01 MCAT FL Test1


05:29 PM

Page 1

Physical Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes Questions 1–77


01 MCAT FL Test1


05:29 PM

Page 2

DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions. Study the passage, then select the single best answer to each question in the group. Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you must also select the best answer to these questions. If you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect, then select an answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions.
1 H 1.0 3 Li 6.9 11 Na 23.0 19 K 39.1 37 Rb 85.5 55 Cs 132.9 87 Fr (223) 4 Be 9.0 12 Mg 24.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87.6 56 Ba 137.3 88 Ra 226.0 21 Sc 45.0 39 Y 88.9 57 La * 138.9 89 Ac † 227.0 22 Ti 47.9 40 Zr 91.2 72 Hf 178.5 104 Rf (261) 58 Ce 140.1 90 Th 232.0 23 V 50.9 41 Nb 92.9 73 Ta 180.9 105 Ha (262) 59 Pr 140.9 91 Pa (231) 24 Cr 52.0 42 Mo 95.9 74 W 183.9 106 Unh (263) 60 Nd 144.2 92 U 238.0 25 Mn 54.9 43 Tc (98) 75 Re 186.2 107 Uns (262) 61 Pm (145) 93 Np (237) 26 Fe 55.8 44 Ru 101.1 76 Os 190.2 108 Uno (265) 62 Sm 150.4 94 Pu (244) 27 Co 58.9 45 Rh 102.9 77 Ir 192.2 109 Une (267) 63 Eu 152.0 95 Am (243) 64 G d 157.3 96 Cm (247) 65 T b 158.9 97 Bk (247) 66 Dy 162.5 98 Cf (251) 67 Ho 164.9 99 Es (252) 68 Er 167.3 100 Fm (257) 69 Tm 168.9 101 Md (258) 70 Y b 173.0 102 No (259) 71 Lu 175.0 103 Lr (260) 28 Ni 58.7 46 Pd 106.4 78 Pt 195.1 29 Cu 63.5 47 Ag 107.9 79 Au 197.0 30 Zn 65.4 48 Cd 112.4 80 Hg 200.6 5 B 10.8 13 Al 27.0 31 Ga 69.7 49 In 114.8 81 Tl 204.4 6 C 12.0 14 Si 28.1 32 Ge 72.6 50 Sn 118.7 82 Pb 207.2 7 N 14.0 15 P 31.0 33 As 74.9 51 Sb 121.8 83 Bi 209.0 8 O 16.0 16 S 32.1 34 Se 79.0 52 Te 127.6 84 Po (209) 9 F 19.0 17 Cl 35.5 35 Br 79.9 53 I 126.9 85 At (210) 2 He 4.0 10 Ne 20.2 18 Ar 39.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.3 86 Rn (222)



01 MCAT FL Test1


05:29 PM

Page 3

Passage I (Questions 1–6) The equation of state of an ideal gas is given by the ideal gas law: PV = nRT where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of gas, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is the temperature of the gas. The gas particles in a container are constantly moving at various speeds. These speeds are characterized by the Maxwell shown in the figure below.

The average distance a particle travels between collisions is known as the mean free path l. Intuitively, the mean free path (mfp) could be expected to be larger for gases at low pressure, since there is a lot of space between particles. Similarly, the mfp should be larger when the gas particles are small. The following expression for the mfp shows this to be correct. l= kT 2πs2P

Equation 4 In this equation, s is the atomic diameter (typically on the order of 10–8), k is the Boltzmann constant, and P is the pressure. In addition to colliding with one another, gas particles also collide with the walls of their container. If the container wall has a pinhole that is small compared to the mfp of the gas, and a pressure differential exists across the wall, the particles will effuse (or escape) through this pinhole without disturbing the Maxwellian distribution of the particles. The rate of effusion can be described by:

fraction of molecules



neff t


If two particles collide, their velocities change. However, if the gas is in thermal equilibrium, the velocity distribution of the gas as a whole will remain unchanged by the collision. The average kinetic energy (E) of a gas particle is given by: E = (1/2) mu2 Equation 1 where m is the mass of one particle and u is the root mean square speed (rms speed) of the gas particles: (i.e., u = [(v12 + v22 + ... + vn2)/N]1/2, where N is the number of gas particles; this is different from the average speed). For an ideal gas, the kinetic energy of all the particles is: Etotal = (3/2)nRT Equation 2 where n is the number of moles of gas. Combining these equations gives: u = (3RT/M)1/2 Equation 3 where M is the molar mass of the gas particles.

A(P – P1) 2 MRT

Equation 5 where neff is the number of moles of effusing particles, A is the area of the pinhole, P and P1 are the pressures on the inside and outside of the container wall respectively, and P > P 1.

1. Which of the following gives values for both standard temperature and pressure? A. B. C. D. 273 K and 760 Torr 273 K and 1 atm 0°C and 760 mm Hg All of the above


The mean free path of a gas will be longer if the : A. 3. GA and GB. Boltzmann constant. which gas would have the fastest effusion rate? A. pressure of the gas is decreased. C. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas can be directly related to the: A. D. 1 PA MB PB MA MB MA PB MB PA MA C. number of gas particles per unit volume is increased. Which of the following will have the smallest root mean square speed at 298K? A. N2 and CO2. 4 . O2.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 4 2. If a pinhole were made in a container containing a mixture of equal amounts of H2. temperature. C. B. distance between collisions is decreased. B. rms speed. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. B. D. C. 6. B. B. pressure of the gas is increased. Cl2(g) O2(g) CO2(g) N2(g) 4. D. What is the relative rate of effusion for a mixture of two noble gases. C. H2 O2 N2 CO2 5. D. which escape through the same pinhole? A. D. universal gas constant.

I and III only The AC voltage that is obtained from the transformer must then be converted to DC voltage in order to charge the capacitor. B. A. The plates of the capacitor are originally separated by a vacuum. C. The cardiac muscle cannot relax. which allows current flow in one direction only. 5 . 0. The transformer used in this defibrillator has a step-up ratio of 1:50. it will interfere with this natural system. and may cause the heart to beat erratically. This condition is known as ventricular fibrillation. how much charge will build up on the two plates? A. The large current required to stop the heart is supplied by a device known as a defibrillator. I only B. To cut down the resistance between the patient’s body and the defibrillator. causing the cardiac muscles to contract. The capacitance of the capacitor will increase. This is accomplished using a diode.16 A 4A 6. which of the following statements is/are true? I. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. This is achieved using a step-up transformer. which creates an output voltage that is much larger than the input voltage.6 × 10–3 C 6. The charge stored on the capacitor will increase. and the heart stops beating. however.25 A 8A 9. a larger current of about 5 to 6 amps is passed through the heart. Once the capacitor is fully charged. D. This device is essentially a “heavy-duty” capacitor capable of storing large amounts of energy. If. III. a sustained ventricular contraction will occur. B. and is life-threatening. 7.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 5 Passage II (Questions 7–11) The periodic beating of the heart is controlled by electrical impulses that originate within the cardiac muscle itself. If a current of a few hundred milliamperes passes through the heart. What is the initial current through the patient’s heart. To charge the capacitor quickly (in 1 to 3 seconds). D. assuming that all the current takes this path? A.000 Ω when wetting gel is used. and the capacitor is allowed to charge up. the electrodes are covered with a wetting gel before use. If the defibrillator has a capacitance of 10 µF.25 × 10–9 C 8. If a dielectric κ > 1 is introduced between the plates of the capacitor. The voltage across the capacitor plates will increase. A schematic diagram of a defibrillator is shown below. I and II only C. II. II and III only D.25 × 10–8 C 1. a large DC voltage must be applied to the plates of the capacitor. The resistance between the two electrodes when placed apart on the patient’s chest is 1. Care must be taken to insure that the patient is not in electrical contact with the ground while the defibrillator is in use. the charge remains stored until the switch is moved to position B and the plates are placed on the patient’s chest. If at this point the muscle is allowed to relax. C. 0. These pulses travel to the sinoatrial node and from there to the atria and the ventricles. a regular heartbeat will usually resume.08 C 1.

The patient receiving the treatment will be in greater danger of receiving burns due to the high current density if he is in electrical contact with the ground. the energy increase. D. B. The doctor administering the treatment will be in greater danger of receiving an electric shock if the patient is in electrical contact with the ground. stored in the capacitor would stored in the capacitor would field between the plates would field between the plates would GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. the electric decrease. 11. the electric increase. D. the energy decrease. Why is it important to insure that the patient is not in electrical contact with the ground while the defibrillator is in use? A. Contact with the ground will cause a smaller current to pass through the patient’s heart. C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 6 10. If a dielectric was inserted between the plates of the capacitor in the defibrillator when the switch is in position A: A. Contact with the ground will decrease the resistance across the patient’s body. 6 . C. B.

7 1.2. Likewise. to which other cations can become adsorbed. C. produces a net charge of –1.5 34.9 16. and organic colloids. The results were recorded in Figure 2. Mn2+.4 0 0. permanent charges brought about by substitution account for anywhere from half to nearly all of the total cation-exchange capacity.8 0. three samples of soil were leached with a 1 N solution of neutral KCl. D. and the displaced H+ measured. The sample was then leached again with a buffered solution of BaCl2 and triethanolamine at pH 8.6 0. For example. B.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 7 Passage III (Questions 12–18) Many nutrients required by plants exist in soil as basic cations: Mg2+.8 H+ Total Cation Exchange Capacity 47.3 9.0 11. C. This leaves negatively-charged oxygen atoms to which basic cations may adsorb.6 37. I II III Cannot be determined 12. just measuring the soil solution’s pH will not indicate how much base is needed to change the soil pH. a large pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dissociates from carboxylic acids and phenols in organic matter. Al3+ H+ Al3+ and Basic Cations Al3+ and H+ 13.4 0. In most clays.1 14. A soil’s cation-exchange capacity is a measure of its ability to adsorb these basic cations as well as exchangeable hydrogen and aluminum ions. Which column(s) in Table 1 represent(s) the permanent charge of the soil micelles? A. What percentage of the cation exchange capacity of Sample I is base-saturated? A. In another experiment.5 7. and the displaced A13+ and basic cations measured.8 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 7 . The cation-exchange capacity of soil is derived from two sources: small clay particles called micelles consisting of alternating layers of alumina and silica crystals. This is called the soil’s permanent charge. In a research study.0 19.4 18. as shown below. 8 pH 6 4 0. B. 4% 6% 29% 40% Sample I Sample II Sample III 4. Table 1 gives results for three soils tested by this method. Which soil from Table 1 most likely has the highest percentage of organic matter? A.8 → meq acid O2–CA2+OH– Figure 2 meq base Figure 1 A pH-dependent charge develops when hydrogen dissociates from hydroxyl moieties on the outer surfaces of the clay micelles. D. measured amounts of acid and base were added to 10-gram samples of well-mixed soil that had been collected from various locations in a field.5 5. Table 1 (meq/100 g) pH Al3+ Basic Cations 1. O2–Al3+OH– Due to the buffering effect of the soil’s cationexchange capacity. replacement of an atom of aluminum by calcium within a section where the net charge was previously zero. The volumes of the samples were equalized by adding water.3 6. B. C. and Ca2+. Soils very high in organic matter contain primarily pH-dependent charges. D. Replacement of A13+ and Si4+ by other cations of lower valence creates a net negative charge within the inner layers of the micelles.

Based on Figure 2. be be be be 18. D. D. C. The measured permanent charge would smaller. Anaerobic organisms are able to denitrify wet soils by the following metabolic pathway. 20. Na+ Mg2+ Si4+ Cr2+ B.26°C. B. 900 kg 1800 kg 9 × 105 kg 1. A converging lens has a focal length of 8 cm.4 cm to the right of the lens and 0. 0. 17.025 cm to the right of the lens and 0. What would be the effect of leaching the three soil samples in Table 1 with a buffered BaCl2 solution at pH 9. what are the position of the image formed and the magnification of the lens? A.5 instead of 8. The vapor pressure of solution X is higher than that of solution Y at 100. B. 8 . D. C. The freezing point of solution X is lower than that of solution Y. HNO3 → HNO2 → H2N2O2 → N2O(g) → N2(g) If all the oxygen in the nitric acid is converted to water. Solution X and solution Y are immiscible.8 × 106 kg Questions 19 through 24 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. The measured pH-dependent charge would greater.26°C. If the object is 10 cm to the left of the lens.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 8 15. how many additional equivalents of acid will be consumed during the production of 5 M of nitrogen? A. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn? A. C. The measured pH-dependent charge would smaller. C. The measured permanent charge would greater. B. 20 30 40 50 16. C.0025× 4. how many kilograms of CaCO3 would have to be added to this field to raise the pH from 5 to 6? A. C. The vapor pressure of solution X is lower than that of solution Y at 100.26°C and solution Y boils at 101. The amount of soil on a particular one-acre field down to a depth of one furrow slice weighs 9 × 105 kilograms. B.04°C. B. Which of the following would probably NOT displace Al3+ in soil micelles? A. D. 19.3? A. D.4× 40 cm to the right of the lens and 4× 40 cm to the left of the lens and 4× GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. D. Both solutions are at atmospheric pressure and contain the same solute concentration. Solution X boils at 100.

How much solid NaOH is required to neutralize 700 mL of 2 N HNO3? A. downwards. 40 g 48 g 56 g 64 g GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. The direction of the resulting magnetic force on the electron will be in the plane of the page and: A.50 m 24. 9 . C. 0. C. B. B. 23. The body is then taken to the Moon. If 29 g of maleic acid (C4O4H4) is dissolved in 500 g of ammonia (NH3). C. D. D. B. to the left.25 m 0. what is the molality of the resulting solution? A. which has a gravitational acceleration 1/6 that of Earth. hitting the Moon with a velocity of vm. 1/6 1/6 6 36 22. A body is dropped from a height of 30 m on Earth and hits the ground with a velocity ve.10 m 0. to the right.05 m 0. An electron travels in the plane of the page from left to right. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 9 21. What is the ratio of vm/ve? A. perpendicular to a magnetic field that points into the page. B. It is again dropped from a height of 30 m. D. C. upwards.

