Steps to Become a California Registered Nurse

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TAKE COLLEGE PREP CLASSES IN HIGH SCHOOL CHOOSE THE TYPE OF NURSING SCHOOL YOU WANT TO ATTEND SELECT A COLLEGE AND APPLY FOR ADMISSION APPLY FOR FINANCIAL AID OBTAIN AN RN LICENSE

1. Take college prep classes in high school

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You need a high school diploma to become a registered nurse (RN). Take the following classes in high school, and you will have a head start on your nursing class prerequisites at college: English - 4 years Math - 3-4 years (including algebra and geometry) Science - 2-4 years (including biology and chemistry; physics and computer science are recommended) Social Studies - 3-4 years Foreign Language - 2 years, recommended, but not required Check out nursing prerequisites at colleges you are considering. Individual nursing schools vary in their nursing course prerequisites. If you did not take the required courses in high school, you may be able to make them up at college. But the more prerequisites you take in high school, the more quickly you can become an registered nurse. Talk to your high school guidance counselor, and check out the website's of the California nursing schools you are considering.

2. Choose the type of nursing school you want to attend In California, there are three types of pre-licensure nursing programs, and two alternative routes to become a registered nurse:

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Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) - Takes 2-3 years. Offered at many community colleges. Prepares you to provide registered nursing care in numerous settings. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) - Takes 4 years. Also referred to as Baccalaureate degree. Offered at many California State Universities and some private colleges. Prepares you to provide registered nursing care in numerous settings and to move to administrative and leadership positions. Masters Entry Level Program in Nursing - Designed for adults who have a baccalaureate degree in another field and wish to become registered nurses. Takes 1-2 years depending on how many nursing course prerequisites you have already completed. Graduate receives a masters degree. LVN 30 Unit Option - Designed as a career ladder for California Licensed Vocational Nurses wishing to become registered nurses. Takes approximately 18-24 months. No degree is granted upon completion. Most other states do not recognize California's LVN 30 Unit Option and will not issue RN licenses to these LVNs. Some LVNs prefer to complete an ADN program in order to obtain a degree and to have the flexibility to get an RN license in other states. Most ADN programs will give LVNs credit for some of the coursework they completed to become an LVN. Military Corpsmen - California law permits military corpsmen to take the national exam for RN licensure if they have completed RN level education and clinical experience.

3. Select a college and apply for admission

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Visit the website's and campuses of the colleges in the geographic areas of interest to you. You can choose from nearly 100 California Nursing Schools. Find out which entry exams are required at the colleges you are considering. Many require: SAT or ACT National League for Nursing Pre-Admission Exam Find out how far in advance to apply by checking the school's website or contacting them. Apply at more than one college to give yourself options. Some colleges have limited space for nursing students.

4. Apply for financial aid Opportunities abound for scholarships, loans, and loan forgiveness programs. Please visit the Financial Aid Information section of our website for more information. 5. Obtain an RN license To practice as an RN in California, you must be licensed by the California State Board of Registered Nursing (BRN). You must meet educational requirements, pass a criminal background check, and pass the national licensing examination. To apply for licensure:

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Obtain an application package and detailed instructions online at the BRN website or by contacting the BRN. Send your application to the BRN at least 6-8 weeks before graduation. Have your school send the BRN your transcripts. Complete a fingerprint background check. Apply for an Interim Permit if you wish to work in a supervised nursing capacity while awaiting your application process.

Take and pass the National Council Licensing Examination (NCLEX). The exam is computerized and given continuously 6 days a week. (New graduates are advised to take the exam soon after graduation because research has shown that there is a higher success rate for early test takers compared with those who wait several months.)

Get a Nursing License Tell me how to become a:

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Registered Nurse (RN) - RNs go to college for 2-4 years and independently perform a wide range of complex health care in many types of settings. Qualified RNs may overlap the practice of medicine and perform more advanced activities such as in the case of nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or nurse anesthetists. Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN) - LVNs go to school for about one year and typically perform tasks under the supervision of the RN. Although the activities of the LVN are not as complex as those of the RN, they provide clinical care that has a direct impact on the patient's return to health.

How To Become an RN Select the item below that describes your situation:

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New RNs - I have never been an RN, and I would like to consider becoming one. Out-of-State RNs - I am an RN in another state, and I would like to be a California RN. International RNs - I am an RN from another country, and I would like to be licensed in California. Former RNs - I was an RN in California, but my license expired or is inactive.

Steps for International RN Applicants Here are the basic steps to become a California RN if you were educated in another country and have never been licensed in another U.S. state. (If you are licensed in another U.S. State and have passed the U.S. licensing exam (NCLEX), you may qualify for licensure by endorsement.)

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Read the detailed application instructions and download forms at this link. You can also request an application packet by contacting the Board of Registered Nursing. Submit your application form, with appropriate fees. You will need to provide a U.S. Social Security number before a California license can be issued to you. Submit your fingerprints for a criminal background check. Submit a copy of your license or diploma that permits you to practice as an RN in your country. Have your college transcripts sent directly to the California Board of Registered Nursing (BRN). If your transcripts are not in English, there are special instructions for translation included in the application packet. If your college has never submitted a transcript to the BRN for evaluation, the BRN will also need the college's curriculum, catalogs, or other documents for evaluation. Apply for an Interim Permit if you wish to work under supervision temporarily while your licensing application is being evaluated. If you are from a non-English speaking country or did not take your country's licensing examination in English, you will need to take an English comprehension examination to qualify for an Interim Permit. See the detailed application instructions for more information. Take and pass the National Council Licensing Examination (NCLEX). The exam is computerized and given continuously 6 days a week.

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Licensure by Examination Applicants must take the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN) if they have never taken and passed, or been licensed as a registered nurse in another state. All applicants must have completed an educational program meeting all California requirements. If you are lacking any educational requirements, you must successfully complete an approved course prior to taking the examination. All Applicants Must Provide the Following:

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Appropriate Fees. Completed Application for Licensure by Examination. Completed fingerprints using either the Live Scan Process or the Applicant Fingerprint Card (Hard Card) processing method as directed in the "Instructions for Submitting Fingerprint Cards". Submit the appropriate nonrefundable TOTAL FEE as directed on the Application Fee Schedule. NOTE: Application does not include fingerprint cards or live scan form. Fingerprint cards and livescan forms may be requested on the Requests page. One recent 2" x 2" passport-type photograph. Completed Request for Accommodation of Disabilities form(s), if applicable. Request for Transcript form(s) completed and forwarded directly from the nursing school(s) with certified transcripts. If applicable, documents and/or letters explaining prior convictions or disciplinary action and attesting to your rehabilitation as directed in Section II of the General Information and Instructions. CLICK HERE FOR ADDITIONAL INFORMATION FOR APPLICANTS WITH CRIMINAL CONVICTIONS OR DISCIPLINE

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IN ADDITION FOR INTERNATIONAL APPLICANTS: A. Send Breakdown of Educational Program for International Nursing Programs form to your school with the Request for Transcript form. Also provide the Certified English Translation form to your certified translator if your transcript is not in English. (See Supplemental Application Instructions for International Graduates with the application.) B. Submit a copy of your license or diploma that allows you to practice professional nursing in the country where you were educated. If you do not hold a license, a written explanation is required. Also, provide copies of your certificates for midwifery and psychiatric nursing, if applicable. --------------------------------

NCLEX GUIDE for Filipinos NCLEX California Guide (For Foreign Nurses) ~Step-by-step Procedure ~

International Nursing Program forms 4. Wait for the release. This may take more or less 5 working days. 5. If your forms are accomplished, have your papers authenticated, this is if you did not submit original TOR and RLE Records. Proceed to the cashier pay for Authentication Fee (P25 per pages-EAC). 6. Then submit the forms and the receipts to the registrars office.

~Getting started ~ How to get application form: 1. Please visit http://www.rn.ca.gov 2. Click the Licensure and Examination. (on the left side) 3. Then, Click the option Licensure by examination. 4. Lastly, click the Application for Licensure by Examination (PDF file) 5. Print the form. My remarks: I suggest that you print pages 1-22 only because pages 23-24 are just list of review centers in the USA, which is not applicable for all of us. Read carefully all the instruction. I suggest that you start processing your application since California NCLEX processing takes more or less 6 months to process. How to acquire and accomplish the Fingerprint card: MANUAL FINGERPRINT PROCESS 1. E mail the Board of Registered Nursing: Webmasterbrn@dca.ca.gov 2. Your e-mail must include “request for fingerprint card” as email subject, your name and your complete address (don’t forget your zip code). 3. Start by emailing them and request for Fingerprint card so that they will send you 2pcs of FBI fingerprint card. 4. The fingerprint card is expected to arrive 2-3weeks after they received your email. 5. Bring it to National Bureau of Investigation (NBI). How to apply for Request for Transcript and Breakdown for Educational Program for International Nursing Programs 1. Go to your school where you graduated and bring your two forms: a. Request for Transcript b. Breakdown for Educational Program for International Nursing Program 2. Pay for Certification (P100 for Emilio Aguinaldo Graduates) 3. Then proceed to the Nursing Department and present the following: a. Official receipt b. Photocopy Related Learning Experience (RLE) Record c. Original or photocopy Transcript of Records (I suggest give the original.) d. Request for Transcript and Breakdown for Educational Program for My remarks: Don’t forget to ask for envelope! Everything must be authenticated! And you’re done!!! Examination Application Requirements Checklist Applicants must provide the following: Appropriate feeθ Completed Application for Licensure by Examinationθ Completed fingerprints cardθ One recent 2” x 2” passport-type pictureθ Request For Transcript Form completed and forwarded directly from the nursing school with certified transcriptθ Breakdown of Educational Program for International Nursing Programs formθ Submit a copy of your license or diplomaθ Photocopy of your license cardθ Board rating from PRC, and board certificate for foreign purposes(P75)θ

Board Address and Website Mailing address: Board of registered Nursing P. O. Box 944210 Sacramento, CA 94244-2100 Street Address for overnight or in-person delivery: Board of Registered Nursing 400 R Street, Suite 4030 Sacramento, Ca 95814-6239 Web site: http://www.rn.ca.gov

Application Fee Schedule Application for licensure by examination only Application fee----------$ 75.00 One Fingerprint card-----$ 32.00 TOTAL FEE $107.00

nitrogen calcium cancer continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis chief complaint creatine phosphokinase C-reactive protein differential blood count dyspnea on exertion dextrose in water electroconvulsive therapy end stage renal disease fever of undetermined origin growth hormone glascow coma scale mercury human leukocyte antigen hertz intercostal space impedance plethysmogram juvenile rheumatoid arthritis CAPD ESRD FUO .NCLEX Exam Topics: • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • Types of Nosocomial Infections Principles of Surgical Asepsis Medical Testing and Labs TURP Procedure Romberg’s Test Lithotripsy Procedure Levels of Consciousness Mental Exam Basics Grading of Deep Tendon Reflexes Glascow Coma Scale Normative Values Methods of Oxygen Delivery Dementia and Delirium Types of Injections Ethical Duties of Nurses Patient Rights Bioethical Principles Changes Associated with Aging Drip Rate Calculations Barriers to Communication Nutrition and TPN Attributes of Nutrients Methods of Absorption Metabolism and Nutrition Medical Nutrition Therapy Cultural Aspects of Diets Placenta Previa Stages of Labor Assessing Fetal Lung Maturity Pathology of Eclampsia PMS and Menopause Attributes of Battered Women Apgar Scores Types of Cardiomyopathies Opportunistic Infections Classifications of Cancer Medical Nutritional Therapy Staging of Pressure Ulcers Disease Pathology Types of Shock Lipid Profile Labs Coagulation Studies CBC Components Acne Treatment Medications Phases of Adolescence Three Types of Jaundice Pain Assessment Lymphoma Characteristics Sexually Transmitted Diseases Tanner Staging Vaccinations and Immunizations Symptoms of Child Abuse Performing Newborn Assessments Motor Development Development of Language Pharmacology Types of Adrenergic Receptors HLA Hz ICS IPG JRA Hg GSC GH DIFF DOE D/W ECT CRP CPK CC ASD BPH BUN Ca CA APC AML ADH • • • • • • • • • Properties of Decongestants Classifications of Drugs Antipsychotic Classifications Drug Interactions Major Injection Sites Calcium Channel Blockers Phases of Burn Management Types of Burns Wound Healing Phases antidieuretic hormone acute myelogenous leukemia atrial premature contraction atrial septal defect benign prostatic hypertrophy blood. urea.

penetrating the skin Pleuritis-inflammation of the pleura Pneumonia-disease of the lung related to infection Pneumoconiosis-dust in the lung’s condition Pneumothorax-air in the chest resulting in the collapse of a lung Pneumatocele-hernia associated with the lung Posterior-related to the rear/back position Prognosis-opinion of an individual about outcomes Pruritus-uncontrollable itching Pyelolithotomy-incision to remove a stone from the renal pelvis Pyeloplasty-repair of the renal pelvis Pyosalpinx-pus in the fallopian tube Pyuria-pus in the urine NCLEX Drug Distribution Review Bioavailability dependant on several things: Active Transport Review: 1. Glucose. 3. 3. 11. Double check that you have the appropriate ID prior to the NCLEX test. If you extremely weak in one area of content focus on that area. No energy expended. Pachyderma-increased thickness of the skin Paroxysm-sudden attack Pathogenic-disease causing Pathologist-individual who studies pathology Pediculosis-condition of lice Percutaneous. 2. 4. Answer each question. 2. Must be lipid soluable to pass through pores.is a calculation of where the drug is distributed. 2. 2. Requires transport protein Does not require energy Very few drugs move this way Endocytosis: 1. 10. In excitable tissues. 3. 5.NCLEX Testing Recommendations 1. Regulation of distribution determined by: 1. electrolytes can’t pass on their own. 3. Route of administration . Can carry substances against a gradient Some drugs may exert their effect by increasing or decreasing transport proteins. You are not penalized for taking an educated guess. BBB is exception. 5. H20. 4. 6. Usually limited to movement through gap junctions because size too large for pores. Drug gets engulfed by cell via invagination Very few drugs move this way and only in certain cells. Requires energy and requires a transport protein Drugs must be similar to some endogenous substance. active transport 4. 3. 4. Vd = amount of drug given (mg) 1. Wear layered clothing to the exam. Get a good night’s sleep before the NCLEX. Membranes separate the body in components The ability of membranes to act as barriers is related to its structure Lipid Soluable compounds (many drugs) pass through by becoming dissolved in the lipid bylayer. 9. passive diffusion 3. Movement occurs by: 2. 4. Know the route to the testing center. Passive Diffusion Review: 1. Watch out for the words: except. 2. They use pores. 2. Work through several practice tests prior to the exam. 5. 1. Study for each material section of the NCLEX individually. 3. Osmosis is a special case of diffusion 1. 2. Read over a good practice study guide at least one week in advance. Weak acids and bases need to be in nonionized form (no net charge). the pores open and close. 2. facilitated diffusion 5. Don’t cram for the NCLEX. Lipid permeability Blood flow Binding to plasma proteins Binding to subcellular components Volume of Distribution (Vd) . Drugs can also move between cell junctions. Practice with a watch and bring a watch to the test. 4. 3. The drug’s ability to cross membranes The drug’s binding to plasma proteins and intracellular component Membrane Review: 1. always and not in all NCLEX questions. 12. A drug dissolved in H2O will move with the water by “bulk flow” 2. Facilitated Diffusion Review: 1. endocytosis 8. 7. Stay away from negative talk about the NCLEX with other students.

