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discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.) define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts connect remote locations directly to the intranet configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination 2 What are three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network? (Choose three.) 172.16.0.255 172.16.16.16 172.16.127.127 172.16.128.1 172.17.1.1 172.18.1.1 3 A RIPv2 enabled router has been configured with the redistribute static command. What function does this command serve? creates a default route propagates a default route to neighboring routers allows the default administrative distance for static routes to be altered establishes a backup static route which can be used if the dynamic routing protocol fails What is a limitation of RIPv1? RIPv1 cannot run on networks that are using RIPv2. RIPv1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates. RIPv1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors. RIPv1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively. RIPv1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address. What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a Layer 2 switch? to allow in-band management to provide inter-VLAN connectivity to facilitate election of a root bridge to configure a default gateway for the network What are two advantages of using dynamic routing protocols in a network? (Choose two.) They adapt to topological changes. They are more secure than static routes. They eliminate the need for default routes. They have lower administrative distances than static routes.
What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge? faster communication with server farms stronger security against malicious attacks faster communication with Internet destinations enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links 8 9 10 What is the function of mutilink PPP? It allows VLAN ID information to be forwarded between multiple routers on the WAN.) It is a Cisco proprietary protocol. They are forwarded into the management VLAN. It recalculates the spanning tree in less than 1 second. It allows an enterprise to connect to multiple ISPs 11. It allows multiple physical links to be used as a single logical link. It requires a full-duplex. It requires the PortFast and UplinkFast features on switch ports. It supports four states: blocking. They are forwarded out all interfaces except the receiving interface. point-to-point connection between switches to achieve the highest recalculation speed. It allows multiple remote users to share the same VPN tunnel. They are associated with the native VLAN.They enable routers to share information about the reachability and status of remote networks. 7 Which two statements correctly describe RSTP? (Choose two. listening. and forwarding.1q trunk interface? They are dropped. learning. Which action is taken by a switch on untagged frames that are received on a 802. .
SW3. HUB1 HUB1. HUB1. D. HUB1. C. E SW4. E 12 Which subprotocol does PPP use to establish. D. SW4. B.Refer to the exhibit. test. A. Which devices are included in the failure domain of SW2? SW4. SW1. E RTRA. C. and terminate a point-to-point link? LCP NCP IPCP IPXCP 13 . D. maintain.
0.100.0 172.0. Configure DTP on all trunk ports. when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration.168.0 0.Refer to the exhibit. The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0 network. only the second default route is in the routing table.0. Internet access is provided by two ISPs.0. 14 What will allow a LAN switched network to maintain VLAN configuration consistency across the network? Enable CDP on all switch access ports.0.16.0.16. The administrator configures two default routes: BorderR(config)# ip route 0. Why is the first default route not showing? The first configuration command overwrites the second command.1 command. 15 . all Internet traffic goes through ISP1.1 200 BorderR(config)# ip route 0.1. then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.0 192. then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. Enable STP on all switches.0. This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active.0 172.100.0. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. if the link to ISP1 fails. The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.0.0 0.0.1.168.0.1 However. However. Configure VTP on all switches. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider.0 0. If the link to ISP1 goes down. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations.
4.1. FastEthernet0/1 R 10. 00:00:12.30. 00:00:12.4.129/26 .10. 00:00:184.108.40.206.1.0/24 [120/2] via 10.1.10.4.1.20. FastEthernet0/0 R 10. Which IP address can be assigned to the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access host B? 192.0/24 [120/3] via 10.4. Which route will appear in the routing table? R 10.168.10.0/24 [120/1] via 10.64/26 220.127.116.11/26 192. FastEthernet1/0 R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/1] via 10. 00:00:12.126/26 192. 00:00:12.1.4. FastEthernet1/0 16 A Frame Relay service provider is reviewing a contract with a potential customer. Which term would be used when referencing the minimum guaranteed bandwidth that is provided on each virtual circuit? EIR CIR Tc Bc DE 17 Refer to the exhibit. FastEthernet0/0 R 10.10.Refer to the exhibit.10.10.168.30.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.1.1.10.10.