Of the total power that the lamp consumes. 10 . producing radiation in the visible region of the spectrum. Inside each end of the tube are tungsten electrodes covered with an emission material. less than or equal to the energy differences between the electron orbitals of the mercury atom. how much useful energy is emitted as light? A. Electrons are liberated at the cathode and accelerated by an applied electric field. Not every fluorescent lamp emits the same color of radiation. the color is dependent on the relative percentages of different heavy metal compounds in the phosphor. B. When the excited electrons revert to their ground state. B. greater energy than the light absorbed. The fluorescent lamp shown operates at 100 volts and draws 400 milliamps of current during normal operation. C. only 25% is converted to light. These photons impinge on the phosphor coating of the tube and excite electrons in the phosphor to higher energy states. This energy keeps the lamp at its optimum working temperature of 40°C. which emits orange to yellow light. If the fluorescent light is left on for 4 hours.7 nm. they radiate ultraviolet photons with a wavelength of 253. These free electrons encounter the gas mixture. The lamp is a glass tube whose inside walls are covered with a phosphor. In the lamp shown. higher frequency than the light absorbed. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Since it requires more energy to ionize the atoms than to excite the electrons. are very efficient light sources. more excitation than ionization occurs. Lamps that utilize this property. As the excited electrons in the coating drop back to their ground states in more than one step. the phosphor coating is calcium metasilicate. while the remaining 75% is dissipated as heat. equal to the energy differences between electron orbitals in the mercury atom. D. it fluoresces and emits light in the visible region of the spectrum.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 10 Passage IV (Questions 25–30) When light in the ultraviolet region of the spectrum is shone on a type of material known as a phosphor. The excited electrons in the phosphor return to their ground state in two or more steps. D. longer wavelength than the light absorbed. and it is filled with argon gas mixed with mercury vapor. they will emit light of: A. C. 25. the same wavelength as the light absorbed. C. The photons emitted by the mercury vapor have energies: A. ionizing some mercury atoms and exciting others. equal to the voltage across the tube. The arrangement of a typical fluorescent lamp is shown below. equal to the energies of the electric current. 26. 144 kJ 432 kJ 576 kJ 900 kJ 27. The tube has an appreciable length-to-diameter ratio so as to reduce the power losses at each end. B. D. known as fluorescent lamps.

948 eV 4. The lamp also emits a small proportion of ultraviolet light in addition to the light emitted in the visible spectrum. Some fluorescent light bulbs are observed to glow for a short period after their power supply has been turned off.968 eV 29.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 11 28.00 eV. and c = 3 108 m/s.14 10-15 eV•s. This glow is generated mainly by: A. 11 . This ultraviolet light is incident on a metal that has a work function.)? A.936 eV 6. B. electrons returning to the ground state from excited states after the power was shut off. 9. C. the dissipation of electric charge built up on the bulb’s surface. D. the incandescence of the hot ionic gas within the bulb surface. emitting a photon with an energy of 2. B. What is the wavelength of the light emitted by the fluorescent tube? (Note: Planck’s constant h = 4.) A. C. of 2. D. emission of light stored as vibrational kinetic energy in the phosphor coating. B.14 10–15 eV•s. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.07 eV. 300 nm 600 nm 900 nm 1242 nm 30. an electron falls from an excited state to a lower energy state. In the phosphor coating. which is the minimum energy necessary to free an electron. D. What will be the kinetic energy of an electron that is ejected from the metal if the frequency of the incident light is 1. C.968 eV 2.2 1015 Hz? (Note: h = 4.

33. is long-lived by atomic standards. an equal number of new molecular orbitals results. B. Bonding orbitals have lower energy than their component atomic orbitals. These are of two types: σ or π bonding orbitals. σ2p .) A. –––––– +++––– ++––++ +–+–+– 32.) Absorption of a photon can raise an electron to a higherenergy molecular orbital. orbitals in the n = 2 energy level are filled as follows: σ2s. defined by the value of the quantum mechanical function for electron density. which together from six molecular π orbitals. During this period. B. C. For a diatomic molecule. and antibonding σ* or π* orbitals. leaving the other three empty. there may be a change in spin direction somewhere in the system. The number of bonds between atoms is determined by the number of filled bonding orbitals minus the number of filled antibonding orbitals. py. since the excited electron no longer has a partner of opposite spin with which to pair. less stable orbitals remain empty when the molecule is in its ground state. π*2px and π*2py (equal in energy). which is opposite to that of the electron with which it was previously paired. The excited electron does not immediately change its spin. Of the possible π orbital structures for benzene. The larger number of molecular orbitals allows for smaller energy transitions. Consequently. which molecule is a triplet in its ground state? A. each antibonding orbital cancels out a filled bonding orbital. the higher-energy. 12 . This singlet state is relatively unstable: the molecule may interact with another molecule. D. which has two unpaired electrons in separate orbitals. Larger molecular orbitals can absorb more energy. which generally has lower energy. It also cannot return to the singlet state. the triplet state. with a lifetime that may be ten seconds or more. A longer wavelength is better able to interact with a longer molecular orbital. Among conjugated polyenes (molecules with alternating carbon-carbon double and single bonds) why are those that are longer able to absorb longer wavelengths of light? A. D. D. σ*2pz. B. π2px and π2py (equal in z energy). H2 O2 N2 F2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. formed by overlap between regions with opposite signs. and pz are interchangeable. σ*2s. each one delocalized over the entire ring. Given the order in which orbitals are filled. Which of the following four depictions of molecular π orbitals represents the highest energy state for a 6carbon polyene molecule? (The signs given are the signs for the mathematical functions defining the p orbitals on one side of the molecule. (The designation of the three p orbitals as px. When orbitals from different atoms overlap to form bonds. The six electrons occupying the orbitals fill the three most stable molecular orbitals. or fluoresce and return to its ground state. C. because the singlet has greater energy. Molecular orbitals are filled from the lowest to the highest energy level. the molecule is highly reactive. A benzene ring has six unhybridized pz orbitals (one from each carbon atom). the one with the lowest energy has the plus region of all six p orbital functions on one side of the ring. and antibonding orbitals have higher energy. The electron pairs reside in the lower-energy bonding orbitals. 31. Alternatively. The molecule now cannot return quickly to its ground state. Larger molecular orbitals have a lower ground state. formed by overlap between orbital regions with the same sign.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 12 Passage V (Questions 31–36) Every atomic orbital contains plus and minus regions. C. the molecule then enters the so-called triplet state.

D. C6H6 C6H6. H2C=CH2 HC≡CH. D. HC≡CH. CH4 36. B. 35. sp2. The quantum number that distinguishes the px orbital from the py orbital is called the: A. 13 . B. CH4. B. from lowest to highest? A. Molecular orbitals in hydrocarbons are formed between the 1s atomic orbital of hydrogen and the sp. Which of the following figures describes the shape of σ*2pz molecular orbital? A. principal quantum number. CH4. D. C6H6. or sp3 hybrid atomic orbitals of carbon. magnetic quantum number. C. C6H6.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 13 34. C. azimuthal quantum number. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. C. spin quantum number. Which choice correctly lists the energy level of the C-H bonds. CH4 H2C=CH2.

I and III only Figure 1 The distance traveled by the skier between leaving the ski jump ramp and making contact with the slope is called the jump distance. 14 . Increasing the angle of incline of the jump track III. A ski jumper is stationary at the top of the track. The skier lands farther down on the slope. thereby increasing the vertical velocity. the skier takes off from a ramp at the bottom of the track. Once the skier pushes off. D. B. I only B. In some cases. what is the total horizontal distance traveled by the ski jumper after leaving the ramp? A. Unless otherwise stated. and then takes off from the ramp. in order to increase the jump distance a skier will jump slightly upon leaving the ramp. D. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. I and II only C. Figure 1 shows a ski jump.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 14 Passage VI (Questions 37–42) A ski jump is an inclined track from which a ski jumper takes off through the air. Increasing the vertical height h of the jump track II. If the time in flight is 4 s. C. C. she accelerates down the track. Carrying extra weight to increase the total mass of the ski jumper A. II and III only D. 38. 4m 8 3m 32 3 m 48 m 39. Another ski jumper sets off from a point farther down the jump track. 37. The track is inclined at an angle of to the horizontal and the slope is inclined at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. increase decrease remain the same The answer depends on the incline angle of the jump ramp. How would the speed of a skier leaving the jump ramp change if the vertical height of the jump ramp were increased from its original height of 10 meters? A. After traveling down the track. and ignore the effects of air resistance. The vertical height difference between the top of the track and its lowest point is 50 m. Which of the following would increase the jump distance? I. and the vertical height difference between the top of the ramp and its lowest point is 10 m. assume that friction between the skis and the slope is negligible. B. in which the ramp at the lower end of the track makes an angle of 30° to the horizontal. and leaves the ramp at a speed of 16 m/s.

15 . D. 41. 42. The normal force of the slope on the skier would increase.8 m/s2 13. Equal amounts of work would be done. C. The pressure exerted on the slope by the skis would decrease.9 m/s2 80 m/s2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. which of the following would occur? A. The answer depends on the angle of the track.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:29 PM Page 15 40. The pressure exerted on the slope by the skis would increase. B. B. More work would be done on the skier when she skis down the track. C. B. The normal force of the slope on the skier would decrease.9 m/s2 9. What is the acceleration of an 80-kg skier going down the track if θ = 45°? A. 6. D. Less work would be done on the skier when she skis down the track. C. How would the work done by gravity on the skier when she skis down the track compare with the work done by gravity on the skier if she fell the same vertical height? A. If a skier uses skis of greater surface area. D.

m2r2/4π2 2π2mr2 4π2mr2 mr2/2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Which titration curve would be produced by titrating 25 mL of a 0. C. 43.) A. What is the final kinetic energy of the α-particle? (Note: Assume that e = 1. B.4 3. B.33 V 1. C.6 8.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 16 Questions 43 through 47 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. 16 . what is the cell voltage for the following reaction? Fe2O3 + 2 Al → 2 Fe + Al2O3 Half-Reaction Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe Fe3+ + 3e– → Fe 2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH– Al3+ + 3e– → Al A. D.33 V 1.037 –0. Based on the table below.66 D. D. What is the energy of the particle? A.62 V Standard Potential (V) –0. A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r at a uniform speed and makes 1 revolution per second.6 10–19 C. 1. B. D.83 –1. C.44 –0. –1. Suppose an α-particle starting from rest is accelerated through a 5 megavolt potential difference.99 V 1.1 N weak base with a 0. 44. B. 45. C.0 6.1 N strong acid? A.2 10–12 J 10–13 J 10–26 J 10–26 J 46.

C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 17 47. as shown below. A B C D GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 17 . What is the direction of the electric field in the center of the square? A. Four charges of equal magnitude but different sign are arranged in the four corners of a square. B. D.

k. D. for instance. In a test of the rate of Step 3 of Reaction 1. k1[A] where k1 is the rate constant for the first step.314 J/K•mol. If Step 2 above were the rate-determining step of Reaction 1. the equilibrium can be correlated with the voltage produced by two half-cells by means of the Nernst equation. it is desirable to measure the rate of a reaction in relation to only one species. In some cases. F = 9. is established. C. Such a reaction is called a pseudo first-order reaction. This can happen if the rate-determining step is not the first step. C. In this case. the concentration of the intermediate must be derived from the equilibrium constant of the preceding step.) 48. This equation states that at any given moment: E = E° – (RT/nF)ln([C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b) Equation 1 when aA+bB→cC+dD Reaction 2 Note: R = 8. An enzyme. we assume that the concentration essentially remains unchanged. For instance. In a second-order reaction. D. equal to the product of the rate constant of the original reaction. Reacting various concentrations of A and B with a large excess of R produced the following results during the first few minutes of the reaction. R.2% 50. Rate = k1k2[D]/k–1[C] Rate = k1k2[D]/k–1k–2[C] Rate = k1k2[A][D]/k–1[C] Rate = k1k2[A][D]/k–1k–2[C] 18 [A ]= time GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. B. B. and the concentration of the species in excess. (Rate constants of the different steps are denoted by kx. D. The rate is calculated after the reaction has gone 50% to completion. the following reaction can be broken down into three steps. A+D→F+G Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 A→B+C (slow) B + D → E + F (fast) E+C→G (fast) Reaction 1 In this case. 0. the first step in the reaction pathway is the rate-determining step. the reaction rate may be dependent on the concentration of a short-lived intermediate. which of the following equations would correctly define the rate? A.6485 × 104 C/mol.05% 0. For redox reactions.2 1M . C. [B ]= rate 2M . A new rate constant. [B ]= 0. M M 0. [B ]= [A ]= Which of the following is the best tentative rate equation? A. a solution is prepared containing a 0. but can be predicted on the basis of the rate-determining step.2 0. the overall rate of the reaction must equal the rate of the first step. The rate of a reaction cannot be predicted on the basis of the overall equation. Since a relatively small amount of this large concentration is reacted. [A ]= 2M . Therefore. Rate = k'[A]x Rate = k'[B]y Rate = k'[A]x[B]y Rate = k[A]x[[B]y[R]z 49.1 M concentration of E and a 50 M concentration of C. k'.) In some cases. a large excess of one species is included in the reaction vessel.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 18 Passage VII (Questions 48–54) Several techniques have been developed to determine the order of a reaction.1 M . By what percent will the calculated rate differ from the true rate if we treat the reaction as pseudo first-order? A. where x is the step number.1% 0. This approach is often used to analyze enzyme activity. catalyzes the oxidation of A to B. B.02% 0.

Both the voltage and the spontaneity of the reaction increase.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 19 51. C. The spontaneity of the reaction increases. E = E° III. B. decrease the number of collisions between reactant molecules. B. but the voltage and spontaneity of the reaction are unchanged. but the voltage remains the same. C. D.20 V GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 19 . 1. ln([C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b) = nFE°/RT A.07 V 1. k1/k–1 = 1 II. What is the effect of increasing the concentration of reactants in a voltaic cell? A.13 V 1. and III 54. The voltage increases. 52. C.2 M)||Cu2+(0. Catalysts are effective in increasing the rate of a reaction because they: A. while the spontaneity of the reaction remains the same. I. Which of the following is true of a reaction at equilibrium? I. II. lower the activation energy. III only C. increase the value of the equilibrium constant. 53. increase the energy of the activated complex. What would be the cell emf of the following system at 298K? Zn(s)|Zn2+(0.10 V A. The reaction rate increases. I only B. I and II only D. D.10 V 1.02 M|Cu(s) E°cell = +1. D. B.

which are highenergy photons of electromagnetic radiation.000 eV 1J 56. Planck’s constant h = 4. What is the electron’s energy as it strikes the anode? A.6 10–19 J. In addition. The electrons interact with the metal plate and are stopped by it. Much of the energy of the incoming electrons is released in the form of X-rays. B. What is the direction of the electric field that accelerates the electrons? A. The amount of X-rays absorbed increases with the density of the material. It is shorter. D. 100 eV 1. 55. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. and a photon making up the energy difference is emitted. B.1 m by a potential difference of 10. 20 .000 eV 10. X-rays are absorbed by a material when they pass through it.) A. lower energy X-rays are more likely to be absorbed than higher energy X-rays.” X-rays are emitted by the electrons as they are brought to rest by interactions with the positive nuclei of the anode. From the anode toward the cathode From the cathode toward the anode Into the page Out of the page 57. B. D.000 volts. which is German for “breaking radiation. C. An electron is accelerated through a distance of 0. speed of light c = 3 108 m/s. (Note: 1 eV = 1.1 10–15 eV•s. The first mechanism is called bremsstrahlung. How does the wavelength of an X-ray produced from a K-alpha transition in molybdenum compare to that produced from a lower energy K-alpha transition in copper? There are two mechanisms by which the X-rays are produced within the metal. An example of such a device is shown below. It is longer. C. Electrons are accelerated from the cathode towards the anode by an electric field. The second mechanism occurs when an incoming electron knocks an inner electron out of one of the metal atoms of the anode. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 20 Passage VIII (Questions 55–61) X-rays are produced by a device which beams electrons with an energy between 103 and 106 eV at a metal plate. C. This electron is replaced by an electron from a higher energy level of the atom. It is the same. It depends on the energy of the incoming electron.

