PORTFOLIO Written samples made: Sample No.

1 (This is a 300 plus word essay made for a wedding site) California Gurls by Katy Perry

The song California Gurls is an electropop music sung by an award-winning singer Katy Perry. It was released as the lead single of the third studio album, Teenage Dream on May 11, 2010. The song features one of the most famous rapper, Snoop Dogg. California Gurls is the best selling digital single not only in the United States but also in the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, Scotland, Ireland, and New Zealand.

California Gurls is a song that is full of energy and enthusiasm that makes it a perfect wedding song for a summer wedding of couples that belongs to the younger generation since this is a modern song. The tempo, the sound, and the beat is very suitable for a beach wedding under the summer sun, wherein everyone was wearing summer outfits. It will bring an ambiance of fun and laughter to the venue because of its strong techno-sound in the open. The bride, groom, and other people could dance with the music in their natural happy way. The disco beat and rhythm could make everyone swing their hips and put their hands up in the air feeling the love and passion around them.

The wedding would turn out to be a one kind of celebration because of the California Gurls' beat hitting the speakers. Like what the song chorus say, it would be "unforgettable and undeniable" like how the song tells about the California Gurls. This may not be a love song that could make everyone drop a tear, but this song can move anybody's legs to move with one's heart. Everyone would love to dance with the music with or without partner. They can form a big circle and have a little of a dance showdown for a twist. The song is interesting and enjoyable in every beat and could make your summer wedding a big blast!

And if you got movies. While other models have contrast ratio of 70. that is. a smart shopper. get ready to experience outstanding 3D viewing with its 120 refresh rate. When connected to Samsung 3D Blu-ray disc player.000 the most. the Samsung LN40C630 40-Inch 1080p 120 Hz LCD HDTV! . Samsung LN40C630 sets the new standard of exemplary depth display. you can tag yourself. music and photos on your USB and flash drives. It features DNSe providing smooth and sharp sounds and BD. only grab the best choice. you may need that guide no more! That’s because Samsung LN40C630 40-Inch 1080p 120 Hz LCD HDTV got you covered.000:1 contrast ratio making television experience beyond satisfaction. if you desire excellent television viewing. so access to variety of media files is endless. It even has a slower response time of 4ms which is considerably edgy to game buffs. Experience smooth viewing with Samsung LN40C630. the Connect Share Movie feature allows direct viewing and easy access once connected to the television. a feature that automatic sets the video and audio quality in optimum upshots. Guide books on choosing HDTV help you find great TV deals and the best televisions across the globe. It even has an All Share feature which enables access to wired and wireless equipments in the house like laptops and desktop computers. Don’t wait any longer. features and brand name. With its price. Nothing pairs up with fluid-clear television pictures than an exceptional sound quality. It strikes an 80. it can generate multiple frames per second which is surprisingly a double-fold beyond other LCD HDTVs. but now. 2 (This was done for a Television site) Samsung LN40C630 40-Inch 1080p 120 Hz LCD HDTV (Black) When does choosing a television become a dilemma? That’s when you don’t know how to look for models worth your investment.Sample No. Enjoy jampacked action movies and sports programs with fluid movements and images.

What are the criteria in choosing the commissioner and its 6 members? According to the Law upon appointment they shall be: 1. The PRC supervises all the activities of the board like: 1. 3 (Done for the nursing site) Licensing Board of Nursing of the Philippines 1. Then the commission shall rank the said nominees and submit to the President of the Philippines two (2) nominees per vacancy.Sample No. A natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines. (2) nursing service and (3) community health nursing. How are they appointed? Section 5 of Republic Act 9173 tells about how the Chairperson and six members shall be appointed by the President of the Republic of the Philippines upon the recommendation of the commission. Provision of secretariat of Board. What are they composed of? In section 4 of Republic Act 9173. 3. not later than two (2) months before the vacancy occurs. administrative and other investigative cases conducted by the Board 2. and other support services needed by the Board 2. Handling all records of the Board (applications for examinations. the Board which was created as mandated by section 3 of Article III of the Nursing Act shall be composed of: 1 Chairperson 6 members These six (6) members represents three (3) areas of nursing: (1) nursing education. Some pointers to remember: Before the last year of office of the commission. the accredited professional organization of nurses in the Philippines is requested to submit at least three (3) qualified nominees per vacancy. .

