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CET 2010 / Chemistry 1

CET - 2010

Question paper with Solutions


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CET 2010 / Chemistry 2


60 Questions
60 Marks
Duration: 70 Minutes



CET - 2010 Chemistry
(Version – D1)
Question paper with keys & Solution

1. In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively ___________
(1) +3, +6 (2) +3, +2 (3) +2, +3 (4) +2, +6
Ans (3)
Chromite ore : FeO.Cr
2
O
3

Oxidation state Fe is +2 and Cr is +3
2. For the reversible reaction
) g ( ) s (
B A + C
(g)
+ D
(g)
: ∆G° = − 350 kJ.
Which one of the following statements is true?
(1) Equilibrium constant is greater than one.
(2) The entropy change is negative.
(3) The reaction is thermodynamically not feasible.
(4) The reaction should be instantaneous.
Ans (1)
∆G° is a large negative quantity. Hence equilibrium constant should be very large.
3. Out of the below two compounds, the vapour pressure of (B) at a particular temperature is______






(A) (B)

(1) lower than that of (A)
(2) higher than that of (A)
(3) same as that of (A)
(4) higher or lower than (A), depending on the size of the vessel.
Ans (2)
In ortho-nitrophenol (B) there exists intra-molecular H-bonding. This prevents the association between
the molecules of ortho-nitrophenol. Hence it is more volatile. Therefore, its vapour pressure is greater
than that of (A) at a particular temperature.
CET 2010 / Chemistry 3


4. The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm
3
of 0.1 M HC1 is mixed with 200 cm
3
of 02 M NaOH
is_______
(1) 1.292 kJ (2) 2.292 kJ (3) 3.392 kJ (4) 0.292 kJ
Ans (2)
1000 cm
3
of 1 N NaOH liberates 57.3 kJ of heat on neutralization
∴ 200 cm
3
of 0.2 NaOH liberates, heat of kJ 292 . 2
1 1000
2 . 0 200 3 . 57
=
×
× ×

5. During the adsorption of krypton on activated charcoal at low temperature,_______
(1) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (2) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
(3) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (4) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0
Ans (1)
Physisorption is exothermic i.e., ∆H < 0 and entropy decreases i.e., ∆S < 0.
6. Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is________
(1)
k 2
a
(2)
a
k 2
(3) ak (4)
k
a

Ans (4)
For a zero order reaction, kdt dx ; ] A [ . k
dt
dx
= ° = or x = kt + c
when x = 0, t = 0, then x = kt.
when the reaction is 100% complete, then x = a

k
a
t or kt a = = .
7. 0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm
3
of water. The pH of the resulting solution is______
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 9
Ans (3)
2Na + 2H
2
O → 2NaOH + H
2

23 g of Na reacts with water to given 40 g of NaOH
∴ 0.023 of Na reacts with water gives = 0.04 g of NaOH.
0.04 g of NaOH is present in 100 cm
3
of its solution.
Normality of NaOH = 01 . 0
40
10 04 . 0
E
W
=
×
=
∴ [OH

] = 0.01 mol dm
−3
; pOH = 2 ; pH = 14 − 2 = 12.
8. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) [Ni (CO)
4
] — neutral ligand (2) [Cu (NH
3
)
4
]
+2
— square planar
(3) [Co (en)
3
]
+3
— follows EAN rule (4) [Fe (CN)
6
]
−3
— sp
3
d
2

Ans (4)
Fe in the complex
3
6
] ) CN ( Fe [

is d
2
sp
3
hybridised.
9. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is the least stable?
(1) Boat (2) Half-chair (3) Chair (4) Twisted-boat
Ans (1)
CET 2010 / Chemistry 4


CH
3
C CH
2
CHO
OH
H
2CH
3
CHO
dil. NaOH
*
10. Which one of the following is a molecular crystal?
(1) Quartz (2) Rock salt (3) Diamond (4) Dry ice
Ans (4)
11. Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because
(1) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron.
(2) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable than ferric oxide.
(3) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon.
(4) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric oxide.
Ans (1)
12. An oxygen containing organic compound upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid as the only organic
product with its molecular mass higher by 14 units. The organic compound is_______
(1) a primary alcohol (2) an aldehyde
(3) a ketone (4) a secondary alcohol
Ans (1)
13. The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide
exhibits________
(1) optical isomerism (2) geometric isomerism
(3) both optical and geometric isomerism (4) neither optical nor geometric isomerism
Ans (1)
Acetaldeyde reacts with dilute NaOH to form acetaldol, which contains a stereogenic center. Hence it is
optically active.



14. The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature T K was found to be 2.303 RT J mol
−1
. The ratio
of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor is_________

(1) 10
−2
(2) 10
−1
(3) 2×10
−2
(4) 2×10
−3
Ans (2)
RT / Ea
Ae k

=
E
a
= 2.303 RT
303 . 2 RT
RT 303 . 2
e
A
k
; e
A
k

|
¹
|

\
|

= = ∴
303 . 2
e e
e log
A
k
log

= |
¹
|

\
|

303 . 2
A
k
log 303 . 2 or 303 . 2
A
k
log
10 e
− = |
¹
|

\
|
− = |
¹
|

\
|

1
k
A
log ; 1
A
k
log = |
¹
|

\
|
− = |
¹
|

\
|


1
10
10
1
A
k
or 10 1 log anti
k
A

= = = =
CET 2010 / Chemistry 5


15. A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The
derivative is
(1) 2, 2-dibromobutane (2) 1, 1-dibromopropane
(3) 1, 4-dibromobutane (4) 1, 2-dibromoethane
Ans (3)
1, 4-dibromobutane reacts with sodium metal to give cyclobutane.
16. The set of quantum numbers for the outermost electron for copper in its ground state is
(1) 3, 2, 2, +½ (2) 4, 1, 1, +½ (3) 4, 2, 2, +½ (4) 4, 0, 0, +½
Ans (4)
Cu
29
: 4s
1