000 V 20. what is the maximum possible rise in the temperature of the water after 100 s? A. what is the new maximum frequency of the X-rays produced? A. In an X-ray tube.500 V 61. 60. D. 21 . C. The anode is cooled by water of mass m with specific heat c. B. 59.500 V 21. bone. for lead. C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 21 58. C. C. D. electrons of charge e are accelerated through a potential difference of V. 3 1018 Hz 6 1018 Hz 12 1018 Hz 24 1018 Hz B. What is the minimum potential difference required to produce a 0. B. and air? A. 15.000 V 20. Which of the following graphs best represents the relationship between the amount of X-rays absorbed per unit length of material and the energy of the X-rays. B. If n electrons per second strike the anode. An X-ray source produces X-rays with a maximum frequency of 6 1018 Hz.06 nm X-ray from an electron transition in a metal? A. D. If the cathode current is doubled so that twice as many electrons are emitted per unit time. nVe/100mc 100Ve/mc 100n(Ve + mc) 100nVe/mc GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. D.

and the cells are resuspended in a mL of lysis buffer solution (50 mM glucose.100 m 0. D. I and II only D. Stock solutions are highly concentrated solutions of commonly used chemicals in water from which dilute solutions are prepared for daily use. How much of this salt must be used to produce 1 L of a 0. 25 mM Tris buffer and 10 mM ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). The mixture is centrifuged a final time and the supernatant removed. Finally. D. their molecular formulas and weights. is then centrifuged. What is the molality of a stock solution that is 10% SDS by mass? A. They are then incubated for 30 minutes at 0°C. during which time the bacterial cell walls break down and the cell contents are released into the solution. In preparation for this experiment. 145 g 146 g 186 g 187 g 63. 1 mM EDTA). The translucent precipitate that results is washed with 70% ethanol (70% ethanol and 30% water by volume). I only B.028 m 0. and the composition of commonly used stock solutions. which is designed to purify plasmids. C. with 5 mg of the enzyme lysozyme added). from bacterial cells. C. B. The supernatant is poured out.0. and the solution is again incubated on ice for 10 minutes. the pKa of Tris must be near pH 8. EDTA is available commercially in the form of a hydrated sodium salt.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 22 Passage IX (Questions 62–67) Compound A researcher in a molecular biology lab planned to carry out an extraction procedure known as an alkaline plasmid prep. then: I. If pH 8. and resuspended in 1 mL of TE buffer (10 mM Tris. Tris (Tris(hydroxymethyl)aminomethane) is generally used as a buffer.5 M (pH 8) 40 5 N 288 10% 82 3 M (pH 5. 10 mL of pure ethanol are added to the supernatant from the previous step to precipitate out the DNA. Tris EDTA Table 1 Formula (CH2OH)3CNH2 (HOOCCH2)4(CNH2)2 MW Stock 121 1M (pH 8) 292 0. the titration curve will possess a steep region near pH 8. The bacteria are first placed into a test tube containing liquid nutrient medium and allowed to grow until they reach a high population density.4 N sodium hydroxide and 1 mL of 2% sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) are added.347 m 0. the researcher prepared stock solutions of the various chemicals that she will need in the experiment. The test tube is centrifuged once more and the supernatant is decanted into a clean tube. small pieces of the hereditary material DNA.5 M stock solution? A. a solid pellet is formed.0 II. B.385 m GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. and the test tube is incubated at –20°C for 60 minutes. which consists of solid cells suspended in the medium. during which the mixture remains liquid.2) 46 95% Sodium hydroxide NaOH SDS Sodium acetate Ethanol C11H23CH2OSO3–Na+ CH3COO–Na+ CH3CH2OH 62. Na2EDTA • 2H2O. 22 . III. 1 mL of 0. a great deal of NaOH would have to be added to pH 8. 0.0 is a good buffering region for Tris. leaving behind the protein and most other cell components in the pellet.0 Tris in order to significantly affect the pH. The culture. 2 mL of 3 M sodium acetate are added and the mixture is incubated for 30 minutes at 0°C. if Tris is titrated with acid. A. allowed to dry. I and III only 64. leaving the pellet behind. Table 1 shows the chemicals. After incubation. III only C.

How much 95% ethanol would be needed to produce a 500 mL solution of 70% ethanol by volume in water? A. DNA is nonpolar and therefore dissolves better in ethanol than in water. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 23 65. DNA is polar and therefore dissolves better in water than in a mixture of water and ethanol. Pure ethanol (CH3CH2OH) is difficult to prepare and therefore expensive. DNA dissolves better in water at lower temperatures. B. D. Which of the following conclusions can be reached based on the fact that DNA precipitates in the last step of the plasmid prep procedure? A. What would be the pH of 100 mL of the sodium acetate stock solution after the addition of 3. 95% ethanol is generally used in the preparation of dilute ethanol solutions. C.0 66. 333 mL 350 mL 368 mL 475 mL 67. 1. 23 . B. C.0 4. 95% ethanol is much cheaper.74) A.6 g of HCl? (pKa of acetic acid = 4. DNA dissolves well in ethanol and precipitates only because the solution is centrifuged. C. B.2 6.74 5. Consequently. D. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 24 Passage X (Questions 68–73) The simple harmonic motion of a mass suspended from vertical springs is investigated in two experiments. at the lowest point in its motion. The mass will then oscillate with simple harmonic motion. at the equilibrium position. The mass in the first experiment is pulled down a distance A from its equilibrium position and then released from rest. In the first experiment. B. 69. when a 5-kg mass is oscillating. B. In the first experiment a mass m is suspended from a spring. D. at the position where the spring’s length is its natural length. kL/g kL0/g k(L – L0)/g k/g GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. The mass stretches the spring to a new length L. The mass will no longer oscillate when the total energy dissipated equals: A. D. and the elastic limits of the springs are never exceeded. D. called the equilibrium length. B. the frequency of oscillation is 2 Hz. 24 . 5/π2 N/m 20 N/m 40π2 N/m 80π2 N/m 68. C. energy is dissipated due to factors such as air resistance and internal heating of the spring. In the second experiment the mass m is suspended from two identical springs as shown in Figure 2 below. The springs used in both experiments have a spring constant k and a natural length L0. kL2/2 kA2/2 k(L + A)2/2 kL02/2 70. 71. at the highest point in its motion. The material used to make the springs has a Young’s modulus of 2 1011 Pa. C. What is the value of the spring constant? A. In the first experiment the mass is pulled down and set into motion. each spring is stretched from its natural length by the same amount xe. The position of greatest speed is: A. B. In the first experiment. In both experiments the masses of the springs are negligible. C. As the mass moves up and down. D. what is the mass of the object hanging from the spring? A. When the mass m is in equilibrium.

The two springs in Experiment 2 are replaced by a single spring having a spring constant k’ such that the equilibrium length xe does not change. The equilibrium length of the spring would be greater when the elevator is stationary. how would the equilibrium length of the spring compare to the equilibrium length of the spring when the elevator is stationary? A. B. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 25 72. C. The equilibrium length of the spring would be greater when the elevator is accelerating upward. C. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. If the spring in Experiment 1 was suspended from the ceiling of an elevator accelerating with acceleration a. 1/2 1 2 2 73. The equilibrium length of the spring doesn’t depend on the acceleration of the elevator. The equilibrium length of the spring would be greater when the elevator is accelerating downward with acceleration smaller than the acceleration due to gravity. B. 25 . What is the ratio of k’ to k? A. D.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED. B. D. Dispersion forces Resonance Hydrogen bonding Dipole interactions STOP.60 M 1. C. mg m(g + a) m(g – a) ma 26 . CHECK YOUR WORK.20 M 76. B. B. What is the molarity of the acid? A. B. If the noise level is increased by 30 decibels. 74. If the acceleration due to gravity is g. Which of the following is NOT an intermolecular force? A.15 M 0.3 N NaOH solution. C. what is the average frictional force exerted by the fireman? A. 10 30 100 1000 77. D. A fireman of mass m slides down a vertical pole with an average acceleration a. 75. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 26 Questions 74 through 77 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. what is the ratio of the new intensity to the original intensity? A.30 M 0. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY. C. 0. A given volume of a diprotic acid is completely neutralized by twice that volume of a 0. D. C.

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 27 Verbal Reasoning Time: 85 Minutes Questions 78–137 DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO. .

and of furniture still prized for its quality and durability. eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining alternatives. six thousand Shakers lived in fifty-eight separate “families” throughout the Northeast. Though the Shakers were less adamant on the last point—maintaining social relations and some commerce with their neighbors—they insisted on the other three. They owned everything communally. art and philosophy by night. B. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Oneida remained viable for some thirty years. not workers. combined with their strict discipline. the members felt little compunction about closing shop and returning to their comfortable Boston homes. founded by transcendentalists George Ripley and William H. Perhaps surprisingly. intelligent people. Men and women lived in a single large “Unitary Dwelling” and were considered complete equals. The Oneidans maintained order solely through “criticism”—anyone acting out of line was made to stand before the other members and hear his or her faults recounted. Its members (among the more notable were Nathaniel Hawthorne and Margaret Fuller) pursued field labor by day. Perhaps the most famous secular commune was Brook Farm. a failure to attract members of sufficient intellect or ability. Thus. C. Despite their religious strictness. 45 50 55 60 20 Doubtless the most successful communalists were the Shakers. select the one best answer to each question. both secular and religious. which Noyes saw as an imperative to live a better life. so called for the early propensity to tremble ecstatically during religious worship. The passage implies that the end of the Brook Farm experiment was probably brought on by: A. and renounced both personal property and sex. and the dream degenerated into a joint stock company. despite their success they remained mainly interested in the theoretical and philosophical implications of the experiment. After reading a passage. Passage I (Questions 78–84) 40 5 10 15 In the early nineteenth century a large number of communal experiments. Its founder. the Oneidans embraced industry and commerce. achieving success in fruit packing. In their heyday. 28 35 . led to a decline in numbers. and this principle extended to each other. The Oneidans saw monogamy as a selfish act and asserted that the men and women of the community were united in one “complex” marriage.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 28 VERBAL REASONING DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in this Verbal Reasoning Section. The old religious fervor died out. 25 30 78. Each passage is followed by several questions. Mother Ann. espoused four key principles: Virgin Purity. believed that Christ’s second coming had already occurred and that everyone alive was favored by Divine grace. but they occupied separate wings and could speak together only if a third person were present. One of the most notable religious utopias was the Oneida community. the completion of the community’s aims. and Separation from the World. until the leadership devolved on Noyes’ son. John Humphrey Noyes. Christian Communism. Later their celibacy. Confession. producers of lovely books and hymns. and silk thread winding. If you are not certain of an answer. faltering commitment in the face of hardship. healthy and long-lived. Shakers were known as simple. But by nature the Farm’s members were thinkers. Their guiding light. D. trap making. Channing to promote the pursuit of leisure and culture through the proper application of time and labor. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding oval on your answer document. but even today a small number of elderly Shakers in two communities in Maine and New Hampshire continue to keep the faith. an agnostic. sprang up in the northeastern United States. sex between any two consenting members was perfectly acceptable. For a time the system worked so well that two afternoons a week were set aside for leisure and Brook Farm began outcompeting local farmers at the produce market. the incompetence of philosophers at field labor. when a devastating fire brought the community considerable financial burdens in its fifth year. sincere.

did not include the selling of produce outside the farm. B. monogamy was wrong in principle. the next topic the author would discuss would probably be: A. 83. considerable economic losses. C. belief in present grace. C. was based on the hiring of farm hands. maintenance of order through social pressure. B. B. B. III. would probably be weakened by: I. efficiently utilized time and labor. C. diminished contact with the outside world. D. contact with the outside world. I only B. 82. III only D. a theory explaining why communal living might become popular again. men and women were equal in the eyes of God. an investigation into why the three communes discussed were successful to varying degrees. the Oneidans believed that: A. D. II only C. D. D. sexual practices. 29 . D. The passage implies that Brook Farm’s economic system: A. shared living quarters. According to the passage. II. The Shakers resembled the Oneidans in their attitude toward: A. personal property. they were destined to witness Christ’s second coming. all of the following were characteristic of the Oneida community EXCEPT: A. a comparison between nineteenth and twentieth century communal living experiments. 84. complex marriage. According to the passage. C. C. increasing agnosticism. rules and standards of behavior were unnecessary.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 29 79. I and II only 81. 80. equality of men and women. based on the principles of collective ownership and the sharing of profits. It can be inferred from the passage that the cohesion of a secular workers’ cooperative. was primarily intended to maximize collective profit. B. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. A. If the passage were to continue. an analysis of why early communes attracted intellectuals and artists.

which emphasizes the autonomy of the client (i. which occurred between the two world wars. D. they may continue to impair a person’s ability to function in daily life.” If this humanist theoretical perspective is aimed at empowering the individual. Abraham Maslow. the more positive the individual’s self-image. to love. Not even babies were safe: B. Rogers also pioneered the development of “client-centered” or nondirective therapy. articulated a hierarchy of basic human needs. water and air. They wondered if the purpose of psychology was really to reduce people to laboratory specimens. are said to be “self-actualized. tried to deal only with observable and quantifiable facts. concerned only with conscious experience. They questioned the idea that human personality becomes permanently fixed in the first few years of life. they could instead by modified by behavioral conditioning. And we believe that the more aspects of self which are satisfactorily developed. Years later. In client-centered therapy. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. dismissing ideas and feelings as unscientific. By mid-century. opposed to the Third Stream. They perceived the human being merely as an organism which generated responses to stimuli produced by its body and the environment around it. a pioneer of the Third Stream. rather than outward behavior. so too are the movement’s efforts in the practical realm of clinical psychology. While the movement can- 55 not be simplified down to a single theoretical position. social acceptance and belonging. Was it not instead possible that human beings are greater than the sum of their parts? That psychology should speak to their search for fulfillment and meaning in life? It is questions like these that members of the Third Stream have sought to address. he would most likely conclude that the psychoanalyst was: A. Behavioral psychologists. Conceived by Sigmund Freud as a means of treating mental and emotional disorders. esteem and self-expression. asserting itself against the opposition of a pair of mighty. The so-called “Third Stream” emerged at mid-century. Patients’ neuroses no longer needed analysis. We see maturity as a process dependent on the establishment of a set of values and the development of self. psychoanalysis is the oldest and most introspective. influenced by humanist theory. Carl Rogers pressed for objective evaluations of both the process and outcome of psychotherapeutic treatment. Of the three major movements in the course of 20thcentury psychology. having developed their potential to the highest possible extent. rejecting Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs. C. Progress toward the higher stages cannot occur until all of the more basic needs have been satisfied. If the author of this passage met a Freudian psychoanalyst who felt that it was important for patients to consider themselves capable of fundamental change. We recognize that each human being is unique.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 30 Passage II (Questions 85–90) 50 The time has come to acknowledge the ascendancy of the humanistic psychology movement. Not content to function simply as a reformer. probably helped enable humanistic psychology to survive its early years. psychoanalysis is based on the theory that people experience unresolved emotional conflicts in infancy and early childhood. Humanistic psychologists believe that conscious experience. B. patient). although these experiences have largely disappeared from conscious awareness..F. it does spring from certain fundamental propositions. Skinner devised a container in which infants could be raised under “ideal” conditions—if a sound-proof box can be considered the ideal environment for child-rearing. The patient experiences improvement when the psychoanalyst eventually unlocks these long-repressed memories of conflict and brings them to the patient’s conscious awareness. Individuals atop the pyramid. In the heyday of behaviorism. as well as divisiveness within each of them. capable of change and personal growth. psychoanalysis and behaviorism. long-established 5 currents. clients choose the subjects for discussion. But the movement flourished because of its wealth of insights into the nature 10 of this most inexact science. progressing upward through shelter and security. 30 45 . and are encouraged to create their own solutions to their problems. starting with food. is the proper subject of psychology. a number of psychologists had grown dissatisfied with both the deterministic Freudian perspective and the mechanistic approach of behaviorism. Believing that traditional psychotherapists tend to lead patients toward predetermined resolutions of their problems. the psychoanalytic movement was heavily criticized for being too concerned with inner subjective experience.e. 60 15 65 20 70 25 75 30 80 35 40 85. The hostility between these two older schools.