How long shall they work? Their term of office lasts for three (3) years and until their successors have been appointed and qualified. Immediately resign from any teaching position in any school. How much are they paid? They are paid based on the principle of quantum meruit which means “as much as they deserve” 7. 5. Immediately resign from any office or employment in the private sector and/in the government or any subdivision. 6. b. 3. Must not have been convicted of any offense involving moral turpitude. c. however. mother/father in any activity that will conflict with her position in the Board. particularly money matters. 5. nursing service and community health nursing. that the Chairperson shall be a holder of a master’s degree in nursing.2. or administrative supervision over any institution offering Bachelor of Science in Nursing including review classes. Must have at least ten (10) years of continuous practice of the profession prior to appointment: Provided. A registered nurse and holder of a master’s degree in nursing. A member of good standing of the accredited professional organization of nurses. that the last five (5) years of which shall be in the Philippines. that the majority of the Members of the Board shall be holders of a master’s degree in nursing: Provided further. university or institution offering bachelor if Science in Nursing and/or review program for the local nursing board examinations.) If qualifies what shall they do? a. 4. Pecuniary interest refers to involvement of husband/wife. 6. 4. agency or instrumentality thereof. including government –owned and /or controlled corporations or their subsidiaries. brothers/sisters. Membership to the Board shall represent the three areas nursing namely: nursing education. Whose responsible in removing or suspending the Board Members? . children. college. Not have any pecuniary interest in. education or other allied medical profession conferred by a college or university duly recognized by the government: Provided.

25.) unprofessional. In the past. increased energy. over-involvement in activities. People with bipolar disorder I have had at least one fully manic episode with periods of major depression. and withdrawal from activities that were once enjoyed and withdrawal from friends. This may affects men and women equally. racing thoughts) inflated self-esteem (delusions of grandeur. lack of selfcontrol. or making decisions. but it occurs more often in relatives of people with bipolar disorder. and/or drug use. it is also referred to as manic depression. drinking. immoral or dishonourable conduct. The manic phase may last from days to months and may include these symptoms: agitation or irritation.) continued neglect of duty or incompetence (b. spending sprees) and tendency to be easily distracted. Instead they experience periods of hypomania (elevated levels of energy and impulsiveness that are not as extreme as the symptoms of mania). sexual promiscuity. poor temper control. persistent sadness and thoughts of death. feelings of worthlessness. The exact cause is unknown. suicidal thoughts.The President may remove or suspend any members of the Board after having been given the opportunity to defend himself or herself in proper administrative investigation on the following grounds: (a. It usually appears between ages 15 . While in the depressed phase. eating disturbances. remembering. The "mood swings” can be very abrupt. These hypomanic periods alternate with episodes of major depression. impaired judgment. loss of self-esteem. While people with bipolar disorder II seldom experience full-fledged mania. hopelessness and/or guilt. While a mild form of bipolar disorder called cyclothymia involves . sleep disturbances. There are two primary types of bipolar disorder. 4 Bipolar Disorder Bipolar disorder results from disturbances in the areas of the brain that regulate mood. fatigue or listlessness. elevated mood (hyperactivity. It involves periods of excitability (mania) alternating with periods of depression.) commission or toleration of irregularities in the licensure examination (c. Sample No. false beliefs in special abilities). little need for sleep. reckless behavior (binge eating. it involves very serious symptoms of major depression such as difficulty concentrating.

lithium. and proper diet. antipsychotic medications.periods of hypomania and mild depression. may also help. antidepressants are sometimes used. and giving health teachings about regular exercise. and mood stabilizers are typically used. Antipsychotic drugs can help a person who has lost touch with reality. Proper History Taking and Observation are very important to diagnose people with Bipolar Disorder. with less severe mood swings. avoiding over-stimulation. with or without the manic phase treatment. Joining a support group may also be particularly helpful for bipolar disorder patients and their loved ones. . The patient may need to stay in a hospital until his or her mood has stabilized and symptoms are under control. For the depressive phase. such as benzodiazepines. As a nurse. Psychotherapy may also be a useful option during the depressive phase. For the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Studies have repeatedly found that ECT is the most effective treatment for depression that is not relieved with medications. Anti-anxiety drugs. People with bipolar disorder II or cyclothymia may be misdiagnosed as having depression alone. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be used to treat bipolar disorder. one could also provide a calm environment. Explaining to patient that getting enough sleep helps keep a stable mood is very important.

