2/TT2 probe measures the fan inlet total pressure (PT2). P7
260. Which signal is used to control Variable Bypass Valve (VBV) and Variable Stator Vane (VSV)? (GE)
a. Electrical signal from Mean Engine Control (MEC)
b. Fuel pressure from MEC
c. Hydraulic pressure from GREEN hydraulic system
d. Electrical signal from FADEC Ans. b
VARIABLE BYPASS VALVE AND VARIABLE STATOR VANE
Twelve Variable Bypass Valves (VBV) bypass part of primary airflow before entering high pressure
compressor into the fan stream to achieve correct airflow matching between the low and high pressure
compressors and reduce possibility of engines stall at all phases of engine operation. The VBV’s are
operated by two hydraulic actuators controlled by fuel pressure from the MEC.
The inlet guide vane and first five stages of HP compressor stator vanes are variable (VSV). They control
airflow through the HP compressor performance and good stall margin over the whole operating range. The AOM1.17GE
VSV are operated by two hydraulic actuators through levers and linkages. The actuators are controlled by
fuel pressure from MEC. P4
261. What is the main purpose of Power Management Control (PMC)? (GE)
a. To trims (downward only) the fuel flow
b. To control most of the fuel flow
c. To measure the mass fuel flow and displays on FF/FU indicator
d. To distribute fuel to fuel nozzles in combustion chamber Ans. a
MAIN ENGINE CONTROL (MEC)
The MEC is a hydromechanical system. It provides for complete basic operation of the engine and controls
most of the fuel flow.
POWER MANAGEMENT CONTROL (PMC)
The PMC is an electronic system. It controls more finely than MEC, a little part of the fuel flow.
Via a torque motor, it trims (downward only) the fuel flow so that when it is operating, the max T/O and the
max CL N1 are obtained for fixed position of the throttle lever, despite changes in flight or environmental
conditions.
AOM1.17GE
The authority band allocated for down trim is sufficiently wide to accommodate all environmental conditions,
but is limited to minimize thrust change under failure conditions. P2
262. Where does the main power supply for the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) come from? (PW) Ans. c
a. A/C batteries
b. The FADEC’s own batteries
c. The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)
d. The A/C electrical system

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PW 4158 engine is controlled solely by an electronic unit called FADEC with no mechanical linkage between
the engine and throttle lever in the flight deck.
The FADEC, mounted at the fan case, consists of two independent control channels A and B. Each channel
has its own inputs, outputs and power supply, but the data is crosstalked between the two channels for
comparison and redundancy.
The electronic circuits of both channels are supplied by a dedicated dual-output Permanent Magnet
ALTERNATOR (PMA) mounted on the accessory gearbox. In addition, 28 V DC aircraft electrical power
also supplies to both channels to power various solenoids and FADEC for ground test purpose.
AOM1.17PW
FADEC is able to work without any aircraft system. It does not require electrical supply from aircraft network.
Only throttle position is needed to modulate the thrust. P7-8
263. When does the Fuel Used (FU) counter reset?
a. After the respective engine has been shutdown
b. After selected the ignition switch to A or B for engine starting
c. After both engines have been started
d. During the respective engine starts Ans. d
FU COUNTER AOM1.17
Displays fuel used. The reset of the FU indicator is automatic on ground during the respective engine start. GE/P12
PW/P17
264. Conditions: Thrust is reduced to idle.
Which condition is not considered as a ground idle?
a. During taxiing
b. During L/D roll with thrust reverser deployed
c. In flight, during descent with slats retracted
d. In flight without any anti-ice system in use Ans. b
Ground idle is possible both on ground and in flight according to these conditions:
On ground
- When the reversers are stowed
In flight
- When the slats are retracted
- When the engine anti-ice is off AOM1.17GE
This is to obtain ground idle during descent for less fuel consumption. P3
265 Which statement is not true regarding the engine oil cooling system? Ans. c
a. The oil from the oil tank is cooled by passing through air/oil cooler (PW)
b. The oil from the oil tank is cooled by passing through fuel/oil heat exchanger (PW)
c. The oil from the oil tank is cooled by passing through air/oil cooler (GE)
d. The oil is cooled by fuel/oil heat exchanger before returning to the oil tank (GE)

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The pumped oil then supplies the four engine bearings and the accessory gearboxes. After passing through
all lubricated component, the oil is pumped back to the reservoir by five scavenge pumps through filters and
a magnetic chip detectors installed upstream of each pump. The scavenged oil then passes through master
magnetic chip detector, the scavenge filter and the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The scavenge filter is bypassed
when differential pressure reaches 40 psi (bypassed when the differential pressure reaches 85 psi)
An oil clog warning is triggered when the pressure drop across the filter reaches 31 PSI