II. The author states that “not even babies were safe” (line 35) most probably in order to: A. B. D. the significance of conscious experience. self-directed personal growth for the client. stimulus-response conditioning was attempted on all sorts of individuals. I only B. in its early days. D. B. 90. acknowledged Maslow and Rogers as its only leaders. According to the passage. indicate the pervasive influence of behaviorists on the field of psychology. D. 87. raising babies in isolation prevents childhood conflicts. B. II only C. C. C. I and II only D. D. benefited from dissension among psychologists. the relevance and utility of clinical psychology. 89. the ultimate goal of behaviorism is technological innovation. show that behaviorists were anxious to apply their theories to a wide range of subjects. C. 31 . the ultimate goal of Carl Rogers’s client-centered therapy is: A. the necessity of proper training for psychologists. the humanistic psychology movement: I. A. B. The author most probably believes that. simplification of the Third Stream’s theoretical perspective. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. increased autonomy of psychotherapists.F. behaviorists reject the scientific validity of subjective experience. emphasize that the use of even very young subjects is considered valid among most psychologists. Psychoanalysts and humanistic psychologists would be most likely to disagree about: A. was an offshoot of behaviorism. rejection of Maslow’s scheme of self-actualization. II and III only 88. warn of the dangers of psychoanalysis for children. Skinner is mentioned in the passage to support the point that: A. B. III. C. the effects of internal conflicts on childhood behavior.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 31 86.

is derived from hemoglobin which has been recycled from old. researchers have been working at a feverish pace 5 to produce disease-free and easy-to-use blood substitutes. A. ultimately.” is dependent on laboratory-synthesized chemicals called perfluorocarbons (PFCs). Although modification has produced more durable hemoglobin molecules which do not cause renal failure. a complex protein. Fortunately. or worn-out red blood cells and modified 15 so that it can carry oxygen outside the red blood cell. However. Scientists hope that in the near future safe synthetic blood transfusions may ease blood shortages and resolve the unavailability of various blood types. “red blood” can transmit viruses to a recipient. mimic the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Stripped of the protection of the cell.” the first of the blood substitute technologies. and durability outside the cellular environment. Dissolving PFCs in solution can 32 mitigate globulation. undesired side effects continue to plague patients and hinder the development of hemoglobin-based blood sub35 stitutes. hemoglobin can sometimes constitute a two-fold threat to 20 humans when it is extracted from the red blood cell and introduced to the body in its naked form. 25 causing blood flow at these organs to shut down and leading. and the modification of the gene to express a molecule that works without support from a living cell. naked hemoglobin is extremely dangerous to the kidneys. II and III only GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. The author mentions all of the following as weaknesses of synthetic bloods EXCEPT: A. According to the passage. the bacteria will produce the desired product in copious quantities. The final and perhaps most ambitious attempt to form a blood substitute involves the synthesis of a modified version of human hemoglobin by genetically-altered bacteria. Second. 92. Three major substi10 tute technologies have been developed to date. This procedure is extremely challenging. break down in the blood within several hours. and versatility within the human body. Hemoglobin. this synthetic hemoglobin seems to closely mimic the qualities of sterility. “white blood. each has certain advantages and shortcomings. because it requires the isolation of the human gene for the production of hemoglobin. B. First. 55 60 65 70 91. researchers have found that if modified hemoglobin genes are added to bacterial DNA. D. PFCs do not interact with any chemicals in the body and can be manufactured in near-perfect sterility. PFCs are helpful in the synthesis of blood substitutes because they: I.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 32 Passage III (Questions 91–97) Due to ever-increasing paranoia about the transmission of hepatitis and AIDS via blood transfusions and the frequent difficulty of procuring matching blood donors for patients. Although PFCs imitate real blood by effectively absorbing oxygen. yet they are capable of absorbing quantities of 40 oxygen up to 50% of their volume. high capacity for carrying oxygen to body tissues. work to perfect an ideal blood substitute continues. is the blood’s natural oxygen carrier and is attractive to scientists for use in synthetic blood because of its oxygen-carrying capacity. While all the above technologies have serious drawbacks and difficulties. scientists are primarily interested in them as con45 stituents of blood substitutes because they are inherently safer to use than hemoglobin-based substitutes. and the oxygen-carrying efficiency of blood. II. . the hemoglobin 30 molecule tends to suffer breakdown within several hours. C. do not react with other body chemicals. hemoglobin molecules are rarely sterile and often remain contaminated by viruses to which they were exposed in the cell. Unlike blood. III. to renal failure. Furthermore. The difficulty most synthetic blood researches have had is in formulating a substance that combines qualities of sterility. PFCs are clear oillike liquids. naked hemoglobin can cause renal failure in humans. I and II only D. Additional problems arise from the fact that hemoglobin is adapted to operate optimally within the intricate environment of the red blood cell. The primary pitfall of PFCs is in their tendency to form globules in plasma 50 that can block circulation. enough of an oxygencarrying potential for oxygen-dependent organisms to survive submerged in the liquid for hours by “breathing” it. genetic engineering can be extremely difficult. I only B. however this procedure also seriously curtails the PFCs’ oxygen capacity. “Red blood. however. “white blood” has a low oxygen-carrying potential. dead. Another synthetic blood alternative. II only C.

Hemoglobin does not carry oxygen effectively. According to the passage. “Red blood” cannot be produced in large enough quantities. D. synthetic bloods have greater oxygen-carrying capacities than naturally-produced human blood. D. possess high oxygen-carrying capacities. 96. dangerous diseases can be transmitted by conventional blood transfusions. D. 94. 33 . C. B. It can be inferred from the passage that the difficulty of producing an ideal blood substitute is compounded by all of the following EXCEPT: A. According to the passage. there is no known way to isolate the DNA responsible for hemoglobin. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a problem specific to “red blood”? A. maintain high standards of sterility. C. B. donor blood is sometimes in short supply. C. naked hemoglobin tends to break down in the bloodstream. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. We can infer that all of the synthetic blood technologies discussed in this passage: A. certain blood types are not readily available. 97. D. D. exhibit versatility in the human body. B.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 33 93. non-globulating PFCs have significantly abbreviated oxygen-carrying capacities. the use of PFCs may lead to blood clotting. B. B. 50 cc 100 cc 150 cc 300 cc C. how much oxygen can be absorbed by a 300 cc sample of PFC? A. “Red blood” exhibits poor durability in the bloodstream. sustain submerged oxygen-dependent organisms. 95. “Red blood” tends to form globules that block circulation. all of the following are reasons for research into the development of synthetic bloods EXCEPT: A. C.

This odd combination of criticism and widespread acceptance is not surprising.m. But it is the precisely timed programming that separates Muzak from other “easy listening” formats. Research into the rela15 tionship between music and productivity can be traced to the earliest days of the Muzak Corporation.m. and 3 p. Physiological changes such as 35 lowered heart rate and decreased blood pressure have been documented in hospital studies testing the effect of calming music on cardiac patients. for example. Researchers speculate that listening to Muzak and other soft music improves morale and reduces stress by modifying our physiology. In a study of people performing repetitive clerical tasks. many simply ignore it. while 45 Muzak was conceived as a tool for productivity.m. Still others see it as an Orwellian nightmare. offices. In an experiment in which supermarket shoppers shopped to the mellow sounds of Muzak. the corporation broadcasts its “Environmental Music” to countless businesses and institutions throughout the world. allowing its forgettable sounds to soften the contours of the day. 1:15 p.m. 4:30 p. According to the passage. the Apollo lunar spacecraft. the BBC began to broadcast music in English munitions factories during World War II in an effort to combat fatigue. 75 80 98. while more soothing segments play just after lunchtime and towards the end of the day. B. War 25 Production Board contracted the Muzak Corporation to provide uplifting music to American factories. When workers assembling weapons increased their output by 6 percent. each 15 minute segment ends in silence. it seems to positively influence both productivity and job satisfaction.” Muzak programs are divided into quarter-hour groupings of songs.m. In the workplace. Muzak is a useful tool in the effort to maximize both productivity and profits.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 34 Passage IV (Questions 98–103) Muzak. some people object to its presence. It is just this sort of satisfaction which 40 is thought to result in increased performance in the workplace. 50 55 60 65 70 What makes Muzak unique is a formula by which familiar tunes are modified and programmed. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Approximately six compositions with ascending stimulus values play during any given quarter hour. sales were increased by as much as 12 percent.m. But Muzak’s effectiveness seems to lie in the fact that most people never really listen to it. and factories. and are specifically planned for the time of day at which they will be heard. Muzak is credited with increasing both productivity and profitability. (the times when workers typically tire). represents the paradoxical success story of a product designed to be ignored. 10 however.S. While it may be true that no one actually likes this carefully crafted aural atmosphere. Impressed by these findings. D. the intentionally unobtrusive music that most people associate with elevators and dentists’ waiting rooms. However. is slower and less invigorating than one with a value of 5. Although few people admit to 5 enjoying its blandly melodic sounds. C. 3:00 p. when workers are likely to be restless. those who listened to Muzak did better still. Careful instrumentation adds to an overall sound that is neither monotonous nor rousing. labeling it as a type of unregulated air pollution. its purpose is to modify physiological and psychological aspects of an environment. From the point of view of management. Today. Muzak blossomed in the 1930’s following a study which reported that people work harder 20 when they listen to certain kinds of music. a 15-minute segment of Muzak with an average stimulus value of 5 would most likely be broadcast at: A. Each composition is assigned a mood rating between 1 and 6 called a stimulus value. And while most people claim to dislike Muzak’s discreet 30 cadences. when one considers that Muzak is not created for the enjoyment of its listeners: rather. a song with a rating of 2. Moreover. as well as physical. 34 . Segments that are considered more stimulating air at 11 a. Developed by a military officer in 1922 as a way of transmitting music through electrical wires. Muzak reaches over 100 million listeners in 14 countries and has played in the White House. At the core of the programming is the concept of the “Stimulus Progression. then. certain kinds of music seem to effect one’s sense of emotional. and countless supermarkets. 8:15 a. well being. Each segment of a 24-hour program is carefully planned. the U. In addition. those who listened to music performed more accurately and quickly than those who worked in silence. it also seems to influence a business’ profitability. a manipulation of the subconscious.

is not significantly different from other “easy listening” programs. a pleasurable diversion. Muzak differs from other “easy listening” formats in that Muzak: I. B. It can be inferred from the passage that some critics of Muzak believe that Muzak: A. how Muzak increases productivity in the workplace. is actually distracting to many workers. 102. a violation of privacy. II only C. decreased job absenteeism. decreased blood pressure. According to the passage. subtly manipulates the subconscious mind. the author is most interested in discussing: A. II. C. produces measurable health benefits. 103. D. improves workers’ job performances. C. B. increased business profitability. III. C. B.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 35 99. Of the following. III only D. I only B. increased work productivity. 35 . Muzak may provide all of the following benefits EXCEPT: A. a paradoxical phenomenon. an unnecessary evil. the origins of the Muzak Corporation. D. A. how Muzak modifies physical states and psychological atmospheres. the ways in which Muzak differs from other “easy listening” formats. C. According to the passage. B. 101. II and III only 100. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. It can be inferred from the statements in the passage that the author regards Muzak as: A. D. D. is programmed in order to effect behavioral changes. caters to the whims of supermarket consumers.

In the Soviet Union. Humans are powerless against the forces of nature. Although most generations remain in a limited geographic area because they have no wings. It is no longer economical to grow crops with low profit margins. B. For the time being. Phytophaga destructor. Africa. in central Texas. From there. They are resistant to pesticides. was inadvertently brought to the colonies on ships by German 20 mercenary troops during the Revolutionary War. But in the spring of 1986. destroying wheat fields all 15 along its path. Agricultural researchers are not quite sure. sting the aphid into paralysis. 36 105. known as parthenogenesis. a pest exterminator with an interest in agriculture. And since the Russian aphid has only recently entered the United States. coupled with the breeding of new strains of insect-resistant wheat. III only C. Spread by both wind and human transport. and then 45 inject an egg into its body. One species of wasp seems to be particularly efficient at destroying the aphid. killing it in the process. They are capable of spreading rapidly. often results 25 in as many as twenty generations of insects in a single year. it simply is not economical to do so. D. it has no natural enemies among North American insects or animals. 10 may substantially curb the destructiveness of the Russian aphid in the future. Until a few years ago. A combination of several factors have made it particularly difficult to deal with the threat posed by this aphid. the United States had been free of this pest. because wheat is a crop with a very 30 low profit margin. it quickly spread to other Western states. a botanist with an interest in wheat production. Diuraphis noxia. a swarm of Russian aphids crossed the Mexican border and settled a few hundred miles north. Russian aphids reproduce asexually at a phenomenal rate. The pregnant females of the species search the Russian aphid’s home. most American farmers do not spray it with pesticides. Regional ecosystems are often severely damaged when new organisms are introduced.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 36 Passage V (Questions 104–110) 50 The Russian wheat aphid. C. A. This process. American farmers are left to their own devices when it comes to protecting their wheat crops. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Which of the following statements would be most in agreement with the statements in the passage? A. a few generations are born with wings. an entomologist with an interest in asexual reproduction. It is more difficult to stop the spread of an insect that reproduces asexually than one that reproduces sexually. As a result. Second. According to the passage. and Latin America. allowing the insect to spread to new areas. an agriculturist with an interest in pest control. the Russian aphid has destroyed wheat fields throughout Asia. but they believe the Russian aphid adapted itself to wheat 5 about ten thousand years ago. III. Most are capable of flight. What is not in doubt is the insect’s destructiveness. which of the following statements is/are true of Russian wheat aphids? I. when the crop was first domesticated by man. there have been 35 no man-made or natural obstacles to the spread of the Russian aphid in the United States. First. the interior of a wheat stalk. I and II only D. B. When the egg hatches the wasp larva feeds off of the aphid. Agricultural researchers seeking to control the Russian aphid have looked to its place of origin for answers. It can reasonably be inferred that the author of the passage is: A. . The introduction of predators like the wasp. is a small green insect discovered in southern Russia around the turn of the century. C. the Russian aphid has been kept in check by 40 predators which have evolved alongside it over many thousands of years. II and III only 106. 104. D. the level of destruction has been so great over the past five years that entomologists are calling the Russian aphid the greatest threat to American agriculture since the Hessian fly. however. In fact. II. II only B.

