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You are on page 1of 9

The final exam will be held on Friday, Dec 17

th

from 810 AM in room 121 of the Todd Wehr

Chemistry Bldg, which is Building #22 on the map below (Haggerty/Olin is Bldg #27). Be sure

to acquaint yourself with this location BEFORE the day of the final exam.

CEEN 3160 Geotechnical Engineering

Final Exam Review Questions

1. The specific gravity of soil solids typically falls in the range of:

a. 1.0 to 1.5 b. 1.5 to 2.0 c. 2.0 to 2.5 d. 2.5 to 3.0

2. The P200 of an air-dried clayey soil is to be determined. Compared to the P200 determined by

a typical dry sieve analysis of the soil, the P200 from a hydrometer analysis of the soil would

most likely be:

a. smaller b. larger c. about the same d. impossible to determine

3. When viewed on a standard semi-log plot of % Passing vs Grain Size, a nearly vertical

grain-size distribution cure represents a gradation called:

a. well-graded b. gap-graded c. poorly-graded d. curve-graded

4. A soil has the following values: D10=0.01mm, D30=0.05mm, D60=0.10mm. The uniformity

coefficient, Cu, is most nearly:

a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 100

5. A soil has the following values: D10=0.01mm, D30=0.05mm, D60=0.10mm. The gradation

parameter, Cc, is most nearly:

a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 100

6. The moist unit weight of a soil is 122 pcf and the moisture content is 11%. The dry unit

weight (pcf) is most nearly:

a. 90 b. 110 c. 122 d. 135

7. The saturated unit weight of a soil is 1.95 g/cc and the moisture content is 15%. The porosity

(%) is most nearly:

a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 50

8. The saturated unit weight of a soil is 1.95 g/cc and the moisture content is 15%. The void

ratio is most nearly:

a. 0.15 b. 0.20 c. 0.35 d. 0.50

9. Assuming both values are expressed as decimal values, when compared to the void ratio the

porosity should be:

a. smaller b. larger c. about the same d. impossible to determine

10. A sand has index values as follows: emin = 0.45, emax = 0.75, Gs = 2.70. If a deposit of this

sand has a dry unit weight of 106 pcf, the relative density (%) of this deposit is most nearly:

a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75

CEEN 3160 - Geotechnical Engineering - Final Exam Review Questions

11. The moisture content at which a soil transitions from a viscous fluid to a deformable solid is

termed the:

a. shrinkage limit b. plastic limit c. liquid limit d. sticky limit

12. The moisture content at which a soil transitions from a deformable solid to a semi-solid is

termed the:

a. shrinkage limit b. plastic limit c. liquid limit d. sticky limit

13. A plastic limit test is conducted providing the following data: WWET = 24.5g, WDRY=20.5g.

The plastic limit of this soil is most nearly:

a. 4 b. 16 c. 20 d. 25

14. A fine-grained soil has a liquid limit of 60 and a plastic limit of 25. This soil is most likely

classified as:

a. CH b. MH c. ML d. CL

15. A soil has been classified as an A-6(4). The plasticity index of this soil is most likely:

a. 4 b. 6 c. 15 d. 50

16. A fine-grained soil has a liquid limit of 25 and a plasticity index of 10. The optimum

moisture content (%) for compaction is most nearly:

a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35

17. Compared to the standard Proctor test, the modified Proctor test would be expected to yield

an optimum moisture content which is:

a. smaller b. the same c. larger d. impossible to determine

18. A sand cone test is conducted with the following results: mass of moist soil from hole = 6.2

lb, moisture content of moist soil = 12.5%, mass of sand to fill hole = 5.7 lb, calibrated dry

unit weight of sand = 103.6 pcf. The dry unit weight (pcf) of the soil is most nearly:

a. 95 b. 100 c. 104 d.112

19. A constant head permeability test is conducted on a sand with the following conditions:

hydraulic gradient = 0.3, cross-sectional area = 50 cm2, outflow rate = 5 cm

3

/ min. The

hydraulic conductivity (cm/sec) of this sand is most nearly:

a. 0.005 b. 0.3 c 0. 5 d. 50

20. A soil has an effective size of 0.2 mm. The estimated hydraulic conductivity (cm/sec) of

this soil is most nearly:

