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G.C.E.

(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards


Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions

Volume 1
01
02
07
08
09
10
11

Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Agriculture
Biology
Combined Mathematics
Higher Mathematics

Curriculum
Assessment
&
Evaluation

Teaching

Learning

NETS

Research and Development Branch


National Evaluation and Testing Service
Department of Examinations

All rights reserved


G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions
Volume 1
Department of Examinations

First print - 2010

ISBN 978-955-668-028-7

Research and Development Branch


National Evaluation and Testing Service
Department of Examinations

Financial Aid

World Bank Education Sector Development Framework and Programme


Education Sector Development Grant (ESDG)

Printing : Department of Examinations

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Message of the Commissioner General of Examinations


Various methodologies are applied to measure the knowledge and comprehension achieved from
any course of studies. Out of them the most widespread method used today is the written examination
mode. Hence the fact that it builds up a relationship between the process that enhances the efciency of
the Learning Teaching process and the summative evaluation methodology and determines the achivement
levels are taken into account.
The syllabi amended according to the new educational reforms of 2007 were introduced to Grade 12
in 2009. Those pupils will appear for the G.C.E. (A.L) examination for the rst time in 2011. Accordingly,
this is a document containing the structure of the question paper and prototype questions for the use of
the pupils appearing for the G.C.E. (A.L) examinations scheduled to be held in and after the year 2011 in
terms of the amended syllabi.
With the revision of the subject content of the G.C.E. (A.L) syllabi, it was necessary to effect
changes in the structure of question papers to suit these changes. Accordingly, an attempt has been made
to collect the subject groups and to maintain the identity of the structures of question papers within each
group. The structures were decided on by academic committees and prototype questions too were framed
by these committees.
At a time when the condence and attention on educational measurement and evaluation is increasing
it is important to raise awareness in all the parties concerned on how this evaluation process is performed
at G.C.E.(A.L) examination. The G.C.E.(A.L) examination is mainly an achievement examination aimed
at certication. However, since pupils are selected for universities on the results of this examination, by the
University Grants Commission and other national as well as international higher educational institutions,
this examination also embodies features of a selection examination. Therefore, by using the structures of
question papers and the prototype questions contained in this document, the pupils will get a clear idea about
the type of evaluation they will have to face at this examination. As such this will be of immense help for
principals and teachers of schools, those who provide guidance in this regard and the school community,
in preparing the pupils for the examination.
Part I of this Instruction Manual contains general information about the examination, Part II
contains the structure and nature of the question papers while Part III contains prototype questions on each
subject.
I wish to express my gratitude to the Director General and staff of the National Institute of
Education the Commissioner General of Educational Publications and his staff, the Controlling Examiners
of all the subjects, the resource persons, all ofcers of the Department of Examinations Sri Lanka, for the
co-operation extended in drafting the structures of the question papers and the prototype questions contained
in this manual, the staff of the World Bank, Educational Sector Development Grant for providing nancial
assistance for printing this manual to the staff and the Head of Printing Division of the Department of
Examinations for the dedication in printing and all who contributed for the successful completion of this
task.

Anura Edirisinghe
Commissioner General of Examinations

2010.06.22
Research and Development Branch
Department of Examinations

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Guidance

Mr. Anura Edirisinghe


Commissioner General of Examinations

Direction and Organization

Mrs. Gayathri Abeygunasekara


Commissioner of Examinations
(Research and Development)
Mr. H.J.M.C.A. Jayasundara
Commissioner of Examinations
(School Examinations Organization)
Mr. B. Sanath Pujitha
Commissioner of Examinations
(Evaluation - School Examinations)

Subject Co-ordination and Editing :

Mr. J.A.J.R. Jayakody


Assistant Commissioner of Examinations
Mrs. Manomi Senevirathne
Assistant Commissioner of Examinations
Mr. E. Kulasekara
Deputy Commissioner of Examinations
Mrs. T. Balasinkhgm
Assistant Commissioner of Examinations
Mrs. Thamara Vidanapathirana
Assistant Commissioner of Examinations

Computer typesetting

Mrs. K.P.D. Anusha Maduwanthi Dissanayake


Data Entry Operator

Cover page

Mr. Asanka Sameera Deepal


Data Entry Operator

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Table of Contents

Page No.

Part I
General information about the Examination ----------------- 1
Part II
Structure of question papers and nature -----------------

Part III
Prototype questions --------------------------------------------- 7
(01) Physics ---------------------------------------------------- 9
(02) Chemistry ----------------------------------------------- 29
(07) Mathematics -------------------------------------------- 47
(08) Agricultural Science ----------------------------------- 93
(09) Biology ------------------------------------------------- 110
(10) Combined Mathematics ------------------------------ 122
(11) Higher Mathematics ---------------------------------- 169
Annex 01 (Sinhala) ------------------------------------------ 184
Annex 01 (Tamil) -------------------------------------------- 199

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PART I

General Certicate of Examination (Advanced Level)


General Information about the Examination
1.

Introduction
The G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination is the nal certication examination of senior
secondary education in Sri Lanka. Even though this is conducted mainly as a certifying examination
since selection for Universities, other Higher Educational Institutions and Colleges of Education are
made on the basis of the results of this examination, this is used also as a selection examination.
Moreover the results of the examination are also regarded a basic qualication to obtain middle
level employment. The G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination is held under the subject streams,
Biological Sciences, Physical sciences, Commerce and Arts. This is held in all three media Sinhala,
Tamil and English.

2.

Application for Examination


2.1

School Candidates
It is essential that a candidate has completed 80% of attendance out of the time advanced
level classes were held at the time of applying for the examination.
The principal of each school should submit applications with information about the name
of the school candidates who have completed the requirements to apply for the examination,
the subjects offered and the medium. Here strict attention should be paid to ll the name of
candidates correctly as indicated in the birth cetiticate and correctly enter the subjects, subject
numbers and the medium.

2.2

Private Candidates
Applicants who have not appeared as school candidates previously but appearing for the
rst time as a private candidate and those candidates who wish to appear by changing even
one subject offerd as a previous sitting, should have registered in the respectire Provincial
Department of Education to fulll the requirements of assessment and projects implemented
as an alternative to the School Based Assesment programme. They must join the school they
are assigned at registration complete the assessment and projects, and a copy of the certicate
issued by the principal of such school to that effect should be sent to the Provincial Department
of Education, and another copy should be sent to the Department of Examinations. Applicants
who are over 21 years of age are exempt from this requirement. The applicants who are below
21 years of age, and not registered are not eligible to apply for the examination.
At the time applications are called from private candidates through a newspaper
advertisement published by the Department of Examinations the applicants who wish to appear
for the examination, should send to the Department of Examinations before the stipulated
date mentioned in the newspaper advertisement, a duly perfected application with the receipt
obtained on payment of the required examination fees by reqistered post.

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3.

Selection of Subjects
This examination will be held from 2011 according to the ciruler (annex 1) No 2009/16 dated
18.05.2009 issued by the Ministry of Education regarding G.C.E. (A.L) subject combinations and
the subject combination for university entrance.
The new syllabi for G.C.E. (A.L) were introduced for Grade 12 in 2009 and G.C.E. (A.L)
examination based on these syllabi will be held for the rst time in 2011. According to the provisions
contained in the circular No. 2009/16 mentioned above candidates should select the subjects relevant
to the streams of Biological Sciences, Physical Sciences, Commerce and Arts.
Candidates should appear for three main subjects for the G.C.E. (A.L) Examination and in
addition the pupils who wish to apply for university entrance should pass in the "Common General
Examination" paper too. Even though not considered for university entrance, pupils have the option
to sit the "General English" paper too.
3.1

Subjects approved for G.C.E .(A.L) Examination


The conditions regarding the subject combination to be selcted by pupils for all the
steams are mentioned in circular No. 2009/16 embodied in annex 1.
The subjects approved for G.C.E. (A.L) Examination and the subject numbers are given
below. When applying for the examination the relevant subject numbers should be used.
Subject

Subject Numbers

Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics
Agricultural Science
Biology
Combined Mathematics
Higher Mathematics
Civil Technology
Mechanical Technology
Electrical, Electronics and Information Technology
Food Technology
Agriculture Technology
Bio Resource Technology
Information & Communication Technology
Economics
Geography
Political Science
Logic and Scientic Method
History of Sri Lanka
History of India
History of Europe
History of Modern
Home Economics
Communication & Media Studies
Business Statistics
Business Studies
Accountancy

01
02
07
08
09
10
11
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
25 A
25 B
25 C
28
29
31
32
33

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Buddhism
Hinduism
Christianity
Islam
Buddhist Civilization
Hindu Civilization
Islam Civilization
Greek and Roman Civilization
Christian Civilization
Art
Dancing (Indigenous)
Dancing (Bharatha)
Oriental Music
Carnatic Music
Western Music
Drama and Theatre (Sinhala)
Drama and Theatre (Tamil)
Drama and Theatre (English)
Sinhala
Tamil
English
Pali
Sanskrit
Arabic
Malay
French
German
Russian
Hindi
Chinese
Japanese

41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
71
72
73
74
75
78
79
81
82
83
84
86
87

For the G.C.E. (A.L) Examination three main subjects out of the above subjects in terms
of circular No. 2009/16 issued by the Ministry of Education can be selected. Besides these
main subjects candidates must sit the following two subjects.
*

Common General Examination (12)


For admission to a university in Sri Lanka as an internal student it is essential to
obtain a minimum mark as determined. Obtaining the qualication on one occasion can be
applied for admission to university entrance on a subsequent occasion. The marks obtained
for this subject will not be used for the calculation of the Z score.

General English (13)


This subject is not a main subject at G.C.E. (A.L) Examination. The marks or the
pass obtained for General English will not be used for university admission. However, the
result obtained for the subject will be entered separately in the G.C.E. (A.L) certicate.

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4.

Deciding on Grades
According to the raw score obtained for each subject grades will be determined in the following
mannar.
Mark Range
75 - 100
65 - 74
50 - 64
35 - 49
00 - 34

5.

Grade
A

B C S F -

Distinction Pass
Very Good Pass
Credit Pass
Ordinary Pass
Fail

School Based Assessment


5.1

Objectives
The objective of this exercise is to measure skills, competencies etc. of the pupils studying
in grades 12 & 13, that cannot be measured at G.C.E. (A.L) examination, during the teaching
learning process and identifying the weaknesses and strengths of pupils, and if there are weak
pupils to implement feedback programmes in respect of such pupils. Under this arrangement
assessment is carried out in respect of the subjects learnt in the classroom while two projects
carried out by pupils are also assessed.

5.2

How Assessment Proceeds


5.2.1

Assessment carried out in respect of subjects learnt in the classroom


(a) In respect of every subject learnt in the classroom, three assessments are conducted.
(for them the assessment modalities introduced should be used)
(b) In respect of the subjects will practicals learnt in the classroom (subjects such as
Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Agriculture, Home Economics, Music & Dancing)
at least one practical assessment should be done per term, and for the remaining
assessment other modalities may be used.
(c) There should be 15 sessions of assessment during the two years at the rate of 09
for the three terms in Grade 12 as three assessments per term, and six during the
1st and 2nd terms in Grade 13. making up a total of 15 assessments.
(d) The average scores of these 15 assessments shall be collected by the Department
of Examinations, Sri Lanka at the end of the second term in Grade 13. The
competency levels determined according to these scores shall be entered in the
result sheet of G.C.E.(A.L) in a separate column in the following manner.
School Based
Assessment marks
9, 10
8
6, 7
4, 5
1, 2, 3

Level of competency
Excellent Level Competency
High Level Competency
Credit Level Competency
Near Competency
Not reached to Competency Level

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5.2.2

Assessment through Projects


Every pupil studying for G.C.E.(A.L) Examination should complete two projects.
One of them should be an individual project while other shall be a Group project.
5.2.2.1 Individual Project
(a) In order to design the individual project a suitable topic should be selected and
approved by the School Project Committee.
(b) This project should be completed during the 1st and 2nd terms of Grade 12 and
should be under the guidance of the class teacher or a subject teacher
(c) The day to day activities regarding the project should be noted in a eld note book
and certied by the teacher in charge of the project.
(d) Through the completion of this project, it is expected, that the pupil will be able
to display his talents, maintain direct dealings with various institutions and the
society and provide opportunities to develop an understanding about working
with various types of people.
5.2.2.2 Group Project
(a) A group of 10 pupils should be named by the Project Committee of the School
for the Group Project.
(b) This group should be so formed as to represent the three streams of the school,
namely, Science, Commerce and Arts
(c) For Group Projects too, the group must submit a suitable topic to the Project
Committee and obtain approval for it.
(d) Work on this project should be completed during the 3rd term of Grade 12 and
1st term of Grade 13.
(e) Working with team spirit, working with various institutions and people, and
gaining the opportunity to be equipped with an idea about the activities in the
eld are expected from this project.

5.2.3

Assessment of Project
The Projects are subjected to assessment under 05 criteria and the teacher in charge
of the project/project committee, shall study how pupils have performed according to
each criteria and award marks.
A total of 20 marks is awarded for a project and the score is converted out of 10,
which is transmitted to the Department of Examinations.
The competency level decided on according to the nal average marks of these
two projects, is also entered in the G.C.E.(A.L) result sheet according to the levels
mentioned in 5.2.1 (d)

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Part II

G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards


Structure of question papers and nature

Paper II

Paper I

Number of questions to be answered

* Nature of questions

Number of questions

Number of questions to be answered

50

4/6

02. Chemistry

50

50

2/3

07. Mathematics

3, 4

10

10

10

10

5/7

08. Agricultural Science

50

50

4/6

09. Biology

50

50

4/6

10. Combined Mathamatics

3, 4

10

10

5/7

10

10

5/7

11. Higher Mathematics

3, 4

10

10

5/7

10

10

5/7

5/7

Number of questions to be answered

Number of questions

50

Number of questions

* Nature of questions

Part C

* Nature of questions

Time (hours)

Number of questions to be answered

Number of questions

Number of questions to be answered

01. Physics

Subject and
Subject Number

* Nature of questions

Number of questions

Part B

Number of options

Part A

* Nature of questions

Part B

Time (hours)

Part A

2/3

* Nature of questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

Multiple Choice
Other objective
Structured
Semi Structured
Essay
Practical

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Part III
Prototype Questions
The G.C.E.(A.L) Examination is the nal cetifying examination held at the end of secondary
education. Since pupils are selected for universities and institutions such as other Higher Education
Institutions and Colleges of Education too, this embodies the features of a selection examination.
Accordingly when framing question papers for G.C.E(A.L) examination, extra attention should be
paid to the features an achievement test should have and since pupils are selected to universities and other
Higher Education institutions too, on the results of this examination, attention has also been paid to this
aspect.
Accordingly, for the purpose of evaluating pupil achievement assay type tests and objective
type tests are used mainly in the written examination system. The subjectivity of the examiner affects an
essay type answer. In the case of an objective type of question, since there is only one correct answer it is
completely devoid of subjectivity. More attention of the present examination is paid to the type of questions
aimed at providing short structured answers, that are half way between these two extremes. Through a
structured question the answer that should be provided is strictly controlled within certain limits laid down
in the question itself. Accordingly since consistency among examiners in awarding marks can be assured,
objective and structured type of questions receive prominence in the examination sphere.
Accordingly in the drafting of question papers in the G.C.E. (A.L) examination, essay type questions
are used, only when necessary and more attention will be paid to framing objective type of questions.
Moreover in drafting question papers of G.C.E.(A.L) examination attention has already been paid to framing
questions of the type that measures advanced mental skills such as comprehension, application, analysis,
synthesis and evaluation without merely depending on memory. Questions are framed in relation to practical
events as much as possible and they are purported to measure the skills such as understanding something
clearly, applying the principles they have learnt to other similar situations, solving problems, argument,
presenting new suggestions / plans, comparisons, proper presenting of the language, and expressing ideas
clearly.
In this Part III along with the structure of question papers and the method of awarding marks,
prototype questions have been included, but they are not model question papers. As such, when drafting
question papers depending on the number of parts included in questions, the method of assigning weightage
to questions may change as appropriate, according to the subject matter used as the basis for framing
questions.
In addition to the prototype questions mentioned here, the Commissioner General of Examinations
reserves the right to include, depending on the circumstances in the question papers for G.C.E. (A.L)
examination, other types of questions too used for objective and essay type tests and any other type of
questions including all types of questions mentioned on page 08.

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Objective Tests
Supply Type

Selection Type
Matching Type

Alternative Type

MCQ Type

Question Type
Incomplete Statement Type
Negative Type
Combined Response Type
Best Answer Type
Multiple Response Type
Common Response Type
Substitution Type
Double Statement Type
Assertion & Reason Type

Essay Tests
Essay Type Questions
Open Response Type

Structured Essay Type Questions

Controlled Response
Type

Structuring
by using
subsections

Structuring by
information
provided

Structuring
by function

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Structure of the Question Paper

01 - Physics

Paper I -

Time : 02 hours.
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.

Paper II -

Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay and Essay.
Part A - Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 10 marks for each question - altogether 40 marks.
Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered.
Each question carries 15 marks - altogether 60 marks.
Total marks for Paper II = 100

Calculation of the nal mark : Paper I


Paper II
Final mark

= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100

Paper I

Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
(g = 10 N kg1)
1.

The quantity having dimensions equal to the dimensions of Plancks constant is,
(3) angular frequency.
(1) energy.
(2) power.
(4) torque.
(5) angular momentum.

2.

When the absolute temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, the root mean square speed of its atoms
will increase by a factor of,
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 3
(5) 4
(1) 2

3.

The change of frequency of a sound wave due to Doppler effect depends on


(A) the distance of the source from the observer
(B) the velocity of sound in air
(C) the relative volocity of the source and the observer
Of the above statements,
(1) only (A)
(2) only (B)
(3) only (C)
(4) only (B) and (C)
(5) all (A), (B) and (C)

4.

A block of ice of mass 1.5 kg, at 0 C is heated at a steady rate of 50 W. If the specic latent heat of
fusion of ice is 3.0 105 J kg1, the time in hours, for the ice to melt completly is,
(1) 150.00
(2) 100.00
(3) 3.75
(4) 3.50
(5) 2.50

5.

Consider the following statements made about characteristics of light produced by a laser.
(A) It is electromagnetic
(B) It is coherent
(C) It is monochromatic
Of the above statements,
(1) only (A) is true.
(2) only (B) is true.
(3) only (A) and (B) are true.
(4) only (B) and (C) are true.
(5) all (A), (B) and (C) are true.
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6.

The range of length scale in metres dealt in nano-technology is


(2) 10 1000.
(1) 0.1 10.
(4) 109 107.
(5) 1015 1013.

7.

No net resultant force acts on a given object. Consider the following statements made about the
object.
(A) It may be at rest.
(B) It may be moving with uniform velocity.
(C) It may be moving along a circular path.
Of the above statements,
(1) only (A) is true.
(2) only (C) is true.
(3) only (A) and (B) are true.
(4) only (A) and (C) are true.
(5) all (A), (B) and (C) are true.

8.

An immersion heater boils a certain quantity of water in time t1. Another immersion heater boils the
same quantity of water in time t2. If both heaters are used together, they will boil the same quantity
of water in time, (Neglect the heat capacities of the containers and heat loss to the souroundings.)
t1 + t2
t t
1
(1) 2 (t1 + t2)
(2) t1 + t2
(3) 1 2
(4) t1 t2
(5) t t
t +t
1 2

9.

10.

(3) 104 102.

The surface energy of a liquid lm on a ring of area 0.15 m2 is,


(Surface tension of the liquid is 5 N m-1)
(1) 0.75 J
(2) 1.50 J
(3) 2.25 J
(4) 3.00 J

(5) 6.00 J

If each of the resistances shown in the network is R,


the equivalent resistance between terminals A and B will be,
(3) 3R
(2) 2R
(1) R
(5) 5R
(4) 4R

R
B

11.

When a metallic bar is heated from 0 C to 100 C, its length increases by 0.05%. The linear expansivity
of the metal is,
(1) 5 103 C1 (2) 5 104 C1 (3) 5 105 C1 (4) 5 106 C1 (5) 5 107 C1

12.

A block is in static equilibrium on an inclined surface. Which of the following represents the
correct free body force diagram?
(1)

(2)

(4)

(5)

13.

(3)

The total magnifying power of a compound microscope is 15. The magnication of objective is 5. If
the nal image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, the focal length of the eye piece is,
25
25
25 cm
25 cm
(5)
(4) 10 cm
(3) 3 cm
(2)
(1) 25 cm
14
2

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14.

An object starting from rest moves rst 50 m at constant acceleration, next 200 m with uniform
velocity and nally comes to rest after travelling a further 30 m with constant deceleration. The total
time taken is 30 seconds. The maximum velocity attained by the object is,
(1) 12.0 m s1
(2) 8.7 m s1
(3) 6.7 m s1
(4) 6.0 m s1
(5) 2.7 m s1

15.

