Volume 1
01
02
07
08
09
10
11
Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Agriculture
Biology
Combined Mathematics
Higher Mathematics
Curriculum
Assessment
&
Evaluation
Teaching
Learning
NETS
ISBN 9789556680287
Financial Aid
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 ii 
Anura Edirisinghe
Commissioner General of Examinations
2010.06.22
Research and Development Branch
Department of Examinations
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 iii 
Guidance
Computer typesetting
Cover page
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 iv 
Table of Contents
Page No.
Part I
General information about the Examination  1
Part II
Structure of question papers and nature 
Part III
Prototype questions  7
(01) Physics  9
(02) Chemistry  29
(07) Mathematics  47
(08) Agricultural Science  93
(09) Biology  110
(10) Combined Mathematics  122
(11) Higher Mathematics  169
Annex 01 (Sinhala)  184
Annex 01 (Tamil)  199
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
v
PART I
Introduction
The G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination is the nal certication examination of senior
secondary education in Sri Lanka. Even though this is conducted mainly as a certifying examination
since selection for Universities, other Higher Educational Institutions and Colleges of Education are
made on the basis of the results of this examination, this is used also as a selection examination.
Moreover the results of the examination are also regarded a basic qualication to obtain middle
level employment. The G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination is held under the subject streams,
Biological Sciences, Physical sciences, Commerce and Arts. This is held in all three media Sinhala,
Tamil and English.
2.
School Candidates
It is essential that a candidate has completed 80% of attendance out of the time advanced
level classes were held at the time of applying for the examination.
The principal of each school should submit applications with information about the name
of the school candidates who have completed the requirements to apply for the examination,
the subjects offered and the medium. Here strict attention should be paid to ll the name of
candidates correctly as indicated in the birth cetiticate and correctly enter the subjects, subject
numbers and the medium.
2.2
Private Candidates
Applicants who have not appeared as school candidates previously but appearing for the
rst time as a private candidate and those candidates who wish to appear by changing even
one subject offerd as a previous sitting, should have registered in the respectire Provincial
Department of Education to fulll the requirements of assessment and projects implemented
as an alternative to the School Based Assesment programme. They must join the school they
are assigned at registration complete the assessment and projects, and a copy of the certicate
issued by the principal of such school to that effect should be sent to the Provincial Department
of Education, and another copy should be sent to the Department of Examinations. Applicants
who are over 21 years of age are exempt from this requirement. The applicants who are below
21 years of age, and not registered are not eligible to apply for the examination.
At the time applications are called from private candidates through a newspaper
advertisement published by the Department of Examinations the applicants who wish to appear
for the examination, should send to the Department of Examinations before the stipulated
date mentioned in the newspaper advertisement, a duly perfected application with the receipt
obtained on payment of the required examination fees by reqistered post.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
1
3.
Selection of Subjects
This examination will be held from 2011 according to the ciruler (annex 1) No 2009/16 dated
18.05.2009 issued by the Ministry of Education regarding G.C.E. (A.L) subject combinations and
the subject combination for university entrance.
The new syllabi for G.C.E. (A.L) were introduced for Grade 12 in 2009 and G.C.E. (A.L)
examination based on these syllabi will be held for the rst time in 2011. According to the provisions
contained in the circular No. 2009/16 mentioned above candidates should select the subjects relevant
to the streams of Biological Sciences, Physical Sciences, Commerce and Arts.
Candidates should appear for three main subjects for the G.C.E. (A.L) Examination and in
addition the pupils who wish to apply for university entrance should pass in the "Common General
Examination" paper too. Even though not considered for university entrance, pupils have the option
to sit the "General English" paper too.
3.1
Subject Numbers
Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Agricultural Science
Biology
Combined Mathematics
Higher Mathematics
Civil Technology
Mechanical Technology
Electrical, Electronics and Information Technology
Food Technology
Agriculture Technology
Bio Resource Technology
Information & Communication Technology
Economics
Geography
Political Science
Logic and Scientic Method
History of Sri Lanka
History of India
History of Europe
History of Modern
Home Economics
Communication & Media Studies
Business Statistics
Business Studies
Accountancy
01
02
07
08
09
10
11
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
25 A
25 B
25 C
28
29
31
32
33
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
2
Buddhism
Hinduism
Christianity
Islam
Buddhist Civilization
Hindu Civilization
Islam Civilization
Greek and Roman Civilization
Christian Civilization
Art
Dancing (Indigenous)
Dancing (Bharatha)
Oriental Music
Carnatic Music
Western Music
Drama and Theatre (Sinhala)
Drama and Theatre (Tamil)
Drama and Theatre (English)
Sinhala
Tamil
English
Pali
Sanskrit
Arabic
Malay
French
German
Russian
Hindi
Chinese
Japanese
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
71
72
73
74
75
78
79
81
82
83
84
86
87
For the G.C.E. (A.L) Examination three main subjects out of the above subjects in terms
of circular No. 2009/16 issued by the Ministry of Education can be selected. Besides these
main subjects candidates must sit the following two subjects.
*
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
3
4.
Deciding on Grades
According to the raw score obtained for each subject grades will be determined in the following
mannar.
Mark Range
75  100
65  74
50  64
35  49
00  34
5.
Grade
A
B C S F 
Distinction Pass
Very Good Pass
Credit Pass
Ordinary Pass
Fail
Objectives
The objective of this exercise is to measure skills, competencies etc. of the pupils studying
in grades 12 & 13, that cannot be measured at G.C.E. (A.L) examination, during the teaching
learning process and identifying the weaknesses and strengths of pupils, and if there are weak
pupils to implement feedback programmes in respect of such pupils. Under this arrangement
assessment is carried out in respect of the subjects learnt in the classroom while two projects
carried out by pupils are also assessed.
5.2
Level of competency
Excellent Level Competency
High Level Competency
Credit Level Competency
Near Competency
Not reached to Competency Level
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
4
5.2.2
5.2.3
Assessment of Project
The Projects are subjected to assessment under 05 criteria and the teacher in charge
of the project/project committee, shall study how pupils have performed according to
each criteria and award marks.
A total of 20 marks is awarded for a project and the score is converted out of 10,
which is transmitted to the Department of Examinations.
The competency level decided on according to the nal average marks of these
two projects, is also entered in the G.C.E.(A.L) result sheet according to the levels
mentioned in 5.2.1 (d)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
5
Part II
Paper II
Paper I
* Nature of questions
Number of questions
50
4/6
02. Chemistry
50
50
2/3
07. Mathematics
3, 4
10
10
10
10
5/7
50
50
4/6
09. Biology
50
50
4/6
3, 4
10
10
5/7
10
10
5/7
3, 4
10
10
5/7
10
10
5/7
5/7
Number of questions
50
Number of questions
* Nature of questions
Part C
* Nature of questions
Time (hours)
Number of questions
01. Physics
Subject and
Subject Number
* Nature of questions
Number of questions
Part B
Number of options
Part A
* Nature of questions
Part B
Time (hours)
Part A
2/3
* Nature of questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Multiple Choice
Other objective
Structured
Semi Structured
Essay
Practical
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
6
Part III
Prototype Questions
The G.C.E.(A.L) Examination is the nal cetifying examination held at the end of secondary
education. Since pupils are selected for universities and institutions such as other Higher Education
Institutions and Colleges of Education too, this embodies the features of a selection examination.
Accordingly when framing question papers for G.C.E(A.L) examination, extra attention should be
paid to the features an achievement test should have and since pupils are selected to universities and other
Higher Education institutions too, on the results of this examination, attention has also been paid to this
aspect.
Accordingly, for the purpose of evaluating pupil achievement assay type tests and objective
type tests are used mainly in the written examination system. The subjectivity of the examiner affects an
essay type answer. In the case of an objective type of question, since there is only one correct answer it is
completely devoid of subjectivity. More attention of the present examination is paid to the type of questions
aimed at providing short structured answers, that are half way between these two extremes. Through a
structured question the answer that should be provided is strictly controlled within certain limits laid down
in the question itself. Accordingly since consistency among examiners in awarding marks can be assured,
objective and structured type of questions receive prominence in the examination sphere.
Accordingly in the drafting of question papers in the G.C.E. (A.L) examination, essay type questions
are used, only when necessary and more attention will be paid to framing objective type of questions.
Moreover in drafting question papers of G.C.E.(A.L) examination attention has already been paid to framing
questions of the type that measures advanced mental skills such as comprehension, application, analysis,
synthesis and evaluation without merely depending on memory. Questions are framed in relation to practical
events as much as possible and they are purported to measure the skills such as understanding something
clearly, applying the principles they have learnt to other similar situations, solving problems, argument,
presenting new suggestions / plans, comparisons, proper presenting of the language, and expressing ideas
clearly.
In this Part III along with the structure of question papers and the method of awarding marks,
prototype questions have been included, but they are not model question papers. As such, when drafting
question papers depending on the number of parts included in questions, the method of assigning weightage
to questions may change as appropriate, according to the subject matter used as the basis for framing
questions.
In addition to the prototype questions mentioned here, the Commissioner General of Examinations
reserves the right to include, depending on the circumstances in the question papers for G.C.E. (A.L)
examination, other types of questions too used for objective and essay type tests and any other type of
questions including all types of questions mentioned on page 08.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
7
Objective Tests
Supply Type
Selection Type
Matching Type
Alternative Type
MCQ Type
Question Type
Incomplete Statement Type
Negative Type
Combined Response Type
Best Answer Type
Multiple Response Type
Common Response Type
Substitution Type
Double Statement Type
Assertion & Reason Type
Essay Tests
Essay Type Questions
Open Response Type
Controlled Response
Type
Structuring
by using
subsections
Structuring by
information
provided
Structuring
by function
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
8
01  Physics
Paper I 
Time : 02 hours.
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.
Paper II 
Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay and Essay.
Part A  Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 10 marks for each question  altogether 40 marks.
Part B  Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered.
Each question carries 15 marks  altogether 60 marks.
Total marks for Paper II = 100
= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
(g = 10 N kg1)
1.
The quantity having dimensions equal to the dimensions of Plancks constant is,
(3) angular frequency.
(1) energy.
(2) power.
(4) torque.
(5) angular momentum.
2.
When the absolute temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, the root mean square speed of its atoms
will increase by a factor of,
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 3
(5) 4
(1) 2
3.
4.
A block of ice of mass 1.5 kg, at 0 C is heated at a steady rate of 50 W. If the specic latent heat of
fusion of ice is 3.0 105 J kg1, the time in hours, for the ice to melt completly is,
(1) 150.00
(2) 100.00
(3) 3.75
(4) 3.50
(5) 2.50
5.
Consider the following statements made about characteristics of light produced by a laser.
(A) It is electromagnetic
(B) It is coherent
(C) It is monochromatic
Of the above statements,
(1) only (A) is true.
(2) only (B) is true.
(3) only (A) and (B) are true.
(4) only (B) and (C) are true.
(5) all (A), (B) and (C) are true.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
9
6.
7.
No net resultant force acts on a given object. Consider the following statements made about the
object.
(A) It may be at rest.
(B) It may be moving with uniform velocity.
(C) It may be moving along a circular path.
Of the above statements,
(1) only (A) is true.
(2) only (C) is true.
(3) only (A) and (B) are true.
(4) only (A) and (C) are true.
(5) all (A), (B) and (C) are true.
8.
An immersion heater boils a certain quantity of water in time t1. Another immersion heater boils the
same quantity of water in time t2. If both heaters are used together, they will boil the same quantity
of water in time, (Neglect the heat capacities of the containers and heat loss to the souroundings.)
t1 + t2
t t
1
(1) 2 (t1 + t2)
(2) t1 + t2
(3) 1 2
(4) t1 t2
(5) t t
t +t
1 2
9.
10.
(5) 6.00 J
R
B
11.
When a metallic bar is heated from 0 C to 100 C, its length increases by 0.05%. The linear expansivity
of the metal is,
(1) 5 103 C1 (2) 5 104 C1 (3) 5 105 C1 (4) 5 106 C1 (5) 5 107 C1
12.
A block is in static equilibrium on an inclined surface. Which of the following represents the
correct free body force diagram?
(1)
(2)
(4)
(5)
13.
(3)
The total magnifying power of a compound microscope is 15. The magnication of objective is 5. If
the nal image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, the focal length of the eye piece is,
25
25
25 cm
25 cm
(5)
(4) 10 cm
(3) 3 cm
(2)
(1) 25 cm
14
2
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 10 
14.
An object starting from rest moves rst 50 m at constant acceleration, next 200 m with uniform
velocity and nally comes to rest after travelling a further 30 m with constant deceleration. The total
time taken is 30 seconds. The maximum velocity attained by the object is,
(1) 12.0 m s1
(2) 8.7 m s1
(3) 6.7 m s1
(4) 6.0 m s1
(5) 2.7 m s1
15.
The equation of motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by a = 4x, where a
is the acceleration and x is the displacement. What is the length of a simple pendulum that oscillates
with the same frequency as that of the simple harmonic motion?
(1) 3.0 m
(2) 2.5 m
(3) 2.0 m
(4) 1.5 m
(5) 0.4 m
16.
I
1
4V
1
1
17.
A particle is moving from a point X to a point Y in a gravitatinal eld. If there are no other forces
acting on the particle, which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the change in the
gravitational potential energy?
(A) It depends on the path between X and Y.
(B) It is equal to the change in the kinetic energy.
(C) It does not depend on the mass of the particle.
(3) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) only
(1) (A) only
(5) all (A), (B) and (C)
(4) (B) and (C) only
18.
A stone dropped from rest reaches the ground in 8 seconds. The distance travelled by the stone
in the last second is,
(5) 70 m
(4) 75 m
(3) 160 m
(2) 245 m
(1) 320 m
19.