AOM1.17GE
P3
From oil tank, a single stage oil pressure pump supplies oil through oil main filter. If the pressure drop
across the filter exceeds 50 psi, the oil clog warning is activated. The oil bypasses the filter if pressure drop
exceeds 90 psi.
The oil is then passes through an air/oil cooler and through a fuel/oil heat exchanger. Pressure tapping at
fuel/oil heat exchanger outlet is used to detect high or low oil pressure conditions. Acceptable limits for high
oil temperature are between 163 and 177O C for less than 20 min, or 177O C in transient conditions. Limit of AOM1.17PW
low oil temperature is 50O C. The FADEC commands the temperature bypass valve, which causes the
engine oil to bypass the fuel/oil heat exchanger. P4
266. What is the maximum oil temperature / minimum oil pressure at idle thrust? (GE)

a. 160O C / 10 psi
b. 160O C / 15-25 psi
c. 175O C / 15-25 psi

d. 175O C / 10 psi Ans. d


OIL PRESSURE
- Normal pressure for ground and flight idle……. Min 10 psi / normal 15-25 psi
- For other operating conditions…………………..Normal 45-55 psi / max 90 psi
OIL TEMPERATURE

- Takeoff……………………………………………..Normal 65-160O C / max 175O C


AOM2.17GE
- During transient operation, the oil temperature mat exceed 160O C but not exceed 175O C for a period
of max 15 min. Whenever either these limits are exceeded, the engine should be shut down. P2
267. What is the minimum oil pressure? (PW)
a. 10 psi
b. 15 psi
c. 25 psi
d. 70 psi Ans. d

AOM2.17PW
P1
268. What is the minimum oil quantity for GE and PW engine before flight? Ans. a
a. 14 QT + estimated consumption / 9 QT + estimated consumption respectively
b. 9 QT + estimated consumption / 14 QT + estimated consumption respectively
c. 8 QT + estimated consumption / 12 QT + estimated consumption respectively
d. 12 QT + estimated consumption / 8 QT + estimated consumption respectively
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(Flight Deck Preparation checklist item 19)


GE
- Check that oil quantity indicators show minimum 14 QT + estimated consumption (max 0.55 QT/hr) and
set white bug.
PW
AOM VOL 2
- Check that oil quantity indicators show minimum 9 QT + estimated consumption (max 0.55 QT/hr) and
set white bug. 3.2/2P3
269. What is the difference between ignition switch at position A or B and CONT RELIGHT?
a. Ignition in position A or B operates on ground, ignition in CONT RELIGHT position operates in flight

b. Ignition in position A or B operates when fuel levers ON and N2 < 45%, ignition in CONT RELIGHT
position operates whenever fuel levers ON only
c. Ignition in position A or B operates when start pushbutton is pushed, ignition in CONT RELIGHT
position operates when fuel levers are selected to ON
d. Both operation are the same, except ignition CONT RELIGHT is inhibited on ground Ans. b
ENGINE IGNITION SYSTEM
The system consists of two separate identical circuits A and B, and is controlled through the ignition selector
on the ENG panel.
When start A (or B) is selected, A (or B) system for engine 1 and 2 is activated provided that the AOM1.17
corresponding HP FUEL lever is in ON position and N2 is below 45%.
GE/P4
When CONT RELIGHT is selected, both A&B systems for engine 1 and 2 are activated provided that the HP
FUEL lever is in ON position. They are not automatically deenergized when N2 reaches 45%. PW/P5
270. Which condition is not true, regarding the ignition and starting system?
a. The start valve opens when the related START P/B is pressed
b. When ignition switch is selected to A, B or CRANK, the pack valves are closed
c. When ignition switch is selected to CONT RELIGHT, the pack valves are closed

d. The start valve is closed when N2 reaches 45% Ans. c


The start valve is opened and air supplied to starter when the related START P/B is depressed, provided
that the ignition selector has been set. The blue open light in the related START P/B indicates the start valve
open position.
When FUEL lever is selected ON, ignition and fuel flow will be initiated and the engine will accelerate
provided that the ignition selector position is in A, B or CONT RELIGHT. When N2 reaches 45%, the starter
valve will close and the starter disengaged.
As long as the ENG START selector’s position is A, B or CRANK, the pack valves are closed. This situation AOM1.17
is indicated to the crew by the ARM lights, which extinguish during starting sequence but illuminate again
when both engine N2 are above 45%. GE/P5
If the selector position is CONT RELIGHT, latching of one of the two START P/B closes the pack valves. PW/P6
271. Which is not the correct procedure for engine start with battery?