The equation of motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by a = 4x, where a
is the acceleration and x is the displacement. What is the length of a simple pendulum that oscillates
with the same frequency as that of the simple harmonic motion?
(1) 3.0 m
(2) 2.5 m
(3) 2.0 m
(4) 1.5 m
(5) 0.4 m

16.

Figure shows a network of seven resistors, each of resistance 1 ,


connected to a 4 V battery of negligible internal resistance. The
current I in the circuit is,
(3) 2.0 A
(2) 1.5 A
(1) 0.5 A
(5) 3.5 A
(4) 3.0 A

I
1

4V

1
1

17.

A particle is moving from a point X to a point Y in a gravitatinal eld. If there are no other forces
acting on the particle, which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the change in the
gravitational potential energy?
(A) It depends on the path between X and Y.
(B) It is equal to the change in the kinetic energy.
(C) It does not depend on the mass of the particle.
(3) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) only
(1) (A) only
(5) all (A), (B) and (C)
(4) (B) and (C) only

18.

A stone dropped from rest reaches the ground in 8 seconds. The distance travelled by the stone
in the last second is,
(5) 70 m
(4) 75 m
(3) 160 m
(2) 245 m
(1) 320 m

19.

A charge +Q is located at point X in an isolated space as shown in gure. Which one of the following
statements is incorrect?
Y
(1) The magnitude of the electric eld intensity at Y and at Z is equal.
r
(2) The potentials at Y and at Z are equal.
+Q
(3) The potential at Y is positive.
X
(4) No work is done in taking a charge from Y to Z.
r
(5) The electric eld at Z acts along ZX.
Z

20.

An air lled parallel plate capacitor shown in Fig (1) has a


capacitance of C. When it is half lled with a dielectric of
dielectric constant k = 2 as shown in Fig (2), its capacitance
becomes
(3) 3 C
(2) 5 C
(1) 3C
3
2
4
(5) C
(4) C
3

21.

d
2

air

A monochromatic ray of light falls on a transparent glass slab of refractive


index 2 held in air as shown in the gure. The minimum value of the
angle () of incidence for the ray to be totally internally reected from
surface AC is,
(3) 45
(2) 60
(1) 90
(5) 0
(4) 30

75

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Fig (2)

Fig (1)

C
B

22.

A wooden block of mass m having an internal cavity is attached to the bottom


of a water vessel by a weightless string as shown in the gure. The density of
water and wood are d and respectively (d > ). If the tension in the string
is 1 mg, the volume of the cavity will be,
2

(1) 0

(2)

(4) 3m
2d

(5)

( )
( )
dd
3
2d

(3) m

23.

250 J of work is done on the gas during an adiabatic compression of 5 moles of a perfect gas. The
change in the internal energy will be,
(2) -150 J
(3) 250 J
(4) -250 J
(5) 750 J
(1) 50 J

24.

The graph shows the variation of an electric potential (V) with distance (x).
The variation of the corresponding electric eld intensity (E) with x is best
represented by

A B C

(1)
25.

B C

(2)

A B

(3)

A B

x
A B C

(4)

A force of 90 N is applied on a block placed on a horizontal plane as


shown in the gure. The coefcients of static and dynamic friction
between the block and plane are 0.4 and 0.3 respectively. The magnitude
of the frictional force exerted by the plane on the block is,
(1) 0
(2) 30 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 45 N
(5) 78 N

(5)
90N
60

10 kg

26.

A small sh at 0.4 m below the surface of a lake is viewed through a convex lens of focal length 3 m.
The lens is kept at 0.2 m above the water surface such that the sh lies on the main axis of the lens. The
position of the sh seen by the observer is, (The refractive index of water is 4/3.)
(1) virtual and 0.6 m below the lens.
(2) real and 0.6 m below the lens.
(3) virtual and 0.6 m above the lens.
(4) real and 0.43 m below the lens.
(5) virtual and 3 m below the lens.

27.

Figure shows two charged spheres, X and Y, of masses 2m and m


respectively, which are just prevented from falling under gravity by the
application of a potential difference between the two parallel metal plates.
If the plates are moved closer together,
(1) X and Y will both remain stationary.
(2) X and Y will both begin to move upwards with the same acceleration.
(3) X and Y will both begin to move downwards with the same acceleration.
(4) X will begin to accelerate upwards faster than Y.
(5) X will begin to accelerate downwards faster than Y.

X 2m

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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28.

Which of the following gives the correct logic values for A, B and C
respectively for F to be 1?
(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 0, 1, 0
(3) 1, 0, 0
(4) 1, 0, 1
(5) 1, 1, 0

A
B

29.

You are provided with necessary instruments to nd resonance lengths for air columns closed at one
end and opened at both ends, using 250 Hz, 300 Hz, 400 Hz and 500 Hz frequency generators. If the
velocity of sound in air is 330 m s1 the shortest resonance length will be,
(1) 8.25 cm
(2) 16.5 cm
(3) 33 cm
(4) 66 cm
(5) 132 cm

30.

Two objects A and B touching each other as shown in the gure are
released from rest on a smooth inclined plane. The force exerted by B on
A is,
(1) 0
(2) 15 N
(3) 35 N
(4) 50 N
(5) 100 N

31.

A U-tube contains a liquid of density as shown in the diagram. The


radius of B is twice that of A, which is r. If the liquid level in limb A is
raised to height h, the increase in gravitational potential energy of the
liquid will be,
3 h2 r2 g
(1) 0
(2)
(3) 5 h2 r2 g
8
(4)

33.

3 kg

30

A tiny sphere of mass m made of a material with density d is dropped in a tall jar lled with glycerine
of density . When the sphere acquires terminal velocity, the magnitude of the viscous force acting
on the sphere is,
d
mgd
mg

(2)
(3) mg 1 (4) mg 1 +
(5) mg
(1)
d

32.

7 kg

5 h2 r 2 g
8

(5)

5 h2 r2 g
4

l, M, T, and E denote the length, mass, tension, density and Youngs modulus respectively of
a stretched string.
The ratio, Speed of transverse waves
for the string is given by
Speed of longitudinal waves
Tl
EM

(1)

(2)

T
EM

(3)

EM
T

(4)

Tl
EM

(5)

EM
Tl

34.

In a potentiometer experiment the galvanometer shows no deection when a cell is connected across
60 cm of the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a resistance of 6 , a balance point is
obtained at a length of 50 cm of the wire. The internal resistance of the cell is,
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 1.2
(4) 1.4
(5) 1.5

35.

Water from a faucet of a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 m s1. The
cross-sectional area of the tap is 104 m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream
of water and that the ow is steady. The cross - sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the tap is,
(1) 5 105 m2
(2) 2.5 105 m2 (3) 5.8 105 m2 (4) 6.7 104 m2 (5) 1 104 m2

36.

A mass m is placed on a freely rotating table at a distance x from the centre. The maximum frictional
force between the mass and the table is mg. The tables angular velocity is then steadily increased.
The angular velocity of the table at which the mass will begin to slide is given by,
g
mg
mgx
g
g
(1) 2x
(2)
(3) 2x
(4) 2
(5) 3m x
x

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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37.

The focal length of a concave lens is 25 cm and the focal length of a convex lens is 30 cm. They are
placed in contact to make a combined lens. Which of the following defect of vision can be corrected
by using a lens having a focal length equal to the focal length of the combination?
(1) Inability to see objects clearly beyond 150 cm
(2) Inability to see objects clearly closer than 150 cm
(3) Inability to see objects clearly beyond 30 cm
(4) Inability to see objects clearly closer than 30 cm
(5) Inability to see objects clearly closer than 28 cm

38.

The decay chain that leads from 92 U to 82 Pb consists of a series of alpha decays and beta decays.
The number of alpha particles emitted in such a decay is,
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
(5) 10

39.

Fig (1) shows a disturbance at a given moment of a transverse


wave travelling along a string to the right. A small ribbon
is tied to the string as shown. Which of the following best
represents the ribbons displacement (y) with time t.

238

(1)

206

(2)

(3)

(4)

Fig (1)
y
t

(5)

40.

When a source of sound is moving in air with the speed faster than the speed of sound, the shape of
the wave front produced would be a,
(1) plane
(2) sphere
(3) cylinder
(4) cone
(5) parabola

41.

Suppose that a magnetic monopole exist and such a monopole (m)


starting from a long distance at time t = 0 and moving with a constant
speed as shown in the gure is passing through a ring made of
superconducting material at t = t0. Which of the following graphs
correctly represents the variation of induced current (I) in the ring?
(1)

(2)
t0

(3)
t0

t0

(4)

(5)
t0

t0

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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42.

43.

A magnetised symmetric top can be levitated in a magnetic eld as shown in


the gure. It is essential to spin the top about its symmetric vertical axis in
order to maintain the system under stable equilibrium, because the angular
momentum of the top,
(1) makes the magnetization of the top stronger.
(2) makes the magnetic eld of the north pole of the magnet more stronger.
(3) makes the repulsive force stronger.
(4) makes the magnetic ux density through the top larger.
(5) preserves the orientation of the top without ipping it.
A slab PQRS of thickness d and charge density n is placed
horizontally in a magnetic eld of ux density B which is
in the downward direction as shown in the gure to study
the Hall effect. A current I is passing along the slab in the
direction shown. If the carriers are negatively charged,
and the charge of the carriers is q, the direction of the Hall
voltage and its magnitude would be,
(1) from side RS to side PQ, and E/B.

S
N

N
North pole
of a strong
magnet
R

S
I

Q
B

(2) from side RS to side PQ, and BI/ndq.


(3) from side PQ to side RS, and E/B.
(4) from side PQ to side RS, and BI/ndq.

(5) from side PS to side QR, and BI/ndq.

44.

Consider the following statements made about an n - channel junction eld effect transistor.
(A) The transistor always operates with gate - source, voltage (VGS) positive.
(B) The drain current through the transistor decreases when VGS is reduced.
(C) The width of the depletion region controls the current through the transistor.
Of the statement above,
(1) only (A) is true.
(2) only (B) is true.
(4) only (B) and (C) are true.
(3) only (A) and (C) are true.
(5) all (A), (B) and (C) are true.

45.

Which of the following represents the correct truth table for an S - R ip - op


shown in gure?
(Qold represents the logic level of the Q output before application
of the input and Qnew represents its value after the application of the input.)
(1) S

(4)

0
0
1
1

R
0
1
0
1

S
0
1
0
1

R
0
0
1
1

Qnew
0
0
0
Qold
Qnew
0
0
1

ambiguous

(2) S
0
0
1
1

(5) S
0
0
1
1

R
0
1
0
1
R
0
1
0
1

Qnew
Qold
0
1

ambiguous

S Q
R Q

(3) S
0
0
1
1

R
0
1
0
1

Qnew
Qold
0
1
Qold

Qnew
Qold
1
0

ambiguous

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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46.

X - rays are produced in an X - ray tube by a target potential of 62.0 kV. If an electron looses one half
of its incoming energy after one collision the minimum wavelength of the X - ray photon produced is
(hc = 1240 eVnm)
(1) 4 102 nm (2) 6 102 nm (3) 8 102 nm (4) 4 103 nm (5) 8 103 nm

47.

An atom of mass m travels opposite to a laser beam whose wavelength is with a constant velocity.
The change in speed of the atom, if it absorbs a single photon from the laser beam is,
h
h
(1) 4 h
(2) 2 h
(3) h
(4)
(5)
4m
2m
m
m
m

48.

Figure shows a uniform magnetic eld of ux density B conned to


a cylindrical volume of radius a. B is decreasing in magnitude at a constant
rate R. The instantaneous acceleration experienced by an electron placed
at a distance b is,
(e = charge of the electron, m = mass of the electron)
eRb
eRb
(1)
, to the right.
(2)
, to the left.
2m
2m
(3)

eRb

2am

, to the right.

(4)

eRb
, to the left.
2am

(5) 0.
49.

A proton (p) is projected along the axis of a uniform positively charged ring
as shown in the gure. Consider the following velocity (v) - time (t) graphs.
v
v
v
0

p
+

(C)
(A)
(B)
If the gravitational forces are neglected which of the above graph/s best represents the variation of
the velocity (v) of the proton with time t?
(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) all (A), (B) and (C)
50.

A sphere of radius a carries a uniform charge per unit volume . A spherical


cavity of radius b is created in the sphere as shown in the gure. If c is the
distance between the center of the sphere and the center of the cavity, the
magnitude of the electric eld intensity at all points within the cavity is,
a
b
(1) 0
(2)
(3)
30
30
(4)

c2

3 b0

(5)

c b

30

***

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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01 - Physics
*
*

Answer all questions of part A


Answer four questions only of part B

Paper II

Part A - Structured Essay


(g = 10 N kg1)
1. In order to determine the density of glass in a laboratory, you are provided with a glass cube of side
about 3 cm and mass of about 60 g.
(a) (i)

In order to determine the length of a side () of the cube with an accurency better then 1%,
what laboratory instrument would you use?

(ii) Write down an expression for the volume of the glass cube in terms of .

(b) In order to nd the mass of the cube using the principle of moments, you are provided with the
following items.
metre rule
knife edge
20 g, 50 g and 100 g weights, pieces of strings
(i)

In order to determine the mass of the cube with highest accuracy, which weight would you
select out of the weights given above? Give reason for your selection.
weight
reason

(ii) Firstly, the metre rule has to be placed on the knife edge. How would you nd out the position
of the metre rule, which has to be placed on the knife edge?

(iii) Draw a labeled diagram of the setup that you would use to nd out the mass. Use only the items
given above.

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(iv) Let mass of the glass cube and the mass of the selected weight be m and M respectively. Mark
the length measurements (1, 2) that have to be obtained on the diagram, drawn above in
(b) (iii) and write down an expression relating m, M, 1 and 2.
(v) Using expressions written in (a) (ii) and (b) (iv) above, write down an expression for the
density (dg) of glass.
(c) (i)

If a beaker of water is provided, the density of glass (dg) could be determined without
calculating the volume of the cube. Keeping the distance from the knife edge to the glass
cube unchanged, what is the extra measurement (3) that you have to obtain in order to
determine dg.

(ii) Obtain an expression for dg, in terms of 1, 2, 3 and density of water d .


w

2. A volume of air saturated with water vapour is trapped in a


thin uniform glass tube by a mercury column as shown in
the gure. You are asked to determine the saturated vapour
pressure (P) of water at room temperature using the above
apparatus by plotting a suitable graph.

water

thin glass
tube

mercury

^a& How do you know that the trapped air volume is saturated with water vapour?
^b& Let h1 be the length of the mercury column in cm, H be the atmospheric pressure in cm of mercury
and P be the saturated vapour pressure of water at room temperature, in cm of mercury.
Consider the following two positions
(1 and 2) of the tube.

h1

h1

Position 2

Position 1
Write down expressions for the pressure
in mercury cm of air in the two positions.

Position 1 : Pressure of air =


Position 2 : Pressure of air =

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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^c&

h/

By varying the inclination () of the tube from 0 to 90 the pressure of the air trapped in the tube
can be changed.
(i)

Write down an expression for the pressure in mercury cm of the trapped air in the position
shown above.
Pressure of air =

(ii) Applying Boyle's law to the trapped air write down an expression relating h, H, P and .
( = length of the air column in cm)

^iii& The saturated vapour pressure (P) of water has to be determined by plotting a graph
between two appropriate variables. Rearrange the expression given in (c) (ii) above in terms
of H, P, , h / and L.

^iv& What quantities should you extract from the graph to determine P?

^v&

In order to determine P, H has to be found out. What instrument do you use to measure H?

^d& Is it possible to perform this experiment using a short mercury column? Give reasons for your
answer.

3. You are provided with a resonance tube with both end opened, a tall glass jar lled with water, a stand
and a 500 Hz tuning fork in order to determine the velocity of sound in air in a laboratory.
^a& What other instrument do you need to perform this experiment?

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^b& Draw a diagram to illustrate how you would arrange the above apparatus in order to perform the
experiment.

^c& (i)

If the end correction of the tube is taken into account, at least how many resonance states do
you have to take in this experiment? Identify them.

(ii) State clearly how you obtain the relevant resonance states.

^d& What are the measurements you would take in this experiment? (say 1 and 2.)

^e& Taking the end correction of the tube as e, write down expressions in order to nd the velocity ()
of sound in air in terms of the measurements 1, 2 and e.

^f&

If the measurements you have taken in (d) above are 16.5 cm and 50.5 cm respectively determine
and e.

^g& If the length of the tube is 80 cm, would you be able to obtain the next resonance state? Give
reasons for your answer.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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4. You are asked to use a potentiometer arrangement to measure the internal resistance (r) of a cell. You
are provided with the following items.
Potentiometer, 2 V accumulator, resistance box, sliding key, center zero galvanometer, safety resistor
with a plug key, a switch
^a& Draw a complete circuit diagram for the potentiometer arrangment that you would use in this
experiment.

^b& Write down the test that you would perform to check if all the components of the experimental
arrangment are properly connected.

^c& By varying the resistance (R) of the resistance box balance length (l) of the potentiometer is
measured. Take the balance length to be l0 when R is innite. Derive the expression that you would
use to determine r by plotting a suitable graph.

^d& How do you obtain different data points in order to draw the graph?

^e& It is not advisable to set the resistance of the resistance box to a very low value. What is the reason
for this?

^f&

Clearly indicating the axes, draw a rough sketch of the graph that you would obtain in this
experiment.

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^g& How do you obtain r from the graph?


^h& If the e.m.f. of the cell is slightly greater than 2 V, will you be able to perform this experiment
successfully?
Give reasons for your answer.

**

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Part B - Essay
(g = 10 N kg1)
5. Bernoullis equation for a uid ow is given by
P + 1 v2 + gh = constant
2

where all symbols have their usual meaning. Identify each term
in the equation.
A siphon is a device for removing liquids from a container.
Figure shows a container P lled with water of density . Tube
T (siphon) of uniform cross - section is initially lled with water
keeping the end D of the tube closed with the thumb. Then the
water is released by removing the thumb.

A
P

h1

v1

h2

Assume water to be non - viscous, incompressible and ow of water to be streamlined.


(a) If the speed of ow of water at the lower end (D) of the tube is v, what is the speed of water just
inside the entrance (B) of the tube?
(b) If the cross-sectional area of the container is 100 times that of the tube, write down an expression
for the speed v1 of the water moving downwards at the free surface of the water in the container in
terms of v.
Since v1 << v, take v1 = 0 hereafter.
(c) (i) Considering a streamline starting from A and ending at D, derive an expression for v in terms
of an appropriate constant and a parameter given in the diagram.
(ii) If h2 = 45 cm, determine v.
(iii) Show that if h2 = 0, siphon action will not work.
(d) (i) Derive an expression for the pressure PC of water at the topmost point (C) of the water column,
in terms of , g, h1, h2 and atmospheric pressure P0.
(ii) If a longer tube [the value of (h1 + h2) is large] is used when PC = Pvapour, where Pvapour is the
saturated vapour pressure of water at the temperature of water, the siphon action will cease.
What is the reason for this?
(iii) If Pvapour = 4.0 kPa at 30C, determine the maximum possible value that (h1 + h2) must have
for the siphon action to work properly ( P0 = 105 Pa, = 103 kg m3)
6. Fig (1) shows a properly cut diamond. A diamond sparkles
because the intensity of the light coming from is greatly
enhanced due to total internal reection.
As shown in the Fig (2) a monochromatic ray of light is
incident on to the top surface, AB, of a diamond held in air,
with an angle of incidence i. It then refracts with a refracting
angle r and strikes the inclined surface, CD, of the diamond.
Use the following data for your calculations.
sin 5
sin 7.5
sin 10
sin 23

=
=
=
=

0.0870
0.1305
0.1737
0.3920

sin 24
sin 42
sin 80

=
=
=

Fig (1)

0.4000
0.6667
0.9800

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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(a) Determine the critical angle for diamond - air interface. The
refractive index of diamond is 2.5.

(b) Using the geometrical diagram shown in Fig (2) nd out an C


expression for the angle of incidence, i, of the ray on the inclined
surface CD in terms of and r. Here is the inclination of the
surface CD to the horizontal.

