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GRE10-8(98.

4)
SECTION 1 5. The passions of love and pride are often found
Time –30 minutes in the same individual, but having little in
18 Questions common, they mutually ----, not to say destroy,
each other.
1. While many Russian composers of the (A) reinforce
nineteenth century contributed to an emerging (B) annihilate
national style, other composers did not---- (C) enhance
idiomatic Russian musical elements, ---- instead (D) weaken
the traditional musical vocabulary of Western (E) embrace
European Romanticism.
(A) utilize ..rejecting 6. The necessity of establishing discrete categories
(B) incorporate.. preferring for observations frequently leads to attempts to
(C) exclude.. avoiding make absolute ----when there are in reality
(D) repudiate.. expanding only----.
(E) esteem.. disdaining (A) analyses.. hypotheses
(B) correlations.. digressions
2. Because the painter Albert Pinkham Ryder was (C) distinctions.. gradations
obsessed with his ----perfection, he was rarely (D) complications.. ambiguities
----a painting, creating endless variations of a (E) conjectures.. approximations
scene on one canvas, one on top of another.
(A) quest for.. satisfied with 7. A unique clay disk found at the Minoan site of
(B) insistence on .. displeased with Phaistos is often ----as the earliest example of
(C) contempt for.. disconcerted by printing by scholars who have defended its claim
(D) alienation from.. immersed in to this status despite equivalent claims put
(E) need for.. concerned with forward for other printing artifacts.
(A) questioned
3. Objectively set standards can serve as a ----for (B) overlooked
physicians, providing them ----unjustified (C) adduced
malpractice claims. (D) conceded
(A) trial.. evidence of (E) dismissed
(B) model.. experience with
(C) criterion.. reasons for 8. EXEMPT: LIABILITY::
(D) test.. questions about (A) flout: authority
(E) safeguard.. protection from (B) bestow: reward
(C) permit: request
4. In spite of ----reviews in the press, the (D) restrain: disorder
production of her play was ----almost certain (E) pardon: penalty
oblivion by enthusiastic audiences whose 9. FULL-BODIED: FLAVOR::
acumen was greater than that of the critics. (A) penetrating: vision
(A) lukewarm.. condemned to (B) humorous: character
(B) scathing.. exposed to (C) salacious: language
(C) lackluster.. rescued from (D) nostalgic: feeling
(D) sensitive.. reduced to (E) resonant: sound
(E) admiring.. insured against