+ = = = =
2
1
s , 0 m , 0 , 4 n l
17. Peroxide ion_______
(a) is diamagnetic.
(b) has five completely filled antibonding molecular orbitals.
(c) is isoelectronic with neon.
(d) has bond order one.
Which one of these is correct?
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (d) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans (3)
O
2
molecule contains two unpaired electrons ( )
1
y
1
x
p 2 * p 2 * π = π
) py 2 * p 2 * ion peroxide ( O e 2 O
2 2
x
2
2 2
π = π ⇒ → +


− 2
2
O has no unpaired electrons. Hence, diamagnetic
It has four completely filled antibonding MOs, ) p 2 * px 2 * ( s 2 * s 1 *
2
y
2 2 2
π = π σ σ
Bond order = 1
2
8 10
=


18. Which one of these is NOT true for benzene?
(1) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds.
(2) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product.
(3) The bond angle between the carbon-carbon bonds is 120°.
(4) The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value.
Ans (1)
19. A mixture of CaCl
2
and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all
the Ca
+2
ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of
CaO. The percentage of NaC1 in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is_________
(1) 30.6 (2) 75 (3) 69.4 (4) 25
Ans (2)
g 117
g 100
3 3 2
g 111
2
NaCl 2 CaCO CO Na CaCl + → +
CET 2010 / Chemistry 6


g 44
2
56 . 0
g 56
g 1
g 100
3
g 11 . 1
g 111
2
CO CaO CaCO CaCl + → →
Mass of CaCl
2
+ NaCl in the mixture = 4.44
Mass of CaCl
2
in the mixture = 1.11
∴ Mass of NaCl in the mixture = 3.33
Percentage of NaCl in the mixture = 75 100
44 . 4
33 . 3
= ×
20. For one mole of an ideal gas, increasing the temperature from 10°C to 20 °C
(1) increases the rms velocity by 2 times.
(2) increases the average kinetic energy by two times.
(3) increases both the average kinetic energy and rms velocity, but not significantly
(4) increases the rms velocity by two times.
Ans (3)
98 . 0
293
283
T
T
C
C
;
M
RT 3
C ;
M
RT 3
C
2
1
2
1 2
2
1
1
= = = = =
∴ C
1
= 0.98 × C
2

R 5 . 424 283 R
2
3
K 298 at KE = × × = ; KE at 293 K = R 5 . 439 293 R
2
3
= × ×
21. A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm
3
of 0.1 M acetic acid. To the
above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolved. The pH of the resulting
buffer is equal to_______
(1) pK
a
(2) pK
a
− log2 (3) pK
a
+ log2 (4) pK
a
+2
Ans (3)
2 log pK pH ;
1 . 0
2 . 0
log pK pH
a a
+ = + =
22. Which one of the following has the most nucleophilic nitrogen?


(1) (2)




(3) (4)


Ans (2)
N-atom being more electronegative attracts the delocalized electrons towards itself. Hence around
N-atom, electron density is greater.

CET 2010 / Chemistry 7


OH HO NO
2
[H]
Reduction
HO NH
2
(i) diazotisation
(ii) H
+
/H
2
O
hydrolysis
HO
quinol
23. Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This can be explained using ______
(1) −I effect (2) −M effect (3) +1 effect (4) +M effect
Ans (1)
24. The correct sequence of reactions to convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves
(1) hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction (2) reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis
(3) diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis (4) hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization
Ans (2)




25. D C B A Br CH CH
alkali
Br NH H /
4
KMnO KOH Aq
2 3
2 3
   →    →      →     → 
∆ ∆ ∆
+
; ”D” is
(1) CH
3
CONH
2
(2) CH
3
Br (3) CHBr
3
(4) CH
3
NH
2

Ans (4)
26. In the electrolytic refining of Zinc, ________
(1) the impure metal is at the cathode. (2) graphite is at the anode.
(3) acidified zinc sulphate is the electrolyte. (4) the metal ion gets reduced at the anode.
Ans (3)
27. The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to
9
8
times the
Rydberg’s constant if the electron jumps from ________
(1) n = 10 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 9 to n = 1
Ans (2)

− =

− = ν
2
2
2 2
2
2
1
n
1
1
1
R R
9
8
;
n
1
n
1
R
9
1
9
9 8
1
9
8
n
1
;
9
8
n
1
1
2
2
2
2
− =

= − = − = −
3 9 n , 9 n ;
9
1
n
1
2
2
2
2
2
= = = − = −
28. Consider the following gaseous equilibrium with equilibrium constants K
1
and K
2
respectively.
SO
2(g)
+
2
1
O
2(g)
SO
3(g)

2SO
3(g)
2SO
2(g)
+ O
2(g)

The equilibrium constants are related as __________
(1) 2K
1
= K
2
2
(2)
2
2
1
K
1
K = (3)
1
2
2
K
1
K = (4)
2
1
2
K
2
K =
Ans (3)
CET 2010 / Chemistry 8


2
3
2
2
2
2
2
1
2 2
3
1
] SO [
] O [ ] SO [
K ;
] O [ ] SO [
] SO [
K = =
1
2
2
2
2
1
K
1
K or
K
1
K = =
29. Enthalpy of vapourization of benzene is +35.3 kJ mol
−1
at its boiling point of 80°C. The entropy change
in the transition of the vapour to liquid at its boiling point [in JK mol
−1
] is _______
(1) −100 (2) −441 (3) +100 (4) +441
Ans (3)
1 1
1
mol K J 100
K 353
mol J 300 , 35
T
H
S
− −

+ = =

= ∆
30. Which one of the following conversions involve change in both hybridization and shape?
(1)
+
→ 
4 3
NH NH (2)
6 2 4
H C CH → 
(3)
+
→  O H O H
3 2
(4)

→ 
4 3
BF BF
Ans (4)
In BF
3
molecule, B-atom is sp
2
hybridised and geometry of the molecule is trigonal planar.
In ) BF F BF ( BF
4 3 4
− − −
→ + , B-atom has four bonding pairs. Hence it is sp
3
hybridisided and