What is the purpose of a tympanostomy tube? A: allows ventilation into the middle ear for children with chronic ear infections B: allows excretion of waste from lower intestine C: allows infusion of medicine into vein D: allows ventilation into esophagus during periods of obstruction 6. glaucoma. Which of the following is NOT one of the four stages of labor and delivery? A: 2 to 3 inches B: 0.concentration in plasma (mg/ml) Calculate the Vd and compare to the total amount of body H20 in a person. 4. Pilocarpine – used for glaucoma 2. 3. Muscarinic Agonists A. -if Vd = total amount of body (approx. and to increase tone in bladder Symptoms of Anticholinesterase toxicity: 1. MIOSTAT. Neostigmine (PROSTIGMIN) – synthetic form of Pysostigmine (Anticholinesterases) – used for Myasthenia gravis. Carbachol (ISOPTO. 42) is uniformly distributed -if Vd is less than 42 – retained in plasma and probably bound to plasma proteins -if Vd is more than 42 – concentrated in tissues This is not a “real value” but tells you where the drug is being distributed.5 inches D: 3 to 4 inches 9. Placental Transfer of Drugs 1. 2. What is the appropriate depth of chest compressions in a child? Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 1 1. 3. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy? A: onset of labor through complete dilation of the cervix B: cervical dilation through the delivery of the placenta . At about what age do children become aware of their own sex? NCLEX Cholinomimetrics 1. 2. Pysostigmine (ANTILIRIUM) – treat glaucoma. Bethanecol (URECHOLINE) – increase GI motility B. Which of the following foods is NOT high in iron? A: meat B: black beans C: seafood D: green vegetables 7. crosses BBB.5 to 1 inch C: 1 to 1. Which of the following is NOT part of the triad of cystic fibrosis? A: pancreatic enzyme deficiency B: fever C: high concentration of sweat electrolytes D: COPD 4. What is another name for the neoplastic disorder of the bone marrow in which there is an overproduction of white blood cells? A: bone density deficiency B: leukemia C: cystic fibrosis D: arthritis 8. Miosis Rhinitis Bradycardia GI spasms brochoconstriction involuntary voiding of urine A: 1 year B: 6 months C: 18 months D: 2 years 5. 4. CARBACHOL) – various types of glaucoma C. Which of the following can indicate left-sided heart failure in an infant? A: fever B: low appetite C: increased respiratory rate D: crying 3. 6. Some drugs cause congenital anomalies Cross placenta by simple diffusion Must be polar or lipid-insoluable Not to Enter Must assume the fetus is subjected to all drugs taken by the mother to some extent. reverse anticholinergic toxicity. Anticholinesterases A. B. C: placenta delivery through complete stabilization of the mother D: birth through the delivery of the placenta 2. 5. Methacholine (PROVOCHOLINE) – test hyperactivity of airways D.

3. C. B. and a high concentration of sweat electrolytes. C. B. Brittle bones. 7. . E. B.The depth of chest compressions in infants is generally consistent. B. What is the single best way to inhibit the spread of microorganisms? A: washing your hands B: destroying old clothes C: sanitizing all equipment D: reusing latex gloves 7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of vitamin C deficiency? A: brittle bones B: headache C: loose teeth D: tiny peripheral hemorrhages 3. After an operation. C.The correct answer combines two of the four stages of labor and delivery. Which is the most common cancer among females? A: brain B: pancreatic C: lung D: breast 4. which organism is most likely to cause septicemia? A: E. C.Shortness of breath and perspiration during feeding can also indicate left-sided heart failure. Epinephrine has a stimulating effect on the body. Coli can be a major danger after an operation.A: advanced maternal age B: high-protein diet C: prior ectopic pregnancy D: in vitro fertilization 10.Children begin to understand the concepts of male and female at about 18 months. What is the best approach to an anti-social personality? A: ignoring the patient B: allowing the patient to do whatever he or she likes C: forbidding the patient from doing anything that he or she likes D: setting limits on behaviors Answers: 1. 2. pancreatic enzyme deficiency. The triad of cystic fibrosis is COPD. What is the approximate ratio of attempted suicides to successful suicide attempts? A: 2 to 1 B: 10 to 1 C: 4 to 1 D: 20 to 1 10. 4. It is important to get plenty of iron in the diet. What is the leading cause of death after a myocardial infarction? A: toxic shock B: lung collapse C: arrhythmia D: embolism 8. A. B.Breast cancer is by far the most common cancer among females. Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of epinephrine? A: tremors B: fatigue C: nervousness D: elevated heart rate Answer Key 1. Leukemia is a potentially fatal disease. Coli B: H. B. Hand should be washed before and after any contact with patients. C. What is the primary risk factor for COPD? A: lack of exercise B: family history C: cigarette smoking D: fatty diet 9. Which foods should be avoided for 24 hours before an EEG? A: whole grains B: vegetables C: stimulants D: dairy products 5. 6. The ingestion of stimulants can effect performance on an EEG. B. tooth and gum problems. 4. Pylori C: Streptococcus D: Staphylococcus 2. A. and small hemorrhages are all characteristic of vitamin C deficiency. Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 2 1. 8. D. Why do doctors recommend bed rest for patients with pneumonia? A: it produces an instantaneous cure B: it reduces the need for oxygen C: it keeps the patient warm D: it gives the patient peace of mind 6. 9. Bed rest gives the system time to recover and reduces the need for oxygen 6. B. 3. 7. 5. Doctors must be on guard for arrhythmia in the period after myocardial infarction. A.Tympanostomy tubes are used to promote drainage from the middle ear. 5. 2. Patients should be aware that they are at risk of ectopic pregnancy 10.

constipation. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents? Corgard Humulin (injection) Urokinase Epogen (injection) 3. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient? Onset of pulmonary edema Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory alkalosis Parkinson’s disease type symptoms 11.)A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant.)A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. 10. Cough following bronchodilator utilization Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals. and polyuria. Cigarette smoking is the greatest known cause of COPD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. D. B. induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb? IgA IgD IgE IgG 4. 9.)A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin.)A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. intense abdominal pain. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? Multiple sclerosis Anorexia nervosa Bulimia Systemic sclerosis 7. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take? Immediately see a social worker Start prophylactic AZT treatment Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment Seek counseling 5.)Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.)You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration? Sulfasalazine Levodopa Phenolphthalein Aspirin 2.8.)A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is? Let others know about the patient’s deficits Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the patient’s deficits. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change.)A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid Mental deficits are often present with PKU. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis.)A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored.)A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome.)You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? Atherosclerosis Diabetic nephropathy Autonomic neuropathy Somatic neuropathy 6. If you believe this change is due to medication. RH positive. 12.)A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? Diverticulosis Hypercalcaemia Hypocalcaemia Irritable bowel syndrome 8. Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 3 : HESI 1. Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU? A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome? Simian crease Brachycephaly Oily skin Hypotonicity . Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages. C. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient? Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels. The effects of PKU are reversible. RH positive RH negative. The girl reports inability to eat. Provide a secure environment for the patient. RH negative 9. RH negative RH negative. The great majority of suicide attempts are unsuccessful.)A new mother has some questions about (PKU). 10. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present? Slow pulse rate Weight gain Decreased systolic pressure Irregular WBC lab values 14. Individuals with anti-social personality disorder need firm boundaries on their behavior. RH positive RH positive. Continuously update the patient on the social environment. 13.)A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD.

According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in? Trust vs. guilt Autonomy vs. meningitis Cl. isolation 23. mistrust Initiative vs. 26 resp/min. pneumonia H. Question 5 The right answer was Autonomic neuropathy.p. Question 15 The right answer was Streptokinase.)Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin? Campylobacterial infection Legionnaire’s disease Pneumonia Multiple Sclerosis Answer Key Question 1 The right answer was Aspirin. guilt Autonomy vs. 90/65 mm Hg 6 year old female. . 19. Question 9 The right answer was The effects of PKU are reversible. mistrust Initiative vs. is 60 days.. Which of the following medications would most like be administered? Streptokinase Atropine Acetaminophen Coumadin 16.. What type of foods contain folic acids?” Green vegetables and liver Yellow vegetables and red meat Carrots Milk 17.)A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. 22 resp/min. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans? S. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in? Trust vs. Question 12 The right answer was Cough following bronchodilator utilization . Question 13 The right answer was Weight gain. 90/70mm Hg 24. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking? Elavil Calcitonin Pergolide Verapamil 25. RH positive. 22 resp/min.. . is 120 days. shame Intimacy vs.m.. shame Intimacy vs. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.)A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid.p.100 b. influenza N. difficile 18. isolation 22.)A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital.)A patient asks a nurse. isolation 21..)A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count.)A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. The The The The life life life life span span span span of of of of RBC RBC RBC RBC is 45 days. shame Intimacy vs. mistrust Initiative vs. Question 14 The right answer was Oily skin.)A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital.)A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery.p.15.. 100/70 mm Hg 13 year old female – 105 b. 24 resp/min. Question 10 The right answer was Parkinson’s disease type symptoms.p. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in? Trust vs. Question 8 The right answer was RH negative. she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal? 11 year old male – 90 b. guilt Autonomy vs.102 b. is 90 days.)A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours.. Question 11 The right answer was Provide a secure environment for the patient.)When you are taking a patient’s history. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient? Following surgery Upon admit Within 48 hours of discharge Preoperative discussion 20.m. Question 3 The right answer was IgG.m. Question 16 The right answer was Green vegetables and liver.m. 105/60 mm Hg 5 year old male.

Question 22 The right answer was Intimacy vs.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers? Theta Alpha Beta Zeta 4.)Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person? Compensation Projection Rationalization Dysphoria 7. Question 20 The right answer was Initiative vs.)Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait? Compensation Projection Rationalization Dysphoria 3...)Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions? Conversion disorder Depressive reaction Bipolar disorder Alzheimer’s disease 9. isolation.)Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range? 5-10 months 10-14 months 12-24 months 15-24 months 6. Question 19 The right answer was Upon admit.)Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously? Cataplexy Narcolepsy Transitional sleep REM absence 14.)Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently? 4 months 6 months 8 months 10 months 5.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder? Nausea Excessive perspiration Urination Chest pain . Question 18 The right answer was The life span of RBC is 120 days.)Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process? Denial Anger Bargaining Rejection 2.)Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range? 5-10 months 10-14 months 12-24 months 24-48 months 12. Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 4 : Behavioral Science 1.)Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth? Babinski Palmar Moro Flexion 11.. guilt.)Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety? Dyspnea Hyperventilation Moist mouth GI symptoms 13.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake? Theta Alpha Beta Zeta 10.m.)Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason? Compensation Projection Rationalization Dysphoria 8. Question 25 The right answer was Multiple Sclerosis. 22 resp/min. 105/60 mm Hg. Question 23 The right answer was 13 year old female – 105 b.p.Question 17 The right answer was Cl. Question 24 The right answer was Elavil. difficile.)Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is? Autotopagnosia Cataplexy Ergophobia Anosognosia 15.

)Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently? 4 months 6 months 8 months 10 months 5. Question 7 The right answer was Rationalization. Question 4 The right answer was 6 months. Stagnation Integrity vs.)Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process? Denial Anger Bargaining Rejection 2. Question 13 The right answer was Moist mouth. Isolation Generativitiy vs. Stagnation Integrity vs. Question 18 The right answer was Generativitiy vs. Question 9 The right answer was Beta. Despair Longevity vs. Question 16 The right answer was Urination. Question 15 The right answer was Autotopagnosia.)Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress .)Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person? Compensation Projection Rationalization Dysphoria 7. Question 17 The right answer was Integrity vs.)Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range? 5-10 months 10-14 months 12-24 months 15-24 months 6.16.)Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning? Neologisms Neolithic Verbalism Delusional blocking Answer Keys: Question 1 The right answer was rejection. Question 12 The right answer was 24-48 months. Guilt 18. Despair Longevity vs. Question 2 The right answer was Compensation. Isolation Generativitiy vs.)Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason? Compensation Projection Rationalization Dysphoria 8. Guilt 19. Stagnation Integrity vs. Question 8 The right answer was Conversion disorder. Stagnation. Isolation Generativitiy vs. Despair Longevity vs. Guilt 17.)Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in? Intimacy vs. Question 10 The right answer was 90.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers? Theta Alpha Beta Zeta 4.)Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in? Intimacy vs.)Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait? Compensation Projection Rationalization Dysphoria 3. Despair. 1. Question 5 The right answer was 12-24 months.)Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in? Intimacy vs. Question 3 The right answer was Theta. Question 6 The right answer was Projection. Question 14 The right answer was Cataplexy.

The right answer was Theta.)Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety? Dyspnea Hyperventilation Moist mouth GI symptoms 13. Question 8 The right answer was Conversion disorder. Isolation Generativitiy vs. Guilt 18. . Question 12 The right answer was 24-48 months.resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions? Conversion disorder Depressive reaction Bipolar disorder Alzheimer’s disease 9. Question 7 The right answer was Rationalization. Stagnation. Question 14 The right answer was Cataplexy. Guilt 17. Question 17 The right answer was Integrity vs. Despair. Question 6 The right answer was Projection.)Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth? Babinski Palmar Moro Flexion 11. Question 2 The right answer was Compensation.)Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in? Intimacy vs. Despair Question 3 Longevity vs. Despair Longevity vs. Question 18 The right answer was Generativitiy vs. Question 4 The right answer was 6 months. Question 15 The right answer was Autotopagnosia. Question 9 The right answer was Beta.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake? Theta Alpha Beta Zeta 10. Despair Longevity vs.)Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning? Neologisms Neolithic Verbalism Delusional blocking Answer Keys: Question 1 The right answer was rejection. Isolation Generativitiy vs. Question 13 The right answer was Moist mouth.)Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range? 5-10 months 10-14 months 12-24 months 24-48 months 12. Question 10 The right answer was 90.)Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in? Intimacy vs. Stagnation Integrity vs. Stagnation Integrity vs.)Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in? Intimacy vs. Isolation Generativitiy vs. Stagnation Integrity vs.)Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is? Autotopagnosia Cataplexy Ergophobia Anosognosia 15. Question 5 The right answer was 12-24 months.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder? Nausea Excessive perspiration Urination Chest pain 16. Question 16 The right answer was Urination. Guilt 19.)Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously? Cataplexy Narcolepsy Transitional sleep REM absence 14.

