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ph

Pre-test intended for


Professionals without
Planning Degree or
without formal
Planning Education
in preparation for
EnP Licensure
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Examinations
(110 Diagnostic
Questions)
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Alan G. Cadavos
2010
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1. The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which question seeks to determine efficacy or
success of a chosen option or course of action?
(A) “where are we now?” (C) “where do we want to be?” (E) “what resources do we need to get there?”
(B) “where are we going?” (D) ”how do we get there?” (F) “how do we know if it is working?”
2. Presidential Decree 1308 Sec.2a defines it as referring to ‘all activities concerned with the management and
development of land, as well as the preservation, conservation and management of the human environment”
(A) Urban Planning (B) Human Ecology (C) Environmental Management (D) Environmental Planning
3. Urban planning is “concerned with providing the right site at the right time, in the right place for the right people.”
(A) John Ratcliffe (B) Lewis Keeble (C) Brian McLoughlin (D) George Chadwick (E) Alan Wilson
4. The most recent re-definition of ‘urban’ by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the following.
(A) if a barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farms, then it is considered urban;
(B) if a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
(C) If a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it is considered urban
(D) If a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees, and 5 or more facilities within the
two-kilometer radius from the barangay hall, then it is considered urban
5. A ‘city’ is a significantly-large urban area which has:
(A) a cluster of skyscrapers (C) a rectilinear or orthogonal street design
(B) a charter or legal proclamation (D) a seaport or an airport
6. This refers to low-density urban use of land expanded faster than population growth requires and occurring in an
amorphic manner at the margins of existing urban centers. Over time, more and more houses are built far from urban
centers that would require more energy use per person and more government resources to provide piecemeal extensions
of roads and utilities.
.
(A) Decentralization (B) Dispersion (C) Exurbanization (D) Sprawl
7. In Michael P. Todaro’s Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor or main attraction of Third
World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared to accept migration, is
(A) “bright lights effect” or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment
(B) possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city address
(C) abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the countryside
(D) substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of skill, task, or occupation
8. According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr in the first comprehensive textbook on urban planning ever written (1965), the
explicit goals of urban planning are the following, except one:
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(A) health & safety (B) convenience & amenity (C) tolerance & plurality (D) efficiency & economy
9. The concepts of “input – throughput – output – feedback” comes from what school of planning?
(A) Communicative Planning (B) Incremental Planning (C) Liberal Pluralistic Planning (D) Systems Theory of Planning
10. Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under which stage do policy-makers or
decision-makers make a firm resolve to pursue a specific course of action?

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(A) System Description (B) System Modeling (C) System Projection (D) System Synthesis (E) System Control
11. Which type of planning does not follow the cycle of “plan – do – check – act”?
(A) Rational-comprehensive Planning (B) Communicative Planning (C) Strategic Planning (D) Policy Planning
12. The “SMART test” by George Doran means that both ‘task objectives’ and ‘process objectives’ have to be specific,
measurable, attainable, realistic, and ____
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(A) tenable (B) truthful (C) time-bound (D) testable (E) treatable
13. Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its members around a common purpose?
(A) “solve major issues at a macro level” and “avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking”
(B) “be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and to accommodate changes
(C) “establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future”
(D) “engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single gameplan for execution”
(E) “communicate to everyone what is most important”
14. In strategic planning, what is the criteria to determine the best strategic option?
(A) lucrative and profitable (B) viable and feasible (C) critical and urgent (D) benign and munificent
15. In the “Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities,Threats” tool as popularized by exponents of Strategic Planning, the
elements, aspects or characteristics that need to be reinforced, are enumerated under which quadrant?
(A) ‘S’ (B) ‘W’ (C) ‘O’ (D) ‘T’
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16. In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be maintained at a certain level indefinitely; in
particular, it refers to the potential longevity of ecological systems to support humankind and other species.
(A) Resilience (B) Endurance (C) Sustainability (D) Perpetuity (E) Durability
17. Which basic principle of ‘Sustainable Development’ means responsibility and accountability to future populations?
(A) Common Heritage of Humankind (B) Inter-generational Equity (C) Caring Capacity (D) Parity of Compeers
18. Related to Thomas Malthus’ concept of ‘k’ as the population size constrained by whatever resource is in shortest supply,
this principle refers to “the maximum population of a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat
without causing negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat.”
(A) limits to growth (B) tipping point (C) range and threshold (D) carrying capacity
19. The use of technology often alters the equilibrium in ecosystems. With which statement would most ecologists agree on?
(A) Humans should control every aspect of environment so that damage due to technology will be spread evenly.
(B) Humans should develop the uninhabited parts of Earth for population expansion.
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(C) Humans should use their knowledge of Nature to consider the needs of future generations of all species
(D) Humans should develop new technology to expand the influence of humans on natural communities.
20. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds by systematically evaluating
alternative patterns of resource use, choosing that use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies
and programs, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal
opportunities and constraints.
(A) Framework Planning (B) Strategic Planning (C) Land Use Planning (D) Development Planning