A charge +Q is located at point X in an isolated space as shown in gure. Which one of the following
statements is incorrect?
Y
(1) The magnitude of the electric eld intensity at Y and at Z is equal.
r
(2) The potentials at Y and at Z are equal.
+Q
(3) The potential at Y is positive.
X
(4) No work is done in taking a charge from Y to Z.
r
(5) The electric eld at Z acts along ZX.
Z
20.
21.
d
2
air
75
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 11 
Fig (2)
Fig (1)
C
B
22.
(1) 0
(2)
(4) 3m
2d
(5)
( )
( )
dd
3
2d
(3) m
23.
250 J of work is done on the gas during an adiabatic compression of 5 moles of a perfect gas. The
change in the internal energy will be,
(2) 150 J
(3) 250 J
(4) 250 J
(5) 750 J
(1) 50 J
24.
The graph shows the variation of an electric potential (V) with distance (x).
The variation of the corresponding electric eld intensity (E) with x is best
represented by
A B C
(1)
25.
B C
(2)
A B
(3)
A B
x
A B C
(4)
(5)
90N
60
10 kg
26.
A small sh at 0.4 m below the surface of a lake is viewed through a convex lens of focal length 3 m.
The lens is kept at 0.2 m above the water surface such that the sh lies on the main axis of the lens. The
position of the sh seen by the observer is, (The refractive index of water is 4/3.)
(1) virtual and 0.6 m below the lens.
(2) real and 0.6 m below the lens.
(3) virtual and 0.6 m above the lens.
(4) real and 0.43 m below the lens.
(5) virtual and 3 m below the lens.
27.
X 2m
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 12 
28.
Which of the following gives the correct logic values for A, B and C
respectively for F to be 1?
(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 0, 1, 0
(3) 1, 0, 0
(4) 1, 0, 1
(5) 1, 1, 0
A
B
29.
You are provided with necessary instruments to nd resonance lengths for air columns closed at one
end and opened at both ends, using 250 Hz, 300 Hz, 400 Hz and 500 Hz frequency generators. If the
velocity of sound in air is 330 m s1 the shortest resonance length will be,
(1) 8.25 cm
(2) 16.5 cm
(3) 33 cm
(4) 66 cm
(5) 132 cm
30.
Two objects A and B touching each other as shown in the gure are
released from rest on a smooth inclined plane. The force exerted by B on
A is,
(1) 0
(2) 15 N
(3) 35 N
(4) 50 N
(5) 100 N
31.
33.
3 kg
30
A tiny sphere of mass m made of a material with density d is dropped in a tall jar lled with glycerine
of density . When the sphere acquires terminal velocity, the magnitude of the viscous force acting
on the sphere is,
d
mgd
mg
(2)
(3) mg 1 (4) mg 1 +
(5) mg
(1)
d
32.
7 kg
5 h2 r 2 g
8
(5)
5 h2 r2 g
4
l, M, T, and E denote the length, mass, tension, density and Youngs modulus respectively of
a stretched string.
The ratio, Speed of transverse waves
for the string is given by
Speed of longitudinal waves
Tl
EM
(1)
(2)
T
EM
(3)
EM
T
(4)
Tl
EM
(5)
EM
Tl
34.
In a potentiometer experiment the galvanometer shows no deection when a cell is connected across
60 cm of the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a resistance of 6 , a balance point is
obtained at a length of 50 cm of the wire. The internal resistance of the cell is,
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 1.2
(4) 1.4
(5) 1.5
35.
Water from a faucet of a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 m s1. The
crosssectional area of the tap is 104 m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream
of water and that the ow is steady. The cross  sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the tap is,
(1) 5 105 m2
(2) 2.5 105 m2 (3) 5.8 105 m2 (4) 6.7 104 m2 (5) 1 104 m2
36.
A mass m is placed on a freely rotating table at a distance x from the centre. The maximum frictional
force between the mass and the table is mg. The tables angular velocity is then steadily increased.
The angular velocity of the table at which the mass will begin to slide is given by,
g
mg
mgx
g
g
(1) 2x
(2)
(3) 2x
(4) 2
(5) 3m x
x
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 13 
37.
The focal length of a concave lens is 25 cm and the focal length of a convex lens is 30 cm. They are
placed in contact to make a combined lens. Which of the following defect of vision can be corrected
by using a lens having a focal length equal to the focal length of the combination?
(1) Inability to see objects clearly beyond 150 cm
(2) Inability to see objects clearly closer than 150 cm
(3) Inability to see objects clearly beyond 30 cm
(4) Inability to see objects clearly closer than 30 cm
(5) Inability to see objects clearly closer than 28 cm
38.
The decay chain that leads from 92 U to 82 Pb consists of a series of alpha decays and beta decays.
The number of alpha particles emitted in such a decay is,
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
(5) 10
39.
238
(1)
206
(2)
(3)
(4)
Fig (1)
y
t
(5)
40.
When a source of sound is moving in air with the speed faster than the speed of sound, the shape of
the wave front produced would be a,
(1) plane
(2) sphere
(3) cylinder
(4) cone
(5) parabola
41.
(2)
t0
(3)
t0
t0
(4)
(5)
t0
t0
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 14 
42.
43.
S
N
N
North pole
of a strong
magnet
R
S
I
Q
B
44.
Consider the following statements made about an n  channel junction eld effect transistor.
(A) The transistor always operates with gate  source, voltage (VGS) positive.
(B) The drain current through the transistor decreases when VGS is reduced.
(C) The width of the depletion region controls the current through the transistor.
Of the statement above,
(1) only (A) is true.
(2) only (B) is true.
(4) only (B) and (C) are true.
(3) only (A) and (C) are true.
(5) all (A), (B) and (C) are true.
45.
(4)
0
0
1
1
R
0
1
0
1
S
0
1
0
1
R
0
0
1
1
Qnew
0
0
0
Qold
Qnew
0
0
1
ambiguous
(2) S
0
0
1
1
(5) S
0
0
1
1
R
0
1
0
1
R
0
1
0
1
Qnew
Qold
0
1
ambiguous
S Q
R Q
(3) S
0
0
1
1
R
0
1
0
1
Qnew
Qold
0
1
Qold
Qnew
Qold
1
0
ambiguous
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 15 
46.
X  rays are produced in an X  ray tube by a target potential of 62.0 kV. If an electron looses one half
of its incoming energy after one collision the minimum wavelength of the X  ray photon produced is
(hc = 1240 eVnm)
(1) 4 102 nm (2) 6 102 nm (3) 8 102 nm (4) 4 103 nm (5) 8 103 nm
47.
An atom of mass m travels opposite to a laser beam whose wavelength is with a constant velocity.
The change in speed of the atom, if it absorbs a single photon from the laser beam is,
h
h
(1) 4 h
(2) 2 h
(3) h
(4)
(5)
4m
2m
m
m
m
48.
eRb
2am
, to the right.
(4)
eRb
, to the left.
2am
(5) 0.
49.
A proton (p) is projected along the axis of a uniform positively charged ring
as shown in the gure. Consider the following velocity (v)  time (t) graphs.
v
v
v
0
p
+
(C)
(A)
(B)
If the gravitational forces are neglected which of the above graph/s best represents the variation of
the velocity (v) of the proton with time t?
(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) all (A), (B) and (C)
50.
c2
3 b0
(5)
c b
30
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 16 
01  Physics
*
*
Paper II
In order to determine the length of a side () of the cube with an accurency better then 1%,
what laboratory instrument would you use?
(ii) Write down an expression for the volume of the glass cube in terms of .
(b) In order to nd the mass of the cube using the principle of moments, you are provided with the
following items.
metre rule
knife edge
20 g, 50 g and 100 g weights, pieces of strings
(i)
In order to determine the mass of the cube with highest accuracy, which weight would you
select out of the weights given above? Give reason for your selection.
weight
reason
(ii) Firstly, the metre rule has to be placed on the knife edge. How would you nd out the position
of the metre rule, which has to be placed on the knife edge?
(iii) Draw a labeled diagram of the setup that you would use to nd out the mass. Use only the items
given above.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 17 
(iv) Let mass of the glass cube and the mass of the selected weight be m and M respectively. Mark
the length measurements (1, 2) that have to be obtained on the diagram, drawn above in
(b) (iii) and write down an expression relating m, M, 1 and 2.
(v) Using expressions written in (a) (ii) and (b) (iv) above, write down an expression for the
density (dg) of glass.
(c) (i)
If a beaker of water is provided, the density of glass (dg) could be determined without
calculating the volume of the cube. Keeping the distance from the knife edge to the glass
cube unchanged, what is the extra measurement (3) that you have to obtain in order to
determine dg.
water
thin glass
tube
mercury
^a& How do you know that the trapped air volume is saturated with water vapour?
^b& Let h1 be the length of the mercury column in cm, H be the atmospheric pressure in cm of mercury
and P be the saturated vapour pressure of water at room temperature, in cm of mercury.
Consider the following two positions
(1 and 2) of the tube.
h1
h1
Position 2
Position 1
Write down expressions for the pressure
in mercury cm of air in the two positions.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 18 
^c&
h/
By varying the inclination () of the tube from 0 to 90 the pressure of the air trapped in the tube
can be changed.
(i)
Write down an expression for the pressure in mercury cm of the trapped air in the position
shown above.
Pressure of air =
(ii) Applying Boyle's law to the trapped air write down an expression relating h, H, P and .
( = length of the air column in cm)
^iii& The saturated vapour pressure (P) of water has to be determined by plotting a graph
between two appropriate variables. Rearrange the expression given in (c) (ii) above in terms
of H, P, , h / and L.
^iv& What quantities should you extract from the graph to determine P?
^v&
In order to determine P, H has to be found out. What instrument do you use to measure H?
^d& Is it possible to perform this experiment using a short mercury column? Give reasons for your
answer.
3. You are provided with a resonance tube with both end opened, a tall glass jar lled with water, a stand
and a 500 Hz tuning fork in order to determine the velocity of sound in air in a laboratory.
^a& What other instrument do you need to perform this experiment?
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 19 
^b& Draw a diagram to illustrate how you would arrange the above apparatus in order to perform the
experiment.
^c& (i)
If the end correction of the tube is taken into account, at least how many resonance states do
you have to take in this experiment? Identify them.
(ii) State clearly how you obtain the relevant resonance states.
^d& What are the measurements you would take in this experiment? (say 1 and 2.)
^e& Taking the end correction of the tube as e, write down expressions in order to nd the velocity ()
of sound in air in terms of the measurements 1, 2 and e.
^f&
If the measurements you have taken in (d) above are 16.5 cm and 50.5 cm respectively determine
and e.
^g& If the length of the tube is 80 cm, would you be able to obtain the next resonance state? Give
reasons for your answer.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 20 
4. You are asked to use a potentiometer arrangement to measure the internal resistance (r) of a cell. You
are provided with the following items.
Potentiometer, 2 V accumulator, resistance box, sliding key, center zero galvanometer, safety resistor
with a plug key, a switch
^a& Draw a complete circuit diagram for the potentiometer arrangment that you would use in this
experiment.
^b& Write down the test that you would perform to check if all the components of the experimental
arrangment are properly connected.
^c& By varying the resistance (R) of the resistance box balance length (l) of the potentiometer is
measured. Take the balance length to be l0 when R is innite. Derive the expression that you would
use to determine r by plotting a suitable graph.
^d& How do you obtain different data points in order to draw the graph?
^e& It is not advisable to set the resistance of the resistance box to a very low value. What is the reason
for this?
^f&
Clearly indicating the axes, draw a rough sketch of the graph that you would obtain in this
experiment.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 21 
**
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 22 
Part B  Essay
(g = 10 N kg1)
5. Bernoullis equation for a uid ow is given by
P + 1 v2 + gh = constant
2
where all symbols have their usual meaning. Identify each term
in the equation.
A siphon is a device for removing liquids from a container.
Figure shows a container P lled with water of density . Tube
T (siphon) of uniform cross  section is initially lled with water
keeping the end D of the tube closed with the thumb. Then the
water is released by removing the thumb.
A
P
h1
v1
h2
=
=
=
=
0.0870
0.1305
0.1737
0.3920
sin 24
sin 42
sin 80
=
=
=
Fig (1)
0.4000
0.6667
0.9800
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 23 
(a) Determine the critical angle for diamond  air interface. The
refractive index of diamond is 2.5.
B
i1
D
(c) (i) For i = 80, determine r.
90  r
(ii) Determine the minimum value of (min) for this ray of light
Fig (2)
to be just totally internally reected from the surface CD.
(iii) Hence show that all light rays incident on the surface AB with i values less than or equal to 80
will be totally internally reected from the surface CD.
(iv) What would happen if < min?
(d) (i) For a glass structure with the same geometry with = min as in Fig (2), determine the maximum
angle of incidence, i, that a ray must have so that it will be totally internally reected from the
surface CD. (Refractive index of glass = 1.5)
(ii) Hence, giving reasons deduce that the glass structure does not sparkle in the same way as the
diamond.
7. (a) Write down an expression for the excess pressure of a spherical liquid bubble in terms of the surface
tension (T) of the liquid and the radius (r) of the bubble.
(b) Vertical Utube contains a liquid of density . One end
of the tube is opened to the atmosphere and a soap im
is made at the other end of the tube as shown in the
Fig (1). The pressure inside the limb which contains
the soap im can be varied so that the shape of the
im could be changed.
^i& Show that the product of the radius (r) of the im
and the difference (h) of the liquid levels of the
limbs of the Utube is a constant.
^ii& If the value of the constant mentioned in (i) above
is 1.23 105 m2, determine the surface tension
of soap solution. (Take the density of the liquid
in the Utube to be 800 kg m3.)