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GRE10-8(98.4)
10. LEGACY: PREDECESSOR:: (C) persistence: acquiescence
(A) gift: donor (D) frenzy: emotion
(B) gratuity: service (E) indifference: greeting
(C) contribution: charity
(D) receipt: customer Much of the research on hallucinogenic drugs such
(E) loan: collector as LSD has focused on the neurotransmitter serotonin,
a chemical that when released from a presynaptic
11. HERO: ADMIRABLE:: serotonin-secreting neuron causes the transmission of
(A) critic: capricious (5) a nerve impulse across a synapse to an adjacent
(B) braggart: surly postsynaptic, or target, neuron. There are two major
(C) eccentric: unconventional reasons for this emphasis. First, it was discovered
(D) anarchist: powerful early on that many of the major hallucinogens have a
(E) enemy: immoral molecular structure similar to that of serotonin. In
(10) addition, animal studies of brain neurochemistry
12. GALVANIZE: STIMULATE:: following administration of hallucinogens invariably
(A) agitate: occlude reported changes in serotonin levels.
(B) incubate: humidify Early investigators correctly reasoned that the
(C) sterilize: separate structural similarity to the serotonin molecule might
(D) irrigate: flush (15) imply that LSD’s effects are brought about by an
(E) purify: amalgamate action on the neurotransmission of serotonin in the
brain. Unfortunately, the level of technical expertise
13. MANIFEST: PERCEIVE:: in the field of brain research was such that this
(A) porous: tear hypothesis had to be tested on peripheral tissue
(B) renovated: improve (20) (tissue outside the brain). Two different groups of
(C) doubtful: assess scientists reported that LSD powerfully blockaded
(D) brittle: break serotonin’s action. Their conclusions were quickly
(E) elite: qualify challenged, however. We now know that the action
of a drug at one site in the body does not necessarily
14. LOOSE: CONFINEMENT:: (25) correspond to the drug’s action at another site,
(A) forgive: injury especially when one site is in the brain and the other
(B) promulgate: rule is not.
(C) disabuse: misconception By the 1960’s, technical advances permitted the
(D) redress: allegation direct testing of the hypothesis that LSD and related
(E) disengage: independence (30) hallucinogens act by directly suppressing the activity
of serotonin-secreting neurons themselves— the so-
15. BLANDISHMENT: COAX:: called presynaptic hypothesis. Researchers reasoned
(A) prevarication: deceive that if the hllucinogenic drugs act by suppressing the
(B) reverie: dream activity of serotonin-secreting neurons, then drugs
(C) persuasion: coerce (35) administered after these neurons had been destroyed
(D) enticement: impoverish should have no effect on behavior, because the
(E) explanation: mislead system would already be maximally suppressed.
Contrary to their expectations, neuron destruction
16. CONVULSION: CONTRACTION:: enhanced the effect of LSD and related hallucinogens
(A) aggression: attack (40) on behavior. Thus, hallucinogenic drugs apparently
(B) sulkiness: punishment do not act directly on serotonin-secreting neurons.

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GRE10-8(98.4)
However, these and other available data do support studies of animals and not by studies of
an alternative hypothesis, that LSD and related drugs human beings
act directly at receptor sites on serotonin target (E) the level of technical expertise in the field of
(45) neurons (the postsynaptic hypothesis ). The fact that brain research did not permit adequate
LSD elicits “serotonin syndrome” — that is, causes testing of the hypothesis
the same kinds of behaviors as does the adminis-
tration of serotonin— in animals whose brains are 19. Which of the following best expresses the main
depleted of serotonin indicates that LSD acts directly idea of the passage?
(50)on serotonin receptors, rather than indirectly through (A) Research has suggested that the
the release of stores of serotonin. The enhanced effect neurotransmitter serotonin is responsible for
of LSD reported after serotonin depletion could be the effects of hallucinogenic drogs on the
due to a proliferation of serotonin receptor sites on brain and on behavior.
serotonin target neurons. This phenomenon often (B) Researchers have spent an inadequate amount
(55) follows neuron destruction or neurotransmitter of time developing theories concerning the way
depletion; the increase in the number of receptor sites in which the effects of hallucinogenic drugs occur.
appears to be a compensatory response to decreased (C) Research results strongly suggest that
input. Significantly, this hypothesis is supported by hallucinogenic drugs create their effects by
data from a number of different laboratories. acting on the serotonin receptor sites located
on target neurons in the brain.
17. According to the passage, which of the (D) Researchers have recently made valuable
following is one of the primary factors that led discoveries concerning the effects of
researchers studying hallucinogenic drugs to depleting the amount of serotonin in the
focus on serotonin? brain.
(A) The suppression of the activity of serotonin- (E) Researchers have concluded that hallucinogenic
secreting neurons by the administration of drugs suppress the activity of serotonin-secreting
hallucinogens neurons.
(B) The observed similarities in the chemical
structures of serotonin and hallucinogens 20. The research described in the passage is
(C) The effects the administration of primarily concerned with answering which of
hallucinogens has on serotonin production the following questions?
in the human brain (A) How can researchers control the effects that
(D) Serotonin-induced changes in the effects of LSD has on behavior?
hallucinogens on behavior (B) How are animals’ reactions to LSD different
(E) Hallucinogen-induced changes in the effects from those of human beings?
of serotonin on behavior (C) What triggers the effects that LSD has on
human behavior?
18. It can be inferred that researchers abandoned the (D) What technical advances would permit
presynaptic hypothesis because researchers to predict more accurately the
(A) a new and more attractive hypothesis was effects of LSD on behavior?
suggested (E) What relationship does the suppression of
(B) no research was reported that supported the neuron activity have to the occurrence of
hypothesis “serotonin syndrome”?
(C) research results provided evidence to
counter the hypothesis
(D) the hypothesis was supported only by