a. Ignition switch must be selected to ‘Start B’ only.


b. Engine 2 may be start first.
c. Fuel lever will be select ‘ON’ after 20 sec.
d. Engine start P/B must be ‘released’ after GEN FAULT light extinguished. Ans. b

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BATTERY ENGINE START


Caution: Ensure chocks are in place.
 Before Start
GEN1…………………………………………………..ON
 When cleared to start
APU bleed or External Pneumatic Power………….ON
IGNITION …………….…………….………………..START B
[Fuel cross feed valve will be locked in actual (last) position. When electrical power is cut off (AOM1.16 P.3)]
 Engine 1 Start
ENG 1 START P/B ………………………………….PRESS & HOLD
- Confirm starter operation by observing control column movement.
CLOCK…………………………………………………START
ENG 1 FUEL LEVER…………………………………ON after 20 sec.
 When GEN1 FAULT light extinguishes
ENG 1 START P/B……………………………………RELEASE
 After engine 1 Start AOM2.17
COCKPIT PREPARATION…………………………..COMPLETE GE/P11
ENGINE 2……………………………………………...START PW/P9
272. What is the purpose of the ignition transfer switch? (TAT – TAZ)
a. Transfer ignition system A to ignition system B in case of system B fails
b. Transfer ignition system B to ignition system A in case of system A fails
c. Switching the ignition system A to use the power from AC EMER bus in case of ignition system B fails
d. Switching the ignition system B to use the power from AC EMER bus in case of ignition system A fails Ans. c
To provide the starting system in case of ignition system B failure, an ignition transfer switch can be used to AOM1.17PW
energize the ignition system A from the emergency bus bar.
P6
273. What is the engine “light up” time for GE and PW?
a. 20 sec. on both GE and PW
b. 25 sec. on both GE and PW
c. 20 sec. for GE and 25 sec. for PW
d. 25 sec. for GE and 20 sec. for PW Ans. d
GE
Monitor EGT when it rises…………………………………….LP
If no EGT rises within 25 sec after “FUEL ON”, move fuel lever to OFF.
PW
Monitor EGT when it rises…………………………………….LP AOM VOL 2
If no EGT rises within 20 sec after “FUEL ON”, move fuel lever to OFF. 3.2/2P7

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274. What is the EGT limit during engine starting? (GE)

a. 750O C for 40 sec


b. 750O – 870O C for 40 sec
c. 820O – 870O C for 40 sec

d. 750O – 870O C for 40 sec / above 870O C with no time delay Ans. d
EGT
During starting, 40 sec time limit………………………………..750 – 870O C
During starting, no time limit…………………………………….750O C
AOM2.17GE
Any starting EGT above 750O C must be recorded in aircraft log. Any starting EGT in the range 820 - 870O C
requires maintenance action before next flight (intended flight may be completed). P1
275. What is the EGT limit during engine start on ground, and what is the condition that indicates the possibility of
ENG hot start? (PW)

a. 535O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached 30%, an engine hot start might occur
b. 535O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached idle, an engine hot start might occur
c. 650O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached 30%, an engine hot start might occur

d. 650O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached idle, an engine hot start might occur Ans. a
EGT

- During start, on ground………………………………..535O C

- During start, in flight……………………………………650O C


AOM2.17PW
For in-flight start, if EGT exceeds 535O C, the maximum temperature and duration must be recorded for
maintenance action. P1
HOT START (TAK – TAZ) AOM VOL 2
O
If EGT reaches 400 C before N2 has reached 30%, anticipate a possible hot start and be prepared to select EM Checklist
FUEL lever to OFF to prevent a hot start.
17.47
276. What should you perform first after notice that the start valve fails to close when N2 > 45% during ENG
starting?
a. FUEL lever OFF, and after 30 sec then select ENG START selector to OFF
b. Select ENG START selector to OFF and check OPEN light is extinguished
c. Shutdown the pneumatic in used (APU bleed, external pneumatic, or X-FEED from the other ENG)
d. Call maintenance personnel to close the start valve manually Ans. b
START VALVE FAILS TO CLOSE (TAA – TAZ)

ENG START selector


AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
.............................................................................................. 17.56

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277. At which speed that you need to reduce reverse thrust to idle reverse during L/D roll?
a. 80 kt ground speed
b. 60 kt ground speed
c. 80 kt IAS
d. 60 kt IAS Ans. c
The following thrust settings shall be used for normal reverse.
At speed above 80 kt IAS:

- As required up to reverse stop but never more than 95% N1 (90% N1 if OAT below 30O C).
- When landing on long, dry runway, it is recommended to use idle reverse only on both engines
throughout the landing roll in the interest of passenger comfort and noise abatement.
At 80 kt IAS (PNF calls out “EIGHTY”)
- Start reverse thrust reduction so as to reaches the idle reverse at approx. 60 kt IAS.
At 60 kt IAS (PNF calls out “SIXTY”) AOM VOL 2
- Both engines at idle reverse. Do not unreverse if retardation is still required. 3.3/7 P2
278. What is the most probable caused if you found that the oil quantity is increasing in-flight during steady state
of engine operation? (GE)
a. Oil was over serviced before flight
b. Fuel leak into oil from fuel / oil heat exchanger
c. Oil temperature is rising and caused oil to expand in volume
d. Oil pressure is dropping and caused oil to expand in volume Ans. b
ENG OIL QTY ABNORMAL INCREASE (TAA – TAH) AOM VOL 2
Oil quantity increase is caused by fuel entering the oil system. EM Checklist
Whatever the source of the fuel leak, fuel enters the oil system because of the fuel pressure is always 17.14
higher than the oil pressure at the respective interface.
NOTE:
Maintenance action is required before next flight.

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PROCEDURE
So as to allow the early detection of rapidly developing fuel leaks into oil system and the timely initiation of
required maintenance actions, it is recommend that the flight crew monitor the oil quantity during steady
state engine operation as follows:
Before ENG start
- Oil QTY bugs……………………………………..SET
At least 30 sec after the ENG reaches stabilized idle
- Oil QTY……………………………………………Check below bug or below 20 quarts
After top of climb
- Oil QTY bugs……………………………………..RESET
During steady state ENG operation
- Oil QTY……………………………………………MONOTOR
Oil QTY increasing during steady state ENG operation or oil QTY approaching full
- NORMAL ENG OPERATION…………………..CONTINUE AOM Bulletin
- OIL QTY…………………………………………..Record increase for maintenance No. 38
279. Which source drives the N1 or EPR command pointer (black and white needle on the N1 or EPR indicator)?
a. Thrust Control Computer (TCC)
b. Throttle lever
c. Auto Throttle System (ATS)
d. PMC or FADEC Ans. d
N1 COMMAND POINTER (black and white) (GE) AOM1.17GE
Indicates the N1 command computed by the PMC. P11
N1 COMMAND POINTER (black and white) (PW) AOM1.17PW
Indicates the N1 command computed by the FADEC. P15
280. The engines must be stabilized at idle approx. 3 min before shutdown.(PW)
a. True
b. False Ans. b
Arrival
- Shut down engines after operation at, or near idle for, at least a 5 minutes cooling after landing.
Note
AOM 2.17 (PW)
If the time for taxiing to the parking gate is less than 5 minutes, the engine may be shut down at gate arrvial P.4
RP shall start his stop watch when LP selects forward idle on both engines in order to note landing and AOM VOL 2.0
engine thermo-stabilization times
3.3/7 P2

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281. With both engines flameout with unreliable airspeed (i.e. Volcanic ash encounter), what is the target to aim?

a. - 1° for best lift/drag ratio.


b. - 3° for best glide angle.
c. Optimum speed of 260 kt or green dot speed if available
d. - 2.5° (add +0.5° / 10 T above 100 T) Ans. d
BOTH ENGINES FLAMOUT

IGNITION……………………………….CONT RELIGHT
RAT………………………………………ON

THROTTLES………………………………..IDLE
FUEL SUPPLY……………………………..CHECK
CREW OXY MASKS……………………….CONSIDER/ON
OPTIMUM SPEED…………………………260 KT IAS
(Use green dot speed if available)
If unreliable or lost airspeed indication (Volcanic ash encounter)
PITCH ATTITUDE……….. ………………-2.5O (add 0.5O per 10 T above 100T)
USE ELEVATOR AND RUDDER WITH CARE ABOVE SPEED 170 KT IAS
COMMUNICATIONS……………………….VHF1/ATC1
RELIGHT………………………. ……………MONITOR .



