HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY

1. Which definition most accurately describes applied ethics? a. Legal application of moral standards that concern benefiting the public. b. Practical application of moral standards that concern benefiting the patient. c. Legal application of moral standards that benefit the patient. d. Legal application of moral standards that benefit the public. 2. Illegal actions are a. usually unethical. b. seldom unethical. c. not unethical. d. not related to ethics. 3. Laws are rules or required actions that are a. written by the people to control the actions of criminals. b. moral decisions about how the population should live. c. ethical considerations of the cultural beliefs of the population. d. prescribed by an authority and have a binding legal force. 4. The purpose of law is to a. provide a way of measuring our actions. b. punish us when our actions break the law. c. provide moral decision-making standards. d. a and b. 5. The study of a branch of philosophy related to morals, moral principles, and moral judgments is called a. ethics. b. law. c. medical practice acts. d. utilitarianism. 6. The quality of being virtuous is called. a. sympathy. b. utilitarianism. c. morality. d. empathy. 7. Unethical acts are a. not always illegal. b. always illegal. c. not related to the law. d. uncommon in society. 8. Which definition is correct for medical practice acts? a. The practice of medicine in all fifty states. b. The practice of medicine in a particular state, including the requirements and methods

assault and battery. b. Speaking false and malicious words concerning another person. b. c. Making false and/or malicious statements about another person c. c. b. by the judge. 10. . Intentional torts include a. by the governor. writing. Action taken to confine a patient against his or her will is a. contract law. including the requirements and methods of certification.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY of licensure. which brings injury to his or her reputation b. unintentional tort. d. c. A civil injury or wrongful act committed against another person or property that results in harm and is compensated by money damages is a. Any publication in print. pictures. d. breach. by the federal government. d. Professional exercise of the type of care that a reasonable person would use in a similar circumstance is a. all of the above. standard of care. The practice of medicine in all 50 states and what constitutes unprofessional conduct. 11. defamation. false imprisonment. 13. d. d. The practice of medicine in a particular state. b. d. Attempts to deceive another person 14. administrative law. false imprisonment. 9. civil law. or signs that injures the reputation of another person d. assault. battery. c. Which is the best definition of libel? a. c. outside the courtroom. negligence. 12. b. tort law. c. Civil law is commonly handled and settled a. defamation.

b. The period of time that a patient has to file a lawsuit is the a. d. 16. d. Failure to comply with the terms of the agreement. b. d. respondeat superior. b. the medical assistant who unsuccessfully performs CPR. fraud. Medical Patients Rights Act. d. standard of care. providing information by phone when requested by a consulting physician. c. 18. the physician who assists in an emergency situation outside the workplace. b and c. d. Guidelines for the practice of a profession are called a. Agreement is entered into orally (clearly stated) or in writing. or silence. c. c. unintentional tort. Failure or omission to perform professional duties to an accepted level is called a. 20. scope of practice. statute of limitations for murder. prudent person.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY 15. b. d. The provision of information to a patient that a reasonable person would want before making a decision about treatment is a. inaction. respondeat superior. Let the master answer refers to a. All of the above. disclosing private information about a person to a third party only when a patient¶s written consent is given. 17. medical practice acts. keeping private all information about a person and not disclosing it to a third party. Which is the best definition of an expressed contract? a. negligence. Agreement is shown through inference by signs. prudent person rule. c. An adult who acts in the court on behalf of a child in litigation is called a. 22. confidentiality. statute of limitations. b. c. the employer who assumes responsibility for the actions of employees. 21. good samaritan. Confidentiality involves a. c. c. statute of limitations. guardian ad litem. b. 19. d. . consideration. b.

share the loss and profits. share responsibility for legal actions of each other. partnership. partnership. Benefits of a corporation include all except a. b. share a facility and staff. c. associate practice. provide decision making by the most qualified person. d. d. associate practice. insurance for its members. 25. group practice. An associate practice is a legal agreement in which the physicians a. c. pension plans for its members. d. The members of a professional corporation are known as a. guardian ad litem. b. corporation. 23. lawyers. c. all of the above. all of the above. b. physician. licensed caregiver. insurance company. d. b. board of directors. d. physicians. shareholders.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY b. b. group practice. 26. 24. 28. including debts. d. eliminate the need for decision making by employees. solo practice. profit-sharing for its members. 29. make the physician responsible for all decisions. c. b. . The purpose of a chain of command for healthcare decisions is to a. c. c. 27. A business operation of a medical practice in which two or more physicians are responsible for the actions of each. b. avoid lawsuits. d. The ultimate decision for healthcare rests with the a. guardian ad litem. A medical practice consisting of three or more physicians who practice the same specialty and share expenses and income is a(n) a. is called a/an a. c. c. scope of practice.