)Which of the types of RNA is the smallest? mRNA tRNA rRNA 3.)How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose? 5 6 7 8 19. Migration is a considerable factor.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Krabbe’s disease? Autosomal recessive condition Spasticity Nausea Optic nerve deficits 12.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Southern blot? DNA hybridization Use of a filter and film combination Activated by antigen/antibody reactions Uses a DNA sample 15.)Which of the following is paired correctly? A-G C-G A-U G-T 5.)Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases? UAA AGU AUG UGA 2.000 5.000 2.Question 19 characteristic of Hurler’s syndrome? The right answer was Intimacy vs. 3 4 5 6 18.)Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome? XXII XXI XIIX XV 9.000 800 7.)The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH. Isolation Source: Test Pre Preview Autosomal recessive condition Associated with delayed mental development Spasticity Corneal deficits 11.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fabry’s disease? X-linked disease Low levels of a-galactosidase A Profound muscular weakness Increased levels of ceramide trihexoside 13.)Which of the following is the approximate prevalence ratio for cystic fibrosis? 1: 1: 1: 1: 25.)Which of the following is not an activated carrier? ATP SAM TPP GMP 17.)Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law? Mating between species occurs at a set rate.)Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)? Melatonin Serotonin Creatine Niacin 20.)Pompe’s disease is a type ___ glycogen Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 5 : BioChemistry 1.)Which of the following is not a .)Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine? C T U G 4.)Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle? G2 G1 S G0 8.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of S-adenosyl-methionine? May be associated phosphocreatine Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis Aids in the transfer of methyl Byproduct of Methionine and ATP combination 16.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Sickle Cell Anemia? More common in African Americans Autosomal dominant Mutation in b globin Intense chronic pain 14. Mutation occurs at the locus Genotype selection does not occur at the locus 10.)Which of the following characterizes a Western blot? Antibody/protein hybridization DNA/RNA combination RNA transcription Polymerase chain reaction 6.

Question 11 The right answer was Nausea.000. Liver Beta. Kidney Beta.)Cardiac output is the product of ____ and ____. Question 4 The right answer was C-G. Renin Aldosterone Calcitonin Thyroxine 9. Alpha. Question 16 The right answer was GMP. Source: Test Pre Preview Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 6 : Circulatory 1. Question 20 The right answer was II.)Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing _____ _____.)Angiotension can directly cause the release of ____ from the adrenal cortex. Question 12 The right answer was Profound muscular weakness.)Prothrombin is a ____ globulin and is produced by the _____. Question 9 The right answer was Genotype selection does not occur at the locus. Question 13 The right answer was Autosomal dominant . Question 3 The right answer was G. Question 2 The right answer was tRNA.)Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the _______ next. Question 7 The right answer was G2. Question 15 The right answer was Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis .)If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location? Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process On the right side of the sternum On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib 5.)Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole? Increased aortic pressure Increased ventricular volume Lub heart sound T wave 7. I II III IV Answer Key Question 1 The right answer was AUG. Question 5 The right answer was Antibody/protein hybridization.)The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the ___ artery. Kidney Alpha. Question 6 The right answer was 1: 2. Question 18 The right answer was 6. HR and Disastolic pressure HR and Stroke Volume HR and EF Diastolic and Systolic pressure 10. Question 17 The right answer was 3.)Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole? Increased aortic pressure Increased ventricular volume Dup heart sound P wave 6. Question 14 The right answer was Activated by antigen/antibody reactions. Coronary Sinus Left Ventricle Right Ventricle Left Atrium 4.storage disease.)The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with _______ ______ cells Simple squamous Stratified squamous Simple cuboidal epithelium Stratified cuboidal epithelium 8. Question 8 The right answer was XXI. Liver 2. Question 19 The right answer was Creatine. Right atrium Left atrium Right ventricle . Question 10 The right answer was Spasticity. Marginal LVC RVC LAD 3.

Question 3 The right answer was Coronary Sinus. Basilar Common Carotid MCA PCA 19.Left ventricle 11. Question 10 The right answer was Left ventricle. Question 14 The right answer was Renal artery. Question 5 The right answer was Increased aortic pressure. Question 7 The right answer was Simple squamous.)Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein? Inferior mesenteric vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein Subclavian vein 18.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta? Phrenic artery Common iliac artery Gonadal artery Mediastinal artery 16.)_____ nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart. Question 19 The right answer was Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. Question 18 The right answer was Basilar. Left subclavian Right subclavian Left common carotid Right thoracic artery 13.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery? Superficial pudendal arteries Deep external pudendal arteries Superficial circumflex iliac artery Deep circumflex iliac artery 17.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta? Mediastinal artery Renal artery Bronchial artery Posterior intercostals artery 15. Question 12 The right answer was Right subclavian. Question 9 The right answer was HR and Stroke Volume. Question 4 The right answer was Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process. Question 8 The right answer was Aldosterone. Liver. Question 16 The right answer was Deep circumflex iliac artery. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure The inverse of the blood pressure Half of the systolic pressure 20. Question 2 The right answer was Marginal.)Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic. Question 6 The right answer was Increased ventricular volume. Question 17 The right answer was Subclavian vein.)Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____. Question 13 The right answer was Celiac artery. Question 15 The right answer was Mediastinal artery. . hepatic and gastric arteries? Left sacral artery Celiac artery Suprarenal artery Phrenic artery 14.)The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the ____ ____ artery. Question 11 The right answer was Brachiocephalic.)Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch? Common carotid Brachiocephalic Right Subclavian Thoracic 12.)Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the ____ artery. Accelerator Phrenic Thoracic Gastric Answer Key: Question 1 The right answer was Alpha.

12. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct. RH negative Answer Key 1. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? A: Atherosclerosis B: Diabetic nephropathy C: Autonomic neuropathy D: Somatic neuropathy 8. NCLEX Practice Questions 11-20 11. RH negative C: RH negative. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient? . A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. and confusion. induced vomiting and severe constipation. Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant. constipation. A: RH positive. If you believe this change is due to medication. 8. The girl reports inability to eat. RH positive B: RH positive. B: The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid C: Mental deficits are often present with PKU. Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU? A: A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values. (B) All of the clinical signs and systems point to a condition of anorexia nervosa. (B) AZT treatment is the most critical innervention. You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18.Question 20 The right answer was Accelerator. (A) Corgard could be removed from the refigerator. A thirty five year old male has been an insulindependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. 3. A: Coumadin B: Finasteride C: Celebrex D: Catapress E: Habitrol F: Clofazimine 2. 4. A: Cipro B: Sulfonamide C: Noroxin D: Bactrim E: Accutane F: Nitrodur 3. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. (D) All of the others can cause urine discoloration. A new mother has some questions about (PKU). 9. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. 2. (A) and (B) are both contraindicated with pregnancy. (D) IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier. Source: Test Pre Preview NCLEX Practice Questions 1-10 1. A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. 5. RH positive D: RH negative. Which of the following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note: More than one answer may be correct. 10. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? A: Diverticulosis B: Hypercalcaemia C: Hypocalcaemia D: Irritable bowel syndrome 10. and polyuria. D: The effects of PKU are reversible. 7. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. (B) Hypercalcaemia can cause polyuria. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis. The history indicates photosensitive reactions to medications. severe abdominal pain. which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration? A: Sulfasalazine B: Levodopa C: Phenolphthalein D: Aspirin 4. 6. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take? A: Immediately see a social worker B: Start prophylactic AZT treatment C: Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment D: Seek counseling 7. Which of the following would you most likely suspect? A: Multiple sclerosis B: Anorexia nervosa C: Bulimia D: Systemic sclerosis 9. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb? A: IgA B: IgD C: IgE D: IgG 6. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents? A: Corgard B: Humulin (injection) C: Urokinase D: Epogen (injection) 5. (C) Autonomic neuropathy can cause inability to urinate. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. intense abdominal pain. (C) Rho gam prevents the production of anti-RH antibodies in the mother that has a Rh positive fetus. (F) All of the others have can cause photosensitivity reactions.

According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in? A: Trust vs. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. A: The life span of RBC is 45 days. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in? A: Trust vs. 17. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans? A: S. (B) Weight gain is associated with CHF and congenital heart deficits. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. guilt C: Autonomy vs. A patient asks a nurse. 19. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome. mistrust B: Initiative vs. 15. 11. difficile has not been linked to meningitis. isolation 24. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal? . D: Provide a secure environment for the patient. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is? A: Let others know about the patient’s deficits. (D) The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life. B: The life span of RBC is 60 days. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. NCLEX Practice Questions 21-30 21. shame D: Intimacy vs. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. C: Continuously update the patient on the social environment. Answer Key 11-20. C: Cough following bronchodilator utilization D: Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals. “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. influenza C: N. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome? A: Simian crease B: Brachycephaly C: Oily skin D: Hypotonicity 17. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient? A: Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels. B: Communicate with your supervisor your patient safety concerns. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. isolation 25. difficile 20. (D) RBC’s last for 120 days in the body. 14. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acids?” A: Green vegetables and liver B: Yellow vegetables and red meat C: Carrots D: Milk 19. C: The life span of RBC is 90 days. guilt C: Autonomy vs. (D) Aspirin overdose can lead to metabolic acidosis and cause pulmonary edema development. 18. (C) The skin would be dry and not oily. A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. mistrust B: Initiative vs. pneumonia B: H. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient? A: Following surgery B: Upon admit C: Within 48 hours of discharge D: Preoperative discussion 22. (C) The bronchodilator will allow a more productive cough. 12. shame D: Intimacy vs. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in? A: Trust vs. isolation 23. 20. 16. Which of the following medications would most like be administered? A: Streptokinase B: Atropine C: Acetaminophen D: Coumadin 18. (A) Streptokinase is a clot busting drug and the best choice in this situation. 15. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. guilt C: Autonomy vs.A: Onset of pulmonary edema B: Metabolic alkalosis C: Respiratory alkalosis D: Parkinson’s disease type symptoms 13. (D) Cl. shame D: Intimacy vs. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. (D) This patient’s safety is your primary concern. D: The life span of RBC is 120 days. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. (A) Green vegetables and liver are a great source of folic acid. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present? A: Slow pulse rate B: Weight gain C: Decreased systolic pressure D: Irregular WBC lab values 16. mistrust B: Initiative vs. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. B: Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages. 14. meningitis D: Cl. 13.

..A: 11 year old male – 90 b.. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first? A: Blood sugar check B: CT scan C: Blood cultures D: Arterial blood gases 36. she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder.m. 30.p.p. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition? A: Yersinia pestis B: Helicobacter pyroli C: Vibrio cholera D: Hemophilus aegyptius 32. 22. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute? A: Vomiting B: Extreme Thirst C: Weight gain D: Acetone breath smell 30. 100/70 mm Hg B: 13 year old female – 105 b. Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin? A: Campylobacterial infection B: Legionnaire’s disease C: Pneumonia D: Multiple Sclerosis 28. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed? A: FBC (full blood count) B: ECG (electrocardiogram) C: Thyroid function tests D: CT scan 34..12-18 months old 24. guilt.3-6 years old 23. 26 resp/min. isolation. (A) Trust vs. 29. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. even on warm days. 105/60 mm Hg C: 5 year old male. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking? A: Elavil B: Calcitonin C: Pergolide D: Verapamil 27.. (D) Intimacy vs. (B) Initiative vs. 28. When you are taking a patient’s history. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. (D) Answer choices A-C were symptoms of acute hyperkalemia. 27. Mistrust. A patient’s chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed? A: FBC (full blood count) B: ECG (electrocardiogram) C: Thyroid function tests D: CT scan 35. 90/65 mm Hg D: 6 year old female. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute? A: Increased appetite B: Vomiting C: Fever D: Poor tolerance of light Answer Key 21-30. 26.18-35 years old 25. A 20 year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room.102 b.p. Which of the following factors is the most important aspect of toilet training? A: The age of the child B: The child ability to understand instruction. (B) HR and Respirations are slightly increased. A 28 year old male has been found wandering around in a confused pattern. A fragile 87 year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over last 2 weeks. A patient’s chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. (C) Weight loss would be expected. NCLEX Practice Questions 31-40 31. 90/70mm Hg 26.m.m.m. A mother is inquiring about her child’s ability to potty train. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. (A) Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant. 21. 24 resp/min. The male is sweaty and pale. (D) Erythromycin is used to treat conditions A-C. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first? A: Blood sugar check B: CT scan C: Blood cultures D: Arterial blood gases 37. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute? A: Decreased HR B: Paresthesias C: Muscle weakness of the extremities D: Migranes 29. 22 resp/min. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day. (A) Loss of appetite would be expected. 22 resp/min. (B) Discharge education begins upon admit. She has just been admitted to the hospital. D: Frequent attempts with positive reinforcement.100 b. A patient’s chart indicates a history of meningitis. BP is down.p. C: The overall mental and physical abilities of the child.. . A 84 year-old male has been loosing mobility and gaining weight over the last 2 months. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition? A: Borrelia burgdorferi B: Streptococcus pyrogens C: Bacilus anthracis D: Enterococcus faecalis 33.

What should the nurse do? A: Contact the provider B: Ask the child to write their name on paper. B. A patient has been hospitalized with pneumonia and is about to be discharged. A patient on the cardiac telemetry unit unexpectedly goes into ventricular fibrillation. Choice C is linked to Cholera. allowing fewer injections. (D) Choice A is linked to Plague. keep the other bed in the room unassigned to provide privacy and comfort to the family. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank 20 minutes. A suspected myocardial infarction patient on telemetry. The mother asks the purpose of this medication. A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. (D) A CT scan would be performed for further investigation of the hemiparesis. Which of the following choices indicates the correct placement of the conductive gel pads? A. A complete history with emphasis on preceding events. Which misunderstanding by the family indicates the need for more detailed information? A. C.38. A post-operative valve replacement patient who was recently admitted to the unit because all surgical beds were filled. Answer Key 31-40. 37. The patient should continue use of the incentive spirometer to keep airways open and free of secretions. The right side of the sternum just below the clavicle and left of the precordium. 40. (C) Age is not the greatest factor in potty training. Contact the physician to report the unusual rituals and activities. The left clavicle and right lower sternum. 35. The advanced cardiac life support team prepares to defibrillate. 36. A newly diagnosed 8-year-old child with type I diabetes mellitus and his mother are receiving diabetes education prior to discharge. A nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient and his family. 33. The charge nurse on the cardiac unit is planning assignments for the day. Choice B is linked to peptic ulcers. D. B: Take the child immediately to the ER C: Contact the Poison Control Center quickly D: Give the child syrup of ipecac 39. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct? A. 6. A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of mid-sternal chest pain. This child does not have on any identification. 4. (C) Blood cultures would be performed to investigate the fever and rash symptoms. D. The physician has prescribed Glucagon for emergency use. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. . D. (A) Choice B is linked to Rheumatic fever. The patient may resume normal home activities as tolerated but should avoid physical exertion and get adequate rest. B. Chest exam with auscultation. The patient should resume a normal diet with emphasis on nutritious. C. Notify visitors with a sign on the door that the patient is limited to clear fluids only with no solid food allowed. 31. You should not withhold the medication from the child following identification. C. 2. B. A new patient on her rounds is a 4 year-old boy who is non-verbal. Careful assessment of vital signs. healthy foods. The upper and lower halves of the sternum. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent? A: This too shall pass. A nurse is caring for an elderly Vietnamese patient in the terminal stages of lung cancer. D. (C) The poison control center will have an exact plan of action for this child. Choice D is linked to Endocarditis. D. C: Ask a co-worker about the identification of the child. (A) With a history of diabetes. (C) Vastus lateralis is the most appropriate location. 34. the first response should be to check blood sugar levels. Restrict visiting hours and ask the family to limit visitors to two at a time. C. 39. (D) In this case you are able to determine the name of the child by the father’s statement. Glucagon treats lipoatrophy from insulin injections. Choice C is linked to Anthrax. A patient with unstable angina being closely monitored for pain and medication titration. NCLEX RN Test 1. 38. Right of midline below the bottom rib and the left shoulder. Glucagon enhances the effect of insulin in case the blood sugar remains high one hour after injection. The patient may discontinue the prescribed course of oral antibiotics once the symptoms have completely resolved. B. Glucagon treats hypoglycemia resulting from insulin overdose. B. Which of the following is the most appropriate assignment for the float nurse that has been reassigned from labor and delivery? A. just admitted from the Emergency Department and scheduled for an angiogram. 3. C. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. If possible. Which of the following target areas is the most appropriate? A: Gluteus maximus B: Gluteus minimus C: Vastus lateralis D: Vastus medialis 40. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child is the most important factor. (C) Weight gain and poor temperature tolerance indicate something may be wrong with the thyroid function. Glucagon prolongs the effect of insulin. C. Which of the following nursing action should take priority? A. 5. who is being evaluated for placement of a pacemaker prior to discharge. 32. D. D: Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name. Many family members are in the room around the clock performing unusual rituals and bringing ethnic foods. An electrocardiogram. A one-week postoperative coronary bypass patient. B.