4
BF is
tetrahedral.
31. Generally, the first ionization energy increases along a period. But there are some exceptions. One which
is NOT an exception is
(1) Na and Mg (2) N and O (3) Be and B (4) Mg and Al
Ans (4)
IE
1
of Mg is higher than that Na due to higher nuclear charge.
IE
1
of N is greater than of O due to extra stability of partially filled 2p orbitals.
IE
1
of Be is greater than of B due to greater stability of completely filled 2s orbital.
IE
1
of Al is lower than that of Mg since 3p electron is to be removed in Al, where as the 3s electron
in Mg.
32. 50 cm
3
of 0.2 N HCl is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued after adding
50 cm
3
of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH
required for completing the titration is ________
(1) 10 cm
3
(2) 12 cm
3
(3) 10.5 cm
3
(4) 25 cm
3

Ans (1)
05 . 0
100
5 10
50 50
1 . 0 50 2 . 0 50
) V V (
) N V ( ) N V (
N
2 1
NaOH 2 2 HCl 1 1
3
=

=
+
× − ×
=
+

=
V
3
= 100 cm
3
, N
4
= 0.5 ; V
4
= ?
(V
3
× N
3
)
HCl
= (V
4
× N
4
)
KOH
;
3
4
3 3
4
cm 10
5 . 0
05 . 0 100
N
N V
V =
×
=
×
=
CET 2010 / Chemistry 9


33. In which one of the following, does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure
in a vessel of capacity 1 dm
3
at 273K?
(1) 0.071 g (2) 0.0355 g
(3) 0.02 mole (4) 6.023 × 10
21
molecules
Ans (2)
0.0355 g of Cl
2
=
4
10 5
71
0355 . 0

× = mole of Cl
2
contains least number of molecules compared to the rest.
Hence, exerts least pressure.
34. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
(1) For an adiabatic process: ∆U = −w (2) For an isochoric process: ∆U = −q
(3) For a cyclic process : q = −w (4) For an isothermal process : q = +w
Ans (3)
According to I law, ∆U = q + w
For an adiabatic process, q = 0, then ∆U = w
For an isochoric process, w = 0, then ∆U = q
For a cyclic process ∆U = 0, ∴ q = −w
For an isothermal process ∆U = 0, then q = −w
35. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is INCORRECT?
(1) Ionization energy : Li > Na > K > Rb
(2) Hydration energy : Li > Na > K > Rb
(3) Atomic size : Li < Na < K < Rb
(4) Density : Li < Na < K < Rb
Ans (2)
Hydration energy is applicable for ions not for neutral atoms.
36. One gram of silver gets distributed between 10 cm
3
of molten zinc and 100 cm
3
of molten lead at 800°C.
The percentage of silver in the zinc layer is approximately ________
(1) 91 (2) 89 (3) 94 (4) 97
Ans (4)
Silver is more soluble in molten zinc than in molten lead.
37. One mole of an organic compound ‘A’ with the formula C
3
H
8
O reacts completely with two moles of HI
to form X and Y. When ‘Y’ is boiled with aqueous alkali forms Z. Z answers the iodoform test. The
compound ‘A’ is ________
(1) Propan-1-ol (2) Propan-2-ol
(3) methoxyethane (4) ethoxyethane
Ans (3)
Y
5 2
X
3
HI X
A
5 2 3
I H C I CH H C O CH
S
− + −   →  − −
) iodoform ( CHI OH H C Y
3
NaOH / I
5 2
alkali . aq
2
   →  −    → 
CET 2010 / Chemistry 10


38. The IUPAC name of K
2
[Ni (CN)
4
] is_________
(1) Potassium tetracyanatonickelate (II)
(2) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(3) Potassium tetracyanockel (III)
(4) Potassium tetracyanatonickel (II)
Ans (2)
39. The spin only magnetic moment of Mn
+4
ion is nearly
(1) 6 BM (2) 3 BM (3) 5 BM (6) 4 BM
Ans (4)
Mn
4+
has four unpaired electrons (3d
3
4s
0
)
BM 4 ~ 87 . 3 15 ) 2 3 ( 3 ) 2 n ( n = = + = + = µ
40. In Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia from 5 g of food neutralizes 30 cm
3
of 0.1 N acid. The percentage of
nitrogen in the food is
(1) 8.4 (2) 0.84 (3) 1.68 (4) 16.8
Ans (2)
% 84 . 0 4 . 1
5
1 . 0 30
4 . 1
m
) N V (
N
OC
acid
= ×
×
= ×
×
=
41. The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro’s reaction is
(1) transfer of H

, transfer of H
+
and nucleophilic attack
(2) nucleophilic attack, transfer of H

and transfer of H
+
(3) electrophilic attack by OH

, transfer of H
+
and transfer of H


(4) transfer of H
+
, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H


Ans (2)
42. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?
(1) Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process
(2) Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process
(3) Hydrogenation of oil
(4) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid
Ans (4)
43. The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is C
1
H
2
O
1
. A solution containing 6 g of the compound exerts
the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same temperature The molecular
formula of the compound is
(1) C
3
H
6
O
3
(2) C
2
H
4
O
2
(3) C
4
H
8
O
4
(4) C
5
H
10
O
5

Ans (3)
For isotonic solutions π
1
= π
2

2
2
1
1
M
W
M
W
= ∴ ; Mass of glucose = 0.05 × 180 = 9g
CET 2010 / Chemistry 11


120 M ;
M
6
180
9
2
2
= =
The formula of the compound with molar mass 120 is C
4
H
8
O
4
.
44. A white crystalline salt A reacts with dilute HC1 to liberate a suffocating gas B and also forms a yellow
precipitate. The gas B turns potassium dichromate acidified with dilute H
2
SO
4
to a green coloured
solution C. A, B and C are respectively
(1) Na
2
S
2
O
3
, SO
2
, Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3