 AOM VOL 2
END 4.1/2-17 P1-5
282. What are the correct actions you should perform if you found that the EPR is different during climb out
(below 14200 ft)? (PW)
a. Disconnect the auto throttle and adjust the throttle manually until both EPR is equivalent then
reengage the auto throttle
b. Disconnect the auto throttle and reduce thrust manually then reengage the auto throttle
c. Advancing both throttles by at least 2 degrees then releasing them
d. Reducing both throttles by at least 2 degrees then releasing them Ans. c
For PW engines, a difference in EPR between the two engines may be observed during climb up to
approximately 14200 ft. This difference has a negligible effect on the aircraft handling. However, the EPR
difference may be corrected by advancing both throttle levers by at least 2 degrees and then releasing AOM VOL 2
them, returning the thrust control to the A/THR. This action is sufficient to ensure that both FADEC have
switched over from takeoff phase to the flight phase and, thus, provide consistent EPR CMD computations. 3.2/3 P1

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283. What is the EGT limitation for T/O, MCT, Climb and Cruise? (GE)

a. 960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 890, 835O C respective
b. 960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 935, 870, 835O C respective Ans. a
c. 935 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 890, 835O C respective AOM2.17GE
d. 960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 870, 820 C respective
O
P2
284. What is the EGT limitation for T/O, and MCT? (PW)

a. 650 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 625O C respective
b. 650 (max 5 min), 650 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 625O C respective
c. 625 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 650O C respective

d. 650 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 535O C respective Ans. b

AOM2.17PW
P1
285. Which failure is displayed on the LH ECAM as underlining of system title and preceded by an asterisk?
a. Primary failure
b. Secondary failure
c. Independent failure
d. Advisory alert warning Ans. b
TYPE OF FAILURE
Failures causing warnings are divided into 3 types:
Primary failure
This is a failure of a system or component, which affects other systems or components. It is recognized by
the failure title written in a box on the WD and the warning lights on the pilot instrument panels.
Secondary failure
This is a system or component failure as a result of another system or component failure. It is recognized by
the underline system title and preceded by an asterisk. The warning lights related to failure on the pilot
instrument panels remain on.
Independent failure
This is a failure that is not caused by a failure of another system or component. Instead, it is an isolated
failure and does not affect other systems or components. It is recognized by the underlined system title and
the warning lights on the pilot instrument panels. AOM1.19/1P2

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286. Which statement is not true regarding the ECAM SD (RH ECAM)?
a. When warning is detected, the SD will display the appropriate system automatically
b. The manual mode can be selected by the P/B on the ECAM control panel to display the corresponding
system
c. The advisory automatic mode can be displayed in all phases of flight
d. The failure related automatic mode has the highest priority Ans. c
SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD)
The right ECAM is normally called System Display (SD) and can be described into 4 modes as follow:

- Failure related automatic mode. As soon as a warning is detected, the appropriate system page is
automatically displayed. The system page is cleared by means of the CLR P/B or if the failure
conditions have disappeared. This mode has priority over all others but can be overridden if a system
page is called manually.

- Advisory automatic mode. When a parameter drifts out of normal range, the relevant system page is
automatically displayed to attract the crew’s attention. This mode is only active in cruise.

- Manual mode. This mode can be selected any time through the P/B on the ECAM control panel.
Automatic mode has priority and will disengage manual mode.

- Flight phase related automatic mode. This mode is automatically engaged if the other modes are not
engaged. This mode displayed eight system pages related to twelve flight phases. AOM1.19/1P4
287. When will the wheel page be displayed?
a. From pushing back till T/O and from L/D until ENG shutdown
b. From ENG starting till T/O and from L/D until ENG shutdown
c. From pushing back till T/O and from L/D gear down until ENG shutdown
d. From ENG starting till T/O and from L/D gear down until ENG shutdown Ans. d
Flight phase related automatic mode
DOOR Displays from power on until second ENG start and from first ENG shutdown.
WHEEL Displays from second ENG start till T/O and from L/D gear down till first ENG shutdown.
ENGINE Displays from T/O till slats retraction.
CRUISE Displays from slats retraction until L/D gear down.
ENG START Displays when ENG start selector in START A, START B or CRANK.
APU Displays when APU master switch in ON position until APU RPM > 95% for 15 sec. AOM1.19/1P6
288. The EGPWS provides a prevention of a potential terrain conflicting by?

a. Computes the terrain caution and warning envelopes from its terrain database against a/c ground Ans. d
speed and turn rate.

b. It provides visual and voice warning to alert flight crew about potential of terrain conflict.
c. It provides pitch attitude guidance to escape from conflicted terrain.
d. a. and b. are correct