b.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY d. none of the above. An increase in malpractice insurance premiums has caused a. 37. are indigent. 35. are emergencies. The contract for services with a physician includes a. d. b. An indigent patient is one who a. medical assistants. a physician receives payment from both the insurance company and the patient. d. physicians to withdraw from caring for more patients. c. Fee splitting occurs when a. 32. physician assistants. income in a group practice is shared. 33. has AIDS. 30. d. a hospital is paid in proportion to business received for holders of the franchise. 34. one physician pays another physician for the referral of patients. is abandoned by the physician. c. 36. b. c. A physician can turn away patients that a. medical transcriptionists. Partnership with several partners. pharmacists. they have not agreed to treat. c. truthful disclosure of conditions by the patient. physicians to refuse more patients. c. . a and c. Corporation b. Which form of medical practice ends with the death of the owner? a. d. b. Associate practice d. physicians to charge more for services than in the past. b. refuse to treat patients. have AIDS. Physicians may a. b. an agreement to pay for services for as long as they are received by the patient. not refuse to treat patients. protection from lawsuits for the corporation. except in emergencies. d. an agreement to provide services by the doctor. Allied health professionals who are certified include the following except a. Solo practice 31. withdraw from a contract if the patient is uncooperative. all of the above. d. c. c. b.

41. punitive damages. borrowed servant doctrine. when the injury occurs.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY c. Monetary awards by a court to a person who has been harmed in an especially malicious or willful way are a. that bases the recovery of damages by the plaintiff on the amount of fault of the defendant. Deliberate concealment of the facts from a patient is a. wrongful damages. assumption of risk. d. 40. . d. The most common defense provided by the defendant in a case is called a. negligence. nominal damages. denial defense. d. has an emergency. d. comparative negligence. 39. borrowed servant. c. fraud. 44. 43. c. Assumption of risk is the legal defense a. c. comparative negligence. compensatory damages. To win a wrongful-death case. and no damages may be recovered. that prevents the plaintiff from recovering damages if he or she accepts a risk associated with the activity. used by the defendant in a case to prove innocence from injury. b. the plaintiff must prove a. When an employer lends an employee to someone else. is unable to pay for medical care. d. b. 38. nominal damages. d. two years after the injury. affirmative defense. 42. b. b. c. c. b. that determines that the patient was fully or partly at fault for the injury. this is called a. malpractice. b. b. liability. c. fraud. when the plaintiff sues the defendant. c. respondeat superior. proximate cause of death. when the injury is discovered. The statute of limitations for a case begins to run a. d.

d. and weight loss may be signs of a. c. 46. pictures of bruises or injuries. b. d. Which of the following is not a reportable communicable disease? a. Failure to report a suspected case of child abuse may result in a charge of a. physical abuse. tuberculosis c. hepatitis A vaccine c. chickenpox d. c. d. may be sued by the parents of the child for defamation. contributory negligence. felony. psychological abuse. may not be sued by the parents of the child for defamation. c. and rubella d. 49. may file an initial oral report followed by a written report. abandonment. verbal abuse. c. gonorrhea 47. polio virus vaccine. b. live b. borrowed servant doctrine. 52. A physician reporting possible child abuse a. exploitation. b. mumps. exploitation. tetanus b. d. a and c 48. . c.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY d. 51. 45. child abuse. manslaughter. abandonment. Evidence gathered in an abuse case may include a. b. pain in the genital area. Which of the following are required by the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986? a. b and c. misdemeanor. b. measles. Res judicata means a. 50. d. Injuries. physical abuse. Elder abuse may legally include the following except a. fractures. the thing speaks for itself. the thing has been decided. let the master answer.