a. 0.04 b. 0.2 c. 4 d. 24

CEEN 3160 - Geotechnical Engineering - Final Exam Review Questions

21. When constructing a flow net, an equipotential line should intersect a flow line:

a. never b. many times c. at a right angle d. at a 45

o

angle

22. Compared to a clayey soil, the capillary rise in a sandy soil would be expected to be:

a. smaller b. greater c. about the same d. impossible to determine

23. A saturated clay layer extends from the ground surface to a depth of 30 ft. The water table

is located at a depth of 2 ft. If the saturated unit weight of the clay is 120 pcf, the

effective vertical stress (psf) at a depth of 10 ft is most nearly:

a. 576 b. 624 c. 700 d. 1200

24. The critical hydraulic gradient for most granular soils is approximately:

a. 0 b. 0.5 c. 1.0 d. 1.5

25. A 6 ft x 6 ft foundation supports a load of 144 kips. The stress increase (psf) due to this

load, at a depth of 6 ft below the center of loading, is most nearly:

a. 340 b. 680 c. 1360 d. 4000

26. A flexible circular load is defined as follows: q = 3000 psf, R = 4 ft. Under the center of this

loading, the vertical stress increase (psf) at a depth of 6 ft is most nearly:

a. 1270 b. 1700 c. 2400 d. 3000

27. A standard consolidation test is run on a clay sample with the following conditions:

Hav = 20 mm, t

50

= 5 min. Under the same increment of pressure change, the time (days) to reach

50% consolidation for a doubly-drained, 3 ft thick clay layer from which this sample was

extracted is most nearly:

a. 5 b. 29 c. 290 d. 700

28. A normally consolidated clay layer has the following properties: layer thickness = 5 ft, void

ratio = 1.1, compression index = 0.3, average effective stress at mid-depth = 2000 psf. If

a fill layer increases the average effective stress in the clay layer by 800 psf, the estimated

consolidation settlement (in) of the clay layer due to this fill is most nearly:

a. 0.1 b. 1.2 c. 2.5 d. 4.0

29. A direct shear test was run on a sand with the following conditions: normal load = 20 N,

peak shear load = 16 N, cross-sectional area of specimen = 20 cm

2

. The friction angle

(degrees) for this sand is most nearly:

a. 30 b. 34 c. 38 d. 42

30. The drained friction angle for a dense, angular sand may be expected to be most nearly:

a. 0 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60

CEEN 3160 - Geotechnical Engineering - Final Exam Review Questions

31. An unconfined compression test was conducted on a cylindrical clay specimen with the

following results: peak load at failure = 4.5 lb, specimen diameter at failure = 1.2 in. The

undrained shear strength (psf) of this clay is most nearly:

a. 285 b. 425 c. 570 d. 1140

32. For a CD triaxial test, the D stands for:

a. Dry b. Dense c. Drained d. Dilation

33. For a CU triaxial test, the U stands for:

a. Uniform b. Undrained c. Ultimate d. Unconsolidated

34. The soil sampling method which produces the least soil disturbance is considered to be:

a. Auger b. Split-Spoon c. Thin Wall Tube d. Vane Shear

35. As the relative density of a sand deposit increases, the resistance to penetration would be

expected to:

a. Increase b. Decrease c. Remain Unchanged d. Impossible to Determine

36. A 60

o

cut is to be made to a depth of 18 ft in a clay soil with the following properties:

= 115 pcf, Cu = 800 psf, = 0

o

. The factor of safety against slope failure is most nearly:

a. 1.25 b. 1.5 c. 1.75 d. 2.0

37. A square foundation is to be placed on the surface of a saturated clay layer with the following

properties: sat = 120 pcf, c = 800 psf. The footing size B (m) required to support a

column load of 100 kips with a factor of safety of 3 is most nearly:

a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

38. A spread footing is located at a depth of 5 ft into a sandy soil. If the water table rises from

a depth of 15 ft to a depth of 5 ft, the factor of safety against bearing capacity failure would

be expected to:

a. decrease b. stay unchanged c. increase d. impossible to determine

39. A cantilever retaining wall is to be constructed with a horizontal backfill based on the

following: H = 10 ft, = 120 pcf, = 30

o

. The net resultant Rankine active soil force

(lb/ft) is most nearly:

a. 200 b. 400 c. 800 d. 2000

40. Compared to the coefficient of Rankines active earth pressure, the coefficient of Rankines

passive earth pressure is typically:

a. smaller b. about the same c. larger d. impossible to determine

CEEN 3160 Geotechnical Engineering Final Exam Fall 2010

w = (W

w

/ W

s

) x100% G = /

w

G

s

= W

s

/ V

s

w

wet

= W

t

/ V

t

d

=W

s

/ V

t

=

wet

/ (1 +w/100)

n = (V

v

/ V

t

) x 100% e = V

v

/ V

s

S = (V

w

/ V

v

) x 100%

Dr = [ (e

max

e) / (e

max

e

min

) ] x 100%

w

= 1 g/cc = 9.81 kN/m

3

= 1000 kg/m

3

= 62.4 pcf

C

u

= D

60

/ D

10

C

c

= D

30

2

/ D

60

D

10

PI = LL PL

GI = (F

200

35)[0.2 + 0.005 (LL 40)] + 0.01 (F

200

15)(PI 10)

U-line: PI = 0.9 (LL 8) A-line: PI = 0.73 (LL 20)

A

r

(%) = [ (D

o

2

D

i

2

) / D

i

2

] x 100% RQD = EL

4

/ Lt

q = k h N

f

/ N

d

Q = k

s

i A = k

s

(Ah/L) A v = k

s

I i = Ah / L

k = QL / Aht k = 2.303 ( aL / At ) log (h

1

/ h

2

)

k(cm/sec) = D

10

2

(mm) k = C [e

n

/(1+e)]

o

z

= E H u =

w

h u = -S

w

h

c

o

z

= o

z

u

Ao

v

= q {1 1 / [(R/z)

2

+ 1]

3/2

}

Ao

v

= q I

2

m = B /z n = L / z

T

v

= c

v

t / H

dr

2

U < 60%: T

v

= .25 t (U% / 100)

2

U>60%: T

v

=1.781-0.933 log(100-U%)

CEEN 3160 Geotechnical Engineering Final Exam Fall 2010

S

c

= [(C

c

H) / (1+e

o

)] log [(o

o

+Ao) / o

o

]

S

c

= [(C

s

H) / (1+e

o

)] log [(o

o

+Ao) / o

o

]

S

c

= [H / (1+e

o

)] [C

s

log (o

C

/ o

o

) + C

c

log (o

o

+Ao) / o

C

)]

C

c

= 0.009 (LL 10)

0.1 C

c

< C

s

< 0.2 C

c

OCR = o

c

/ o

o

t

f

= o

n

tan o o = tan

-1

( t

f

/ o

n

)

o

1

= o

3

+ Ao

D

o

1

= o

3

tan

2

(45+o/2) + 2c tan(45+o/2)

q

u

= P

max

/ A

f

C

u

= q

u

/ 2

F

S

= t

f

/ t

d

t

d

= c

d

+ o tan o

d

F

S

= ( c + o tan o) / (c

d

+ o tan o

d

)

F

c

= c / c

d

F

o

= tan o / tan

od

o

cr

= ( | + o

d

) / 2

c

d

= H m H

cr

= c

u

/ ( m )

q

u

= 1.3 c Nc Fcs Fcd + q Nq FqsFqd + 0.4 B N FsFd

Fcs = 1 + (B/L)(Nq/Nc) Fcd = 1 + 0.4 (Df/B)

Fqs = 1 + (B/L) tan o Fqd = 1 + 2 tan o (1 sin o)

2

(Df/B)

q = D

1

+ D

2

(

sat

w

)

q

u-net

= q

u

q q

all-net

= Q / BL = q

u-net

/ FS

Ka = tan

2

(45 o/2) Kp = tan

2

(45 + o/2)

o

a

= o

v

K

a

o

p

= o

v

K

p

P

a

= H

2

Ka P

p

= H

2

Kp

FS

O

= E M

R

/ E M

O

E M

R

= E (A

i

W

i

X

i

) E M

O

= P

a

H / 3

FS

SL

= E F

R

/ E F

d

E F

R

= ( E V ) tan o + Bc

a

+ P

p

E F

d

= P

a

SandSeparate,%

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