Frequent checks for cervical dilation will be needed after the procedure. . A nurse working the evening shift is presented with four patients at the same time. Emergency department triage is an important nursing function. Included in the list of current medications is Coumadin (warfarin) at a high dose. Muscle cramping. D. B. The FHR (fetal heart rate) will be followed closely after the procedure due to the possibility of cord compression. and painful. B. A patient with low-grade fever. Draw a blood sample for prothrombin (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) level. Positive Chvostek's sign. 12.8 F (38. C. PCO2 25 mm Hg. B.38. Complaints of pain during repositioning. C. A hematoma is visible in the area of the IV insertion site. D. 17. Which of the following nursing actions is a priority? A. C. Complaints of pain following physical therapy. D. D. All of the above. A nurse is caring for a patient who has had hip replacement. D. The nurse performs an initial abdominal assessment on a patient newly admitted for abdominal pain. C. Which of the following results are abnormal? Note: More than one answer may be correct. pH 7. A nurse is performing routine assessment of an IV site in a patient receiving both IV fluids and medications through the line. Patch the eye.0 g/dL. 11. B. C. pH 7. D. A child with a one-inch bleeding laceration on the chin but otherwise well after falling while jumping on his bed. A patient who is unable to bear weight on the left foot. crackles are heard in the bases of both lungs. Cancel the surgery after the patient reports stopping the Coumadin one week previously. The frequency and intensity of bowel sounds varies depending on the phase of digestion.42.7 C). The nurse hears what she describes as "clicks and gurgles in all four quadrants" as well as "swishing or buzzing sound heard in one or two quadrants. C. D. B. Which of the following would indicate the need for discontinuation of the IV line as the next nursing action? A. headache. particularly in a patient scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions would NOT be included? A. C. A patient is admitted to the hospital for routine elective surgery. Fluid overload. bowel sounds will be louder and higher pitched.4%. Irrigate the eye repeatedly with normal saline solution. C. A. The admitting physician writes orders for actions to be taken in the event of a seizure. D. 10. spicy meal. A patient in labor and delivery has just received an amniotomy. A patient with abdominal and chest pain following a large. B.0 mg/dL. 13. D. 16. C. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest priority? A. B. A hospitalized patient has received transfusions of 2 units of blood over the past few hours. A child is admitted to the hospital with an uncontrolled seizure disorder. B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened. Administer rectal diazepam. Test visual acuity. Draw a blood sample for type and crossmatch and request blood from the blood bank.4 g/dL. Numbness in hands and feet. Administer vitamin K. A nurse enters the room to find the patient sitting up in bed. warm. particularly when the limb is elevated. the nurse anticipates which of the following actions? A. D.52. Which of the following complications is most likely the cause of the patient's symptoms? A. B. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a calcium level of 6. A swishing or buzzing sound may represent the turbulent blood flow of a bruit and is not normal. 14. C. Total cholesterol 340 mg/dL. The patient complains of pain on movement. In the presence of intestinal obstruction. Allergic transfusion reaction. C. B. Which of the following arterial blood gas results might be expected in this patient? A. D." Which of the following statements is correct? A. B. 9.25. 8. dyspneic and uncomfortable. A nurse cares for a patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to low suction because of a suspected bowel obstruction. pH 7. PCO2 40 mm Hg. probably indicating that the patient is experiencing a complication of transfusion.7. The follow lab results are received for a patient. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction. B. 18. PCO2 54 mm Hg. Which of the following is correct? Note: More than one answer may be correct. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C 5. Position the patient on his/her side with the head flexed forward. Contractions may rapidly become stronger and closer together after the procedure. C. Concerned about the possible effects of the drug. PCO2 36 mm Hg. Total serum protein 7. with swelling and bruising following a running accident. Scant bloody discharge on the surgical dressing. The nurse should be most concerned about which of the following findings? A. Hypoactive bowel sounds. Acute hemolytic reaction. 15. On assessment. Restrain the patient's limbs. Hemoglobin 10. Notify the physician. Place fluorescein drops in the eye. pH 7. Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to see in this patient? A. and myalgias for the past 72 hours. A patient arrives in the emergency department and reports splashing concentrated household cleaner in his eye. Temperature of 101. A. The IV solution is infusing too slowly.

Follow up with the infant's physician within 72 hours of discharge for a recheck of the serum bilirubin and exam. Answer: D Post-surgical nursing assessment after hip replacement should be principally concerned with the risk of neurovascular complications and the development of infection. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat. This indicates the extent of physical compromise and provides a baseline by which to plan further assessment and treatment. Fluorescein drops are used to check for scratches on the cornea due to their fluorescent properties and are not part of the initial care of a chemical splash. A thorough medical history. A temperature of 101. B. C. B. properly secured in the front passenger seat. Traditional rituals and foods are thought to ease the transition to the next life. and should always be considered abnormal. When possible. C. Intestinal obstruction causes the sounds to intensify as the normal flow is blocked by the obstruction. properly secured in the back seat in a rear-facing position. The patient who is one-week post-operative and nearing discharge is likely to require routine care.8 F (38. The gurgles and clicks described in the question represent normal bowel sounds. the patient should respond within 15-20 minutes at which time oral carbohydrates should be given. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is NOT correct? A. allowing the family privacy for this traditional behavior is best for them and the patient. it is important that the dying be surrounded by loved ones and not left alone. including onset of symptoms. Following Glucagon administration. . 3. and place the bassinet in a dimly lit area. it is most helpful for nursing staff to provide a culturally sensitive environment to the degree possible within the hospital routine. Some pain during repositioning and following physical therapy is to be expected and can be managed with analgesics. The swishing and buzzing sound of turbulent blood flow may be heard in the abdomen in the presence of abdominal aortic aneurism. Answer: C The priority nursing action for a patient arriving at the ED in distress is always assessment of vital signs. which vary with the phase of digestion. Options A. Continue to breastfeed frequently. The patient should resume normal activities as tolerated.D. for example. 8. visual acuity will be assessed. Keep the baby quiet and swaddled. The irrigation should be continued for at least 10 minutes. D. D. as indicated by the anatomic location of the heart.7 C) postoperatively is higher than the low grade that is to be expected and should raise concern. B. Following irrigation. Answer: C When a family member is dying. The labor and delivery nurse who is not experienced with the needs of cardiac patients should be assigned to those with the least acute needs. 9. B. Glucagon reverses rather than enhances or prolongs the effects of insulin. will be necessary and it is likely that an electrocardiogram will be performed as well. 4. Answer: A Emergency treatment following a chemical splash to the eye includes immediate irrigation with normal saline. Answer Key 1. 6. Lipoatrophy refers to the effect of repeated insulin injections on subcutaneous fat. the parent may sit in the back seat and hold the newborn. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat. and D are incorrect because they create unnecessary conflict with the patient and family. the paddles are placed over the pads. The unstable patient requires staff that can immediately identify symptoms and respond appropriately. as well as a nutritious diet. In the Vietnamese culture. The procedure is usually painless and is followed by a gush of amniotic fluid. To defibrillate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding car safety and the trip home from the hospital? A. A new patient admitted with suspected MI and scheduled for angiography would require continuous assessment as well as coordination of care that is best carried out by experienced staff. nor is patching the eye. A small amount of bloody drainage on the surgical dressing is a result of normal healing. Answers A. chest exam with auscultation may offer useful information after vital signs are assessed. In the case of antibiotics. 20. and C are not consistent with the position of the heart and are therefore incorrect responses. just below the clavicle and the other just left of the precordium. 7. including decreased urinary output and changes in skin turgor. Answer: B Glucagon is given to treat insulin overdose in an unresponsive patient. Answer: D One gel pad should be placed to the right of the sternum. A nurse is counseling the mother of a newborn infant with hyperbilirubinemia. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to the parents of a healthy newborn. Similarly. A postoperative patient also requires close monitoring and cardiac experience. Answer: D All of the statements are true. Answer: A The charge nurse planning assignments must consider the skills of the staff and the needs of the patients. at least every 2-4 hours. Answer: C It is always critical that patients being discharged from the hospital take prescribed medications as instructed. Continued use of the incentive spirometer after discharge will speed recovery and improve lung function. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat facing forward or rearward in the back seat. 19. 5. a full course must be completed even after symptoms have resolved to prevent incomplete eradication of the organism and recurrence of infection. 2. Watch for signs of dehydration. but these are not the first priority. For the trip home from the hospital.

indicate inadequate fluid intake and will worsen the hyperbilirubinemia. C. Though the patient with chest pain presented in the question recently ate a spicy meal and may be suffering from heartburn. The FHR is assessed immediately after the procedure and followed closely to detect changes that may indicate cord compression. The child should have been trained by age 2 and may have a psychological problem that is responsible for his "accidents. Answer: A All infants under 1 year of age weighing less than 20 lbs. 13. the surgeon may choose to delay surgery and discontinue the medication. Answer: A and B Normal hemoglobin in adults is 12 . Increased gastric motility. 16.10. 11. 18. If lab results indicate an anticoagulation level that would place the patient at risk of excessive bleeding. Answer: B. 20. blocking the airway. Answer: A A patient on nasogastric suction is at risk of metabolic alkalosis as a result of loss of hydrochloric acid in gastric fluid. he isn't able to hold his urine for long periods. Frequent feedings will help to metabolize the bilirubin. Rectal diazepam may be a treatment ordered by the physician. or acute neurological changes are always classified number one priority. The patient is hypocalcemic. An IV line that is running slowly may simply need flushing or repositioning. cervical checks are minimized because of the risk of infection 19. NCLEX RN Test 1. The procedure itself is painless and results in the quick expulsion of amniotic fluid. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction results in fever. A recheck of the serum bilirubin and a physical exam within 72 hours will confirm that the level is falling and the infant is thriving and is well hydrated. chest pain. Pain on movement should be managed by maneuvers such as splinting the limb with an IV board or gently shifting the position of the catheter before making a decision to remove the line. and D Uterine contractions typically become stronger and occur more closely together following amniotomy. Infant car seats should never be placed in the front passenger seat. as described in option C. Positive Chvostek's sign refers to the sustained twitching of facial muscles following tapping in the area of the cheekbone and is a hallmark of hypocalcemia. even on that first ride home from the hospital. only answer A (pH 7. It is the most serious adverse transfusion reaction and can cause shock and death. and discomfort as in the patient described. causing fluid leak into the lungs. Answer: A The effect of Coumadin is to inhibit clotting. Answer C represents respiratory acidosis. Answer B is a normal blood gas. 14. warm. respiratory distress. 15. Answer D is borderline normal with slightly low PCO2. although he reliably uses the potty seat for bowel movements.10 mg/dL. Acute hemolytic reaction may occur when a patient receives blood that is incompatible with his blood type. Symptoms include dyspnea. Answer: D An infant discharged home with hyperbilirubinemia (newborn jaundice) should be placed in a sunny rather than dimly lit area with skin exposed to help process the bilirubin. Total cholesterol levels of 200 mg/dL or below are considered normal. is only indicated in the case of significant blood loss. resulting in hyperactive (not hypoactive) bowel sounds. PCO2 54 mm Hg) represents alkalosis. Total serum protein of 7. A sidelying position with head flexed forward allows for drainage of secretions and prevents the tongue from falling back. abdominal cramping and diarrhea is an indication of hypocalcemia.52. including decreased urine output and skin changes. A mother complains to the clinic nurse that her 2 ½-year-old son is not yet toilet trained. but the damage is unlikely to worsen if there is a delay. nursing actions should focus on securing the patient's safely and curtailing the seizure. Patients with trauma. and the limb should be xrayed as soon as is practical. Signs of dehydration. The patient with fever. Infants should always be placed in an approved car seat during travel. 17. Following amniotomy.16 g/dL. Symptoms of allergic transfusion reaction would include flushing. Answer: C Normal serum calcium is 8. The patient with the foot injury may have sustained a sprain or fracture. Answer: B An IV site that is red. should be placed in a rear-facing infant car seat secured properly in the back seat. Restraining the limbs is not indicated because strong muscle contractions could cause injury. Answer: B During a witnessed seizure. Preparation for transfusion. The next step is to check the PT and INR to determine the patient's anticoagulation status and risk of bleeding. The child's chin laceration may need to be sutured but is also non-urgent. itching. who should be notified of the seizure. Of the answers given. Answer: C Emergency triage involves quick patient assessment to prioritize the need for further evaluation and care. Answer: D Fluid overload occurs when then the fluid volume infused over a short period is too great for the vascular system. Numbness in hands and feet and muscle cramps are also signs of hypocalcemia. Vitamin K is an antidote to Coumadin and may be used in a patient who is at imminent risk of dangerous bleeding." . Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct? A. headache and muscle aches (classic flu symptoms) should be classified as non-urgent.0-g/dL and glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 5. painful and swollen indicates that phlebitis has developed and the line should be discontinued and restarted at another site. A hematoma at the site is likely a result of minor bleeding at the time of insertion and does not require discontinuation of the line. he also may be having an acute myocardial infarction and require urgent attention.4% are both normal levels. She is particularly concerned that. 12. and a generalized rash. rapid respirations.5 .