According to the passage. spray wheat fields with large quantities of pesticides. continue to lose a portion of their wheat crops for the foreseeable future. The author suggests the best way to control the Russian aphid population in the United States is to: A. D. A. III. The author most likely believes American farmers will: C. devote less acreage to the production of wheat. I and II only D. I and III only 110. B. develop new types of aphid-resistant wheat. the Russian wheat aphid and the Hessian fly are comparable with respect to: I. stop producing wheat until the Russian aphid is brought under control. B. C. develop their own effective methods for dealing with the Russian aphid. 37 .01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 37 107. the ways in which they entered the United States. D. the means by which they reproduce. D. What measures were taken to combat the Hessian fly during the 18th century? Why does the Russian wheat aphid cause less damage in the Soviet Union than in other countries? Is it logical for American farmers to use pesticides in order to attempt to protect their wheat crops from the Russian aphid? What sorts of solutions have agricultural researchers investigated in their efforts to curb the destructiveness of the Russian wheat aphid? 109. II only C. II. 108. C. I only B. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. A. disrupt its reproductive process by sterilizing females. transplant its natural enemies from the Soviet Union. The passage supplies information for answering all of the following questions EXCEPT: A. the amount of destruction they have caused. B.

food supplies (such as the vanishing buffalo). The first Ghost Dance cult arose in western Nevada around 1870. usually in 10 times of great crisis or social upheaval. evolved as the result of a similar revelation. South Dakota in December of 1890. and was assigned the task of teaching the dance and the millennial message. a series of millenialist movements began among western tribes. 112. it was founded on the basis of a spiritual revelation. women and children at Wounded Knee.” GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. A second Ghost Dance cult. strongly resembled Christian teaching. D. In 1890. whose father had been a disciple of Wodziwob—received a vision dur45 ing a solar eclipse in which he died. named after the ceremonial dance which cult members performed in hope of salvation. C. many Native Americans felt particularly threatened by white civilization. restore all dead Indians to life. and Wounded Knee marked the end of the second Ghost Dance cult. flourished in the late 19th century among Indians of the western United States. B. Violent resistance to white domination had all but ended among the Sioux by the late 1880s.S. when the Ghost Dance spread to the Sioux Indians. Indian resistance led to a series of wars and massacres. organized resistance to cultural change. the Ghost Dance movement spread rapidly this time. 38 . received the revelation of an imminent apocalypse which would destroy the white man. The apocalypse 35 was to be brought about with the help of a ceremonial dance and songs. 55 60 65 70 111. A Native American prophet named Wodzi30 wob. the U. Millenialist movements. government no longer attempted to suppress Native American religious practices. spoke to God. The ghost shirts had been worn to no avail. B. western expansion and settlement by whites was seriously threatening Native 20 American cultures. Wovoka was a more charismatic religious leader than Wodziwob had been. mixture of anti-white sentiment and Christian morality. belief in the ability of “ghost shirts” to protect them in combat. C. Wodziwob’s Ghost Dance cult spread to several tribes in California and Oregon.” One such movement involving the Ghost Dance 15 cults. The passage implies that the second Ghost Dance cult gained widespread popularity quickly because: A. Mining. and made them particularly responsive to the millenialist message of the Ghost Dance.” which supposedly rendered the wearers invulnerable to the white man’s bullets. a member of a Northern Paiute tribe. founded in January 1889. the religious belief that salvation and material benefits will be conferred upon a society in the near future as the result of some apocalyptic event. but soon 40 died out or was absorbed into other cults.S. In “nativistic” millenialist movements. 5 in early Christian theology.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 38 Passage VI (Questions 111–117) Millenialism is. believers held that Christ would return and establish his kingdom on earth for a period of a thousand years. The term derives from the Latin word for 1. both the ghost shirts and the movement itself were put to the test. when government-ordered reductions in the size of their reservations infuriated the Sioux. D. and by strict adherence to a moral code which. and return to the Indians their lands. and old way of life. an alarmed federal government resorted to armed intervention which ultimately led to the massacre of some 200 Sioux men. a people threatened with cultural disintegration attempts to earn its salvation by rejecting foreign customs and values and returning to the “old ways. Christian and non-Christian. culminating in the U.000. it also involved the wearing of “ghost shirts. This time Wovoka—another Northern Paiute Indian. The passage implies that a paradoxical element of the Ghost Dance cults was their: A. Under these dire circumstances. combination of millenialist message and desire to revive the “old ways. Wovoka’s Ghost Dance doctrine forbade Indian violence against whites or other Indians. With white civilization having pushed western tribes ever closer to the brink of cultural 50 disintegration during the previous twenty years. generally speaking. have arisen at various points throughout history. In the early 1870s. and from the Missouri River to the Sierra Nevadas—an area approximately one-third the size of the continental United States. As the Sioux organized themselves in the cult of the dance. catching on among tribes from the Canadian border to Texas. By the middle of the 19th century. agriculture and ranching encroached on and destroyed many Indian land and food sources. Government’s policy of resettlement of Indians onto reservations which constituted 25 a fraction of their former territorial base. oddly enough.

Which of the following was NOT part of the spiritual revelation described in the fourth paragraph of the passage? A.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 39 113. Unity among all Indian tribes Restoration of traditional Indian ways Resurrection of the dead Return of the buffalo GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. D. adherence to Christian doctrines. What was the magical property attributed to the “ghost shirts”? Was there any connection between the prophets of the two Ghost Dance cults? What distinguishes “nativistic” millenialist movements from other millenialist movements? What caused the first Ghost Dance cult to die out? 115. depletion of Indian food sources. D. 116. C. B. 39 . B. Western migration by whites. C. forced resettlement of Indians. D. C. B. According to the passage. The Potawatomi of Illinois The Eastern Shoshoni of Wyoming The Pawnee of Nebraska The Southern Arapaho of Oklahoma 114. 117. B. D. Which of the following tribes would probably NOT have taken part in the Ghost Dance cults? A. D. The author answers all of the following questions EXCEPT: A. C. All of the following characteristics are described in the passage as common to all millenialist movements EXCEPT: A. the desire for salvation. the belief in imminent apocalypse. B. justifications based on spiritual revelations. white encroachment on Native American tribes involved all of the following EXCEPT: A. C. attempts to preserve cultural integrity.

why odors elicit different reactions from person to person. knowingly or not. But smell relates to more than physiological function: its sensations are intimately tied to memory. that typhoid smells like baking bread. The author’s central concern in this passage is to: A. emotion. When 15 we inhale a particular odor. but it also the most elusive. our brains always register their existence. detail the biological mechanisms by which smells trigger long-forgotten memories. which are odors that induce psychological or behavioral changes and often provide a means of communicating within a species. Before the advent of sophisticated laboratory techniques. these nerves fire a message to the brain. defend the view that human emotion is rooted in anatomical processes. why smells can evoke distant memories. A century ago. the location of the olfactory and emotional centers of the brain helps explain all of the following EXCEPT: A. in everyday life we continue to rely on our sense of small. it is clear that emotion. Through odors emitted by urine and scent glands. air containing volatile odiferous molecules is warmed and humidified as it flows over specialized bones in the nose called turbinates. These chemical messages. It plays a vital yet mysterious role in our lives. are usually considered repellent. Honeybees. memory. and sexual desire. sometimes triggering strong emotional states or resurrecting seemingly forgotten memories. but most odors evoke different reactions from person to person. Although our olfactory acuity can’t rival that of other animal species. Although the precise connection between emotion and olfaction remains a mystery. B. like hydrogen sulfide (which emits 25 a stench reminiscent of rotten eggs). Certain scents. Scientists surmise that the reason why we have highly personal asso30 ciations with smells is related to the proximity of the olfactory and emotional centers of our brain. why a substantial part of the brain is devoted to smell. reaction to stress. Even though we are not always conscious of the presence of odors. 119. The importance of this sense is further supported by the fact that 45 animals experimentally denied the olfactory sense do not develop full and normal brain function. human beings are also guided by smell. Moreover. 35 55 60 influenced by pheromones. In fact. As odor molecules land on the olfactory nerves. and are often unable to either articulate or remember their unique characteristics. to guide us. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. and that yellow fever smells like meat. where. and appetite. while others. D. Smell reaches the brain more directly than do sensations of touch. which functions are rooted in the limbic lobe. are almost universally appealing. Mammals are also guided by their sense of smell. intertwined with emo10 tion and experience. unlike most other nerve cells. it was common medical knowledge that certain bacterial infections carry the musty odor of wine. D. such a large amount of human brain tissue is devoted to smell that scientists sur40 mise the role of this sense must be profound. signal alarm. 40 The significance of olfaction is much clearer in animals than in human beings. Olfaction is rooted in the same part of the brain that regulates such essential func5 tions as body metabolism. Animal behavior is strongly . or sound. explain why the sense of smell is more important than other senses. and attract mates. sight. discuss both the physiological and emotional aspects of olfaction. many animals maintain their territories. allowing us to rapidly perceive odors ranging from alluring fragrances to noisome fumes. Smell seems to lie somewhere beyond the realm of conscious thought. often a complex blend of compounds. and smell are all rooted in a part of the brain called the limbic lobe. According to the passage. C. Thus olfactory neurons render a 20 direct path between the stimulus provided by the outside environment and the brain. organize their societies through odor: the queen bee exudes an odor that both inhibits worker bees from laying eggs and draws drones to her when she is ready to mate. neurobiological research suggests that smell must have an important function because olfactory neurons can regenerate themselves. While medical science has moved away from such subjective diagnostic methods. such as jasmine. physicians depended on their noses to help diagnose illness. C. B. identify one another. for example. are of vital importance to the insect world. it shapes both our conscious and unconscious lives. The peculiar intimacy of this sense may be related to certain anatomical features. 65 70 118.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 40 Passage VII (Questions 118–124) 50 Our sense of smell is arguably the most powerful of our five senses.

01 MCAT FL Test1


05:30 PM

Page 41

120. The passage implies that physicians no longer make diagnoses based on odors because: A. B. C. D. the human sense of smell has considerably diminished over time. the association of odors with disease proved largely fictitious. such subjective diagnostic methods were shown to be useless. the medical profession today favors more objective techniques.

123. It can be inferred from the passage that the emotional element of human olfaction would be better understood through investigation into: A. B. C. D. the components and functions of the limbic lobe. how pheromones regulate social behavior and organization. the composition of certain highly evocative odors. the pathway between outside environment and olfactory nerves.

121. The sense of smell in animals is different from olfaction in humans in that animals: A. B. C. D. are unable to make associations between smells and past experience. only use smell to communicate outside their own species. rely on olfaction only for mating purposes. more clearly exhibit behavioral changes in response to odors.

124. Which of the following evidence does NOT support the author’s statement that smell has an important physiological function? A. B. C. D. Olfaction and metabolic function are located in the same area of the brain. Animals with impaired olfaction frequently exhibit abnormal brain function. A considerable amount of human brain tissue is devoted to olfaction. Human beings with impaired olfaction are usually able to behave and function normally.

122. The author describes the sense of smell as elusive because: A. B. C. D. odiferous molecules are extremely volatile. the functions of smell are emotional rather than physiological. the function and effects of smell are not fully understood. olfactory sensations are more fleeting than those of other senses.


01 MCAT FL Test1


05:30 PM

Page 42

Passage VIII (Questions 125–131)

Bebop lives! cries the newest generation of jazz players. During the 1980s, musicians like Wynton Marsalis revived public interest in bebop, the speedy, angular music that first bubbled up out of Harlem in the early 1940s, 5 changing the face of jazz. That Marsalis and others thought of themselves as celebrating and preserving a noble tradition is, in one sense, inevitable. After the excesses of experimental or “free” jazz in the 1960s and the electronic jazz-rock “fusion” of the 70s, it is hardly surprising that 10 people should hearken back to a time when jazz was “purer,” perhaps even at the apex of its development. But the recent enthusiasm for bebop is also ironic in light of the music’s initial public reception. In its infancy, during the first two decades of the 20th century, jazz was played by small groups of musicians improvising variations on blues tunes and popular songs. Most of the musicians were unable to read music, and their improvisations were fairly rudimentary. Nevertheless, jazz attained international recognition in the 1920s. Two of the 20 people most responsible for its rise in popularity were Louis Armstrong, the first great jazz soloist, and Fletcher Henderson, leader of the first great jazz band. Armstrong, with his buoyant personality and virtuosic technical skills, greatly expanded the creative range and importance of the 25 soloist in jazz. Henderson, a pianist with extensive training in music theory, foresaw the orchestral possibilities of jazz played by a larger band. He wrote out arrangements of songs for his band members that preserved the spirit of jazz, while at the same time giving soloists a more struc30 tured musical background upon which to shape their solo improvisations. In the 1930s, jazz moved further into the mainstream with the advent of the Swing Era. Big bands in the Henderson mold, led by musicians like Benny Goodman, Count Basie and Duke Ellington, achieved unprece35 dented popularity with jazz-oriented “swing” music that was eminently danceable.