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21. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including statements about community goals,
priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of resource uses. These are illustrated by maps, diagrams, charts, tables
that show a coherent spatial framework for environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure.
(A) Charrette (B) Chatroulette (C) Comprehensive Land Use Plan (D) Strategic Plan (E) Framework Plan
22. In contrast to the long-term skeletal-circulatory framework, this is the overall medium-term action plan utilized by every
local administration to develop socio-economic development projects and implement sectoral, cross-sectoral, and multi-
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sectoral programs to be translated into public investment measures and incentives to private investment.
(A) Comprehensive Land Use Plan (B) Blueprint (C) Comprehensive Development Plan (D) Master Plan
23. This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related guidelines and standards to guide the
formulation of long-term framework plans and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
(A) Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan (C) National Framework for Physical Planning
(B) Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan (B) Regional Physical Framework Plan
24. If a Masterplan such as NFPP and RPFP has a timeframe of one generation or 30 years, a City/Town land use plan may
adopt either the timeframe of population doubling time (dt= 0.693/r) as suggested by Professor Ernesto Serote or the
shorter timeframe of ____ to cover maximum three terms of locally elected officials.
(A) 10 years (B) 15 years (C) 20 years (D) 25 years
25. If the Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan has a time-frame of 6 years, what would be the sensible time-frame of
a multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan inorder to be compatible with the National Development Plan?
(A) 3 years (B) 5 years (C) 12 years (D) 20 years
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26. Which of following determinants of land use, land disposition, land management refers to ‘multi-functionality of resource’?
(A) geology & geomorphology (D) economic and related development activities
(B) demography (E) environmental and other natural resource constraints
(C) existing and potential uses (F) government policies on land classification, utilization, allocation, and distribution
27. Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
(A) identify stakeholders and analyze the situation (D) anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
(B) develop a detailed organizational management profile (E) identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
(C) formulate goals and translate them into strategies (F) involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
28. Which of the following illustrates the ‘strategic’ dimension of the CLUP-CDP-ELA integrated process the least?
(A) forecast future patterns, build spatial scenarios, weigh costs and benefits of each scenario
(B) select spatial strategies, choose ‘trigger’ or ‘lynchpin’ actions crucial to attainment of overall vision
(C) conduct at least two mandatory public hearings which should be process-oriented and participatory
(D) formulate success indicators and measures to determine effectiveness and efficacy of actions taken
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(E) Executive-Legislative Agenda statement on local government priorities for three years
29. What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP are budgeted and released yearly?
(A) Special Allotment Release Order (D) PBBS
(B) Notice of Cash Allotment (E) Memorandum of Undertaking
(C) Annual Investment Plan (F) Program of Work and Expenditure Plan