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The EGPWS provides visual and audio synthetic voice warning to alert the flight crew about potential terrain
conflicts.
The enhanced functions are:
- A Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) function which can predict a potential conflict with terrain
ahead of the A/C and display terrain data on ND
- A Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) function which alerts the flight crew of excessive terrain closure
ahead
Visual alerts:
- TAD: red GPWS light illuminate and the appropriate color is displayed on ND AOM1.19/2
- TCF: both red GPWS and amber G/S illuminate P1A-1C
289. Which statement is not true regarding the Flight Warning Computer (FWC)?
a. If one of the two FWC’s fails, all red warnings (Master warning light) are still available
b. If one of the two FWC’s fails, all amber cautions (Master caution light) are still available
c. If one of the two FWC’s fails, the local warnings (Overhead panel) are still available
d. If both FWC fail, all red warning and amber caution are not available Ans. b
FLIGHT WARNING COMPUTERS
Two FWC’s acquire aircraft system data to process warnings, cautions and status functions. The critical
failure signals, mainly red warnings, are fed to both FWC’s. The other signals, mainly amber cautions, are
split between the two FWC’s. AOM1.19/1P4
SINGLE FWS FAULT
- Red warning are not affected.
- Amber cautions processed by the affected FWS are lost, but local warnings are available. AOM VOL 2
DUAL FWS FAULT EM Checklist
- All red warnings and amber cautions are lost, but local warnings are available. 19.2
290. Which statement is not correct regarding the terrain display for EGPWS? Ans. d

a. The 50% red on ND means the threatening terrain is +200ft.


b. The 50 % yellow on ND means the threatening terrain is +1000 ft.
c. The 12.5 % green on ND means the threatening terrain is -1000 ft.
d. The 100 % black on ND mean no terrain data.

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The terrain is displayed independently on each ND if:


- The on side TERR ON ND pushbutton is pressed in the ON ND position
- A caution or warning alert is activated
The terrain data is displayed on the ND with reference to a code of colors and textures, which indicated the
threat in a color as:
50% RED = A/C altitude is below terrain 2000 ft or more
50% Yellow = A/C altitude is below terrain between 1000 ft and 2000 ft
25% Yellow = A/C altitude is below terrain 1000 ft or above terrain 500 ft
25% GREEN = A/C altitude is above terrain between 250 ft or 500 ft to1000 ft
12.5% GREEN = A/C altitude is above terrain between 1000 ft to 2000 ft
100% BLACK = A/C altitude is above terrain more than 2000 ft AOM1.19/2
The margenta represents the unknown terrain. P1D
291. What is the correct pull up procedure if GPWS “TERRAIN” warning generated?
a. Wait for 10 sec, if “TERRAIN” warning does not stop, make an immediate pull up
b. Go-around immediately by following the normal go-around procedure

c. Pulling up by manually pitch up 20O NU initially and set throttles to full thrust, retract flaps and L/D gear
(if extended) immediately

d. Pulling up by manually pitch up 20O NU initially with wing level and set throttles manually to full thrust,
retract only speed brakes (if extended) Ans. d
GPWS ALERTS
A go-around shall be initiated if the cause of the warning cannot be identified immediately.
During daylight VMC conditions when positive verification is made that no hazard exists, the warning may
be considered cautionary.
Simultaneously
Pitch attitude………………………………………………….INITIALLY 20O NU
- Use Stick Shaker boundary as upper limit pitch
Throttles……………………………………………………….FULL FORWARD
Autopilot……………………………………………………….DISCONNECT
A/THR………………………………………………………… DISCONNECT
BANK…………………………………………………………..WINGS LEVEL
Speed brakes lever…………………………………………..CHECK RETRACTE
When flight path is safe and GPWS warning ceases
- Decrease pitch attitude and accelerate AOM VOL 2
When speed above VLS and V/S positive EM Checklist
- Clean up aircraft as required 19.1

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TECHNICAL Page 105

292. In which condition can the GPWS warnings be cancelled or inhibited?


a. A flaps or L/D gear warning which related to the existed malfunction
b. Glideslope warning when making a localizer approach
c. Both a. and b.
d. After GPWS warning occurred, nothing can be inhibited Ans. c
When SINK RATE, TERRAIN, DON’T SINK, TOO LOW GEAR, TOO LOW FLAPS, or GLIDESLOPE
warning occurs, action shall be taken to correct flight path or aircraft configuration.
The warning above may be cancelled or inhibited by use of the inhibit or override switch for these
conditions:
- Glide slope warning when making localizer approach, when conditions require deliberate approach
below glide slope or when glide slope signal is unreliable. AOM VOL 2
- Flaps and gear warning when a malfunction exists as stated in the checklist. 3.3/10 P1
293. What is the correct procedure of the stall recovery during flight?
a. Apply TOGA and reduce pitch attitude
b. Apply TOGA, reduce pitch attitude and retracts slats/flaps as soon as possible