B
i1

D
(c) (i) For i = 80, determine r.
90 - r
(ii) Determine the minimum value of (min) for this ray of light
Fig (2)
to be just totally internally reected from the surface CD.
(iii) Hence show that all light rays incident on the surface AB with i values less than or equal to 80
will be totally internally reected from the surface CD.
(iv) What would happen if < min?
(d) (i) For a glass structure with the same geometry with = min as in Fig (2), determine the maximum
angle of incidence, i, that a ray must have so that it will be totally internally reected from the
surface CD. (Refractive index of glass = 1.5)
(ii) Hence, giving reasons deduce that the glass structure does not sparkle in the same way as the
diamond.
7. (a) Write down an expression for the excess pressure of a spherical liquid bubble in terms of the surface
tension (T) of the liquid and the radius (r) of the bubble.
(b) Vertical U-tube contains a liquid of density . One end
of the tube is opened to the atmosphere and a soap im
is made at the other end of the tube as shown in the
Fig (1). The pressure inside the limb which contains
the soap im can be varied so that the shape of the
im could be changed.
^i& Show that the product of the radius (r) of the im
and the difference (h) of the liquid levels of the
limbs of the U-tube is a constant.
^ii& If the value of the constant mentioned in (i) above
is 1.23 105 m2, determine the surface tension
of soap solution. (Take the density of the liquid
in the U-tube to be 800 kg m3.)
(c) Now the soap im is removed and the respective end
of the limb is sealed. Then as shown in the Fig (2) this
limb of the U-tube is connected to a vertical capillary
tube of internal diameter 0.7 mm which is immersed
in water. Now the U-tube acts as a manometer. When
air is sent slowly through the open end of the capillary,
the difference in the liquid levels of the manometer
increased to 9.1 cm initially, then decreased to 4.0 cm
and increased to 9.1 cm again.
(density of water = 1000 kg m3)
^i& Explain why the difference in the liquid levels of
the manometer vary as described above.
^ii& Calculate the depth (h1) of the bottom end of the
capillary tube from the water level.
^iii& Hence, determine the surface tension of water.

soap im

rubber
tube

h
clip
liquid
Fig (1)

air

capillary
tube
liquid
Fig (2)

h1

water

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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8. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
A black hole is one of the most interesting and startling predictions of modern gravitational theory, yet
the basic idea can be understood on the basis of Newtonian principles. Consider a spherical, nonrotating
star with mass M and radius R. The escape velocity (v) for this star at its surface can be written as,
v = 2GM .......(1), where G is the universal gravitational constant. In 1783 Rev. John Mitchell,
R
an amateur astronomer noted that if escape velocity (v) would be greater than the speed of light
(c) then all light emitted from such a star would be made to return toward it. Mitchell became the
rst person to suggest the existence of what we now call a black hole. The above expression for
v also suggests that a star of mass M will act as a black hole if its radius R is less than or equal
to a certain critical radius. An expression for this critical radius could be simply obtained
by setting v = c in the above relationship for v. In 1916, Karl Schwarzschild used Einsteins general
theory of relativity to derive an expression for the critical radius Rs, now called the Schwarzschild radius.
Eventhough the kinetic energy of light is not 1 mc2 and the gravitational potential near a black hole is not
2
GM
simply given by
, Schwarzschild found the same expression for Rs, as though we had set v = c in
R
equation (1). This happens due to the fact that the two errors mentioned above compensate each other.
The surface of the sphere with radius Rs surrounding a black hole is called the event horizon, since
light cannot escape from within that sphere, we cant see events occurring inside.
Astronomers have found evidence for the existence of a massive black hole at the center of our Milky
way galaxy, about 26,000 light years from earth in the direction of the constellation Sagittarius. High
resolution images of the galactic center reveal stars moving at high speed about an unseen object. By
analyzing these motions, astronomers can infer the period T and the radius r of each stars orbit. Using
these data the mass m of the unseen object can be calculated. This black hole has a mass of 5.4 10 36 kg
or 2.7 million times the mass of our sun. Research suggest that even larger black holes, in excess of 10 9
solar masses, lie at the centers of other galaxies. Observational and theoretical studies of black holes of
all sizes continue to be an important area of research in both physics and astronomy.
(a) (i) What is meant by the term event horizon?
(ii) Why is it dened that way?
(b) (i) Derive the expression for v given in equation (1)
(ii) Assuming the density of the material of the star to be constant, show that the escape
velocity is proportional to the radius (R) of the star.
(c) (i) Write down an expression for Rs, in terms of G, M and c.
(ii) In obtaining the expression for Rs from Newtonian gravity what are the two compensating
errors that we have used?
(d) (i) A burned out star with a mass equal to three solar masses collapses to form a black hole.
Determine the radius of its event horizon.
(G = 6.66 10 11 N m2 kg 2, Solar mass = 2.0 10 30 kg, c = 3.0 10 8 m s1)
(ii) If the radius of the black hole is just equal to the Schwarzschild radius, what is its density?
(Take = 3.)
(iii) What would be the radius of the event horizon of the black hole existing at the center of our
galaxy?
(e) Could X - rays or - rays escape through an event horizon? Give reasons for your answer.
(f) Derive an expression for the mass (m) of the black hole at the center of our galaxy in terms of a
period T of a revolving star around it with a radius r and G.
(g) Calculate the distance from the earth to the black hole at the center of our galaxy in km.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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(h) If our sun somehow collapses to form a black hole, what effect would this event have on the orbit
of the earth? (The mass of our sun is not large enough to collapse to a black hole.)
9. Answer either part (A) or part (B) only.

(A) (a) Fig (1) shows a circuit consisting of a variable resistor


of total resistance R (R = R1 + R2), which can be used
to obtain a variable voltage, V0, from a battery of e.m.f
10 V and of negligible internal resistance.
(i) What is the range of voltages that can be expected
for V0 from this circuit?
(ii) Draw a rough sketch to show how V0 varies with R2.

10 V

R1
R2

V0

Fig (1)

(b) A student has modied the above circuit as shown below to obtain a smaller voltage range for
V0. The student expects the value of V0 to vary linearly with R2.

(i) What is the range of voltages for V0 that can


R1 900
be obtained from the modied circuit?
10 V
R
(ii) What is the advantage of using the circuit
R3
shown in Fig (2) over the circuit shown in
R2
R4 100 V0
Fig (1) to obtain smaller voltages?
(iii) If R = 10 k nd V0 when the value of R2 is
Fig (2)
kept at 5 k.
(1) Hence draw a rough sketch to show how V0 varies with R2.
(2) Is the variation of V0 with R2 linear? Explain you answer.
(iv) In order to improve the linearity between R2 and V0, a student has decided to use different
values for R3 and R4 as 90 k and 10 k respectively.
(1) State the new range for V0 , and calculate V0 when R2 = 5 k.
(2) Has the student succeeded in achieving a better linearity? Explain your answer.
(3) When using the circuit given under (iv) above, to provide the prescribed voltages to a
load of resistance Ro he recommends that Ro should always be less than 10 k. Would
you agree to that? Explain your answer.

(B) (a) (i)


(ii)

When the applied voltage V across a resistance R is


increased by a small amount V, the current I through the
resistance will increase to I + I. Show that, V = IR.
In the circuit shown, VBE = 0.7 V, and the current gain of
the transistor is 100. Assume IE = IC.
Find (1) VE ,
(2) IE ,
(3) VC , (4) IB .
Show also that the Base-Collector junction of the
transistor is reverse biased under this situation.

RC
IB
4V

VC

IE
RE

10 V

4.7 k

IC
VE
3.3 k

(b) Suppose the applied voltage to the base is increased by a small amount VB
(i) If the change in VBE is negligible, nd the change (VE) in the emitter voltage (VE) due to the
increase of the base voltage.
(ii) Hence, write down an expression for the change (IE) in the emitter current.
(iii) Write down an expression for the change (VC) in collector voltage.
(iv) If this change is an increase, put + sign in front of your expression in (iii), otherwise put a
sign.
(v) Hence write down an expression for the voltage gain of the amplier.
(vi) Use the expression obtained in (v) to deduce a general expression for the voltage gain of
a common emitter amplier.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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10. Answer either part (A) or part (B) only.


As shown in Fig (1) a mixture of air and petrol undergoes as shown in Fig (2) thermodynamic
process in one of the cylinders of a petrol engine. The air - petrol mixture is rapidly compressed
(e
f) as the piston rises. Then the mixture is ignited almost instantaneously causing a
great increase in pressure. (f
g) Then the piston descends and the mixture rapidly expands
(g
h). Finally the hot gas is expelled (h
e) and the cylinder is ready to start a another
cycle.

Piston

h
e

Fig (1)

Fig (2)

(a) Out of thermodynamic processes given below classify each of the processes,
(i) e
f (ii) f
g (iii) g
h and (iv) h
e
constant pressure, constant volume, isothermal expansion/compression, adiabatic expansion/
compression
Pressure/ MPa

(A)

6.0

5.0
4.0
3.0

2.0

1.0
0

1.0

2.0

3.0

4.0
Volume 10-4 m3

Fig (3)
(b) Fig (3) shows the simplified P - V diagram (curves approximated by straight lines) for a cylinder
of the engine.
Calculate,
(i) the work done by the gas mixture from g to h,
(ii) the work done on the gas mixture from e to f,
(iii) the net work done (W) by the gas mixture during one cycle efgh.
(c) (i) If Q1 amount of heat is absorbed by the gas mixture from f to g, what is the change in
internal energy (Uf g ) of the gas mixture from f to g?
(ii) If Q2 amount of heat is liberated by the gas mixture from h to e, what is the change in
internal energy (Uh e ) of the mixture from h to e?
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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W
(d) (i) A quantity called the thermal efficiency (e) of the engine is defined by e =
. Write
Q1
down an expression for (e) in terms of Q1 and Q2 only.
(ii) If Q1 = 3.5 103 J, determine (e) as a percentage.
(iii) If heat of combustion of petrol is 3.5 103 J g1 what mass of petrol is burned in each
cycle?
(e) If the engine rotates at 50 cycles per second and it has 4 cylinders, calculate the power generated
by the engine.
(B) 1. (a) The radius of our sun is 7.0 105 km and its surface temperature is 5800 K. Assume that the
sun behaves like a black body.
(i) Calculate the total power radiated from the sun. (Stefan constant = 6.0 10-8 W m-2 K-4;
Take 584 = 1.0 107)
(b) The temperature of the center of the sun is 2.0 107 K.
(i) Why is it so essential to have this very high temperature in the suns core?
(ii) The inner core of the sun emits rays. But the surface of the sun radiates mostly IR,
visible and UV light. What happens to this radiation with short wavelengths produced at
the core of the sun?
(c) A blue supergiant star has a surface temperature of 30,000 K. Assume that the star behaves
like a black body.
(i) What is the principal wavelength it radiates? Is this light visible? Use your answer to
explain why this star appears to be blue (Wien constant = 3.0 10-3 m K)
(ii) If the total power radiated by this star is 105 times that of our sun, determine the radius of
this star.
2.

Two large plates (P and Q), one maintained at a temperature


of 300 K and the other at a temperature of 6 000 K are placed
side by side as shown in the figure. A small plate (R) is placed
exactly in between the large plates. What temperature will
the small plate acquire on reaching thermal equilibrium?
Assume that the small plate behaves like a black body.
(648 = 5.045)

P
300 K

Q
6 000 K

***

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Structure of the Question Paper

02 - Chemistry

Paper I -

Time : 02 hours
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.

Paper II -

Time : 03 hours
This paper consists of three parts as A, B and C.
Part A - Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 100 marks for each question - altogether 400 marks.
Part B - Three essay type questions. Two questions should be answered.
Each question carries 150 marks - altogether 300 marks.
Part C - Three essay type questions. Two questions should be answered.
Each question carries 150 marks - altogether 300 marks.
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100

Calculation of the nal mark : Paper I


Paper II
Final mark

= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100

Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
1
1
Universal gas constant, R = 8.314 J K mol
1
= 6.022 1023 mol
Avogadro constant, NA
1. Which of the following is the correct set of quantum numbers that deseribe an electon in a 3p
orbital?
_
n
_
l
m
m
_l
_s
(1) 4
2
-1
0
(2) 3
1
-1
+
(3) 2
2
-2
-1
(4) 3
1
2
-
(5) 3
1
-2
+
2. Which of the following structure best represent the ion S2O32- ?
O

(4) :O

O:

(5) :O + O:

: : : :

:S

O:

: :: :

O:

: :: :

++

: :: :

:S

(3) :O

: :: :

O:

O:

: :: :

: : : :

(2) O

: : : :

O:

: : : :
:
: :: :

(1) O

O:

3. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the NOCl molecule?
(1) The shape of NOCl is angular.
(2) The hybridization of the nitrogen atom is sp2.
(3) The electron pair spatial arrangment of the central atom in NOCl is angular.
(4) In NOCl, a bond exists between N and O.
(5) N - Cl bond is formed by the overlap of a hybrid sp2 orbital of nitrogen and a 3p atomic orbital of
chlorine.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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4. Which of the following statement is true regarding the atoms of the alkali metals in the metallic crystal?
(1) In the metallic crystal, they are held together by weak van der Waals forces only.
(2) They have atomic numbers which are odd numbers.
(3) They do not have electrons in d orbitals.
(4) They form ions which are strong reducing agents.
+
(5) They form hydrated ions; Li being the least hydrated.
5. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the elements from uorine to iodine in group
17 of the periodic table?
(1) They form diatomic covalent molecules.
(2) release energy when gaseous atoms gain electrons.
(3) They form hydrides which dissolve in water to form strong acids.
(4) chlorine form oxyacids.
(5) They form compounds with one another.
6. The rst three ionization energies (kJ mol ) of elements X and Y are as follows.
1

Element
X
Y

1st
528
1095

2nd
7340
2370

3rd
11850
4660

Which of the following could be the identity of X and Y respectively?


(1) Be and O
(2) Li and Be (3) Na and Mg (4) Li and C

(5) B and Ne

CH2

7. The name of the following compound according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature is,
CH2
H
C =
O
O
CH2

CH3
(1) 4-formyl-4-methyl-5-hexenoic acid.
(3) 4-formyl-4-methyl-5-enehexanoic acid.
(5) 4-methyl-4-formyl-5-enehexanoic acid.

OH
(2) 4-methyl-4-formyl-5-hexenoic acid.
(4) 4-oxo-4-methyl- 5-hexenoic acid.

C C

CH2

CH2

CH2

8. Consider the hydrogen atoms labelled as p, q, r, s and t in the following compound.


O
C

r
t
q
s
p
Which one of the following pairs represent the two most acidic hydrogen atoms?
(1) p and q.
(2) p and s.
(3) r and s.
(4) p and t.
(5) s and t.
9.

a
b
c
d
e
CH3 C C CH2 CHO
Which is true out of the following statements regarding the above compound?
(1) b, c and e carbon atoms are sp hybridized.
(2) a, b, c, d and e carbon atoms are in a straight line.
(3) The cde angle is about 109.5.
(4) The abc angle is about 120.
(5) Carbon atoms a, b and d are sp3 hybridized.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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10.

Some reactions shown by the organic compound A are given below.


Br
CH3 - CH - CH2Br
Br2 / CCl4

X
Con. H2SO4

HBr

Ni / H2

The structures of X, Y and Z respectively are,


(1) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH , CH3 CH2 CH2 Br and CH3 CH2 CH3.
Br

(2) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH , CH3 CH CH3


OH

Br

and CH3 CH2 CH3.

and CH3 CH2 CH3.

(3) CH CH CH , CH CH CH
3
3
3
3
OH

(4) CH3 CH CH3 , CH3 CH2 CH2 Br and CH3 CH2 CH3.
OH

Br

and CH3 CH = CH2.

(5) CH3 CH CH3 , CH3 CH CH3

11. What are the positions in the following compound that could be expected to react with a hydroxyl ion
acting as a base, to form a stable product?
Br H
H H
H
(1) a and e.

He

Hc

(2) a, d and e.

Cb H
Ha

(3) b, d and f.

(4) e and d.

(5) a, c, e and g.

12. A partial structure of a reaction intermediate is given below.


C
+

C
H
C
The possibility of obtaining a partial structure of this nature exists,
(1) only in a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(2) only in an electrophilic addition reaction.
(3) only in an aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
(4) only in nucleophilic substitution and aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions.
(5) in nucleophilic substitution, electrophilic addition and aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions.

13. A solution absorbs 90 % of the radiation passing through it. What is the absorbance of the solution?
(3) 1.0
(2) 0.90
(1) 0.10
(5) none of the above
(4) 9.0
14. The conductivity of 0.10 mol dm3 aqueous solution of a strong electrolyte is 1.25 104 S cm1. What
is the most probable value for the conductivity of the solution if it is diluted ten times with water?
(3) 1.45 103 S cm1
(2) 1.25 103 S cm1
(1) 1.05 103 S cm1
1
4
1
4
(5) 1.45 10 S cm
(4) 1.25 10 S cm

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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15. When equal volumes are mixed which one of the following pairs of solutions gives the highest buffer
capacity?
(1) 0.10 mol dm3 CH3COOH and 0.10 mol dm3 CH3CO2Na
(2) 0.50 mol dm3 CH3COOH and 0.10 mol dm3 CH3CO2Na
(3) 0.10 mol dm3 CH3COOH and 0.50 mol dm3 CH3CO2Na
(4) 0.50 mol dm3 NH4OH and 0.50 mol dm3 NH4Cl
(5) 0.10 mol dm3 NH4OH and 0.10 mol dm3 CH3COOH
16. Gibbs energy changes corresponding to the formation of Ag+(aq), Fe2+(aq) and Fe3+(aq) ions at
the standard state at 25 C are given below.
Ion

Ag+(aq)

G0 / kJ mol-1
+77.1

Fe2+(aq)

-85.0

Fe3+(aq)

-10.7

What is the Gibbs energy change (in kJ) for the overall reaction of the following cell under
standard state and at 25 0C?
Pt(s)/Fe3+(aq, 1.00 mol dm-3), Fe2+(aq, 1.00 mol dm-3) Ag+ (aq, 1.00 mol dm-3)/Ag (s)

(1) -151. 4
(4) 18.6

(2) -18.6
(5) None of the above.

(3) -2.8

17. Which of the following statements are correct?


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Catalyst is found to be chemically unchanged at the end of a reaction.


Catalyst does not change the enthalpy of a reaction.
Catalyst does not change the equilibrium position of a reaction.
Catalyst makes a reaction to proceed through a path of lower activation energy.

(1) only (a) and (b)


(3) only (a), (b) and (c)
(5) all (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) only (b) and (c)


(4) only (a), (b) and (d)

18. A solution containing 0.400 g of a diprotic acid requires 40.00 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 NaOH solution
for complete neutralization. What is the approximate relative molecular mass of the acid?
(1) 5.00 10
2
(4) 3.00 10

(2) 1.00 10
2
(5) 4.00 10
2

(3) 2.00 10

19. At 200 0C, the equilibrium constant of the following reaction is 1.6 103.
H2(g) + Br2(g)
2HBr(g)
-2
What is the amount of H2(g) at equilibrium when 1.0 10 mol of HBr(g) is heated at
200 0C in a closed vessel?
(2) 1 -2 mol
(3) 20 -2 mol
(1) 80 -2 mol
81 10
81 10
8 1 10
(4) 10 -2 mol
81 10

(5) 40 -2 mol
81 10

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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20. Dolomite (Ca CO3.MgCO3) can be used as a raw material in the manufacture of,
(3) Detergents
(1) Cement
(2) Chlorine
(4) Urea
(5) Sodium carbonate
21. An industrial efuent has very high chemical oxygen demand (COD) due to the presence of a
detergent, R COO Na. (Prior to the discharge of the efuent of the public waters the COD value has
to be reduced below the limit given in the Sri lanka standard for the discharge of efuent.)
The COD value cannot be reduced by the following process is,
(1) Aeration
(2) Dilution with a large quantity of pure water
(3) Precipitation as (R COO)2 Ca salt.
(4) Dissolution of common salt (NaCl) in the efuent
(5) Passing the efuent through a column of an adsorbent mateirial
22. Acid rains (hydrogen ions) can react with one of the following substances in the soil leading to
an increase of the sodium adsorption ratio (SAR) of the water which ows through the soil system.
+
Na
SAR =
Concentrations in mmol dm-3
2+
a + Mg2+
C

(1) Dolomite
(4) Silica

(2) Calcite
(5) Granite

(3) Feldspars

23. Which one of the following represent the correct order of the solubility of solid metal sulphates in
water?
(1) Ba SO4 > SrSO4 > Ca SO4 > MgSO4
(3) Ba SO4 SrSO4 > Ca SO4 MgSO4
(5) Ba SO4 < SrSO4 Ca SO4 < MgSO4

(2) Ba SO4 < SrSO4 < Ca SO4 < MgSO4


(4) Ba SO4 > SrSO4 > Ca SO4 MgSO4

24. Which of the following statements are not true?


(a) Pressure of a real gas sample will always be less than that of an ideal gas sample having the same
amount, temperature and volume.
(b) Volume of a real gas will always be less than that for an ideal gas sample having the same amount,
temperature and pressure.
(c) Compressibility factor for a real gas depends on pressure.
(d) The coherent SI unit of the van der Waals constant b is m3.
(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (b) and (c)

(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)

(4) Only (a), (b) and (d)

(5) Only (a), (c) and (d)

25. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?