(2) Na
2
SO
3
, SO
2
, Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3

(3) Na
2
SO
4
, SO
2
, Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3

(4) Na
2
S, SO
2
, Cr
2
(SO
4
)
Ans (1)
Na
2
S
2
O
3
+ 2HCl → 2NaCl + S + SO
2
+ H
2
O
K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ H
2
SO
4
+ SO
2
→ Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
⇒ Green
A = Na
2
S
2
O
3
, B = SO
2
, C = Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
.
45. Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy because a noble gas ...
(1) is chemically inert
(2) is monoatomic
(3) is diamagnetic
(4) has completely filled shells
Ans (2)
46. The letter ‘D’ in D-glucose signifies__________
(1) dextrorotatory
(2) configuration at all chiral carbons
(3) configuration at a particular chiral carbon
(4) that it is a monosaccharide
Ans (3)
Configuration refers to the last stereogenic carbon atom (C − 5).
47. Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide involves _______________
(1) S
N
1
mechanism (2) racemisation
(3) S
N
2
mechanism (4) inversion of configuration
Ans (3) & (4)
48. 9.65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The magnesium metal
thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of the Grignard
reagent obtained is
(1) 1×10
−4
(2) 5×10
−4
(3) 1×10
−5
(4) 5×10
−5

Ans (4)
Equivalent mass of Mg = 12
96500 C of current produces 12 g of Mg
CET 2010 / Chemistry 12


NH
3
CH COO + OH
R
NH
2
CH COO
R
+
zwitter ion
anion
+ H
2
O
∴ 9.65 C of current produces = Mg of g 10 2 . 1
96500
65 . 9 12
3 −
× =
×

R − X + Mg → R − Mg − X
No of moles of Mg =
5
3
10 5
24
g 10 2 . 1


× =
×

∴ 5 × 10
−5
mol of Mg reacts with an alkyl halide to form 5 × 10
−5
mol of Grignard reagent (R−Mg−X)
49. Which one of the following does NOT involve coagulation?
(1) Peptization
(2) Formation of delta regions
(3) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride
(4) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum
Ans (1)
50. In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly as/in __________
(1) zwitterion (2) anion (3) covalent form (4) cation
Ans (2)




51. One dm
3
solution containing 10
−5
moles each of Cl

ions and
2
4
CrO

ions is treated with 10
−4
mole of
silver nitrate. Which one of the following observations is made?
[K
sp
Ag
2
CrO
4
= 4 × 10
−12
]
[K
sp
AgCl = 1 × 10
−10
]
(1) Silver chromate gets precipitated first.
(2) Precipitation does not occur.
(3) Both silver chromate and silver chloride start precipitating simultaneously.
(4) Silver chloride gets precipitated first.
Ans (4)
[Ag
+
] [Cl

] = 10
−4
× 10
−5
= 10
−9
> K
sp
of AgCl
AgCl gets precipitated since [Ag
+
] [Cl

] > K
sp
of AgCl.
4 2 sp
13 5 2 4 2
4
2
CrO Ag of K 10 ) 10 ( ) 10 ( ] CrO [ ] Ag [ < = =
− − − − +

52. pH value of which one of the following is not equal to one?
(1) 0.05M H
2
SO
4

(2) 0.1M HNO
3

(3) 50cm
3
of 0.4 M HCl + 50 cm
3
of 0.2 M NaOH
(4) 0.1M CH
3
COOH
Ans (4)
CET 2010 / Chemistry 13


Br
CHO
53. E
1
, E
2
and E
3
are the emf values of the three galvanic cells respectively.
(a) Cu Cu Zn Zn
2
M 1 . 0
2
M 1
+ +

(b) Cu Cu Zn Zn
2
M 1
2
M 1
+ +

(c) Cu Cu Zn Zn
2
M 1
2
M 1 . 0
+ +

Which one of the following is true?
(1) E
3
>E
2
> E
1
(2) E
2
> E
3
> E
1
(3) E
1
> E
3
> E
2
(4) E
1
> E
2
> E
3

Ans (1)
] Zn [
] Cu [
log
n
0591 . 0
E E
2
2
o
cell cell
+
+
+ =
(a)
1
o
cell cell
o
cell cell
E 02955 . 0 E E
1
1 . 0
log
2
0591 . 0
E : E ⇒ − = ⇒ +
(b)
2
o
cell cell
o
cell cell
E E E
1
1
log
2
0591 . 0
E : E ⇒ = ⇒ +
(c)
3
o
cell cell
o
cell cell
E 02955 . 0 E E
1 . 0
1
log
2
0591 . 0
E : E ⇒ + = ⇒ + ∴E
3
> E
2
> E
1


54. The IUPAC name of is

(1) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanal (2) 2-methyl-3-bromohexanal
(3) 3-bromo-2-methylpentanal (4) 2-methyl -3-bromobutanal
Ans (3)
55. Which one of the following forms propanenitrile as the major product?
(1) Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
(2) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
(3) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN
(4) Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN
Ans (2)
KBr CN CH CH KCN Br CH CH
rile propanenit
2 3
alcohol
2 3
+   →  +
56. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 3 moles of electrons in its redox reaction is 0.59 V. The
equilibrium constant for the reaction of the cell is
(1) 10
20
(2) 10
25
(3) 10
30
(4) 10
15

Ans (3)
∆G° = −nFE° ; ∆G° = −2.303 RT log K
p

RT 303 . 2
nFE
K log ; nFE K log RT 303 . 2
p p
°
= ° =
0 . 30 ~ 9 . 29
298 314 . 8 303 . 2
59 . 0 96500 3
K log
p
=
× ×
× ×
= ∴
or log K
P
= 30.0, K
p
= antilog 30.0 = 1 × 10
30

