1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to A. Avoid buccal pulp horn B.

Avoid lingual pulp horn C. Remove unsupported enamel D. Conserve lingual dentine * 2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should A. Reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance B. Reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp* C. Reduce 2mm for retention form 3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid* B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly 4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. 5. The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed A. Parallel to the outer wall * B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth

6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is A. Injecting too low* B. Injecting too high 7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation A. SnF2 B. 1.23% APF C. H2SiF2 * D. CaSiF2E. 8% Stannous fluoride 8. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is A. H2O2 B. Phosphoric Acid C. Polyacrylic acid* 9. The most mineralised part of dentine is A. Peritubular dentine

10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he

had the swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health.The condition is A. Acute periapical abscess B. Angioneurotic oedema C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Acute maxillary sinusitis E. Acute apical periodontitis 11. Internal resorption is A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal B. Usually in a response to trauma C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal 12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see A. Surface resorption, external resorption B. Internal resorption C. Inflammatory resorption D. Replacement resorption E. A, C and D F. All of the above

13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make 0.5mm away from pulp is A. 20%

B. 50% 14. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is A. A reversal line B. Sharp curvature C. A resting line D. A reduction in the number of tubules 15. What is the correct sequence of events A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium,dentine formation then enamel formation. B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamelformation, elongation of enamel epithelium.C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast,dentine formation then enamel formation. 16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest indentine caries A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparativedentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation,sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine,demineralisation.

17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres A. Afferent & sympathetic

When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ 21. Distal 19. Review again later B.18. Lingual C. Extraction of tooth 22. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. Start endodontic treatment C. the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should A. Facial / buccal B. Mesial D. Obtain baseline response B. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping A. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth A. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture A. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality . In which direction does the palatal root of the upper firstmolar usually curve towards A. Following trauma to tooth. B. Perio abscess like appearance B. Displacement of fragments 20. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp C.

B. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present 26. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively. Use spore test daily .1ml of blood from HIV patient C. what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred** A. 0. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects D. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil 25. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient A. Cleaning debris from root canal 24. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours postoperatively E. Decalcification of dentine B.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0. 0. Patient commonly complains of post operative headache.23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics A. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation A. C.

Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each package C. Ludwig’s angina 29. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia 28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by A. Use color change tape daily and spore test monthly E. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Traumatic bone cyst C. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. Recurring oral infection D. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Use color change tape in each load and spore tests weekly 27. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is A. Fracture in the mandible first molar region E. Increased tendency to syncope E. Symphysis region . You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be present in A. Bell’s palsy B. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly D. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis.B.

Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket B. Left body of the mandible C. sub-condylar region 30. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Right sub-condylar region E. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are A. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor 31. Palpitations and malaise C. Left sub-condylar region D. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa . which method of treatment would you consider** A. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D.B.

Slow progressive enlargement E. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. followed by endodontic treatment. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. followed by tooth removal. E. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true** . Making a muco-periosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be accompanying A. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy. Making a muco-periosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone.C. Nodular consistency C. 33. Facial paralysis D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by A. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation 32. Lympha adenopathy B. Xerostomia 34. D. Curettage and dressing of the defect D.

Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Bradykinins B. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis.A. Peptides C. which of the following describes this role? A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin B. Enkephalins 36. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation 37. Endogenous morphine like substance which can control pain is known as** A. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis D. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. ruptured vessels C. Serotonins E. 35. Prostaglandins D. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling D. which of the following is not one of these factors . Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia butwill reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingualnerve C. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors E. They agglutinate and plug small. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase thechances of infection.

Kaposi sarcoma on the palate B. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the earlystages of the disease B. Hand. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine . Accumulation of tissue fluid E.A. Collection of neutrophils D. which of the following is the earliest finding A. Infection with pneumocystic carinii D. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia** A. Herpangina D. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes 38. foot and mouth disease 39. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain D. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified as an intra-epithelial lesion** A. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead E. In regards to HIV infection. Reduction in white cells count E. Presence of lymphocytes C. B cell lymphoma 40. Necrosis B. Herpes simplex infections B. The pain is usually unilateral C. Lichen planus E. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Reduced haemoglobin C.

Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B.41. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue 42. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissureG. Usually caused by Candida species D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surfaceF. manifests itself in the oral cavity as A. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas D. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated . Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia 43. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia A. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the centre of the tongue C.

Anterior dorsal surface C. its mechanism of action is A. a strong acid. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites** A. Radiation resistance F. Posterior dorsal surface D. has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers. Nervous disorder C. Type I allergic reaction B. Lipoma C. Haematoma E. Fibrous epulis D. Can not metastasise to the bone 45. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by A.A. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection. this is an example of A. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Giant cell granuloma B. Thermodynamic action . Local cutaneous invasion C. Side effect of the drug D. Trichloroacetic acid. Pulp polyps 44. Inability to invade bone D. Pyloric stenosis 47. Rapid growth and metastasis B. Lateral border anteriorly B. No preferred location 46. Lateral border posteriorly E. Poor prognosis E.

A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits** A. A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with . Decreased resistance to infection 49. Uterine neoplasia D. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of bloodclotting factors 50. Hepatotoxicity C. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Activation of tissue enzymes C. Protein precipitation PPT E. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B.B. Thrombo embolism disorder E. Osmotic pressure D. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Hypotension B. Neutralization 48. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Which of the following adverse reaction of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious A.

Bleeding time and factor IX level C. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease C. A multiple immunodeficiencies B. states that he has Von Willbrand’s disease. Which one of the following preoperative hematological analysis may reflect this disease A.radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. Bleeding time and factor VIII level B. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Susceptibility to infections D. WBC=100000. The patient whom you are about to treat. Monocytes=1%. Thyrotoxicosis C. Her blood analysis was as follows:HB=12gm. Eosinophils=0% .spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva and complains of weakness and anorexia. Diabetes B. Osteoporosis E. Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion E. Neutrophils=90%. The disease that you would immediately suggest is A. Hyperparathyroidism D. Adrenal insufficiency 51. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time 53. Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients 52. lymphocytes=9%.Platelets=250000. Typical features of Down’s syndrome (Mongolism) do notinclude A. A 22 year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy.

X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both side of a supportmaterial.The most likely diagnosis is A. Angle of the mandible B. The use of an open and lead lined cone E. Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by A. Silver bromide in gelatine D. Myelogenous leukaemia B. Jugulo-omohyoid crossing 55. Potassium bromide in gelatine . C6 vertebrae C. Gingivitis of local aetiological origin E. Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever C. Pernicious anaemia /Vitamin B12 deficiency 54. Silver nitrate crystal B. Jugulodigastric crossing D. ClavicleE. The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of A. Metallic silver in gelatine C. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP 56. The emulsion contains particles of A. The addition of filtration C. Thrombocytopenic purpura D. Collimation of the beam D. The use of fast film B. Silver nitrate in gelatine E.

2 metres .0s C. When no radiation shield is available. With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time A.0s D. 1 metre C. 2.5 metres B.25s. 0.25s E.5s B. Half the time C. 0. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance A. 1.5 metres D. No effect B. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance.57. 1.the exposure time was 0. Double D. the operator should stand out of the primary x ray beam and a distance from the patient’s head of at LEAST A. 0. Quarter E.125s 58. 0. Triple the time 59.

proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass thecontact area C.presents for treatment three hours after injury. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns should the depth for reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual surfaces A. Yes. No. all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown canbe seated E. the lingual surface needs greatest reduction 62. Which of the following should be considered . the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical bulge D. Polycarboxylate cement 61. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combinationpaste B. because of lateral constriction. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement D. reduction of all wall is similar for best retention B. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is A. Yes. Gutta-percha E.E. No. No. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed. Quick setting hydroxide cement C. 3 metres 60.

Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Maxillary and mandibular canines C. morphodifferentiation.mineralization B. histodifferentiation. Proliferation. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. mineralization D. histodifferentiation. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. morphodifferentiation. Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth development A. Pulpectomy and apexification 63.mineralization C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Mandibular molars 64. Initiation. Oligodontia E. Mandibular incisors D. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calciumhydroxide B.A. histodifferentiation. Ankylosis 65. Proliferation. morphodifferentiation. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle syndrome A. Initiation. histodifferentiation. proliferation. Maxillary incisors E. proliferation.mineralization . Maxillary molars B. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. morphodiffere ntiation. initiation. Enamel hypoplasia D. Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation and proliferation stages of tooth development A.

The lamina dura seen on periapical radiograph as . Use posterior capping E. Use fixed appliances B. Palatal displacement of upper canines C. assuming no primary teeth has been lost prematurely A. Overlapping of lower incisors B. Which treatment would be preferred A. Indirect pulp treatment C. Extraction B. Treat during growth D. Pulpectomy E. To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26 E. it is essential to A. Have adequate overbite C. Rotation of 16 and 26 69.66. Increase vertical dimension 68. Pulpotomy D. A healthy 6 year old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Antibiotic coverage 67. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars D. Which of the following are typical consequence of dental crowding.

Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility B. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been weakened D.A. B. Polymorphs and lymphocytes D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility E. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone 70. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status D. In testing for mobility. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia 71. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga E. Reliance on radiograph is essential . Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP B. Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket C. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes C. Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin white line. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis A. which of the following statement is true A.

Is frequently caused by lichen planus D. Is seen only at or after menopause C. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis E. D. Resistant to other antibiotic 74. 75. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. Aerobic B. hard surface. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently supplemented with tetracycline because flora involved is predominantly A. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease in oedema and bleeding E. Strictly anaerobic C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound which indicates a smooth. Facultative or microaerophilic D. It is caused by hormononal imbalance B. Is related to nutritional disturbance 73. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness B. Feel the top of the crestal bone . The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of rootplanning is by A. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis(Desquamative gingivitis) A.72. Probe pressure at the sulcus of pocket should not be more than enough to A. Use air for visual inspection C.

Has a round base B. Sterilise the root surface B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization andmaturation C. Provides good tactile sensitivity E. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues E. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care followingtooth eruption D. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries THE MOST EFFECTIVE is A. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surface in periodontal surgery is to A. Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit D. Is easy to sharpen C. Has two cutting edges 77. Prevents post operative infections 78. Has rounded cutting edges D.B. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation containing high concentrations of fluoride. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp C. Limit the lateral pressure 76. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation 79. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingival with minimal trauma to the tissues because of A. the major reaction is . Assist the biding of lamina dura E.

Aphthous ulcer C. Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions B. Sodium fluoride B. Pre-treat the enamel with 0. Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride D. Granuloma E. Temporal and lateral pterygoid .A. Medial pterygoid and superior instructor D. Use NH4F rather than NaF at a lower PH 81. which of the following statements IS INCORRECT regarding increasing the fixation A. Cysts D. In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close to which muscles A. Myeloma 82. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution C. Geographic tongue B. Several approaches have been suggested to increase the fixation of professionally applied topical fluoride. Stannous fluoride D. Calcium fluoride C. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of A. Fluorapatite 80. Medial and lateral pterygoid C. Buccinator and superior constrictor B.5% phosphoric acid E.

To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. Mesio. B. Distal pressure and movement D. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is A. 85. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made A. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars C. Temporal and medial pterygoid 83. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars E. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of thepatient. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old child. C. D. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclinationof the incisal guidance. Labial-lingual movement 84.Buccal in lower first molar 86. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether . you should use A. Rotation C. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars B. Disto-buccal in lower first molars D. Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement B.E.

The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction 87. Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable aftertreatment B. Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. Lateral pterygoid C. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture withdistal extension can best be avoided by A. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not available 88. Levator angulioris E. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibularcomplete denture A. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denturethe study cast A. Mentalis B. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays B. Temporal . There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for properretention of the crowns C. minimize the need for articulating C. Orbicularis oris D. Applying Stressbreakers B. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension D.A. which is best assessed clinically D. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension 89. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D.

A change in the condylar guide settings D. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspectthan the buccal C. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible B. 92. Trauma to extraction site B. Opening the articulator 4mm B. An increase in the rest vertical dimension 91. Impossibility for anterior try in . Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy A. You decide to increase the occlusal verticaldimension by 4mm this will necessitate A. the mandibular ridge will losemore bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch D. Increased the potential of infection C.90.The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator withouta face bow. Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. A new centric relation to be recorded C. Compared with the pre-resorption state. Following extraction of the molar teeth** A.

Streptococcus mutans utilise which subtract to form dextran A. Dextrans 95.D. Enamel must contain glycoproteins C. Sucrose D. Amylopectin E. Diet must contain polysaccharides E. For dental caries to progress in dentine A. some calcified dental tissues are presented A. Fructose C. Pulp must contain complement 94. Deciduous teeth only 96. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge 93. The dentine must contain soluble collagen B. All deciduous teeth and permanent central incisors C.Which one of the following statement is correct A. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars D. All deciduous teeth and all permanent incisors B. Glucose B. At birth. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle .

What are the points that determine the facial line in cephalometric points. Nasion. Mylohyoid B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum C. pogonion B. To distribute the load between teeth and ridges B. sella… 100. subnasale. Anterior temporal C. The whole mouth D. Same quadrant B. Anterior belly of digastric 98. Orbital. The relevant jaw C. To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the saddle . The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is A. The relevant quadrant 99. Posterior temporal D. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle D. “ The angle of the convex facial line” A. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle 97. What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers A. Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects the A.B.

Which is more retentive form for anterior bridge A. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength 101. Class III inlay with pins 104. Class V inlay C. What is Miller’s theory about A. Airway obstruction D. Acidogenic micro-organism B. Tooth under occlusal trauma shows A. Necrosis of the pulp C. Extension of the neck 105. What would not cause an airway obstruction A. All of the above 103. Triangulation E.C. which one of the following is true A. Bone resorption B. ¾ partial veneer crown B. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar . As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned. Flexion of the neck C. Proteolytic … 102. Laryngeal muscles paralysis B. Pinlay Veneer D. Hypercementosis D.

by moving the X ray tubedistally the canine moves distally too. C. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor. A 10 year old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halo on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars. A patient with impacted canine. he presents to you for . Maxilla to cranial base C. He has fever and pain in the ear. Mandible to porion E. small vesicles are found. Labially impacted B.B. The SNA angle on cephalogram. Mandible to cranial base B. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. best signifies the relationship of A. where do you expect theimpacted canine A. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. Palatally impacted 107. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Maxilla to mandible D. Maxilla to Frankfort plane 109. Herpangina 108. The MOST probable diagnosis is A. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth 106.

treatment two days after the injury.D. 111. Dentigerous cyst. Idiopathic failure of eruption. Direct pulp capping D. Idiopathic failure of eruption. Pulpectomy (RCT) 110. Which of the following should be considered A. surgical enucleation. Ankylosis of the molar. mutans concentration of 10 5 . A panoramic radiograph shows thealveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molarcrown and three fourth tooth developments. Ankylosis of the molar. Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries onmany teeth. S.5ml/minB. surgical soft tissues exposure andorthodontic traction. Which of the following laboratory results would bea possible indicator of this A. but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted. surgical soft tissues exposureC. removal of the first molar to allow the secondone to erupt into its place. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisorserupted.Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1. there are no otherradiographic abnormalities. surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molarE.B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 B. The most appropriate diagnosisand treatment plan in such situation would be** A.

Idiopathic failure of eruption. The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/B.5 112. give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2mouth wash. mutansD. An increased susceptibility to periodontal diseaseE. Locally debride. Salivary buffering PH 5. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisorserupted. surgical soft tissues exposureC.Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area.How would you manage this patient A. Decreased neutrophil functionB. Idiopathic failure of eruption. A panoramic radiograph shows thealveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molarcrown and three fourth tooth developments. 115. removal of the first molar to allow the secondone to erupt into its place.C. A lactobacilli concentration of 10 5 organism/mlE. Prescribe Metronidazole 100mgB. but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted. surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molarE. surgical enucleation. The most appropriate diagnosisand treatment plan in such situation would be A. Dentigerous cyst. there are no otherradiographic abnormalities. Refer for . MacrodontiaD. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down’ssyndrome A. 12 years old child presents with symptoms of widespreadgingivitis with bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. surgical soft tissues exposure andorthodontic traction.B. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scalingD. Carcinoma of the lips 114. Ankylosis of the molar. A plaque sample containing 5% S. Ankylosis of the molar.D. Congenitally missing teeth 113.organism/mlC. MacroglossiaC.