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30. The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU, except one.
(A) indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management
(B) part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National Development Plan
(C) among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal & decentralization of development
(D) already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
31. Under Philippine Land Capability classes by BSWM, lands that are very level and often wet such as mangrove swamps
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and fresh marshes are deemed appropriate for fishponds and categorized as “Class X” while lands that are very hilly,
rugged, mountainous, and generally barren are deemed fit for recreation or wildlife and categorized as
(A) Class Y (B) Class Z (C) Class W (D) Class A (E) Class H
32. What are the determinants of soil fertility for agricultural land use?
(A) soil moisture, water holding capacity, permeability, porosity, salinity, nutrient retention, mineralizable Nitrogen
(B) surface texture, soil particle size, soil structure, shrink-swell potential
(C) soil drainage, run-off, and soil erosion by water and by wind
(D) clay, silt, sand, and parent material
33. In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
(A) ‘even and smooth’ (B) ‘flat to gently sloping’ (C) ‘level to nearly level’ (D) ‘gently to moderately undulating’
34. What slope would be ideal in planning for settlements or predominantly residential communities?
(A) 0% to 3% (B) 3% to 8% (C) 8% to 15% (D) 15% to 18% (E) 18% to 30%
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35. The following conditions permit the establishment of fishponds or inland fish farming, except one.
(A) Land Capability ‘Class X’ according to BSWM (D) meet accepted criteria on elevation, soil type, soil depth, topography
(B) 0% to 3% in slope (E) rivermouth estuary vegetated with rare mangrove species useful for
(C) natural wetland, swamp, or marsh breeding and spawning of fish and crustaceans
36. Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses, which criterion is within the control of the
investor or project proponent, in terms of production activity, design, selection and mobilization of men, money, materials,
and machines?
(A) The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion of the municipality or city, as
contained in their approved land use plan;
(B) The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production area of the community;
(C) Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use conversion;
(D) The land use reclassification shall not hamper the availability of irrigation or the productivity of nearby farms;
(E) The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will generate alternative livelihood
opportunities for the affected community.

37. Of the following cases of land conversion, which one needs to prove that the land has ceased to be “economically
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feasible and sound for agricultural purposes,” to be certified by the Secretary of Agriculture?
(A) conversion of cropland into irrigation facility (D) conversion of cropland into protected area for rare species
(B) conversion of cropland into national RROW (E) conversion of cropland into heritage site and ecotourist spot
(C) conversion of cropland into commercial center (F) conversion of cropland into LGU buffer / floodholding area
38. This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms, settlements, industries, transport
hubs, infrastructure, wilderness etc across a significantly large area broader than a single city or town.

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(A) Watershed Planning (B) Area Development Planning (C) Regional Planning (D) Physical Planning
39. A ‘watershed’ is principally a source of
(A) timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper (C) food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
(B) charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants (D) water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
40. A ‘drainage basin’ is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What characteristic of a drainage basin
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causes it to have an ‘efficient’ response to rainfall?


(A) sloping topography in bowl-like formation (B) permeable soils (C) plasticity of clay bottom (D) filtration by its wetlands
41. These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface of the Earth; the First gives the
location of a place above or below the equator, expressed by angular measurements ranging from 0° at the equator to
90° at the poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime meridian,
and is measured in angles ranging from 0° at the prime meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
(A) landmass and ocean (B) Cartesian x,y, points (C) north pole and south pole (D) latitude and longitude
42. In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point and line data by means of x,y,z
geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space.
(A) vector (B) polygon (C) curvature (D) field (E) node
43. According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic maps on top of each other to
determine areas of convergence of certain features of land contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular
purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable for that purpose.
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(A) thematic superimposition (B) cartographic merging (C) sieve analysis (D) spatial modeling
44. What relevant maps would have to be combined inorder to construct a composite “hydro-meteorologic risk map”?
(A) historic paths of Philippines’ 21 cyclones average per year over a ten-year period
(B) precipitation, cloudiness, mean temperature, wind patterns of southwest & northeast monsoons, high tide and low tide
(C) location of population, type of climate, average rainfall, slope, elevation, rivers and waterways, 50-yr or 100-yr flood level
(D) coastal surges, saltwater intrusion, groundwater overdraft, land subsidence, loss of soil strength, liquefaction hazard
45. This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image of the Earth by removing tilt of
planet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
(A) photogrammetry (B) orthophotography (C) remote sensing (D) geomatics (E) geodetics
46. A ‘projection’ or ‘prediction’ is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical computation or statistical
model that uses available data to extrapolate past and present trends into the future, while _______ is a judgmental
statement of what an analyst believes to be the most likely logical future according to his/her subjective evaluation.
(A) premonition (B) forecast (C) foresight (D) vibration (E) prophecy
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47. Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport in the same manner that both
population and business follow roads?
(A) Ernest Burgess (B) Homer Hoyt (C) Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman (D) Peirce Lewis
48. ‘Urban development’ tends to occur along major transportation routes because

