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Question Pool Communicable Diseases

1. It is defined as an illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxic products that are transmitted
directly or indirectly to a well person through an agent, vector, or inanimate object. A. Infection B. Communicable disease C. Contagious disease D. Infectious disease

2. A type of disinfection done when the patient is no longer the source of infection is called?
A. B. C. D. Concurrent disinfection Remittent disinfection Terminal disinfection Direct disinfection

3. This is an individual who/that harbours the organism and is capable of transmitting it to a
susceptible host but does not show manifestations of the disease A. Carrier B. Contact C. Transfer D. Inanimate objects

4. Is the destruction of pathogenic organisms outside the body through direct physical or chemical
means A. B. C. D. Sterilization Disinfection Pasteurization Dry heat

5. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial? A. When infection occurred upon admission B. When infection is acquired before discharge C. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital D. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay 6. 3. Presence of classical signs and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as: A. Tell tall signs B. Pathognomonic sign

Teratogenecity D. Communicability C. aureus B. 8. D. Contagious D. Infectious C. Causative agent B. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the hospital? A. Communicable B. B. Which of the following statements are true? A. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious. Bacteria D. S. Distinctive sign D. True infection D. Nosocomial infection C. Reservoir C. Virulent 10. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious. Fastigium sign 7. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. Coli D.The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is immunocompromised: A. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of: A. Parasitic infection 9. C. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable. H. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious. Opportunistic infection B. influenza 8. Carrier 12. aeruginosa C. Pathogenecity B. such infection is: A. Epidemiology .C. E. 11. P. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host: A.

Mode of action 15. Contact D. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable disease is known as: A. Which of the following is considered a fomite? A. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves (suicide bomber): A. Epitoxin 18. Epitoxin 17. Staphylococcus aureus carrier . Virulence D. Antigenicity C. Protozoa C. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1. Also known as the ultimate parasite: A. Patient B. Exotoxin B. Bacteria 19. Specificity D.000 bacteria to initiate disease. Carrier C. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract: A. (Refer to number 16) Also. Amoeba D. Enterotoxin C. Exotoxin B. Suspect 16. Endotoxin D. Invasiveness 14. Dose B. Virus B. this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of the causative agent? A. This property of microorganism is known as: A. Endotoxin D.13. Viability B. Enterotoxin C. Toxigenecity C. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting.

Produces one of the most potent toxin .B. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state: A. Mechanical vector B. Intermediate vector 21. Contact tracing C. Secondary C. Hand washing D. Primary B. Sterilization C. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir: A. Use of formaldehyde B. Quarternary 22. Urinals C. Lyophilization C. This process is used for making vaccine: A. Hands 20. Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics. Disinfection B. Disinfestation 24. except: A. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human D. Aerobic. Attenuation D. Mosquito D. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine B. Sanitation D. moist heat and radiation: A. Mass screening B. spore-forming rod shape bacteria C. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention: A. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. Prompt treatment 23. Biological vector C. Moist heat application 25. Accidental host D. It can be done through dry heat. Tertiary D.

the nurse might expect which of the following responses to be most likely associated with the client's contracting of the disease? . The term enanthem refers to: A. produces local erythema D. neutralizes certain toxins C. Based on this documentation. a red. In completing the assessment. An antigen is a substance which: A. contact precautions B. Toxicide B. nuchal rigidity C. a fiery red edematous rash in the cheek D. A nursing student asks the pediatric nurse specialist to describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common complication of mumps. The nurse reviews the physician's progress notes and reads that the child has developed Forcheimer's sign. swelling of the parotid gland 28. small blue spots noted on the buccal mucosa C. the rash on the skin D. In preparing for the admission of the child. The pediatric nurse specialist provides an educational session to nursing students about the childhood communicable diseases. renders bacteria harmless B. which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Which of the following signs and symptoms is indicative of the most common complication of this communicable disease? A. which of the following would the nurse expect to note in the child? A. After business trip to an underdeveloped country 3 weeks ago. stimulates antibody production 30. pain D. the eruption of rash on the mucosa 31. petechial spots located on the palate B.26. earache 29. A child with measles (rubeola) is being admitted to the hospital. Toxicant 32. respiratory isolation D. A weaken toxin is called: A. Toxoid C. the toxin produced by a causative agent B. Chris is diagnosed with hepatitis A. the systemic symptoms of a disease C. The pediatric nurse is caring for a hospitalized child with diagnosis of rubella (german measles). enteric precautions C. swollen testicle B. Toxicoid D. protective isolation 27.