GlucoseB. In developing plaque. Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of acommunity water supply to optimum levels for cariesprevention. It is common to both animal and human 23 118. Provide a long term improvement in oral hygieneC. Endontic treatment or extractionB. Incision and drainage aloneC.haematological screeningE. ExtractionD. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess A. Reduce the need for patient cooperation 117. Plaque is considered as an infection because A. LactoseE. Prevent gingivitisE. FructoseC. Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment 116. Antibiotic therapy prevents or stop its formationB. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective becausedemineralisation has already startedC. Amylose 121. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decaysE. The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with 119. Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow andreduce PHB. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of lymphocytes in saliva and thus reduce decayD. Endodontic 120. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygieneD. Indication of bacterial activityC. Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay A. the adhesive polymer produced bystreptococcus mutans is synthesis from A. SucroseD. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30%B. What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular sixmonth intervals on children’s oral health A. Which of the following statement is correct .

VisuallyC. Cantilever using central incisorC. In regards to Electrical Vitalometer A. Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis 122. Class V amalgam 125. Reveal potential necrosis . Rocket bridge using central incisor as abutmentB. The same size 123. Whichstatement is correct A. Smaller than the real oneB. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony 127. Scrap the soften cementum and use GICC. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissuresD. Tooth decay declines by 45% to 55%C. Check response for an electrical stimulantC. To test recently erupted teethB. When repairing a fracture of lower complete denture. Cold curing will not be strong enough because of small area of attachmentC. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid 126. Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluorideB. A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be detectedby 24A. Self curing will distort the dentureB.A. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/ 124. Clinical /Proximal in some papers/ caries on radiographs areseen A. PercussionE. RadiographD. Tooth decay declines by 90% to 95%B. Recession of gingiva of several anterior teeth caused byexposure and softened cementum.You want to make a fixed bridge which of the following issuitable A. what would you do A. Patient with class II division II. Larger than the real oneC. the lateral incisor is missing. HistoryB.

What technique is used in the extraction of permanent 1 . Use flat end fissure bur to make it levelled 133. Death of the pulpB. Rheumatic fever 136. Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive A. Immediately after curingB. When do you finish campsite resin restorations A. Complete calcification of pulp chamberC. Use round bur to flatten the floorC. Self tapping threaded pinB. Von Willebrand’s diseaseB. Bacterial EndocarditisC. HyperaemiaD.128. Reconstructing the occlusal anatomy is based on A. Functional factorsB. A week after placement 134. Necessity to restore normal anatomy 132. All of the above 130. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation 129. Congenital cardiac diseaseD. RecklinghausenC. Under cut wallsD. Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavateB. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakageB. Von Willebrand disease is A. Should not be performed because it might damage the adjacent toothC. whichsituation acid itching should be placed A. Friction peak pinC. Pulp stone E. After 24 hoursC. Cemented pin 131. When preparing class III for composite restoration. When extra retention is requiredD. Neurofibroma 135. Haemophilic diseaseB. Where Café au lait spots are seen A. Depth of restoration on a toothC. In which situation the translucency of a tooth is lost A. How do you prepare floor of pulp chamber in molars A.

0 to 0.6% 142. 0.st molars A. Marginal ridge site 140. 2. 0. Narcotic analgeticsE. Sub-condylar of left sideC.40%D. Drugs contraindicated with Monoaminoxidas MAO 26A. 5% 27D. you expect a second fracture of A. Local Anaesthesia with felypressinD. Less shrinkageB. 1. BarbituratesB. 2.5 to 1%D. 15%C. 1. 21% . Fracture of symphysis 139. PethidineC. 18%D. The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately A. What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin A. Less surface erosionC. 12%B. Blow to mandible causing fracture in molar’s right sideregion. All of the above 141.1 to 0.5%C.5%C.1%B. Less water absorptionD. 3% 143. Salicylic acid 138. 10% 144. 0.5%B. 0. A volume shrinkage of methyl meta cyrelate monomer whenis polymerized** A. Internal fractureC.5%C. Lingual movementC.5%B. The un-polymerized monomer in Self-cured resin isapproximately** A. Buccal movement 137. Sub condylar of right sideB. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately A. Rotation movementB.1 to 1. What is the most common fracture of Class II amalgamrestorations A. Isthmus because of insufficient depthB.

In velation and packing ap??C. ResectionB. An increase of the qualityB. Excision and removal of adjacent teethE. Oil or water on impression for treatment casts causes A. What is Path of Removal A. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads. Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of A. Grinding only of the adjusted surface A. Require a flat crownC. What is Path of Insertion A. Should be felt flatE. if it is large lesion. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts topath of final rest positionB. limitedexcision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations. When correction preparation for re contouring of occlusalsurface is to be applied. Treatment of all of Giant Cell lesion either salivary ormultiple is A. Bubbles on the castE. Cold well??D.C.145. the floor of the occlusal rest should . IrradiationD. MarsupializationB. None of the above 148. Should not be felt flatB. Require no contact with adjacent teethD. A decrease of the qualityD. None of the above 151. None of the above 147. Surgical curettageE. None of the above 146. The movement of the appliance from the points of rest position until itis not in contact with teeth 149. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts topath of final rest position 28 150. Complete excision if it affects small area. No alterationC. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teethB.

Prolong GIC’s setting time can be achieved by A. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly loca?? Rigid parts of aframe workB. Fails to promote bone growthB. Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? of abutmentF. Slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? of abutmentC. None of the above 153. Rapid heating 157. Promote bone growth and maintenanceC. Aids in balancing occlusionB.A. Lack of compressionB. Fails to promote maintenanceD. Be concaveE. Depth of rest seats 154. In partial dentures the guidelines “Guiding Planes” serve to A. Be convexB. None of the above 152. Areas to be shaped to properly loc?? Rigid parts of frameworkC.a process that within limit A. The transfer of stress by Tensile Action employs T. Increase the amount of distilled water 158. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp 155. The most common failure in constructing porcelain to metalis A. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachmentE. Improper metal frameworkB. Assure predictable clasp retentionC. Areas used for retentionE. Areas used for guideline planesD. Which of the following arrears CAN NOT be determined bysurvey analysis of partially edentulous cast A. Areas used for supportF. Rough surface of porcelain /Porosity/ is a result of A. Cool down the slabB. . reaction. Slope from Contact?? of abutment towards the marginal ridgeD. Sudden high temperature 156. Form right angle with the occlusal planeD.

The best way for makingCantilever bridge A.The maxillary canine is missing. Overbite 161. “The combined pericemental area of the abutment teeth should beequal to or greater in pericemental area than tooth or teeth to bereplaced” 160. Incisors and premolars 159. Fovea Palatini. AestheticB. Type IIC. Using fluoride in the root surface caries is to protect A. Dentine and cementumC. Soft tissues changes 164. Both premolarsB. OcclusionB. Lost of teeth substance as a result of chemical exposure 166. Post damB. The stress-strain ratio within the proportional limit . OverjetC. Hard alloy “Type III” B. The stress at the proportional limitB. In regards to Gold casting alloys which one is available forbridge A. is a landmark to determine the posteriorbonds of upper denture A. The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is 30A. Process of normal wear of teethB. EnamelB. Cuticle 163. Ante in 1926 stated that A. Type I 162. Modulus of elasticity is defined as A. Why would you decide to replace the anterior missing teethfor partial denture using bridge A. Attrition is A. Ante’s Law: Dr. Flanges 165.