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(A) power/water connections and other utilities etc are naturally linear
(B) business can not take place without roads and vehicles
(C) migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus, processions, or diasporas
(D) people tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land uses are at maximum
(E) people always seek the shortest distance between two points in space
49. An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but before the detailed layout of
location, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can function effectively
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in relation to the complexity and scale of proposed development and the range of land uses around it.
(A) Estate Planning (B) Wards and Precincts Planning (C) Parcellary Planning (D) Site Planning (E) Project Planning
50. This concerns the arrangement, appearance, and functionality of a whole town or city, in particular the shape and form of
city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and
visitors alike can make high-quality connections between people, places, and buildings.
(A) Architectural Master Plan (B) Scale Model (C) Urban Design (D) Form and Style (E) Visual Panorama
51. A ‘tri-polar’ or ‘bi-polar’ form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively developing new sections as magnets or
complete attractions for population and business, inorder to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example of
(A) Simple Dispersion (B) Concentrated Dispersion (C) Simple Concentration (D) Compact Development
52. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a unitary entity such that
innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning, usually
relaxation of standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
(A) Enterprise Zone (B) Sites and Services model (C) Zonal Improvement Program (D) Planned Unit Development
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53. Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
(A) grid-iron or rectilinear (B) circumferential & radial (C) uni-linear/strip development (D) concentric rings
54. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good ‘urban design’ is one where residents and visitors can use a ‘cognitive
image’ or ‘mental map’ of the city as they navigate through the territory in the process of ‘wayfinding’. He identified the
elements of legibility of place as:
(A) Circumferentials, arterials, radials, and residuals (C) Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, and promenades
(B) Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, intermodals (D) Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
55. “Urban design uses the climate, natural landscape as well as built assets to create distinctive places that contribute to
local identity, structure and meaning. Urban design strengthens the city’s character by reflecting its cultural layers and by
enabling residents and visitors alike to ‘read the city’ by way of its history, customs, icons, and visual elements.”
(A) ‘Cosmopolitanism’ (B) ‘Semiotics’ (C) ‘Sense of Place’ (D) ‘Symbology’
56. This refers to the goal or principle of Urban Design that a place needs to foster a ‘sense of security and pleasantness’
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emanating from vibrant street life, neighborly behavior of residents, and positive social interaction.
(A) legibility (B) imageability (C) smooth interpersonal relations (D) conviviality (E) peace and tranquility
57. Which one is not an innovative element of ‘Planned Unit Development’?
(A) cul de sac and motorcourt (C) complementarity of building types
(B) usable open space (D) preservation of significant natural land features

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58. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing program and establishes the
mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the Philippines
(A) RA 7279 (B) RA 7160 (C) RA 1010 (D) RA 6969
59. In the Philippines, low density housing development means ______ dwelling units per hectare.
(A) 35 and below (B) 36 to 150 (C) 151 to 210 (D) 211 and above
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60. A ‘single detached dwelling unit’ is defined as a house that is


(A) good for one household (C) completely surrounded by a yard
(B) intended for ownership (D) with one or more of its sides abutting the property line
61. In a “house and lot” package, the price of the lot shall not be more than __ of the whole.
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 35% (D) 40%
62. The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1.5 meters or 5 feet while the setback of a disposal
field or leach field is 2.5 meters or 8 feet. What should be the minimum distance between your septic tank and leach field
from your neighbor’s exterior wall?
(A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 4 meters (D) 5 meters (E) 6 meters
63. A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000 sq.m. What is the FAR?
(A) 2:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 5:1 (E) 6:1
64. When a proponent of a proposed project applies for ‘locational clearance,’ which consideration is first and foremost from
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the perspective of the approving authority?


(A) Community disruption, relocation and the (D) Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power
required land acquisition generation, company bus shuttles, executives’ luxury cars
(B) Consistency with local land use plan and with (E) Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the
zoning map Local Government Unit
(C) Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking (F) Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
65. The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters, except one.
(A) use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets (D) muro-ami
(B) use of dynamites and other explosives (E) use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
(C) use of fine mesh nets (F) use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls
66. This nonrenewable resource is the most pollutive source of energy that releases toxic elements such as lead and arsenic
(A) krypton (B) coal (C) hydropower (D) titanium (E) natural gas (F) ethanol
67. Which natural source of energy can be tapped by barangays and cooperatives for the electrification of all rural villages?
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(A) tidal power and ocean current (D) geothermal


(B) coal and natural gas (E) methane and biogas from sanitary landfills, septic tanks, sewage treatment
(C) solar energy (F) biomass
68. ‘Hazard’ differs from ‘risk’ in that
(A) ‘Hazard’ can be avoided while ‘risk’ always results in disaster.
(B) ‘Hazard’ can be remedied or mitigated while ‘risk’ is imminent and inevitable.