(c) Now the soap im is removed and the respective end
of the limb is sealed. Then as shown in the Fig (2) this
limb of the Utube is connected to a vertical capillary
tube of internal diameter 0.7 mm which is immersed
in water. Now the Utube acts as a manometer. When
air is sent slowly through the open end of the capillary,
the difference in the liquid levels of the manometer
increased to 9.1 cm initially, then decreased to 4.0 cm
and increased to 9.1 cm again.
(density of water = 1000 kg m3)
^i& Explain why the difference in the liquid levels of
the manometer vary as described above.
^ii& Calculate the depth (h1) of the bottom end of the
capillary tube from the water level.
^iii& Hence, determine the surface tension of water.
soap im
rubber
tube
h
clip
liquid
Fig (1)
air
capillary
tube
liquid
Fig (2)
h1
water
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 24 
8. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
A black hole is one of the most interesting and startling predictions of modern gravitational theory, yet
the basic idea can be understood on the basis of Newtonian principles. Consider a spherical, nonrotating
star with mass M and radius R. The escape velocity (v) for this star at its surface can be written as,
v = 2GM .......(1), where G is the universal gravitational constant. In 1783 Rev. John Mitchell,
R
an amateur astronomer noted that if escape velocity (v) would be greater than the speed of light
(c) then all light emitted from such a star would be made to return toward it. Mitchell became the
rst person to suggest the existence of what we now call a black hole. The above expression for
v also suggests that a star of mass M will act as a black hole if its radius R is less than or equal
to a certain critical radius. An expression for this critical radius could be simply obtained
by setting v = c in the above relationship for v. In 1916, Karl Schwarzschild used Einsteins general
theory of relativity to derive an expression for the critical radius Rs, now called the Schwarzschild radius.
Eventhough the kinetic energy of light is not 1 mc2 and the gravitational potential near a black hole is not
2
GM
simply given by
, Schwarzschild found the same expression for Rs, as though we had set v = c in
R
equation (1). This happens due to the fact that the two errors mentioned above compensate each other.
The surface of the sphere with radius Rs surrounding a black hole is called the event horizon, since
light cannot escape from within that sphere, we cant see events occurring inside.
Astronomers have found evidence for the existence of a massive black hole at the center of our Milky
way galaxy, about 26,000 light years from earth in the direction of the constellation Sagittarius. High
resolution images of the galactic center reveal stars moving at high speed about an unseen object. By
analyzing these motions, astronomers can infer the period T and the radius r of each stars orbit. Using
these data the mass m of the unseen object can be calculated. This black hole has a mass of 5.4 10 36 kg
or 2.7 million times the mass of our sun. Research suggest that even larger black holes, in excess of 10 9
solar masses, lie at the centers of other galaxies. Observational and theoretical studies of black holes of
all sizes continue to be an important area of research in both physics and astronomy.
(a) (i) What is meant by the term event horizon?
(ii) Why is it dened that way?
(b) (i) Derive the expression for v given in equation (1)
(ii) Assuming the density of the material of the star to be constant, show that the escape
velocity is proportional to the radius (R) of the star.
(c) (i) Write down an expression for Rs, in terms of G, M and c.
(ii) In obtaining the expression for Rs from Newtonian gravity what are the two compensating
errors that we have used?
(d) (i) A burned out star with a mass equal to three solar masses collapses to form a black hole.
Determine the radius of its event horizon.
(G = 6.66 10 11 N m2 kg 2, Solar mass = 2.0 10 30 kg, c = 3.0 10 8 m s1)
(ii) If the radius of the black hole is just equal to the Schwarzschild radius, what is its density?
(Take = 3.)
(iii) What would be the radius of the event horizon of the black hole existing at the center of our
galaxy?
(e) Could X  rays or  rays escape through an event horizon? Give reasons for your answer.
(f) Derive an expression for the mass (m) of the black hole at the center of our galaxy in terms of a
period T of a revolving star around it with a radius r and G.
(g) Calculate the distance from the earth to the black hole at the center of our galaxy in km.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 25 
(h) If our sun somehow collapses to form a black hole, what effect would this event have on the orbit
of the earth? (The mass of our sun is not large enough to collapse to a black hole.)
9. Answer either part (A) or part (B) only.
10 V
R1
R2
V0
Fig (1)
(b) A student has modied the above circuit as shown below to obtain a smaller voltage range for
V0. The student expects the value of V0 to vary linearly with R2.
RC
IB
4V
VC
IE
RE
10 V
4.7 k
IC
VE
3.3 k
(b) Suppose the applied voltage to the base is increased by a small amount VB
(i) If the change in VBE is negligible, nd the change (VE) in the emitter voltage (VE) due to the
increase of the base voltage.
(ii) Hence, write down an expression for the change (IE) in the emitter current.
(iii) Write down an expression for the change (VC) in collector voltage.
(iv) If this change is an increase, put + sign in front of your expression in (iii), otherwise put a
sign.
(v) Hence write down an expression for the voltage gain of the amplier.
(vi) Use the expression obtained in (v) to deduce a general expression for the voltage gain of
a common emitter amplier.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 26 
Piston
h
e
Fig (1)
Fig (2)
(a) Out of thermodynamic processes given below classify each of the processes,
(i) e
f (ii) f
g (iii) g
h and (iv) h
e
constant pressure, constant volume, isothermal expansion/compression, adiabatic expansion/
compression
Pressure/ MPa
(A)
6.0
5.0
4.0
3.0
2.0
1.0
0
1.0
2.0
3.0
4.0
Volume 104 m3
Fig (3)
(b) Fig (3) shows the simplified P  V diagram (curves approximated by straight lines) for a cylinder
of the engine.
Calculate,
(i) the work done by the gas mixture from g to h,
(ii) the work done on the gas mixture from e to f,
(iii) the net work done (W) by the gas mixture during one cycle efgh.
(c) (i) If Q1 amount of heat is absorbed by the gas mixture from f to g, what is the change in
internal energy (Uf g ) of the gas mixture from f to g?
(ii) If Q2 amount of heat is liberated by the gas mixture from h to e, what is the change in
internal energy (Uh e ) of the mixture from h to e?
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 27 
W
(d) (i) A quantity called the thermal efficiency (e) of the engine is defined by e =
. Write
Q1
down an expression for (e) in terms of Q1 and Q2 only.
(ii) If Q1 = 3.5 103 J, determine (e) as a percentage.
(iii) If heat of combustion of petrol is 3.5 103 J g1 what mass of petrol is burned in each
cycle?
(e) If the engine rotates at 50 cycles per second and it has 4 cylinders, calculate the power generated
by the engine.
(B) 1. (a) The radius of our sun is 7.0 105 km and its surface temperature is 5800 K. Assume that the
sun behaves like a black body.
(i) Calculate the total power radiated from the sun. (Stefan constant = 6.0 108 W m2 K4;
Take 584 = 1.0 107)
(b) The temperature of the center of the sun is 2.0 107 K.
(i) Why is it so essential to have this very high temperature in the suns core?
(ii) The inner core of the sun emits rays. But the surface of the sun radiates mostly IR,
visible and UV light. What happens to this radiation with short wavelengths produced at
the core of the sun?
(c) A blue supergiant star has a surface temperature of 30,000 K. Assume that the star behaves
like a black body.
(i) What is the principal wavelength it radiates? Is this light visible? Use your answer to
explain why this star appears to be blue (Wien constant = 3.0 103 m K)
(ii) If the total power radiated by this star is 105 times that of our sun, determine the radius of
this star.
2.
P
300 K
Q
6 000 K
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 28 
02  Chemistry
Paper I 
Time : 02 hours
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.
Paper II 
Time : 03 hours
This paper consists of three parts as A, B and C.
Part A  Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 100 marks for each question  altogether 400 marks.
Part B  Three essay type questions. Two questions should be answered.
Each question carries 150 marks  altogether 300 marks.
Part C  Three essay type questions. Two questions should be answered.
Each question carries 150 marks  altogether 300 marks.
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100
= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
1
1
Universal gas constant, R = 8.314 J K mol
1
= 6.022 1023 mol
Avogadro constant, NA
1. Which of the following is the correct set of quantum numbers that deseribe an electon in a 3p
orbital?
_
n
_
l
m
m
_l
_s
(1) 4
2
1
0
(2) 3
1
1
+
(3) 2
2
2
1
(4) 3
1
2

(5) 3
1
2
+
2. Which of the following structure best represent the ion S2O32 ?
O
(4) :O
O:
(5) :O + O:
: : : :
:S
O:
: :: :
O:
: :: :
++
: :: :
:S
(3) :O
: :: :
O:
O:
: :: :
: : : :
(2) O
: : : :
O:
: : : :
:
: :: :
(1) O
O:
3. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the NOCl molecule?
(1) The shape of NOCl is angular.
(2) The hybridization of the nitrogen atom is sp2.
(3) The electron pair spatial arrangment of the central atom in NOCl is angular.
(4) In NOCl, a bond exists between N and O.
(5) N  Cl bond is formed by the overlap of a hybrid sp2 orbital of nitrogen and a 3p atomic orbital of
chlorine.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 29 
4. Which of the following statement is true regarding the atoms of the alkali metals in the metallic crystal?
(1) In the metallic crystal, they are held together by weak van der Waals forces only.
(2) They have atomic numbers which are odd numbers.
(3) They do not have electrons in d orbitals.
(4) They form ions which are strong reducing agents.
+
(5) They form hydrated ions; Li being the least hydrated.
5. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the elements from uorine to iodine in group
17 of the periodic table?
(1) They form diatomic covalent molecules.
(2) release energy when gaseous atoms gain electrons.
(3) They form hydrides which dissolve in water to form strong acids.
(4) chlorine form oxyacids.
(5) They form compounds with one another.
6. The rst three ionization energies (kJ mol ) of elements X and Y are as follows.
1
Element
X
Y
1st
528
1095
2nd
7340
2370
3rd
11850
4660
(5) B and Ne
CH2
7. The name of the following compound according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature is,
CH2
H
C =
O
O
CH2
CH3
(1) 4formyl4methyl5hexenoic acid.
(3) 4formyl4methyl5enehexanoic acid.
(5) 4methyl4formyl5enehexanoic acid.
OH
(2) 4methyl4formyl5hexenoic acid.
(4) 4oxo4methyl 5hexenoic acid.
C C
CH2
CH2
CH2
r
t
q
s
p
Which one of the following pairs represent the two most acidic hydrogen atoms?
(1) p and q.
(2) p and s.
(3) r and s.
(4) p and t.
(5) s and t.
9.
a
b
c
d
e
CH3 C C CH2 CHO
Which is true out of the following statements regarding the above compound?
(1) b, c and e carbon atoms are sp hybridized.
(2) a, b, c, d and e carbon atoms are in a straight line.
(3) The cde angle is about 109.5.
(4) The abc angle is about 120.
(5) Carbon atoms a, b and d are sp3 hybridized.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 30 
10.
X
Con. H2SO4
HBr
Ni / H2
Br
(3) CH CH CH , CH CH CH
3
3
3
3
OH
(4) CH3 CH CH3 , CH3 CH2 CH2 Br and CH3 CH2 CH3.
OH
Br
11. What are the positions in the following compound that could be expected to react with a hydroxyl ion
acting as a base, to form a stable product?
Br H
H H
H
(1) a and e.
He
Hc
(2) a, d and e.
Cb H
Ha
(3) b, d and f.
(4) e and d.
(5) a, c, e and g.
C
H
C
The possibility of obtaining a partial structure of this nature exists,
(1) only in a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(2) only in an electrophilic addition reaction.
(3) only in an aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
(4) only in nucleophilic substitution and aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions.
(5) in nucleophilic substitution, electrophilic addition and aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions.
13. A solution absorbs 90 % of the radiation passing through it. What is the absorbance of the solution?
(3) 1.0
(2) 0.90
(1) 0.10
(5) none of the above
(4) 9.0
14. The conductivity of 0.10 mol dm3 aqueous solution of a strong electrolyte is 1.25 104 S cm1. What
is the most probable value for the conductivity of the solution if it is diluted ten times with water?
(3) 1.45 103 S cm1
(2) 1.25 103 S cm1
(1) 1.05 103 S cm1
1
4
1
4
(5) 1.45 10 S cm
(4) 1.25 10 S cm
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 31 
15. When equal volumes are mixed which one of the following pairs of solutions gives the highest buffer
capacity?
(1) 0.10 mol dm3 CH3COOH and 0.10 mol dm3 CH3CO2Na
(2) 0.50 mol dm3 CH3COOH and 0.10 mol dm3 CH3CO2Na
(3) 0.10 mol dm3 CH3COOH and 0.50 mol dm3 CH3CO2Na
(4) 0.50 mol dm3 NH4OH and 0.50 mol dm3 NH4Cl
(5) 0.10 mol dm3 NH4OH and 0.10 mol dm3 CH3COOH
16. Gibbs energy changes corresponding to the formation of Ag+(aq), Fe2+(aq) and Fe3+(aq) ions at
the standard state at 25 C are given below.
Ion
Ag+(aq)
G0 / kJ mol1
+77.1
Fe2+(aq)
85.0
Fe3+(aq)
10.7
What is the Gibbs energy change (in kJ) for the overall reaction of the following cell under
standard state and at 25 0C?
Pt(s)/Fe3+(aq, 1.00 mol dm3), Fe2+(aq, 1.00 mol dm3) Ag+ (aq, 1.00 mol dm3)/Ag (s)
(1) 151. 4
(4) 18.6
(2) 18.6
(5) None of the above.
(3) 2.8
18. A solution containing 0.400 g of a diprotic acid requires 40.00 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm3 NaOH solution
for complete neutralization. What is the approximate relative molecular mass of the acid?
