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CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway, Santiago City, Isabela

Prepared by:

EARL OMAR A. TUMANGUIL, RN, MSN

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This test questionnaire contains 100 questions. 2. This exam is for 2 hours only. You must pass your answer sheet when the time allotted has
elapsed. Answer sheets that will be passed after the allotted time will NOT BE ACCEPTED.

3. Shade only (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will
invalidate your answer. 4. Do not put any unnecessary markings on the answer sheet. Doing so will invalidate your answers. 5. Keep the answer sheets neat and clean. DO NOT MUTILATE. START HERE! 1. Elvira asks you which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would be: a. Right Occipitoanterior full flexion b. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion c. Right Occipitoposterior with no flexion d. Left Occipitoposterior with no flexion 2. Elvira is having long and hard uterine contractions. What length of contractions would you report as abnormal? a. Any length over 30 seconds b. A contraction over 90 seconds in length c. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds d. A contraction shorter than 60 seconds 3. The assessment findings revealed that a patient is having cord compression. Which decelerations correlate to this finding? a. Early Decelerations b. Late Decelerations c. Middle Decelerations d. Variable Decelerations 4. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma? a. Breast, areola, and nipples b. Chest, neck, arms, and legs c. Abdomen, breast, and thighs d. Cheeks, forehead, and nose 5. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause? a. The large size of the newborn b. Pressure on the pelvic muscles c. Relaxation of the pelvic joints d. Excessive weight gain 6. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy? a. 12 to 22 lb b. 15 to 25 lb c. 24 to 30 lb d. 25 to 40 lb 7. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following? Thrombophlebitis Pregnancy-induced hypertension Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus 8. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? Diagnostic signs Presumptive signs

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Edema of the hands and face c. Uterus at the xiphoid c. the posterior is diamond shaped. fear. Edema of the feet and ankles b. Occurring at irregular intervals b. Gradually increasing intervals d. Fourth stage 16. painless vaginal bleeding 2 |Page . c. Second trimester d. The posterior closes at 18 months. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? a. 18. Flexion c. Uterus at the umbilicus 14. d. January 2 b. Weight gain of 1 lb/week d. the posterior appears sunken. narcissism b. First stage b. Third trimester 12. Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor? a. The anterior is bulging. During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes. Skin pigmentation changes d. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? a. Nausea and vomiting c. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta? a. Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn? a. the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign of PIH? a. Awkwardness. fantasies 11.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester? a. October 12 13. Descent b. External rotation 17. passivity. Uterus in the pelvis b. Bright red. Prepregnant period b. which of the following cardinal movements occur? a. sexuality. Extension d. Her EDD should be which of the following? a. Positive serum pregnancy test 10. A client LMP began July 5. Introversion. during pregnancy. Second stage c. and nutrition? a. Starting mainly in the abdomen c. Increasing intensity with walking 15. and unattractiveness c. Isabela Probable signs Positive signs 9. fetal development. April 12 d. March 28 c. Hegar sign b. The anterior is triangular shaped. Immediately before expulsion. b. Anxiety. First trimester c. Uterus in the abdomen d. Third stage d. clumsiness. Early morning headache 19. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”? a. Ambivalence. Santiago City. egocentrism. extroversion d.

Missed abortion 28. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Tell her to breast feed more frequently b. Complete abortion d. Using Nagele’s rule. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing in the lactiferous glands and ducts b. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT? a. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore nipples? a. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Imminent abortion c. fever. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery 29. Laxatives c. Breast injury caused by overdistention. tenderness and redness along the vein b. October 21 c. Decreased fluid intake 26. December 27 27. and swelling in the affected limb d. Diaphragm c. Condoms d. Increased fiber intake d. More than 500 ml 22. Which of the following best describes preterm labor? a. occurring 2 weeks after delivery c. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse. November 7 d. Chills. stasis. The nurse would document these findings as which of the following? a. Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation c. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation. Daily enemas b. malaise. Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor related to mastitis? a. Isabela b. Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign. and cracking of the nipples 23. Threatened abortion b. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37 weeks gestation b. More than 200 ml b. Santiago City. Soft and nontender abdomen 20. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections? a. Midcalf pain. Spermicides b. More than 400 ml d. Which of the following assessments would warrant notification of the physician? a. Concealed or external dark red bleeding c. Palpable fetal outline d. fever. Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing in the periglandular connective tissue c. stiffness. the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following? a. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding 3 |Page . A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client b. More than 300 ml c. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of the urge to avoid d. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum c. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before 40 weeks gestation 21. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage? a. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before 28 weeks gestation d. When teaching a client about contraception. and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery 24. “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the following should the nurse recommend? a. Chills. Vasectomy 25. September 27 b.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery d.