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(C) ‘Hazard’ is merely geologic while ‘risk’ is essentially economic.


(D) ‘Hazard’ refers to likely occurrence of natural events while ‘risk’ involves clear and present threat to human life,
property, and community welfare.
69. The following are all environmentally critical areas under Presidential Decree 2146. If a common ‘hazard’ such as
geologic fault line runs through all of them, which of these areas would have the greatest ‘risk’?
(A) areas with critical slopes
(B) natural parks, watershed reserves, wildlife preserves, and sanctuaries.
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(C) areas traditionally occupied by ICCs/IPs.


(D) habitat of any endangered or threatened species or indigenous Philippine wildlife (flora and fauna)
70. Because of the permanent danger zone, no settlement, barangay, sitio, or purok ought to be established at the foot of an
active volcano within a radius of
(A) 4 kms (B) 5 kms (C) 6 kms (D) 7 kms (E) 8 kms
71. What is the mechanism that causes ‘land subsidence’?
(A) A reduction in subsurface fluid pressures within sedimentary layers
(B) An increase in weight at the land surface
(C) A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
(D) The dissolution of soluble bedrock such as limestone exposed at the land surface
72. This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with trees, shrubs, or
ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the
environment in built-up areas.
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(A) Reforestation (B) Miniature Forestry (C) Urban Forestry (D) Silvicuture (E) Agro-Forestry
73. Because land use changes affect a species’ ability to migrate, _____ are necessary to give species a route to reach their
new habitats.
(A) Science Reserves & Ranches (B) Zoos & Botanical Gardens (C) Lifelines (D) Wildlife Corridors
74. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest heat-trapping ability per molecule?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide (C) Chlorofluorocarbon (D) Methane (E) Nitrous oxide
75. ‘Climate Change’ will affect the distribution of species because
(A) hot places will become hotter and cold places will become even colder
(B) It will change the location of habitats that provide requirements for growth, survival, or reproduction
(C) carbon production and carbon footprint of different species are unequal and unevenly distributed worldwide
(D) many areas submerged in water will become dry, thus forming new ‘land bridges’ like in the last glacial age
76. What planning measures contribute to the evolution and development of a “sustainable transportation system”?
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(A) Reduce need to travel (D) Give people more choices and more accessibility
(B) Change people’s travel behavior (E) Provide transport with new sources of energy
(C) Integrate different modes of transport (F) All of the above
77. In the physical design of roads, which of the following increases the possibility of accidents and mishaps?
(A) prescribed dimensions according to hierarchy of roads (C) moderate slope/grade
(B) conforms to natural topography (D) blind corners

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(C) conforms to BP 344 Accessibility Law (E) adequate sight distance