(1) 5.00 10
2
(4) 3.00 10
(2) 1.00 10
2
(5) 4.00 10
2
(3) 2.00 10
19. At 200 0C, the equilibrium constant of the following reaction is 1.6 103.
H2(g) + Br2(g)
2HBr(g)
2
What is the amount of H2(g) at equilibrium when 1.0 10 mol of HBr(g) is heated at
200 0C in a closed vessel?
(2) 1 2 mol
(3) 20 2 mol
(1) 80 2 mol
81 10
81 10
8 1 10
(4) 10 2 mol
81 10
(5) 40 2 mol
81 10
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 32 
20. Dolomite (Ca CO3.MgCO3) can be used as a raw material in the manufacture of,
(3) Detergents
(1) Cement
(2) Chlorine
(4) Urea
(5) Sodium carbonate
21. An industrial efuent has very high chemical oxygen demand (COD) due to the presence of a
detergent, R COO Na. (Prior to the discharge of the efuent of the public waters the COD value has
to be reduced below the limit given in the Sri lanka standard for the discharge of efuent.)
The COD value cannot be reduced by the following process is,
(1) Aeration
(2) Dilution with a large quantity of pure water
(3) Precipitation as (R COO)2 Ca salt.
(4) Dissolution of common salt (NaCl) in the efuent
(5) Passing the efuent through a column of an adsorbent mateirial
22. Acid rains (hydrogen ions) can react with one of the following substances in the soil leading to
an increase of the sodium adsorption ratio (SAR) of the water which ows through the soil system.
+
Na
SAR =
Concentrations in mmol dm3
2+
a + Mg2+
C
(1) Dolomite
(4) Silica
(2) Calcite
(5) Granite
(3) Feldspars
23. Which one of the following represent the correct order of the solubility of solid metal sulphates in
water?
(1) Ba SO4 > SrSO4 > Ca SO4 > MgSO4
(3) Ba SO4 SrSO4 > Ca SO4 MgSO4
(5) Ba SO4 < SrSO4 Ca SO4 < MgSO4
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 33 
26. Solute X, which was initially present in Phase I, was partitioned between Phase I and Phase II which
are immiscible. Which of the following statements are correct regarding amount of X extracted from
Phase I to Phase II ?
(a) It depends on the volume of Phase I.
(b) It depends on the volume of phase II.
(c) It does not depend on the ratio of the volumes of the two phases.
(d) It does not depend on the temperature of the experiment.
(2) (a) and (d) only.
(1) (a) and (b) only.
(4) (b) and (d) only.
(3) (b) and (c) only.
(5) (c) and (d) only.
27. Which one of the following precipitates dissolves on addition of excess ammonia solution?
(1) Barium sulphate
(2) Iron(III) hydroxide
(3) Nickel(II) hydroxide
(4) Calcium oxalate
(5) Magnesium hydroxide
28. Which one of the following reactions is involved with the production of soap from coconut oil?
(1) Condensation
(2) Hydrolysis
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Oxidation
(5) Esterication
29. Which one of the following is not associated with the solvay process?
(2) NH4Cl
(3) NaCl
(4) (NH4)2C2O4
(1) CaCO3
(5) Ca(OH)2
30. The salt NaA was dissolved in 0.10 mol dm3 solution of hydrochloric acid until the concentration of
NaA became 0.05 mol dm3. For HA, pKa = 6.0. Which one of the following sketches represent the
titration curve when a 25.0 cm3 portion of the above solution was titrated with 0.10 mol dm3 solution
of sodium hydroxide.
(1)
pH
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
(2)
pH
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
(3)
pH
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
pH
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
(4)
pH
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
(5)
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
 34 
31. In general, moving across a period from left to right the following trend is/trends are observed.
(a) Melting point decreases.
(b) Size of atom decreases.
(c) Metallic character decreases.
(d) Electronegativity decreases.
32. Consider particles of the size in the range from 0.1nm to 1m. Which of the following statement/s
is/are true?
(a) Carbon nanotubes are used in electronic industry.
(b) Fullerines can also the made up of lead.
(c) Carbon nanotubes are used in paint industry.
(d) Carbon nanotubes are used in water purication.
33. Consider the compound, CH3COCH2CH2COOCH3 Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
(a) It gives CH3OH when heated with aqueous NaOH
(b) It gives an orange coloured precipitate with Bradys reagent.
(c) It gives an alkane with a Grignard reagent.
(d) It gives a brick  red coloured precipitate when heated with Fehlings solution.
34. Consider the conversion CH3CH2CH = CH2
CH3CH = CHCH3
Which of the following represent the correct sequences of steps to be taken to effect the above
conversion.
(ii) H2O
(iii) conc. H2SO4 / heat
(a) (i) conc. H2SO4
0
(b) (i) conc H2SO4
(ii) 170 C
(iii) H2O
(c) (i) HBr
(ii) alcoholic KOH
(d) (i) HBr / peroxides
(ii) alcoholic KOH
35. Consider the following statements regarding reaction rates. Which of the following statement/s is/are
true?
(a) The relative rates of removal of different reactants involved in a chemical reaction depend on
the stoichiometric coefcients of the reactants.
(b) The rate of an electrochemical reaction depends on the current.
(c) The rate of a zeroth order reaction in the gaseous phase can be changed by changing the partial
pressure of the reactant cocerned.
(d) Activation energy is determined by the effect of all other factors which affect the rate of
the reaction.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 35 
36. The following statements are based on the diagram given below.
Which statements shows the variation of vapour pressure of water
with temperature.
(a) Water vapour can be represented by A.
(b) No liquid water exists above the temperature correspond to B.
(c) Point C represents the boiling point of water.
(d) The curve CD represents the liquid  vapour equilibrium.
Pressure/atm
1.0
D
0.0
C
B
Temperature/K
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 36 
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
True
True
True
False
False
First statement
Second statement
True, and it explains the rst.
True, but does not explain the rst.
False
True
False
Second statement
The amount of ammonia gas that dissolves
in water at room temperature is much higher
than that of dioxygen.
Unlike group 1 elements, all group 2 elements
react with N2 gas to give nitrides.
Second statement
Unlike dioxygen ammonia gas reacts with water
+
to form NH4 and some hydrogen bonding
occurs between ammonia and water.
Nitrides are formed only elements which can
form divalent cations.
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 37 
02  Chemistry
*
*
1.
Paper II
Answer all questions in part A.
Answer four questions selecting two questions from part B and two question from part C.
(a)
 
HCNCO
(1)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
Deduce the shapes around C(1) ,C(2) and N atoms using VSEPR Theory.
(iii)
Draw resonance structures and identify the most important and least important structure
used in describing the stability of resonance hybrid of CH3NCO. Give briey the reasons
for your choice.
(iv)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 38 
be
(b)
(v)
Sketch the shape and indicate bonds, bonds and lone pairs of the structure (i)
above.
(vi)
Identify the hybrid and atomic orbitals involved in forming the C  N and C  H
bonds in the structure (i) above.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of the property indicated in the parenthesis.
State briey the reasons for your choice.
(i) MgCO3, BaCO3, SrCO3 (decomposition temperature)
2.
An element A, belongs to the s block, reacts with cold water slowly liberating a colourless gas B with
the formation of solution C. The element A when allowed to react with N2 gas gives a white solid D.
When CO2 gas is bubbled through the solution C, a white precipitate E is formed which redissolved
to give a clear solution. When E is heated to 900 C a white solid F is formed, which when heated
with carbon at 2000 C gives a compound G. The compound G reacts with water to produce
a hydrocarbon gas, H of commercial importance. When a ame test is carried with the white solid E,
a brick red colouration is obtained.
(The letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H represent compounds or elements and not symbols of atoms.)
(a) Identify the substances A to H and write their chemical formulae in the boxes given below.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 39 
3.
(b)
Give balanced equation for the reaction of A with N2, and F with Carbon.
(c)
(a)
Write an expression for the compressibility factor, Z for a gas in the form of an equation.
Identify all the terms used in the equation.
(b)
Using from the equation you have given in part (a) above derive a relationship for the density
of a gas.
(c)
The mole fraction of argon in a gas mixture, which contains only argon and hydrogan, is
0.650. Calculate the density of the gas mixture at a pressure of 1.50 bar and a temperature of
2
3.00 10 K. State the assumption you used in this calculation.
Relative atomic masses: Ar = 40, H = 1
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 40 
(d)
4.
(a)
(i)
Using the ideal gas equation and the molecular kinetic equation for ideal gases, derive
an equation for the root mean square speed (u 2) of a gaseous particle in terms of its
relative molar mass.
(ii)
(iii)
Give one important reason for the very low abundance of He in the earth atmosphere.
(i)
Name the characteristic class of reaction shown by both aldehydes and ketones.
(ii)
Draw the structure of the product obtained when acetaldehyde (ethanal) reacts with
hydrogen cyanide.
(iii)
State whether it is possible for the compound represented by the structure drawn by you
in part (ii) above to exist in optically active forms. Give reasons for your answer.
(iv)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 41 
(b)
(c)
(i)
Describe how you would distinguish acetaldehyde from acetone (propanone) using
a chemical test.
(ii)
Explain the chemical basis of the test you have chosen in part b (i).
(iii)
Write the structure and the colour of the product formed by the reaction of acetone with
2,4dinitrophenylhydrazine.
(i)
(ii) Indicate the reaction taking place in part c (i) above using a balanced chemical equation.
(iii) Using your knowledge of organic reaction mechanisms, propose a mechanism for the
reaction given in part c (ii).
**
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 42 
Part B  Essay
5.
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(b)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(c)
(i)
(ii)
Sketch a silver  silver chloride electrode and label all important components on it.
Write the equilibrium electrode reaction.
State two factors that determine the electrode potential of this electrode.
Give one exam.0ple of the practical application of the silver silver chloride electrode.
Briey explain why it is more suitable than the standard hydrogen electrode as a practical
reference electrode.
(2) the time it takes, for the concentration of A(aq) remaining in the solution to decrease
from 2.4 103 mol dm3 to 1.20 103 mol dm3.
Suppose that, you are provided with the data of remaining concentrations of A(aq)
measured at several selected times for the above reaction. Using not more than three
sentences, briey describe how you would treat the data to determine initial rate and the
instantaneous rate at selected instancents of time.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 43 
6.
(a)
The energy released in thermite reaction is used for welding of massive units such as
propellers for large ships. The standerd state reaction coresponding to thermite reaction is given
below.
X2O3(s) + 2 Fe(s)
2 X(s) + Fe2O3(s)
Where X is a pblock element which reacts with aqueous hydrochloric acid as well as aqueous
sodium hydroxide with evolution of dihydrogen gas. The standard enthalpy of formation of
o
1
1
X2O3(s) and Fe2O3(s) at 25.0 C are  1675 kJ mol and  825 kJ mol , respectively.
(i)
(iii)
The standard entropy change of the thermite reaction, S at 25.0 C is 15.2 J K1.
(iv)
Calculate the amount (in moles) of X necessary to melt 5.20 g of chromium metal at its
melting point if reaction the energy released.
(ii)
Calculate the standard Gibs energy change G for the thermite reaction at 25.0 C.
o
(The enthalpy of fusion of Cr(s) is 14.6 kJ mol1 , Relative atomic mass: Cr = 52.0)
(b)
Consider the following gas phase equilibrium that occurs in a closed container at 500 K.
A(g) + B(g)
2C(g)
The symbols A, B and C represent the chemical formulae of the gasses. The initial amounts of
each of the gases A(g) and B(g) were 2.0 mol and the C(g) was not present at the beginning.
(i)
(ii)
7.
(a)
If the equilibrium constant, Kp of the above reaction is 4.0 at 500 K, calculate the
percentage of initial A(g) converted at equilibrium.
Identify the transition metal M consistent with the above observations and give its
electronic conguration and common oxidation state (s).
(iv) Give one use of the species present in solution G and the transition metal M identied
in (i).
(v)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 44 
(b)
(i)
(ii) Sun burn occurs on exposure to sunlight of wavelength in the vicinity of 325 nm.
Calculate the following coresponding to radiation with wavelength of 325 nm.
34
(C = 3 108 ms 1, h = 6.63 10 Js)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(iii) In what region of the electromagnetic spectrum would this radiation be found?
Part C  Essay
8.
(a)
The atmosphere contains 20% oxygen and 0.03% carbon dioxide. With the assumption that the
atmosphere is a closed system and the relative molecular masses of all constituent gases are the
same, calculate
(b)
I
M
A
N
+ CO2(g)
1. F
2. G
Ca(HCO3)2(l)
C2H2(g)
more
E
Bleaching
powder(s)
Consider the manufacture of phosphate fertilizer, bleaching powder and C2H2 as shown in the
ow chart.
Give the name of the starting material A in the triangle which is an abundant natural
resource.
(ii) Write in the boxes and circles, the chemical formulae with physical states of the appropriate
substances involved.
(iii) Give the conditions (M) and (N) used in the process.
(i)
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 45 
A salt Na2A was dissolved in water until the concentration of Na2A becomes 0.05 mol dm3.
A 25.00 cm3 portion of the above solution was titrated with 0.10 mol dm3 sloution of HCl.
Calculate the volume of HCl required and sketch the tritation curve. Lable the curve
repactively pKa and pKa of H2A at the relevant temperature are 1.0 and 7.1
(i)
(ii)
(c)
10.
(a)
CH2
(b)
Derive the equation(s) and calculate the amount of HCl required to be added to 1.0 dm3
of the above salt solution to convert it to a buffer solution of pH 7.4.
CH2
(a)
9.
(i)
It is well known that a chlorine compound plays an important role in the process of
depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere. Explain the above statement using relevant
chemical reactions involved in the process.