A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight nausea in the morning hours. Quickening b. Ophthalmia neonatorum c. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours d. Chadwick’s sign c. Daily weights b. Palpable contractions on the abdomen b. Vernix 38. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. Infertility is said to exist when: a. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech presentation. Goodell’s sign d. Santiago City. “As soon as choose a contraceptive method. Prolapsed umbilical cord 39. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby. Meconium d.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. Eating six small meals a day instead of thee large meals 33. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere d. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face presentation? a. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year b. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110. A woman has no children c. A woman has no uterus 4 |Page . Braxton-Hicks sign b.” d. Partially flexed 37. The Atienzas are a couple undergoing testing for infertility.” 32. “Anytime you both want to. Hydramnio c. Completely extended c.” d. The nurse documents this as which of the following? a.” c. Enlargement and softening of the uterus 34. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse. The nurse should be particularly alert for which of the following? a. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. Which of the following client interventions should the nurse question? a. Pica d. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus c. “After your 6 weeks examination. and severe pitting edema.” 36. Stress reduction 31. Isabela c. proteinuria. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who asks why she must have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa? a. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix. “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following would be the nurse’s best response? a. Partially extended d. Which of the following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of care? a. Lanugo b.” b. Right lateral positioning d.” c. Completely flexed b. Use soap and water to clean the nipples 30. Fetal kicking felt by the client d. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of bed c. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. Seizure precautions c. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns. The nurse understands that this indicates which of the following? a. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the following? a. McDonald’s sign 35. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce glass of water b.” b.

Latent c. The baby is asleep. FH-midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis b. The FHR baseline is 165–175bpm with variability of 0–2bpm. The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic. What would you expect during assessment 9 days before EDC? a. d. small for gestational age b. large for gestational age d. and fetal heart can be heard with a Doppler b.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. What instruction would you give her before this procedure? a. The woman should lie in a supine position with knees flexed slightly d. Feeling fetal kicks 44. Fundic height at least at the level of the xyphoid process. As the client reaches 8cm dilation. At 20 weeks of gestation. which is why only a small amount is removed 41. Hypoglycemic. Nausea and vomiting related to HCG production c. 28 cm. the nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. Hyperglycemic. In doing the Leopold’s maneuver palpation. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months 40. The nurse will expect the neonate to be: a. Absence of knee jerk reflex d. fundic height 2 fingers below xyphoid. and fetal heart cannot be heard 42. Fundic height. There is uteroplacental insufficiency. Early 49. Attitudinal 5 |Page . feeling of relief from dyspnea b.2 fingers below xyphoid process. the fundus is normally located at: a. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size b. engaged 45. Hypersomnolence c. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn and to clean her breast is she decides to breastfeed her baby. Rizalyn is scheduled to have an amniocentesis to test for fetal maturity. Cervix close. At the level of the umbilicus. To which of the learning domains will the above goals be classified into? a. small for gestational age 47. The nurse performs a vaginal exam and determines that the client's cervix is 5cm dilated with 75% effacement. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. Hyperglycemic. Isabela d. What is the most likely explanation of this pattern? a. Hypoglycemic. b. Transition d. Cognitive c. The nurse assigned in the area is aware that at 20 weeks gestation. large for gestational age c. is over the symphysis. uneffaced. There is a vagal response. Santiago City. feeling of ambivalence d. The hands of the nurse should be cold before performing the procedure 43. Decreased respiratory rate 46. Decreased urinary output b. engaged c. Psychomotor b. The umbilical cord is compressed. and the fetal heart can be heard with a fetoscope c. The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. The x-ray used to reveal your fetus’ position has no long-term effects c. 18 cm and the baby is just about to move d. Affective d. which among the following is not considered a good preparation? a. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus d. c. The woman empties her bladder before palpation c. 48. it is expected that Reigne would report to Nurse Josie which among the following: a. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is: a. Active b. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward. Based on the nurse's assessment the client is in which phase of labor? a. Be certain the hands of the nurse are warm b. floating d. Cervix open.