Played mainly by small combos rather than big bands, bebop was not danceable; it demanded intellectual concentration. Soon, jazz began to lose its hold on the popular audience, which found the new music disconcerting. Compounding public alienation was the fact that bebop seemed to have arrived on the scene in a completely mature state of development, without that early phase of experimentation that typifies so many movements in the course of Western music. This was as much the result of an accident of history as anything else. The early development of bebop occurred during a three-year ban on recording in this country made necessary by the petrol and vinyl shortages of World War II. By the time the ban was lifted, and the first bebop records were made, the new music seemed to have sprung fully-formed like Athena from the forehead of Zeus. And though a small core of enthusiasts would continue to worship bebop pioneers like Charlie Parker and Dizzy Gillespie, many bebop musicians were never able to gain acceptance with any audience and went on to lead lives of obscurity and deprivation.

125. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the bebop music of the 1940s? A. B. C. D. It followed the tradition of jazz from the 1920s. It differed markedly from the music of the Swing Era. It celebrated the songs of Tin-Pan Alley. It did not require great improvisational skill.

Against this musical backdrop, bebop arrived on the scene. Like other modernist movements in art and literature, bebop music represented a departure from tradition in 40 both form and content, and was met with initial hostility. Bebop tempos were unusually fast, with the soloist often playing at double time to the backing musicians. The rhythms were tricky and complex, the melodies intricate and frequently dissonant, involving chord changes and 45 notes not previously heard in jazz. Before bebop, jazz players had improvised on popular songs such as those produced by Tin-Pan Alley, but bebop tunes were often originals with which jazz audiences were unfamiliar.

126. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the jazz of the 1920s? A. B. C. D. It resembled the jazz played during the first two decades of the century. It placed greater demands on the improvisatory skills of its soloists. Its fast tempos foreshadowed those of bebop in the 1940s. It was primarily dance music.


01 MCAT FL Test1


05:30 PM

Page 43

127. Based on the information in the passage comparing bebop to other movements in the history of Western music, it is reasonable to conclude that: I. most movements in music history passed through a stage of experimentation before reaching mature expression. II. World War II prevented bebop from reaching a more appreciative audience. III. bebop did not go through a developmental stage before reaching mature expression A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

130. The author suggests that bebop seemed to represent a radical departure from earlier jazz in that it: A. B. C. D. grew to maturity before reaching a wide audience. attracted primarily a youthful audience. dispensed with written arrangements of songs. expressed the alienation of the musicians who played it.

131. The author mentions Wynton Marsalis and Charlie Parker as: A. B. C. D. pioneers of jazz-rock “fusion.” architects of the bebop movement. Swing Era musicians hostile to bebop. bebop musicians of different eras.

128. It can be inferred from the passage that the innovations of Fletcher Henderson (lines 27-34) were inspired primarily by: A. B. C. D. his admiration for Louis Armstrong. a hunger for international recognition. the realization that the public favored large bands over small combos. a desire to go beyond the structural limitations of early jazz music.

129. According to the passage, all of the following are characteristic of bebop music EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. eminently danceable tunes. dissonant melodies. complex rhythms. intellectual complexity.


Van Niel’s assertions were strongly backed by scientists who used water marked with a radioactive isotope of oxygen in order to follow photosynthetic reactions. Because water is both a reactant and a product in the central reaction. carbon dioxide. D. B. in 1845. B. When the photosynthetically-produced free oxygen was analyzed. hydrogen is removed from water and then combines with carbon dioxide to form the carbohydrates needed by the organism. showed that the carbon dioxide molecule is split during photosynthesis. and that carbon then combined with water to form carbohydrates. studies comparing photosynthesis in green plants and in certain sulfur bacteria yielded important information about the photosynthetic process. 44 5 10 15 20 25 132. Several years later it was discovered that a plant must be exposed to light in order to replenish this flame-sustaining “substance. scientists’ increased understanding of concepts of chemical energy led them to perceive that. In the twentieth century. Van Niel’s experiments: A.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 44 Passage IX (Questions 132–137) Studies of photosynthesis began in the late eighteenth century. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Using this information. Van Niel’s finding was important because the earlier belief had been that oxygen was split off from carbon dioxide. C. and produce sulfur instead of oxygen. B. de Saussure was able to postulate that in photosynthesis carbon dioxide and water combine using energy in the form of light to produce carbohydrates. D. He reasoned that the oxygen produced by green plants must derive from water—rather than carbon dioxide. Van Niel. Much later. Van Niel saw that the use of carbon dioxide to form carbohydrates was similar in the two types of organisms. They relied on abstract reasoning in the absence of physical data. B. provided evidence that weakened the accepted model of photosynthesis. Van Niel studied sulfur bacteria. They tended to undervalue previous scientific findings. this popular view was decisively altered by the studies of C. C. and free oxygen. however. through photosynthesis. light energy is transformed and stored as chemical energy. In 1804. De Saussure determined that the weight gained by a plant grown in a pot equals the sum of the weights of carbon derived from absorbed carbon dioxide and water absorbed through plant roots. water. with green plants. Which of the following can be inferred about the scientists discussed in the passage? A. 45 50 . According to the passage. The new postulate was that. They never came to understand the role of light in photosynthesis. which use hydrogen sulfide for photosynthesis in the same way that green plants use water. the isotope was found to be present. One scientist found that green plants produce a substance (later shown to be oxygen) that supports the flame of a candle in a closed container.” Soon another discovery showed that the oxygen is formed at the expense of another gas. Later. 30 35 40 133. de Saussure conducted experiments revealing that equal volumes of carbon dioxide and oxygen are exchanged between a plant and the air surrounding it. provided the first model of photosynthesis. In the 1930s. C. it had long been assumed that the oxygen released by photosynthesis comes from splitting the carbon dioxide molecule. Each contributed to our understanding of the production of oxygen by plants. as previously assumed—in the same way that the sulfur produced by the bacteria derives from hydrogen sulfide. proved that some organisms combine hydrogen sulfide with carbon dioxide in photosynthesis.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED. D. B. STOP. the study of organisms that require hydrogen sulfide for photosynthesis: A. D. disproved assumptions about the role of light energy in photosynthesis. C. scientists were: A. It can be inferred from the passage that. biased in favor of an older. proved that oxygen is not produced in photosynthesis. It results in the conversion of light energy to chemical energy. brought to reluctant agreement after repeated tests. The passage supplies information for answering all of the following questions EXCEPT: A. clarified the role of water in photosynthesis among green plants. It produces oxygen. 136. D. in evaluating Van Niel’s hypothesis about the role of water in photosynthesis. It involves an exchange of equal quantities of gases. According to the passage. CHECK YOUR WORK. C. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY. C. C. contradicted the notion that oxygen is needed to support a candle’s flame. It requires light. B. thoroughly convinced after conducting an independent experiment. more established explanation. 137. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis would most probably NOT have been made by de Saussure? A. D. willing to overlook minor inconsistencies in Van Niel’s account. B. Why is oxygen necessary for a candle to burn? What was de Saussure’s explanation of the function of water in photosynthesis? What is the function of light in photosynthesis? Is water required for all photosynthetic reactions? 45 . 135.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 45 134. B.

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 46 .

. Separately Timed: 30 Minutes Each DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 47 Writing Sample Time: 60 Minutes 2 Items.

read the assignment carefully and make sure you understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Your responses to the prompts given in the Writing Sample will be written in the ANSWER DOCUMENT. do not skip lines. In addition. You may make corrections or additions neatly between the lines of your responses.” You may work only on Part 1 during the first 30 minutes of the test and only on Part 2 during the second 30 minutes. Before you begin writing a response. essays that are not written in English will not be scored. but to be sure that you have enough space for each essay. but do not write in the margins of the answer booklet. You may use the space below each writing assignment to make notes in planning your responses. You will have 30 minutes to complete each part.” and your response to Part 2 must be written only on the answer sheets marked “2. 48 . There are six pages in your answer booklet to write your responses. Because this is a test of your writing skills. Essays that are illegible cannot be scored. you may review your work only on Part 2. If you finish writing on Part 1 before the time is up. your response to each part should be an essay composed of complete sentences and paragraphs. You are not required to use all of the pages. Use your time efficiently. you may review your work on that part. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. as well organized and clearly written as you can make it in the allotted time. Your response to Part 1 must be written only on the answer sheets marked “1. If you finish writing on Part 2 before the time is up. The section contains two parts.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 48 WRITING SAMPLE DIRECTIONS: This section is a test of your writing skills. but do not begin writing on Part 2. three pages for each part of the test.

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 49 Part 1 Consider the following statement: It is each citizen's duty to obey the laws of the nation. Discuss what you think determines when citizens have a duty to obey the laws of the nation and when they do not. Explain what you think the above statement means. 49 . GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Describe a specific situation in which a citizen might not have a duty to obey a law.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. 50 . Describe a specific situation in which someone might be heroic because of something other than circumstance. Explain what you think the above statement means. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Discuss what you think determines when heroism is dependent on circumstance and when it is not.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 50 Part 2 Consider the following statement: Heroes are ordinary people made heroic by circumstance.

.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 51 Biological Sciences Time: 100 Minutes Questions 138–214 DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

A periodic table is provided below for your use with the questions.0 3 Li 6.0 31 Ga 69.0 95 Am (243) 64 G d 157.2 72 Hf 178.0 21 Sc 45.7 46 Pd 106.0 25 Mn 54.9 53 I 126.4 48 Cd 112.1 37 Rb 85.0 52 Te 127.9 40 Zr 91.9 74 W 183.9 79 Au 197.2 7 N 14.0 10 Ne 20.4 80 Hg 200.0 16 S 32.5 98 Cf (251) 67 Ho 164.9 99 Es (252) 68 Er 167.3 100 Fm (257) 69 Tm 168.4 6 C 12.5 47 Ag 107.0 102 No (259) 71 Lu 175.9 51 Sb 121.9 89 Ac † 227.6 5 B 10.9 85 At (210) 2 He 4.1 32 Ge 72.0 22 Ti 47. Study the passage.7 82 Pb 207.5 55 Cs 132.9 87 Fr (223) 4 Be 9.3 20 Ca 40.1 38 Sr 87. Indicate your selection by blackening the corresponding circle on your answer sheet.8 81 Tl 204.5 104 Rf (261) 58 Ce 140.3 88 Ra 226.4 78 Pt 195.8 83 Bi 209.2 18 Ar 39. If you are unsure of the best answer.0 8 O 16.9 106 Unh (263) 60 Nd 144.3 86 Rn (222) * † GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.1 34 Se 79.0 33 As 74.0 17 Cl 35.4 94 Pu (244) 27 Co 58.9 41 Nb 92.9 73 Ta 180.8 44 Ru 101.7 49 In 114.5 35 Br 79.1 29 Cu 63.0 39 Y 88. Some of the questions are not based on a descriptive passage.0 15 P 31.1 90 Th 232. eliminate the choices that you know are incorrect.2 92 U 238.2 108 Uno (265) 62 Sm 150.0 23 V 50.0 14 Si 28.0 12 Mg 24.9 57 La * 138.0 30 Zn 65.3 96 Cm (247) 65 T b 158. then select the single best answer to each question in the group.0 103 Lr (260) 28 Ni 58.9 101 Md (258) 70 Y b 173.6 84 Po (209) 9 F 19.2 107 Uns (262) 61 Pm (145) 93 Np (237) 26 Fe 55. you must also select the best answer to these questions.6 56 Ba 137.0 19 K 39.9 45 Rh 102.9 77 Ir 192.0 42 Mo 95.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 52 BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following test are organized into groups. then select an answer from the choices that remain.9 105 Ha (262) 59 Pr 140. with a descriptive passage preceding each group of questions.9 43 Tc (98) 75 Re 186. PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS 1 H 1.9 97 Bk (247) 66 Dy 162.9 36 K r 83.8 54 Xe 131.9 91 Pa (231) 24 Cr 52.1 76 Os 190.8 13 Al 27. 52 .9 11 Na 23.6 50 Sn 118.2 109 Une (267) 63 Eu 152.

138. B. stage of development. which is contained within red blood cells.carrying proteins in vertebrates. As can be seen in Figure 1. The affinity of Hb for O2 varies between species and within species depending on such factors as blood pH. B. small mammals give up O2 more readily than large mammals because small mammals have a higher metabolic rate and require more O2 per gram of tissue. For example. The llama is a warm-blooded mammal that lives in regions of unusually high altitudes. the unloading of O2 at one heme facilitates the unloading of O2 at the others by a similar mechanism. C. and body size. B. Mb is a single polypeptide chain containing a heme group. Figure 1 depicts the O2-dissociation curves of Hb (Curves A. 53 . B. D. and has evolved a type of Hb that adapts it to such an existence. where saturation. Fetal Hb has a lower affinity for O2 than adult Hb. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for horse Hb. Y. Vertebrate Hb consists of four polypeptides (subunits) each with a heme group. Figure 1 Myoglobin facilitates O2 transport in muscle and serves as a reserve store of O2. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for human adult Hb. C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 53 Passage I (Questions 138–144) Hemoglobin (Hb) and myoglobin (Mb) are the O2. Curve A Curve B Curve C Curve D 140. serves as the O2 carrier in blood and also plays a vital role in the transport of CO2 and H+. The fraction of O2 that is transferred from Hb as the blood passes through the tissue capillaries is called the utilization coefficient. C. Curve A Curve B Curve C Curve D 139.25. is the fractional occupancy of the O2-binding sites. The four chains are held together by noncovalent attractions. Fetal tissue has a lower metabolic rate than adult tissue. If Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for elephant Hb. Conversely. Hb. which of the following best explains why Curve A most closely resembles the curve for fetal Hb? A. which curve most closely resembles the curve for mouse Hb? A. and C) and myoglobin (Curve D). A normal value is approximately 0. D. with a molecular weight of 18 kd. Mb (Curve D) has a greater affinity for O2 than Hb. D. which curve would most closely resemble the curve for llama Hb? A. Fetal Hb has a higher affinity for O2 than adult Hb. That is. Fetal tissue has a higher metabolic rate than adult tissue. binding at one heme facilitates the binding of O2 at the other hemes within the Hb molecule by altering the conformation of the entire molecule. The binding of O2 to Hb is also dependent on the cooperativity of the Hb subunits. This conformational change makes subsequent binding of O2 more energetically favorable. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Which of the following values most likely represents the utilization coefficient for human adult Hb during strenuous exercise? A.0 0.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 54 141. 54 . B. Which of the four curves most closely resembles the O2-dissociation curve for the isolated α chains? [Note: Assume that Curve B represents the O2-dissociation curve for human adult Hb in vivo. D.004 moles/kg of muscle. B. D. the effects of oxidation and reduction on the heme groups within the Hb molecule. C. B. 4 moles 8 moles 12 moles 16 moles 142.75 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. the fact that Hb has a lower affinity for O2 than Mb. A sample of human adult Hb is placed in an 8 M urea solution. C. If a sperm whale has 1000 kg of muscle. the cooperativity in binding among the subunits of the Hb molecule.] A. the α chains of Hb are isolated. C. D. the Mb content of muscle is about 0. C.125 0. 144. In sperm whales. approximately how much O2 is bound to Mb. The sigmoidal shape of the O2-dissociation curve of Hb is due to: A. The utilization coefficient is continually being adjusted in response to physiological changes. resulting in the disruption of noncovalent interactions. D. 0. assuming that the Mb is saturated with O2? A. B. Curve A Curve B Curve C Curve D 143. the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood. After this procedure.25 0.