26G. The result shows a 6mm area of induration. are not consistent with the usual clinical presentation of tuberculosis? A. Positive B. The nurse evaluates that this result as: A. angle with bevel side up C. Negative C. anorexia and weight loss C. D. The nurse interprets that the result is: A. needs to be repeated D. The nurse administers the medication utilizing a tuberculin syringe with a: A. 20G. The nurse evaluates that the client understands the instruction if the client verbalizes to: A. nonproductive or productive cough B. The client has an order to receive purified protein derivatives (PPD) 0. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with tuberculosis. 12. 26G. The client with TB is being started on anti-TB therapy with Isoniazid (INH). I ate oysters in Kenya I drank lemonade from the roadside while on this trip My business partner is a hepatitis carrier 33. The nurse has given the client with tuberculosis instructions for proper handling and disposal of respiratory secretions. B.A. The client who is HIV positive has had a Mantoux test. wash hands at least four times a day . serum creatinine D. coagulation times B. electrolytes C. 20G. high grade fever 37. chills and night sweats D. Borderline C. 1 inch needle inserted at a 45deg. borderline 35. The nurse reading the PPD skin test for a client with no documented health problems. The nurse assesses that which of the following baseline studies has been completed before giving the client the first dose? A. 1 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up D. I went hunting to forests and swarmed by mosquitoes three months ago. Which of the following assessments. angle with bevel side up 34. Negative B. The site has no induration and a 7mm area of ecchymosis. Positive D. 5/8 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up B.1ml intradermally. needs to be repeated 36. if made by the nurse. C. liver enzymes 38. 5/8 inch needle inserted at a 45deg.

brush the teeth and rinse the mouth once a day 39. a generalized body rash B. swelling in the lower extremities C. the nurse who had chicken pox during child hood B. The nurse manager is panning in the clinical assignments for the day. blue-white spots with a red base C. Which of the following staff members would not be assigned to the client with herpes zoster? A. scaly lesions 43. a fiery red. small blood vessel spasm B. an individual working in an environment where exposure to asbestos exists 42. The client with AIDS is diagnosed with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma. peripheral neuritis 40. a client receiving antineoplastic medications D. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing: A. Which of the following characteristics does the nurse expect to note when assessing the lesions of this infection? A. impaired peripheral circulation C. elbows. Which of the following individuals is least likely at risk for the development of Kaposi's sarcoma? A. punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions D. The client has been taking Isoniazid for month and a half.B. and tingling in the extremities. and sacral regions C. complaints of pruritus D. silvery white. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster. scaly patches on the scalp. discard the used tissues in the plastic bag D. the nurse understands that his has been determined by which of the following? A. a renal transplant client C. clustered skin vesicles 44. the new nurse who never had german measles C. turn the head to the side if coughing or sneezing C. the nurse who never had enteric fever . paresthesias. swelling in the genital area 41. Based on this diagnosis. discoloration and pitting of the nails B. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with this skin disorder? A. knees. small. red purplish. edematous rash on the cheeks D. appearance of reddish blue lesions noted on the skin B. a man with a history of same sex partners B. The clinic nurse assesses the skin of the client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The client complains to the nurse about numbness. hypercalcemia D.