Lateral canals are usually found A. Are more resilient than plastic acrylicB. Swelling after RCT is mainly caused by “Being asked as Whatis the most frequent cause of pain which occurs several daysafter obturation” too . What is the common malignant lesion that occurs in the oralcavity A. themost likely diagnosis is A. Can minimize any bacterial colonies 168. Cracks in Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath 172. Osteosarcoma 174. Transillumination is used to** A. The position of cusps of maxillary first premolar duringsetting of teeth and on occlusal view is positioned** A. Pulp-stonesD. To find intrinsic tooth coloration B. Tissue conditioning material : (Silicon lining material) A. Squamous cell carcinomaC. The cause of development of lateral canals is A. Hemorrhagic pulpE. Over filled canals 169. Pulp stones 175. None 176. To detect cariesC. Calculus 173. MesiallyC. Replantation of avulsed tooth 2 ½ hours after incident. The canal not filled completely (Short obturation)B. Central buccolingually 170. DistallyB. Fist third of the root close to the crownC. Internal resorptionC.167. The emergency treatment for painless necrotic pulp is A. The most common cause of RCT “Root Canal Treatment”failure is A. AmeloblastomaB. The apical third 171. The middle of the rootB. Drainage through canalsB. External resorptionB.

Wax patterns ARE NOT to be left on the bench for long timebecause of A. Reamer 184. but Co-Chrome has high . DistortionB. GIC 179. Spray with Na-bicarbonateC. Not to survey when making the crown 188. The most resistant to heat 183. ConditionerB. Polyvinyl impression material are A. To smooth the rough surfaceB. When surveying A. Kine-matic face bow is used for recording (to locate) A. Why do you polish the teeth before seating of partialdentures 32A. 0. Pumice & water 178.75mmB. Pumice and waterB. What statement is false A. Lost of elasticity 185. The first step in the treatment of erosion is A. Barbed broachB. Slight touch in the balancing sideB. Over filled root canal 177. To remove the pulp tissue from narrow canal. To minimize the retention of plaqueC. Entrapped Bacteria. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests 181.B. 0. Hinge movement (position) axis 180. Tilt the cast 187.50mmC. Should not be in touch at all 182. Smooth broachD. The undercut for Cobalt Chrome’s retentive arm clasp is A. The contact between artificial and natural teeth in partialdentures A. How do you treat dentine before applying GIC A. you can use A. Under filling the root canal systemC. Small K-Type fileC.A. The most stableB. or the presence of bacteria in the periapicalregion.25mm 186. Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome. 0.

Overdentures are best used for A. To disclose the other rootsB. At the apexB. Retentive part of clasp position is A. Clasp arm is gingivally located 195. AsymptomaticB. 0. The ideal length of RCT is A. Both are trueC. Below the survey lineB. The first is true the second is falseD. Internal resorption of RC usually A. you will find A. As far as you can obturateC. To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture A.5 t0 1. Retentive part of clasp position is A. As close as possible to the gingival margins 192. Use mucco-compressive impression 194. Retentive Clasps A. As close as possible to the gingival margins 193. Canines and premolarsB. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol.5 mm before the apex 192.modulus of elasticity A. Posterior teeth 190. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimensionB. Alloy with high modulus of elasticityB. Mummification . Painful 196. Both are false 189. To observe tooth from different angle 191. Below the survey lineB. Above survey lineC. Above survey lineC. The first statement is false the second is trueB. NecrosisB. What is main reason of ordering another Periapicalradiograph of the same tooth A.

The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the rootcanal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha istermed A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 199. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC. One major Gutta Percha pointC. In melting gold. Corticosteroid 198. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of A. Laterally above condensed 200. what epithelial cells you can find A. In infected root canal. which part of flame we will use . negative percussion andnegative response to palpation 205. There is no caries. oedema of the upper lip with redness anddrynessB. AntibioticsB. In periodontal membrane. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interaction of afferent fibre synapses 204. Lateral CondensationB.197. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be A. negative thermal tests. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. Gate theory about pain control is A. Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by A. the two most common micro-organisms are A. Puffiness around the eyes. From inside to outsideB. Angioneurotic oedema A. Mechanical 203. From outside to inside 202.

To increase the stability of the lower denture A. In electro surgery. Better colour matching 212. Back pressure porosityB. The current intensity is too low 211. Reduced zoneB. Cracking of the investment 208. Oxidizing zone 206.A. Long path of insertion 213. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it A. Wrought metal is to be A. what will happen A. MarbleB. In young children what is the commonest finding after dentalcomplaint A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue B. the tissue may stick to the electrodebecause of A. Proprioceptors 210. Acute periodontal abscess . The lingual flanges should be concave 207. Overdenture advantage is** A. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crownis by A. Through the contacts. Contains micro filledB. TaperingB. If the investment is burnout rapidly. Dimensional inaccuracy 209. The current intensity is too highB. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. QuenchedC. 215. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam A. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies** A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing(annealed) 214.

0-3 mmC. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. Chronic periodontal abscessC. In periodontitis. Loss of periodontal attachmentC. mainly around the lowerbicuspid and anterior teeth. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. Periodontal membraneC. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up” A. Which of the followingwould be your preferred procedure . MasticationB. the most common finding is. ErythrocytesD. Tooth shapeC. Periodontitis occurs in A. Infra bony pocketB. Apical abscessD. “Main featureof suprabony pocket” A. Alveolar boneB. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment”in healthy mouth is A. Vertical bone resorptionC.B. Angular bone loss 217. 0-5 mm 219. 1-2 mmB. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. 2-3 mmD. Salivary flowE. FibroblastB. Vest cells of malaiseE. The commonest elements which are found in periodontalmembrane are** A. The oral hygiene is not good. Horizontal bone resorptionB. someareas of cementum appears to be soft. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. Oral flora 222. Epithelial cellsC. The term false pocket stands for A. Tooth inclination and crowdingD.

A. Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection A. ChlorhexidineB. H2O2C. EDTAD. Ethyl alcoholE. Eugenol 224. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root,what your first decision would be A. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic orradiolucencyB. Root canal treatmentC. ExtractionD. Apiectomy 225. What is the first thing to consider when you get a patientwith intruded 11 and 12 A. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. Advice patient about consequencesC. Leave it and observeD. X-ray 226. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect insome papers A. Traumatised teethB. Just erupted teethC. Multi-rooted teethD. Capped teethE. Necrotic pulp 227. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located A. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cusp

B. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccalcuspC. Under the disto lingual cusp

228. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with A. DiabeticsB. Rheumatic fever 230. Which is not an effect of I. SedationII. ExcitementIII. AnalgesiaIV. HypnosisV. General anaesthesiaA. None of the aboveB. All of the aboveC. I and IID. II and IIIE. I, IV and V

231. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of whichnaturally appearing product A. SerotoninB. HistamineC. Enkephalins 232. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen morewhen A. Injection in supine positionB. Injection into vascular area C. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD. Intravenous injection 233. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI); whichare is contra indicated I. BarbiturateII. Local anaestheticIII. Pethidine

IV. Acetyl salicylic acidA. All of the aboveB. None of the aboveC. I, II and IIID. II, III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. Which of the following may be caused by newly placedrestoration which interferes with the occlusion A. Apical abscessB. Pulpal necrosisC. Apical periodontitis

235. The most important factor in surgical removal of impactedteeth is A. Removal of enough boneB. Preoperative assessmentC. The flap designD. The use of general anaesthetic 236. The most important indication of malignant lesions is A. PainB. ParesthesiaC. Teeth movementD. Tooth resorption 237. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip; the most common cause is A. Pressure on mental foramenB. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles 238. The nerve supplies TMJ is A. Auricula Temporal NerveB. Nerve to masseterC. Facial nerve 239. In cleidocranial dysplasia; which of the following wouldexpect to find A. Early lose of primary teethB. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia 240. Uni-lateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occursfrequently with meal; what is the possible diagnosis A. RanulaB. Sub-mandibular sialolithC. CystD. Mucocele 241. Which two of the following conditions present as completevesicles A. PemphigusB. Herpes simplexC. Aphthous ulcerD. ANUGE. Erythema migransF. Erythema multiforme 242. Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines/Wickham’s Striae/ appears as lace-like network on the buccalmucosa; you diagnosis is** A. Lichen PlanusB. Keratosis follicularisC. White sponge nevus 243. How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A. TetracyclineB. Systemic penicillinC. Nystatin +