thin cervical mucus d. Shortness of breath on exertion 54. When evaluating a client’s knowledge of symptoms to report during her pregnancy. a. the electronic tracing displays a relatively flat line for fetal movement. Isabela 50. Which finding indicates a genetic risk factor? a. the nurse in charge should instruct the client to push the control button at which time? a. Evaluate the health education program 51. Increased vaginal mucus d. During this stage. 3 full days of elevated basal body temperature and clear. Basal body temperature increase of 0. The client states that she is in labor. Every 5 minutes b. At the end of fetal movement 57. making it difficult to evaluate the fetal heart rate (FHR). Every 30 minutes d. The patient was exposed to rubella at 36 weeks’ gestation d. Assess the client’s readiness to learn b. At the beginning of each fetal movement b. Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz 56. The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis c. Return preovulatory basal body temperature b. Accompanied by her husband. In this method. Every 15 minutes c. The patient has a history of preterm labor at 32 weeks’ gestation 55.2 degrees on the 2ndor 3rd day of cycle c. A patient is in last trimester of pregnancy. A patient is in the second stage of labor. Blurred vision b. The nurse in charge is reviewing a patient’s prenatal history. The first step that the nurse must first remember in implementing a health education program for clients is which of the following? a. Hemorrhoids c. “Who will be with you during labor?” 52. Nurse Jane should instruct her to notify her primary health care provider immediately if she notices: a. Santiago City. which statement would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client understands the information given to her? a. “Do you have any chronic illness?” b. The patient is 25 years old b. a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway.” 6 |Page . A adult female patient is using the rhythm (calendar-basal body temperature) method of family planning. how frequently should the nurse in charge assess her uterine contractions? a. “I’ll report increased frequency of urination. After every three fetal movements d. and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care. During a nonstress test (NST). Assist the client to define goals and objectives c. To mark the strip.1 degrees to 0. Every 60 minutes 53. “What is your expected due date?” d. “Do you have any allergies?” c. At the beginning of each contraction c. the unsafe period for sexual intercourse is indicated by. Which question should the nurse ask her first? a. Prioritize client’s needs d.

During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation.” d. “You should check with your surgeon to determine whether breast-feeding would be possible. “If I feel tired after resting. c. Instructing the client about the importance of perineal (Kegel) exercises 60. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered d. c. c. The mother indicates she wants to breast-feed. 1 cm above the ischial spines. c. A client.to 20-week pregnancy. an extrauterine pregnancy. I should report it immediately. Although she’s 14 weeks pregnant. b. Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to cushion the area c. The baby’s lips smacking 63. Based on these findings. Which of the following would be contraindicated when caring for this client? a. Amniocentesis. “If I have blurred or double vision. Audible swallowing. d. a pregnant client asks whether tests can be done to identify fetal abnormalities. After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor. directly in line with the ischial spines. “It’s contraindicated for you to breast-feed following this type of surgery. “You should be able to breast-feed without difficulty. The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. b. Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours b. the nurse discovers that the client had a reduction mammoplasty. “Nausea should be reported immediately. Ultrasound 64. examination of the client’s vagina reveals a fourth-degree laceration. 7 |Page . What information should the nurse give to this mother regarding breast-feeding success? a. Diaz diagnoses gestational trophoblastic disease and orders ultrasonography. Dr. a severely malformed fetus.” c. Santiago City. “I support your commitment. A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal clinic. b. which procedure is used to detect fetal anomalies? a. Her BPP score is 8. b. 62. What does this score indicate? a. The nurse expects ultrasonography to reveal: a. d. is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP) to evaluate the health of her fetus. Following a precipitous delivery. grapelike clusters. d.” b. the nurse-midwife knows that the fetal presenting part is: a. Fetoscopy.” c. Chorionic villi sampling. Isabela b. b. When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit. Between 18 and 40 weeks’ gestation. however. The client should repeat the test in 24 hours. Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in a mother who’s breast-feeding? a. 61.” 59. the nurse-midwife determines that the fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at –1 station. in no relationship to the ischial spines.” d. 30 weeks pregnant. I should call the clinic immediately. The attachment of the baby to the breast. The mother’s comfort level with positioning the baby. the size of her uterus approximates that in an 18. 1 cm below the ischial spines. d. an empty gestational sac.” 58. you may have to supplement each feeding with formula.