A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts. while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks.18 Refer to the exhibit. Where should the ACL shown in the exhibit be placed to meet these requirements? R2: Fa0/0 inbound R1: S0/1/0 outbound R1: S0/0/1 inbound R2: S0/0/1 outbound R2: Fa0/0 outbound 19 What is a feature of UDP that makes it the preferred transport protocol for VoIP communications? minimizes delay and latency prioritizes and sorts traffic into queues classifies packets by the use of quality of service uses acknowledgments to guarantee delivery of packets 20 .
PAP sends the password once and CHAP sends the password repeatedly until acknowledgement of authentication is received. 21 What are two characteristics of a static route? (Choose two. A static route creates processing overhead in a large network. A network administrator configures a Cisco router for inter-VLAN routing. PAP uses a two-way handshake method and CHAP uses a three-way handshake method. a static route is more secure than dynamic routing. PAP sends the password encrypted and CHAP does not send the password at all. . A static route automatically adapts to topology changes. 23 What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table? Routes that are passive are never updated. Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL. 22 Which statement is true about the difference between CHAP and PAP in PPP authentication? PAP and CHAP provide equivalent protection against replay attacks. A static route can only be used with classful addressing schemes.) A static route can be used by border routers to provide secure and stable paths to the ISP. The router is connected to port Fa0/24 on the switch using a straight-through cable and all switchports are configured as access ports. What will be the result of the configuration? Inter-VLAN traffic will not be routed. The switch will add VLAN tags and forward them to the router. Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete. By default. The router subinterfaces will add the appropriate VLAN tags and route between VLANs. Routes that are active are used to forward data. The switch port will auto-negotiate to a trunk port and will allow for inter-VLAN routing.Refer to the exhibit.
Given the network topology and OSPF configuration. What is the reason for the route in the last line of the routing table to be marked as D EX? The route is configured as a static route on router R1.24 Refer to the exhibit.168. 26 .20.0/23 network.0 network. Network 172. There is a network statement missing.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.30. 25 Refer to the exhibit. The route is a feasible successor to the destination 192.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.0.2. Users on the 172.30.) There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers. what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two. The route is learned from another routing protocol or from outside the EIGRP network.0/24 network. The route is in the “Active” state and will be removed from the routing table in 4 minutes and 23 seconds. /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192. The OSPF area configuration is incorrect.0.20.168. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network.168.
31. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation.18.104.22.168. RA and RB can not form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state. RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.232. RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.202. Which statement is true? RB has the lowest priority value.0/24 addresses. 27 Refer to the exhibit. . All hosts that connect to interface s0/0/0 will have their addresses translated to 172. What is the result of the address translation configuration for traffic that exits interface s0/0/0? All hosts on the inside network will have their addresses translated to 172.Refer to the exhibit. All hosts on the inside network will have their addresses translated to any one of the addresses from the 22.214.171.124. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. All hosts on the 172.0/24 subnet.0/24 network will have their addresses translated to 209.31.232.
4.28 Which element of the hierarchical design model provides a connection point for end-user devices to the network? core layer edge device access layer enterprise edge distribution layer 29 What are two features of an extended IP ACL? (Choose two.4.168. It can filter traffic based on the protocol and port numbers.168.168.0 31 Where are EIGRP successor routes stored? only in the routing table only in the neighbor table in the routing table and the topology table in the routing table and the neighbor table 32 .4.255 255.255.255. 30 Refer to the exhibit. Which command could the administrator enter that would avoid the error? Router(config-if)# ip address 192.240 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.1 255.) It uses numbers 1 through 99 for identification.255.0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.0/24 Router(config-if)# ip address 192. An administrator sees this error message after entering commands to configure a router interface.0 255.255.255. It encrypts traffic between hosts. It detects malicious attacks against the network and logs them on a server.4.255.168. It can permit or deny traffic based on source or destination address.
33 What is the maximum size of an IEEE 802.1q frame? 4 bytes 64 bytes 1280 bytes 1500 bytes 1522 bytes 65. Routers R1 and R2 cannot communicate. not an actual path the result of the no auto-summary command on a router .535 bytes 34 Refer to the exhibit.0. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128. What could be the cause of the problem? Usernames on both routers R1 and R2 are misconfigured. The IP addressing scheme has incorrect subnet masks. The encapsulation command is entered incorrectly.0 network? a child route that is defined a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface a summary route for advertising purposes.Refer to the exhibit. The passwords are identical on both routers.107.