urine specimens. 59. all of the above. d. Operational Safety and Harassment Agency. b. c. 1 year usually at the employee¶s expense. . free health care to all employees. a drug-free workplace is maintained. 56. 53. childcare facilities for employees. c. c. b. a drug support service is provided for employees. clothing. Chain of evidence refers to all of the following except a. minimum wage. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 regulates employee benefits such as a. 58. Through the Drug-Free Workplace Act. EEOC. COBRA of 1985 provides that a company with 20 or more employees must provide extended health care insurance to terminated employees for up to a. 18 months at the employer¶s expense. d. b. bi-yearly physical exams and mammograms for employees. 57. Rules to protect health care workers from bloodborne pathogens are regulated by the a.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY b. 55. and time. employees will be notified of violations before termination. d. The Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973 requires that any company with 25 employees must provide a. clothing evidence that is clean and dry. documentation in the medical record of date and time evidence was obtained. d. 54. HMO. OSHA. date. clearly labeled evidence with name. d. an HMO alternative to regular group insurance. c. employees may not use drugs on the premises. c. c. b. OSHA represents the a. c. d. b. 1 year at the employer¶s expense. b. payment for overtime work. Organization for Statutes and Health Agency. EPA. b. Occupational Security and Hiring Act. Occupational Safety and Health Act. employers contracting to provide goods or services to the federal government must certify that a. evidence that has been kept in locked storage until required. 18 months usually at the employee¶s expense. d.

The purpose of a medical record is to a. hours that may be worked. date of spouse¶s birth. provide the medical picture and record of the patient from birth to death. c. A medical record ordered by the court to be available during a malpractice case is a. c. record of divorces. proper filing and storage. 61. d. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act. disclosed only to the judge. accuracy. admitting diagnosis. The medical record must include information about patient care such as a. c. b. provide data and statistics on health matters. 65. date of birth. confidentiality. gender. c. b. d. Social Security Act. c. and c. 66. d. disclosed. b. b. d. c. Medical record management requires a. b. 64. d. 62. Federal Insurance Contribution Act. provide the billing record of the patient from admission to the practice. b and c. subpoenaed. disclosed only to the jury. a.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY c. The disadvantage of chronological documentation is . b. date of marriage. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 makes it illegal for an employer to discriminate on the basis of a. all of the above. 63. 60. d. physician examination report and documentation of complications. c. age. b. 67. nationality. Fair Labor Standards Act. d. Patient information in the medical record should include a. all of the above. b. d. discharge summary and follow-up care. The origin of the current unemployment insurance program for employees who are unable to work through no fault of their own is the a. race.

A national source of reports of actions taken against health care providers. A number assigned to an employer for purposes of identification is the a. b. c. 68. The individual or group that provides or pays for the patient¶s medial care is the a. d. c. Office of Civil Rights. Federal reimbursement guidelines require that all medical records be completed within a. health care plan. health care plan. b. social security number. c. b. covered entity. employer identifier standard. erase and write the correction. employer identification number. c. erase and write the correction. d. objective data may be missing. A health care organization covered under HIPAA regulations is a a. 15 days following the patient¶s discharge from a hospital. b. 71. medical problems may go undiscovered. patient. c. b. draw a line through the error and write the correction underneath. b. 30 days following the patient¶s discharge from a hospital. d. HMO. and vendors who are in noncompliance or performing fraudulent activities is the . A private or public health care entity that facilitates the processing of nonstandard electronic transactions into HIPAA transactions is a a. 72. adding the date and initials of the person making the correction. 45 days following the patient¶s discharge from a hospital. practitioners. vital signs are not done. covered entity. d.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY a. wireless local area network. subjective data may be missing. d. 73. 70. 69. draw a line through the error and write the correction above with the date and initials of the person making the correction. covered entity. health care plan. PPO. 74. b. c. c. 60 days following the patient¶s discharge from a hospital. The accepted method of correcting medical record errors is a. d. d. clearinghouse. privacy number.

abuse. 79. The reasonable effort that a health care provider uses to limit disclosure of patient information is referred to as a. may not sue over privacy violations. HIPAA law stipulates that the patient a. provide easier access of medical records for the patient. 75. simplify the administration of health insurance. b. . all of the above. sanctions. b. b. d. research. The original intent of HIPAA is to a. c. a. misdemeanor. 76. c. c. local criminal offense. b and c. d. b. b. and education is called a. confidentiality. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. The objective of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1998 is to a. Violation of HIPAA is a a. and c. protect medical records and billing. federal criminal offense. c. b. d. HIPAA allows all of the following except a. physicians or hospitals to share patient information with each other to treat the patient. all of the above. and waste in health care. c. the privacy rule. wireless local area networks. privacy rule. medical informatics. d. 75. 78. state criminal offense. b. b. complete disclosure of patient information by an EMT. The use of communication and information in medical practice. c. promote medical savings accounts. d. combat fraud. protect computerized medical records and billing. minimum necessary standard. b. 80. covered entities. Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank. c. d. d. Office of Civil Rights. 77. disclosure to clergy of patient admission to a facility. may sue over privacy violations.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY a.