78. Which of the following is not a measure of travel demand management (TDM)?
(A) controls on public transport (C) controls on vehicle ownership (E) controls on parking
(B) controls on land use development (D) controls on vehicle use
79. The following are the basic elements of ‘human settlements’ according to Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one pertains
to the built environment or physical capital?
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(A) anthropos (B) Nature (C) shells and networks (D) society (E) social structure
80. The use of a variety of methods, sources, or field team members, at least three in kind or category, to cross check and
validate information inorder to limit possible biases in a research study is called
(A) corroboration (B) confirmatory test (C) triangulation (D) reconnaisance (E) cross-disciplinary control
81. Remittances of migrant Filipinos and overseas contract workers add up to over US$22-billion, or almost 20% of
Philippines’ Gross Domestic Product; in economics, these cash transfers are collectively called
(A) non-portfolio investment (C) Net Factor Income from Abroad (E) Family obligations
(B) Overseas Filipino Investment (D) Foreign Direct Investment (F) Balance of Payment
82. In what way is the mix of ‘basic sector employment’ and ‘non-basic employment’ in a city/town important?
(A) a little farm village’s economic structure will be mostly basic.
(B) Basic workers rely on the area’s nonbasic workers in the preparation of food, clothing and shelter.
(C) Cities/towns with more basic than nonbasic jobs tend to be more self-sufficient.
(D) Basic employment brings money into the area; nonbasic employment sends money out of the area.
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83. It is a preliminary study undertaken before an endeavor actually starts to ascertain the likelihood of its success by
examining in detail its market, technical, environmental, social, financial, economic, and organizational viability.
(A) Investment Study (B) Interdisciplinary Study (C) Feasibility Study (D) TQM - Total Quality Management
84. It is the measure of the earning power of investment from the perspective of owner, investor, borrower or lender and is
defined as the discount rate that equates the present values of the project’s benefits and costs such that the NPV is
equal to zero.
(A) internal rate of return (B) return on equity (C) return on investment (D) accounting profit before taxes
85. The best measure of a project's economic worthiness from the perspective of the public/society/government which serves
as basis for determining project acceptability is called
(A) net present value (B) dividends (C) surfeit (D) internal rate of return (E) surplus value
86. Government’s development projects, whether sectoral or cross-sectoral, generally aim to
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(A) Minimize costs (B) Minimize effects (C) Maximize profits (D) Maximize impact
87. A tool of ‘aggregative’ analysis and rational decision-making that is used to choose among alternatives or planning
options by ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the community.
(A) econometrics (B) cost-benefit analysis (C) fiscal impact analysis (D) welfare policy analysis
88. A tool used to estimate the difference between public costs and public revenues generated by a project for the LGU in which
it occurs, specifically the project’s bearing on LGU finances, without considering overall economic effects on the community

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(A) cost-revenue analysis (B) fiscal impact analysis (C) zero-based budgeting (D) capital rationing
89. According to John Maynard Keynes, the ‘income multiplier’ with the formula “m = 1 ⁄ {1-(c-m)(1-t) }” is derived by dividing
‘1’ with the Marginal Propensity to Save (c-m) and the tax rate (1-t). For example, if the computed denominator of entire
equation is 0.40, what is the ‘income multiplier’ of each peso or dollar that enters the economy?
(A) 2 (B) 2.5 (C) 3 (D) 4
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90. A system of inputting, collating, and organizing data that would provide selective data and analytic reports to
Management, to assist in monitoring and controlling a project’s organization, resources, activities, and results.
(A) EDP – Electronic Data Processing (C) PDS – Project Development information Service
(B) ICT – Information and Communication Technologies (D) MIS – Management Information System
91. An analytical, presentational, and management tool that involves problem analysis, stakeholder analysis, developing a
ladderlike chain of objectives, and selecting a preferred implementation strategy, usually taking the form of a four-by-four
table that summarizes what the project intends to do and how, what the key assumptions are, and how outputs and
outcomes will be monitored and evaluated .
(A) Primavera (B) Force Field Analysis (C) Logical Framework (D) Logical Decision Window
92. To implement cross-sectoral development projects that are spread widely apart in an archipelago, what would be a more
suitable organizational set-up?
(A) hierarchical command structure (C) TQM learning circles (E) centralized Project Management Office
(B) strong horizontal or matrix organization (D) ad hoc task forces (F) Management By Objectives
93. According to Kerzner, a Project Manager should spend 90% of his/her time communicating. If you are manager of a team
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of 5, how many communication channels do you personally have in the team?


(A) four (B) five (C) twenty-four (D) twelve
94. Which of the following ordered steps of ‘Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) refers to ascertaining the
difference between expected time and latest time?
(A) define tasks (D) find slack time
(B) link tasks in sequence (E) find probability of meeting expected time
(C) estimate time to complete each task
95. Which of the following ordered steps of Critical Path Method (CPM) is ‘iterative’ or continually interactive to enable the
whole process to make adjustments under different assumptions or different conditions.
(A) revise PERT estimates to arrive at minimum time, neither wasting nor sparing costs
(B) estimate time and cost, ‘crashed’ and ‘normal’
(C) determine cost-per-week for ‘crashing’ (crashed costs/time saved)
(D) ‘crash’ cheapest path on the ‘critical path’
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(E) recalculate project network, continue ‘c’ & ‘d’ until all paths are ‘crashed’
(F) ease up on noncritical paths, until all paths are critical
96. “Substantive due process” refers to the legitimacy of government purpose to protect public good, through a conceivable,
believable rationality in its decisions. What dimension of due process refers to “notice and an opportunity to be heard in a
fundamentally fair hearing by an impartial tribunal”?
(A) fundamental due process (B) judicial due process (C) procedural due process (D) administrative due process