(a) An endothermic reaction that takes place under constant pressure with a positive entropy change
will always be non spontaneous.
(b) Reactions with positive entropy changes will always be spontaneous.
(c) Reactions with negative enthalpy change will always occur spontaneously.
(d) Exothermic reactions occur under constant pressure and positive entropy change take place
spontaneously.
(2) (d) only.
(3) (a) and (b) only.
(1) (a) only.
(4) (c) and (d) only.

(5) (a), (b) and (d) only.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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26. Solute X, which was initially present in Phase I, was partitioned between Phase I and Phase II which
are immiscible. Which of the following statements are correct regarding amount of X extracted from
Phase I to Phase II ?
(a) It depends on the volume of Phase I.
(b) It depends on the volume of phase II.
(c) It does not depend on the ratio of the volumes of the two phases.
(d) It does not depend on the temperature of the experiment.
(2) (a) and (d) only.
(1) (a) and (b) only.
(4) (b) and (d) only.
(3) (b) and (c) only.
(5) (c) and (d) only.
27. Which one of the following precipitates dissolves on addition of excess ammonia solution?
(1) Barium sulphate
(2) Iron(III) hydroxide
(3) Nickel(II) hydroxide
(4) Calcium oxalate
(5) Magnesium hydroxide
28. Which one of the following reactions is involved with the production of soap from coconut oil?
(1) Condensation
(2) Hydrolysis
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Oxidation
(5) Esterication
29. Which one of the following is not associated with the solvay process?
(2) NH4Cl
(3) NaCl
(4) (NH4)2C2O4
(1) CaCO3

(5) Ca(OH)2

30. The salt NaA was dissolved in 0.10 mol dm-3 solution of hydrochloric acid until the concentration of
NaA became 0.05 mol dm-3. For HA, pKa = 6.0. Which one of the following sketches represent the
titration curve when a 25.0 cm3 portion of the above solution was titrated with 0.10 mol dm-3 solution
of sodium hydroxide.
(1)
pH

14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0

(2)
pH

5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

Volume of 0.10 mol dm-3


solution of NaOH / cm3

(3)
pH

14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0

pH

14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0

5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

Volume of 0.10 mol dm-3


solution of NaOH / cm3

(4)
pH

5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0

5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

Volume of 0.10 mol dm-3


solution of NaOH / cm3

Volume of 0.10 mol dm-3


solution of NaOH / cm3

(5)

14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0

5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

Volume of 0.10 mol dm-3


solution of NaOH / cm3
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Instruction for questions No. 31 to 40 :


For each of the questions 31 to 40, four statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given; out of which, one/
more than one is/are correct. Select the correct statement/statements. Mark,
if only (a) and (b) are correct.
if only (b) and (c) are correct.
if only (c) and (d) are correct.
if only (d) and (a) are correct.
if any other statement or combination of statements is/are correct.

31. In general, moving across a period from left to right the following trend is/trends are observed.
(a) Melting point decreases.
(b) Size of atom decreases.
(c) Metallic character decreases.
(d) Electronegativity decreases.
32. Consider particles of the size in the range from 0.1nm to 1m. Which of the following statement/s
is/are true?
(a) Carbon nano-tubes are used in electronic industry.
(b) Fullerines can also the made up of lead.
(c) Carbon nano-tubes are used in paint industry.
(d) Carbon nano-tubes are used in water purication.
33. Consider the compound, CH3COCH2CH2COOCH3 Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
(a) It gives CH3OH when heated with aqueous NaOH
(b) It gives an orange coloured precipitate with Bradys reagent.
(c) It gives an alkane with a Grignard reagent.
(d) It gives a brick - red coloured precipitate when heated with Fehlings solution.
34. Consider the conversion CH3CH2CH = CH2

CH3CH = CHCH3

Which of the following represent the correct sequences of steps to be taken to effect the above
conversion.
(ii) H2O
(iii) conc. H2SO4 / heat
(a) (i) conc. H2SO4
0
(b) (i) conc H2SO4
(ii) 170 C
(iii) H2O
(c) (i) HBr
(ii) alcoholic KOH
(d) (i) HBr / peroxides
(ii) alcoholic KOH

35. Consider the following statements regarding reaction rates. Which of the following statement/s is/are
true?
(a) The relative rates of removal of different reactants involved in a chemical reaction depend on
the stoichiometric coefcients of the reactants.
(b) The rate of an electrochemical reaction depends on the current.

(c) The rate of a zeroth order reaction in the gaseous phase can be changed by changing the partial
pressure of the reactant cocerned.
(d) Activation energy is determined by the effect of all other factors which affect the rate of
the reaction.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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36. The following statements are based on the diagram given below.
Which statements shows the variation of vapour pressure of water
with temperature.
(a) Water vapour can be represented by A.
(b) No liquid water exists above the temperature correspond to B.
(c) Point C represents the boiling point of water.
(d) The curve CD represents the liquid - vapour equilibrium.

Pressure/atm

1.0
D
0.0

C
B

Temperature/K

37. Which of the following statement regarding electrodes is/are true.


(a) At an electrode at equilibrium, a reduction reaction and an oxidation reaction occur at equal
rates.
(b) When a potential more positive than the equilibrium potential is applied to an electrode at
equilibrium, a net oxidation reaction occurs at that electrode.
(c) When a potential more negative than the equilibrium potential is applied to an electrode
at equilibrium a net reduction reaction occurs at that electrode.
(d) When two redox electrodes which are connected by a salt bridge are externally connected using a
conducting wire, a reduction reaction occurs at the electrode with a more negative potential.
38. Which of the following statement regarding the root mean square speed of an ideal gas is/are true?
(a) It is directly proportional to the thermodynamic temperature.
(b) It is inversely proportional to the square root of the relative molecular mass.
(c) It is equal to the speed of a molecule having the average molecular kinetic energy.
(d) It is independent of the pressure of the system.
39. What is/are the salt/salts that dissolves by the addition of excess solution of dilute HCl?
(a) Barium sulphate
(b) Iron(III) hydroxide
(c) Nickel(II) hydroxide
(d) Calcium oxalate
40. What is/are the correct processes/process that both G and H are negative?
(a) Dissolution of solid NaCl
(b) Burning of LP gas
(c) Neutralization of an acid with a base
(d) Decomposition of calcium carbonate at high temperature

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Instruction for questions No. 41 to 50 :


In questions No. 41 to 50, two statements are given in respect of each question.
From the Table given below, select the response out of the responses (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) that best
ts the two statements given for each of the questions and mark appropriately on your answer sheet.
Response
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.

46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

True
True
True
False
False

First statement

Second statement
True, and it explains the rst.
True, but does not explain the rst.
False
True
False

Second statement
The amount of ammonia gas that dissolves
in water at room temperature is much higher
than that of dioxygen.
Unlike group 1 elements, all group 2 elements
react with N2 gas to give nitrides.

Second statement
Unlike dioxygen ammonia gas reacts with water
+
to form NH4 and some hydrogen bonding
occurs between ammonia and water.
Nitrides are formed only elements which can
form divalent cations.

Unlike oxygen, sulphur can form a stable


uoride, SF6.

Sulphur is less electronegative than oxygen.

The boiling point of liquid HF is higher than


that of liquid HCl.

Some properties of the rst element of any


group of s and p blocks differ from the rest
of the group.

The reaction between ethanoyl chloride and


water occurs more easily than the reaction
between ethyl chloride and water.
CH3CONH2 is a stronger base than CH3NH2
The concentration of Mg2+ in a 2ppm Mg2+
solution is greater than the concentration of
K+ in a 2ppm K+ solution.
Electrodeposition is an example for an energy
storing chemical process.
The amount composition of dioxygen in the
Earth atmosphere is about four times lower
than that of dinitrogen.

Liquid hydrogen uoride is polar.

The rst element in any group of the s and


p blocks is smaller in size and higher in

electronegativity than the rest of the elements


in the group.
The bond between carbon and chlorine in
ethyl chloride is covalent.
The lone pair on N in CH3CONH2 is less
available for donation to a proton compared to
that of methylamine.
The molar charge of Mg2+ ion is higher than
+
that of K ion.
There is a tendency for the temperature of
an electroplating bath to increase during
electroplating.
The mean speed of dioxygen molecules at
room temperature exceed the escape velocity
for the Earth.

***

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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02 - Chemistry

*
*

1.

Paper II
Answer all questions in part A.
Answer four questions selecting two questions from part B and two question from part C.

(a)

Part A - Structured Essay


Methyl isocyanate (CH3NCO) is a toxic gas that was responsible for the deaths of 3000
people when it was accidently released into the atmosphere in December 1984 in Bhopal,
India.
The following questions are based on the molecule CH3NCO. The basic skeleton of CH3NCO
(1)
(2)
is given below.
H

- -

H-C-N-C-O
(1)

(2)

(i)

Draw the most acceptable Lewis structure.

(ii)

Deduce the shapes around C(1) ,C(2) and N atoms using VSEPR Theory.

(iii)

Draw resonance structures and identify the most important and least important structure
used in describing the stability of resonance hybrid of CH3NCO. Give briey the reasons
for your choice.

(iv)

Indicate the hybridizations of C(1) ,C(2) and N.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

- 38 -

be

(b)

(v)

Sketch the shape and indicate bonds, bonds and lone pairs of the structure (i)
above.

(vi)

Identify the hybrid and atomic orbitals involved in forming the C - N and C - H
bonds in the structure (i) above.

Arrange the following in the increasing order of the property indicated in the parenthesis.
State briey the reasons for your choice.
(i) MgCO3, BaCO3, SrCO3 (decomposition temperature)

(ii) NO2 , NO2


-

2.

(electronegativity of nitrogen atom)

An element A, belongs to the s block, reacts with cold water slowly liberating a colourless gas B with
the formation of solution C. The element A when allowed to react with N2 gas gives a white solid D.
When CO2 gas is bubbled through the solution C, a white precipitate E is formed which redissolved
to give a clear solution. When E is heated to 900 C a white solid F is formed, which when heated
with carbon at 2000 C gives a compound G. The compound G reacts with water to produce
a hydrocarbon gas, H of commercial importance. When a ame test is carried with the white solid E,
a brick red colouration is obtained.
(The letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H represent compounds or elements and not symbols of atoms.)
(a) Identify the substances A to H and write their chemical formulae in the boxes given below.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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3.

(b)

Give balanced equation for the reaction of A with N2, and F with Carbon.

(c)

Give one industrial use of each of E, F, G and H

(a)

Write an expression for the compressibility factor, Z for a gas in the form of an equation.
Identify all the terms used in the equation.

(b)

Using from the equation you have given in part (a) above derive a relationship for the density
of a gas.

(c)

The mole fraction of argon in a gas mixture, which contains only argon and hydrogan, is
0.650. Calculate the density of the gas mixture at a pressure of 1.50 bar and a temperature of
2
3.00 10 K. State the assumption you used in this calculation.
Relative atomic masses: Ar = 40, H = 1

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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(d)

4.

(a)

(i)

Using the ideal gas equation and the molecular kinetic equation for ideal gases, derive
an equation for the root mean square speed (u 2) of a gaseous particle in terms of its
relative molar mass.

(ii)

Calculate the root mean square speed of He atoms in ms1 at 25C.


(Escape velocity = 1.1 103 ms1, He = 4)

(iii)

Give one important reason for the very low abundance of He in the earth atmosphere.

(i)

Name the characteristic class of reaction shown by both aldehydes and ketones.

(ii)

Draw the structure of the product obtained when acetaldehyde (ethanal) reacts with
hydrogen cyanide.

(iii)

State whether it is possible for the compound represented by the structure drawn by you
in part (ii) above to exist in optically active forms. Give reasons for your answer.

(iv)

Propose a mechanism for the reaction stated in part (ii) above.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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(b)

(c)

(i)

Describe how you would distinguish acetaldehyde from acetone (propanone) using
a chemical test.

(ii)

Explain the chemical basis of the test you have chosen in part b (i).

(iii)

Write the structure and the colour of the product formed by the reaction of acetone with
2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine.

(i)

Name the compound formed when carbon dioxide dissolves in water.

(ii) Indicate the reaction taking place in part c (i) above using a balanced chemical equation.
(iii) Using your knowledge of organic reaction mechanisms, propose a mechanism for the
reaction given in part c (ii).

**

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

- 42 -

Part B - Essay
5.

(a)

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

(b)

The compound A decomposes thermaly to compounds B and C in aqueous media according to


the equation.
2A(aq)
2B(aq) + C(aq)
Data collected during a kinetic study of the above reaction are given below.
At a given constant temperature, the initial concentrations of A(aq) in two given solution are
1.0 10-2 mol dm-3 and 2.0 10-2 mol dm-3. The initial rate of disappearance of A(aq) from each
solution were 1.2 10-5 mol dm-3 s-1 and 2.4 10-5 mol dm- 3 s-1 respectively. Also the concentration
of A(aq) remaining in a solution of A(aq) was found to decrease from 0.5 10-2 mol dm-3 to
0.25 10-2 mol dm-3 during a period of 9.5 min.
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)
(v)

(c)

(i)
(ii)

Sketch a silver - silver chloride electrode and label all important components on it.
Write the equilibrium electrode reaction.
State two factors that determine the electrode potential of this electrode.
Give one exam.0ple of the practical application of the silver- silver chloride electrode.
Briey explain why it is more suitable than the standard hydrogen electrode as a practical
reference electrode.

Write a mathematical expression for the rate of the above reaction.

Using the above data calculate,

(1) the order of the reaction with respect to A(aq)


(2) the rate constant.
Determine,

(1) the half life of the reaction.

(2) the time it takes, for the concentration of A(aq) remaining in the solution to decrease
from 2.4 10-3 mol dm-3 to 1.20 10-3 mol dm-3.

(1) Calculate the average rate of the reaction.


(2) State why the average rate is not be used for accurate determination of rate law for
all reactions.

Suppose that, you are provided with the data of remaining concentrations of A(aq)
measured at several selected times for the above reaction. Using not more than three
sentences, briey describe how you would treat the data to determine initial rate and the
instantaneous rate at selected instancents of time.

State the Raoult law in the form of a mathematical expression.


A small volume of a concentrated sodium chloride solution previously heated to
100 C was added to a boiling water bath at the same temperature, while the heating was
continued. An immediate cease of boiling was observed but boiling restarted after a
short time. Explain this observation using the Raoult law.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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6.

(a)

The energy released in thermite reaction is used for welding of massive units such as
propellers for large ships. The standerd state reaction coresponding to thermite reaction is given
below.
X2O3(s) + 2 Fe(s)
2 X(s) + Fe2O3(s)
Where X is a p-block element which reacts with aqueous hydrochloric acid as well as aqueous
sodium hydroxide with evolution of dihydrogen gas. The standard enthalpy of formation of
o
1
1
X2O3(s) and Fe2O3(s) at 25.0 C are - 1675 kJ mol- and - 825 kJ mol- , respectively.
(i)

Identify the element X.

(iii)

The standard entropy change of the thermite reaction, S at 25.0 C is 15.2 J K-1.

(iv)

Calculate the amount (in moles) of X necessary to melt 5.20 g of chromium metal at its
melting point if reaction the energy released.

(ii)

Calculate H for the thermite reaction at 25.0 C.


o

Calculate the standard Gibs energy change G for the thermite reaction at 25.0 C.
o

(The enthalpy of fusion of Cr(s) is 14.6 kJ mol-1 , Relative atomic mass: Cr = 52.0)
(b)

Consider the following gas phase equilibrium that occurs in a closed container at 500 K.
A(g) + B(g)

2C(g)

The symbols A, B and C represent the chemical formulae of the gasses. The initial amounts of
each of the gases A(g) and B(g) were 2.0 mol and the C(g) was not present at the beginning.
(i)

(ii)

7.

(a)

If the equilibrium constant, Kp of the above reaction is 4.0 at 500 K, calculate the
percentage of initial A(g) converted at equilibrium.

If the percentage of A(g) converted is 40% at another temperature, calculate the


equilibrium constant, Kp for the above reaction at that temperature.

A hydrated sulphate of a 3d transition metal M gives a violet solution, A, when dissolved in


water. Dropwise addition of concentrated aqueous ammonia to the violet solution A, gives a
pale green precipitate, C, which slowly dissolves in excess concentrated ammonia to give a
purple solution, D. The pale green precipitate (C) dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give a green
solution E. Addition of H2O2 to the green solution and heating produces a yellow solution F.
Treatment of solution F, with dilute H2SO4 gives an orange solution G. The solution F reacts
with SO2 under basic conditions to give either the pale green precipitate C or green solution E
depending on the basic strength of solution.
(i)

Identify the transition metal M consistent with the above observations and give its
electronic conguration and common oxidation state (s).

(ii) Identify the species present in A, B, C, D, E, F and G.


(iii) Give the balanced ionic equations for the formation of F and G and the reaction of F with
SO2 under basic condition.

(iv) Give one use of the species present in solution G and the transition metal M identied
in (i).

(v)

Give the IUPAC name of E.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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(b)

(i)

What do you mean by electromagnetic radiation?

(ii) Sun burn occurs on exposure to sunlight of wavelength in the vicinity of 325 nm.
Calculate the following coresponding to radiation with wavelength of 325 nm.

34
(C = 3 108 ms 1, h = 6.63 10 Js)

(1)

Frequency of the radiation

(3)

Energy of one mole of photon

(2)
(4)

Energy of a photon of the radiation


Number of photons correspond to 1.0 10-3 J of energy.

(iii) In what region of the electromagnetic spectrum would this radiation be found?

Part C - Essay
8.

(a)

The atmosphere contains 20% oxygen and 0.03% carbon dioxide. With the assumption that the
atmosphere is a closed system and the relative molecular masses of all constituent gases are the
same, calculate

(i) the dissolved oxygen content (in mg dm 3) of rain water,


(ii) the approximate pH of rain water.

For oxygen, KH = 1.3 10 8 mol dm 3 Pa 1.


7
For carbon dioxide, KH = 3.8 10 mol dm-3 Pa-1.
For carbonic acid, pKa1 = 6.37, pKa2 = 10.33
Relative atomic masses : C = 12, O = 16
Phosphate
fertilizer(s)

(b)

I
M

A
N

+ CO2(g)

1. F
2. G

Ca(HCO3)2(l)

C2H2(g)

more
E

Bleaching
powder(s)

Consider the manufacture of phosphate fertilizer, bleaching powder and C2H2 as shown in the
ow chart.
Give the name of the starting material A in the triangle which is an abundant natural
resource.
(ii) Write in the boxes and circles, the chemical formulae with physical states of the appropriate
substances involved.
(iii) Give the conditions (M) and (N) used in the process.
(i)

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

- 45 -

A salt Na2A was dissolved in water until the concentration of Na2A becomes 0.05 mol dm3.
A 25.00 cm3 portion of the above solution was titrated with 0.10 mol dm-3 sloution of HCl.
Calculate the volume of HCl required and sketch the tritation curve. Lable the curve
repactively pKa and pKa of H2A at the relevant temperature are 1.0 and 7.1

(i)

(ii)

(c)

10.

(a)

The following is a part of the chain of a commercial polymer. It is a product of


condensation polymerisation. Draw the structural formulae of the monomers from which the
above polymer is made.
H
O
N

CH2

(b)

Derive the equation(s) and calculate the amount of HCl required to be added to 1.0 dm3
of the above salt solution to convert it to a buffer solution of pH 7.4.

CH2

(a)

9.

(i)

It is well known that a chlorine compound plays an important role in the process of
depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere. Explain the above statement using relevant
chemical reactions involved in the process.

(ii)

Today we are concerned about acid rain. State why we are not concerned about basic
rain.

(iii)

State ve main stages in the electroplating industries that contribute to the environment
pollution by metallic ions.

Compound A (C4H10O), on heating with concentrated H2SO4, forms the compound B (C4H8).
B reacts with water in the presence of a mineral acid to form the compound C. The compound
C, is an isomer of A. C, on heating with concentrated H2SO4, forms B easily. C does not react
with acidic K2Cr2O7 under mild condition.
(i)

Identify A" B and C giving the reactions involved.

(ii)

Give a chemical test with observations to distinguish between A and C.

(iii)

Give the structures of D and E in the following reaction.


A

PCC/CH2Cl2

K2Cr2O7 / H

* PCC = pyridinium cholorochromate


(iv)
(b)

Give the structure of an isomer of A and C that can exhibit optical isomerism.

Using your knowledge of the reactions of alkenes, alcohols and alkyl halides, indicate a method
by which the following conversion can be carried out.
CH3 CH = CH2

CH3

CH3 CH O CH2 CH2 CH3

***

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

- 46 -

07 - Mathematics
Structure of the question paper
Paper I - Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A - Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question - altogether 250 marks.
Part B - Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks - altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper I 1000 10 = 100
Paper II - Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A - Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question - altogether 250 marks.
Part B - Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks - altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100
Calculation of the final mark : Paper I
Paper II
Final marks

= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100

Important :

* In Mathematics I and II question papers 30 prototype questions for part A and 21

prototype questions for part B have been included. However, the question paper
that will be given at the examination will be constructed according to the question
paper structure given above.