CET 2010 / Chemistry 14


57. Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using
(1) sodium hydroxide solution (2) Fehling’s solution
(3) Tollens’ reagent (4) 2, 4-DNPH
Ans (3)
58. Which one of the following statements is true?
(1) Drying of oil involves hydrolysis
(2) Saponification of oil yields a diol.
(3) Refining of oil involves hydrogenation
(4) Addition of antioxidant to oil minimizes rancidity
Ans (4)
59. The following data is obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of 2A
(g)
→ B
(g)
+ C
(s)
, at
constant volume and temperature.
Sr. No. Time Total pressure in Pascal
1. At the end of 10 minutes 300
2. After completion 200
The rate constant in min
−1
is _______
(1) 6.93 (2) 0.0693 (3) 69.3 (4) 0.00693
Ans (2)
If the total pressure of gaseous substances after completion of the reaction were to be 200 Pa, then the
initial total pressure should be 400 Pa according to the equation, 2A(g) → B(g) + C(s). After 10 minutes,
the total pressure is 300 Pa implies, that the pressure of A is 200 Pa and that of B is 100 Pa. i.e., Half of
A would have reacted in 10 minutes, which is
2
1
t .
∴ Rate constant,
1
2
1
min 0693 . 0
10
693 . 0
t
693 . 0
k

= = =
60. Phenol → 
X
forms a tribromo derivative. “X’ is ________
(1) bromine in water
(2) bromine in benzene
(3) bromine in carbon tetrachioride at 0 °C.
(4) potassium bromide solution
Ans (1)



* * *

its vapour pressure is greater than that of (A) at a particular temperature. Therefore. (3) The reaction is thermodynamically not feasible. Out of the below two compounds. Hence it is more volatile. +6 (2) +3. +6 Ans (3) Chromite ore : FeO. +2 (3) +2. (4) The reaction should be instantaneous. the vapour pressure of (B) at a particular temperature is______ (A) (1) lower than that of (A) (2) higher than that of (A) (3) same as that of (A) (B) (4) higher or lower than (A). Which one of the following statements is true? (1) Equilibrium constant is greater than one. Hence equilibrium constant should be very large. the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively ___________ (1) +3. CET 2010 / Chemistry 2 . In chromite ore. (2) The entropy change is negative. This prevents the association between the molecules of ortho-nitrophenol. Ans (2) In ortho-nitrophenol (B) there exists intra-molecular H-bonding. For the reversible reaction A (s) + B(g ) C(g) + D(g) : ∆G° = − 350 kJ. Ans (1) ∆G° is a large negative quantity. +3 (4) +2. depending on the size of the vessel. 3.Cr2O3 Oxidation state Fe is +2 and Cr is +3 2.CET .2010 Chemistry (Version – D1) Question paper with keys & Solution 60 Questions 60 Marks Duration: 70 Minutes 1.

04 × 10 Normality of NaOH = = = 0..023 of Na reacts with water gives = 0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water.2 NaOH liberates.01 E 40 ∴ [OH−] = 0. 9. 0. During the adsorption of krypton on activated charcoal at low temperature. ∆H < 0 and entropy decreases i. 0. dx = k..04 g of NaOH is present in 100 cm3 of its solution.1 M HC1 is mixed with 200 cm3 of 02 M NaOH is_______ (1) 1. The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0. t = 0.01 mol dm−3 . when the reaction is 100% complete.e. pOH = 2 . k 7.292 kJ Ans (2) 1000 cm3 of 1 N NaOH liberates 57. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is the least stable? (1) Boat (2) Half-chair (3) Chair (4) Twisted-boat Ans (1) CET 2010 / Chemistry 3 .392 kJ (4) 0. W 0. 8.292 kJ (2) 2. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (1) [Ni (CO)4] — neutral ligand (3) [Co (en)3]+3 — follows EAN rule (2) [Cu (NH3)4]+2 — square planar (4) [Fe (CN)6]−3 — sp3d2 Ans (4) Fe in the complex [Fe(CN ) 6 ] −3 is d2sp3 hybridised. Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is________ a 2k a (1) (2) (3) ak (4) 2k a k Ans (4) For a zero order reaction.3 kJ of heat on neutralization 57. dx = kdt or x = kt + c dt when x = 0._______ (1) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (2) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0 (3) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (4) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 Ans (1) Physisorption is exothermic i.292 kJ (3) 3. 6.2 ∴ 200 cm3 of 0. The pH of the resulting solution is______ (1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 9 Ans (3) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 23 g of Na reacts with water to given 40 g of NaOH ∴ 0. then x = a a ∴ a = kt or t = .292 kJ of heat 1000 × 1 5.3 × 200 × 0. ∆S < 0.[A ]° . then x = kt. pH = 14 − 2 = 12. = 2.e.4.04 g of NaOH.

303 A A k A log  = −1 . Hence it is optically active. The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature T K was found to be 2. The organic compound is_______ (1) a primary alcohol (2) an aldehyde (3) a ketone (4) a secondary alcohol Ans (1) 13. The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits________ (1) optical isomerism (2) geometric isomerism (3) both optical and geometric isomerism (4) neither optical nor geometric isomerism Ans (1) Acetaldeyde reacts with dilute NaOH to form acetaldol. log  = 1 A k A k 1 ∴ = anti log 1 = 10 or = = 10 −1 k A 10  2.303 RT  CET 2010 / Chemistry 4 . Ans (1) 12.303 or 2.303 RT −  k k ∴ = e  RT  .303 log 10   = −2. Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because (1) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron.303 A A k log e   = log e e − 2. which contains a stereogenic center.303 A k k log e   = −2. NaOH CH3 *C H CH2 CHO 14. = e − 2. Which one of the following is a molecular crystal? (1) Quartz (2) Rock salt (3) Diamond (4) Dry ice Ans (4) 11. OH 2CH3 CHO dil. (4) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric oxide. The ratio of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor is_________ (1) 10−2 (2) 10−1 (3) 2×10−2 (4) 2×10−3 Ans (2) k = Ae − Ea / RT Ea = 2. (3) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon. (2) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable than ferric oxide.303 RT J mol−1. An oxygen containing organic compound upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid as the only organic product with its molecular mass higher by 14 units.10.