244. What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth A. 12, 22B. 35, 45C. 15, 25D. 33, 43

245. What is the percentage of leukoplakia that turn intocancer** A. 5%-6%B. 10%C. 25% 246. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are** A. Fordyce’s spotsB. Koplik spotsC. Geographic tongue

D. None of the above 247. Which of the following conditions is not classified as a whitelesion A. Fordyce’s granulesB. Smoker’s keratosisC. LeukoplakiaD. Lichen planus 248. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete dentureis a result of A. Deficiency of .. vitaminB. Low vertical dimension 249. The absence of lamina dura in radiograph is a feature of allof these except for** A. Paget’s diseaseB. HyperparathyroidismC. Fibrous dysplasiaD. Osteogenesis imperfectaE. Hyperthyroidism 250. Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present A. Regional lymph nodeB. FeverC. Cellulitis 251. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess A. Pain on percussionB. Pain when eating hot foodC. Pain when eating cold foodD. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray

ExcisionB. PolyetherB. Whichimpression material is preferred A. Administer adrenalineD. Inject insulin 253. BuccallyC. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pinsin a vital molar tooth. RadiationD. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed 257.252. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualitiesC. sequentially trituratedD. what type of amalgam mix would youprefer A. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratiosE. Vinyl polysiloxane 256. Thiokol or meraptan rubberC. moist mouth and weakpulse. How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma A. A large mix to ensure homogeneityB. Surgery and radiation 254. Administer O2C. Lingually 255. Condensation siliconeD. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resininterface is most likely . Give glucoseB. it will be two days before impressiongets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. RotationB. Several small mixes. Impression without elastomer in custom tray has been takenfor crown preparation. In which direction you would extract a deciduous uppermolar A. Excision and extraction of teeth C. what would you do A. Diabetic patient with moist skin.

The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgamsurface is A. Undergo greater colour changeD. Exhibit less wear on timeC. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 daysC. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the compositeC. 45-80°D. 45-60°B. Slight attrition of the opposing tooth 261. A major difference between light cured and chemical curedcomposite is that during setting or in function the light curesmaterial tends to A. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamelD.to be due to A. you wouldexpect A. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam youshould consider A. Salivary pellicle growth at the interfaceE. 70-85°C. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the compositeB. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been etched by an acid solution. 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceB. 130-150° 259. Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphidesB. 95-110°E. Posses greater fracture toughness 260. Setting contraction of the composite resin 258. Seal the margins better and completelyB. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cuspsC. . Continued enamel declassification in the etched areaD. Shrink rapidlyE.

None of the above 264. All of the above E. I and IIIC. Radiopaque areaB. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface 265.which one of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE means forverifying adequate occlusal clearance A. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth. Articulating paper . Visual inspectionD. IV only 263. 4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface 262. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp A.4mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceD. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surfaceC. the more number of cuttingblades and low speed will result in A. In radiographs. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing theocclusal surface of class II cavity on a mandibular firstpremolar in order to I. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp hornIII. Larger in radiographs than actual lesionD. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surfaceC. III and IVE. Remove unsupported enamelII. Wax bite chew inB. I and IIB. an incipient carious lesion limited to the endof the proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as A. In regards to carbide burs. More efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceD. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceB. II and IVD. Proper depth cutsC. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp hornIV.

An acute angleB. copper and zincB. A right angleD. Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip. An angle of 45° 268. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavitywalls in a class II preparation for amalgam should be finished A. Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instantrelief C. His body temperature is 39°. What is the firstthing you would do after taking history and temperature A. Refer him to physicianB. the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that ismixed with mercuryE. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swellingD. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals.C. tin. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teethE. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals.266. The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is . Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced 269. fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips onthe left side. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been dissolved ineach other in the molten state. An obtuse angleC. one of them is mercuryD. one of them is tin 267. The swollen area issoft. Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM A.

Excessive firing temperatureC. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacketcrown is A. Dependant upon periapical surgeryD. One or two canals with one foremanC. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healingD. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain 274. Two canals with two foremen 273. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLYhave A. PoorB. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for properretention of the crownsC. The term TUGBEN?? is related to : “When used in connectionwith a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics” A. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatmentof the canal 270.A. Size of the coneD. One canal with one foremanB. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the idealroot filling A. Tensile strength of the gutta perchaB. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritationB. Length of the cone 271. Two canals with one foremanD. Moisture contaminationB. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain foradequate periodontal supportD. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatmentB. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mmE. Consistency of gutta perchaC. the aesthetic appearance . Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete sealC. Failure to anneal the platinum matrixD. The extension of the filling is not critical 272. Excessive condensation of the porcelainE. The main factor controlling a decision to increase theocclusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction iswhether A. Good if apex can be sealedC.

5mmE. A connector connects a pontic to a retainer or two retainers to eachotherC. A retainer could be a crown to which a bridge is attached toB. Lighten the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cementB. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage 277. Have no detrimental colour effectD. In bridge work. 1. Overall conservative for tooth structureC. Less laboratory time 276. One third of the dentine thickness 278. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thicknessB. compared wit fullceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is A. Lighting angle is differentB. 1mmB. which of the followings terms is NOTCORRECT A.of the patient will improve sufficiently towarrant the planned reconstruction 275.5 mmD. 2. The gingival portion of natural tooth differs in colour fromthe incisal portion because the A. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on thelingualC. The full thickness of enamelC. The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aestheticswith porcelain fused to metal crown is A. the effect isgenerally to A. An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns. Incident light is different 279. Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualitiesC. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the pontic . Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teethD. In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges. Gingival area has a dentine backgroundD.

Stress breakingD. the minorconnector refers to** A. Flexible components. Prevent settling of major connectorsC. Restrict tissue movement at the distal . the principle of an indirectretainer is that A. A pontic is an artificial tooth as part of a bridge 280. in contrast to rigid major connectorsC. Mechanical burnishingC. Rigid components anterior to the premolar teethB. but in themouth the casting is open approximately 0. Making a new impression and remaking the crownE. Hand burnishingB. ReciprocationC. The means by which one part of a partial denture frameworkopposes the action of the retainer in faction is** A. Relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to allow forfurther seating 281. The components of the denture base which provides reciprocation 282. In removable partial denture. TripodingB. Indirect retention 283. Using finishing burs and points to remove the enamel margins on thetoothD. When describing a removable partial denture. Stabilise against lateral movementB.will lie and comes in contact with ponticD. A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the die. A satisfactoryfit and accurate physiological close of the gingival area of thecrown can BEST be achieved by A.3mm. Smaller connectors which connect denture components to the majorconnectorD.

Ductility was too lowB. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hardand soft palateD. Plaque accumulation is less than lingual plateC. mouth and gingivalmargin is minimalB. Adhesive is preferred over perforationB. It is used when the space between raised floor. Why do you construct a lower removable partial denture withlingual bar A. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue 284. Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth 286. Perforation provides adequate retentionC. Apply retentive force into the body of the teethB. The Fovea Palatinae are A. Be invisibleD.extension base of the partialdentureD. When a removable partial denture is terminally seated . Tension temperature was too high E. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom tray for elastomeric impression A. Closely related to the rugae of the palate . Hardness was too greatC. Elastic limit was exceeded 285. Foramina covering the lesser palatine nerves and vesselsB. Should be make thicker when short 288. Morphologically related to the formation of the premaxillaC. Exert no forceC. Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture claspduring its clinical use probably indicates that the A. Ultimate tensile strength was too lowD. Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth 287. theretentive clasps tips should A. Adhesive is applied immediately before procedureD.

Sulcus depthC. Increased the potential of infectionC. AmalgamB. Tight filling of gingival collar 295. The gingivae of child is diagnosed on the basis of all of theseexcept of A. Contour of gingival papillaB. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be rinsedoff teethB. Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in A.289. Contour of Nasmyth membraneD. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticleB. Excessive resorption of residual ridge 292. Alveolar bone resorption is reducedD. Impossibility for anterior try inD. 294. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off teethC. Which one of following statement about Overdenture is notcorrect A. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can notbe rinsed off the teethD. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off teeth. Which statement BEST prescribe plaque A. Trauma to extraction siteB. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediatecomplete denture therapy A. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting themfrom caries and periodontal diseases 291. the last secretion of the . Von Willebrand’s syndrome 293. Composite resin 290. Retention and stability are generally better than with conventionalcomplete dentureC. HyperparathyroidismB. Which of following restoration material its strength is noteffected by pins A. Which one of the following statement is correct A. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patientB. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be rinsed off the teethE.