Hypertension. Which of the following would indicate a subtherapeutic level? A. 4 mcg/mL. D. 12. Remove the dressing and leave the wound site open to air. 4. C. but withhold the one later in the night. Monitor respiratory rate. A patient returns to the emergency department less than 24 hours after having a fiberglass cast applied for a fractured right radius.B. C. C. A nurse is caring for a cancer patient receiving subcutaneous morphine sulfate for pain. 11. Wait until at least 4 months to add infant cereals and strained fruits to the diet. and the average age for completion of toilet training varies widely from 24 to 36 months. Place the infant on her back for naps and bedtime. and the child should be required to sit on the potty seat until he passes urine. Take a mild laxative if you don't have a bowel movement every day. D. An older patient with osteoarthritis is preparing for discharge. He reports taking at least 3 acetaminophen tablets every three hours for the past week without relief. 6. 5. A negative antistreptolysin O titer. Apply heat to the painful area. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be taken on an empty stomach. B. which of the following is the appropriate next step in assessment and treatment? A. Notify the surgeon about evidence of infection immediately. A history of sore throat that was self-limited in the past month. C. B. A. Give only a bottle of water at bedtime. D. Severe pain in the right shoulder. Which of the following symptoms suggests acetaminophen toxicity? A. X-ray the leg. Which of the following suggestions would be helpful? Note: More than one answer may be correct. Monitor heart rate. An older patient asks a nurse to recommend strategies to prevent constipation. C. D. C. Put juice in the bottle instead of milk. 5 mcg/dL. Monitor temperature. 3. Sudden weight gain. B. C. Apply an elastic bandage to the leg. Allow the child to have the bottle at bedtime. Following routine triage. An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving diuretic therapy at home. A reddened rash visible over the trunk and extremities. Bowel control is usually achieved before bladder control. 10. Tinnitus. Which of the following nursing actions is most important in the care of this patient? A. . B. D. 7. C. Allow the infant to cry for 5 minutes before responding if she wakes during the night as she may fall back asleep. Bradycardia. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is correct? A. shallow breathing. B. C. B. Increased warmth in the fingers. Eat a diet high in fiber. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a more effective antiinflammatory than ibuprofen (Motrin). Severe itching under the cast. A patient arrives at the emergency department with severe lower leg pain after a fall in a touch football game. Which of the following symptoms would indicate that the dosage may need to be increased? A. Diarrhea. Bladder control is usually achieved before bowel control. The mother of a 14-month-old child reports to the nurse that her child will not fall asleep at night without a bottle of milk in the crib and often wakes during the night asking for another. 8. D. C. Talk to the infant frequently and make eye contact to encourage language development. Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate in the care of a 2-month-old infant? A. C. D. The child should be told "no" each time he wets so that he learns the behavior is unacceptable. Which of the following observations is NOT confirming of the diagnosis? A. 2. Monitor urine output. A child is admitted to the hospital with suspected rheumatic fever. Increased physical activity and daily exercise will help decrease discomfort associated with the condition. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action? A. Do not allow bottles in the crib. Leave the dressing intact to avoid disturbing the wound site. B. B. C. D. A patient taking Dilantin (phenytoin) for a seizure disorder is experiencing breakthrough seizures. 10 mcg/dL. D. Which of the following patient complaints would cause the nurse to be concerned about impaired perfusion to the limb? A. Get moderate exercise for at least 30 minutes each day. A. Give pain medication. Decreased blood pressure. Hepatic damage. 9. Change the dressing and document the clean appearance of the wound site. 13. B. Joint pain will diminish after a full night of rest. D. Which of the following information is correct. B. D. A blood sample is taken to determine the serum drug level. Slow. D. A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain. An unexplained fever. Severe pain in the right lower arm. 15 mcg/mL. C. D. A nurse is evaluating a post-operative patient and notes a moderate amount of serous drainage on the dressing 24 hours after surgery. B. Drink 6-8 glasses of water each day. B.

The family reports a history of severe allergic reaction. Many children are not trained until 36 months and this should not cause concern. B. Agitation. Moderate exercise. A patient is brought to the emergency department after a bee sting. Infants should always be placed on their backs to sleep. D. Answer: B Infants under 6 months may not be able to sleep for long periods because their stomachs are too small to hold adequate nourishment to take them through the night. Rheumatic fever is characterized by a red rash over the trunk and extremities as well as fever and other symptoms. C. All infectious diseases can be prevented with proper immunization. 3.14. 17. Answer Key 1. 15. 19. D. Over time. even in teeth that have not yet erupted. D. Sugars in milk or juice remain in the mouth during sleep and cause caries. B. The best diet for infants under 4 months of age is breast milk or infant formula. A female patient being treated for high blood pressure with an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following strategies is NOT effective for prevention of Lyme disease? A. C. Immunizations are risk-free and should be universally administered. The nurse concludes that the patient is experiencing which of the following symptoms: A. Which patient should NOT be prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis? A. She calls the clinic to report abnormal movements of her face and tongue. A patient with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is learning to recognize the symptoms of hypoglycemia. but not prior to 6 months. When water is substituted for milk or juice. Answer: C Rheumatic fever is caused by an untreated group A B hemolytic Streptococcus infection in the previous 2-6 weeks. Laxatives should be used as a last resort and should not be taken regularly. babies will often lose interest in the bottle at night. with boys often taking longer to complete toilet training than girls. Insomnia. B. When diuretic therapy is inadequate. encourages bowel health. Polydipsia. B. 18. C. A patient on bed rest who must maintain a supine position. 16. Answer: A Weight gain is an early symptom of congestive heart failure due to accumulation of fluid. Sleepiness. Poor appetite. B. Tardive dyskinesia. 5. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to anticipated exposure to ticks. Careful examination of skin and hair for ticks following anticipated exposure. Immunizations provide natural immunity from disease. tachypnea. C. A nurse is counseling patients at a health clinic on the importance of immunizations. Immunization provides acquired immunity from some specific diseases. Insect repellant on the skin and clothes when in a Lyme endemic area. Which of the following is the most urgent nursing action? A. D. Maintain a patent airway. laxatives can desensitize the bowel and worsen constipation. . C. B. Later training is rarely caused by psychological factors and is much more commonly related to individual developmental maturity. After 6 months. C. C. 20. 6. D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously. such as walking. Eye contact and verbal engagement with infants are important to language development. D. Psychotic hallucinations. B. B. and tachycardia to result. Which of the following information is the most accurate regarding immunizations? A. A patient who is allergic to iodine/shellfish. A diet high in fiber is also helpful. Co-morbid depression. Long sleeved shirts and long pants. Answer: C Babies and toddlers should not fall asleep with bottles containing liquid other than plain water due to the risk of dental decay. Confusion. ). confirmed by a positive antistreptolysin O titer. Answer: C Toddlers typically learn bowel control before bladder control. as does generous water intake. A mother calls the clinic to report that her son has recently started medication to treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The mother fears her son is experiencing side effects of the medicine. and C A daily bowel movement is not necessary if the patient is comfortable and the bowels move regularly. and the patient appears to have some oral swelling. Blurred vision. Which of the following symptoms is indicative of hypoglycemia? A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) orally. A patient on a calorie restricted diet. Answer: A. Reprimanding the child will not speed the process and may be confusing. A patient at a mental health clinic is taking Haldol (haloperidol) for treatment of schizophrenia. it may be helpful to let babies put themselves back to sleep after waking during the night. D. Which of the following side effects are typically related to medications used for ADHD? Note: More than one answer may be correct: A. 2. Polyphagia. one would expect an increase in blood pressure. Research has shown a dramatic decrease in sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) with back sleeping. 4. Consult a physician. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

Natural immunity is present at birth because the infant acquires maternal antibodies Immunization. 19. specific diseases. Depression may occur along with schizophrenia and would be characterized by such symptoms as loss of affect. 18. Answer: B The therapeutic serum level for Dilantin is 10 . and decreased appetite. The surgical site is typically covered by gauze dressings for a minimum of 48-72 hours to ensure that initial healing has begun. but does not have anti-inflammatory activity. Answer: A. Psychotic hallucinations may be visual or auditory but do not include abnormal movements. 20. It should be taken upon rising in the morning with 8 ounces of water on an empty stomach to increase absorption. NCLEX RN Test 1. Answer: D Acetaminophen in even modestly large doses can cause serious liver damage that may result in death. 10. and anhedonia. not acetaminophen. Oral diphenhydramine is indicated for mild allergic reactions and is not appropriate for anaphylaxis. Answer: B Hypoglycemia in diabetes mellitus causes confusion. Tinnitus is associated with aspirin overdose. Children often experience insomnia. not heat. Answer: D Abnormal facial movements and tongue protrusion in a patient taking haloperidol is most likely due to tardive dyskinesia. Sleepiness is not a side effect of stimulants. Antibiotics are used only when symptoms develop following a tick bite. Purulent drainage would indicate the presence of infection. B. Answer: D A moderate amount of serous drainage from a recent surgical site is a sign of normal healing. Answer: C Impaired perfusion to the right lower arm as a result of a closed cast may cause neurovascular compromise and severe pain. an x-ray should be performed to rule out fracture. and D ADHD in children is frequently treated with CNS stimulant medications. blurred vision. heart rate. but not all. 15. Itching under the cast is common and fairly benign. 17. 13. appetite and/or sleep changes. Immediate evaluation of liver function is indicated with consideration of N-acetylcysteine administration as an antidote. 12. requiring immediate cast removal. Insect repellant should be used on skin and clothing when exposure is anticipated. like all medication. Patients should be monitored regularly for these effects to avoid respiratory compromise. This type of immunity is "acquired" by causing antibodies to form in response to a specific pathogen. A level of 4 mcg/mL is sub-therapeutic and may be caused by patient non-compliance or increased metabolism of the drug. Increased warmth would indicate increased blood flow or infection. such as cough. 9. Answer: D Immunization is available for the prevention of some. particularly with visible oral swelling. Answer: C taken if a patient must stay in supine position. so it should not be The patient may be experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. indicating the need for carbohydrates. Morphine sulfate does not significantly affect urine output. Neurovascular compromise in the arm would not cause pain in the shoulder. or body temperature. Answer: A Physical activity and daily exercise can help to improve movement and decrease pain in osteoarthritis. agitation. should be applied to a recent sports injury. Ibuprofen is a strong antiinflammatory. Joint pain and stiffness are often at their worst during the early morning after several hours of decreased movement. 14. A nurse . An elastic bandage may be applied and pain medication given once fracture has been excluded. Answer: D Alendronate can cause significant gastrointestinal side effects. ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated with alendronate and there is no iodine allergy relationship. which is the incorrect unit of measurement. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. Answer: B Morphine sulfate can suppress respiration and respiratory reflexes. Choices C and D are expressed in mcg/dL. Clothing should be designed to cover as much exposed area as possible to provide an effective barrier. Impaired perfusion would cause the fingers to be cool and pale. Close examination of skin and hair can reveal the presence of a tick before a bite occurs. Answer: C Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not indicated to prevent Lyme disease. A leve of 15 mcg/mL is therapeutic. These depressive changes and lack of volition are part of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. 16. The physician will see the patient as soon as possible with the above actions underway. A soiled dressing should be changed to avoid bacterial growth and to examine the appearance of the wound. The patient should not eat or drink for 30 minutes after administration and should not lie down. 8. such as esophageal irritation. which increase focus and improve concentration. but should always be taken with food to avoid GI distress. 11. The most urgent action is to maintain an airway. Diarrhea and hypertension are not associated with acetaminophen.20 mcg/mL. and polyphagia are symptoms of hyperglycemia. an adverse reaction to the antipsychotic. Ice. Answer: B Following triage. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever.7. Polydipsia. cannot be risk-free and should be considered based on the risk of the disease in question. as perfusion there would not be affected. followed by the administration of epinephrine by subcutaneous injection.

Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient? A. C. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms? A. B. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Diverticulitis. A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. The patient should limit fatty foods. Bowel perforation. C. C. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Crohn's disease in remission. The patient must maintain a low calorie diet. A post-operative coronary bypass patient. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Bradycardia. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH). D. B. Hyperglycemia. Which of the following diet modifications is NOT recommended? A. Air hunger. 3. B. and loss of appetite. B. C. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. D. 8. C. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. D. The patient suffers from claustrophobia. Elevated serum vitamin D. Platelet count. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. D.checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings? A. fever. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient? A. 10. 9. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission? A. Clarithromycin (Biaxin). Calcium carbonate. chills. A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. The patient has developed a wet cough and the nurse hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs. Blood transfusion. D. The patient has a pacemaker. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this? A. D. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. D. Elevated serum calcium. B. C. A restricted sodium diet. D. Low urine calcium. The patient has a fever. B. A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverterdefibrillator. The patient takes anti-psychotic medication. A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. C. 4. C. C. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern? A. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? A. B. 14. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn). Hypoglycemia. 7. Which of the following information is important to communicate? A. and chills. Furosemide (Lasix). The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. recovering on schedule. D. Partial thromboplastin time. D. D. Asymptomatic diverticulosis. B. 12. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect? . Colon cancer. A diet with adequate caloric intake. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. D. Stridor. A history of hepatitis C five years previously. B. 5. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. 11. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. deep respirations. Prothrombin time. C. 13. C. Anesthesia reaction. 2. Sexual contact with an infected partner. B. B. B. The patient is allergic to shellfish. Hemoglobin 6. Contaminated food. A high protein diet. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to the family. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed? A. Viral gastroenteritis. C. Slow. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks. Diabetic ketoacidosis. B. A diet high in grains. D. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure? A. Illegal drug use. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. C. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.

and chills. There is low-grade fever. B. C. Monitor for fever every 4 hours. 5. C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells. fever. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. depending on the symptoms. 20. Cholecystitis (gall bladder disease). D. In hyperparathyroidism. Petechiae occur on the soft palate. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct? A. Normally. "Strawberry tongue" is a characteristic sign. such as blood. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient. and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies. Bulging anterior fontanel. and tachycardia. partial thromboplastin time. Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low. Answer: A Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. 18. Adequate caloric intake is recommended with a diet high in protein and complex carbohydrates. Normally. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches. The dose is too low. C. and C Prothrombin time. Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis do not cause confusion and shakiness.000/microliter. causing inflammation of the liver. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. D. B. D. Answer: A . Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy. and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids. Answer: A. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose? A. diverticulosis. C. The dose is too high. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate? A. C. Answer: A The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. D. does not assess coagulation. with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This may cause renal stones. Diverticulitis may cause pain. chills. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication. 8. Important signs include progressive abdominal pain. The lesions have a "tear drop on a rose petal" appearance. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. which indicate advancing peritonitis. C. B. B. D. the testes descend by one year of age. An anesthesia reaction would not occur on the second post-operative day.A. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)? A. The dose should be increased or decreased. B. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern? A. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours. Hepatitis B. 6. but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis. 7. D. 2. 4. Repeated vomiting. It is the correct dose. 19. the testes are descended by birth. Check for signs of bleeding. Answer: B Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Answer: A Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included on the nursing care plan? A. Viral gastroenteritis and colon cancer do not cause these symptoms. Answer: C A post-operative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to be suffering from hypoglycemia. C. D. fever. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. The hemoglobin level. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. including examination of urine and stool for blood. The body will lower the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium. and history of Crohn's disease do not preclude blood donation. 15. C. The pharynx is red and swollen. the serum calcium level will be elevated. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle. Answer Key 1. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well baby check. 17. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM. resulting in head trauma. B. The infant probably has with only one testis. Confusion and shakiness are common symptoms. including grains. B. B. 16. Answer: D A patient with Addison's disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. The infant will likely require surgical intervention. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25. 3. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward. Urine calcium may be elevated.