1. 2-dibromobutane (2) 1. σ * 1s 2 σ * 2s 2 (π * 2px 2 = π * 2p 2 ) y Bond order = 10 − 8 =1 2 18.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the Ca+2 ions as calcium carbonate. +½ (2) 4. +½ (3) 4. The derivative is (1) 2. 4-dibromobutane reacts with sodium metal to give cyclobutane. m = 0 . Which one of these is correct? (1) (a). 2-dibromoethane Ans (3) 1. 4-dibromobutane (4) 1. 16. 2.6 (2) 75 (3) 69. +½ Ans (4) 1  Cu29 : 4s1 n = 4. Which one of these is NOT true for benzene? (1) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds.15. The set of quantum numbers for the outermost electron for copper in its ground state is (1) 3. (d) has bond order one. A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. Ans (1) 19. (3) The bond angle between the carbon-carbon bonds is 120°. (4) The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value. l = 0. 2. (b) has five completely filled antibonding molecular orbitals. A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4. 0. diamagnetic 2 It has four completely filled antibonding MOs. 0. (b) and (d) (2) (d) and (c) (3) (a) and (d) (4) (a). Hence. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0. The percentage of NaC1 in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is_________ (1) 30. (b) and (c) Ans (3) O2 molecule contains two unpaired electrons π * 2p1 = π * 2p1 x y ( ) O 2 + 2e → O 2 − (peroxide ion ⇒ π * 2p 2 = π * 2py 2 ) 2 x O 2− has no unpaired electrons. +½ (4) 4. Peroxide ion_______ (a) is diamagnetic. 1-dibromopropane (3) 1. (2) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product. 2. 1.56 g of CaO. (c) is isoelectronic with neon. s = +  2  17.4 (4) 25 Ans (2) CaCl 2 + Na 2 CO 3 → CaCO 3 + 2 NaCl 111g 100 g 117 g CET 2010 / Chemistry 5 . 2.

KE at 293 K = × R × 293 = 439. Hence around N-atom. Ans (3) 3RT1 3RT2 C T1 283 C1 = . pH = pK a + log 2 0.33 Percentage of NaCl in the mixture = × 100 = 75 4. (2) increases the average kinetic energy by two times. 0.98 M M C2 T2 293 ∴ C1 = 0.1 22.11g 100 g 1g 56 g 0. 1 = = = 0.33 3.44 Mass of CaCl2 in the mixture = 1.CaCl 2 → CaCO 3 → CaO + CO 2 111g 1.5 R 2 2 21. electron density is greater. Which one of the following has the most nucleophilic nitrogen? (1) (2) (3) (4) Ans (2) N-atom being more electronegative attracts the delocalized electrons towards itself.44 20.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0. C2 = . (3) increases both the average kinetic energy and rms velocity. CET 2010 / Chemistry 6 .2 . The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to_______ (1) pKa (2) pKa − log2 (3) pKa + log2 (4) pKa +2 Ans (3) pH = pK a + log 0 . A buffer solution contains 0. For one mole of an ideal gas. but not significantly (4) increases the rms velocity by two times. To the above buffer solution.5R .11 ∴ Mass of NaCl in the mixture = 3.1 M acetic acid.98 × C2 3 3 KE at 298 K = × R × 283 = 424.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolved.56 44 g Mass of CaCl2 + NaCl in the mixture = 4. increasing the temperature from 10°C to 20 °C (1) increases the rms velocity by 2 times.

Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. reduction and diazotization Ans (2) HO NO2 [H] Reduction HO NH2 (i) diazotisation (ii) H+/H2O hydrolysis HO quinol OH NH KMnO4 / H 25. (4) the metal ion gets reduced at the anode. n 2 = 9. diazotization and reduction (2) reduction. In the electrolytic refining of Zinc. 1 SO2(g) + O2(g) SO3(g) 2 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) The equilibrium constants are related as __________ 1 1 2 2 (1) 2K1 = K22 (2) K 1 = (3) K 2 = (4) K 2 = 2 2 K2 K1 K1 Ans (3) CET 2010 / Chemistry 7 . The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to Rydberg’s constant if the electron jumps from ________ (1) n = 10 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) n = 2 to n = 1 8 times the 9 (4) n = 9 to n = 1 Ans (2) 1 1 1  1 8 ν = R 2 − 2  . Ans (3) 27. − 2 = −1= =− 2 9 9 n2 9 n2 9 1 1 = − . (2) graphite is at the anode. R = R 2 − 2   n1 n 2  9 1 n 2  1− − 1 8 1 8 8−9 1 = . This can be explained using ______ (1) −I effect (2) −M effect (3) +1 effect (4) +M effect Ans (1) 24.23. Consider the following gaseous equilibrium with equilibrium constants K1 and K2 respectively. (3) acidified zinc sulphate is the electrolyte. reduction and hydrolysis (4) hydrolysis. n 2 = 9 = 3 2 2 9 n2 28. The correct sequence of reactions to convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves (1) hydrolysis. ________ (1) the impure metal is at the cathode. CH 3 CH 2 Br Aq KOH → A   → B 3 → C Br2  → D . ”D” is      ∆ ∆ ∆ alkali + (1) CH3CONH2 (2) CH3Br (3) CHBr3 (4) CH3NH2 Ans (4) 26. diazotization and hydrolysis (3) diazotization.