299. The elastic limit may be defined as the ** A. Rank the following impressions materials according to theirflexibility A. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticleD. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured beforefailureC. Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>SiliconeD. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle 296. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashingstrengthD. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation of astructureD. It is accumulative and cause liver poisonB. Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide . A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength 297. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failureB. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashingstrengthB. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashingstrength C. In regards to the glass of quartz particles of fillingrestorative resin. It induces neoplasia in the liverD. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide EugenolB. the microfill resins tend to have A. It is accumulative and cause brain poisonE.odontoblast is cementum XC. Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour formbecause of A. It induces neoplasia in the brain 298. Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide EugenolE. Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide EugenolC. It is accumulative and cause kidney poisonC. Minimum stress in structureE. Maximum strain that can be measured.

Solvent evaporation 303. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crown fabrication A. Chrome cobalt castsB. The strength of the stone D. Hyaline cartilageC. Acid-Base reactionB. Nickel chrome castsC. Wrought gold 305. InitiatorB. highly fibrous tissueB. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of thedies.Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of** A.300. Dimer 301. Growth of glass crystalsD. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the originalimpressionC. Slip plane lockingE. InhibitorD. the powder is referred toas** A. Chondroitin-6-phosphateD. 302. The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular jointare lined with A. Highly vesiculated tissues 304. When all other removable partial denture considerationremains unchanged. They lack accurate reproduction of surface detailsB. Denture resin are usually available as powder and liquid thatare mixed to form a plastic dough. A specially adapted. PolymerC. Wrought stainless steelD. MonomerE. Addition polymerisation reactionC. Which one of the following types of pain is most likely to beassociated . clasps constructed of which material canbe engage the deepest under cut A.

All of the above . 2 ppmC. Necrosis of the pulp 308. Child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantityof sugar. When immature permanent molars that have been treatedwith Ledermix pulp capping. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surfaceD. Report the patient is having expectorantC. Associated with muscle tendernessD.with cranio mandibular disorders A. Same as condylar guidanceD. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetenerB. How many ppm “ Part Per Million” of fluoride are present inwater supply in case of temperate climate** A. Mechanical equivalent at the compensating curveC. Give him inverted sugar 309. 1 ppmB. Estimated by the equation: Incisal guidance = 1/8 of condylarguidance 307. Give him the syrup during sleep timeD. the best way to help preventing caries is A.2 ppm 310. Chronic inflammation of the pulp B. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp chambersB. 1. the most probable pathology is A. 8 ppmD. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper andlower incisorsB. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areasC. Associated with trigger spots related to the trigeminal nerve 306. Keeps patient awake at nightC. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the** A. Exacerbated pain by hot or cold foodB. The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth are A.

Pressure for 2 to 3 secondsC. The most resistant filling materials to fill class IV cavities are A. 50 mlD. Neuromuscular receptorsE. Thinner boneC. Turning the needle 90° between two aspirations 314. TMJF. TeethB. How would you extract 35 A. The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateralincisor is A. Laterally above condensed 315. What the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine withoutvasoconstrictors** A. ProprioceptorsD.311. One major Gutta Percha cone B. you apply A. Why the method of extracting lower 8’s by directing theextraction lingually is used** A. 100 ml . Laterally condensedC. RotationB. sharp pressure backwardsB. All of the above 316. Receptors in periodontal membraneC. What is the best way to apply aspiration before injection A. Short. What controls the occlusion** A. Silicates 312. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agentB. With dentin bonding agent. LinguallyC. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent 313. 10 mlC. Bonding agent directly to dentineC. 5 mlB. Long pressureD. Resins with glass or quartzC. Because of the roots directionB. Resins with silicone dioxide (SiO2)B. Silico-phosphateD. Lingual deviation 318. Labially 317.

Pulp cappingB. Incorrect design 324. Setting and hydroscopicB. What are the most common errors when constructing partialdenture A. Resin-metalB. Lingual pocketsC. Treatment of gangrenous tooth A. Occlusal anatomyB. Produce chelationD. Mesial pocketsD. Sinuous 325. what is TRUE A. Buccal pocketsB. Not necessarily produce acid 327.319. What factor do you consider the most important whenstoring the occlusal part of a tooth A. Function 326. Below the height of contour B. Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often A. Next to gingival margins 322. Distal pocketsE. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth 323. Bad positioning of the occlusal restsC. Resin layer 320. Resin enamelC. Pulpotomy . Where is the retentive position on tooth according to thesurvey line A. In regards to distal free end saddle. Root canal therapyC. Produce acidB. Strength and rigidity 321. All dental plaque** A. Produce cariesC. Improper surveyB. What is the function of gypsum-binder in the investment** A. Which periodontal pockets are evident on periapical x rays A.

CarboxylateD. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the generalpopulation. Mesio angular horizontalB. Which Nerve is anesthetised in anterior border of ramus and1 cm above occlusal plane of lower posterior teeth A. Tooth under occlusal trauma shows A. TriangulationE. ZoE paste will accelerate healing 335. Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontaldisease** A. orthodontics problem and hearing lossD. A communicable diseaseC. All of the above 330. Bone resorption B. Lingual nerveB. Systemic diseases have no effects on itE. More common in males than femalesC. In an X ray. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healingD. Long buccal nerve 332. HypercementosisD. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)C. Ca(OH)2C. the mesio buccal root of upper first molars iselongated which is the result of A. Necrosis of the pulpC. Which of the following is false in regards to CleftPalate A. Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia A. Too big vertical angulationC. Zinc Oxide and eugenol ZOEB. May be submucousB. DiazepamB. Inclusion of platinum foilB. Zinc phosphate cement 329. 334. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is A. Which material is not compatible with composite resin A. Voids of porcelain . Use of weak cementumC. Too small vertical angulationD. Phenytoin 331. High angulation 333. Predispose to speech defects.328. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosisB. ErgotamineD.

PulpectomyC. Be clear of soft tissuesC. Tacky adhesive to wallsB. Where is the biggest thicknessB. Labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold coreporcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch. thecrown will appears A. Not at all 341. PulpotomyD. Dental cariesC. 24 hours after applicationB. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgamB. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm 336. the right treatment is A. Not irritatingD. ShortB. Acids 343. Immediately after applicationC. Which is NOT characteristics of canal filing materials“obturation material” A. ChelationB. The best location of pin in class II inlay is A. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is . Caries which is close to the pulp chamber. Dental plaque produces A. Radio opaqueC. 3 to 4 daysD. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished A. on x rays you finddent in dent. Just in contact with soft tissues 337. Wide 338. Slightly compress soft tissuesB. Contact area 340. 3 to 4 weeksE. NarrowD. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam 342.D. LongC. Mesial and distal angleC. Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be A. Quick in setting 339.

2mmD. Better tensile strengthD. Rheumatoid arthritisD. IVD. for aesthetic considerations 349. Dryness of the eyesC. Friction lockedB. May cause tooth cracking 345.5mmC. Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by** A. Etching techniques are used always to A. 1. In which class of cavities do composite restorations showmost durability A. IIIE. All of the above 350. AgranulocytosisB. Paraesthesia 352. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp withamalgam A. BleedingC.5mm 347. Sjogren syndrome is characterised by A. Too expensiveC. Candida Albicans 351. Higher and immediate compressive strength 344. Dryness of the mouthB. what is important about theapplication of the matrix band: “the question has shown too as…. 2. Why Class IV gold can not be used in cavity as a fillingmaterial . 1mmB. Small lingual pulpC. IIC. Not all sizes availableD. The mesial concavity of the root surfaceB.What is complicated by” A. IB. Better marginal sealingB. Upper premolar with MO cavity. Less corrosionC. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is A. PainB.A. minimise the leakage of restorationsB. High lingual pulp hornE. Concavity of distal root surface 348. V 346. High buccal pulp hornD. The most common characteristic symptom of malignanttumours occurring in lower jaw is A.