c. Apply TOGA and reduce pitch attitude to 0O

d. Apply TOGA and reduce pitch attitude to 5O NU then extends the slats Ans. a
Recovery procedure
Whenever a stall warning (i.e. Sticker shaker activation) is experienced at low altitude, this should be
considered as an immediate threat to maintaining a safe flight path.
At lift off:
Thrust levers………………………………………………….TOGA
Pitch attitude………………………………………………….12.5O NU
During any other flight phases after lift off:
Thrust levers…………………………………………………..TOGA
Pitch attitude…………………………………………………..REDUCE
Slats/flaps……………………………………………………..Do not retract
After initial recovery:
Maintain the speed close to the stick shaker speed until it is safe to accelerate (closely monitor both the
speed and the speed trend arrow)
Bank angle…………………………………………………….Wing levels
Speed brakes…………………………………………………Check retracted
In clean configuration and below 20000 ft:
Slats……………………………………………………………Extend
When out of stall and if no threat of ground contact:
Landing gear (if down)……………………………………….Up AOM VOL 2
Recover normal speed and select flaps as required 3.3/10 P4

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Issue 02
OPC QUESTIONNAIRES AB6
TECHNICAL Page 106

294. What is the correct procedure of the upset recovery from the A/C nose high attitude and high bank angle?
a. Apply nose down elevator simultaneously with roll wing to level
b. Apply nose down elevator until approaches the horizontal attitude and then roll wing to level
c. Apply full thrust first in order to recovery the speed
d. Roll wing to level then apply nose down elevator Ans. b
Recovery from nose high, high bank angle:
Pilots must apply nose down elevator but maintain bank angle in order to quickly reduce pitch attitude. As
the nose approaches the horizon, bank angle should be reduced to zero and pitch attitude adjusted to
recover normal airspeed. AOM VOL 2
By the other hand: PITCH and THRUST then BANK. 3.3/10 P5
295. What is the correct procedure of the upset recovery from the A/C nose down attitude and high bank angle?
a. Apply nose up elevator simultaneously with roll wing to level
b. Apply nose up elevator until approaches the horizontal attitude and then roll wing to level
c. Reduce thrust first in order to prevent the over speed
d. Reduce thrust and roll wing to level simultaneously, then apply nose up elevator Ans. d
Recovery from nose down, high bank angle:
The nose down, high bank angle upset requires prompt action from the pilot since attitude is rapidly
exchanged for speed. Airspeed in that situation can rapidly increase beyond airplane limits.
It is important to roll the aircraft to wing level before applying nose up elevator, especially if bank angle
exceeds 90 degrees.
Simultaneous application of roll control and thrust reduction may be necessary.
The pilot should also extend the speed brakes as necessary. AOM VOL 2
By the other hand: BANK and THRUST then PITCH. 3.3/10 P6
296. Which condition does not generate the T/O CONFIG warning when T/O thrust is applied? Ans. d
a. Stabilizer setting is not in T/O range
b. Slats/flaps are not in T/O configuration
c. Parking brake is set
d. Speed brake handle is not armed

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TECHNICAL Page 107

TAKEOFF WARNING SYSTEM


The system provides aural warning (CRC) through the cockpit speakers and the warning display when
aircraft is not in takeoff configuration and:
- Takeoff thrust is applied, or
- T/O CONFIG TEST button is pushed
Takeoff warning function is processed in FWC 1 and FWC 2. The computer will activate the warnings under
any one of the following conditions:
- Horizontal stabilizer not in takeoff range
- Slats/flaps not in takeoff configuration
- Speed brakes or ground spoilers extended
- Parking brake on
- Door not closed
- Brake temperature out of limit
- Any probe heat off
If the above parameters are correct, the display will be “NORM FOR T.O”. AOM1.19/6P1
297. Which statement is not true regarding the flight procedure chapter “Cruising”?

a. Bank angle limiter should be set to 15O when altitude is above 20000 ft
b. Bank angle limiter should be set to 15O when cruising altitude is above optimum flight level
c. Cruising altitude within 2000 ft of the optimum level, fuel burn will be within 1.5% of the optimum
performance
d. Cruising altitude 4000 ft below or above the optimum level, fuel burn may increase about 4% Ans. a
FLIGHT LEVEL SELECTION
The cruising level should be maintained as near as possible to the OPTIMUM level in order to obtain best
fuel economy. If cruising level is within 2000 ft of the optimum level, the fuel burn will be within 1.5% of the
optimum performance. But if 4000 ft below optimum cruising level is maintained, an increase of about 4% in
burn can be expected. Conversely, if cruising level in above optimum (up to ceiling) is contemplated, the
increase in burn may also reach 4%.
STABILITY AT HIGH ALTITUDE
When cruising close to maximum FL and particularly above the optimum level, the bank angle limiter should AOM VOL 2
be set to 15O. A bank angle of 25O will increase the wing load by approximately 17% therefore increasing the
stall speed and reduce the stall margin. At lower altitude the bank angle limiter should be in NORM. 3.3/4 P1
298. Condition: L/D at BKK R/W 21R, wind 120/15G25, A/THR is in used. Ans. c
What is the correct approach speed?