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GRE10-8(98.4)
21. Which of the following best defines “serotonin LSD molecules can best be described as one of
syndrome” (line 46) as the term is used in the (A) complete agreeement
passage? (B) reluctant support
(A) The series of behaviors, usually associated (C) subtle condescension
with the administration of serotonin, that also (D) irreverent dismissal
occurs when LSD is administered to animals (E) strong opposition
whose brains are depleted of serotonin
(B) The series of behaviors, usually associated When literary periods are defined on the basis of
with the administration of LSD, that also men’s writing, women’s writing must be forcibly
occurs when the amount of serotonin in the assimilated into an irrelevant grid: a Renaissance that
brain is reduced is not a renaissance for women, a Romantic period in
(C) The maximal suppression of neuron activity (5) which women played very little part, a modernism
that results from the destruction of serotonin- with which women conflict. Simultaneously, the
secreting neurons history of women’s writing has been suppressed,
(D) The release of stores of serotonin from leaving large, mysterious gaps in accounts of the
serotonin-secreting neurons in the brain development of various genres. Feminist criticism is
(E) The proliferation of serotonin receptor sites (10) beginning to correct this situation. Margaret Anne
that follows depletion of serotonin supplies in Doody, for example, suggests that during “the period
the brain between the death of Richardson and the appearance
of the novels of Scott and Austen,” which has “been
22. Which of the following best describes the regarded as a dead period.” Late-eighteenth-century
organization of the argument that the author of (15) women writers actually developed “the paradigm
the passage presents in the last two paragraphs? for women’s fiction of the nineteenth century—
(A) Two approaches to testing a hypothesis are something hardly less than the paradigm of the
described, and the greater merits of one nineteenth-century novel itself.” Feminist critics have
approach are indicated. also pointed out that the twentieth-century writer
(B) The assumptions underlying two hypotheses (20) Virginia Woolf belonged to a tradition other than
are outlined, and evidence for and against modernism and that this tradition surfaces in her
each hypothesis is discussed. work precisely where criticism has hitherto found
(C) A phenomenon is described, and hypotheses obscurities, evasions, implausibilities, and
concerning its occurrence are considered and imperfections.
rejected. 24. It can be inferred from the passage that the
(D) The reasoning behind a hypothesis is author views the division of literature into
summarized, evidence supporting the periods based on men’s writing as an approach
hypothesis is presented, and research that that
counters the supporting evidence is (A) makes distinctions among literary periods
described. ambiguous
(E) A hypothesis is discussed, evidence (B) is appropriate for evaluating only premodern
undermining the hypothesis is revealed, and a literature
further hypothesis based on the undermining (C) was misunderstood until the advent of
evidence is explained feminist criticism
(D) provides a valuable basis from whic h
23. The author ’s attitude toward early researchers’ feminist criticism has evolved
reasoning concerning the implications of (E) obscures women’s contributions to literature
similarities in the structures of serotonin and