(ii)
Today we are concerned about acid rain. State why we are not concerned about basic
rain.
(iii)
State ve main stages in the electroplating industries that contribute to the environment
pollution by metallic ions.
Compound A (C4H10O), on heating with concentrated H2SO4, forms the compound B (C4H8).
B reacts with water in the presence of a mineral acid to form the compound C. The compound
C, is an isomer of A. C, on heating with concentrated H2SO4, forms B easily. C does not react
with acidic K2Cr2O7 under mild condition.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
PCC/CH2Cl2
K2Cr2O7 / H
Give the structure of an isomer of A and C that can exhibit optical isomerism.
Using your knowledge of the reactions of alkenes, alcohols and alkyl halides, indicate a method
by which the following conversion can be carried out.
CH3 CH = CH2
CH3
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 46 
07  Mathematics
Structure of the question paper
Paper I  Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A  Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question  altogether 250 marks.
Part B  Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks  altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper I 1000 10 = 100
Paper II  Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A  Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question  altogether 250 marks.
Part B  Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks  altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100
Calculation of the final mark : Paper I
Paper II
Final marks
= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100
Important :
prototype questions for part B have been included. However, the question paper
that will be given at the examination will be constructed according to the question
paper structure given above.
* At the examination all questions in part A of both Mathematics I and II will have to
be answered using the space provided for each question.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 47 
07  Mathematics
Prototype Questions for Paper I
Part A
1. Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} be a universal set.
Let A = {1, 4, 7, 10} , B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and C = {2, 4, 6} be three subsets of U.
Determine the following, in the usual notation:
 48 
(iii)
transitive.
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1
, x IR and x 1.
1+ x
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 49 
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 50 
7. Find the set of values of k such that the expression 4 x( x + k ) k (3k 4) is positive for all x.
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x2 + x 3
( x 2)( x 2 + 2)
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 51 
 52 
11. Find the number of different permutations of the letters of the word ERROR taking all at a
time.
Find the number of different selections of three letters which can be made from the letters
of the word ERROR.
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14
Show that there are exactly two consecutive terms with equal coefficients.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 53 
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and
r =1
r2
, prove that
r =1
r (r + 1) = 3 n(n + 1)(n + 2) .
r =1
Hence, find
r (r 1) .
r =1
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 54 
1
1
sin 1 = (1 cos )(1 sin )(sin cos ) .
sin 2 1
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16. Express the system of equations
kx + 2 y = 0
2x + 4 y = 1
in matrix form, where k is a real constant.
Hence, find the values of k for which the system has a unique solution.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 55 
2 1
3 2
and B =
.
17. Let A =
3 2
1 1
Hence, find A 1 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 56 
19. The coordinates of the points A, B and C are (2, 3 ), (1, 1 ) and (1, 4) respectively. Find the
equation of the perpendicular from the point B to the line AC and the coordinates of the
foot of that perpendicular.
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20. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1, 1) and the point of
intersection of the lines x 2 y + 7 = 0 and 3 x + y 2 = 0 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 57 
21. Find the coordinates of the points at which the bisectors of the angles between the lines
x 2 y + 7 = 0 and 2 x y + 2 = 0 intersect the xaxis.
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22. Obtain the equation of the circle having the straight line segment joining the points
(4, 3 ) and (6, 1) as a diameter.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 58 
 59 
x cot x
25. Find lim
.
x0 1 + cos x
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26. The rate of increase of the surface area A(r ) of a spherical balloon is 1.6 m 2 /min, where r
2
is the radius of the balloon in metres. Find the rate of increase of the radius when r = .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 60 
d2 y
dt
+4
dy
+ 13 y = 0 .
dt
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28. Show that the function f ( x) = xe x has a maximum when x = 1 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 61 
29. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y = e 2 x 4 x + 8 at the point where the curve
meets the yaxis.
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30. Show that the function f ( x) = 3 x 5 + 6 x 4 4 x 3 + 1 has a stationary point at x = 0 and
determine its nature.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 62 
01 12 2010
Part B
1. (a) Let A , B and C be three subsets of a given set S.
Stating clearly the laws of algebra in set theory used, prove, in the usual notation, that
(i) A (A B ) = A ,
(ii) ( A B) (A C ) = A ( B C ) .
(b) A group of 96 students are expected to sit for History at the forthcoming G. C. E.
(Advanced Level) Examination. Of these 96 students, 43 attend extra classes, 38 are
girls, and 18 are repeat students. Only 11 repeat students attend extra classes. 10 repeat
students are girls. 7 girls attend extra classes. Among the students who attend extra
classes 6 girls have to repeat the examination.
Find how many boys
(i) attend extra classes,
(ii) repeat the examination,
(iii) will sit the examination for the first time without attending extra classes.
3. (a) When the monic (leading coefficient is 1) cubic polynomial p(x) is divided by ( x 1)
and ( x 3) the remainders are 7 and 13 respectively. Find the remainder, when p(x) is
divided by ( x 1)( x 3) .
Further, if p (2) = 6 , find the quotient when p (x) is divided by ( x 1)( x 3) .
Hence, obtain p (x) .
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 63 
01 12 2010
4. (a) Let f ( x) ( x + 1) 2 + k ( x + 1) + k .
Find all real values of k such that the roots of the equation f ( x) = 0 are real.
When k = 2 , find the axis of symmetry and the least value of f (x) .
Hence, draw the graph of y = f (x) when k = 2 .
(b) Let Q( x) 2 x 2 + ax 7 and P( x) (2 x 1)Q( x) + b , where a and b are real constants.
If Q(x) is an even function and the remainder when P(x) is divided by x is 12, find the
values of a and b.
Express P(x) as a product of linear factors of x.
5. (a) Let and be the roots of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 , where c 0 . Find
c
c
the quadratic equation whose roots are b + and b + .
 64 
01 12 2010
7. (a) Find the number of different permutations that can be made using
(i) all the letters,
(ii) only four letters
of the word EXAMINATION.
(b) 15 persons are recruited to a certain institution.
Find the number of ways that these 15 recruits can be assigned, five each, into three
different sections of the institution.
2 1
and f ( A) = A 2 5A + 7I , where I is the identity matrix of order 2.
8. (a) Let A =
1 3
Show that f ( A) = O , where O is the zero matrix of order 2.
Hence, find A1.
Verify your answer by an alternative method.
1 1 1
3 2 1
Compute BA .
1 1
. Find P T P and PP T , where P T is the transpose of P.
9. Let P =
1 1
Deduce P 1 , the inverse of P.
Using P 1 find (P T ) 1 . Any result used should be clearly stated.
1 1
.
Find a diagonal matrix B of order 2 such that PBP T =
1 1
3 1
. Show that A = 2I + 2PBP 1 .
Let A =
1 3
Hence, show that P 1 AP is a diagonal matrix.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 65 
01 12 2010
n(n + 1)
13 + 2 3 + 33 + L + n 3 =
for any positive integer n .
2
Hence, find
(i) 13 + 2 3 + 33 + L + (2n) 3 ,
(ii) 13 + 33 + 53 + L + (2n 1) 3 .
3x + 2
.
x( x + 1)( x + 2)
u r , where u r
r =1
5
8
11
+
+
+L .
1.2.3 2.3.4 3.4.5
log c b
, where a, b and c are positive and not equal to 1.
log c a
Show that, log a b log b c log c a = 1 .
Hence, obtain the value of log 5 32 log 4 7 log 49 125 .
r 2 = 6 (n + 1)(2n + 1) .
r =1
Using (i) and (ii) above, find the sum of the first n terms of the series
1.4 + 4.7 + 7.10 + L .
Is the above series convergent? Justify your answer.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 66 
01 12 2010
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 67 
01 12 2010
18. Find the coordinates of the point A at which the two circles S1 x 2 + y 2 2 x + 4 y = 0
and S 2 x 2 + y 2 10 x + 20 = 0 touch each other externally.
If P is a point such that the length of a tangent from P to S1 = 0 is half of the length of the
tangent from P to S 2 = 0 , show that the locus of the point P is a circle through the point A.
Suppose that a circle S 3 = 0 intersects the circle S 2 = 0 at the points A and B(4, 2).
(i) Show that the locus of the centre of the circle S 3 = 0 is a straight line.
(ii) Find the coordinates of the centre C of the circle S 3 = 0 when CA is perpendicular
to CB.
x 0
tan 2 x
.
1 cos(tan x)
dy y sin y + x(2 xy )
.
=
dx x 3 + cos y x sin y
(3 x 2 1) 1 + x 2
x
(ii) e 2 x cos( x ln x) ,
(iii) x sin x
d2 y
dy
and
in terms of .
dx
dx 2
d2 y
dx
dy dy
x y.
dx dx
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 68 
01 12 2010
x.
2t
1 t2
(c) A curve is given by the parametric equations x =
and y =
, where t is a
1+ t
1+ t2
parameter. Find the Cartesian equations of the tangent and the normal drawn to the
curve at the point corresponding to t =1.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 69 
07  Mathematics
Prototype Questions for Paper II
Part A
0.
x 4
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x 2 + 15
>8.
2. Find the set of all values of x satisfying
x
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 70 
4. Shade the region R in the xyplane, containing the points which satisfy the inequalities
x + y 0 , y x 4 and x 2 + y 2 16 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 71 
Price
Year 1
1.50
3.40
10.40
Year 2
3.00
4.25
8.84
Standard quantity
8
3
1
 72 
7. The information on the prices and the quantities sold in 2008 and 2009 by a department
store are given in the following table:
2008
Item
Video recorder
TV set
Price
425
400
2009
Quantity sold
18
45
Find the price and the quantity relatives for 2009 (2008 = 100) for both items and interpret
your results.
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8. Draw an appropriate network for the following activity list indicating clearly, the dummy
activity required:
Activity
A, B
C
D
E
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 73 
A
2
1
4
E
B
4
Find the earliest event time and the latest event time for each event of the network.
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10. If A + B =
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 74 
A
= sin( B + C ) for a triangle ABC, show that ABC is a right
2
angled triangle.
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12. Obtain the general solution of the equation sin x + sin 5 x = sin 3 x .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 75 
13. Find
(2 x 1)( x + 3) dx .
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x3
dx .
x2 +1
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 76 
ln x dx .
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16. The mean and the variance of five observations 6, 4, 8, a and b are 6 and 2 respectively.
Find the values of a and b.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 77 
17. Find the mode of the frequency distribution given below in respect of the times taken by 55
students to solve three mathematics problems:
Time (in minutes)
05 14
15 24
25 34
35 44
45 54
Frequency
5
7
19
17
7
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18. Two random samples of 30 and 20 bags of milk powder are taken from a production
process. A summary of the results obtained is given in the table below:
Sample
1
2
Size
30
20
Find, in kilograms, the mean and the standard deviation of the 50 bags.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 78 
19. Events A and B are such that P( A) = 0.4 and P( B) = 0.25 . If A and B are independent,
find the probability that
(i) both A and B occur,
(ii) only one event occurs.
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20. Two events A and B are such that P( A) =
1
2
1
, P( B  A) = and P( A  B) = .
4
3
2
Find P( A B) .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 79 
4
1
5
, P( A B ) = and P( A  B) = .
7
3
14
Find P( A B) and P( B  A) .
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22. A firm is working independently on two separate projects. There is a probability 0.3 that
each of the projects will be finished on time. Find the probability that at least one of the
projects will finish on time.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 80 
 81 
f ( x) = k (2 x 3), 2 < x 3
0,
otherwise
f ( x) =
0,
otherwise
 82 
27. All the letters in a particular office are typed by Nimal who is a trainee typist. The
probability that any letter typed by Nimal will contain one or more errors is 0.3. Find the
probability that a random sample of 4 such letters will include one or two letters free from
errors.
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28. Customers arrive randomly at a super market at an average rate 3.4 per minute. Assuming
that the number of arrivals follows a Poisson distribution, find the probability that one or
more customers arrive in any 30 seconds.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 83 
29. In the usual notation, X ~ N (a, a 2 ) , where a is positive. Find P[ X < 0] and P X > a .
2
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0.3 0.7
. If the initial
30. The onestep transition probability matrix of a Markov chain is
0.5 0.5
probability vector is (0.2 0.8), find the probability vector after two steps.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 84 
Part B
1. (a) Draw the graphs of y = x 2 + x 4 and y = 2 x 3 in the same diagram.
Hence, find the values of x for which x 2 + x 4 > 2 x 3 .
(b) Let E =
x 2 4x + 3
, where x is real.
x2 x 2
Find the values of x for which
(i) E is defined,
(ii) E > 0.
2. In a certain factory two types A and B of electrical items are produced. Both types make
use of two essential components, a motor and a transformer. Each item of type A requires 3
motors and one transformer. Each item of type B requires 2 motors and 3 transformers. Due
to the restriction in budget allocation the total supply of components per month is limited to
100 motors and 200 transformers. Due to the lack of human resources the production of
type A items per month is restricted to 50 items. By selling an item of type A the factory
earns a profit of 3000 Rupees and that for a type B item is 2000 Rupees.
(i) Formulate the above situation as a linear programming problem in order to maximize
the monthly profit of the factory.
(ii) Using the graphical method, find the number of items that should be produced per
month from each of the two types in order to gain the maximum profit.
In this case, find the amount of this profit.
(iii) If the profit gained from any item of type A is reduced to 2000 Rupees, then find the
optimal solution.
3. A company produces three brands A, B and C of soft drinks, using two bottling plants
located in town X and town Y. The capacity of each plant in terms of bottles per day is
given in the following table:
Plant at X
Plant at Y
Brand A
3000
1000
Brand B
1000
1000
Brand C
2000
6000
The costs of operating the two plants at town X and town Y per day are 500000 Rupees and
400000 Rupees respectively. The minimum demands in bottles per week for the three
brands A, B and C are 6000, 4000 and 12000 respectively. The management of the
company needs to determine the number of days per week each plant should be operated so
as to minimize the total cost of production while meeting all the demands. Assuming that
you are one of the members of the management committee, formulate the above situation as
a linear programming problem.