a. VLS
b. VLS + 5
c. VLS + 10

d. VLS + 15

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Normal approach speed will be VLS + wind correction


The wind correction = 1/3 WIND SPEED or GUST VALUE whichever is higher.
- Maximum wind correction is 15 kt
- Wind speed is the value reported by tower or ATIS. Gust value is the difference of maximum and
average wind speed, e.g. for a wind of 20 kt gusting 30 kt, then the gust value is 10 kt.
- Apply wind correction only if there is no tail wind component.
- If A/THR is used or when significant ice accretion is suspected, minimum wind correction is 5 kt.

- In case of malfunction and VREF correction < 20 kt then maximum wind correction = 20 kt - VREF
correction. AOM VOL 2
- If VREF correction > 20 kt then do not apply any wind correction. 3.3/6 P2
299. Which statement is not correct regarding the crosswind landing?

a. The upwind wheels will touchdown first.


b. To maintain zero drift, some bank angle into the wind is required.
c. Precipitation in crosswind condition may create false impression of a/c drift or no drift.
d. To improve directional control stability, always touch down with wing-level Ans. d
CROSSWIND LANDING
GENERAL
In crosswind condition, fly the aircraft on the extended runway centerline with wings level and crabbing into
the wind until approaching threshold. At approximately 100 ft smoothly bank into the wind and use opposite
rudder for alignment with the runway. Keeps in mind the high roll rate capability and use only enough cross
control to stop the drift. The initial touch down should, without floating, be on the upwind wheels first with
bank angles as required to maintain zero drift. At 27 kt. crosswind component landing with zero drift will
require a bank angle of maximum 6°.
The wing tip will touch the ground at a bank angle of 15°. As during takeoff, keep banking the control
column into the direction of the wind until taxi speed. As the pedals affect both rudder and nose wheel on
the ground, only small corrections should be made during the entire landing roll.
Do not oscillate the rudder.
Control and aerodynamic stability are greatly improved when landing gear is firmly on the ground and
spoilers extended. AOM3.3/7 P.4
300. Which is not true regarding the unreliable airspeed indication?
a. The airspeed may increase during climb if the pitot probe is blocked
b. The airspeed may decrease during descent if the pitot probe is blocked
c. During climb out, the altitude indicators may remain at the field elevation if the static port is blocked
d. The stall warning and stick shaker is unreliable and may be ignored if the airspeed fluctuates and
suspects that the pitot probe is blocked Ans. d

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OPC QUESTIONNAIRES AB6
TECHNICAL Page 109

The Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is a direct function of the difference between the Total Pressure (Pt)
measured by pitot probe and the Ambient / Static Pressure (Ps) measured by the static ports.
IAS = f (Pt – Ps)
Whenever a pitot probe is blocked, two scenarios can be considered:
- The pitot probe is blocked and the pitot probe drain holes are free. The IAS may fluctuate or drop
quickly towards the stick shaker speed.
- The pitot probe is blocked and the pitot drain holes are also blocked. The trapped Pt remains
constant.
- In level flight (constant Ps), the IAS is constant and the pitot condition may go undetected.
- In climb, the IAS increase (with decreasing Ps), possibly resulting in the activation of the
overspeed warning.
- In descent, the IAS decreases (with increasing Ps).
In the same manner, should the static ports be blocked, the ambient pressure is trapped and Ps remains
constant.
- During T/O roll, the IAS indication is normal.
- After lift-off, the static pressure is trapped and remains frozen at the airfield elevation:
- The indicated altitude remains also equal to the airfield elevation.
- The IAS decreases as the Pt decreases with increasing altitude (at constant actual airspeed).
The stall warning and the stick shaker activation are solely based on defined angle-of-attack thresholds.
The activation of these warning is therefore not linked in any manner to the pitot-static system.
The activation of the stall warning and the stick shaker shall be trusted at all times. AOM VOL 2
Conversely, the overspeed warning may be untimely activated in case of unreliable airspeed indication. 8.3/1P1-3

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