d. The earliest code of ethics governing the conduct of those practicing medicine is a. b. American Medical Association Code of Ethics. six years. d. 87. c. b. d. health care professions. always ethical. b. ethics. ethics. 86. ten years. b. and c. Suggestions for physicians and physician groups when implementing HIPAA include a. the Hippocratic Oath. the Declaration of Geneva. appoint and train a privacy officer. Issues discussed in the context of advanced medical technology are called a. b. may register a complaint to the government. Signed authorizations and any agreements with patients restricting disclosure of PHI should be retained for a period of a. common sense. Code of Hammurabi. 84. 83. d. law. b. informatics. . Applied ethics relates to a. five years. the lifetime of the patient. a. d. religious beliefs. c. implement a notice of privacy practices. 81. Illegal acts are a. c. bioethics.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY c. all of the above. b. The branch of philosophy relating to morals or moral principles is a. c. c. adopt procedures for handling patient requests. 82. frequently ethical. applied ethics. social utility. usually unethical. b. bioethics. 85. c. telemedicine. d. d. c. a and c. d.

c. An allegation of a criminal act by a physician requires that the a. and staff to a. Semmelweis. c. review difficult ethical issues. b. is accused of unethical behavior or conduct. Nuremberg Code. Hippocrates. d. 89. decide who gets donated organs. The AAMA has developed a code of ethics for the a. physician be arrested for the crime. information technologist. Declaration of Helsinki.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY 88. Code of Hammurabi. does not renew his or her license to practice. Declaration of Geneva. act be reported to the state licensing board or governmental agency b. families. 92. c. anesthesiologist. d. d. The loss of a physician¶s license is called a. Nuremberg. c. 93. nurse. who wrote a statement of principles for his medical stu-dents to follow. criticizes the AMA. 95. b. physician be expelled from the AMA. c. all of the above. The father of medicine. c. revocation. b. is accused of unlawful behavior. b. The issue of a warning or censure by the American Medical Association to a physician occurs when the physician a. medical assistant. The ethics committee of a hospital serves in an advisory capacity to patients. determine when care will be discontinued. d. 91. The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act . b. d. The concern for the human subject in medical experimentation is the result of the a. disbarment. c. expulsion. d. Hammurabi. 90. b. d. 94. all of the above. allegation. is a.

first-come. lottery. b. In the stage of human development between the second and twelfth week. legitimacy of the procedure. c. artificial insemination donor. 99. Medicare. c.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY a. AID is the same as a. artificial insemination disorder. justice. legitimacy of the child and its support. permits competent adults to have organs donated by their parents. d. time from conception to birth. b. b. the developing life is a. 97. . d. b. permits competent adults to allow posthumous use of their organs through a written document. c. c. time after birth. c. d. first served. United Network for Organ Sharing. an embryo. time before conception. permits minors to allow posthumous use of organs through a type of written document. Medicaid. acquired immune deficiency syndrome. d. b. a fetus. a zygote. developed an allocation formula. 102. medical insurance. d. forbids the sale of organs. 96. 100. requires all persons to be organ donors. all of the above. d. autoimmune disorder. the possibility of battery by the parent. c. viable. allows the sale of organs. b. d. funds organ transplantation. c. 101. social utility. The National Organ Transplant Law of 1984 a. Giving organs to patients who will benefit the most is called a. b. 98. b. c. Kidney transplants are fully funded by a. The gestational period is the a. The most common legal and ethical concern related to AID is a.

110. surrogate mother to be paid for medical expenses. handled the same as adoption papers. conception. b. c. 109. Roe v. c. b. Roe. c. Griswold v. rarely increases the chance of a pregnancy. ovum and sperm combining inside the female body. Wade. contraception. Sterilization requires . confidential. parents to pay for the child. c. d. all of the above. c. b. is guaranteed by a. Connecticut.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY d. d. b. d. Any action taken to prevent pregnancy from occurring is a. lack of consent by the potential mother. contraception. sterilization. b. fertilization. AID records are a. Griswold v. Surrogate motherhood allows the a. The use of fertility drugs a. including the right to an abortion. growth of the fertilized ovum in the laboratory. c. does not change the chance of multiple births. b and c. 103. hysterectomy. d. 105. In-vitro fertilization occurs as a result of a. d. A woman¶s right to privacy. not a public record. d. 106. c. implantation of the fertilized ovum in the uterus. Roe v. b. surrogate mother to keep the child. 108. d. 107. b. The process of medically altering reproductive organs to prevent the possibility of producing children is a. Texas. decreases the chance of multiple births. sterilization. increases the chance of multiple births. 104. all of the above. vasectomy.