After stabilization of blood glucose levels Answer: C. When is the best time for a patient to resume an oral diet? A.Sample No. Range orders for the delivery of IV opioids give nurses the flexibility needed to treat patients' pain in a timely manner while allowing for differences in patient response to pain and to analgesia. There are two choices which pertains to oral medications which disqualifies these answers. an oral opoid B. intramuscular meperidine D. Once his pain has been under control for at least 24 hours The patient can resume an oral diet after 24 hours when the bowel movement had an adequate rest from digestion and when pain is managed. 2. An oral opoid is not applicable since the status of the patient should be NPO. . 5 Situation. I You are to take care of a patient with severe pain due to pancreatitis. an IV opoid C. 1. but many continue to experience unrelieved pain. Please refer to the situation above to answer the test questions 1 to 4. after 5 days of parenteral nutrition C. an IV opoid Patients have the right to adequate and safe pain relief in hospitals. Once his pain has been under control for at least 24 hours D. as soon as he wants to try eating B. The best choice for controlling severe pancreatitis is A. oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Answer: B. He is on NPO and is under observation.

beta blockers B. kidney failure. treatment. that is. metabolic derangements such as hypocalcemia. In larger doses. Myocardial infarction D. ARDS (adult respiratory distress syndrome). coagulopathy and disseminated intravascular coagulation. beta antagonists is a class of drugs used for various indications. phlegmon and pseudoaneurysm. the third bond from the methyl end of the fatty acid. beta blockers Beta blockers (sometimes written as β-blockers) or beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Local complications of acute pancreatitis include necrosis. pseudocyst (fluid collection). Distant or systemic complications include shock. Hematemesis .3. Some of the complications from pancreatitis are: low blood pressure. abscess. niacin can reverse atherosclerosis by lowering low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and favorably affecting other compounds. fistulazation. plasmapheresis C. cardioprotection after myocardial infarction (heart attack). accumulation of fluid in the abdomen. Complications for pancreatitis include all of the following except: A. and cysts or abscesses in the pancreas. A patient was in the emergency room. diabetes. and return of components of blood plasma from the blood circulation. Pleural effusion C. beta-adrenergic antagonists. omega-3 fatty acids Answer: A. You have seen that he was diagnosed to have active gastrointestinal bleeding. 4. These are the manifestations that confirms that the diagnosis is correct EXCEPT: A. but particularly for the management of cardiac arrhythmias. Therapies for controlling high triglycerides caused by pancreatitis may include all except A. 5. Plasmapheresis is the removal. GI hemorrhage. respiratory failure. muscular degeneration B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation Answer: A. ascites. Omega-3 fatty acids are a family of unsaturated fatty acids that have in common a final carbon–carbon double bond in the n−3 position. ileus. heart failure. hyperglycaemia. niacin D. and hypertension. Melena C. before approaching to the client you checked his chart for his diagnosis. muscular degeneration Complications of pancreatitis can be conceptualized as occurring in two domains one as local and one as systemic complications. Constipation B.

hematemesis and blood in a patient’s gastric content on lavage. Peutz–Jeghers syndrome. His chief complaint involves bright red blood in the stool. this syndrome develops when a mucosal tear near the gastroesophageal junction – the result of forceful vomiting or retching – causes bleeding from a blood vessel. Which of the following disease would you suspect that patient has? A. Upper GI tract bleeding involves blood in the stool but brownish in color. Irritable bowel syndrome B. abdominal pain.D. Block gastric acid secretion . Irritable bowel syndrome. Blood in a patient’s gastric contents Answer: A. Upper GI tract bleeding B. 7. Among the causes of the acute upper GI bleeding. What is the mechanism of action of sucralfate ( Carafate)? A. Constipation Acute upper GI bleeding is diagnosed by the presence of melena. Irritable bowel syndrome is a disorder characterized most commonly by cramping. Chronic Upper GI tract bleeding Answer: B. This is the nearest answer to the initial finding that you see. Lower GI tract bleeding C. Chronic Constipation D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome Mallory-Weiss syndrome develops when a mucosal tear near the gastroesophageal junction – the result of forceful vomiting or retching – causes bleeding from a blood vessel. Which of the following is the correct answer? A. is an autosomal dominant genetic disease characterized by the development of benign hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract and hyperpigmented macules on the lips and oral mucosa. Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. also known as hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome. bloating. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome Answer: B. and diarrhea. 8. Gastrointestinal inherited polyposis syndromes D. Lower GI tract bleeding Bright red blood in the stool though not always indicative of a lower GI tract bleed. Another patient came into the emergency room. Neutralized acid B. constipation. 6.