NCLEX RN Test 1. This is necessary in a patient with significant ventricular symptoms. it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. Shellfish/iodine allergy is not a contraindication because the contrast used in MRI scanning is not iodine-based. B. High fever is often present. it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. 16. Atrial tachycardia is less serious and is treated conservatively with medication and cardioversion as a last resort. which may block bile (necessary for fat absorption) from entering the intestines. The average 4-year-old child cannot read yet. The tumor is less than 3 cm. B. Divided into 3 doses per day. A patient with fever. the child should receive 50 mg 3 times a day rather than 25 mg 3 times a day. Calcium carbonate is used as an antacid for the relief of indigestion and is not contraindicated. Dosage should not be titrated based on symptoms without consulting a physician. the correct dose is 150 mg/day. stage II. Therefore. a result of group A Streptococcus infection. anxiety. C. A patient recovering well from coronary bypass would not need the device. 9. Patients should decrease dietary fat by limiting foods like fatty meats. and the pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day (5 X 30 = 150/day). such as tachycardia resulting in syncope. . The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected. Transfusion of red cells is indicated for severe anemia. For this reason. Monitoring for fever and requiring protective clothing are indicated to prevent infection if white blood cells are decreased. 10. 19. Stridor is noisy breathing caused by laryngeal swelling or spasm and is not associated with pulmonary edema. Answer: D Cholecystitis. "Tear drop on a rose petal" refers to the lesions found in varicella (chicken pox). is most commonly caused by the presence of gallstones. Exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Answer: C Petechiae on the soft palate are characteristic of rubella infection. Answer: B This child weighs 30 kg. Answer: B The implanted pacemaker will interfere with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner and may be deactivated by them. The body rash typically begins on the face and travels downward. in size and requires no chemotherapy. No other appropriate treatment options currently exist. Answer: D Normally. and D are characteristic of scarlet fever. 12. 18.000/microliter is severely thrombocytopenic and should prompt the initiation of bleeding precautions. chills and loss of appetite may be developing pneumonia. Clarithromycin is an antibacterial often used for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori in gastritis. Evidence of sleepiness at 10 PM is normal for a four year old. Open MRI scanners and anti-anxiety medications are available for patients with claustrophobia.Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. Answer: B Increased pressure caused by bleeding or swelling within the skull can damage delicate brain tissue and may become life threatening. fried foods. including monitoring urine and stool for evidence of bleeding. and severe anxiety. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected. 20. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage? A. The physician should be notified immediately. In young infants. a full assessment will determine the appropriate treatment. D. Answer: C A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture and should be resected as soon as possible. A patient with myocardial infarction that resolved with no permanent cardiac damage would not be a candidate. and creamy desserts to avoid irritation of the gallbladder. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilm's tumor. Choices A. Repeated vomiting can be an early sign of pressure as the vomit center within the medulla is stimulated. Answer: B Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain. inflammation of the gallbladder. 11. The anterior fontanel is closed in a 4-year-old child. 14. Answer: A Koplik's spots are small blue-white spots visible on the oral mucosa and are characteristic of measles infection. Respiration is fast and shallow and heart rate increases. 17. Answer: D A platelet count of 25. shortness of breath. A patient with pulmonary embolism will not be sleepy or have a cough with crackles on exam. Answer: C An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator delivers an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. so this too is normal. If not. the testes descend by one year of age. 15. Answer: D Patients with pulmonary edema experience air hunger. 13. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. and agitation. Psychiatric medication is not a contraindication to MRI scanning. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.

She experiences sudden shortness of breath. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend? A. Nephrotic syndrome. D. 3. 6. No treatment is necessary. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Craniosynostosis. Plagiocephaly. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms? A. B. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy? A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage. the fluid is reabsorbing normally. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. 10. It is a result of tissue hypoxia. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm. C. 9. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance. with premature closure of the cranial sutures. A. D. supine position until the fluid is gone. An adolescent male. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee. accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms? A. D. Anxiety attack due to worries about her baby's health. C. B. B. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct? A. but fluid is still visible on illumination. D. C. Age. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. D. Referral to a surgeon for repair. Resolution of the clot. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting? . B. D. C. It is characterized by cramping and weakness. A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. B. with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. An elderly man. Overweight. C. C. C. 8. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction. Generalized edema. 13. A young woman. B. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone. D. 7. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. D. B. A 23 year old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. A nurse is providing discharge information to a patient with peripheral vascular disease. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply. D. C. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Note: More than one answer may be correct. Smoking. 12. The clinic nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Brown ("tea-colored") urine. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis? A. Family history of heart disease.2. 11. D. Hydrocephalus. B. The student will most likely require surgical intervention. Which of the following information should be included in instructions? A. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours. Avoid crossing the legs. B. Torticollis. D. D. Viral infection of the glomeruli. C. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth. Walk barefoot whenever possible. C. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient? A. An elderly woman. It is characterized by pain that often occurs duing rest. C. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis? A. Cerebral hemorrhage. B. with flattening of one side of the head. B. 5. 4. Expansion of the clot. Keeping the infant in a flat.040. 14. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? A. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis. The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. with increased head size. The condition was caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule. The student is trying to avoid participation in physical education. C. Urine specific gravity of 1. Air embolus. who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions at risk of infection.

Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. C. A complete blood count with differential is drawn. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder. stage III. Possible fracture of the radius. Single status. residual nonhematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen. 15. A. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays. the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Note: More than one answer may be correct. Hypostatic blood pressure. not acute glomerulonephritis. A nurse is assigned to the pediatric rheumatology clinic and is assessing a child who has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. the child wants his mother to carry him. so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease. Advancing age increases risk of atherosclerosis but is not a hereditary factor. 2. Answer: C A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. resulting in scant. 6. Surgery is not indicated. In most cases the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder. Which of the following characteristics is the nurse LEAST likely to find in an abusing parent? A. B. 4. D. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention. Answer: C The staging of Wilm's tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows: Stage I. stage IV. D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues. Fluid overload is not characteristic of PVD. 18. B. Self-blame for the injury to the child. Unemployment. B. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle. dark urine and retention of body fluid. A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her athletic shoe and entered the flesh of her foot. A clinic nurse interviews a parent who is suspected of abusing her child. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties. C. B. Physical activity should be minimized. D. 17. bilateral renal involvement is present at diagnosis. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection. . D. No anatomic injury. 20. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. 5. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment. Answer: A. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis. 19. D. Leg length disparity. 3. Having a first degree relative with heart disease has been shown to significantly increase risk. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder. There is nothing to indicate psychiatric disturbance in the patient. and C Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by high urine specific gravity related to oliguria as well as dark "tea colored" urine caused by large amounts of red blood cells. Spinal flexibility. Possible fracture of the tibia. the tumor is limited to the kidney and completely resected. B.A. Answer Key 1. Answer: A Family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor that is not subject to life style change. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms? A. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate? A. D. The parents arrive. Massaging the area or placing the infant in a supine position would have no effect. C. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction. B. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information? A. The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Answer: A Patients with peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. but generalized edema is seen in nephrotic syndrome. B. D. Low self-esteem. Scoliosis. A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. 16. A blood culture is drawn. C. There is periorbital edema. and stage V. stage II. B. Overweight and smoking are risk factors that are subject to life style change and can reduce risk significantly. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started? A. C. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity. Answer: B Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. C. Skin changes in PVD are secondary to decreased tissue perfusion rather than primary inflammation. hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis. The admission orders are written. C.

Answer: 3 Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are important first line treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). Half of children with the disorder recover without joint deformity. Answer: C The profile of a parent at risk of abusive behavior includes a tendency to blame the child or others for the injury sustained. There is no reason to suspect an anxiety disorder in this patient. there is a 50% chance of a son being affected. Answer: B Antibiotics must be started after the blood culture is drawn. It is assessed by having the teen bend at the waist with arms dangling. Choices A. Osgood-Schlatter disease is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps. This most often occurs during activity when demand increases in muscle tissue. Parent support groups help families to share and cope. Plagiocephaly refers to the flattening of one side of the head. Continued participation will worsen the condition and the symptoms. children may have ocular and speech difficulties. C. If her son receives the X bearing the gene he will be affected. 16. The tissue becomes hypoxic. Answer: C Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents in rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle. Thus. Scoliosis is more common in female adolescents. and discomfort. 12. 17. Toddlers will often continue to walk on a muscle that is bruised or strained. Answer: D A check for scoliosis. while observing for lateral curvature and uneven rib level. unemployment. Swimming is not a likely Delayed developmental milestones are characteristic of cerebral palsy. Answer: C Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is frequently associated with rheumatologic disorders. as they may interfere with the identification of the causative organism. Because of injury to upper motor neurons. Success of the treatment demands that it be instituted as soon as possible. rest. and swelling indicates a physical injury. 20. The other X chromosome comes from the father. In craniosynostosis one of the cranial sutures. Heating pads can cause injury. unstable financial situation. 8.7. 13. but to resolution. a lateral deviation of the spine. and analgesics. Answer: A. Answer: A. Air embolus is not a concern. NSAIDs require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic antiinflammatory effects to be realized. is an important part of the routine adolescent exam. and single status. he most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Daughters are not affected. Physical activity is an integral part of therapy. These clots can then break loose and travel to the lungs. closes prematurely. and D Claudication describes the pain experienced by a patient with peripheral vascular disease when oxygen demand in the leg muscles exceeds the oxygen supply. 10. and C are not part of the routine adolescent exam. Answer: C Patients with peripheral vascular disease should avoid crossing the legs because this can impede blood flow. Answer: B Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant risk when treating a stroke victim with thrombolytic therapy intended to dissolve a suspected clot. often the sagittal. often before the cause of stroke has been determined. 14. but 50% are carriers because they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. causing the head to grow in an abnormal shape. combined with swelling of the limb is suspicious for fracture. Toddlers rarely feign injury to be carried. Hydrocephalus is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain resulting in large head size. 15. Though anxiety is a possible cause of her symptoms. Answer: B In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest. the seriousness of pulmonary embolism demands that it be considered first. B. 11. caused by the infant being placed supine in the same position over time. Answer: A cause. weakness. Answer: A The child's refusal to walk. 18. Parental presence is important for the adjustment of the child but not for the administration of medication. as foot protection is important to avoid trauma that may lead to serious infection. limiting range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. so regular screening and intervention is essential. 9. responding to ice. The radius is found in the lower arm and is not relevant to this question. which can also increase the risk of infection. Physical therapy and other interventions can minimize the extent of the delay in developmental milestones. the sternocleidomastoid muscle is contracted. who cannot be a carrier. as is congestive heart failure due to fluid overload. B. causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. . and about a third will continue with symptoms into adulthood. causing cramping. Thrombolytic therapy does not lead to expansion of the clot. Walking barefoot is not advised. Answer: A The recessive Duchenne's gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. The condition is usually self-limited. 19. Skin lesions at risk for infection should be examined and treated by a physician. including track and soccer. These parents also have a high incidence of low self-esteem. such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs. Myocardial infarction and atherosclerosis are unlikely in a 27-yearold woman. The blood count will reveal the presence of infection but does not help identify an organism or guide antibiotic treatment. which is the intended effect. D In torticollis.

Which of the following actions is the first the nurse should perform? A. An increase in hematocrit. A hospitalized patient is receiving packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for treatment of severe anemia. The diet is providing adequate sources of iron and requires no changes. D. Decreased edema." 8. B. C. There are a number of risk factors associated with coronary artery disease. progressing to cardiogenic shock. B. A patient who has received chemotherapy for cancer treatment is given an injection of Epoetin. B. An increase in platelet count. Transfusion reaction is most likely immediately after the infusion is completed. which are high in iron. a vegetarian diet is not advised. Increased clotting time. C. B. Worsening chest pain that began earlier in the evening. B. 2. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor? A. Decreased blood pressure. Draw blood for chemistry panel and arterial blood gas (ABG). D. 3. Hypertension. Prevents DVT (deep vein thrombosis). 7. C." B. 10. Prevent constipations." C. "Headaches are a frequent side effect of nitroglycerine because it causes vasodilation. A nurse should remain in the room during the first 15 minutes of infusion. C. A clinic patient has recently been prescribed nitroglycerin for treatment of angina. C. IV catheter. A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia vera. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with the diagnosis? A. B. completing therapy 3 months previously. History of prior myocardial infarction. 6. An increase in serum iron. A patient arrives in the emergency department with symptoms of myocardial infarction. Check blood pressure. which of the following symptoms is NOT expected? A. Increased urinary output.--Share NCLEX RN Test 1. D. A cup of coffee or tea should be added to every meal. C. and she is now in remission." D. such as dark green. Hypertension. "Go to the emergency department to be checked because nitroglycerin can cause bleeding in the brain. B. 9. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is considered for treatment of a patient who arrives in the emergency department following onset of symptoms of myocardial infarction. C. Which of the following is a contraindication for treatment with t-PA? A. After the infusion. Prevents bedsores. Weight loss. D. C. Send the patient for a chest x-ray. D. Headaches. B. leafy vegetables and legumes. a hospitalized patient is encouraged to practice frequent leg exercises and ambulate in the hallway as directed by his physician. PRBCs are best infused slowly through a 20g. Bounding pulse. PRBCs should be flushed with a 5% dextrose solution. D. Ask the patient to lie down on the exam table. The patient should add meat to her diet. C. C. D. B. Decreased pain. The patient may be depressed. Which of the following should reflect the findings in a complete blood count (CBC) drawn several days later? A. 5. "The headaches are unlikely to be related to the nitroglycerin. The patient may be immunosuppressed. A patient received surgery and chemotherapy for colon cancer. History of cerebral hemorrhage. Which of the following choices reflects the purpose of exercise for this patient? A. At a followup appointment. D. 4. Confusion. D. A nurse is administering IV furosemide to a patient admitted with congestive heart failure. 12. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit with cardiogenic shock? A. Hypertension. Following myocardial infarction. she complains of fatigue following activity and difficulty with concentration at her weekly bridge games. D. B. A clinic patient has a hemoglobin concentration of 10. B. . Obesity. He calls the nurse complaining of frequent headaches. D. Which of the following is the most accurate statement? A. Which of the follow nutritional advice is appropriate? A. Heredity. C. Bradycardia. so you should see your doctor for further investigation. Increases fitness and prevents future heart attacks. The patient may be dehydrated. A patient with a history of congestive heart failure arrives at the clinic complaining of dyspnea. The symptoms may be the result of anemia caused by chemotherapy. The patient should use iron cookware to prepare foods. 11. Age. An increase in neutrophil count. Which of the following responses to the patient is correct? A.8 g/dL and reports sticking to a strict vegetarian diet. Gender. Which of the following explanations could account for her symptoms? A. "Stop taking the nitroglycerin and see if the headaches improve.