* At the examination all questions in part A of both Mathematics I and II will have to
be answered using the space provided for each question.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

07 - Mathematics
Prototype Questions for Paper I
Part A
1. Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} be a universal set.
Let A = {1, 4, 7, 10} , B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and C = {2, 4, 6} be three subsets of U.
Determine the following, in the usual notation:

(i) A C , (ii) B C , (iii) Power set of C .


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2. A survey revealed that in a certain town, 300 people read the newspaper Lakderana, 200
people read the newspaper Lakpahana and 50 people read both the newspapers.
Find how many people of those who were surveyed read
(i) at least one,
(ii) exactly one
of these two newspapers.
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
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'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

3. Let R = {( m, n) : m < n} be a relation defined on Z.


Determine whether this relation is
(i) reflexive,
(ii) symmetric,

(iii)

transitive.

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4. Consider the functions f ( x) = 3 x 2 , x IR and g ( x) =

1
, x IR and x 1.
1+ x

Find g f (x) and its range.


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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 49 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

5. Let P( x) x 3 + kx 2 2 x + 1 , where k IR . When P(x) is divided by ( x k ) , the remainder


is k. Find all possible values of k.
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6. Let the roots of the quadratic equation x 2 + bx + c = 0 , where c 0 , be and . Find the
1
1
quadratic equation whose roots are + and + .

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 50 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

7. Find the set of values of k such that the expression 4 x( x + k ) k (3k 4) is positive for all x.
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8. Find the partial fractions of

x2 + x 3
( x 2)( x 2 + 2)

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 51 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

9. Show that log 2 3 log 3 4 log 4 5 log 5 6 log 6 7 log 7 8 = 3 .


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10. A student has 6 different books on Pure Mathematics and 4 different books on Applied
Mathematics. Find the number of different ways in which the books can be arranged on a
shelf such that
(i) all the books on Pure Mathematics are together and all the books on Applied
Mathematics are together,
(ii) all the books on Pure Mathematics are together.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 52 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

11. Find the number of different permutations of the letters of the word ERROR taking all at a
time.
Find the number of different selections of three letters which can be made from the letters
of the word ERROR.
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14

12. Write down the general term of the binomial expansion of 2 x + .


x

Show that there are exactly two consecutive terms with equal coefficients.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 53 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

13. Using the Principle of Mathematical Induction, prove that


n(2n 1)(2n + 1)
, for any positive integer n.
3
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12 + 3 2 + 5 2 + L + (2n 1) 2 =

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14. Using the standard formulae for

and

r =1

r2

, prove that

r =1

r (r + 1) = 3 n(n + 1)(n + 2) .
r =1

Hence, find

r (r 1) .
r =1

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 54 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

15. Using the properties of determinants, show that


1
cos
cos 2

1
1
sin 1 = (1 cos )(1 sin )(sin cos ) .
sin 2 1

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16. Express the system of equations
kx + 2 y = 0

2x + 4 y = 1
in matrix form, where k is a real constant.
Hence, find the values of k for which the system has a unique solution.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 55 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

2 1
3 2
and B =
.
17. Let A =
3 2
1 1

Find, in the usual notation, A T , B T , AB and B T A T , and verify that (AB )T = B T A T .


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2 3
.
18. Let A =
0 1
Show that A 2 3A + 2I = O , where I is the identity matrix of order 2 and O is the zero
matrix of order 2.

Hence, find A 1 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 56 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

19. The coordinates of the points A, B and C are (2, 3 ), (1, 1 ) and (1, 4) respectively. Find the
equation of the perpendicular from the point B to the line AC and the coordinates of the
foot of that perpendicular.
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20. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1, 1) and the point of
intersection of the lines x 2 y + 7 = 0 and 3 x + y 2 = 0 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 57 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

21. Find the coordinates of the points at which the bisectors of the angles between the lines
x 2 y + 7 = 0 and 2 x y + 2 = 0 intersect the x-axis.
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22. Obtain the equation of the circle having the straight line segment joining the points
(4, 3 ) and (6, 1) as a diameter.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 58 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

23. Show that the line x = 5 is a tangent to the circle x 2 + y 2 4 x 8 y + 11 = 0 .


Find the coordinates of the point of contact.
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24. Show that the point A(6, 0) lies outside the circle x 2 + y 2 4 x + 2 y 44 = 0 and find the
length of a tangent from the point A to the circle.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 59 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

x cot x
25. Find lim
.
x0 1 + cos x
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26. The rate of increase of the surface area A(r ) of a spherical balloon is 1.6 m 2 /min, where r
2
is the radius of the balloon in metres. Find the rate of increase of the radius when r = .

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 60 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

27. If y = e 2t cos 3t , show that

d2 y
dt

+4

dy
+ 13 y = 0 .
dt

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28. Show that the function f ( x) = xe x has a maximum when x = 1 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 61 -

Mathematics I: Part A - 18 11 2010

29. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y = e 2 x 4 x + 8 at the point where the curve
meets the y-axis.
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30. Show that the function f ( x) = 3 x 5 + 6 x 4 4 x 3 + 1 has a stationary point at x = 0 and
determine its nature.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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01 12 2010

Part B
1. (a) Let A , B and C be three subsets of a given set S.
Stating clearly the laws of algebra in set theory used, prove, in the usual notation, that
(i) A (A B ) = A ,
(ii) ( A B) (A C ) = A ( B C ) .
(b) A group of 96 students are expected to sit for History at the forthcoming G. C. E.
(Advanced Level) Examination. Of these 96 students, 43 attend extra classes, 38 are
girls, and 18 are repeat students. Only 11 repeat students attend extra classes. 10 repeat
students are girls. 7 girls attend extra classes. Among the students who attend extra
classes 6 girls have to repeat the examination.
Find how many boys
(i) attend extra classes,
(ii) repeat the examination,
(iii) will sit the examination for the first time without attending extra classes.

2. (a) Let + = {1, 2, 3, L }


The relation R is defined on + as xR y if and only if x 2 y .
Determine whether the relation R is
(i) reflexive,
(ii) symmetric,
(iii) transitive.
(b) The relation R is defined on as aRb if and only if (a + b ) is even.
Show that R is an equivalence relation on .
Write down the equivalence classes [1] and [2].
Find [1] [2] .
25
, x [1, 9] .
3x 2
(i) Show that f is a decreasing function and find its range.
(ii) Show that f is one-one.
(iii) Show that f 1 exists and find it explicitly.

(c) A functions f is defined as f : x

3. (a) When the monic (leading coefficient is 1) cubic polynomial p(x) is divided by ( x 1)
and ( x 3) the remainders are 7 and 13 respectively. Find the remainder, when p(x) is
divided by ( x 1)( x 3) .
Further, if p (2) = 6 , find the quotient when p (x) is divided by ( x 1)( x 3) .
Hence, obtain p (x) .

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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01 12 2010

(b) Let f : IR IR be the function defined by f ( x) = 2 x + 1 .


Determine whether f (x) is
(i) one one,
(ii) onto.
1
.
x
Find explicitly, each of the composite functions gxf and fxg, indicating the domain and
the range.

Further, let g : IR {0} IR be the function defined by g ( x) =

4. (a) Let f ( x) ( x + 1) 2 + k ( x + 1) + k .
Find all real values of k such that the roots of the equation f ( x) = 0 are real.
When k = 2 , find the axis of symmetry and the least value of f (x) .
Hence, draw the graph of y = f (x) when k = 2 .
(b) Let Q( x) 2 x 2 + ax 7 and P( x) (2 x 1)Q( x) + b , where a and b are real constants.
If Q(x) is an even function and the remainder when P(x) is divided by x is 12, find the
values of a and b.
Express P(x) as a product of linear factors of x.
5. (a) Let and be the roots of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 , where c 0 . Find
c
c
the quadratic equation whose roots are b + and b + .

(b) Write down the binomial expansion of (2 + x) n , where n is a positive integer.


(i) If there are two consecutive terms with equal coefficients in the above expansion,
show that (n + 1) is a multiple of 3.
Find the value of this coefficient when n = 8.
(ii) By choosing two appropriate values for x, show that, when n is even
3 n 1 = n C1 2 n1 + nC3 2 n3 + L + nC n1 2 .
6. (a) Using the properties of determinants, show that
a3
b3
c3
a
b
c
= (a b)(b c)(c a )(a + b + c) 2 .
b+ca a+cb a+bc

(b) Express the system of equations


8x y + z = 5
2x y + z = 2
2x + 4 y = 7
in matrix form.
Using Part (a) above and Cramers rule, solve the system of equations.
Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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01 12 2010

7. (a) Find the number of different permutations that can be made using
(i) all the letters,
(ii) only four letters
of the word EXAMINATION.
(b) 15 persons are recruited to a certain institution.
Find the number of ways that these 15 recruits can be assigned, five each, into three
different sections of the institution.
2 1
and f ( A) = A 2 5A + 7I , where I is the identity matrix of order 2.
8. (a) Let A =
1 3
Show that f ( A) = O , where O is the zero matrix of order 2.
Hence, find A-1.
Verify your answer by an alternative method.
1 1 1
3 2 1

(b) Let A = 1 2 3 and B = 9 5 2 .


2 1 3
5 3 1

Compute BA .

Hence, solve the system of equations


x y+z =2
x 2 y + 3z = 2
2 x + y 3z = 2 .

1 1
. Find P T P and PP T , where P T is the transpose of P.
9. Let P =
1 1
Deduce P 1 , the inverse of P.
Using P 1 find (P T ) 1 . Any result used should be clearly stated.
1 1
.
Find a diagonal matrix B of order 2 such that PBP T =
1 1
3 1
. Show that A = 2I + 2PBP 1 .
Let A =
1 3
Hence, show that P 1 AP is a diagonal matrix.

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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01 12 2010

10. (a) Using the Principle of Mathematical Induction, show that


2

n(n + 1)
13 + 2 3 + 33 + L + n 3 =
for any positive integer n .
2
Hence, find
(i) 13 + 2 3 + 33 + L + (2n) 3 ,

(ii) 13 + 33 + 53 + L + (2n 1) 3 .

3x + 2
.
x( x + 1)( x + 2)

(b) Find the partial fractions of


Hence, find

u r , where u r

is the rth term of the series

r =1

5
8
11
+
+
+L .
1.2.3 2.3.4 3.4.5

Is the above series convergent? Justify your answer.

log c b
, where a, b and c are positive and not equal to 1.
log c a
Show that, log a b log b c log c a = 1 .
Hence, obtain the value of log 5 32 log 4 7 log 49 125 .

11. (a) Prove that, log a b =

(b) Obtain the largest coefficient in the binomial expansion of (4 + 3 x)12 .


12. A group of 10 students consisting of 5 boys and 5 girls have to sit around a table. Find in
how many different ways the sitting arrangements can be made if
(i) all the boys sit together,
(ii) no two girls sit together,
(iii) a particular boy and a particular girl sit together,
(iv) a particular boy and a particular girl do not sit together and no two girls sit together.
(v) a particular girl refuses to sit while the other four girls agree to sit with the five boys
on the condition that no two girls sit together.
n(n + 1)
.
2
(ii) Show that (2r + 1) 3 (2r 1) 3 2 + 24r 2 for any integer r.

13. (i) Prove that, for any positive integer n, 1 + 2 + 3 + L + n =

Hence, prove that

r 2 = 6 (n + 1)(2n + 1) .
r =1

Using (i) and (ii) above, find the sum of the first n terms of the series
1.4 + 4.7 + 7.10 + L .
Is the above series convergent? Justify your answer.

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01 12 2010

14. Let n be a positive integer. Write down the binomial expansion of (1 + x) n .


Let A be the sum of the terms of the odd powers of x and B be the sum of the terms of the
even powers of x in the binomial expansion of (1 + x) n .
Prove that
(i) B 2 A 2 = (1 x 2 ) n ,
(ii) 4 AB = (1 + x) 2 n (1 x) 2 n .
(a) Obtain the binomial expansions of (2n + 1) n and (2n 1) n , where n is an integer
greater than 1.
Deduce that, (2n + 1) n > (2n 1) n + 2 n n n .
(b) Obtain the binomial expansion of (2 3 x) 5 + (2 + 3 x) 5 in ascending powers of x.
Hence, find the value of (1.97) 5 + (2.03) 5 , correct to four decimal places.
15. (a) A house buyer takes on a fixed-interest mortgage of 40000 Rupees on 1st January
1990. It is to be repaid in 20 equal annual instalments, the first of which is due at the
end of 1990. The interest rate is fixed at 10% per annum and the interest is
compounded annually. Find, to the nearest Rupee, the value of each instalment.
(b) A microbiologist models the population of a colony of microbes by the equation
dP
= aP b , where P is the number of microbes at time
t days and a and b are
dt
positive constants.
1
(i) Show that P = (e at + b) is a solution of the above equation.
a
(ii) Draw the graph of P given in (i) against t.
(iii) The microbiologist makes two observations of the colony population and finds
that P = 1, when t = 1 and P = 3, when t = 2.
Show that e 2 a 3e a 2b = 0 .
16. Obtain the equations of the bisectors of the angles between the two straight lines given by
a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a 2 x + b2 y + c 2 = 0 .
Two sides of a square lie on the bisectors of the angles between the lines 4 x + y + 3 = 0
and x + 4 y 3 = 0 . One of the vertices of the square is (0, 2). Show that there are two
such squares and find the equations of the sides of the two squares.

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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01 12 2010

17. (a) Obtain the conditions under which


(i) two circles intersect each other orthogonally,
(ii) a circle bisects the circumference of another circle.
(b) A circle S = 0 passes through the points of intersection of the circle
S1 x 2 + y 2 + 2 x + 2 y 1 = 0 and the line l x + 2 y = 0 .
(i) If the circle S = 0 and the circle S 2 x 2 + y 2 + 10 y 9 = 0 intersect each other
orthogonally, find the circle S = 0 .
(ii) If the circle S = 0 bisects the circumference of the circle

S 3 x 2 + y 2 + 2 x + 2 y 7 = 0 , find the circle S = 0 .

18. Find the coordinates of the point A at which the two circles S1 x 2 + y 2 2 x + 4 y = 0
and S 2 x 2 + y 2 10 x + 20 = 0 touch each other externally.
If P is a point such that the length of a tangent from P to S1 = 0 is half of the length of the
tangent from P to S 2 = 0 , show that the locus of the point P is a circle through the point A.
Suppose that a circle S 3 = 0 intersects the circle S 2 = 0 at the points A and B(4, 2).
(i) Show that the locus of the centre of the circle S 3 = 0 is a straight line.
(ii) Find the coordinates of the centre C of the circle S 3 = 0 when CA is perpendicular
to CB.

19. (a) Evaluate lim

x 0

tan 2 x
.
1 cos(tan x)

(b) From first principles, find the derivative of cos 3 x .


(c) Given that e xy + sin y x 2 = 0 , show that

dy y sin y + x(2 xy )
.
=
dx x 3 + cos y x sin y

20. (a) Differentiate each of the following with respect to x:


(i)

(3 x 2 1) 1 + x 2
x

(b) Let x = a cos 3 ,


Find

(ii) e 2 x cos( x ln x) ,

(iii) x sin x

y = a sin 3 , where a is a constant.

d2 y
dy
and
in terms of .
dx
dx 2

Hence or otherwise show that 3 xy

d2 y
dx

dy dy

x y.
dx dx

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01 12 2010

21 (a) From first principles, find the derivative of

x.

(b) Using the substitution x = tan , show that the equation


d2 y
d2 y
2 x dy
1
+ y =0.
can
be
reduced
to
the
equation
+
+
y
=
0
d 2
dx 2 1 + x 2 dx (1 + x 2 ) 2

2t
1 t2
(c) A curve is given by the parametric equations x =
and y =
, where t is a
1+ t
1+ t2
parameter. Find the Cartesian equations of the tangent and the normal drawn to the
curve at the point corresponding to t =1.

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Mathematics II: Part A

07 - Mathematics
Prototype Questions for Paper II
Part A

0.
x 4
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1. Find all the values of x for which

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x 2 + 15
>8.
2. Find the set of all values of x satisfying
x
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Mathematics II: Part A

3. Find the range of x which satisfies x 2 1 2 x .


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4. Shade the region R in the xy-plane, containing the points which satisfy the inequalities
x + y 0 , y x 4 and x 2 + y 2 16 .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 71 -

Mathematics II: Part A

5. Solve the following linear programming problem:


Maximize: z = 3 x + 2 y
Subject to y 2 x 0 ,
x 5,
y 1.
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6. The table below gives the information in respect of the mix, prices and the standard
quantities in the preparation of a large bag of cement:
Mix
A
B
C

Price
Year 1
1.50
3.40
10.40

Year 2
3.00
4.25
8.84

Standard quantity
8
3
1

Find the weighted average of the relatives.


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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 72 -

Mathematics II: Part A

7. The information on the prices and the quantities sold in 2008 and 2009 by a department
store are given in the following table:
2008

Item
Video recorder
TV set

Price
425
400

Quantity sold Price


40
450
25
500

2009
Quantity sold
18
45

Find the price and the quantity relatives for 2009 (2008 = 100) for both items and interpret
your results.
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8. Draw an appropriate network for the following activity list indicating clearly, the dummy
activity required:
Activity
A, B
C
D
E

Immediate predecessor activities


B
A, B
C, D

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 73 -

Mathematics II: Part A

9. The following gives a part of a network:


2

A
2
1

4
E

B
4

Find the earliest event time and the latest event time for each event of the network.
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show that, (1 + tan A)(1 + tan B) = 2 .


4

Hence, show that tan = 2 1 .


8
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10. If A + B =

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 74 -

Mathematics II: Part A

11. In the usual notation, if tan

A
= sin( B + C ) for a triangle ABC, show that ABC is a right
2

angled triangle.
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12. Obtain the general solution of the equation sin x + sin 5 x = sin 3 x .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 75 -

Mathematics II: Part A

13. Find

(2 x 1)( x + 3) dx .

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x3

dx .
x2 +1
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14. By a suitable substitution, evaluate

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 76 -

Mathematics II: Part A

15. Using integration by parts, evaluate

ln x dx .

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16. The mean and the variance of five observations 6, 4, 8, a and b are 6 and 2 respectively.
Find the values of a and b.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 77 -

Mathematics II: Part A

17. Find the mode of the frequency distribution given below in respect of the times taken by 55
students to solve three mathematics problems:
Time (in minutes)
05 14
15 24
25 34
35 44
45 54
Frequency
5
7
19
17
7
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18. Two random samples of 30 and 20 bags of milk powder are taken from a production
process. A summary of the results obtained is given in the table below:
Sample
1
2

Size
30
20

Mean weight (kg)


12.10
11.70

Standard deviation (kg)


0.90
1.10

Find, in kilograms, the mean and the standard deviation of the 50 bags.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 78 -

Mathematics II: Part A

19. Events A and B are such that P( A) = 0.4 and P( B) = 0.25 . If A and B are independent,
find the probability that
(i) both A and B occur,
(ii) only one event occurs.
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20. Two events A and B are such that P( A) =

1
2
1
, P( B | A) = and P( A | B) = .
4
3
2

Find P( A B) .
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 79 -

Mathematics II: Part A

21. Two events A and B are such that P( A) =

4
1
5
, P( A B ) = and P( A | B) = .
7
3
14

Find P( A B) and P( B | A) .
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22. A firm is working independently on two separate projects. There is a probability 0.3 that
each of the projects will be finished on time. Find the probability that at least one of the
projects will finish on time.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 80 -

Mathematics II: Part A

23. The probability mass function of a discrete random variable X is given by


P[ X = x] = cx 2 , for x = 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Find (i) the value of c,
(ii) P[0.5 < X 3] .
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24. A bag contains 2 white balls and 1 black ball. A second bag contains 1 white ball and 2
black balls. A ball is randomly chosen from each bag and is then placed in the other bag.
Find the expected number of white balls in the first bag.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 81 -

Mathematics II: Part A

25. A continuous random variable X has probability density function


0 x2
k,

f ( x) = k (2 x 3), 2 < x 3
0,
otherwise

Find (i) the value of k,


(ii) P[1 X 2.5] .
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26. A continuous random variable X has probability density function
1
2
108 x(6 x) , 0 x 6

f ( x) =
0,
otherwise

Find the variance of X .