There is an active bleeding and the following are actions taken to halt that upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Forms protective barrier over ulcer site D. 10. A GFR level below 60ml/min/1. Kidney damage present for at least 2 months B. a criterion for chronic kidney disease is A. Electrocoagulation Answer: A Sclerotherapy is a procedure used to treat blood vessels or blood vessel malformations (vascular malformations) and also those of the lymphatic system. Antacids neutralizes acid. Forms protective barrier over ulcer site Sucralfate (Carafate) forms protective barrier over ulcer site. Which of the following does not belong to the procedures? A. Protect gastric mucosa from injury Answer: C. A decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) C. . Laser therapy C. Intravenous volume replacement B. breathing (provide oxygen and cardiac monitoring) and circulation (intravenous volume replacement). Which of the following types of endoscopy involves injecting the bleeding with a necrotizing agent? A.C. 9. Provide oxygen and perform cardiac monitoring D. 11. There are many types of endoscopic therapy. Sclerotherapy B. Abnormal creatine clearance based on 24-hour urine collection D. Heater probe D. Check the CBG Answer: D. Check the CBG In stopping the bleeding the priority is still the airway (intubation).73 for 3 months or longer Answer: D. Checking of CBG could be done in the succeeding time when the patient’s bleeding is stopped and stabilization is achieved. Proton pump inhibitors block gastric acid secretion. Mucosal barrier enhancers protect gastric mucosa from injury. According to the National Kidney Foundation’s clinical practice guidelines. Intubation is done to protect the airway C.

including the patient’s A. An albumin-specific dipstick urinalysis. B.The NKF’s clinical practice guidelines define chronic kidney disease defined by a GFR level below 60ml/min/1. serum createnine levels alone were used to evaluate kidney function. If the result is positive. Fluid balance Answer: D. 12. . A standard dipstick urinalysis. Answer: A standard dipstick urinalysis All patients should routinely be screened for chronic kidney disease. while those with known factors should be screened with an albumin-specific dipstick. . Race D. Persistent protenuria C. a tool that clinicians use to calculate GFR. Degree of kidney damage C. Those with no known risk factors can be screened with a standard dipstick. the patient’s protein-createnine ratio should be determined by laboratory testing. takes into consideration various factors. Increased serum createnine B. 13. Decreased createnine clearance D. The first sign of Kidney Damage is usually A. In the past. The Modification of Diet in Renal Disease Study equation. D. Persistent protenuria Persistent protenuria is usually the first indicator of kidney damage. The most common symptoms include swelling.73 for 3 months or longer. usually of the lower extremities. C. 14. A protein-creatinine ratio test. Most people with normally functioning kidneys excrete small amounts of protein in the urine daily. A patient who does not have specific risk factors for kidney disease should nevertheless be screened periodically for kidney damage with A. Cellular cast in urine Answer: B. Diet B. even if they have no known risk factors. Fluid balance Nurses should begin symptom assessment by using one or more validated instruments such as the Medical Outcomes Study 36-item short form health survey. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate test. with or without kidney damage. Timed 24-hour urine specimens that measured directly but is calculated from laboratory values from serum createnine.

73 Answer: B. with or without kidney 17. Other possible symptoms include sleep pattern. White-cell casts are associated with inflammation such as that caused by interstitial nephritis. Headaches B.73 C. or vomiting. 60ml/min/1. Coarse granular casts can be an evidence of acute tubular necrosis. 16. fatigue. Nephrotic syndrome is specifically indicated when which of the following types of casts appear in a patient’s urine? A. Lower-extremity edema Answer: D.73 damage. Anemia B. weight loss.73 D. loss of appetite. weight loss. A. or vomiting. Which common complication of kidney disease often develops as early as stage 1? A. Hypertension . for three months or longer. 70ml/min/1. Fatty Fatty casts can indicate nephritic syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Typically. Fatty B.73 B. 15. White Blood cell C. nausea. Sleep disturbances D.fatigue. 18. Bone disease C.73 GFRs below 60ml/min/1. nausea. usually of the lower extremities. symptoms of chronic kidney disease first became evident when the GFR falls below A. 50ml/min/1. 60ml/min/1. a change in urination (reduction in volume or frequency). a change in urination (reduction in volume or frequency). loss of appetite. 80ml/min/1. Lower-extremity edema The most common symptoms include swelling. itching or difficulties with memory or concentrations. One of the most common symptom of Kidney Disease is. Coarse granular D. Red Blood cell Answer: A. headaches. Pruritus C.