Using the graphical method
(i) indicate the feasible region,
(ii) solve the problem for the optimal solution.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 85 
4. (a) A survey of household expenditure in a certain country showed the following changes
over the same week in each of three years for an average family:
Item
Quantity Purchased
Sugar
Bread
Tea
Milk
Butter
2 kg
5 loaves
1 kg
10 litres
0.5 kg
(i) Using year 1 as base, calculate the index numbers for year 2 and year 3.
(ii) State giving reasons, whether the survey based on these items represents a
reasonable assessment of changes in the cost of food over the three year period.
(b) The quantities of potatoes harvested during the period from 2001 to 2008, in 1000
tonnes are given in the table below:
Year
Index
2003=100
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
2006
2007
2008
97
102
100
112
128
121
145
149
(i) Convert the above information to show a set of chain base relatives.
(ii) Given that the amount of potatoes harvested in 2004 was 587000 tonnes, calculate
the amount of potatoes harvested (to the nearest 1000 tonnes) each year from 2006
to 2008.
5. A project consists of eight activities. The activity completion times and the immediate
precedence relationships are as follows:
Activity
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
Completion Time
(Weeks)
5
7
6
3
4
2
6
5
Immediate predecessor
activities
A
B,C
C
D
E,F
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 86 
6. The following diagram shows a CPANetwork modelling the stages in the manufacturing
process of a certain product:
G
2
A
3
B
Start
C
4
4
H
2
E
4
3
3
1
F
3
6
I
6
J
M
2
9
Finish
Each arc is labelled with a letter denoting the activity it represents and a weight that
denotes the number of days needed to complete that activity.
(i) State what is meant by an event in a CPANetwork.
Define the earliest event time and the latest event time for an event.
(ii) Explain briefly why a dummy activity must sometimes be included in a CPANetwork.
Illustrate your explanation by referring to suitable activities in the network shown
above.
(iii) Calculate the earliest event time and the latest event time for each event of the
network. State the shortest completion time of the manufacturing process and find the
critical path.
Hence, show that for all values of x , tan x + cot x cannot take values
12
12
1
between and 3.
3
3
(b) Prove the identity sin 6 + cos 6 1 sin 2 2 .
4
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 87 
8. (a) Find all the values of in the range [0, ] satisfying cos 3 = cos 2 .
By expressing cos 3 cos 2 in terms of cos and factorizing or otherwise, show that
2
4
cos
and cos
are the roots of the quadratic equation 4 x 2 + 2 x 1 = 0 .
5
5
2
Hence, find the value of cos
.
5
(b) Express 3 sin 2 x + cos 2 x in the form R sin( 2 x + ) , where R and are real.
7
11
x
Draw the graph of y = 3 sin 2 x + cos 2 x for
.
12
12
A (a b + c)(a + b c)
=
.
2 (b + c a )(a + b + c)
(3x 2 + 1)(3x + 1) dx .
3 x2
x e
,
2
dx .
(b) Find
x
2
dx .
x 4
8
Hence, evaluate
x ln( x 2 4)
x2 4
dx .
1
2
1+ x
dx .
1 x
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 88 
1.0
7.00
0.5
5.00
0.0
3.50
0.5
4.00
1.0
5.50
1.5
6.00
2.0
6.50
Using the information given in the above table and the Trapezoidal Rule, obtain an
approximate value for the area below the curve y = f (x) and above the xaxis, between
x = 1.0 and x = 2.0.
(b) State Simpsons Rule in the usual notation.
1
x 3 + 10 dx ,
0
0 10
14
10 20
?
20  30
27
30 40
?
40 50
15
Data corresponding to the age groups (10 20) and (30 40) is missing from the table.
However, it is found that the median and the mode of the distribution are 25 and 24
respectively.
(i) Calculate the missing frequencies.
(ii) Obtain the mean and the standard deviation of the distribution.
(iii) Find the coefficient of variability and the coefficient of skewness and identify the
shape of the distribution.
14. Define the mean and the variance of a set of n observations.
The mean and the variance of a set of n observations {x1 , x 2 , L x n } were calculated. It
was found later that the value x1 is incorrect and that it should be replaced by x1 .
Show that the adjustment to be done to the variance to rectify this error is
x x + 2T
1
( x1 x1 ) x1 + x1 1 1
, where T is the sum of the original data
n
n
set {x1 , x 2 , L x n } .
The following gives the information regarding the employees in two factories A and B
belonging to the same industry:
Number of employees
Average wage per employee per month
(in Rupees)
Variance of the wages per month
(in Rupees2)
Factory A
50
Factory B
100
12000
8500
16
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 89 
(i) Which factory A or B pays out a larger amount as monthly wages? Justify your
answer.
(ii) Find in which factory there is greater variability in individual wages.
(iii) In factory B the wage of an employee is recorded incorrectly as 12000 Rupees instead
of 10000 Rupees.
Find the corrected variance of factory B.
Does this correction affect your answer in (ii)? Justify your answer.
15. Define the harmonic mean of n observations.
(a) A train runs first 40 km at an average speed 48 km.p.h., second 80 km at an average
speed 64 km.p.h., then due to the maintenance of the track, travels for 15 minutes at an
average speed 20 km.p.h. and finally covers the remaining distance at an average speed
25 km.p.h. If the average speed of the train for the entire journey is 45 km.p.h., find the
total distance that the train runs.
(b) The distribution in the following table gives the personal wealth of a certain cross
section of the population of a country for a particular year:
Personal wealth
0
2000
5000
10000
15000
20000
25000
50000
 2000
 5000
 10000
 15000
 20000
 25000
 50000
and over
Number of persons
(000,000)
19
26
74
41
16
8
5
1
Total personal
wealth (000m)
2.4
7.8
55.5
49.2
25.7
16.8
15.0
6.3
P( B  A) = 0.4 and
(b) A production line is known to produce 8% of defective items, one quarter of which are
rejected. If three items are selected at random from the production line, find the
probability that
(i) the first item is rejected,
(ii) the second item is rejected,
(iii) none of the items are rejected,
(iv) at least one of them is defective.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 90 
17. Let N(t) be the number of customers who have visited a shop during t hours since the shop
opens at 9.00 a.m. Assume that N(t) has a Poisson distribution with mean t .
(i) Find the probability that 20 customers have visited the shop by the time it closes at
5.00 p.m.
(ii) Let T be the time that the first customer of the day visits the shop. Find P(T > t ) and
hence, show that T has an exponential distribution.
(iii) Till 10.00 a.m., no customers have visited the shop. Find the probability of the first
customer of the day arriving between 10.00 a.m. and 11.00 a.m.
18. The records of a company show that the weekly distance travelled by any salesman is
normally distributed with mean 800 km and standard deviation 90 km. The sales manager
considers that salesmen who travel less than 600 km in one week perform poorly.
(i) Find the probability that a randomly selected salesman has travelled more than 710 km
but less than 935 km.
(ii) If the company employs 200 salesmen, how many would be expected to perform
poorly in a particular week?
(iii) The sales manager wishes to estimate the number of kilometres travelled in a week,
above which only 1% of the salesmen are expected to exceed. Evaluate his estimate.
19. Three light bulbs each of whose lifetime T is a random variable with probability density
t
1 1000
function f (t ) =
e
, t 0 are fitted in a room.
1000
(a) Find P[T t ] and hence, compute P[T > t ] .
(b) Assuming that all three bulbs are used at the same time, find the probability that
(i) all three bulbs are,
(ii) only two bulbs are,
(iii) only one bulb is
still working after 1300 hours.
(You may assume that exp(1.3) = 0.273, correct to three decimal places.)
Deduce the probability that the room will be in the dark after 1300 hours.
20. A housewife is in the habit of buying one of the two brands A and B of tooth paste each
month. If she buys brand A in a month, then she buys brand B in the following month with
probability 0.1. If she buys brand B in a month, then she buys brand A in the following
month with probability 0.05. Let X n be the brand of the tooth paste she buys in the nth
month.
(i) Show that {X n : n = 0, 1, 2, . . .} represents a Markov chain and find its onestep
transition probability matrix.
(ii) If the housewife buys brand A in January, find the probability that she buys the same
brand in March.
(iii) If the housewife has probability 0.4 of buying brand A in January, find the probability
that she buys the same brand in May.
(iv) Find the conditional probability that she has bought brand A in January given that she
buys brand A in May.
(v) In the long run, how often does she buy each of the two brands?
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 91 
21. A lorry driver delivers goods to Kandy, Galle and Haputale. He goes to one city each day
and never goes to the same city on successive days. If he goes to Kandy on a given day,
then the next day he is equally likely to go to Galle or Haputale. If he goes to Galle on a
given day, then the next day he is twice as likely to go to Kandy as he is to go to Haputale.
If he goes to Haputale on a given day, then the next day he is three times as likely to go to
Galle as he is to go to Kandy.
(i) Write down the one step transition probability matrix for this situation.
(ii) Given that on a particular Monday he goes to Kandy, find the probability that he goes
to Galle on Wednesday.
(iii) Show that over a long period of time the visits to the Kandy, Galle and Haputale are
in the ratio 18 : 21 : 16.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 92 
08  Agricultural Science
Time : 02 hours
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.
Paper II 
Time : 03 hours
This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay type and Essay type.
Part A  Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 100 marks for each question altogether 400 marks
Part B  Six essay type questions. Four questions should be
answered. Each question carries 150 marks altogether 600 marks
Total marks for paper II = 1000 10 = 100
100
100
200 2 = 100
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
Type of rainfall
SouthEast monsoon
NorthEast monsoon
Intermonsoon  I
Intermonsoon  II
Cyclone
P.
Q.
R.
S.
T.
1. Among the above the correct relationship between the type of rainfall and time of receiving the rainfall is
(1) AP.
(2) AR.
(3) BQ.
(4) CS.
(5) DP.
2. Shifting of intertropical convergence zone to north from Sri Lanka is taken place due to
(2) B.
(3) C.
(4) D.
(5) E.
(1) A.
3. Dry zone of Sri Lanka mainly receives rains from
(1) A.
(2) B.
(3) C.
(4) D.
(5) E.
4. It was decided that following factors should be considered installing a raingauge in the weather station
located in the school garden
A  The upper edge of the raingauge should be 30 cm above the ground level
B  The floor should be uniform and level
C  The distance between the raingauge and the trees or buildings of the surrounding should
be more than four times of the height of those obstacles
Of above, the most important factor/s to be considered in installing a raingauge would be
(1) A only
(2) A and B only (3) A and C only (4) B and C only (5) All A, B and C
5. A student who tested the texture of the soil in the field conclude that it was a sandy soil. The most
abundant mineral of the parent material which the soil was formed is
(2) Quartz
(3) Mica
(4) Apatite
(5) Feldspar
(1) Dolomite
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 93 
 94 
13. A farmer who intented to cultivate his upland which has not been cultivated for many years, used a disc
plough to prepare the land. The main objective of using a disc plough is to
(1) crush the soil aggregates
(2) break the hardpan in the soil
(3) control the weeds
(4) prepare the ridges and furrows
(5) mix organic matter
14. The soil factors necessary to know in determination of irrigation requrement for a field crop cultivation
would be
(1) moisture percentage, field capacity and bulk density
(2) moisture pecentage, field capacity and the depth of the root zone
(3) moisture percentage, structure and bulk density
(4) texture, structure and bulk density
(5) texture, structure and porosity
15. A farmer established a sprinkler irrigation system to supply water to his vegetable cultivation. He used
a water pump in the system. The main objective of using a water pump is to
(1) lift water to surface of the earth
(2) increase the potential energy of the water
(3) increase the kinetic energy of the water
(4) increase the volume of the water
(5) increase the weight of the water
16. It was observed that the crop plants grown on a land were wilted; their leaves turned to pale green and
dropped. When those plants were uprooted, it was observed that the lateral roots were dead and the
depth of the root zone was short. The main reason for this situation is
(1) nitrogen deciency
(2) potassium deciency
(3) soil acidity
(4) weak drainage
(5) iron toxicity
17. Following are some statement regarding plant breeding
A  New varieties produced through breeding are always fit to natural environment
B  Potential yield of the crops can only be improved through breeding
C  Mutation can create genetic variances
Of above, the correct statements would be
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only
18. New plants have been produced by incorporating the gene having insecticidal property taken from
Bacillus thuringiensis in to plants via a vector. This bio technological method is called
(1) Mutation breeding
(2) Hybridization
(3) Somaclonal variation
(4) Gene recombination
(4) Recombinant DNA technology
19. The parameter used to measure the nutrient availability of the media in hydroponics is
(1) pH.
(2) CEB.
(3) EC.
(4) BOD.
(5) FC.
20. Following are some statements regarding soiless cultivation in solid media
A  Metam Sodium can be used to disinfect the coir dust
B  Drainage can be improved by mixing coir dust with paddy husk charcoal
C  When nursery plants rearing, the nutrient media is directly applied to the media in the
nursery pan
Of above the corrcet statements would be,
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 95 
21. The diagram shows a simple propagatory structure prepared for rooting of a cutting. The
techniques used in here to promote rooting are
(1) reducing of leaf area and increasing the humidity
(2) increasing the humidity and temperature
(3) reducing the leaf area and increasing the temperature
(4) wetting the soil and reducing the humidity
(5) reducing the temperature and humidity
22. The stomata are closed when the plant is subjected to a water stress. This is happen due to the reducing
of the turgidity in guard cels. A hormone and a mineral responsible for this are respectively
(2) Auxin and K+
(3) ABA and Ca++
(1) Auxin and Ca++
(4) ABA and K+
(5) Gibberellin and Ca++
25. During the night, lighting of re torches prepared by Kakuna oil and during the daytime placing a stage
of yellow and red owers while spreading the milk rice in the eld were done by a farmer. By this
activity, farmer expects to
(1) provide light to the paddy eld during the night
(2) control the insect pest damages in the eld
(3) chuck of rats coming to paddy eld during the night
(4) decorate the eld
(5) chuck the pests coming to the paddy eld
For questions 26 and 27, select the correct responses from (A), (B), (C) and (D) and then select the
correct number.