any ward that provides a distance barrier of six feet between beds an open ward with cubicles a private room with a bath a mixed infection floor with adequate ventilation 48. the germicidal effect is high B. The reason why medical personnel wear isolation gowns when caring for a person with an airborne infection is to: A. Of what value is cleaning the hands with soap and water? A. which among the following is acceptable? A. D. the appearance of vesicles or pustules with a thick. keep one's uniform free from gross contamination D. Mask C. Gloves 50. Cap B. many microorganisms are removed . minimize atmospheric contamination B. protect patient from secondary infection C. Cover your mouth with a handkerchief B. In covering the mouth when coughing or sneezing. The nurse plans to instruct a client with candidiasis (thrush) of the oral cavity about how to care for the disorder. the bacterial flora is reduced to zero C. Cover your mouth using your hands D.D. the presence of white patches scattered about the trunk C. to avoid citrus fruits and hot liquids D. Gown D. to avoid spicy foods C. the new nurse who had flu vaccine 45. Turn to your side and cough or sneeze at the sleeves of your shirt C. Turn your back to the person you are speaking to when you cough or sneeze 51. patchy hair loss and round neck macules with scales 47. The clinic nurse inspects the skin of client suspect of having scabies. Which of the following is not a component of instructions? A. C. to eat foods that are liquid 46. B. to rinse the mouth four times daily with a commercial mouthwash B. honey colored crust B. complete the isolation technique 49. The best physical unit in a hospital for isolation for a person with an air-borne infection is: A. multiple straight or wavy. threadlike lines beneath the skin D. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse note if this disorder were present? A. Which among the following is not mandatory in the completion of the Personal Protective Equipments (PPEs)? A.

D. protective sebaceous material is removed 52. Immunity means: A. Agglutin B. B. C. B.D. B. forcscheimer's spots koplik's spots rose spots petechial spots 56. hand washing use of sterile instruments drawing medication into syringe autoclaving 59. C. B. D. C. B. D. Rubeola Rubella herpes simplex herpes zoster 55. C. D. Chorea Myelitis Encephalitis Conjunctivitis 57. A synonym for measles is: A. Redness Edema restricted movement of the affected body part lymph node enlargement . The enanthem in measles is called: A. C. presence of red blood cells protection against disease for life resistance of the host to a disease resistance to pathogenic organism 53. adult genitalia blood skin feces 58. Allergen C. Antigen D. C. D. The best example of medical asepsis is: A. A foreign substance which stimulates the formation of antibodies after a given length of time is called an: A. Antisera 54. Which of the following is not a symptom of localized infection? A. C. D. D. The primary human reservoir for Staphylococcus aureus is: A. B. B. A complication of measles which might lead to personality changes is: A.

Kaposis's sarcoma often presents as A. they are most likely to have multiple partners B. Antiretroviral therapy is begun when A. they do not think they are risk for AIDS D. an autoimmune disorder B. cancer C. D. using petroleum jelly as a lubricant B. The best method for you to prevent exposure to HIV while at work is to: A. C. B. the presence of HIV in the body suppression of the immune response by HIV a defect in a person's immune system replication of HIV 67.60. Unmarried elderly people may be at high risk fro contracting HIV because A. D. all of the above 61. C. Histoplasmosis B. sexuality is often not assessed by health care providers for this group 65. using saliva as lubricant C. the first opportunistic infection occurs an individual is found to be HIV positive weight loss begins to occur along with fatigue CD4 cell count drops to 500 cells/mL 66. B. C. B. B. it should be stated that the proper use of condom includes: A. When the nurse teaches about "safe sex" practices. herpes simplex C. C. The cause of AIDS is: A. A common opportunistic infection that affects AIDS patient and causes white patches on the tongue and oral mucosa is: A. candida albicans 62. D. lung infection a CNS infection blister on the skin a "bruise" or large area of plaque in the skin 63. D. leaving space at condom tip D. because they are less inclined to use condoms because pregnancy is not an issue C. know the HIV status of every patient keep yourself in good health always use gloves when likely to come into contact with body fluids use personal protective equipment exactly as recommended at all times 64. AIDS . toxoplasmosis D. CD4+ T-cell levels tend to be elevated in a client with which of the following conditions? A.