133.1 198.) to set the duplex mode of a redundant link to activate looped paths throughout the network to determine the root bridge to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode 36 Refer to the exhibit.219.219.102 198.) 192.2 198.35 Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses? (Choose two.133.1.103 37 Refer to the exhibit.126.96.36.199 192.133.1. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands? the session from host A to host B the session from host B to hosts C and D the session from host B to hosts E and F . The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1.
the session from host E and host F to host A and host B 38 Refer to the exhibit. which path will be selected by the SPF algorithm to forward traffic from router R4 to network A? R4-R2-R1 R4-R3-R1 R4-R2-R3-R1 R4-R3-R2-R1 (because it has 25 cost. what configuration parameter is required? VTP domain name VLAN number VLAN IP address VLAN database name 40 . Based on the cost value of the links.1.2 ) 39 In order for a VLAN to be created on a switch. OSPF has been configured as a routing protocol on all routers in OSPF area 0.2. it use for select the shortest path to each destination and the total cost of each path Answer key chapter 6 part 6.
R4 is the DR. R5 is the BDR. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after all routers have converged? R1 is the DR. noting changes in traffic flow. R5 is the DR. (base on priority number of R5 =250 and loopback ip address interface are bigger than R2) 41 How can a network administrator determine if network traffic has matched an ACL if there is no syslog server configured on the network? Issue the show access-lists command. R5 is the BDR. Delete the ACL and add it back. R3 is the BDR. R2 is the DR. OSPF has been configured on all routers. Verify the counters on the router interface and see if they are incrementing. R2 is the BDR.Refer to the exhibit. Remove the ACL from any configured interface and note traffic changes. R4 is the BDR. R3 is the DR. 42 .
168. It encrypts user data that is sent across the link. On which router should the commands. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. An enterprise web server has a private IP address. shown in the exhibit.0/24 will require 8 subnets with at least 25 hosts on each subnet. To allow access to the web server . RIPv2 is configured in the network shown.Refer to the exhibit. It authenticates the username and password during initial link establishment and repeatedly during the time the link is active. Which subnet mask will meet these requirements? /25 /26 /27 /28 /29 45 Which routing protocol uses RTP for reliable route update delivery? RIPv1 RIPv2 OSPF EIGRP 46 Refer to the exhibit.1. be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network? R1 R2 (because R2 is connected to internet (border router) we use default route or static route on the router that connect to ISP) R3 ISP 43 How does CHAP secure connectivity on a PPP link? It uses a two-way handshake to send the username and password. 44 A network administrator is creating an addressing scheme and has determined that the company network 192. It designates the remote node to control the frequency and timing of the login attempts.
2.) . Which two routes will be installed in the routing table? (Choose two.168. B.168.2. B.1. B. 00:00:10. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR? C.0.168.1. A. C. a static NAT statement is configured on the Border router. C. A A. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed? D 192.168. 00:00:10. D A.0. B.0/22 [90/203010] via 10. In an attempt to manage traffic that is bound for the server. D 48 Refer to the exhibit. Null0 D 192. C.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.from external users. What address will be used in the ACL as the destination IP address? the inside interface address of the router the external interface address of the router the private address of the web server the translated public address of the web server 47 Refer to the exhibit.0/22 is a summary.1. C. A router has learned the six routes that are shown in the exhibit.0.1.0. D D.0/24 is a summary. D B. Serial0/0/0 D 192. Serial0/0/0 49 Refer to the exhibit. A. Null0 D 192. the network administrator creates an inbound ACL on the outside NAT interface of the router.
.2. The router will automatically reload in 20 minutes even if remote connectivity is lost. The administrator issues the command reload in 20 before the ACL is placed for testing. the router will reload in 20 seconds. the router will save the configuration to NVRAM and reload.2.1 : 51 What should be considered when designing an addressing scheme that uses private IP address space? Private IP addresses are globally routable. 52 A network administrator at headquarters is configuring an ACL for a remote router in the branch office. If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where the ACL is applied. Hierarchical design principles should be utilized. Address summarization is not recommended. Discontiguous networks are no longer problematic.1 2 3 4 5 6 50 Which routing protocol is unable to support discontiguous networks? RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF Answer Key chapter 5 part 5. the router will reload in 20 seconds. What is the purpose of this command? If remote access to the router is blocked. If a remote connection to the router lasts for 20 minutes.
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