can become toxic. glycolysis. C. cardiac. is the condition that occurs when ADH is ineffective. However. The table below gives the results of testing on four patients. so is the excretion of metabolic waste products. because the ammonia will not be able to diffuse into the intestinal epithelium. 146. C. Similarly. Diabetes insipidus (DI). D. Yes.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 55 Passage II (Questions 145–151) Just as the ingestion of nutrients is mandatory for human life. 55 . Which of the following substances would NOT be found in appreciable quantity in the urine of a healthy individual? A. As a result. One of the most important homeostatic organs is the kidney. damaging the circulatory. leading to excessive water loss. nucleic acid degradation. is used for building muscle. which closely regulates the excretion and reabsorption of many essential ions and molecules. C. 147. Central DI occurs when there is a deficiency in the quantity or quality of ADH produced. D. nucleic acids. B. B. fatty acid catabolism. fluid retention will occur. which. Table 1 Urine Osmolarity (mOsm/L of H2O) Patient A B C D Before Therapy After fluid restriction 285 765 180 765 180 180 180 180 After ADH 765 765 400 180 145. because the ammonia will diffuse into the intestinal epithelium and will be excreted by the kidneys. Therefore. Exogenous ADH is then administered and urine osmolarity is measured again. the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine. protein. No. after a proteinrich meal. B. Nephrogenic DI occurs when the kidney tubules are unresponsive to ADH. D. One of these nutrients. a patient’s urine osmolarity is measured both prior to therapy and after a 24-hour restriction on fluid intake. the urea cycle. would you expect a build-up of ammonia in the lumen of the small intestine? A. the catabolism of the amino acids generated from protein digestion produces ammonia. because the ammonia is produced inside individual cells. and pulmonary systems. No. if the same salts that provide energy and chemical balance to cells are in excess. and countless compounds integral to homeostasis. To differentiate between these two conditions. not within the lumen of the small intestine. if not further degraded. the catabolism of amino acids produces ammonia. According to the passage. because the rate at which digestive enzymes degrade ammonia is slower than the rate at which ammonia is produced. Albumin Sodium Urea Potassium GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Assume that a urine osmolarity of 285 mOsm/L of H2O is normal. There are two types of DI—central and nephrogenic. One mechanism of renal function involves the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Yes. An elevated and potentially toxic level of ammonia in the blood (hyperammonemia) would most likely result from a defect in an enzyme involved in: A.

which of the four patients most likely has central diabetes insipidus? A. Which of the following would you most likely expect to find in a patient with diabetes insipidus? A. C. D. B. Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. C. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 56 148. B. Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D 150. Excessive water intake Dehydration Nephrogenic DI Central DI 149. Based on the data in Table 1. Based on the data in Table 1. C. D. B. B. What is the most likely cause of Patient B’s dilute urine before therapy? A. D. C. which of the four patients most likely has nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? A. Decreased plasma osmolarity Increased urine osmolarity Increased urine glucose Increased urine output 151. 56 .

Among the many biological molecules that are affected by light is DNA. The absorption energy is of too low a frequency to be visible. π orbitals. s orbitals. The absorption energy is of too high a frequency to be visible. For most organic compounds. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. For instance. What can be said about the sizes of the chromophores? A. which play important roles as photoreceptors. D. so that they can be excited by lower-frequency photons with wavelengths in the visible spectrum. some provide protection from light-induced damage. D. B. For this reason UVA. the genetic material of living organisms. there is now increasing evidence that UVA can damage skin. a hydrocarbon compound with eleven conjugated double bonds. For every chemical compound. Why is benzene colorless? A. Such a pigment. Benzene is not conjugated. 154. conjugated double bond systems stabilize the electrons. C. will then transmit the “subtraction color.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 57 Passage III (Questions 152–158) Electromagnetic radiation from space constantly bombards the earth. B. d orbitals. The comparative lengths cannot be determined. there are certain wavelengths of light whose quanta possess exactly the correct amount of energy to raise electrons from their ground state to higher-energy orbitals. The second is longer. the second transmits radio waves. However. However. was once considered beneficial. absorbs blue light and transmits orange. Benzene does not absorb light. 153. Among these compounds are many conjugated polyenes. Two pigments are identical except for the lengths of their conjugated polyene chains. known as a chromophore. UVA (315-400 nm) and visible light can actually repair light-induced damage to DNA by a process called photorepair.” a color complementary to the one absorbed. carotene. however. D. C. The wavelength that is absorbed generally increases with the number of conjugated bonds. terrestrial organisms have evolved a number of pigments that interact with light in various ways: some capture light energy. and some serve camouflage or signaling purposes. DNA absorbs ultraviolet light. Wavelength 480 nm 580 nm 680 nm Color blue yellow red Subtraction Color orange violet green 152. these wavelengths are in the UV range. B. The first is longer. f orbitals. there are two “windows” of nonabsorption through which significant amounts of radiation reach the ground. The electrons that give color to a carotene molecule are found in: A. which also stimulates tanning. As a result. The first transmits yellow light and the second red. Most wavelengths are absorbed by the atmosphere. rings and side-chains also affect wavelength. One of the chromophores must be a dimer. C. 57 . as well as infrared light or heat. and may be damaged by UVC (< 280 nm) and UVB (280-315 nm). The first transmits ultraviolet and visible light.

C. III. C. II. II. IV IV. Heat causes the prosthetic group to become oxidized. I. What is the most likely cause of the color change from green to orange when a lobster is boiled? A. 58 . B. A. D. I.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 58 155. I. among these four? I. III GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. What is the correct sequence of sunscreen strength. II. The four compounds represented by the electronic spectra below were evaluated as potential sunscreens. Many crustaceans produce a blue or green caroteneprotein complex. D. 156. IV. IV IV. III. from strongest to weakest. The increase in temperature permits the prosthetic group to absorb shorter wavelengths. Heat causes the prosthetic group to become partially hydrated. III. The protein is separated from the carotenoid pigment. II. II. B. I III.

D. digestive system. D. Which of the following structures plays a role in both the male excretory and male reproductive systems. 158. B. Which of the following compounds share the same absolute configuration? I. NH2 I and III II and IV I and II II. C. 159. and IV IV. B. resonance. O H OH CH3 D. H3C OH OH A. C. NH2 O 160. Epididymis Prostate Urethra Ureter GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. An increase in heart rate. blood pressure. H COOH OH CH3 Cl Cl II. but in the female excretory system only? A. The color-producing quality of conjugated polyenes is attributable to: A. 59 . COOH HOOC H III. polarity. antibonding orbitals. and blood glucose concentration are all associated with stimulation of the: A. C. Which of the following compounds would be most likely to produce color? Questions 159 through 163 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. B. sympathetic nervous system. B. B. C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 59 157. D. A. III. D. optical activity. somatic nervous system. I COOH C2H5 CH2CH3 C. 161. parasympathetic nervous system.

Which of the following cell types does NOT contain the diploid number of chromosomes? A. The relation between the rate of Br* incorporation and the rate of racemization cannot be determined. C. D. C. which of the following statements will be true? [Note: Br* represents a radioactive isotope of bromine. B. D.] A. B. Spermatogonium Spermatid Zygote Primary oocyte GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. 163.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 60 162. If this reaction is carried out on an optically pure sample of a chiral compound. The rate of Br* incorporation is equal to the rate of racemization. 60 . The rate of Br* incorporation is twice the rate of racemization. The rate of Br* incorporation is half the rate of racemization. The reaction R—Br + Br*– → R—Br* + Br– is always accompanied by inversion.

hemophiliacs bleed excessively from the slightest injury. Only females can be carriers of the gene for hemophilia. C. each with the gene for hemophilia. was not a hemophiliac. what is the probability that the son would have been a hemophiliac? A. C. C. Albert. According to Figure 1. Albert was a carrier of the hemophilia gene. His father-in-law. D. D. 0% 25% 50% 100% Figure 1 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. which of the following assumptions about the P1 generation must be true? A. 164. The figure below is a partial pedigree for the hemophilia trait in Queen Victoria’s descendants. He did not inherit the gene for hemophilia from his mother. If Beatrice had married a hemophiliac and had a son. Albert did not have the gene for hemophilia. His son Frederick was a hemophiliac. 166. D. B.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 61 Passage IV (Questions 164–168) Hemophilia is a genetically inherited disease that causes the synthesis of an abnormal clotting factor. The pedigree indicates no history of hemophilia for either parent prior to the F1 generation. As a result. Which of the following best explains why Louis IV was NOT a hemophiliac? A. B. Queen Victoria had two X chromosomes. 61 . B. Neither Albert nor Queen Victorian had the gene for hemophilia. 165.

A mutation occurred on the Y chromosome that he inherited from his father. what percentage of Victoria Eugenia’s sons should have been hemophiliacs? A. what is the most reasonable explanation for Rupert’s hemophilia? A. Theoretically. His father was a carrier of the gene for hemophilia. C. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. His mother was a hemophiliac and transmitted the gene to him. D. C. B. Based on the pedigree. D. B. 62 .01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 62 167. His maternal grandfather was a hemophiliac. 25% 33% 50% 75% 168.

and IV 170. Mitochondrial DNA is a double-helix. II and IV only D. B. I and III only C. S III. Mitochondria are unusual in that they have their own genetic systems that are entirely separate from the cell’s genetic material. nondisjunctions. point mutations. glucose is metabolized to generate chemical energy in the form of ATP: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + 36ATP The biochemical machinery necessary for cellular respiration is found in the mitochondria. B. mitochondria seem to replicate randomly. During respiration. with the mitochondrion retaining some of its own DNA. The nature of the mitochondrial genome and proteinsynthesizing machinery has led many researchers to postulate that mitochondria may have arisen as the result of the ingestion of a bacterium by a primitive cell millions of years ago. Some mitochondrial genes code for tRNA.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 63 Passage V (Questions 169–175) Aerobic respiration is the major process used by oxygen-requiring organisms to generate energy. Despite this fact. while the bacterium provided energy for the cell. M A. However. 63 . 169. Which of the following mitochondrial genome characteristics differs most from the characteristics of the nuclear genome? A. it has been used to look at evolutionary relationships among different organisms. G2 IV. these mutations are most likely to be: A. C. Because mitochondrial DNA is inherited in a nonMendelian fashion (mitochondria are inherited from the maternal parent. the cell sustained the bacterium. the two evolved into the present-day eukaryotic cell. frameshift mutations. III. D. II. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. This is known as the endosymbiotic hypothesis. I. who supplies most of the cytoplasm to the fertilized egg). lethal mutations. G1 II. D. Almost every base in mitochondrial DNA codes for a product. In which of the following phases of the cell cycle could mitochondrial DNA replicate? I. Specific mutations to mitochondrial DNA can be lethal to the organism. mitochondrial replication is still dependent upon the cell’s nuclear DNA to encode essential proteins required for replication. 171. The number of mitochondria per cell varies by tissue type and cell function. out of phase with both the cell cycle and other mitochondria. Scientists have demonstrated that human mitochondrial DNA mutates at a fairly slow rate. Gradually. C. small organelles scattered throughout the cytoplasm of most eukaryotic cells. IV only B. Because mitochondria play such an important role in the cell. It is postulated that the two may have entered into a symbiotic relationship and eventually became dependent on each another.

After 10 days. C. 2 ATP 6 ATP 8 ATP 36 ATP 175. presence of genetic material in the mitochondria that is distinct from nuclear DNA. D. B. the mitochondria were isolated via centrifugation.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 64 172. endosymbiotic hypothesis. which has lost all mitochondrial functions due to deletions in their mitochondrial genome. D. What is the net number of ATP molecules synthesized by an obligate anaerobe per molecule of glucose? A. Mitochondrial DNA codes for its own ribosomal RNA. C. All of the offspring from this cross also lack mitochondrial functions. C. B. skeletal muscle cells. Four different human cell cultures—erythrocytes. Many present-day bacteria live within eukaryotic cells. 174. Which of the following cells would be expected to have the greatest number of counts per minute of radioactive decay? A. this can best be explained by the: A. Based on information in the passage. epidermal cells. D. 64 . reinhardii is crossed with the opposite mating type of a mutant strain of the algae. B. B. D. C. digesting nutrients that their hosts cannot and sharing the energy thus derived. and their level of radioactivity was measured using a liquid scintillation counter. and intestinal cells—were grown in a medium containing radioactive adenine. Mitochondrial DNA is circular and not enclosed by a nuclear membrane. A mating type of a wild-type strain of the algae C. Erythrocytes Epidermal cells Skeletal muscle cells Intestinal cells GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Which of the following pieces of evidence would NOT support the hypothesis that mitochondria were once independent bacteria that eventually formed a symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells? A. non-Mendelian inheritance of mitochondrial DNA. recombination of mitochondrial DNA during organelle replication. 173. Mitochondrial ribosomes more closely resemble eukaryotic ribosomes than prokaryotic ribosomes.

The catalyst: A. B.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 65 Passage VI (Questions 176–181) The mechanism for the acid-catalyzed esterification of a carboxylic acid. The water fraction will contain labeled oxygen. Esterification may also occur between parts of the same molecule. Which of the following compounds would most easily undergo internal esterification to form a cyclic ester? A. The rate of the reaction is negligible without the acid catalyst. attacks the carbonyl oxygen. permitting the electrophilic group to attack the carbonyl oxygen. is shown below. 177. which of the following statements is correct? A. C. B. O R OH H+ O R H OH 176. attacks the carbonyl oxygen. B. R'OH D. C. while the water fraction will not. Assuming that only the forward reaction occurs. COOHCH2CH2OH COOHCH2CH2CH2OH COOHCH2CH2CH2CH2OH COOHCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH OH R R' O − H2O OH R OR' − H+ O R OR' OH2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. permitting the nucleophilic group to attack the carbonyl carbon. The tagged alcohol R'18OH is used to study the reaction mechanism. while the ester will not. 65 . attacks the carbonyl carbon. The ester will contain labeled oxygen. D. The location of the labeled oxygen cannot be determined. C. attacks the carbonyl carbon. OH R R' O OH H 178. carried out with R'OH. Both the water fraction and the ester will contain labeled oxygen. D. The resulting ester is separated from the reaction mixture. the water from the reaction mixture is then distilled off completely and collected as a separate fraction. permitting the electrophilic group to attack the carbonyl carbon. permitting the nucleophilic group to attack the carbonyl oxygen.