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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 82 -

Mathematics II: Part A

27. All the letters in a particular office are typed by Nimal who is a trainee typist. The
probability that any letter typed by Nimal will contain one or more errors is 0.3. Find the
probability that a random sample of 4 such letters will include one or two letters free from
errors.
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28. Customers arrive randomly at a super market at an average rate 3.4 per minute. Assuming
that the number of arrivals follows a Poisson distribution, find the probability that one or
more customers arrive in any 30 seconds.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 83 -

Mathematics II: Part A

29. In the usual notation, X ~ N (a, a 2 ) , where a is positive. Find P[ X < 0] and P X > a .
2

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0.3 0.7
. If the initial
30. The one-step transition probability matrix of a Markov chain is
0.5 0.5
probability vector is (0.2 0.8), find the probability vector after two steps.
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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 84 -

Part B
1. (a) Draw the graphs of y = x 2 + x 4 and y = 2 x 3 in the same diagram.
Hence, find the values of x for which x 2 + x 4 > 2 x 3 .
(b) Let E =

x 2 4x + 3

, where x is real.
x2 x 2
Find the values of x for which
(i) E is defined,
(ii) E > 0.

2. In a certain factory two types A and B of electrical items are produced. Both types make
use of two essential components, a motor and a transformer. Each item of type A requires 3
motors and one transformer. Each item of type B requires 2 motors and 3 transformers. Due
to the restriction in budget allocation the total supply of components per month is limited to
100 motors and 200 transformers. Due to the lack of human resources the production of
type A items per month is restricted to 50 items. By selling an item of type A the factory
earns a profit of 3000 Rupees and that for a type B item is 2000 Rupees.
(i) Formulate the above situation as a linear programming problem in order to maximize
the monthly profit of the factory.
(ii) Using the graphical method, find the number of items that should be produced per
month from each of the two types in order to gain the maximum profit.
In this case, find the amount of this profit.
(iii) If the profit gained from any item of type A is reduced to 2000 Rupees, then find the
optimal solution.
3. A company produces three brands A, B and C of soft drinks, using two bottling plants
located in town X and town Y. The capacity of each plant in terms of bottles per day is
given in the following table:
Plant at X
Plant at Y

Brand A
3000
1000

Brand B
1000
1000

Brand C
2000
6000

The costs of operating the two plants at town X and town Y per day are 500000 Rupees and
400000 Rupees respectively. The minimum demands in bottles per week for the three
brands A, B and C are 6000, 4000 and 12000 respectively. The management of the
company needs to determine the number of days per week each plant should be operated so
as to minimize the total cost of production while meeting all the demands. Assuming that
you are one of the members of the management committee, formulate the above situation as
a linear programming problem.
Using the graphical method
(i) indicate the feasible region,
(ii) solve the problem for the optimal solution.

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 85 -

4. (a) A survey of household expenditure in a certain country showed the following changes
over the same week in each of three years for an average family:
Item

Quantity Purchased

Sugar
Bread
Tea
Milk
Butter

2 kg
5 loaves
1 kg
10 litres
0.5 kg

Price (per unit)


Year 1
Year 2
Year 3
20
22
57
21
23
32
18
21
24
13
13
22
21
32
41

(i) Using year 1 as base, calculate the index numbers for year 2 and year 3.
(ii) State giving reasons, whether the survey based on these items represents a
reasonable assessment of changes in the cost of food over the three year period.
(b) The quantities of potatoes harvested during the period from 2001 to 2008, in 1000
tonnes are given in the table below:
Year
Index
2003=100

2001

2002

2003

2004

2005

2006

2007

2008

97

102

100

112

128

121

145

149

(i) Convert the above information to show a set of chain base relatives.
(ii) Given that the amount of potatoes harvested in 2004 was 587000 tonnes, calculate
the amount of potatoes harvested (to the nearest 1000 tonnes) each year from 2006
to 2008.
5. A project consists of eight activities. The activity completion times and the immediate
precedence relationships are as follows:
Activity
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

Completion Time
(Weeks)
5
7
6
3
4
2
6
5

Immediate predecessor
activities
A
B,C
C
D
E,F

Draw the appropriate network diagram.


Calculate earliest start and finish times, latest start and finish times, and float times.
Identify which activities are critical.
If activity E is delayed by 3 weeks, how is the project completion time affected?
If activity F is delayed by 3 weeks, how is the project completion time affected?

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 86 -

6. The following diagram shows a CPANetwork modelling the stages in the manufacturing
process of a certain product:
G

2
A

3
B

Start

C
4

4
H
2

E
4

3
3

1
F
3

6
I

6
J

M
2

9
Finish

Each arc is labelled with a letter denoting the activity it represents and a weight that
denotes the number of days needed to complete that activity.
(i) State what is meant by an event in a CPANetwork.
Define the earliest event time and the latest event time for an event.
(ii) Explain briefly why a dummy activity must sometimes be included in a CPA-Network.
Illustrate your explanation by referring to suitable activities in the network shown
above.
(iii) Calculate the earliest event time and the latest event time for each event of the
network. State the shortest completion time of the manufacturing process and find the
critical path.

7. (a) Let y = tan x + cot x .


12
12

Prove that, 1 + y = 2( y 1) sin 2 x .

Hence, show that for all values of x , tan x + cot x cannot take values
12
12

1
between and 3.
3
3
(b) Prove the identity sin 6 + cos 6 1 sin 2 2 .
4

(c) Solve the equation sin 8 x cos 4 2 x + cos 8 x = 0 .

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 87 -

8. (a) Find all the values of in the range [0, ] satisfying cos 3 = cos 2 .
By expressing cos 3 cos 2 in terms of cos and factorizing or otherwise, show that
2
4
cos
and cos
are the roots of the quadratic equation 4 x 2 + 2 x 1 = 0 .
5
5
2
Hence, find the value of cos
.
5
(b) Express 3 sin 2 x + cos 2 x in the form R sin( 2 x + ) , where R and are real.
7
11
x
Draw the graph of y = 3 sin 2 x + cos 2 x for
.
12
12

Draw also, the graph of y = 3 sin 2 x + cos 2 x for x .


6
3
9. (a) In the usual notation, state the Sine rule for a triangle ABC.
In a triangle ABC, the median through A is of length m and makes angles and with
AB and AC respectively.
Prove that,
(i) 2m(sin sin ) = a (sin B sin C ) ,
A

(ii) 2m sin
= (b c) sin .
2
2
(b) Using the Cosine rule, prove that, in the usual notation, tan 2

10. (a) Using partial fractions, find

A (a b + c)(a + b c)
=
.
2 (b + c a )(a + b + c)

(3x 2 + 1)(3x + 1) dx .

(b) Using the method of integration by parts, find e x cos 2 xdx .


(c) Calculate the area of the region bounded by x = 0, x =

11. (a) By using the substitution, u = x 2 evaluate

3 x2

x e

,
2

y = sin x and y = cos x .

dx .

(b) Find

x
2

dx .

x 4
8

Hence, evaluate

x ln( x 2 4)
x2 4

dx .
1
2

(c) By using the substitution x = cos 2 , evaluate

1+ x
dx .
1 x

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12. (a) State the Trapezoidal Rule in the usual notation.


The values, correct to two decimal places, of a function f (x) for the indicated values of x,
are given in the following table:
x
f(x)

1.0
7.00

0.5
5.00

0.0
3.50

0.5
4.00

1.0
5.50

1.5
6.00

2.0
6.50

Using the information given in the above table and the Trapezoidal Rule, obtain an
approximate value for the area below the curve y = f (x) and above the x-axis, between
x = 1.0 and x = 2.0.
(b) State Simpsons Rule in the usual notation.
1

Using h = 0.2 and Simpsons Rule, obtain an approximate value for

x 3 + 10 dx ,
0

correct to four decimal places.


13. Some information on the number of asthma sufferers whose first attacks came at various
ages is given in the following table:
Age at first attack
No. of cases

0 10
14

10 20
?

20 - 30
27

30 40
?

40 50
15

Data corresponding to the age groups (10 20) and (30 40) is missing from the table.
However, it is found that the median and the mode of the distribution are 25 and 24
respectively.
(i) Calculate the missing frequencies.
(ii) Obtain the mean and the standard deviation of the distribution.
(iii) Find the coefficient of variability and the coefficient of skewness and identify the
shape of the distribution.
14. Define the mean and the variance of a set of n observations.
The mean and the variance of a set of n observations {x1 , x 2 , L x n } were calculated. It
was found later that the value x1 is incorrect and that it should be replaced by x1 .
Show that the adjustment to be done to the variance to rectify this error is
x x + 2T
1

( x1 x1 ) x1 + x1 1 1
, where T is the sum of the original data
n
n

set {x1 , x 2 , L x n } .
The following gives the information regarding the employees in two factories A and B
belonging to the same industry:
Number of employees
Average wage per employee per month
(in Rupees)
Variance of the wages per month
(in Rupees2)

Factory A
50

Factory B
100

12000

8500

16

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(i) Which factory A or B pays out a larger amount as monthly wages? Justify your
answer.
(ii) Find in which factory there is greater variability in individual wages.
(iii) In factory B the wage of an employee is recorded incorrectly as 12000 Rupees instead
of 10000 Rupees.
Find the corrected variance of factory B.
Does this correction affect your answer in (ii)? Justify your answer.
15. Define the harmonic mean of n observations.
(a) A train runs first 40 km at an average speed 48 km.p.h., second 80 km at an average
speed 64 km.p.h., then due to the maintenance of the track, travels for 15 minutes at an
average speed 20 km.p.h. and finally covers the remaining distance at an average speed
25 km.p.h. If the average speed of the train for the entire journey is 45 km.p.h., find the
total distance that the train runs.
(b) The distribution in the following table gives the personal wealth of a certain cross
section of the population of a country for a particular year:
Personal wealth
0
2000
5000
10000
15000
20000
25000
50000

- 2000
- 5000
- 10000
- 15000
- 20000
- 25000
- 50000
and over

Number of persons
(000,000)
19
26
74
41
16
8
5
1

Total personal
wealth (000m)
2.4
7.8
55.5
49.2
25.7
16.8
15.0
6.3

Draw a Lorenz curve to illustrate the data and use it to estimate


(i) the percentage of total personal wealth that the least wealthy 30% of persons have
at their disposal,
(ii) the percentage of most wealthy who command one half of all personal wealth.
16. (a) Let A and B be two events such that P( A | B) = 0.6,
P( A | B ) = 0.5 .
(i) Find P( A), P( B) and P( B | A) .
(ii) Are A and B independent? Justify your answer.

P( B | A) = 0.4 and

(b) A production line is known to produce 8% of defective items, one quarter of which are
rejected. If three items are selected at random from the production line, find the
probability that
(i) the first item is rejected,
(ii) the second item is rejected,
(iii) none of the items are rejected,
(iv) at least one of them is defective.

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17. Let N(t) be the number of customers who have visited a shop during t hours since the shop
opens at 9.00 a.m. Assume that N(t) has a Poisson distribution with mean t .
(i) Find the probability that 20 customers have visited the shop by the time it closes at
5.00 p.m.
(ii) Let T be the time that the first customer of the day visits the shop. Find P(T > t ) and
hence, show that T has an exponential distribution.
(iii) Till 10.00 a.m., no customers have visited the shop. Find the probability of the first
customer of the day arriving between 10.00 a.m. and 11.00 a.m.
18. The records of a company show that the weekly distance travelled by any salesman is
normally distributed with mean 800 km and standard deviation 90 km. The sales manager
considers that salesmen who travel less than 600 km in one week perform poorly.
(i) Find the probability that a randomly selected salesman has travelled more than 710 km
but less than 935 km.
(ii) If the company employs 200 salesmen, how many would be expected to perform
poorly in a particular week?
(iii) The sales manager wishes to estimate the number of kilometres travelled in a week,
above which only 1% of the salesmen are expected to exceed. Evaluate his estimate.
19. Three light bulbs each of whose lifetime T is a random variable with probability density
t

1 1000
function f (t ) =
e
, t 0 are fitted in a room.
1000
(a) Find P[T t ] and hence, compute P[T > t ] .

(b) Assuming that all three bulbs are used at the same time, find the probability that
(i) all three bulbs are,
(ii) only two bulbs are,
(iii) only one bulb is
still working after 1300 hours.
(You may assume that exp(-1.3) = 0.273, correct to three decimal places.)
Deduce the probability that the room will be in the dark after 1300 hours.
20. A housewife is in the habit of buying one of the two brands A and B of tooth paste each
month. If she buys brand A in a month, then she buys brand B in the following month with
probability 0.1. If she buys brand B in a month, then she buys brand A in the following
month with probability 0.05. Let X n be the brand of the tooth paste she buys in the nth
month.
(i) Show that {X n : n = 0, 1, 2, . . .} represents a Markov chain and find its one-step
transition probability matrix.
(ii) If the housewife buys brand A in January, find the probability that she buys the same
brand in March.
(iii) If the housewife has probability 0.4 of buying brand A in January, find the probability
that she buys the same brand in May.
(iv) Find the conditional probability that she has bought brand A in January given that she
buys brand A in May.
(v) In the long run, how often does she buy each of the two brands?
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21. A lorry driver delivers goods to Kandy, Galle and Haputale. He goes to one city each day
and never goes to the same city on successive days. If he goes to Kandy on a given day,
then the next day he is equally likely to go to Galle or Haputale. If he goes to Galle on a
given day, then the next day he is twice as likely to go to Kandy as he is to go to Haputale.
If he goes to Haputale on a given day, then the next day he is three times as likely to go to
Galle as he is to go to Kandy.
(i) Write down the one step transition probability matrix for this situation.
(ii) Given that on a particular Monday he goes to Kandy, find the probability that he goes
to Galle on Wednesday.
(iii) Show that over a long period of time the visits to the Kandy, Galle and Haputale are
in the ratio 18 : 21 : 16.

Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

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08 - Agricultural Science

Structure of the Question Paper


Paper I -

Time : 02 hours
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.

Paper II -

Time : 03 hours
This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay type and Essay type.
Part A - Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 100 marks for each question altogether 400 marks
Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be
answered. Each question carries 150 marks altogether 600 marks
Total marks for paper II = 1000 10 = 100

Calculation of the nal mark = Paper I


=
Paper II =
Final mark =

100
100
200 2 = 100

Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)

Use the following table to answer questions 1 - 3.


A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Type of rainfall
South-East monsoon
North-East monsoon
Inter-monsoon - I
Inter-monsoon - II
Cyclone

P.
Q.
R.
S.
T.

Time of receiving the rainfall


September to December
January to March
May to September
June, July
January, February

1. Among the above the correct relationship between the type of rainfall and time of receiving the rainfall is
(1) AP.
(2) AR.
(3) BQ.
(4) CS.
(5) DP.
2. Shifting of inter-tropical convergence zone to north from Sri Lanka is taken place due to
(2) B.
(3) C.
(4) D.
(5) E.
(1) A.
3. Dry zone of Sri Lanka mainly receives rains from
(1) A.
(2) B.
(3) C.

(4) D.

(5) E.

4. It was decided that following factors should be considered installing a rain-gauge in the weather station
located in the school garden
A - The upper edge of the rain-gauge should be 30 cm above the ground level
B - The floor should be uniform and level
C - The distance between the rain-gauge and the trees or buildings of the surrounding should
be more than four times of the height of those obstacles
Of above, the most important factor/s to be considered in installing a rain-gauge would be
(1) A only
(2) A and B only (3) A and C only (4) B and C only (5) All A, B and C
5. A student who tested the texture of the soil in the field conclude that it was a sandy soil. The most
abundant mineral of the parent material which the soil was formed is
(2) Quartz
(3) Mica
(4) Apatite
(5) Feldspar
(1) Dolomite
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6. Following is a flow chart prepared in a study of the soil microorganisms


Nitrogen
C
B
Dead bodies A
Ammonia
Nitrate
gas
Above A, B and C processes are
(1) nitrification, nitrification and denitrification respectively
(2) denitrification, nitrification and ammonification respectively
(3) ammonification, denitrification and nitrification respectively
(4) denitrification, ammonification and nitrification respectively
(5) ammonification, nitrification and denitrification respectively

7. Following are some statements regarding a particular soil


A - pH is above 7
B - Large amount of the cation exchange complex (more than 15]) is Na+
C - This soil is found in arid and semi-arid areas
The above soil is
(1) acidic
(2) neutral
(3) saline
(4) alkaline
(5) basal
8. A group of students observed the following soil characteristics in the school garden, before and after
the primary land preparation
A - Texture
B - Structure
C - True density
D - Bulk density
E - Random roughness F - Porosity
of above, the soil characteristics that the changes could be expected after primary land preparation are
(1) A,B,C, and D
(2) A,C,D, and E
(3) B,C,D, and E
(4) B,D,E and F
(5) C,D,E and F
9. Following are some statements regarding the nutrient availability in the soil
A - Though essential nurtients are available in an acidic soil, plants could show nutrient
deficiencies
B - Plants growing on a high acidic soil are unable to absorb iron
C - Nutrient retention ability is high in a soil having organic matter
Of above, the correct statements would be
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only
10. Various problems arise due to the over application of chemical fertilizer in paddy cultivation.
Following are some affects of over application of urea
A - eutrophication of water bodies
B - becomes acidic soils
C - high susceptibility of plants to pests
Of above, the correct statements would be
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only
11. Amount of triple supper phosphate (45%P2O5) needed to prepare 1000 kg, of fertilizer mixture of
15:10:0 is approximately
(1) 450 kg
(2) 333 kg
(3) 222 kg
(4) 45 kg
(5) 22 kg
12. An agriculture instructor in the dry zone, instructed the farmers in his area to cary out zero tillage in
their agricultural lands. The correct procedure of zero tillage is
(1) seedbed preparation after ploughing
(2) drilling the soil and planting the seeds
(3) levelling the soil and seedbed preparation
(4) digging holes and planting seeds
(5) preparation of ridges and furrows
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13. A farmer who intented to cultivate his upland which has not been cultivated for many years, used a disc
plough to prepare the land. The main objective of using a disc plough is to
(1) crush the soil aggregates
(2) break the hardpan in the soil
(3) control the weeds
(4) prepare the ridges and furrows
(5) mix organic matter
14. The soil factors necessary to know in determination of irrigation requrement for a field crop cultivation
would be
(1) moisture percentage, field capacity and bulk density
(2) moisture pecentage, field capacity and the depth of the root zone
(3) moisture percentage, structure and bulk density
(4) texture, structure and bulk density
(5) texture, structure and porosity
15. A farmer established a sprinkler irrigation system to supply water to his vegetable cultivation. He used
a water pump in the system. The main objective of using a water pump is to
(1) lift water to surface of the earth
(2) increase the potential energy of the water
(3) increase the kinetic energy of the water
(4) increase the volume of the water
(5) increase the weight of the water
16. It was observed that the crop plants grown on a land were wilted; their leaves turned to pale green and
dropped. When those plants were uprooted, it was observed that the lateral roots were dead and the
depth of the root zone was short. The main reason for this situation is
(1) nitrogen deciency
(2) potassium deciency
(3) soil acidity
(4) weak drainage
(5) iron toxicity
17. Following are some statement regarding plant breeding
A - New varieties produced through breeding are always fit to natural environment
B - Potential yield of the crops can only be improved through breeding
C - Mutation can create genetic variances
Of above, the correct statements would be
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only
18. New plants have been produced by incorporating the gene having insecticidal property taken from
Bacillus thuringiensis in to plants via a vector. This bio technological method is called
(1) Mutation breeding
(2) Hybridization
(3) Somaclonal variation
(4) Gene recombination
(4) Recombinant DNA technology
19. The parameter used to measure the nutrient availability of the media in hydroponics is
(1) pH.
(2) CEB.
(3) EC.
(4) BOD.
(5) FC.
20. Following are some statements regarding soiless cultivation in solid media
A - Metam Sodium can be used to disinfect the coir dust
B - Drainage can be improved by mixing coir dust with paddy husk charcoal
C - When nursery plants rearing, the nutrient media is directly applied to the media in the
nursery pan
Of above the corrcet statements would be,
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A and B only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only

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21. The diagram shows a simple propagatory structure prepared for rooting of a cutting. The
techniques used in here to promote rooting are
(1) reducing of leaf area and increasing the humidity
(2) increasing the humidity and temperature
(3) reducing the leaf area and increasing the temperature
(4) wetting the soil and reducing the humidity
(5) reducing the temperature and humidity
22. The stomata are closed when the plant is subjected to a water stress. This is happen due to the reducing
of the turgidity in guard cels. A hormone and a mineral responsible for this are respectively
(2) Auxin and K+
(3) ABA and Ca++
(1) Auxin and Ca++
(4) ABA and K+
(5) Gibberellin and Ca++

Use following information to answer questions 23 - 24.