TMJ problemE. Hard 18%B. If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture. Slight tiltingC. The type of gold that used for dental bridges is A. 7 and 6 361. LeukoplakiaB. Lower compressive strength 357. Type IV 75% 354. Hard in room temperatureC. 8. Blister formationB. Higher flow in room temperature 356. Long buccal nerve 360. 8. your diagnosis would be . In regards to Partial dentures. Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies ** A. Lingual NerveB. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetize A. how do you establish reliablevertical dimension A. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude 355. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/ 359. Patient complains of itching and vesicles on the upper labium (Vermillion region) every year. All of the above 358. 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6B. the mostuncommon result is** A. The corrosive properties 353. Loss of contacts B. Post operative painC.A. Low temperature solidifying pointB. In regards to indirect compare to direct wax technique** A. Which is not a malignant lesion A. The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can showas A. Pocket formationD. Can not be polished “burnished” B. Secondary cariesD.

Electric pulp testC. Denture stomatitis is treated with A. Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmedby . Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosisC. Cotton woolB. Smooth rete pegsB. Paget’s disease shows in the early stages in jaws A. Recurrent ulceration aphthaeC. Abscesses 369. Granulomas. Mycostatin 364. Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of A. The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is A. Impetigo 362.A. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer 363. Extra oral swellingC. Tenderness of tooth to pressureB. CystsC. Ground glassC. Intermittent pain 368. Orange peelD. Herpes simplexB. The most serious complications which may occur fromabscess of max canine is A. Beaten copped 365. Damage to infra orbital nerves 366. Tetracycline lozengesC. Cavernous sinus thrombosisC. Lacrimal duct stenosisD. RadiographsB. CellulitisB. cysts and chronic periapical abscesses maymostly be differentiated by A. PericoronitisB. BiopsyD. What is the typical feature of Lichen planus ** A. AmphotencinB. Thermal 367.

Patient is more susceptible to infectionB. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operationC. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and ahistory of steroid therapy.A. AnxietyB. A patient whose hands fell warm and moist is MOST likely tobe suffering from ** A. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortexC. The dentist should consult the patient’sphysician because A. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment . Microscopic examination of smearsB. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently A. In the maxillaC. TetracyclineC. he presents formultiple extractions. PenicillinB. Blood countD. until a week ago. At the mandibular symphysis 372. Patient will need haematological evaluation 373. Serological exam 370. Congestive cardiac failureC. Streptomycin 371. indicate the pre-operative regimen** A. Near the angle of the mandibleB. Thyrotoxicosis 374. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditisrequires prophylactic administration of antibiotic prior toremoval of teeth. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orallyB. BiopsyC. Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result intooth discolouration A.

Aplastic anaemiaD. oralexamination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. she has painfulcervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c. ChlorhexidineC. MumpsE. GlutaraldehydeD. Quaternary ammonium 379. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infectionarising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all thefollowing EXCEPT A. What is theMOST LIKELY diagnosis A. Leukaemia . Sever uncontrolled diabetesC. The most potent viricidal properties: “another format of thesame answer: Indicate which of the following has viricidalproperties ” A. MeaslesB. Herpetic gingivostomatitisD. Sodium hypochloriteB. Herpes zoster virusD. Alcohol 70%E. Erythema multiformC. Herpes simplex virusC. Stevens-Johnson syndrome 376. A 12 year old girl complains of sore mouth. Aspirate before injectionB. AgranulocytosisB.To reduce the side effects risk of local anaestheticinjections. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitisis A.375. Inject rapidly 378. Borrelia vincentii 377. you should follow all of the following EXCEPT A. Use the weakest efficient percentage strengthD. Herpes simplex bacteriaB. Use the smallest effective volumeC.

GICC. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of ** A. Sharp explorerF. 24 times a minuteC. Viral infectionD. Poor analgesics affects 382. Mast cellsB. 12 times a minuteB. Wrought base metal crown 384. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesC. Bitewing radiograph E. CandidosisC. Submandibular sialolith 388. ActinomycosisB. Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia A. Epithelial cells 385. Composite resinD. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in ** . The final material you use for endodontically treateddeciduous molars is ** A. Avoid OsteomyelitisB. Emotional reactionC. EosinophilsD. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe/C. X-RayB. Control pain 387. At what rate is closed chest cardiac compression should be inan adult ** A. Adverse affects on liverC. Study cast 383. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised** A. 50 times a minuteD. AmalgamB. Antidepressants drugsD. Which type of cells does an abscess contain A. Periodontal markerD. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentrationB. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to ** A. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a generalanaesthetic agent because of** A. Sjogren’s syndromeB. 80 times a minute 381.380. Keratocyte 386.

Occlusal traumaB. Chronic inflammatory periodontal disease originates in A. Wavy 394. Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease A. Heart diseaseB. Injecting without a vasoconstrictorD. A patient with an acetone odour would be suspectedsuffering from A. MandibleD. Liver damageC. ElasticB. Diabetes 391. CalculusC. Injecting in supine positionB. Sjogren’s syndrome 390.A. Maxilla 396. The crystal alveolar boneC. Injecting in vascular areaC. Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to ** A. Oral lichenoid reactionC. LevityE. Alveolar boneB. MOST common consequence arising from prematureextraction of . Aphthous ulcerationD. Cervical cementum 392. Intravenous injections 395. If a child’s teeth do not form. StriatedC. Coarse food 393. Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres A. Pemphigus vulgarisE. Cicatricial pemphigoid 389. MucoceleB. Non striatedD. Herpes simplex infectionB. Brushing habitsD. this would MOSTLY affects thegrowth of ** A. The marginal gingivaB. Which of the following is LEAST to cause toxicity from localanaesthetic injection A. Mumps C. Whole faceC.

Ice creamB. Reduced OverjetD. Distal to the first molar 398. Which is present in Angel’s Class II division 2 malocclusion A. Which of thefollowing figures is incorrect** . The amount of fluoride required to reduce caries according toage and level of fluoride in drinking water. After the age of 6 years.deciduous molar is A. At the symphysisB. Several application has been suggested to increase theeffectiveness of prophylactic application of topical fluoridewhich include all EXCEPT A. Increased overbite 399. Increase Fluoride ions in solution “increase concentration” B. Canned juiceC. Sweet potato 402. Retrusion of maxillary central incisorsC. the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occurs A. Loss of facial contour 397. Pre-treat enamel with 0. the maximum safedose of 2% lignocaine solution for 70Kg adult is A. Increase exposure time to topical fluorideD. Increase PH of fluorideC.2mlB. When injecting without vasoconstrictor. 22ml 400. Open biteB.5% phosphoric acidE. Loss of arch lengthB. Cough syrupsD. 2. Between caninesC. Loss of speech soundC. Which of the following ahs the highest sucrose content A. Use NH4F instead of NaF 401. Breakfast cerealE.

X-rayB. 406. Thumb suckingB.A. Tongue thrust habitD. The major etiological factor responsible for Class II division2 malocclusion in Angel’s classification is** A. 3 years old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in drinkingwater is 0. PulpotomyB. Growth discrepancyC. 1 year old child requires no fluoride when the fluoride in drinkingwater is 0.5mg 403. Ankylotic primary second molar in the mandible is notalways a good space maintainer because of A. Control bleeding and check after a monthD. Put it back in place and splintC. what wouldyour treatment be** A. Whattreatment would you do to the deciduous tooth A. Skeletal cause (discrepancy) 404.3PPMB.7PPMC. Make the patient comfortable without disturbing the tooth. It does not keep up with the rest of occlusion 405. Mesial inclination of the 1 st permanent molarB. Tooth to jaw size discrepancyE. Pulp capping . An upper deciduous molar has a caries exposure and on Xray the corresponding 2 nd permanent premolar is absent. Preschool child has an intruded upper incisor. Endodontic treatmentC. 6 years old child requires 1mg of fluoride when drinking watercontaining 0.