b. Wade decision included all of the following except a. an automatic life sentence. consent from the spouse. allowed with authorization of the minor and parent or guardian in some states. d. b. . c. prohibited all abortions except to save the life of the mother. c. 116. 114. only regulated the medical conditions under which an abortion may be performed. b and c. induced abortion. sterilization of criminals. b. c. Recommendations from the Roe v. first semester abortions should be performed in hospitals. c. written consent. b. d. spontaneous abortion. Voluntary sterilization of unmarried minors is a. d. legal. Wade said that during the third trimester of pregnancy. 113. sterilization of certain persons to assure they will not pass defective genes to their children. c. forbidden in many states. a mentally competent adult. Initially. guardian. d. viability of the fetus is not required. b. b and c. Eugenic sterilization is a. c. a and b. b. stillbirth. c. d. 115. respondeat superior. guardian ad litem.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY a. did not require the physician performing an abortion to be licensed. the father¶s consent should be obtained. especially those who are incarcerated for life. b. the woman should receive counseling before having the abortion. 117. b. all of the above. common in most states. d. d. the common practice of sterilization of the mentally retarded. assault and battery. Roe v. Castration or sterilization of another person without legal permission is considered to be a. The termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is viable is called a. 112. did not require a viable fetus to be protected until the seventh month. 111. the state a. a misdemeanor. A person appointed by the court to speak on behalf of an incapacitated party is called the a. c.

conscience. seek an outside medical opinion. EKG. d. 120. b. Irreversible coma includes all of the following criteria except a. gradually discontinuing feeding. EEG. 124. The intentional killing of the terminally ill person is called a. b. conscience.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY d. opinion. c. c. EEG with repeat in twenty-four hours. Withdrawing life-sustaining treatment refers to a. EKG with repeat in twenty-four hours. all of the above. talk with the religious counselor. Before terminating a life-support system. d. c. religious conviction. Patients have the legal right to a. refuse fluids. An employee can abstain from assisting in an abortion procedure as a matter of a. no reflexes. 119. withdrawing versus withholding treatment. refuse food. c. lack of eye movement and deep tendon reflexes. active euthanasia versus passive euthanasia. gradually discontinuing ventilation. c. b. b. d. ordinary versus extraordinary means. refuse treatment. all of the above. b. a physician should a. seek the advice of the family. Ethical considerations of the terminally ill patient include a. seek the advice of a lawyer. . 122. d. The use of Harvard Criteria for declaration of an irreversible coma includes an a. 123. d. active euthanasia. c. d. 121. a and b. not starting artificial methods of maintaining life. spontaneous movements or breathing. d. unreceptive and unresponsive to painful stimuli. with fixed dilated pupils. discontinuing artificial methods of maintaining life. b. b. 118. 125. passive euthanasia. c. b.

127. any health care worker. there is value and dignity to every human life. 131. b and c. b. 126. A treatment or procedure that is morally required is considered a. b. all of the above. two consequences: one desired. b. hospice care. d. b. both desired. Advice regarding the course of action taken for a dying loved one can be given by a. 128. . appropriate. Active euthanasia a. hospice. Dr. b and c. individuals should have the right to determine the outcome of their lives. only one consequence: undesired. all of the above. both undesired. ordinary. c. 129. c. modern technology may find a cure for a terminal disease. A facility with a homelike atmosphere where terminally ill patients find comfort until death is called a a. 130. both a and b. two consequences.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY c. d. violates the medical profession¶s ethics. c. patient-assisted suicide. d. hostel. b. c. c. is illegal. two consequences. d. quality-of-life issues. The double-effect doctrine recognizes that an action may have a. Justifications for euthanasia include a. b. Elisabeth K bler-Ross is known for her study of a. the physician. a nurse. c. 132. b. d. one undesired. d. c. d. there is no certainty regarding death. functional living index. none of the above. d. stages of death and dying. hospital. extraordinary.

. emotional support. all of the above. relief from pain. d. The focus of hospice care is a. b.HS 130 Study Guide for Final ANSWER KEY 133. comfort measures. c.

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