Students who have observed a snakegourd cultivation, have recorded following information.
Observations
A - Polythene covered snakegourd
B - Veins remained in the damaged leaves looked like a net

23. Observations A is used to prevent


(1) Aulacophora damage
(3) Disease vector damage
(5) Biting insect damage

(2) Fruit fly damage


(4) Epilachna damage

24. The damage relevant to B observation is done by


(1) Piercing and sucking insect
(3) Biting or Chewing insect
(5) Disease vector insect

(2) Rasping and sucking insect


(4) Leaf rolling insect

25. During the night, lighting of re torches prepared by Kakuna oil and during the daytime placing a stage
of yellow and red owers while spreading the milk rice in the eld were done by a farmer. By this
activity, farmer expects to
(1) provide light to the paddy eld during the night
(2) control the insect pest damages in the eld
(3) chuck of rats coming to paddy eld during the night
(4) decorate the eld
(5) chuck the pests coming to the paddy eld

For questions 26 and 27, select the correct responses from (A), (B), (C) and (D) and then select the
correct number.
1. If only responses A, B, D are correct, mark on 1
2. If only responses A, C, D are correct, mark on 2
3. If only responses B, C, D are correct, mark on 3
4. If only responses A, B, C are correct, mark on 4
5. If only responses C and D are correct, mark on 5
Mark in the answer sheet according to the instructions given

26. The characteristics of the order Homoptera


(A) Fore wings are thicken uniformly
(B) Rear wings are membranous
(C) Shows complete metamorphosis
(D) Has piercing and sucking mouth parts
27. Correct statements regarding pyrethrum are
(A) The persistence is high
(B) Extract from the chrysanthemum plant
(C) Organic insecticide with plant origin
(D) Effective insecticide but not much toxic to mammals

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Use the information given in following table to answer questions 28 -30


A
Batadalla
Atawara
Illuk

B
Parthenium
Alligator plant
Salvinia

28. Weeds belong to group A are


(1) Grasses
(4) Grasses and sedges

C
Girapala
Balunaguta
Kadupahara
(2) Broad leaves
(5) Grasses and broad leaves

(3) Sedges

29. Of above, the group/groups of invasive allien weeds is/are


(1) A only
(2) B only
(4) A and B only
(5) B and C only

(3) C only

30. Of above, group/groups of annual weeds is/are


(1) A only
(2) B only
(5) A and C only
(4) A and B only

(3) C only

31. If a farmer expects to harvest his BG 300 rice crop during the period from 15th February to 15th March
in the Maha season of the dry zone, the appropriate time for land preparation and sowing would be
between
(1) 10th to 30th November and at the beginning of December respectively
(2) 25th October to 15th November and at the middle of November respectively
(3) 10th to 30th October and at the beginning of November respectively
(4) between 20th to 30th September and at the middle of October respectively
(5) between 10th to 30th December and at the end of January respectively
32. Following are some statement regarding the formation of empty seeds in rice
A - Due to stem borer attack
B - Due to drying stigma
C - Due to the deposition of pollen of another variety on the stigma
D - Application of nitrogen and potassium fertilizer during the owering
Of above, the correct statements are
(1) A and B only
(2) C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, B and D only
(5) A, C and D only
33. Nutrient content in 100g of some foods are given in the following table
Type of food
A
B
C

Protein (gram)
19
6.8

Fat (gram)
81
14
0.5

Carbohydrate (gram)
78.2

Examples for above A,B, C foods are


(1) cheese, cowmilk and dhal respectively
(2) butter, beef and raw-rice respectively
(3) pork, chick pea and raw-rice respectively
(4) curd, dhal and soyabean respectively
(5) coconut, tuna sh, and bread respectively
34. Food group not subjected to enzymatic browning would be
(1) apple, mango, and pears
(2) butterfruit, papaya and ripe babana
(3) ash plantain, brinjal and okra
(4) grapes, guava and orange
(5) potato, pineapple and beans
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35. When green vegetables are prepared as a food, it is common to chop into small pieces, mix with scraped
coconut and make a malluma. The nutritional importance of this preparation is
(1) Adding coconut detoxify the toxic substances found in greens
(2) Nutrients in greens dissolve in coconut milk and facilitate the absoption in to the body
(3) Allows the absoption of fat soluble vitamins in greens into body
(4) Chopping into small pieces facilitate the water soluble vitamins to come out
(5) Reduce the cholesterol in coconut and transform into favourable state to the body
36. Following are some factors affecting the consumer demand on a particular good.
A - Consumer requirement
B - Cost of the inputs
C - Purchasing power
Of above, the correct would be
(1) A only
(2) C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A and C only
(5) B and C only
37. By fixing a maximum price for a certain good, the government basically expects
(1) to increase the demand for the good
(2) to protect the producer
(3) to protect the consumer
(4) to buy the good by the govenrment
(5) to provide a good profit to the producer for their goods
38. A farmer bought a land to caltivate chilli and the bought chemical fertilizer to apply the crop. The type
of above cost are
(1) Fixed cost and total cost respectively
(2) Variable cost and fixed cost respectively
(3) Fixed cost and variable cost respectively
(4) Variable cost and total cost respectively
(5) Total cost and variable cost respectively
39. Students observed a herd of cattle commonly found in dry zone having a long tail, well developed
dewlap and hump. They also observed that while some were grazing other were lying on the floor.
These observations can be identified as
(1) Behavioral changes of animals for the temperature
(2) Physiologocal changes of animals for the temperature
(3) Morphological changes of animal for the temperature
(4) Behavioral and pysiological changes of animals for the temperature
(5) Behavioral and morphological changes of animal for the temperature
40. A farmer has a well managed cattle farm. He wants to improve the productivity of his indigenous
milking cattle in a long run. The most appropriate method is
(1) Selection of animals
(2) Inbreeding of animals
(3) Provision of good nutrition to animals
(4) Crossing with improved breeds
(5) Improving with animal health

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41. Parts of the complex stomach of cattle were dipped in formalin and kept in seperate vessels in the
school laboratory. But the lables of these vessels were displaced Photographs of the parts of the stomach
found in those vessels are shown below.

A
B
C
D
Based on the characteristics of above photographs, the labels relevent to each vessel would be
(1) Reticulum, omasum, ruman and abomasum respectively
(2) Abomasum, reticulum, ruman, and omasum respectively
(3) Omasum, reticulum, ruman, and abomasum respectively
(4) Abomasum, omasum, ruman and reticulum respectively
(5) Ruman, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum respectively
42. In a poultry breeding farm having pure bred birds, poultry shed X has white colour, single combed
broiler chicken while the poultry shed Y has white colour layer chicken Poultry breeds in sheds X and
Y would be
(2) Sussex and Bhrahma respectively
(1) Sussex and leghorn respectively
(3) R.I.R and leghorn respectively
(4) R.I.R and Newhamsphire respectively
(5) Sussex and Cochin respectively
43. A farmer purchased two groups of day old chicks, one group for egg production and the other for broiler
production. If he wants to buy poultry feeds for first three weeks, the feeds he should buy would be
(1) chicks ration and growers ration
(2) growers ration and layers ration
(3) broiler finishing ration and growers ration
(4) chicks ration and broiler starter ration
(5) growers ration and finishing ration
44. In an awareness programme for commercial poultry farmer, livestock development officer stated certain
characteristics of the hens
A - Activeness
B - Strong legs with warn nails
C - Small hard (Rough) abdomen
D - Short beak and vigor
E - Dry small cloaca
Of above, the characteristics of a good layer hen would be
(1) A,B, and C only
(2) A,B, and D only
(3) A,C, and D only
(5) B,D, and E only
(4) B,C, and D only
45. Following are the certain points noted by a veterinary surgeon after visiting a livestock farm
A - Udder of the certain cows were swollen and the milk of those cows had clots
B - Certain cows were limping and saliva was coming out from their mouth
C - Droppings with blood were observed in the poultry shed and remaing feed were found in the
containers
According to above A,B,C symptoms it is suspected that farm animals were having
(1) Mastitis, Haemoregic septecemia and ranicut respectively.
(2) Milk fever, foot and mouth diseaces and coccidiosis respectively.
(3) Mastities, foot infection and ranicut respectively.
(4) Mastities, foot and mouth disease and coccidiosis respectively.
(5) Milk fever, anthrax and bird flue respectively.
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For question from 46 - 50 two statements for each question were given. Considering the pair of
statements given in each question, select the most suitable answer for each question from the five
answers given below and mark according to the instructions given on the answer script.
Response
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

46'
47'

48'
49'
50'

First statement
True
True
True
False
False

Second statement
True and explains the rst statement correctly
True and does not explain the rst statement correctly
False
True
False

First statement
Maize is a monocotyledon seed.
Seed dormancy is dened as the ability of a
seed to germinate when factors needed for
germination are provided
Self sterility avoids the self pollination in plants
Rooting of cuttings are promoted in the simple
propagaters
No variations occur in plants obtained from
tissue culture

Second statement
Maize seed has a single cotyledon and it is called
scutellum
Seed viability can be secured by reducing the
CO2 concentration in the stores
Self sterility means weakening of the growth of
pollen tube after pollination
High humidity and temperature promote the
rooting in cuttings
Genetic variations could be obtained from
somaclonal variations

***

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08 - Agricultural Science
*
*

Paper II

Answer all questions of part A


Answer four questions only of part B

Part A - Structured Essay

1. Digestive tract of the cattle is given in the diagram below. Use this diagram to answer following questions. (Select and write English letters relevant to the answers of questions (i) - (iii) of section A)
Y

T
P

(A) (i) State two places where food is subjected to mechanical digestion.

a.
b.

(ii) What is the place, where food is subjected to microbial digestion.


(iii) What is/are the main place/places, that food is subjected to enzymatic digestion.
(iv) Name the part of the digestion tract of pig resemble to the task of the part "S" of this digestive
tract.
(v) Name the main method of nutrient absorption in the place W.
(B) Following are two digestive processes take place in the digestive tract of cattle.

a. Starch

Place - 1

Enzyme - 1
Place - 3
b. Crude ber

Maltose

Place - 2

Enzyme - 2

Glucose

Volatile fatty acids + gases

(i) Name places 1 and 2 of process a.


Place - 1

Place - 2

(ii) Name two enzymes contributing to process a.


Enzyme - 1

Enzyme - 2

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(iii) Name the place - 3 of digestive process b.


(iv) What is the main group of microbes responsible for process b ?
(v) Name the place of digestive tract of pig that the process b takes place.
(C) The types of food given to farm animals and examples for each type are given in the following
table.
P
Q
R
S

Type of food
Concentrated food
Wet roughphage
Dry roughphage
Processed roughphage

Example

W Hay, silage
X Hay, straw
Y Coconut poonac, rice bran, molasses
Z Desmidium, Brachiaria, Setaria

(i) Select the correct example for each of food types P, Q, R, S from W, X, Y, Z in the above
table.
(a)

(c)

(b)
(d)

Q
S

(ii) State two main differences between concentrated food and roughphage.

a.
b.

(D)

Various agro-chemicals used in agriculture and their uses are given in the following table.
X1
X2
X3
X4
X5

X
Copper sando 4
Carbofuran
MCPA
ROUND UP
Pyrethroid

Y1
Y2
Y3
Y4
Y5

Y
Selective weedicide used in paddy cultivation.
Total weedicide used to control all weeds in a eld
A safe insecticide extracted from plants
Neuro toxic insecticide
Fungicidused to control leaf spot disease

Match X and Y based on above information.

(i) X1

(ii) X2

(iii) X3
(iv) X4
(v) X5

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2' (A) A student conducted a soil analysis and found following quantites of different ions in an oven dried
100g of soil.
Mg2+
= 4.5 milli equivalents
2+
Ca
= 6.0 milli equivalents
K+
= 3.6 milli equivalents
H+
= 1.5 milli equivalents
2SO4
= 0.8 milli equivalents
(i) Using above data, calculate the cation exchange capacity of the soil sample.

(ii) State two importances of the cation exchange capacity in soil.

a.
b.

(iii) Calculate the base saturation of above soil sample.

(iv) What is the importance of calculating the base saturation of soil?


(v) Write two compounds that can be applied to soil to reduce the acidity of the soil.

a.
b.

(B) A famer digging a well in his land observed that the soil is hard when it is dry, muddy and sticky
when it is wet and there is a quarts layer when the soil is dig to a one meter depth.
(i) Name the soil group in this land?
(ii) What could be the district that farmer is digging the well?
(iii) Name two crops suitable to cultivate in this farm.

b.

a.

(iv) Write two main problems that could arise when cultivating this land.

a.
b.

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(C) Following facts were found when a barren land is inspected for the suitability for crop cultivation.
1. The land has a mild slope
2. Top soil is eroded in most of the places
3. The soil is severely degraded
4. Poorly grown weeds are abandon
(i) What is the meaning of "the soil is severely degraded"?
(ii) Write four methods that could be followed for conservation of this soil.

a.

b.
c.
d.
(iii) Write three types of soil erosion that could occur in this type of lands.

a.

b.
c.
(iv) Name a suitable land preparation method for cultivating this land.
(v) If vegetables are cultivated on this land, name a suitable irrigation method.
(vi) Name two suitable weed control methods for this land.

a.

b.
3'

(A) (i) Supply function for rice is given as QS = 4P - 50. Fill the following supply list using this supply
function.
Price of the 1kg of rice Ammount supplied(kg)
15
'''''''''''''''''''''
25
'''''''''''''''''''''
35
'''''''''''''''''''''
45
'''''''''''''''''''''
(ii) Plot the supply curve of this supply list.

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(iii) If Government provides fertilizer subsidy to paddy cultivation, state the impact of it to this
supply curve by mean of a graph.

(iv) State two main reasons affecting the expansion and contraction of supply along the supply
curve in section (ii).

a.

b.
(B) (i) State the main difference that could be observed between following cost groups.
1. Fixed cost and variable cost

2. Avarage cost and marginal cost

(ii) The total cost of a broiler chicken farm is given below.


C = 15,000 + 250 y
Where, C is the total cost (Rs) and y is the number of production units (kg).
1. How much is the xed cost?

2. How much is the marginal cost?

(iii) Dene opportunity cost.

(C) (i) Malnutrition is a major nutritional problem in Sri Lanka. State the two main types of
malnutrition.

a.

b.
(ii) State the main disease condition occur due to iodine deficiency.

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(iii) What is the procedure followed by the government to avoid above disease condition?
(iv) Recent surveys disclosed that the diabetic conditions are prevalence among school children in
Sri Lanka. State two main factors causing to this situation.

a.

b.
(D) (i) A farmer, who intends to cultivate pineapple as an intercrop under his 10 year old coconut
cultivation, met the agricultural instructor of the region for necessary advices.
a. The instructor did not approve the farmer's intention. What could be the main reason for
it?

b. Name other two crops which could be grown as intercrops under coconut.
1'
2'
(ii) State two main advantages of Gliricidia (Gliricidia maculata) which is commonly used in
street cropping to the soil.

a.

b.
(iii) In addition to the advantages to soil, Gliricidia is recently used for another main alternate use.
What is it?
(iv) Name two commonly used cropping systems in Sri Lanka.

a.

b.
4'

(A) Vegetables and cereals are commonly propagated by seeds. Capsicum, tomato, finger millet, snake
gourd, ridged gourd, okra, rice and maize are some examples.
(i) Classify above mentioned crop into monocots and dicots.

a. Monocots

b. Dicots

(ii) Of above, what are the crops having hypogeal germination?


(iii) Tomato seeds show dormancy due to the growth inhibitors. How to remove those?

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(iv) State two other factors causing seed dormancy and write relevant examples from above
mentioned crops.

a.
b.

(v) Write four advantages of seed propagation of plants.

a.
b.
c.
d.

(B) (i) Complete the following table.

a.
b.
c.

Crop

Potato
Rice
Papaya

Disease
''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
Leaf blight
Root knot disease

Causal agent
Phytophthera infestans
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''
'''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''

(ii) Fill in the relevant blanks with the nutrient mainly responsible for the following deficiency
symptoms.

a. Stunted plants with purple colour leaves


b. Complete yellowing of young leaves

c. Burning of margins of mature leaves and burnt


spots on the leaves
d. Inter-veinal chlorosis

e. Shortening of internodes at the apex and formation of


leaf rosette
(C) A student who examined the snake gourd cultivation in the school garden, observed the following
insect damage.
(i) Name the main insect making above damage.
(ii) What is the order of this insect?
(iii) State two characteristic features of above insect order.

a.
b.

(iv) State a method to control above insect.


(v) a. In addition to above insect damage name another main insect damage that could be seen
in the snake gourd crop.

b. Name a non-chemical method to control the insect damage you named.

**

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Part B - Essay
5. (i)

(a)
(b)

(ii)

(a)
(b)

What are the main problems that could happen in agriculture due to climatic change?
What are the actions that could be followed to avoid such problems in order to succeed the
agricultural activities?
A farmer carried out a soil test before cultivating his land and results were shown to the
agricultural instructor. The instructor advised him to apply lime (CaCO3) to his soil. What
are the reasons for this advice?
What are the advantages that the farmer could obtain by following these advices?

(iii)

Large milking cows having a hump and an undulated dewlap were found in a dry zone livestock
farm.
(a) What is the type of breed of these milking cows?
(b) Describe the responses and adaptations of these milking cows to unfavorable climatic
conditions?

6. (i)

An agricultural teacher divided her class into three groups and instructed to carry out following
tests.
Group one - Determination of moisture percentage in the soil
Group two - Determination of eld capacity of the soil
Group three - Determination of permanent wilting point of the soil
(a) Name the equipment needed by group - one to carry out their test.
(b) State the readings to be taken by group - two to nd out the eld capacity of the soil.
(c) Explain how the group - three calculate the permanent wilting point.

(ii)

Following are some information taken from a report prepared by students who visited a home
garden.
X - Plants such as Monarakudumbiya, Brinjal, Atthadi, Kuppamania, Atawara, Chille,
Tomato, Ridge-gourd were found in the eld.
Y - Labourers were involved in activities such as applying straw mulch to turmeric
cultivation, hand weeding of Kuppamania, Sparaying a liquid on atawara.
(a) Classify the weeds found in this home garden based on the information mentioned in X.
(b) What are the adaptations of these weeds for their survival?
(c) Based on the information in Y, classify the weed control methods. Write the advantages and
disadvantages of each method.

7. (i)

A farmer expects to commence a broiler chicken farm with an idea to send the production to the
market during the New Year period in April.
(a) At what time he should bring the day old chicks to the farm?
(b) Describe the main factors to be considered in rearing broiler chicken.

(ii)
8. (i)

(ii)

Describe the challenges of developing the agriculture production in present Sri Lanka.
(a)

Describe the most suitable rearing method for a farmer who expects to start a medium scale
dairy farm in two hactare land.
(a) Sketch a oor plan for a cattle shed for 20 milking cows rearing according to above described
method.
Describe the ways of improving the efciency in agricultural marketing process.

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9. (i)
(ii)

(a)
(b)

Dene "agricultural product marketing".


Agricultural product marketing process is complicated, comparing to the marketing
processes of other products and services. Explain the reasons for this with examples.
State the factors to be considered in construction of dairy cattle sheds.

10. A dry zone farmer intends to cultivate chillie in his two acre land for dry chillie production.
(i)
Explain the procedure that should be followed from land preparation to crop establishment in
order to obtain a healthy chillie crop.
(ii) Explain how to use the concept of integrated plant nutrient system (IPNS) to maintain favourable
soil nutrient level for a productive crop.
(iii) Describe the procedure that should be followed by the farmer from the time of harvesting to
minimize the post harvesting losses.

***

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Structure of the Question Paper

09 - Biology

Paper I -

Time : 02 hours
50 multiple choice questions with 5 options. All questions should be answered.
Each question carries 02 marks. Total 100 marks.

Paper II -

Time : 03 hours
This paper consists of two parts as Structured Essay type and Essay type.
Part A - Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be
answered. 100 marks for each question - altogether 400 marks
Part B - Six essay type questions. Four questions should be
answered. Each question carries 150 marks - altogether 600 marks
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100

Calculation of the nal mark : Paper I


=
Paper II =
Final mark =

100
100
200 2 = 100

Paper I
Important :
* Answer all questions.
* Select the correct or the most appropriate answer. (A multiple choice answer sheet would be
provided at the examination.)
1.

A hypothesis is
(1) an opinion that cannot be proved experimentally.
(2) an opinion to explain an observation.
(3) an opinion conrmed by all experimental evidences.
(4) an opinion not agreeing with accepted principles.
(5) an unconrmed conclusion of an experiment.

2.

Both glycogen and starch


(1) are made of glucose.
(3) are products of photosynthesis.
(5) are food substances stored by animals.

3.

Competitive inhibitors of enzymes are


(1) molecules that bind to substrate and inhibits its reaction.
(2) molecules that bind to active sites of an enzyme and inhibit its reaction.
(3) molecules that bind to an enzyme at sites other than active site and inhibits its reaction.
(4) molecules that have similar chemical activities as substrate.
(5) molecules that are structurally similar to an enzyme.

4.

Which of the following characteristics of water is most helpful for minimizing temperature variation
within organisms?
(1) Water remains as a liquid within a wide range of temperatures.
(2) Water molecule makes Hydrogen bonds with many other molecules.
(3) Water molecules are held together by cohesive forces.
(4) Water has a high specic heat capacity.
(5) Water has a high latent heat of evaporation.