To assess the client’s preparation for parenting. Fundus d. d. Methylegonovine (Methergine) d. For which of the following would the nurse be alert? a. “Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia?” b. “What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby?” d. Isabela c. After teaching the client about the purpose for the ultrasound. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours 70. After explaining self-care measures for common discomforts of pregnancy. Endometritis b. Nitrofurantoin (macrodantin) 69. which of the following locations identified by the client as the area of relief would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective? a. Protamine sulfate c. Back b. Encourage the mother to discontinue breast-feeding c.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. The test will determine where to insert the needle d. which of the following drugs would the nurse Mica expect to administer if the client develops complications related to heparin therapy? a. A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days post-term. A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours and had ruptured membranes for 24 hours. which of the following client statements would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client needs further instruction? a. Abdomen c. “If I start to leak colostrum. “Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day?” 66. Notify the physician if the skin becomes bronze in color d. Perineum 71. I should cleanse my nipples with soap and water” 8 |Page . The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid 68. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation is schedule for a routine ultrasound prior to an amniocentesis. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta b. Salpingitis d. While the postpartum client is receiving herapin for thrombophlebitis. Santiago City. the nurse in charge would expect to do which of the following? a. “Have you begun prenatal classes?” c. The client desires a bilateral pudendal block anesthesia before delivery. Turn the neonate every 6 hours b. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before arising” b. The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and 1 week gestation. Endometriosis c. 65. Calcium gluconate b. The fetus isn’t in distress at this time. The client should repeat the test in 1 week. the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions when she says: a. After the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to the client. A client who’s 36 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. the nurse might ask which question? a. Pelvic thrombophlebitis 67. When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord c.

A primigravida client at 25 weeks’ gestation visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her lower back aches when she arrives home from work. Babinski reflex c. Letting go c. Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan? a.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. Grasping reflex d. Labor induction with oxytocin 74. hands opened. Which of the following would the nurse Sandra most likely expect to find when assessing a pregnant client with abruption placenta? a. Squatting exercises 77. Rigid. Taking hold d. Premature rupture of membranes 9 |Page . the neonate throws out its arms. Nurse Julia plans to instruct the postpartum client about methods to prevent breast engorgement. Immediate cesarean delivery d. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields c. Taking in b. “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the area” 72. Notify the neonate’s pediatrician immediately b. Activity limited to bed rest b. Secure the diaper tightly to apply pressure on the site d. Platelet infusion c. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on the first day b. By this time. Which of the following would the nurse in charge do first after observing a 2-cm circle of bright red bleeding on the diaper of a neonate who just had a circumcision? a. Santiago City. Breast-feeding the neonate at frequent intervals d. Excessive vaginal bleeding b. and begins to cry. Titanic uterine contractions d. “If I have a vaginal discharge. Check the diaper and circumcision again in 30 minutes c. the nurse tells the client that the usual treatment for partial placenta previa is which of the following? a. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours 75. The nurse should suggest that the client perform: a. A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. The nurse interprets this reaction as indicative of which of the following reflexes? a. Apply gently pressure to the site with a sterile gauze pad 78. When the nurse on duty accidentally bumps the bassinet. I should wear nylon underwear” d. Tonic neck reflex 76. Tailor sitting b. Leg lifting c. In explaining the diagnosis. Isabela c. Shoulder circling d. Resolution 73. the nurse in charge plans discharge teaching for the client about infant care. boardlike abdomen c. the nurse expects that the phase of postpartal psychological adaptation that the client would be in would be termed which of the following? a. Thirty hours after delivery. Startle reflex b.

” d. Her pain is likely to be most intense: 10 |Page . Active phase b. A pregnant patient asks the nurse Kate if she can take castor oil for her constipation. Have the client pant-blow during the contractions 80. How should the nurse respond? a. Which factors determine the type of molding? a. A client tells the nurse. the nurse-midwife assesses the neonate’s head for signs of molding. The patient must receive anesthesia 86. “Yes. Maternal and paternal ethnic backgrounds d. Maternal parity and gravidity 85. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate action? a. Latent phase c.” When discussing neonates and stimulation with sound. which of the following would the nurse include as a means to elicit the best response? a. Pain 84. Note the fetal heart rate patterns b. The fetus must be at 0 station c. While the client is in active labor with twins and the cervix is 5 cm dilates. Administer oxygen at 6 liters by mask d.” c. A patient in her 14th week of pregnancy has presented with abdominal cramping and vaginal bleeding for the past 8 hours. Anticipatory grieving d. For a patient in active labor. it can initiate premature uterine contractions. the nurse observes contractions occurring at a rate of every 7 to 8 minutes in a 30-minute period. and weight c. and at 0 station. “I think my baby likes to hear me talk to him. Repeated stimulation with loud sounds 81.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. the nurse-midwife plans to use an internal electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) device. Santiago City. What phase of labor is she in? a. Assessment reveals that she is in early part of the first stage of labor. it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. it can promote sodium retention. “No. Transitional phase 82. The membranes must rupture b.” b. “No. Isabela 79. “No. Fetal body flexion or extension b. Notify the physician immediately c. body frame.” 83. Cooing sounds rather than words d. Maternal age. A 31-year-old multipara is admitted to the birthing room after initial examination reveals her cervix to be at 8 cm. The cervix must be dilated fully d. A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor delivery area. Immediately after a delivery. What is the primary nursing diagnosis for this patient? a. it produces no adverse effect. Fluid volume deficit c. completely effaced (100 %). Low-pitched speech with a sameness of tone c. Knowledge deficit b. What must occur before the internal EFM can be applied? a. She has passed several cloth. Expulsive phase d. High-pitched speech with tonal variations b.