A patient is undergoing the induction stage of treatment for leukemia. D. D. If the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease were correct. D. 16. B. 2. over 60 years. 14. decreasing edema. C. 18. We will bring in personal care items for comfort. Reed-Sternberg cells. Change gloves immediately after use. This results in diminished brain function and confusion. 19. Weight gain. Patients receiving tPA should be observed for changes in blood pressure. nor is it intended to prevent bedsores or constipation. B. tachycardia. Which of the following is the most likely age range of the patient? A. Muscular contraction promotes venous return and prevents hemostasis in the lower extremities. Answer Key 1. B. Answer: D Cardiogenic shock severely impairs the pumping function of the heart muscle. Which of the following is the most important nursing action when caring for a neutropenic patient? A. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).13. C. Give aspirin in case of headaches. 45-55 years. and weak pulse. taking the patient's blood pressure should be the first action. 3-10 years. B. 7. deep breathing for relaxation. Hypertension. Observe for evidence of spontaneous bleeding. 17. The nurse teaches family members about infectious precautions. but not prior to the blood pressure assessment. Answer: A Obesity is an important risk factor for coronary artery disease that can be modified by improved diet and weight loss. A. Answer: C Furosemide. D. 15. which of the following cells would the pathologist expect to find? A. Hyponatremia. C. C. which can cause severe hypertension. as tPA may cause hypotension. and advancing age increase risk but cannot be modified. This exercise is not sufficiently vigorous to increase physical fitness. Nausea and vomiting. Fluid load is reduced. Fluid may move from the periphery. Furosemide acts on the kidneys to increase urinary output. We will bring in books and magazines for entertainment. A patient is about to undergo bone marrow aspiration and biopsy and expresses fear and anxiety about the procedure. A nurse in the emergency department assesses a patient who has been taking long-term corticosteroids to treat renal disease. Change the disposable mask immediately after use. Minimize patient contact. C. does not alter pain. Painful cervical lymph nodes. Cardiogenic shock is a serious complication of myocardial infarction with a high mortality rate. Answer: D A patient with congestive heart failure and dyspnea may have pulmonary edema. 5. C. D. 3. B. B. Family history of coronary artery disease. D. Which of the following is an important intervention? A. A nurse is caring for patients in the oncology unit. C. Which of the following is the most effective nursing response? A. 6. Answer: C . as well as hypotension. Stay with the patient and focus on slow. B. We will bring in fresh flowers to brighten the room. A patient is admitted to the oncology unit for diagnosis of suspected Hodgkin's disease. Rieder's cells 20. Minimize conversation with the patient. Gaucher's cells. Warn the patient to stay very still because the smallest movement will increase her pain. Night sweats and fatigue. lowering blood pressure. and the patient may not tolerate it. D. The Hodgkin's disease patient described in the question above undergoes a lymph node biopsy for definitive diagnosis. B. Prior MI is not a contraindication to tPA. Low serum albumin. Answer: C Exercise is important for all hospitalized patients to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Cushingoid features. D. Which of the following is a typical side effect of corticosteroid treatment? Note: More than one answer may be correct. a loop diuretic. Lying flat on the exam table would likely worsen the dyspnea. Lymphoblastic cells. Blood draws for chemistry and ABG will be required. Which of the following statements by family members indicates that the family needs more education? A. Delay the procedure to allow the patient to deal with her feelings. 4.000/microliter. Limit visitors to family only. causing diminished blood flow to the organs of the body. Answer: B A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to tPA because it may increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore. TPA acts by dissolving the clot blocking the coronary artery and works best when administered within 6 hours of onset of symptoms. Encourage the family to stay in the room for the procedure. Which of the following symptoms is typical of Hodgkin's disease? A. C. We will bring in family pictures and get well cards. Impose immune precautions. 25-35 years. A nurse is caring for a patient with a platelet count of 20. male gender.

9. Delaying the procedure is unlikely to allay her fears. Warning the patient to remain still will likely increase her anxiety. a low serum albumin. Answer: D Transfusion reaction is most likely during the first 15 minutes of infusion. 11. Aspirin disables platelets and should never be used in the presence of thrombocytopenia. Cushingoid features. Weight loss occurs early in the disease. Answer: A. Encouraging family members to stay with the patient may make her worry about their anxiety as well as her own. The disease is characterized by painless. 19. B. Gaucher's cells are large storage cells found in patients with Gaucher's disease. and a nurse should be present during this period. Two-thirds of cases of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) occur after 60 years. spontaneous bleeding into the brain and internal organs may occur. or serum iron. Cardiovascular effects include increased blood pressure and delayed clotting time. Answer: B The neutropenic patient is at risk of infection. 15.5-15. Changing gloves immediately after use protects patients from contamination with organisms picked up on hospital surfaces. deep breathing is the most effective method of reducing anxiety and stress. This causes an increase in hematocrit and viscosity of the blood. 18. Answer: A Three months after surgery and chemotherapy the patient is likely to be feeling the after-effects. It is uncommon after the mid-teen years. The peak incidence of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is 45-55 years. Coffee and tea increase gastrointestinal activity and inhibit absorption of iron. dizziness. Answer: B Symptoms of Hodgkin's disease include night sweats. and D Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. Nausea and vomiting are not typically symptoms of Hodgkin's disease. Mild anemia does not require that animal sources of iron be added to the diet. and the dose titrated.000. It reduces the level of carbon dioxide in the brain to increase calm and relaxation. nitroglycerine is effective at reducing myocardial oxygen consumption and increasing blood flow. which stimulates the production of red blood cells. and D Side effects of corticosteroids include weight gain. particularly in the extremities. 10. Answer: C During induction chemotherapy. and legumes are high in iron. pictures. the leukemia patient is severely immunocompromised and at risk of serious infection.Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator and often produces unwanted effects such as headache. causing an increase in hematocrit. Patients should be counseled. and suppressed inflammatory response.45% normal saline solution. In addition. Answer: B Epoetin is a form of erythropoietin. Epoetin has no effect on neutrophils. Answer: B. The peak incidence of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) occurs at 60 years. Patients are encouraged to eat a diet high in protein. Rieder's cells are myeloblasts found in patients with acute myelogenous leukemia. Patients can experience headaches. and plants can carry microbes and should be avoided. 14. Weight loss is not a manifestation of polycythemia vera. The patient should not stop the medication. Lymphoblasts are immature cells found in the bone marrow of patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. When food is prepared in iron cookware its iron content is increased. 8. This contamination can have serious consequences for an immunocompromised patient. Answer: A The peak incidence of ALL is at 4 years (range 3-10). and fatigue is not a typical symptom of immunosuppression. dizziness. Fresh flowers. This vegetarian patient is mildly anemic. Other intravenous solutions will hemolyze the cells. but not nearly as urgent as changing gloves. There is no evidence that the patient is immunosuppressed. PRBCs should be infused through a 19g or larger IV catheter to avoid slow flow. When the count falls below 15. which often includes anemia because of bone-marrow suppression. Thrombocytopenia does not compromise immunity. 12. Changing the respiratory mask is desirable. Headaches may be a sign and should be watched for. vitamins.0. and other personal items can be cleaned with antimicrobials before being brought into the room to minimize the risk of contamination. Books. which can cause clotting. In spite of the side effects. . not hyponatremia. and tachycardia. fruit. and there is no reason to limit visitors as long as any physical trauma is prevented. Corticosteroids cause hypernatremia. Nitroglycerine does not cause bleeding in the brain. 17. 20. and hypotension. weakness. 16. Many non-animal sources are available. fluid retention with hypertension. platelets. Epoetin is given to patients who are anemic. Answer: C Slow. C. PRBCs must be flushed with 0. and minerals and low in sodium. The information given does not indicate that depression or dehydration is a cause of her symptoms. to minimize these effects. and visual disturbances. Answer: A A definitive diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease is made if Reed-Sternberg cells are found on pathologic examination of the excised lymph node. 13. Answer: A Platelet counts under 30. enlarged cervical lymph nodes. fatigue. often as a result of chemotherapy treatment. Answer: 3 Normal hemoglobin values range from 11.000/microliter may cause spontaneous petechiae and bruising. such as spinach and kale. dark green leafy vegetables. Minimizing contact and conversation are not necessary and may cause nursing staff to miss changes in the patient's symptoms or condition.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? . The client complains of mild pain and cramping in her abdomen. The nurse notes that the radium implant has become dislodged.” “I am so glad that our problems are behind us. It is MOST important for the nurse to give which of the following instructions? “Massage the injection site for one minute after the injection of the medicine. Explanation of Answer: The manipulation of a mass may cause dissemination of cancer cells. males are more likely than females to have both 7) The nurse is observing a LPN/LVN administer iron dextran (DexFerrum) IM.” “Have your son touch your abdomen and tell him about your pregnancy. forceps and container should be kept in patient’s room Explanation of Answer: Native Americans have the highest incidence of cleft lip and palate. The nurse massages lotion on the abdomen of a 3year-old diagnosed with Wilm’s tumor. 2) The nurse in the same-day surgery department cares for a 77-year-old woman after a sigmoidoscopy. Explanation of Answer: This could signify hypovolemic shock due to bowel perforation. 6) A 22-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy tells the clinic nurse that her child has been asking questions “about sex. The client complains of lightheadedness and dizziness. Which woman is at greater risk for having a child with a cleft lip and palate? A 22-year-old Oriental women who is having a girl. if made by the patient’s wife. Obtain a dosimeter reading on the patient and report it to the physician. Which of the following symptoms.” “Tell your son that this subject is complicated. The client complains of grogginess and thirst.” The client asks the nurse what she should tell her 5-year-old son. if performed by the nurse.” “My focus is learning how to live my life. “Buy a book about sex designed for young children and read it with your son.” “Tap out the air bubble prior to administering the medication. The nurse instructs a 5-year-old asthmatic to blow on a pinwheel. A 25-year-old Native American female who is having a boy. ----------1) Which of the following actions.” Explanation of Answer: The wife is working to change codependent patterns. Wrap the implant in a blanket and place it behind the lead shield. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container. is BEST? “Answer your son’s questions in a matter-of-fact manner. and you will discuss it with him as he gets older. if made by the nurse. The nurse plays kickball with a 10-year-old with juvenile arthritis (JA). indicates to the nurse that the family is coping adaptively? “My husband will do well as long as I keep him engaged in activities that he likes. 5) The nurse has reviewed the charts of four antepartal women. A 35-year-old African American woman who is having a boy.” Explanation of Answer: This helps the child understand their concerns and allows for answering exact question that are being asked. would be considered negligence? The nurse obtains a Guthrie blood test on a 4-dayold infant.Stay with the patient and contact radiology. would MOST concern the nurse? The client complains of fullness and pressure in her abdomen. in words that he will understand.” 4) The nurse is caring for a patient with cervical cancer. Which of the following statements.” 3) The nurse is discharging a patient from an inpatient alcohol treatment unit. Explanation of Answer: You should never touch an implant with bare hand.” “I’ll make sure that the children don’t give my husband any problems. Which of the following statements. A 40-year-old Caucasian who is having a girl. if exhibited by the woman an hour after the procedure.

11) The nurse cares for a 46-year-old woman after a traditional cholecystectomy. Which of the following responses.” “It is my responsibility to answer questions that the patient may have prior to surgery. Tofu Celery Total 9 mg 114 mg 671 mg Corn 192 mg Oatmeal 132 mg Total 642 mg 8) A nurse is caring for clients in the mental health clinic. broccoli.” “Change the needle after drawing up the medication. The woman says she knows bananas are high in potassium. There is 30 cc of serosanguineous drainage in the Penrose drain during the first 24 hours. to private room so she will not be infected by other patients and health care workers.” “It is my responsibility to provide a detailed description of the surgery and ask the patient to Potatoes Carrots 221 mg Spinach 838 mg Raisins Total 1089 mg 2537 mg Broccoli 254 mg Yogurt Total 251 mg 726 mg 548 Rhubarb mg Onions 318 mg . spinach. Explanation of Answer: Product Potassium Amount 610 mg Product Potassium Amount 12) The nurse is leading an inservice about management issues. which would risk developing an infection from others due to depressed WBC count. lower than it was preoperatively. to a semiprivate room so she will have stimulation during her hospitalization. is MOST appropriate? “Did your company give you a severance package?” “Focus on the fact that you have a healthy. The patient has a nasogastric tube connected to suction.” Explanation of Answer: This ensures that no solution remains on the outside of the needle. There is 250 cc of bloody drainage from the T-tube during the first 24 hours. A women comes to the clinic complaining of insomnia and anorexia. and a T-tube and Penrose drain in place. The nurse would intervene if a nurse made which of the following statements? “It is my responsibility to ensure that the consent form has been signed and attached to the patient’s chart prior to surgery. The nurse should assign the patient to a private room so she will not infect other patients and health care workers. happy family. The patient tearfully tells the nurse that she was laid off from a job that she had held for 15 years. Explanation of Answer: Assigning the patient to a private room protects the patient from exogenous bacteria. Rhubarb. Carrots. yogurt. tofu. but she doesn’t like their taste. 9) The nurse is teaching a 45-year-old woman how to increase the potassium in her diet. It should be bloody initially and change to greenish-brown. oatmeal.” “Tell me what happened. Explanation of Answer: You should expect drainage of 400 ml/day with a gradual decrease through time. an IV of D5W infusing into her right arm. if made by the nurse. Explanation of Answer: By exploring the situation you allows the patient to verbalize. The patient experiences a 40° temperature elevation the evening after surgery. raisins.“Release the skin prior to withdrawing the needle. The nurse would be MOST concerned by which of the following findings? The systolic blood pressure is 10 mmHg. celery. corn.” “It is my responsibility to witness the signature of the client before surgery is performed.” “Losing a job is common nowadays. Onions. What foods should the nurse recommend the client include in her diet? Potatoes. to a semiprivate room so she will have the opportunity to express her feelings about her illness.” 10) A 68-year-old woman diagnosed with thrombocytopenia due to acute lymphocytic leukemia is admitted to the hospital.