Answer: C.73 is A. chemical. Hypertension Hypertension a leading cause of chronic kidney disease. Malnutrition Answer: C. C. the precipitating cause for ulceration and gangrenous lesion often is: A. Being prepared for renal replacement therapy. implement and evaluate a corresponding plan of care for dialysis or transplantation. C. Answer: D. B. Nurses can emphasize to patients the importance of symptom recognition and reporting and stress the benefits of following the treatment process. Reducing cardiovascular disease risk. tea. Trauma from mechanical. and thermal sources. Being prepared for renal replacement therapy. Being assessed for risk factors for rapid decline. The nurse will need to develop. chemical. At stage 4. The patient at stage 4 must be prepared by the nephrology team for renal replacement therapy. Bone disease and disorders of calcium and phosphorus metabolism may develop as early as stage 3 of chronic kidney disease. For example. B. 19. Estimating disease progression C. moderately decreased GFR wherein symptoms are more pronounced complications such as anemia and bone disease can arise. B. Answer: D. Emotional stress which is short lived. The focus of clinical action for a patient with chronic Kidney disease and a GFR of 40ml/min/1. burning a cigarette generates dozens of chemical products in the smoke that. and cola drinks. Poor hygiene and limited CHON intake. can also develop as a complication as early as stage 1. and thermal sources. patients with chronic Kidney disease enter a new phase on management that focus on A. D. Anemia is common in patients with diminishing kidney function. Having complications evaluated and treated. when inhaled . 20.D. Evaluating and treating complication D. Preparing for kidney replacement. Trauma from mechanical. With Chronic occlusive arterial disorder. Evaluating and treating complication This is classified under stage 3. D. toxic molecules in the blood and physical damage are the two most common. Reducing cardiovascular disease risk. 21. Stimulants such as coffee. There are many things that can damage the endothelium.

After the client has been supine for 5 minutes. particularly in the large arteries. commonly known as a heart attack. To assess the effectiveness of a vasodilator administered to lower hypertension. usually due to coronary artery disease (atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries). or myocardial ischaemia. Coronary thrombosis can lead to a myocardial infarction. The client state that the anginal pain increase after activity. to leak into the wall of the artery and cause problems by irritating the cells in the wall of the artery. the flow of blood is increased due to a decrease in vascular resistance. C. is the interruption of blood supply to a part of the heart. The process is essentially the opposite of vasoconstriction. while the infarction refers to the necrosis due to the consequent loss of perfusion. Five minutes is what it all takes to have the desired effect. 5 minutes after giving the drug. A. such as cholesterol. Answer: A Mitral insufficiency. If this type of damage is repeated over and over the wall of the artery is becomes progressively more and more scarred and a large bump grows into the inside of the artery 22. The arterial endothelium is damaged by some of these chemicals and becomes slightly "leaky". Mitral regurgitation (MR). Myocardial Ischemia. is a disease characterized by ischaemia (reduced blood supply) to the heart muscle. When vessels dilate. or the narrowing of blood vessels. B. . causing heart cells to die. B.into the lungs. although this is technically inaccurate as the thrombosis refers to the occlusion. smaller arterioles and large veins. Myocardial infarction or acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Ischaemic or ischemic heart disease (IHD). The nurse should realize that the angina pectors is a sign of: A. Coronary thrombosis. the nurse should take the client’s pulse and BP. Prior to administering the drug. Myocardial infarction. mitral insufficiency or mitral incompetence is a disorder of the heart in which the mitral valve does not close properly when the heart pumps out blood. Answer: B Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels resulting from relaxation of smooth muscle cells within the vessel walls. Mitral insufficiency. 23. Immediately after the clients gets out of bed.[2] The terms are sometimes used as synonyms. C. This allows other molecules in the blood. are absorbed into the blood and distributed by the blood all around the body. D. D.

Answer: D.24. B. D. Check the pulse distal to the site. Provide additional rest. When caring for a client after cardiac catheterization it is most important that the nurse: A. It is important to check the distal pulses because diminished pulses can indicate a hematoma at the catheter insertion site and should be reported immediately. C. Answer: A. Patients who undergone cranial radiation significantly longer continuous survival rate. Reduce the risk of systematic infection C. B. Avoid metastasis for the lymphatic system. Check the pulse distal to the site. The teaching paln should reflect the fact that this is done to: A. . A child with a diagnosis of ALL is scheduled to receive cranial radiation. The risk of relapse is lowered according to researches. Improved the quality of life. Check the ECG every 30 min. Prevent CNS Involvement. Administer oxygen D. 25. Improved the quality of life.