CH3CH2COOH ClCH2CH2COOH ClCH2CH2CH2COOH Cl2CHCH2COOH 180. The halide is an electron-donating group. The halide acts as a good nucleophile. Another method for forming esters is: RCOO– + RX → RCOOR’ + X– Why does this reaction occur? A. Which of the following alkyl halides would be most likely to react with sodium butanoate (CH3CH2CH2COO–Na+) to form an ester? A. The halide is a poor leaving group. D. The carboxylate anion is highly nucleophilic. D. 66 . Which of the following carboxylic acids will be most acidic? A. D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 66 179. B. C. 181. CH3CH2CH2Cl CH3Cl (CH3)2CHCl CH3CH2Cl GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. B. C. C. B.

I and II only B. II. Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition in which the red blood cells of an Rh+ fetus are attached by antibodies produced by its Rh– mother. B III. 182. If the husband has type B+ blood. The viral antigens resemble the B antigen. I. any further Rh+ fetuses are at risk. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. the test is positive. While there are many other antigens found on red blood cell membranes. an individual is Rh+. The direct Coombs test mixes the baby’s red blood cells with Coombs reagent. III. The A allele codes for the production of the A antigen. Blood types are derived from the presence of specific polysaccharide antigens that lie on the outer surface of the red blood cell membrane. C. the B allele codes for the production of the B antigen. which of the following is true? A. This is inconsequential until situations such as blood transfusion. I. In a paternity case. D. The Coombs tests provide a method for determining whether a mother has mounted an immune response again her baby’s blood. The husband is definitely the father. Rh is an autosomally dominant trait coded for by 2 alleles. 183. an individual is Rh–. which contains her antibodies but no red blood cells. Unlike ABO incompatibility. The husband could be the father. Coombs reagent is then added. This sensitization usually occurs during the delivery of an Rh+ baby. A couple decide to have a child. 67 . II. in which there are naturally occurring antibodies to foreign antigens. A II. which of the following are possible blood types for their child? I. and IV 184. B. The husband could not be the father of an O– son. The indirect Coombs test takes the mother’s serum. and the baby’s red blood cells must have been attacked by its mother’s antiRh antibodies. A new virus has been discovered that evades detection by the immune system of only those individuals with type A or type AB blood. C. but could be the father of an O– daughter. For example. the second most important antigen is the Rh antigen. So while the first baby will not be harmed. if it is absent. The viral antigens are too small to elicit an immune response. the Rh system requires prior sensitization to the Rh antigen before antibodies are produced. or pregnancy occur. If agglutination occurs. the O allele does not code for any antigen. D. II. the mother has type A+ blood and her son has type O– blood. and there are three alleles that code for them. The viral antigens resemble the A antigen. and the O allele is recessive. The husband could not be the father. The tests are based on whether or not agglutination occurs when Coombs reagent is added to a sample. These antigens become most important when an individual comes into contact with foreign blood. B. O A. I. If the father’s genotype is AO and the mother has type B blood of unknown genotype. and IV only D. The A and B alleles are codominant. and the mother must be producing anti-Rh antibodies. If agglutination occurs. AB. Which of the following best accounts for this observation? A.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 67 Passage VII (Questions 182–189) Four major blood types exist in the human ABO blood system: types A. the test is positive. Coombs reagent contains antibodies against the anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother. and O. organ transplant. The viral antigens are Rh+. B. individuals who do not have these antigens on their red blood cells will form antibodies against them. If this antigen is present. and III only C. and mixes it with Rh+ red blood cells. Because of the presence of naturally occurring substances that closely mimic the A and B antigens. a person with type AB blood with the Rh antigen is said to be AB+. AB IV.

A medical student suggested giving Rh– mothers of Rh+ fetuses a specific exogenous substance prior to delivery to prevent an immune response. A man with type A blood A man with the genotype BO A woman with the genotype AB All four blood types are equally safe 188. B. D. D. Test all women for the presence of anti-Rh antibodies. D. C. Based on information in the passage. 68 . Rh antigen An immunosuppressive drug Anti-Rh antibody Iron pills 187. B. A woman who has never been pregnant has type B– blood. Negative direct Coombs test Positive direct Coombs test Positive indirect Coombs test Negative indirect Coombs test GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. D. 189. C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 68 185. C. C. what does the reaction below represent? A. Test only Rh– mothers for the presence of antiRh antibodies. Test all mothers of Rh+ children for the presence of anti-Rh antibodies. B. Which of the following antibodies would you expect to find in her serum? A. which of the following individuals could safely donate blood? A. B. Anti-B antibody Anti-A antibody Anti-Rh antibody Both anti-A and anti-Rh antibodies 186. B. Which of the following substances would likely be the safest and most effective? A. How might one most practically assess the risk of erythroblastosis fetalis in a pregnant woman? A. Test all fetuses for the presence of the Rh antigen within the first trimester of pregnancy. C. D. If a man with type AB blood needed a transfusion of red blood cells.

Cortisol Aldosterone Epinephrine Testosterone 193. which is caused by the oversecretion of growth hormone. D. C. a patient with acromegaly. CH3CH=CHCHO HOOCCH2CH(CH3)2 CH3CH(CH3)2 HOCH2CH(CH3)2 191. oxygen is necessary to convert glucose into pyruvate. Growth hormone decreases the sensitivity of cellular receptors to insulin. These observations are consistent with the fact that in the aerobically grown yeast: A. C. Meta. Para-nitrophenol has the weakest intermolecular hydrogen bonding.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 69 Questions 190 through 194 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. a decreased urine volume. 190. A biochemist grows two cultures of yeast—one aerobically and the other anaerobically—and measures the amount of ATP produced by each culture. would be expected to have: A. 69 .4 0. Ortho-nitrophenol has the greatest intramolecular hydrogen bonding. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. C. D. B. oxygen is converted into ATP. C. He finds that the aerobically-grown yeast produce about 18 times as much ATP as the anaerobically-grown yeast. C.7 1. B. 192.2 Melting point (°C) 114 97 44 A. a high blood glucose concentration. Which of the following statements is supported by the table below? Solubility per 100g H2O para-nitrophenol meta-nitrophenol ortho-nitrophenol 1. D. a low blood glucose concentration. Therefore. B. The synthesis of which of the following hormones would NOT be affected when a dose of this chemical is administered to a laboratory rat? A. 194. A certain chemical is found to inhibit the synthesis of all steroids. D. B. Ortho-nitrophenol does not form intermolecular hydrogen bonds. oxygen is necessary for the reduction of pyruvate into lactate.and para-nitrophenol form intramolecular hydrogen bonds. D. a decreased cardiac output. B. oxygen is the final electron acceptor of the respiratory chain. Which of the following products may be formed in the reaction below? O H2O O H3O+ A.

B. CH2CH3 C.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 70 Passage VIII (Questions 195–198) A student was given a sample of an unknown liquid and asked to determine as much as possible about its structure. hydrogen. D. and oxygen. He could distinguish between a phenol and a benzoic acid by seeing if the unknown can be extracted with a weak base. D. C. Finally. 195. He could distinguish between a benzyl aldehyde and a benzyl ketone by seeing if the unknown will react with cold KMnO4. Using mass spectroscopy. he took the infrared spectrum of the compound. The student found its boiling point to be 206°C. B. and had only one type of functional group. Assuming that all of the student’s deductions were correct. He could distinguish between a benzyl alcohol and a phenol by attempting to dissolve the unknown in an aqueous solution of HCl. C. The student decides to carry out some simple tests on the compound in order to confirm his identification. He was told that the compound contained only carbon. He then turned his attention to the fingerprint region of the compound. CH2OH COOH OCH3 B. 197. 196. C7H21O2. C. which of the following could be the structure of the unknown compound? COOH CH2OH A. which is shown below. What type of functional group could this indicate? A. OCH3 D. C9H13O. B. the student quickly reached a conclusion about the functional group. The correct formula for this compound could be: A. A. 198. he determined its molecular weight to be 138 g/mol. The overlapping set of peaks near 3000 cm–1 includes one peak at 2850 cm–1. D. Which of the following statements is NOT true? From this spectrum. C7H10O3. Methyl Phenol Carboxyl Aldehyde carbonyl GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. He could distinguish between a benzyl alcohol and a benzoic ester by attempting to dissolve the unknown in an aqueous solution of NaOH. 70 . The student decided that the large peak at 750 cm–1 must indicate that this was a disubstituted aromatic compound. C8H10O2. which generally has a complicated pattern of peaks that are determined by the structure of the hydrocarbon portion of a molecule.

the IA. Bb. A white male is crossed with the heterozygous red female from Cross 9. 2 brown : 1 red : 1 white 2 brown : 1 red : 1 pink 1 brown : 2 white : 1 pink 1 brown : 1 white 199. D. A multiple-allele system has recently been discovered in the determination of hair coloring in a species of wild rat. The males and females in Crosses 1.33% 12. for example.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 71 Passage IX (Questions 199–203) Although individual organisms have only two alleles for any given trait. The results from nine experimental crosses are shown below. Let B = the gene for brown hair. If it were discovered that the alleles for red and white hair were actually incompletely dominant and produced a pink hair color in rats with one copy of each allele. This phenomenon is known as multiple alleles.5% 25% GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. but IA and IB are codominant to each other. B. what is the genotype of the female in Cross 5? A. C. 2. B. and 3 are all homozygous for hair color. These alleles may have different dominance relationships with one another. D. there are three alleles coding for the human blood groups. what would be the expected phenotypic ratio in a cross between a Bb male and a pink female? A. B. The rats are found to have one of three colors: brown. or Bw 202. 71 . Based on the experimental results. Multiple alleles are created when a single gene undergoes several distinct mutations. Both the IA and IB alleles are dominant to the i allele.25% 8. D. C. bw bb bw or bb Bb or bw 200. C. red. Cross 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Male brown brown red brown brown red red brown brown Female red white white brown brown red red red red Offspring all brown all brown all red 3 brown : 1 red all brown all red 3 red : 1 white 2 brown : 1 red : 1 white 1 brown : 1 red 201. IB. B. If a large number of brown offspring from Cross 8 are mated with each other. it is possible for a trait to have more than two alleles coding for it. what is the expected percentage of white offspring? A. or white. and w = the gene for white hair. Based on the experimental results. D. B. 3:1 1:3 1:1 2:1 203. D. C. Bb BB or Bb BB or Bw BB. 6. what is the genotype of the male in Cross 6? A. b = the gene for red hair. What is the expected ratio of red to white offspring? A. and i alleles. C.

I only B. Thymol can then be converted to menthol. is stabilized by resonance to a greater extent than phenol itself. Thymol can also be synthesized from m-cresol. I IV. II IV. II and III only D. II. III. as shown in Reaction A below. B. 72 . C. Which of the following shows the order of decreasing acidity among the four compounds below? OH OH NO2 OH O 2N OH NO2 NO2 I NO2 II CH3 III NO2 IV Reaction A thymol H2/Ni high pressure OH A. Like carboxylic acids. 205. Reaction A is an example of: A. III. a free radical substitution. an electrophilic addition. I. The exceptionally strong hydrogen bonding possible with phenol facilitates the loss of a proton. III IV. B. is an effective disinfectant that is obtained from thyme oil. a naturally occurring phenol. Phenols undergo a number of different reactions. A number of chemical tests can be used to distinguish phenols from alcohols and carboxylic acids. II. II only C. phenols have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons of similar molecular weight.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:30 PM Page 72 Passage X (Questions 204–209) Compounds containing a hydroxyl group attached to a benzene ring are called phenols. A. another naturally-occurring organic compound. as do most of the many naturally-occurring substituted phenols. I. both their hydroxyl groups and their benzene rings are highly reactive. Like other alcohols. III. D. and III OH OH CH(CH3)2 thymol naphthol phenanthrol Thymol. CH3 + OH H3PO4 OH CH(CH3)2 m-cresol thymol 206. C. D. this conversion is shown in Reaction B. III menthol Reaction B GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. Comparing the Ka values for cyclohexanol (Ka =10–18) and phenol (Ka = 1. II. have chemical properties similar to those of phenols. Which of the following explain(s) the acidity of phenol? I. I. CH3 OH 204. The negative charge of the oxygen atom on the phenoxide ion is delocalized over the benzene ring. making it more acidic than cyclohexanol. a nucleophilic aromatic substitution.3 x 10–10) reveals that phenol is more acidic than cyclohexanol. IV. II. phenoxide. phenols are more acidic than their alcohol counterparts. I. an electrophilic aromatic substitution. Phenol’s conjugate base. II. such as naphthols and phenanthrols. Derivatives of phenols.

Compound II’s solubility in NaHCO3 Compound I’s solubility in NaOH Compound I’s ability to decolorize a bromine solution Compound I’s solubility in NaHCO3 B. D. NO2 OH CH3 A. B. What simple chemical test could be used to distinguish between the following two compounds? I OH II CH2OH A. OH NO2 OH O2N + D.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:31 PM Page 73 207. 73 . NO2 OH C. C. The reaction of phenol with dilute nitric acid produces which of the following compounds? OH OH NO2 + 208. NO2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

The proton NMR spectrum of compound X is as follows: δ 1.3 (9H) singlet δ 4. Compound X (C10H14O) dissolves in aqueous sodium hydroxide but is insoluble in aqueous sodium bicarbonate. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:31 PM Page 74 209. OH B.1 (4H) multiplet Which of the following is the structure of Compound X? COOH A. Br OH C.8 (1H) singlet δ 7. Br O D. 74 .

210. C. B. Exocrine secretions of the pancreas: Questions 210 through 214 are NOT based on a descriptive passage. A. CHECK YOUR WORK. C. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED. B. The K+ entered the cell by way of facilitated transport. lower blood glucose levels. coordinated movement. SN1. A certain drug inhibits ribosomal RNA synthesis. The K+ entered the cell by way of active transport. it is determined that the extracellular concentrations of both K+ and ATP have decreased. D. C. is placed in an ATP-rich medium with a low K+ concentration. D. After several minutes. 213. sense of smell. 211. thus enabling the potassium to enter the cell. A cell with a high intracellular K+ concentration. B. B. raise blood glucose levels. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon? A. C. D. regulate metabolic rate. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY. Which of the following eukaryotic organelles would be most affected by the administration of this drug? 214. whose plasma membrane is impermeable to K+. 1 2 3 4 The K+ passively diffused from the medium into the cell. and E2 reactions.01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:31 PM Page 75 212. B. Destroying the cerebellum of a cat would cause significant impairment of normal: A. 75 . CH3CH2CH2Cl (CH3)3COH CH3CH2CH3 (CH3CH2)3CBr A. The ATP formed a temporary lipid-soluble complex with the K+. D. but not SN2 reactions? A. C. aid in protein and fat digestion. thermoregulation. D. while the intracellular K+ concentration has increased. urine formation. STOP. Which of the following compounds readily undergoes E1.

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:31 PM Page 76 .

01 MCAT FL Test1 06/26/2003 05:31 PM Page 77 .

Sign up to vote on this title
UsefulNot useful