50 cm3 of 0. K2 = [SO 2 ] 2 [O 2 ] [SO 3 ] 2 K1 = 1 1 or K 2 = 2 2 K1 K2 29. Hence it is sp3 hybridisided and BF4− is tetrahedral. 32.5 cm3 (4) 25 cm3 Ans (1) N3 = ( V1 N 1 ) HCl − (V2 N 2 ) NaOH 50 × 0. One which is NOT an exception is (1) Na and Mg (2) N and O (3) Be and B (4) Mg and Al Ans (4) IE1 of Mg is higher than that Na due to higher nuclear charge. The titration is discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH.5 .05 = = 10 cm 3 N4 0 .2 − 50 × 0.1 N NaOH solution.K1 = [SO 3 ] [SO 2 ][O 2 1 ]2 .1 10 − 5 = = = 0. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is ________ (1) 10 cm3 (2) 12 cm3 (3) 10.5 8 CET 2010 / Chemistry . The entropy change in the transition of the vapour to liquid at its boiling point [in JK mol−1] is _______ (1) −100 (2) −441 (3) +100 (4) +441 Ans (3) ∆H 35. IE1 of N is greater than of O due to extra stability of partially filled 2p orbitals. But there are some exceptions.3 kJ mol−1 at its boiling point of 80°C. V4 = ? (V3 × N3)HCl = (V4 × N4)KOH .05 (V1 + V2 ) 50 + 50 100 V3 = 100 cm3. where as the 3s electron in Mg. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0. B-atom has four bonding pairs. N4 = 0. In BF4− (BF3 + F − → BF4− ) . Generally.300 J mol −1 ∆S = = = +100 J K −1 mol −1 T 353 K 30. IE1 of Al is lower than that of Mg since 3p electron is to be removed in Al. the first ionization energy increases along a period. Which one of the following conversions involve change in both hybridization and shape? (1) NH 3  → NH + (2) CH 4  → C 2 H 6 4 (3) H 2 O  → H 3 O + (4) BF3  → BF4− Ans (4) In BF3 molecule. IE1 of Be is greater than of B due to greater stability of completely filled 2s orbital.2 N HCl is titrated against 0. B-atom is sp2 hybridised and geometry of the molecule is trigonal planar. V4 = V3 × N 3 100 × 0. Enthalpy of vapourization of benzene is +35. 31.5 N KOH.

34. ∆U = q + w For an adiabatic process. alkali X I 2 / NaOH Y CET 2010 / Chemistry 9 .33. then q = −w 35. The percentage of silver in the zinc layer is approximately ________ (1) 91 (2) 89 (3) 94 (4) 97 Ans (4) Silver is more soluble in molten zinc than in molten lead. The compound ‘A’ is ________ (1) Propan-1-ol (3) methoxyethane (2) Propan-2-ol (4) ethoxyethane S Ans (3) CH 3 − O − C 2 H 5 X → CH 3 − I + C 2 H 5 − I HI Y   → C 2 H 5 − OH   → CHI 3 (iodoform)   A aq .0355 = 5 × 10 − 4 mole of Cl2 contains least number of molecules compared to the rest. For alkali metals. q = 0. does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273K? (1) 0. then ∆U = w For an isochoric process. 71 Hence. 37. then ∆U = q For a cyclic process ∆U = 0. One mole of an organic compound ‘A’ with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When ‘Y’ is boiled with aqueous alkali forms Z. 36. One gram of silver gets distributed between 10 cm3 of molten zinc and 100 cm3 of molten lead at 800°C.071 g (3) 0. In which one of the following.0355 g of Cl2 = 0. Based on the first law of thermodynamics. which one of the following is correct? (1) For an adiabatic process: ∆U = −w (3) For a cyclic process : q = −w (2) For an isochoric process: ∆U = −q (4) For an isothermal process : q = +w Ans (3) According to I law.0355 g (4) 6. w = 0. exerts least pressure. ∴ q = −w For an isothermal process ∆U = 0. which one of the following trends is INCORRECT? (1) Ionization energy : Li > Na > K > Rb (2) Hydration energy : Li > Na > K > Rb (3) Atomic size : Li < Na < K < Rb (4) Density : Li < Na < K < Rb Ans (2) Hydration energy is applicable for ions not for neutral atoms.023 × 1021 molecules Ans (2) 0.02 mole (2) 0. Z answers the iodoform test.

68 (4) 16.1 % N= × 1 . transfer of H− and transfer of H+ (3) electrophilic attack by OH−.84 (3) 1.84 m OC 5 41. A solution containing 6 g of the compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0. The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro’s reaction is (1) transfer of H−. ammonia from 5 g of food neutralizes 30 cm3 of 0.38. The spin only magnetic moment of Mn+4 ion is nearly (1) 6 BM (2) 3 BM (3) 5 BM (6) 4 BM Ans (4) Mn4+ has four unpaired electrons (3d3 4s0) µ = n (n + 2) = 3(3 + 2) = 15 = 3. transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack (2) nucleophilic attack. The IUPAC name of K2 [Ni (CN)4] is_________ (1) Potassium tetracyanatonickelate (II) (2) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II) (3) Potassium tetracyanockel (III) (4) Potassium tetracyanatonickel (II) Ans (2) 39.4 = × 1.05 M glucose solution at the same temperature The molecular formula of the compound is (1) C3H6O3 (2) C2H4O2 (3) C4H8O4 (4) C5H10O5 Ans (3) For isotonic solutions π1 = π2 W W ∴ 1 = 2 . nucleophilic attack and transfer of H− Ans (2) 42.1 N acid.8 Ans (2) (V × N ) acid 30 × 0.4 = 0. The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is C1H2O1. transfer of H+ and transfer of H− (4) transfer of H+. In Kjeldahl’s method. Mass of glucose = 0.4 (2) 0.05 × 180 = 9g M1 M 2 CET 2010 / Chemistry 10 .87 ~ 4 BM 40. The percentage of nitrogen in the food is (1) 8. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis? (1) Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process (2) Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process (3) Hydrogenation of oil (4) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid Ans (4) 43.

(1) is chemically inert (2) is monoatomic (3) is diamagnetic (4) has completely filled shells Ans (2) 46. 47. The gas B turns potassium dichromate acidified with dilute H2SO4 to a green coloured solution C. Cr2(SO4)3 (3) Na2SO4. B and C are respectively (1) Na2S2O3..65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride.9 6 = .. Cr2(SO4)3 (2) Na2SO3. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. M 2 = 120 180 M 2 The formula of the compound with molar mass 120 is C4H8O4. 44. A. B = SO2. A white crystalline salt A reacts with dilute HC1 to liberate a suffocating gas B and also forms a yellow precipitate. SO2. The number of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is (1) 1×10−4 (2) 5×10−4 (3) 1×10−5 (4) 5×10−5 Ans (4) Equivalent mass of Mg = 12 96500 C of current produces 12 g of Mg CET 2010 / Chemistry 11 . C = Cr2(SO4)3. Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide involves _______________ (1) SN1 mechanism (2) racemisation 2 (3) SN mechanism (4) inversion of configuration Ans (3) & (4) 48. SO2. Cr2(SO4)3 (4) Na2S. 45. Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy because a noble gas . 9. SO2. SO2. The letter ‘D’ in D-glucose signifies__________ (1) dextrorotatory (2) configuration at all chiral carbons (3) configuration at a particular chiral carbon (4) that it is a monosaccharide Ans (3) Configuration refers to the last stereogenic carbon atom (C − 5). Cr2(SO4) Ans (1) Na2S2O3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + S + SO2 + H2O K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + SO2 → Cr2(SO4)3 ⇒ Green A = Na2S2O3.