Which of the following describes humoral immunity? A. What is the most common and serious complication of gonorrhea infection among women? A. asking the nature of the problem in an area that maintains privacy 69. It is mediated by the T-cell system It primarily defends against fungal infections It aids the production of lymphokines It is mediated by anti-bodies produced by the B lymphocytes 75. Nasal cilia D. Allergies 68. Active natural immunity B. kidney failure 70.D. sterility D. Which of the following is an example of a non-specific body defense? A. B. D. Cellular immunity Antibodies Inflammatory response Phagocytes 72. Which of the following actions of the nurse would be least likely to result in a client comfort when attending an STD clinic? A. D. B. pelvic inflammatory disease B. Immunity obtained as a result of experiencing an illness is known as: A. What is the test done to verify the presence of gonorrhea in women? A. Intact skin C. Lymphocyte formation B. Of the following bodily defences against infection. C. Stomach acid 73. A protein that is capable of invading the body is called a/an? A. standing with your arms crossed as you talk with the client C. D. C. C. making eye contact appropriate for client's culture D. which one is an example of a specific defense? A. B. acute septicaemia C. Passive natural immunity . B. D. Antigen Interferon Complement Antibody 74. C. addressing the client by name B. pelvic exam cervical culture cervical biopsy ultrasound of the reproductive organs 71.

The client has a history of eating fresh vegetables that uses ³night soil´ as a fertilizer. D. What is the other factor? A. D. the portal of exit for the virus was: A. As a result of sharing a needle with an HIV-positive person (Person A). There is significant increase in the WBC count in the routine CBC showing significant eosinophillia. Pregnancy test 81. D. B. Person B becomes infected. C. A 45-year old female with an abdominal pain An 18-year old male with a cast and a broken leg A 78-year old male with dehydration and excoriated skin A 23-year old female recovering from facial injuries sustained from a car accident 80 ± 85. Lipid Profile D. B. You noted an enlargement in her abdominal area. With knowledge of the signs and symptoms. Passive acquired immunity 76. B. C. before Person B became infected. the reservoir was: A. Necator americanus C. Ascaris lumbricoides B. C. Urinalysis B. Person B became infected. Weakness of the body Resistance of the host Resistance of the organism Weakness of the organism 77. The nurse is caring for different clients in the hospital. Situation: You are a caring for a 25-year old female client who comes in the Emergency room complaining of nausea and severe abdominal pain associated with vomiting. Active acquired immunity D. B. One factor is virulence of organism. Which helminth is thought to be associated with such? A. In the chain of infection. As a result of sharing a needle with an HIV-positive Person A. Person A Person B The dirty needle The hole made by the needle into Person B¶s skin 78. D. Ancylostoma duodenale . Fecalysis C.C. In the chain of infection. 80. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissues and proliferate causing infection. Which of the following would be the most susceptible to acquiring an infection? A. what laboratory diagnostic exam would you expect the doctor to request for next? A. before person B became infected. Person A¶s needle puncture site Person B¶s needle puncture site Peron A¶s blood The needle 79. C.

B. Giant intestinal round worm New world hookworm Old world hookworm Beef tapeworm 83. Strongyloides stercoralis 82. Treatment of this helminth may include: A. C. The common name of this helminth is: A. Complications of contracting the disease may include: A. Larval stage D. B. Embryonated ova C.D. Adult 84. C. Which of the following developmental stages of this parasite is ingested to the intestines? A. Cholangitis Malnutrition Biliary tract obstruction All of the above 86. B. D. . C. D. Albendazole Piperazine citrate Pyrantel pamoate All of the above 85. Unfertilised ova B. D.