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GRE10-8(98.4)
25. The passage suggests which of the following
about Virginia Woolf ’s work? 29. DISCHARGE:
Ⅰ. Nonfeminist criticism of it has been flawed. (A) retreat
Ⅱ. Critics have treated it as part of modernism. (B) hire
Ⅲ. It is based on the work of late-eighteenth- (C) insist
century women writers. (D) circulate
(A) Ⅰonly (E) pause
(B) Ⅱonly
(C) Ⅰand Ⅱ only 30. INTERMITTENT:
(D) Ⅱand Ⅲ only (A) compatible
(E) Ⅰ, Ⅱand Ⅲ (B) constant
(C) neutral
26. The author quotes Doody most probably in order (D) unadulterated
to illustrate (E) indispensable
(A) a contribution that feminist criticism can
make to literary criticism 31. APT:
(B) a modernist approach that conflicts with (A) exceptionally ornate
women’s writing (B) patently absurd
(C) writing by a woman which had previously (C) singularly destructive
been ignored (D) extremely inappropriate
(D) the hitherto overlooked significance of Scott’s (E) fundamentally insensitive
and Austen’s novels
(E) a standard system of defining literary periods 32. JUSTIFY:
(A) misjudge
27. The passage provides information that answers (B) ponder
which of the following questions? (C) terminate
(A) In what tradition do feminist critics usually (D) argue against
place Virginia Woolf? (E) select from
(B) What are the main themes of women’s fiction 33. TEDIOUS:
of the nineteenth century? (A) intricate
(C) What events motivated the feminist (B) straightforward
reinterpretation of literary history? (C) conspicuous
(D) How has the period between Richardson’s (D) entertaining
death and Scott’s and Ansten’s novels (E) prominent
traditionally been regarded by critics?
(E) How was the development of the nineteenth- 34. INTEGRAL:
century novel affected by women’s fiction in (A) profuse
the same century? (B) superfluous
(C) meritorious
28. GROUNDED: (D) neutral
(A) attendant (E) displaced
(B) flawless
(C) effective 35. COWED:
(D) aloft (A) unencumbered
(E) noteworthy (B) untired

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GRE10-8(98.4)
(C) unversed SECTION 2
(D) unworried Time –30 minutes
(E) undaunted 25 Questions

36. CONCORD: Questions 1-7


(A) continuance
(B) severance A developer is assigning six rectangular building lots
(C) dissension in an industrial park to six companies— Handicorp,
(D) complex relationship Instantype, Kleentek, Linostyle, Messagex, and
(E) unrealistic hypothesis Nanoware. Each company will be assigned a dif-
ferent one of the six lots, which are arranged in two
37. FRIABLE: blocks— block 700 and block 800. Each block
(A) substantial includes three lots, numbered consecutively lot 1
(B) inflexible through lot 3. Within each block, lot 1 is adjacent to
(C) easily contained lot 2 and lot 2 is adjacent to lot 3; no other lots are
(D) slow to accelerate adjacent to each other. In assigning lots, the develo-
(E) not easily crumbled per will obey the following restrictions:
Instantype’s lot cannot be in the same block as
38. DERACINATE: Linostyle’s lot.
(A) illuminate Linostyle’s lot must be adjacent to Messagex’ lot.
(B) quench Messagex’ lot cannot be lot 2 of either block.
(C) amplify Nanoware’s lot cannot be adjacent to
(D) polish Handicorp’s lot.
(E) plant
1. Which of the following is an acceptable
assignment of companies to block 700, listed
from lot 1 through lot 3?
(A) Instantype, Handicorp, Nanoware
(B) Instantype, Linostyle, Messagex
(C) Linostyle, Messagex, Kleentek
(D) Messagex, Linostyle, Nanoware
(E) Nanoware, Instantype, Messagex

2. If Messagex is assigned a lot in block 800, which


of the following must be assigned a lot in block
700?
(A) Handicorp
(B) Instantype
(C) Kleentek
(D) Linostyle
(E) Nanoware

3. If Handicorp and Nanoware are each assigned a


lot in block 700, which of the following must be
true?