(2) are straight chain polymers.


(4) stain blue with iodine.

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5.

NH2

O-

O-

O-

HC

O - P - O - P - O - P - O - CH2
H

N C C
N
CH
C
N
N

H
H
OH OH

Which of the following best describes the above molecular structure?


(1) a nucleotide.
(2) ATP molecule.
(3) NAD molecule.
(4) a nucleotide of the DNA molecule.
(5) a coenzyme molecule.
6.

Which of the following structure - function relationships is incorrect?


(1) Nucleolus
Synthesis of rRNA
(2) Golgi complex
Formation of secretory vesicles
(3) Plasmodesmata
Exchange of material between cells
(4) Glyoxysomes
Conversion of lipids to carbohydrates
(5) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Detoxication

7.

Which of the following is an event that does not occur during prophase I of meiosis?
(1) Duplication of each chromosome to produce two chromatids.
(2) Shortening of chromosomes
(3) Parallel arangement of homologous chromosomes making a synaptonemal complex.
(4) Exchange of parts of chromatids between homologous chromosomes.
(5) Disappearence of nuclear membrane

8.

Which one of the following features is unique to the organism group indicated against it?
Feature
Organism group
(1) Paired ns
Osteichthyes
(2) Cilia
Ciliophora
(3) Pedicellaria
Echinodermata
(4) Exoskeleton
Arthropoda
(5) Wings
Aves

9.

Select the correct statement.


(1) Birds are poikilotherms.
(2) Post-anal tail is a chordate feature.
(3) Nematodes are coelomates.
(4) Polyps and medusa are present in anthozoans.
(5) All platyhelminths are parasites.

10. The following are characters seen in Pterophyta.


A - Distinct vascular tissues
B - Independent gametophyte
C - Independent sporophyte
D - Haploid spores
E - Motile reproductive cells
Which of the above are not seen in Bryophyta?
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A and E

(4) B and D

(5) B and E

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11. Which one of the following is an example for mutualism?


(1) Orchid plants growing on a mango tree
(2) Sea anemone living on hermit crab
(3) Larval stages of Wuchereria bancrofti in mosquito
(4) Mushrooms growing on a tree trunk
(5) Rhizobium living in roots of legume plants
12. Select the correct statement with regard to human respiration.
(1) duration of a respiratory cycle is about 4 - 5 seconds.
(2) vital capacity is approximately 6 dm3.
(3) diaphragm relaxes during inspiration.
(4) bronchioles are lined by ciliated columnar epithelium.
(5) rate of breathing is always controlled involuntarily.
13. With reference to phleom transport which of the following organs is most likely to function as a sink in
potato plants?
(1) Mature leaf
(2) Senescing leaf
(3) Growing leaf
(4) Underground stem
(5) Germinating tuber
14. Five events that occur in phloem transport are given below.
A - Water diffuses into sieve tubes
B - Leaf cells produce sugar
C - Companion cells load sugar into sieve tubes
D - Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf
E - Sugar moves down the stem
Select the order that correctly explains phloem transport
(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) B, A, D, C, E
(4) B, D, A, C, E
(5) D, B, A, C, E

(3) B, D, C, A, E

15. Along which one of the following paths, a red blood cell from upper arm passes through subclavian
vein to lung for oxygenation?
(1) Brachio-cephalic vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary vein
(2) Common carotid vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary artery
(3) Brachio-cephalic vein
(4) Jugular vein
Superior vena cava
Heart
Pulmonary artery
Heart
Pulmonary vein
(5) Superior vena cava
16. Select the correct statement regarding human heart.
(1) Myocardium of left atria is thicker than that of the right atria.
(2) Cuspid valves are closed by its muscle bres.
(3) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood only by superior and inferior vena cava.
(4) Corda tendineae join atrio-ventricular valves to papillary muscles.
(5) Coronary circulation is associated with systemic circulation.
17. Which one of the following microorganisms is used in yoghurt manufacture.
(2) Streptomyces griseus
(1) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) Acetobacter aceti
(5) Bacillus subtilis
18. Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain energy and carbon respectively
(1) from light and Carbondioxside.
(2) from light and organic compounds.
(3) by oxidation of inorganic compounds and from Carbondioxside.
(4) by oxidation inorganic compounds and from organic compounds.
(5) by oxidation of organic compounds and from Carbondioxside.
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19. Which one of the following hormones acts on both smooth muscles and cardiac muscles?
(4) Adrenalin
(5) Cortisol
(1) Oxytocin
(2) Noradrenalin (3) ADH
20. Select the incorrect statement regarding action potential of a neuron.
(1) Its production requires a threshold stimulus.
(2) In myelinated neurons, action potentials are produced only at the nodes of Ranvier.
(3) Rising phase of the action potential is due to inux of Na+ into neuron.
(4) During an action potential, polarity of the neurilemma is reversed.
(5) Its duration is about 10 ms.
21. Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system of man
(1) dilates pupil of eye.
(3) inhibits secretion of intestinal juice.
(5) increases the rate of ventilation of lungs.

(2) stimulates secretion of saliva.


(4) increases blood pressure.

22. Select the incorrect statement regarding nitrogenous excretion.


(1) Nitrogenous excretion is due to metabolism of proteins and nucleic acids.
(2) Initial nitrogen containing waste material of all animals is ammonia.
(3) Main site of urea synthesis is the kidney.
(4) Four nitrogen atoms can be excreted in a single molecule by producing uric acid.
(5) Creatinine is an end product of nitrogenous excretion.
23. Select the mismatched pair regarding movement.
Chlamydomonas
(1) Flagellar movement
(2) Ciliary movement
Paramecium
(3) Bipedal movement
Pigeon
Leaves of Mimosa
(4) Nictinastic movement
(5) Phototropic movement
Opening of owers
24. Spherical bacteria arranged in cuboidal packets are known as
(1) Streptococcus.
(2) Staphylococcus.
(5) tetrads.
(4) Sarcina.

(3) Diplococcus.

25. Which of the following is an example of thigmotropism?


(1) A sunower turning towards light
(2) Growth of pneumataphores in Sonneratia
(3) Folding movement of Mimosa leaves
(4) Coiling of tendrils of passion fruit
(5) A seedling stem turning towards light
26. Which of the following is least suitable as an explant for a plant tissue culture experiment?
(1) apical meristem
(2) lateral meristem
(3) leaf discs
(4) bark
(5) embryo
27. The main site of sperm storage in man is
(1) seminiferous tubules.
(2) epididymis.
(4) ejaculatory duct.
(5) seminal vesicles.

(3) vas deferens.

28. Select the incorrect statement regarding human spermatogenesis.


(1) It starts at puberty.
(2) Spermatogonia undergo meiosis to produce primary spermatocytes.
(3) Spermatids develop into sperms without undergoing cell division.
(4) Testosterone regulates spermatogenesis.
(5) The entire process takes about two months.
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29. Select the incorrect statement regarding human lactation.


(1) Milk production occurs in the alveoli of mammary glands.
(2) Oestrogen stimulates lactation.
(3) Babys suckling is essential for maintenance of lactation.
(4) Prolactin initiates milk production.
(5) Oxytocin promotes milk ejection.
30. Select the correct statement regarding human uterus.
(1) The bulk of its wall is formed from the endometrium.
(2) Fertilization usually occurs in it.
(3) Prostaglandins secreted by the placenta inhibit its contractions.
(4) Its wall does not contribute to the formation of placenta.
(5) Oxytocin induced its contractions are regulated by a positive feedback mechanism.
31. In the genetic code there are three codons which do not code for amino acids. These codons
(1) are not transcribed into RNA from DNA.
(2) found only in tRNA genes.
(3) found only in inactive genes.
(4) give stop signals in protein synthesis.
(5) give start signals in protein synthesis.
32. Which of the following best describes what is known as gene cloning?
(1) Making recombinant DNA molecules in test tubes by joining DNA molecules obtained from
different sources.
(2) Making genetically modied organisms by introducing foreign DNA into live cells.
(3) Producing a protein by introducing a foreign gene into a bacterium.
(4) Introducing a foreign gene to the vector and transforming the host cell and
multiplication of the foreign gene within the host cell.
(5) Making a genetically modied bacterial strain by introducing a foreign gene.
33. Which of the following features that has evolved in terrestrial plants can not be considered as an
adaptation to terrestrial life?
(1) Loss of requirement of external water for fertilization.
(2) Presence of vascular tissues to transport water and solutes within plants.
(3) Presence of secondary thickening in stems and roots.
(4) Presence of leaves as organs specialized for photosynthesis.
(5) Evolution of microspores as pollen which are dispersed by wind.
34. In a variety of corn, a dominant allele of a gene produces a purple colored kernel while its double
recessive form produces colorless kernel. Another gene inhibits pigment synthesis. If two corn
plants,both of them heterozygous for both genes were crossed, plants with colored kernels and colorless kernels are produced in 3 : 13 ratio among the progeny. Which of the following is most appropriate
to describe this pattern of inheritance.
(1) Polyallelism
(2) Complementary epistasis
(3) Recessive epistasis
(4) Dominant epistasis
(5) Gene linkage
35. Genetic recombination
(1) occurs at fertilization.
(2) occurs at meiosis.
(3) can occur at mitosis.
(4) is a result of independent segregation of chromosomes.
(5) occurs only in diploid organisms.

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36. A man was colour blind although his father was normal. What is the probability of his sisters son
becoming colour blind? Assume that his sisters husband is normal.
(1) 1
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25
(5) 0
37. Which one of the following statements best explains a agship species?
(1) A species that has been given priority in conservation efforts, because it permits a large number of
other species in the community to persist.
(2) A species whose occupancy is large enough so that when it is protected many other species are
under that protection.
(3) A popular species that serves as a symbol to rally people for conservation awareness and action.
(4) A species selected by a group of people for conservation awareness and action.
(5) A species that is present only in restricted geographical areas.
38. What is the most critical global environmental problem which has received highest attention today?
(1) Global warming
(2) Depletion of the ozone layer
(3) Desertication
(4) Acid rain
(5) Accumulation of solid wastes
39. Which one of the following controls trans boundary movement of hazardous waste?
(1) Basel convention
(2) CITES
(3) Montreal protocol
(4) Marpol convention
(5) Kyoto protocol
40. The antibiotic erythromycin affects
(1) protein synthesis in bacteria
(3) the cell membrane of bacteria
(5) DNA replication of bacteria

(2) the cell wall of bacteria


(4) the replication of viruses

For each of the questions 41 to 50 one or more of the responses is/are correct. Decide which of the
reponse/responses is/are correct and then select the correct number.
If only A, B and D are correct
........................................... 1
If only A, C and D are correct
........................................... 2
If only A and B are correct
........................................... 3
If only C and D are correct
........................................... 4
If only other response or combination of responses is correct
........................................... 5
1
A, B, D
correct

2
A, C, D
correct

Directions summarised
3
4
5
A, B
C, D
Any other response or
correct
correct
combination of responses correct

41. Which one or more of the following relationships is/are correct?


(A) Irregularly thickened cell walls
- Collenchyma
(B) Chondrin
- Compact bone
(C) Collagen bres
- Areolar tissue
(D) Fibrinogen
- Blood
(E) Intercalated discs
- Nervous tissue
42. Which of the following can be considered as evolutionary steps that occurred in evolution of
gymnosperms from ferns.
(A) Connement of male gametophyte to the pollen.
(B) Retention of female gametophyte in megasporangium.
(C) Dioecious sporophyte.
(D) Development of pollen tube as a means of obtaining nourishment for the male gametophyte.
(E) Enclosure of embryo within a seed as a dispersal unit.
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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43. Question 43 is based on the skeletons of the animal groups given below.
^b) Arthropoda
^c) Amphibia
^d) Mollusca
^e) Echinodermata
^a) Annelida
Which of the following groups show/ shows the type of skeleton seen in the animal groups given above
in the sequence of exoskeleton, hydrostatic skeleton and endoskeleton?
(A) d a e
(B) b a c
(C) b c d
(D) e a c
(E) e a d
44. Which of following is/are seen in Domain Archaea?
(A) Cell walls contain peptidoglycan.
(B) Only one type of RNA polymerase is present.
(C) Generally found in extreme environments.
(D) Do not show sensitivity to streptomycin.
(E) Motile forms are common.
45. Which of the following hormone/hormones is/are synthesized in the hypothalamus?
(A) TRH
(B) GnRH
(C) ACTH
(D) ADH
(E) LH
46. Select the correct statement/statements regarding human nephron.
(A) Cortical nephrons are the predominant type of nephrons.
(B) Convoluted tubule is the site of obligatory reabsorption of water.
(C) Podocytes are found in the outer wall of the Bowmans capsule.
+
(D) H is secreted in the distal convoluted tubule.
+
(E) K is reabsorbed in the descending limb of loop of Henle.
47. Which of following is/are example/examples of passive immunity?
(A) Immunity developed in new born babies by antibodies passing through the placenta of the
mother.
(B) Immunity developed in a person who has cantracted measles.
(C) Immunity developed by vaccination of a healthy persons with polio vaccine.
(D) Immunity developed after vaccination of a person who has been bitten by a rabid dog.
(E) Immunity developed in certain individuals against malaria.
48. Which of the following character/characters is/are seen in the Phylum Phaeophyta?
(A) In many forms the vegetative body is differentiated into a holdfast, stalk and thallus.
(B) The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c.
(C) Occurs primarily in fresh water.
(D) Contains the pigment phycobilin.
(E) Life cycle has no agellated cells.
49. Hookworm infections can be controlled by
(A) refraining from defaecating outdoors.
(B) refraining from using human faeces as fertilizer.
(C) washing hands thoroughly using soap before consuming food.
(D) wearing footwear.
(E) keeping food material always covered.
50. Select the correct statement/statements regarding coconut mite.
(A) damages young nuts as well as mature nuts.
(B) spreads due to transportation of nuts.
(C) is clearly visible to the naked eye.
(D) can be successfully controlled by indigenous methods.
(E) is abundant in the base of young coconut fronds.

***
Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

- 116 -

09 - Biology
*
*

Answer all questions of part A


Answer four questions only of part B

Paper II

Part A - Structured Essay


1. (A) (i) What feature of the ATP molecule makes it suitable to function as an energy carrier?
(ii) What is meant by oxidative phosphorylation?
(iii) Name the site of oxidative phosphorylation.
(iv) What is the source of energy for oxidative phosphorylation?
(B)(i) Name three major characters which are used to group living organisms into the three Domains.
(a)
(b)
(c)

(ii) Indicate the Domain to which each of the groups indicated below belongs.
Group
(a) Cyanobacteria

Domain

(b) Methanococcus
(c)

Chitridiomycota

(d) Ciliophora

(C) (i) Name an external structural characteristic feature that is seen in both birds and reptiles.
(ii) Give an external feature that could be used to distinguish a chondrichthyes from an
osteichthyes.

(iii) Using visible external features allocate a leech and Nereis to their respective classes.
Leech

Animal

Visible external feature

Class

Nereis

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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2. (A) (i) Name the three main heterotrophic nutritional modes seen in living organisms.

(ii) Name the mode of nutrition of each organism given below.


Nitrosomonas

Aspergillus

.................................................

.................................................

(B) The following experiment was carried out to determine the water potential of potato cells.

Four equal sized strips each measuring 60 mm in length were cut from a potato tuber. One strip was
placed in a test tube with distilled water, while the others were placed in test tubes containing different
concentrations of sucrose solutions. The tubes were labeled A, B, C and D. After 2 hours the potato
strips were taken out and their lengths were measured again. The data are shown in the table below.
Tube
A
B
C
D

Length of potato strip after 2 hours (mm)


60
65
58
62

(i) Which tube contained a solution with a water potential equivalent to that of the potato cells?
(ii) Which tube contained distilled water?
(iii) Arrange the tubes A to D, in the descending order of water potentials of the liquids.
(iv) (a) What is a blood count?
(b) What is the equipment usually used in a lab to get a blood count?

(C) (i) Why is excretion essential for animals?


(ii) State one advantage in producing ammonia as a nitrogenous excretory product.
(iii) In humans, which type of nephrons possesses long loops of Henle?
(iv) What is meant by ultraltration in human renal physiology?
(v)

What does the presence of proteins in a human urine sample generally indicate?

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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3.(A) (i) What is lactation ?


(ii) State one advantage of giving breast milk over powdered milk.
(iii) State one deciency of human semen which can cause male infertility.
(iv) State two main functions of seminal vesicle uid in man.
(a)
(b)

(v) What is the role of inhibin in the control of sperm production in man?

(vi) What is the role of positive feedback control of oxytocin release at parturition?

(B) (i) State the main function of each of the following type of RNA in the process of protein
synthesis.
Type of RNA

Function

mRNA
rRNA
tRNA

(ii) Which one of the above types of RNA would change if a point mutation occurs in a gene coding
for an enzyme?

(C) (i) State two important changes that have taken place in the evolution of the angyosperm ovule
from a megasporangium, as found in Lycophyta.
(a)
(b)
(ii) (a) What is known as double fertilization?

(b) What is the main advantage of double fertilization?


Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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4. (A) (i) What is an ecological niche?

Questions (ii) and (iii) are based on the hypothetical food web of a fresh water ecosystem given
below.
Cormorants
Snakeheads

Barbs

Grass carps

Common carps
Zooplankton
Phytoplankton

Aquatic insects
Aquatic macrophytes

(ii) Name the organism / organisms that occupy more than one trophic level.
(iii) If aquatic macrophytes are removed from the above ecosystem, what will happen to the
population density of the common carp?

(B)

(i) In the table below, some characters seen in fungi are given in the rst column. If a given character
is present in a phylum indicate with a () and if absent with a ().
Character
Habitat is mostly aquatic

Chitridiomycota

Zygomycota

Ascomycota

Unicellular members may be


present
Produce zoospores
(C) (i) What are stem cells?

(ii) Name a structure from which stem cells are mainly obtained for human stem cell therapy
today.

**

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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Part B - Essay
5. (a) Discribe the general composition and stucture of proteins.

(b) Giving suitable examples, list the differant types of proteins found in living organisms
according to their functions.
(c) Why a denatured enzyme does not show its normal activity?

6. (a) Briey describe the structure of a sarcomere in human skeletal muscle bre.
(b) Briey explain how a human skeletal muscle bre contracts.

7. (a) Describe the structure of the Phloem tissue.

(b) Explain the pressure ow hypothesis of phloem translocation.

(c) What are the major differerences between phloem translocation and xylem translocation?
8. (a) What is meant by air pollution?

(b) Briey describe the effects of air pollutants on enviroment.

9. (a) What are prions?

(b) Name a disease caused by prions in cattle.

(c) Describe the general methods available for,


(i) control and
(ii) cure

of diseases caused by micro-organisms


10. Write short notes on the following.

(a) External factors affecting enzyme activity

(b) Epistasis

(c) Human skin receptors

***

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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10 - Combined Mathematics
Structure of the question paper
Paper I - Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A - Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question - altogether 250 marks.
Part B - Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks - altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper I 1000 10 = 100
Paper II - Time : 03 hours.
This paper consists of two parts.
Part A - Ten questions. All questions should be answered. 25 marks
for each question - altogether 250 marks.
Part B - Seven questions. Five questions should be answered. Each
question carries 150 marks - altogether 750 marks.
Total marks for paper II 1000 10 = 100
Calculation of the final mark : Paper I
Paper II
Final marks

= 100
= 100
= 200 2 = 100

Important :

* In Combined Mathematics I and II question papers 30 prototype questions for


part A and 21 prototype questions for part B have been included. However, the
question paper that will be given at the examination will be constructed according
to the question paper structure given above.

* At the examination all questions in part A of both Combined Mathematics I and II


will have to be answered using the space provided for each question.

Structure of Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E. (Advanced Level) Examination - 2011 onwards

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10 - Combined Mathematics
Prototype Questions for Paper I
Part A
1. and are the roots of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, where c 0. Show that the

roots of the quadratic equation acx 2 (b 2 2ac) x + ac = 0 are


and .

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2. Let f ( x) ax 3 + bx 2 2 x + c.
If (i) the remainder is 6( x + 1) when f (x ) is divided by ( x 2 + x), and
(ii) ( x 1) is a factor of f (x ),
then, find the values of a , b and c.
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3. Using the substitution y = 3 x , solve the equation 3 2 x +1 + 3 2 = 3 x +3 + 3 x.


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x
< 2.
2x 1
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4. Find the set of all real values of x satisfying the inequality

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Structure of the Question Papers and Prototype Questions for G.C.E.(Advanced Level) Examination 2011 onwards

- 124 -

3 1
.
5. Let A =
1 1
2 + n n

By the Principle of Mathematical Induction, show that A n = 2 n1


2 n
n
for every positive integer n.
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6. Using the properties of determinants show that
a b c
b c a = (a + b + c)(a 2 + b 2 + c 2 ab bc ca).
c a b
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