PlaqueC. Interradicular septumB. PolishC. Several months or longer 414. The MOST cause of gingiva. How many pulp horns are presented in a typical mandibulardeciduous second molar A. How long does it taketo achieve this change A. Restorative material 411. After prophylactic treatment. Massage of the interdental papillaeD. Palatal epitheliumC. What is the likely cause A. 4D. How can you improve the adhesion of a fissure sealant A. The advantage of using dental floss over rubber pointinterdentally A. Where is the MOST probable place of bone resorption after adeciduous molar has a pulpal gangrene A. Acid etching technique 412. CalculusB. MannitolB. The periapical area 408. CariesD. Which one of the following is a non-calorie sweetener A.407. SaccharinC. Aid and recognise subgingivally 413. Herpes labialis . 5 409. 6 year old child who had a history of primary herpes simplexhas got a recurrent infection. irritation is A. 2B. Attached gingiva 410. you decide to change the florato a non-acidogenic by changing the diet. All of the following are keratinised EXCEPT of A. Xylitol 415. Few weeksB. Remove plaque and debris in interproximal surfacesB. Free gingivaE. Alveolar mucosaD. 3 C. Crevicular epitheliumB.

A newly placed restoration interferes with occlusion. Community Periodontal Index of Treatment needs 423. PeriapicalC. Must be at the right angle of the tooth 424. Bisect the middle of gingival papillaeC. NarrowB. OcclusalD. PeriodontosisD. What is the most important function of periodontal ligament A. The periodontal ligament in a teeth without use appear to be A. Cervical wall is too deeply apicalE. All of the above 419. Food particles retentionC. Wide 421. Overextension of lining in cavity 418. Vertical incision of mucoperiosteal flap should be A. Angular type of bone resorption can be seen more often in** A. Not properly polished restorationD. Whatwill be the periodontal response A. Faulty or not proper contourC. Always extending to the alveolar mucoperiostealB. Flat ridgeB. Provide nutrition 420. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment followed byatrophy of . Protect alveolar boneC. Panoramic 422.Thickening of the periodontal membrane 417. Which radiographic method would you use in assessingperiodontal conditions and lesions A.416. Keep teeth in the socketB. Occlusal traumatismB. BitewingB. What does CPITN stand for A. In class II restoration. all of the following considered tooccur as probable causes of periodontal problems except A.

The width of normal periodontal ligament space is A. Coarse food 430. CementomaC. True pocket 425. Gingival cleftD. Interdental papillaeB. Acquired pellicleB. Mechanical interlockingE. Interlocking to the crystals of the toothC. wear and aging of the patientD.25 to 0. The marginal gingiva 429. Occlusal traumaB. Which is the MOST local factor in the aetiology of periodontaldisease A. Periodontal pocket recessionC. All of the above 426. CalculusC. 1mm 427. Odontoma 431. False periodontal pocketB. Which of the following factors can affect the shape andsize of the pulp canal A. Calculus attaches to teeth surface by** A. Chemical irritation and cariesB. Attrition.5mmB. Penetrated into enamel and dentineD. 45° to the tooth in an apical direction 428. CystB. Trauma and functionC. Incisive foramen when are superimposed over apex of rooton radiograph may be mistaken to be A. Brushing habitsD. Following a periodontal surgery. The MOST common place for initiation of gingivitis is A.marginal gingiva at the same level results in A. The attached gingivaD. periodontal dressing will . 0. The incision angle in Gingivectomy is A. All of the above 432. The free gingival ridgeC.

Enhance the rate of healingD. Buffering action 434. Decrease the patient’s discomfortC. “Low MAC. Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancyC. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxiaD. Radiolucent area radiographicallyB. It cooperates into plaque and resits acid demineralisationB. Max Anaesthetic Concentration” B. Probe in mesial distal and mid facial areas of suspected tooth 437. The MOST cariogenic sugar is A. What is the MOST important role of saliva in preventingdental caries A. It is good aesthetic and low MAC 439. Which is CORRECT about the Lingual Nerve A. A patient comes with a lactobacillus of more than 100000. N2O has high analgesic property and low anastatic at its minimumanaesthetic dose. Lingual nerve is anterior and medial to inferior alveolar nerve 440. Fluoride prophylaxis paste has been clinically proven to be moreeffective preventing caries 438. Which of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide N2O A. Control bleeding and maintain blood clot 433. Which local anaesthetic agent is preferred for a confirmedhypersensitive patient . Reduce sugar in diet 435. Sucrose 436.A.what is your advice A. How to detect the furcation involvement A. What is TRUE about topical fluoride** A. Help in tissue adoptionB.

Moist heat sterilizationB. All of the following are requirements of an adequate mucosalperiosteal flap except** A.The first thing to do after surgical removal of impacted 3 rd molar in the mandible is** A. It kills all pathogens but not spores. Sterilize. Soak them in hypochlorite solution “Milton” B. The MOST common side effects of local anaesthetic is aresult of A. Handle them with two pairs of household rubber glovesD. What is the mode of action of autoclaving “Moiststerilisation” A. Which is TRUE about disinfectant solution** A. It reduces the number of micro organism to a non infective levelC. scrub and sterilizeC. Base containing blood supply 446. 3% prilocaine with felypressinB. What to do with instruments after surgically treating apatient with confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B** A. Intravascular injectionB. It destroys all pathogenic micro organism including high resistantB.A. Mucous membrane is carefully separated from periosteumC. 443. Scrub them with iodine surgical solution 444. Hypersensitivity 442. Cold application from the outside . Mepivacaine 3% without vasoconstrictor ** 441. Protein denaturation 445. Base is wider than the free marginB.

TumourB. Referred painC.447. Insisting that you extract hislower teeth. OdontalgiaB. What extractiontechnique would you use to avoid the inadvertent removal of adeveloping bicuspid A. 30 years old male complains of painless swelling in thebuccal mucosa. Section the tooth vertically and remove each root separately 448. It has been present for about six months. A young female patient presents with throbbing pain in theleft lower posterior jaw with trismus and associatedlymphadenopathy. Headmits “playing with it”. You diagnosis is A. Pericoronitis 449. He is . What would be your diagnosis A. Patient presents to you with a history of local pain in thelower right posterior region. Trigeminal neuralgia 450. Anterior part of digastricB. Buccinator 451. A primary molar with relatively un-resorbed rootsencompassing the permanent tooth bud. Which of the following are not supplied by the mandibulardivision of trigeminal ** A. The teeth in question are vital without anypathology. Masseter muscleC.

Irritation fibroma 452. the most likely diagnosisis A. the patient is taking this antibiotic forthe past two weeks. has induratedmargins. buccal mucosa andthe tongue. covered by greyish-whiteexudate. The base is narrow. enlarged lymph nodes and tender.5 cm in diameter. MOST . Chancre /Primary lesion of syphilis/ 453. negative tuberculintest and positive serology. 1. The diagnosis is ** A. slightly elevated.concerned because this mightrepresent cancer. Prior to this thefamily physician prescribed chlorite tetracycline for an upper respiratory infection. ulcerated. A patient is complaining of an open sore on the buccalmucosa. adhere plaques on the lip mucosa. lesions are relatively non-painful. An old male presents complaining of having numerous whitelesions in the oral cavity within past few days. The lesion is painless.

456. White skinned peopleB. High malignant potentialB. Alcoholic and smokersC. Intensive involvement / inveterately characteristic/D. Where does the bone resorption show in a necrosis pulp of deciduous molar A. What is the significance of erosive lichen planus ** A. It reacts far simply to radiotherapy 455. On the buccal side of the toothD. Moniliasis /Which is candidiasis/ 454. Soft papillomatous mass. Correlating with other pathogenesis lesions of AIDS and does notresolve to periodontal conventional treatment.LIKELY to be A.B. Sever pain 457. Radio resistant 458. Characteristic of Squamous Cell Carcinoma ** A. The characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is A. How can differentiate between a benign epithelial tumourfrom a carcinomatous one A. not indurated or not fixed /Move freely/ andpedunculated. On the lingual side of the tooth . Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet. Does not erode boneC. What is the characteristic feature of gingivitis in AIDSpatient ** A. At the bifurcationC. Some malignant potential 459.C. At the root apexB. Blood metastasisB.

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