V. Oxytoxin has a diuretic effect 90.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. Oxytoxin is toxic to the kidneys d. a postpartal patient reports nipple soreness. Cool room temperature 91. Around the pelvic girdle and at the perineum d. Increase heart rate c. Why must the nurse monitor the patient’s fluid intake and output closely during oxytocin administration? a. Transitional phase 93. vaginal bleeding c. or minipill. At the perineum 87. After 3 days of breast-feeding. headaches. Cold weight scale c. Cools incubator walls d. A female adult patient is taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive. Isabela a. Five hours after birth. vaginal bleeding b. Proteinuria. After administering bethanechol to a patient with urine retention. the nurse in charge monitors the patient for adverse effects. Proteinuria. Proteinuria. administration of oxytocin (Pitocin). The nurse in charge is caring for a patient who is in the first stage of labor. headaches. the nurse should suggest that she: a. What is the shortest but most difficult part of this stage? a. where the nurse intervenes to prevent hypothermia. Because cervical effacement and dilation are not progressing in a patient in labor. Apply warm compresses to her nipples just before feedings b. Female hypogonadism c. Active phase b. Smith orders I. Premenstrual syndrome d. A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension probably exhibits which of the following symptoms? a. Which is most likely to occur? a. Decreased peristalsis b. Santiago City. Nausea and Vomiting 92. Tubal or ectopic pregnancy 88. Lubricate her nipples with expressed milk before feeding c. Low room humidity b. Endometriosis b. and then rinse 11 |Page . Oxytocin causes excessive thirst c. double vision. Headaches. Latent phase d. Progestin use may increase the patient’s risk for: a. Around the pelvic girdle and in the upper arms c. Oxytoxin causes water intoxication b. What is a common source of radiant heat loss? a. Around the pelvic girdle b. double vision d. Dry mucous membranes d. Apply soap directly to her nipples. a neonate is transferred to the nursery. uterine contractions 89. Dr. Complete phase c. double vision. To relieve her discomfort. Dry her nipples with a soft towel after feedings d.

Prevent uterine inversion b. Pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months after the immunization c. the nurse in charge should include which of the following? a. The multigravida mother with a history of rapid labor who us in active labor calls out to the nurse. the nurse in charge plans to use both hands to assess the client’s fundus to: a. While assessing a primipara during the immediate postpartum period. Maintain a patent airway 98. Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include: a. Contact the birth attendant 100.CENTER FOR ALLIED MEDICAL PROFESSIONS Maharlika Highway. Determine the size of the fundus END OF THE EXAM God Bless! “Ask and you shall Receive. 97. Cereal with milk c. Yogurt b. Vegetable soup d. “The baby is coming!” which of the following would be the nurse’s first action? a. A foul odor d. While caring for a multigravida client in early labor in a birthing center. Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation c. Peanut butter cookies 99. Auscultate the fetal heart rate d. Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation d. which of the following foods would be best if the client requests a snack? a.omie - 12 |Page . Which of the following would the nurse in charge do first? a. When preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to receive a rubella vaccine during the postpartum period. The vaccine prevents a future fetus from developing congenital anomalies b. Pad the side rails b. Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation b. Time the contractions c. A client with eclampsia begins to experience a seizure. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time? a. Seek and you shall Find. Santiago City. Insert a padded tongue blade into the mouth d. Promote uterine involution c. Bright red blood b. Knock and it shall be Opened to you” . Inspect the perineum b. The injection will provide immunity against the 7-day measles. Place a pillow under the left buttock c. Isabela 94. Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation 95. The client should avoid contact with children diagnosed with rubella d. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The complete absence of lochia 96. Hasten the puerperium period d. Large clots or tissue fragments c.