1. If only responses A, B, D are correct, mark on 1
2. If only responses A, C, D are correct, mark on 2
3. If only responses B, C, D are correct, mark on 3
4. If only responses A, B, C are correct, mark on 4
5. If only responses C and D are correct, mark on 5
Mark in the answer sheet according to the instructions given
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 96 
B
Parthenium
Alligator plant
Salvinia
C
Girapala
Balunaguta
Kadupahara
(2) Broad leaves
(5) Grasses and broad leaves
(3) Sedges
(3) C only
(3) C only
31. If a farmer expects to harvest his BG 300 rice crop during the period from 15th February to 15th March
in the Maha season of the dry zone, the appropriate time for land preparation and sowing would be
between
(1) 10th to 30th November and at the beginning of December respectively
(2) 25th October to 15th November and at the middle of November respectively
(3) 10th to 30th October and at the beginning of November respectively
(4) between 20th to 30th September and at the middle of October respectively
(5) between 10th to 30th December and at the end of January respectively
32. Following are some statement regarding the formation of empty seeds in rice
A  Due to stem borer attack
B  Due to drying stigma
C  Due to the deposition of pollen of another variety on the stigma
D  Application of nitrogen and potassium fertilizer during the owering
Of above, the correct statements are
(1) A and B only
(2) C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, B and D only
(5) A, C and D only
33. Nutrient content in 100g of some foods are given in the following table
Type of food
A
B
C
Protein (gram)
19
6.8
Fat (gram)
81
14
0.5
Carbohydrate (gram)
78.2
 97 
35. When green vegetables are prepared as a food, it is common to chop into small pieces, mix with scraped
coconut and make a malluma. The nutritional importance of this preparation is
(1) Adding coconut detoxify the toxic substances found in greens
(2) Nutrients in greens dissolve in coconut milk and facilitate the absoption in to the body
(3) Allows the absoption of fat soluble vitamins in greens into body
(4) Chopping into small pieces facilitate the water soluble vitamins to come out
(5) Reduce the cholesterol in coconut and transform into favourable state to the body
36. Following are some factors affecting the consumer demand on a particular good.
A  Consumer requirement
B  Cost of the inputs
C  Purchasing power
Of above, the correct would be
(1) A only
(2) C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
37. By fixing a maximum price for a certain good, the government basically expects
(1) to increase the demand for the good
(2) to protect the producer
(3) to protect the consumer
(4) to buy the good by the govenrment
(5) to provide a good profit to the producer for their goods
38. A farmer bought a land to caltivate chilli and the bought chemical fertilizer to apply the crop. The type
of above cost are
(1) Fixed cost and total cost respectively
(2) Variable cost and fixed cost respectively
(3) Fixed cost and variable cost respectively
(4) Variable cost and total cost respectively
(5) Total cost and variable cost respectively
39. Students observed a herd of cattle commonly found in dry zone having a long tail, well developed
dewlap and hump. They also observed that while some were grazing other were lying on the floor.
These observations can be identified as
(1) Behavioral changes of animals for the temperature
(2) Physiologocal changes of animals for the temperature
(3) Morphological changes of animal for the temperature
(4) Behavioral and pysiological changes of animals for the temperature
(5) Behavioral and morphological changes of animal for the temperature
40. A farmer has a well managed cattle farm. He wants to improve the productivity of his indigenous
milking cattle in a long run. The most appropriate method is
(1) Selection of animals
(2) Inbreeding of animals
(3) Provision of good nutrition to animals
(4) Crossing with improved breeds
(5) Improving with animal health
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 98 
41. Parts of the complex stomach of cattle were dipped in formalin and kept in seperate vessels in the
school laboratory. But the lables of these vessels were displaced Photographs of the parts of the stomach
found in those vessels are shown below.
A
B
C
D
Based on the characteristics of above photographs, the labels relevent to each vessel would be
(1) Reticulum, omasum, ruman and abomasum respectively
(2) Abomasum, reticulum, ruman, and omasum respectively
(3) Omasum, reticulum, ruman, and abomasum respectively
(4) Abomasum, omasum, ruman and reticulum respectively
(5) Ruman, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum respectively
42. In a poultry breeding farm having pure bred birds, poultry shed X has white colour, single combed
broiler chicken while the poultry shed Y has white colour layer chicken Poultry breeds in sheds X and
Y would be
(2) Sussex and Bhrahma respectively
(1) Sussex and leghorn respectively
(3) R.I.R and leghorn respectively
(4) R.I.R and Newhamsphire respectively
(5) Sussex and Cochin respectively
43. A farmer purchased two groups of day old chicks, one group for egg production and the other for broiler
production. If he wants to buy poultry feeds for first three weeks, the feeds he should buy would be
(1) chicks ration and growers ration
(2) growers ration and layers ration
(3) broiler finishing ration and growers ration
(4) chicks ration and broiler starter ration
(5) growers ration and finishing ration
44. In an awareness programme for commercial poultry farmer, livestock development officer stated certain
characteristics of the hens
A  Activeness
B  Strong legs with warn nails
C  Small hard (Rough) abdomen
D  Short beak and vigor
E  Dry small cloaca
Of above, the characteristics of a good layer hen would be
(1) A,B, and C only
(2) A,B, and D only
(3) A,C, and D only
(5) B,D, and E only
(4) B,C, and D only
45. Following are the certain points noted by a veterinary surgeon after visiting a livestock farm
A  Udder of the certain cows were swollen and the milk of those cows had clots
B  Certain cows were limping and saliva was coming out from their mouth
C  Droppings with blood were observed in the poultry shed and remaing feed were found in the
containers
According to above A,B,C symptoms it is suspected that farm animals were having
(1) Mastitis, Haemoregic septecemia and ranicut respectively.
(2) Milk fever, foot and mouth diseaces and coccidiosis respectively.
(3) Mastities, foot infection and ranicut respectively.
(4) Mastities, foot and mouth disease and coccidiosis respectively.
(5) Milk fever, anthrax and bird flue respectively.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 99 
For question from 46  50 two statements for each question were given. Considering the pair of
statements given in each question, select the most suitable answer for each question from the five
answers given below and mark according to the instructions given on the answer script.
Response
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
46'
47'
48'
49'
50'
First statement
True
True
True
False
False
Second statement
True and explains the rst statement correctly
True and does not explain the rst statement correctly
False
True
False
First statement
Maize is a monocotyledon seed.
Seed dormancy is dened as the ability of a
seed to germinate when factors needed for
germination are provided
Self sterility avoids the self pollination in plants
Rooting of cuttings are promoted in the simple
propagaters
No variations occur in plants obtained from
tissue culture
Second statement
Maize seed has a single cotyledon and it is called
scutellum
Seed viability can be secured by reducing the
CO2 concentration in the stores
Self sterility means weakening of the growth of
pollen tube after pollination
High humidity and temperature promote the
rooting in cuttings
Genetic variations could be obtained from
somaclonal variations
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 100 
08  Agricultural Science
*
*
Paper II
1. Digestive tract of the cattle is given in the diagram below. Use this diagram to answer following questions. (Select and write English letters relevant to the answers of questions (i)  (iii) of section A)
Y
T
P
(A) (i) State two places where food is subjected to mechanical digestion.
a.
b.
a. Starch
Place  1
Enzyme  1
Place  3
b. Crude ber
Maltose
Place  2
Enzyme  2
Glucose
Place  2
Enzyme  2
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 101 
Type of food
Concentrated food
Wet roughphage
Dry roughphage
Processed roughphage
Example
W Hay, silage
X Hay, straw
Y Coconut poonac, rice bran, molasses
Z Desmidium, Brachiaria, Setaria
(i) Select the correct example for each of food types P, Q, R, S from W, X, Y, Z in the above
table.
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
Q
S
(ii) State two main differences between concentrated food and roughphage.
a.
b.
(D)
Various agrochemicals used in agriculture and their uses are given in the following table.
X1
X2
X3
X4
X5
X
Copper sando 4
Carbofuran
MCPA
ROUND UP
Pyrethroid
Y1
Y2
Y3
Y4
Y5
Y
Selective weedicide used in paddy cultivation.
Total weedicide used to control all weeds in a eld
A safe insecticide extracted from plants
Neuro toxic insecticide
Fungicidused to control leaf spot disease
(i) X1
(ii) X2
(iii) X3
(iv) X4
(v) X5
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 102 
2' (A) A student conducted a soil analysis and found following quantites of different ions in an oven dried
100g of soil.
Mg2+
= 4.5 milli equivalents
2+
Ca
= 6.0 milli equivalents
K+
= 3.6 milli equivalents
H+
= 1.5 milli equivalents
2SO4
= 0.8 milli equivalents
(i) Using above data, calculate the cation exchange capacity of the soil sample.
a.
b.
a.
b.
(B) A famer digging a well in his land observed that the soil is hard when it is dry, muddy and sticky
when it is wet and there is a quarts layer when the soil is dig to a one meter depth.
(i) Name the soil group in this land?
(ii) What could be the district that farmer is digging the well?
(iii) Name two crops suitable to cultivate in this farm.
b.
a.
(iv) Write two main problems that could arise when cultivating this land.
a.
b.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 103 
(C) Following facts were found when a barren land is inspected for the suitability for crop cultivation.
1. The land has a mild slope
2. Top soil is eroded in most of the places
3. The soil is severely degraded
4. Poorly grown weeds are abandon
(i) What is the meaning of "the soil is severely degraded"?
(ii) Write four methods that could be followed for conservation of this soil.
a.
b.
c.
d.
(iii) Write three types of soil erosion that could occur in this type of lands.
a.
b.
c.
(iv) Name a suitable land preparation method for cultivating this land.
(v) If vegetables are cultivated on this land, name a suitable irrigation method.
(vi) Name two suitable weed control methods for this land.
a.
b.
3'
(A) (i) Supply function for rice is given as QS = 4P  50. Fill the following supply list using this supply
function.
Price of the 1kg of rice Ammount supplied(kg)
15
'''''''''''''''''''''
25
'''''''''''''''''''''
35
'''''''''''''''''''''
45
'''''''''''''''''''''
(ii) Plot the supply curve of this supply list.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 104 
(iii) If Government provides fertilizer subsidy to paddy cultivation, state the impact of it to this
supply curve by mean of a graph.
(iv) State two main reasons affecting the expansion and contraction of supply along the supply
curve in section (ii).
a.
b.
(B) (i) State the main difference that could be observed between following cost groups.
1. Fixed cost and variable cost
(C) (i) Malnutrition is a major nutritional problem in Sri Lanka. State the two main types of
malnutrition.
a.
b.
(ii) State the main disease condition occur due to iodine deficiency.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 105 
(iii) What is the procedure followed by the government to avoid above disease condition?
(iv) Recent surveys disclosed that the diabetic conditions are prevalence among school children in
Sri Lanka. State two main factors causing to this situation.
a.
b.
(D) (i) A farmer, who intends to cultivate pineapple as an intercrop under his 10 year old coconut
cultivation, met the agricultural instructor of the region for necessary advices.
a. The instructor did not approve the farmer's intention. What could be the main reason for
it?
b. Name other two crops which could be grown as intercrops under coconut.
1'
2'
(ii) State two main advantages of Gliricidia (Gliricidia maculata) which is commonly used in
street cropping to the soil.
a.
b.
(iii) In addition to the advantages to soil, Gliricidia is recently used for another main alternate use.
What is it?
(iv) Name two commonly used cropping systems in Sri Lanka.
a.
b.
4'
(A) Vegetables and cereals are commonly propagated by seeds. Capsicum, tomato, finger millet, snake
gourd, ridged gourd, okra, rice and maize are some examples.
(i) Classify above mentioned crop into monocots and dicots.
a. Monocots
b. Dicots
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 106 
(iv) State two other factors causing seed dormancy and write relevant examples from above
mentioned crops.
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
Crop
Potato
Rice
Papaya
Disease
''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
Leaf blight
Root knot disease
Causal agent
Phytophthera infestans
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
(ii) Fill in the relevant blanks with the nutrient mainly responsible for the following deficiency
symptoms.
a.
b.
**
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 107 
Part B  Essay
5. (i)
(a)
(b)
(ii)
(a)
(b)
What are the main problems that could happen in agriculture due to climatic change?
What are the actions that could be followed to avoid such problems in order to succeed the
agricultural activities?
A farmer carried out a soil test before cultivating his land and results were shown to the
agricultural instructor. The instructor advised him to apply lime (CaCO3) to his soil. What
are the reasons for this advice?
What are the advantages that the farmer could obtain by following these advices?
(iii)
Large milking cows having a hump and an undulated dewlap were found in a dry zone livestock
farm.
(a) What is the type of breed of these milking cows?
(b) Describe the responses and adaptations of these milking cows to unfavorable climatic
conditions?
6. (i)
An agricultural teacher divided her class into three groups and instructed to carry out following
tests.
Group one  Determination of moisture percentage in the soil
Group two  Determination of eld capacity of the soil
Group three  Determination of permanent wilting point of the soil
(a) Name the equipment needed by group  one to carry out their test.