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97. An example of this is when government acquires land for public buildings, highways, and public welfare purposes.
(A) sovereignty (B) Constitutional supremacy (C) eminent domain (D) seizure & confiscation (E) transfer & exchange
98. Who among the current members of the Regional Development Council do not hold an appointive office?
(A) regional executive directors of agriculture, agrarian reform, DENR (C) regional director of Philippine National Police
(B) LCEs of component provinces & chartered or autonomous units (D) official reps or proxies of congressmen
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99. Under Executive Order 90, the agency that is responsible for coordinating activities of government agencies to ensure
the accomplishment of the National Shelter Program is
(A) NHA (B) HLURB (C) HUDCC (D) NHMFC (E) HMDF or ‘Pag-ibig’ (I) HIGC
100. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or undertaking and then
designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
(A) Environmental Risk Assessment (C) Environmental Accounting and Audit
(B) Environmental Impact Assessment (D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
101. The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can
result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials, compounds, and substances is called
(A) Chemical Containment and Control (C) Environmental Risk Assessment
(B) Toxic Prevention Protocol (D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
102. Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?
(A) tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students (C) rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
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(B) high-end residential subdivision of more than 10 (D) hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside
hectares with additional area for golf course greenhouse tents and cages
103. Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of a major Sanitary Landfill for any
city or urban LGU?
(A) around 20 kilometers from the city (C) about 100 meters from a river used for water supply
(B) has an in-take capacity of 6 years only (D) about 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
104. Which would not be a priority for investigation in EIA of a complex proposing limestone quarrying and cement production?
(A) Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, (C) Consumption of electricity, water, and other
critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered species utilities
(B) Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, (D) Company policies on ‘hiring and firing’ and
common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes management training
105. According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec.. 11, the “primary obligation of
the Environmental Planner is to”
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(A) “contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving knowledge.
(B) “strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
(C) “develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and other professionals
(D) “serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
(E) “maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble undertaking.
106. Which of the following ethical principles for planners directly pertains to one’s responsibility to a private client?

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(A) Do not plagiarize.


(B) Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
(C) Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
(D) Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned party
(E) when in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with participants.
107. Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?
(A) voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting services
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(B) making official govt recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in the private sector
(C) accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors’ and sponsors’ area of a planners’ convention
(D) reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work experience in a job originally held by you.
108. A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid consultant in a matter not
pertaining to your employer’s jurisdiction. You would work only on weekends. You should
(A) report the housing developer for unethical behavior (C) decline the offer
(B) make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor (D) keep quiet about it
109. A private sector planner is preparing a site plan for a private company. He intends to secure local government approval
for his client's development project since it could lead to additional work for him in the subsequent phases of the project.
(A) This constitutes a conflict of interest. (C) There is variance in codal standards for public and private planners
(B) There is no conflict of interest in this case (D) The Code of Ethics has inadequate provision for this kind of dilemma
110. A group of concerned residents who live near a proposed petrol refinery takes their case to court and subpoena the
CPDC to testify. The CPDC provides some information to the citizens' group as they prepare their case. He also testifies
truthfully in court about the value of project to the community. The following are true about the behavior of CPDC, except:
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(A) The CPDC was acting in ethically responsible manner in trying to protect the integrity of the natural environment
(B) The CPDC served the public interest by providing information to stakeholders preparing their case
(C) The CPDC exhibited a concern for the long-range consequences of the proposed land use changes.
(D) The CPDC should not have testified in court because the “obey first before complain rule” means that a planner
merely accepts the decisions of his/her principals.

PRACTICE EXAM PERFORMANCE LEVELS

Over 85% -- you are expected to rank in Top Ten; reinforce your learning with 100 total
hours of focused reading!
75-84% -- you will certainly pass the exam, sharpen yourself further with some 120 total
hours of focused reading!
65-74% -- you can pass the exam, persevere for about 140 total hours of focused reading!
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45-64% -- nothing is impossible, challenge yourself for about 170 total hours of focused
reading!
01-44% -- you need 200 total hours of reading or formal planning course or review seminar

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