One dm3 solution containing 10−5 moles each of Cl− ions and CrO 42 ions is treated with 10−4 mole of silver nitrate.1M HNO3 (3) 50cm3 of 0. (4) Silver chloride gets precipitated first.05M H2SO4 (2) 0.∴ 9. [Ag + ] 2 [CrO 2 − ] = (10 −4 ) 2 (10 −5 ) = 10 −13 < K sp of Ag 2 CrO 4 4 52. In alkaline medium.2 M NaOH (4) 0. alanine exists predominantly as/in __________ (1) zwitterion (2) anion (3) covalent form (4) cation Ans (2) + NH3 CH COO + OH NH2 CH R anion COO + H2O R zwitter ion − 51. Which one of the following does NOT involve coagulation? (1) Peptization (2) Formation of delta regions (3) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride (4) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum Ans (1) 50. Ans (4) [Ag+] [Cl−] = 10−4 × 10−5 = 10−9 > Ksp of AgCl AgCl gets precipitated since [Ag+] [Cl−] > Ksp of AgCl.1M CH3COOH Ans (4) CET 2010 / Chemistry 12 .4 M HCl + 50 cm3 of 0. (2) Precipitation does not occur.65 C of current produces = 12 × 9. (3) Both silver chromate and silver chloride start precipitating simultaneously.65 = 1. pH value of which one of the following is not equal to one? (1) 0. Which one of the following observations is made? [Ksp Ag2CrO4 = 4 × 10−12] [Ksp AgCl = 1 × 10−10] (1) Silver chromate gets precipitated first.2 × 10 −3 g of Mg 96500 R − X + Mg → R − Mg − X 1.2 × 10 −3 g No of moles of Mg = = 5 × 10 −5 24 ∴ 5 × 10−5 mol of Mg reacts with an alkyl halide to form 5 × 10−5 mol of Grignard reagent (R−Mg−X) 49.

Kp = antilog 30. ∆G° = −2.0591 0 .314 × 298 or log KP = 30.0591 1 (b) E cell : E o + log ⇒ E cell = E o ⇒ E 2 cell cell 2 1 0.21M Cu +2 +2 (b) Zn Zn 1M Cu 1M Cu + +2 (c) Zn Zn 0. E2 and E3 are the emf values of the three galvanic cells respectively. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the cell is (1) 1020 (2) 1025 (3) 1030 (4) 1015 Ans (3) ∆G° = −nFE° .53. log K p = ∴ log K p = nFE° 2.1 (a) E cell : E o + log ⇒ E cell = E o − 0.0 = 1 × 1030 CET 2010 / Chemistry 13 .0.303 RT log K p = nFE° . Which one of the following forms propanenitrile as the major product? (1) Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN (2) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN (3) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN (4) Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN Ans (2) CH 3 CH 2 Br + KCN alcohol → CH 3 CH 2 CN + KBr  propanenit rile 56.02955 ⇒ E 3 cell cell 2 0 .0591 [Cu 2 + ] log n [ Zn 2 + ] 0.303 × 8.0591 1 (c) E cell : E o + log ⇒ E cell = E o + 0.02955 ⇒ E 1 cell cell 2 1 0.303 RT 3 × 96500 × 0.59 V.59 = 29. The IUPAC name of Br is (2) 2-methyl-3-bromohexanal (4) 2-methyl -3-bromobutanal (1) 3-bromo-2-methylbutanal (3) 3-bromo-2-methylpentanal Ans (3) 55.21M Cu 1M Cu Which one of the following is true? (1) E3 >E2 > E1 (2) E2 > E3 > E1 (3) E1 > E3 > E2 (4) E1 > E2 > E3 Ans (1) 0. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 3 moles of electrons in its redox reaction is 0.303 RT log Kp 2. E1. +2 + (a) Zn Zn 1M Cu 0.0 2.9 ~ 30.1 E cell = E o + cell CHO ∴E3 > E2 > E1 54.

Which one of the following statements is true? (1) Drying of oil involves hydrolysis (2) Saponification of oil yields a diol. 2 ∴ Rate constant.e.00693 Ans (2) If the total pressure of gaseous substances after completion of the reaction were to be 200 Pa. 4-DNPH Ans (3) 58. Time Total pressure in Pascal 1.0693 (3) 69. Half of A would have reacted in 10 minutes.0693 min −1 t1 10 2 60. which is t 1 . that the pressure of A is 200 Pa and that of B is 100 Pa. k = 0. 2A(g) → B(g) + C(s).693 0. The following data is obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of 2A(g) → B(g) + C(s). the total pressure is 300 Pa implies. then the initial total pressure should be 400 Pa according to the equation.57.693 = = 0. i. No.3 (4) 0.93 (2) 0. “X’ is ________ (1) bromine in water (2) bromine in benzene (3) bromine in carbon tetrachioride at 0 °C. After 10 minutes.. At the end of 10 minutes 300 2. Phenol X → forms a tribromo derivative. (3) Refining of oil involves hydrogenation (4) Addition of antioxidant to oil minimizes rancidity Ans (4) 59. Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using (1) sodium hydroxide solution (2) Fehling’s solution (3) Tollens’ reagent (4) 2. at constant volume and temperature. After completion 200 The rate constant in min−1 is _______ (1) 6. (4) potassium bromide solution Ans (1) *** CET 2010 / Chemistry 14 . Sr.