(b) State the readings to be taken by group  two to nd out the eld capacity of the soil.
(c) Explain how the group  three calculate the permanent wilting point.
(ii)
Following are some information taken from a report prepared by students who visited a home
garden.
X  Plants such as Monarakudumbiya, Brinjal, Atthadi, Kuppamania, Atawara, Chille,
Tomato, Ridgegourd were found in the eld.
Y  Labourers were involved in activities such as applying straw mulch to turmeric
cultivation, hand weeding of Kuppamania, Sparaying a liquid on atawara.
(a) Classify the weeds found in this home garden based on the information mentioned in X.
(b) What are the adaptations of these weeds for their survival?
(c) Based on the information in Y, classify the weed control methods. Write the advantages and
disadvantages of each method.
7. (i)
A farmer expects to commence a broiler chicken farm with an idea to send the production to the
market during the New Year period in April.
(a) At what time he should bring the day old chicks to the farm?
(b) Describe the main factors to be considered in rearing broiler chicken.
(ii)
8. (i)
(ii)
Describe the challenges of developing the agriculture production in present Sri Lanka.
(a)
Describe the most suitable rearing method for a farmer who expects to start a medium scale
dairy farm in two hactare land.
(a) Sketch a oor plan for a cattle shed for 20 milking cows rearing according to above described
method.
Describe the ways of improving the efciency in agricultural marketing process.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 108 
9. (i)
(ii)
(a)
(b)
10. A dry zone farmer intends to cultivate chillie in his two acre land for dry chillie production.
(i)
Explain the procedure that should be followed from land preparation to crop establishment in
order to obtain a healthy chillie crop.
(ii) Explain how to use the concept of integrated plant nutrient system (IPNS) to maintain favourable
soil nutrient level for a productive crop.
(iii) Describe the procedure that should be followed by the farmer from the time of harvesting to
minimize the post harvesting losses.
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 109 
09  Biology
Paper I 
Time : 02 hours
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.
Paper II 
Time : 03 hours
This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay type and Essay type.
Part A  Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 100 marks for each question  altogether 400 marks
Part B  Six essay type questions. Four questions should be
answered. Each question carries 150 marks  altogether 600 marks
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100
100
100
200 2 = 100
Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
1.
A hypothesis is
(1) an opinion that cannot be proved experimentally.
(2) an opinion to explain an observation.
(3) an opinion conrmed by all experimental evidences.
(4) an opinion not agreeing with accepted principles.
(5) an unconrmed conclusion of an experiment.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following characteristics of water is most helpful for minimizing temperature variation
within organisms?
(1) Water remains as a liquid within a wide range of temperatures.
(2) Water molecule makes Hydrogen bonds with many other molecules.
(3) Water molecules are held together by cohesive forces.
(4) Water has a high specic heat capacity.
(5) Water has a high latent heat of evaporation.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 110 
5.
NH2
O
O
O
HC
O  P  O  P  O  P  O  CH2
H
N C C
N
CH
C
N
N
H
H
OH OH
7.
Which of the following is an event that does not occur during prophase I of meiosis?
(1) Duplication of each chromosome to produce two chromatids.
(2) Shortening of chromosomes
(3) Parallel arangement of homologous chromosomes making a synaptonemal complex.
(4) Exchange of parts of chromatids between homologous chromosomes.
(5) Disappearence of nuclear membrane
8.
Which one of the following features is unique to the organism group indicated against it?
Feature
Organism group
(1) Paired ns
Osteichthyes
(2) Cilia
Ciliophora
(3) Pedicellaria
Echinodermata
(4) Exoskeleton
Arthropoda
(5) Wings
Aves
9.
(4) B and D
(5) B and E
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 111 
(3) B, D, C, A, E
15. Along which one of the following paths, a red blood cell from upper arm passes through subclavian
vein to lung for oxygenation?
(1) Brachiocephalic vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary vein
(2) Common carotid vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary artery
(3) Brachiocephalic vein
(4) Jugular vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary artery
Heart
Pulmonary vein
(5) Superior vena cava
16. Select the correct statement regarding human heart.
(1) Myocardium of left atria is thicker than that of the right atria.
(2) Cuspid valves are closed by its muscle bres.
(3) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood only by superior and inferior vena cava.
(4) Corda tendineae join atrioventricular valves to papillary muscles.
(5) Coronary circulation is associated with systemic circulation.
17. Which one of the following microorganisms is used in yoghurt manufacture.
(2) Streptomyces griseus
(1) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) Acetobacter aceti
(5) Bacillus subtilis
18. Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain energy and carbon respectively
(1) from light and Carbondioxside.
(2) from light and organic compounds.
(3) by oxidation of inorganic compounds and from Carbondioxside.
(4) by oxidation inorganic compounds and from organic compounds.
(5) by oxidation of organic compounds and from Carbondioxside.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 112 
19. Which one of the following hormones acts on both smooth muscles and cardiac muscles?
(4) Adrenalin
(5) Cortisol
(1) Oxytocin
(2) Noradrenalin (3) ADH
20. Select the incorrect statement regarding action potential of a neuron.
(1) Its production requires a threshold stimulus.
(2) In myelinated neurons, action potentials are produced only at the nodes of Ranvier.
(3) Rising phase of the action potential is due to inux of Na+ into neuron.
(4) During an action potential, polarity of the neurilemma is reversed.
(5) Its duration is about 10 ms.
21. Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system of man
(1) dilates pupil of eye.
(3) inhibits secretion of intestinal juice.
(5) increases the rate of ventilation of lungs.
(3) Diplococcus.
 113 
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 114 
36. A man was colour blind although his father was normal. What is the probability of his sisters son
becoming colour blind? Assume that his sisters husband is normal.
(1) 1
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25
(5) 0
37. Which one of the following statements best explains a agship species?
(1) A species that has been given priority in conservation efforts, because it permits a large number of
other species in the community to persist.
(2) A species whose occupancy is large enough so that when it is protected many other species are
under that protection.
(3) A popular species that serves as a symbol to rally people for conservation awareness and action.
(4) A species selected by a group of people for conservation awareness and action.
(5) A species that is present only in restricted geographical areas.
38. What is the most critical global environmental problem which has received highest attention today?
(1) Global warming
(2) Depletion of the ozone layer
(3) Desertication
(4) Acid rain
(5) Accumulation of solid wastes
39. Which one of the following controls trans boundary movement of hazardous waste?
(1) Basel convention
(2) CITES
(3) Montreal protocol
(4) Marpol convention
(5) Kyoto protocol
40. The antibiotic erythromycin affects
(1) protein synthesis in bacteria
(3) the cell membrane of bacteria
(5) DNA replication of bacteria
For each of the questions 41 to 50 one or more of the responses is/are correct. Decide which of the
reponse/responses is/are correct and then select the correct number.
If only A, B and D are correct
........................................... 1
If only A, C and D are correct
........................................... 2
If only A and B are correct
........................................... 3
If only C and D are correct
........................................... 4
If only other response or combination of responses is correct
........................................... 5
1
A, B, D
correct
2
A, C, D
correct
Directions summarised
3
4
5
A, B
C, D
Any other response or
correct
correct
combination of responses correct
 115 
43. Question 43 is based on the skeletons of the animal groups given below.
^b) Arthropoda
^c) Amphibia
^d) Mollusca
^e) Echinodermata
^a) Annelida
Which of the following groups show/ shows the type of skeleton seen in the animal groups given above
in the sequence of exoskeleton, hydrostatic skeleton and endoskeleton?
(A) d a e
(B) b a c
(C) b c d
(D) e a c
(E) e a d
44. Which of following is/are seen in Domain Archaea?
(A) Cell walls contain peptidoglycan.
(B) Only one type of RNA polymerase is present.
(C) Generally found in extreme environments.
(D) Do not show sensitivity to streptomycin.
(E) Motile forms are common.
45. Which of the following hormone/hormones is/are synthesized in the hypothalamus?
(A) TRH
(B) GnRH
(C) ACTH
(D) ADH
(E) LH
46. Select the correct statement/statements regarding human nephron.
(A) Cortical nephrons are the predominant type of nephrons.
(B) Convoluted tubule is the site of obligatory reabsorption of water.
(C) Podocytes are found in the outer wall of the Bowmans capsule.
+
(D) H is secreted in the distal convoluted tubule.
+
(E) K is reabsorbed in the descending limb of loop of Henle.
47. Which of following is/are example/examples of passive immunity?
(A) Immunity developed in new born babies by antibodies passing through the placenta of the
mother.
(B) Immunity developed in a person who has cantracted measles.
(C) Immunity developed by vaccination of a healthy persons with polio vaccine.
(D) Immunity developed after vaccination of a person who has been bitten by a rabid dog.
(E) Immunity developed in certain individuals against malaria.
48. Which of the following character/characters is/are seen in the Phylum Phaeophyta?
(A) In many forms the vegetative body is differentiated into a holdfast, stalk and thallus.
(B) The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c.
(C) Occurs primarily in fresh water.
(D) Contains the pigment phycobilin.
(E) Life cycle has no agellated cells.
49. Hookworm infections can be controlled by
(A) refraining from defaecating outdoors.
(B) refraining from using human faeces as fertilizer.
(C) washing hands thoroughly using soap before consuming food.
(D) wearing footwear.
(E) keeping food material always covered.
50. Select the correct statement/statements regarding coconut mite.
(A) damages young nuts as well as mature nuts.
(B) spreads due to transportation of nuts.
(C) is clearly visible to the naked eye.
(D) can be successfully controlled by indigenous methods.
(E) is abundant in the base of young coconut fronds.
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 116 
09  Biology
*
*
Paper II
(ii) Indicate the Domain to which each of the groups indicated below belongs.
Group
(a) Cyanobacteria
Domain
(b) Methanococcus
(c)
Chitridiomycota
(d) Ciliophora
(C) (i) Name an external structural characteristic feature that is seen in both birds and reptiles.
(ii) Give an external feature that could be used to distinguish a chondrichthyes from an
osteichthyes.
(iii) Using visible external features allocate a leech and Nereis to their respective classes.
Leech
Animal
Class
Nereis
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 117 
2. (A) (i) Name the three main heterotrophic nutritional modes seen in living organisms.
Aspergillus
.................................................
.................................................
(B) The following experiment was carried out to determine the water potential of potato cells.
Four equal sized strips each measuring 60 mm in length were cut from a potato tuber. One strip was
placed in a test tube with distilled water, while the others were placed in test tubes containing different
concentrations of sucrose solutions. The tubes were labeled A, B, C and D. After 2 hours the potato
strips were taken out and their lengths were measured again. The data are shown in the table below.
Tube
A
B
C
D
(i) Which tube contained a solution with a water potential equivalent to that of the potato cells?
(ii) Which tube contained distilled water?
(iii) Arrange the tubes A to D, in the descending order of water potentials of the liquids.
(iv) (a) What is a blood count?
(b) What is the equipment usually used in a lab to get a blood count?
What does the presence of proteins in a human urine sample generally indicate?
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 118 
(v) What is the role of inhibin in the control of sperm production in man?
(vi) What is the role of positive feedback control of oxytocin release at parturition?
(B) (i) State the main function of each of the following type of RNA in the process of protein
synthesis.
Type of RNA
Function
mRNA
rRNA
tRNA
(ii) Which one of the above types of RNA would change if a point mutation occurs in a gene coding
for an enzyme?
(C) (i) State two important changes that have taken place in the evolution of the angyosperm ovule
from a megasporangium, as found in Lycophyta.
(a)
(b)
(ii) (a) What is known as double fertilization?
 119 
Questions (ii) and (iii) are based on the hypothetical food web of a fresh water ecosystem given
below.
Cormorants
Snakeheads
Barbs
Grass carps
Common carps
Zooplankton
Phytoplankton
Aquatic insects
Aquatic macrophytes
(ii) Name the organism / organisms that occupy more than one trophic level.
(iii) If aquatic macrophytes are removed from the above ecosystem, what will happen to the
population density of the common carp?
(B)
(i) In the table below, some characters seen in fungi are given in the rst column. If a given character
is present in a phylum indicate with a () and if absent with a ().
Character
Habitat is mostly aquatic
Chitridiomycota
Zygomycota
Ascomycota
(ii) Name a structure from which stem cells are mainly obtained for human stem cell therapy
today.
**
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 120 
Part B  Essay
5. (a) Discribe the general composition and stucture of proteins.
(b) Giving suitable examples, list the differant types of proteins found in living organisms
according to their functions.
(c) Why a denatured enzyme does not show its normal activity?
6. (a) Briey describe the structure of a sarcomere in human skeletal muscle bre.
(b) Briey explain how a human skeletal muscle bre contracts.
(c) What are the major differerences between phloem translocation and xylem translocation?
8. (a) What is meant by air pollution?
(b) Epistasis
***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 121 
10  Combined Mathematics
Structure of the question paper
Paper I  Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A  Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question  altogether 250 marks.
Part B  Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks  altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper I 1000 10 = 100
Paper II  Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A  Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question  altogether 250 marks.
Part B  Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks  altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100
Calculation of the final mark : Paper I
Paper II
Final marks
= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100
Important :
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination  2011 onwards
 122 
10  Combined Mathematics
Prototype Questions for Paper I
Part A
1. and are the roots of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, where c 0. Show that the
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
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2. Let f ( x) ax 3 + bx 2 2 x + c.
If (i) the remainder is 6( x + 1) when f (x ) is divided by ( x 2 + x), and
(ii) ( x 1) is a factor of f (x ),
then, find the values of a , b and c.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards
 124 
3 1
.
5. Let A =
1 1
2 + n n
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6. Using the properties of determinants show that
a b c
b c a = (a + b + c)(a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ab bc ca).
c a b
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