5’10” tall. women: 10-55 U/ml Explanation of Answer: This statement encourages the client to verbalize their issues and concerns. Explanation of Answer: Taller people require a broader base of support. S/E–lethargy. if made by the nurse.” “It reduces postoperative swelling. indicates that teaching has been successful? “I should check my leg once a week.” “It reduces the possibility of clot formation. An older adult. if made by the nurse.” “I will message my leg nightly.sign the consent form. 13) A patient with a history of alcoholism is brought to the emergency room in an agitated state. Which of the following laboratory findings would MOST concern the nurse? Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)–10 mm/h Hematocrit (Hct)–42% Creatine kinase (CK)–350 U/ml Serum glucose–100 mg/dL Explanation of Answer: enzyme specific to brain. A school-aged child who is 4’8” tall flexes her elbows about 20 degrees when ambulating with crutches. Explanation of Answer: The "figure-eight" wrap hastens venous return and controls edema.” 14) The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute myocardial infarction.” “You’ll have to enroll in another class. if made by the patient to the nurse.” “I will give myself heparin every day.” Explanation of Answer: Heparin doesn’t cross the placenta and is considered safe during pregnancy. Had his last drink five hours ago. is MOST accurate? “It decreases the possibly of infection. the nurse should use which of the following protective measures? . The nurse would expect to administer which of the following medications? Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride (Librium) Disulfiram (Antabuse) Methadone hydrochloride (Dolophine) Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) A middle-aged adult.” “I can take Pepto-Bismol for diarrhea. agranulocytosis. uses a 4-point gait when ambulating with crutches.” Explanation of Answer: A physician should provide explanations and obtain signatures. myocardium and skeletal muscle. normal: men: 12-70 U/mL. 5’6” tall. It must be worn at all times except bathing and must be removed and reapplied several times a day 16) The nurse is caring for clients in an orthopedic 19) While inserting a nasogastric tube.” “Please give me the cigarettes. Which of the following statements. and the nurse notes a package of cigarettes in his pocket. Then nurse would be MOST concerned if which of the following was observed? A teenager who is 6’4” tall places the crutches about 6” to the side of his feet when ambulating with crutches. a client with hypertension attends classes to help him quit smoking. is MOST appropriate? “I see that you have cigarettes in your pocket. advances the crutches first when walking down the stairs.” “I’ll have to report this to the physician. Section: NCLEX 17) At the advice of the physician.” Which of the following explanations. He is vomiting and diaphoretic.” “It helps to minimize postoperative pain. One month later the client visits the clinic. 15) The nurse has completed discharge instructions for a primigravida woman who is 29 weeks gestation and hospitalized for treatment of deep vein thrombosis.” 18) A 65-year-old woman recovering from a right below-knee amputation (BKA) asks the nurse why the bandage is applied in a “figure-eight. Explanation of Answer: Librium is used to treat symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. indicates tissue necrosis or injury. Which of the following statements. hangover. clinic.

25) The nurse in the out-patient clinic evaluates the Mantoux test of a 36-year-old woman.” “I should incorporate the exercise program into my daily activities. Which of the following should the nurse administer? 2 codeine tablets and 4 aspirin tablets 4 codeine tablets and 2 aspirin tablets 3 codeine tablets and 3 aspirin tablets 4 codeine tablets and 3 aspirin tablets Explanation of Answer: normal Blood pH is 7. and gowns.Gloves. mask. Each codeine tablet contains 15 mg of codeine. if made to the nurse by one of the participants. Gloves. impaired cognitive function. and a surgical cap. Increased pulse. plastic bags. communication. and goggles.” “I should perform vigorous exercise several times a week. The woman’s history indicates that she has been treated during the past year for an AIDS-related infection. A level of 7. Move the client to the head of the bed using a turning sheet. A diagnosis of ketoacidosis is made. Each aspirin tablet contains 325 mg of aspirin. increased muscle tension. Explanation of Answer: 60/x = 15/1 x=4 10 grains = 600 mg 325/1 = 600/x x=2 24) The nurse in the out-patient clinic is discussing exercise programs with a group of adults.” Explanation of Answer: Exercise does not need not be vigorous. 21) The nurse is caring for a patient 4 hours after undergoing intracranial surgery. goggles. . behavioral disorganization. indicates the need for further teaching? “I should individualize my exercise program to meet my needs. Heightened sensory awareness. Explanation of Answer: You must use universal precautions on all patients. and surgical cap. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a panic level of anxiety? Behavioral disorganization. 23) A 7-year-old girl with insulin-dependent diabetes (IDDM) has been home sick for several days and is brought to the emergency department by her parents. cough. inability to negotiate simple life demands. distorted perception. increased ability to concentrate.28 indicates acidosis. Perform passive range of motion exercises. distorted perception. Which of the following statements. Reduced sensory input. and deep-breathe the patient.28 Hematocrit 38% 20) The physician orders codeine 60 mg and aspirin grains X PO every four hours. Instead it should increase the resting heart rate. Double gloves. Sterile gloves. gown. mask. Explanation of Answer: The patient’s body should be moved as a unit to prevent increased ICP. gown. as needed for pain.” “I should maintain consistent participation in my exercise program. rate of speech and volume are adequate for Explanation of Answer: If a measurement greater than a 5 mm area positive for patient with an HIV-infection history.2 mg/dL Blood pH 7. mask. The nurse should document that there was a positive reaction if there was an area of induration measuring what? 3 mm 7 mm 11 mm 15 mm 22) The nurse observes the behavior of a patient seen in the emergency room. These prevent skin and mucous-membrane exposure when contact with blood or other body fluids is anticipated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take immediately? Turn.45. Place the patient with the neck flexed and head turned to the side. The nurse would expect to see which of the following lab results for this client? Serum glucose 140 mg/dL Serum creatine 5.35–7. goggles.

Place the infant in isolation.26) The nurse is performing a home care visit on a three-year-old with a cast on the left arm due to a fracture of the radius. side rails up. The patient c/o right quadrant pain. Irrigate the colostomy. 29) The nurse plans to teach a 52-year-old woman about warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Discuss the nurse’s observation with the client’s children. if taken by the nurse. Explanation of Answer: Antivert (anti-vertigo) and Compazine (antiemetic) are used. 30) The nurse is caring for a patient one day after an abdominal–perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. and change positions slowly. 33) The nurse is caring for a woman who is 37-weeks gestation. 32) The nurse is observing a student nurse care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube. and vomiting. Patient has drains in both ears. Report the situation to the nursing supervisor. Request that another nurse visit the patient to assess the situation. nausea. mouth. When the patient is returned to her room after surgery. Place petrolatum gauze over the stoma. is MOST appropriate? Place a home health aide with the patient to document incidents of abuse. The student nurse cleans the inner canula by soaking it in hydrogen peroxide. Explanation of Answer: The colostomy begins to function 3–6 days after surgery. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM for pain. Explanation of Answer: The nurse should also inspect the eyes. The mother encourages the child to wiggle the fingers on the left hand. 31) The nurse plans postoperative care for a 40-yearold woman scheduled for a stapedectomy. . The nurse would intervene if which of the following was observed? The student nurse uses clean gloves to remove the tracheostomy dressing. The nurse should question which of the following orders? Discontinue the nasogastric tube. It would be MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions? Wear gloves when caring for the infant. To stop taking the Coumadin before going to the dentist. The nurse would be MOST concerned by which of the following findings? B/P 150/95 4+ proteinuria. the nurse should expect which of the following? Patient’s hearing completely restored. The nurse should teach the patient which of the following measures? To increase her daily intake of green leafy vegetables. 27) The home care nurse is visiting an 82-year-old woman living with her daughter. and skin for lesions. The child is sitting at the table coloring in a coloring book. The student nurse replaces the dressing with a folded gauze 4 ¥ 4. Administer immune globulin. 28) The nurse is caring for a 7 lb 9 oz infant born 24hours ago by cesarean section due to maternal herpes simplex virus. Explanation of Answer: The nurse should prevent the child from sticking small items down the cast. The child elevates the left arm on a pillow while watching television. The client appears malnourished and has multiple bruises on her body. Assist with ambulation. The nurse would be MOST concerned if which of the following was observed? The mother wraps the cast with plastic wrap prior to bathing the child. Which of the following actions. To wear a Medic Alert bracelet. To test her stools weekly for blood. The student nurse removes the soiled trach ties then replaces with clean ties. Encourage the mother to bottle feed the infant. Explanation of Answer: The student nurse should apply new ties prior to removing old ties to prevent dislodgment of the trach. Explanation of Answer: State law requires this to be reported. Patient experiences vertigo. Patient still drowsy from the general anesthesia.

D5 in 0. Behavior insensitivity to a patient’s feelings.3+ pitting edema of the ankles. Legs elevated at a 45° angle. Explanation of Answer: Photos and mementos provide visual stimulation to reduce sensory deprivation.0° F (37. and hyponatremia with normal or increased plasma volume Urinary output of 800 cc/24 hours. Explanation of Answer: This indicates impaired liver function. Explanation of Answer: The patient would experience decreased urine output. The nurse knows that the child should be placed in which of the following positions? Buttocks slightly elevated off the bed. Perform circulation checks to the extremities. A nurse attendant allows visitors to enter his room without masks. An order for cloth-wrist restraints is received by the nurse. 37) The nurse cares for a patient who has syndromes of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate? Attach the ties of the restraint to the bed frame. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her roommate. 38) A 25-year-old man is being treated for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse find consistent with this diagnosis? Urinary output of 2.700 cc/24 hours. You may also use 0.500 cc/24 hours.45% NaCl. decreased serum sodium. Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a day. Hips fully extended. His vital signs are: BP 80/60. sign of impending eclampsia. is MOST appropriate? Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such as photos and mementos. . sodium 164 mEq/L. Urinary output of 2.45% NaCl. which are restrained once a shift. A technician wears gloves to perform a venipuncture. The nurse should intervene in which of the following situations? A housekeeper cleans up spilled blood with a bleach solution. Explanation of Answer: The mask and gloves are necessary only when possibility of contact with blood and body fluids. The client is occasionally confused and her gait is often unsteady. Remove the restraints when the patient is up in a wheelchair. sodium 118 mEq/L. sodium 122 mEq/L. Explain the need for the restraints only to the family.9% NaCl.2° C). 0. sodium 156 mEq/L. does not promote trust. 34) A 1-year-old girl admitted to the hospital with a fractured femur is placed in Bryant’s traction. 35) A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the nursing home setting. Which of the following actions. Explanation of Answer: You need isotonic fluid to restore circulating blood volume. pulse 120. Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman can look down the hall. Explanation of Answer: Attaching the ties of the restraint to the bed frame allows the raising and lowering of the side rail without causing injury to the patient. Explanation of Answer: The child’s weight provides countertraction. Urinary output of 500 cc/24 hours. 39) A 14-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a compound fracture of the left femur. temperature 99. When taking a BP. 36) An 84-year-old man is admitted with a diagnosis of dementia. Lactated Ringer’s. Which of the following fluids would the nurse expect the physician to order initially? D5 in water. A nursing student takes the patient’s blood pressure wearing a mask and gloves. He attempts several times to pull out his nasogastric tube. respirations 26. there is very low risk for contact with blood and body fluids. if taken by the nurse. Knees slightly flexed.

Explanation of Answer: This checks for residual urine in the bladder after voiding. This increases space between their vertebrae. 42) To evaluate a patient’s hydration status. left midclavicular line. Clamp the suprapubic catheter for two hours. if made by the nurse. document the results.030). white blood cell count (WBC). The patient is lying on her right side with a pillow under the costal margin The patient frequently coughs after deep breathing. Encourage the patient to void every two hours with the suprapubic catheter clamped.6° C). A 50-year-old executive following removal of cataracts. if taken by the nurse. inadequate clothing. Explanation of Answer: This subnormal temperature indicates prematurity. 44) The nurse knows that which of the following patients has the lowest risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A 67-year-old carpenter undergoing a left total knee replacement. open the clamp. Explanation of Answer: Age increases risk but a patient is usually not immobile after cataract surgery. When residual urine is 75 ml or less the S/P catheter is usually removed. would require an intervention? The infant’s respirations are 36. and depth. Rapid pulsations are visible in the fifth intercostal space. The nurse knows the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what reason? . the nurse should check the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Explanation of Answer: relative volume of plasma to RBC increases with dehydration. and/or dehydration 45) The nurse is caring for a 67-year-old man four days after a suprapubic prostatectomy. allow it to drain to gravity. The nurse should explain to the patient that he won’t be able to feel anything during the procedure. Explanation of Answer: The client uses his/her arms to their hold knees in place. normal: men 40–45% women 37–45% Other tests that indicate hydration: BP. The nurse instructs the patient to maintain a full bladder. Clamp the suprapubic catheter. 41) Which of the following observations of a 8 lb 4 oz newborn boy. CVP (normal: 3–11 cmH2O) 43) The nurse is caring for a patient one hour after a percutaneous liver biopsy. head bent forward. low environment temperature. urine specific gravity (normal: 1. Explanation of Answer: Avoid coughing or straining to prevent hemorrhage. A 22-year-old woman who weighs 230 lbs and is 2 months pregnant with her second child.40) The nurse is observing a staff member assist the physician with a lumbar puncture. unclamp the catheter. The nurse instructs the patient to hyperventilate. have the patient void. shallow and irregular in rate. A 44-year-old woman with ovarian cancer experiencing vomiting from chemotherapy. measure and document the results. allow the catheter to drain to gravity. There is asynchronous spontaneous movement of the infant’s extremities. release the clamp. A suprapubic (S/P) catheter remains in place. measure the amount of urine voided and drained from the suprapubic catheter. measure and document the results. serum glucose. is MOST appropriate? Encourage the patient to void. and document the results. hematocrit (Hct). The nurse would be MOST concerned if which of the following was observed? 46) A nurse is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The nurse would judge that the care was appropriate if the nurse observed which of the following behaviors? The nurse assists the patient into a fetal position. and allow it to drain to gravity. The infant’s axillary temperature is 96. The physician has removed the Foley catheter.2° F (35. Which of the following actions. rhythm. The LPN obtains the blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes. The patient states that she has mild pain radiating to her right shoulder.003–1. infection.

Decreased visual. Check the patient’s temperature. It would be MOST important for the nurse to refer which of the following patients for home care? A 15-year-old primapara who delivered a7 lb male 2 days ago. baked potato. 1 cup of spinach salad. Explanation of Answer: Gradual loss of sight. 1/2 carrots. Increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to 5 L/min. Explanation of Answer: This meal has the appropriate amount of HBV protein. 1/2 broccoli. low potassium fruit. one apple. 48) The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a patient with chronic renal failure. and 8 oz lemonade. 1/2 noodles. The nurse knows that teaching has been successful if the patient selects which of the following menus? 6 oz roast beef. A 20-year-old multipara who delivered 1 day and is complaining of cramping. 4 oz baked ham. and taste interferes with normal functioning. Decreased musculoskeletal function and mobility. 49) The nurse on postpartum is preparing four patients for discharge. 1/2 cup pork and beans. auditory. Which of the following actions. and 8 oz cola. 1/2 cup canned green beans. and gustatory abilities. and 16 oz of iced tea. is BEST? Encourage the patient to perform pursed lip breathing. one orange. Isolation from their families and familiar surroundings. Explanation of Answer: This prevents collapse of lung unit and helps the patient control the rate and depth of breathing. 47) A 67-year-old patient with emphysema becomes restless and confused. An 18-year-old multipara who delivered a 9 lb female by cesarean section 2 days ago. 1 banana. if taken by the nurse. 1/2 potatoes au gratin.Increased sensitivity to the side effects of medications. and 8 oz of milk. 1/2 cup blueberries. Hot dog with bun. 2 oz turkey. and a protein-free drink. A 22-year-old who delivered by cesarean section and is complaining of burning on urination. hearing. . Assess the patient’s potassium level. Explanation of Answer: This indicates urinary tract infection and requires a follow-up.

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