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GRE10-8(98.4)
(A) Instantype is assigned lot 2 in block 700. baked during the night shift were found to be
(B) Instantype is assigned lot 3 in block 700. imperfect, but no imperfect pastries were found
(C) Kleentek is assigned lot 1 in block 800. among those baked during the day shift. Pastries
(D) Linostyle is assigned lot 3 in block 800. are inspected during the same shift in which they
(E) Messagex is assigned lot 1 in block 800. are baked, so clearly the night-shift quality control
inspectors were more alert, despite their nighttime
4. If Nanoware is assigned lot 2 in block 700, which work hours, than the dayshift quality control
of the following is a pair of companies that must inspectors.
be assigned lots that are adjacent to each other?
(A) Handicorp and Instantype The argument depends on the assumption that
(B) Handicorp and Messagex (A) at least some imperfect pastries were baked
(C) Instantype and Kleentek during the day shift at Acme Bakery last
(D) Kleentek and Nanoware week
(E) Messagex and Nanoware (B) not all of the pastries that the night-shift
quality control inspectors judged to be
5. If Kleentek is assigned lot 2 in block 800, which imperfect were in fact imperfect
of the following can be true? (C) the night-shift quality control inspectors
(A) Handicorp is assigned a lot that is adjacent to received more training in quality control
the lot assigned to Instantype. procedures than did the day-shift quality
(B) Messagex is assigned a lot that is adjacent to control inspectors
the lot assigned to Nanoware. (D) in a normal week, fewer than six percent of
(C) Instantype is assigned a lot on block 700. the pastries baked during the night shift at
(D) Linostyle is assigned lot 1 on block 800. Acme Bakery are found to be imperfect
(E) Messagex is assigned lot 1 on block 700. (E) there are only two shifts per day at Acme
Bakery, a day shift and a night shift
6. If Instantype and Handicorp are assigned lots 1
and 2, respectively, in block 700, which of the 9. Spiders of many species change color to match
following must be true? the pigmentation of the flowers they sit on. The
(A) Kleentek is assigned lot 3 on block 700. insects preyed on by those spiders, unlike human
(B) Linostyle is assigned lot 3 on block 700. beings, possess color discrimination so acute that
(C) Messagex is assigned lot 1 on block 800. they can readily see the spiders despite the
(D) Nanoware is assigned lot 3 on block 700. seeming camouflage. Clearly, then, it must be in
(E) Nanoware is assigned lot 1 on block 800. evading their own predators that the spiders’
color changes are useful to them.
7. If Linostyle and Kleentek are assigned lots that
are on the same block as each other, which of the Which of the following, if true, most strengthens
following must be true? the argument?
(A) Handicorp is assigned lot 2 of one of the blocks. (A) Among the animals that feed on color-
(B) Instantype is assigned lot 2 of one of the blocks. changing spiders are a few species of bat,
(C) Kleentek is assigned lot 1 of one of the blocks. which find their prey through sound echoes.
(D) Linostyle is assigned lot 1 of one of the blocks. (B) Certain animals that feed on color-changing
(E) Messagex is assigned lot 3 of one of the blocks. spiders do so only sparingly in order to keep
from ingesting harmful amounts of spider
8. Auditor from Acme Industries: Last week at venom.
Acme Bakery, about six percent of the pastries (C) Color-changing spiders possess color

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GRE10-8(98.4)
discrimination that is more acute than that of and three will be scheduled to speak after lunch.
spiders that lack the ability to change color. The following conditions must be observed in
(D) Color-changing spiders spin webs that are planning the schedule for the meeting:
readily seen by the predators of those spiders. Greg must speak before lunch.
(E) The color discrimination of certain birds that There must be exactly one speaker scheduled
feed on color-changing spiders is no more to speak between Magda and Nick, whether
acute than that of human beings. or not Magda is earlier in the order of
speakers than Nick, and whether or not lunch
10. Which of the following most logically completes intervenes between Magda’s and Nick’s
the argument below? speeches.
Frank must speak either first or third.
Each year every employee of SAI Corporation
must enroll in one of the two health insurance 11. Which of the following is an acceptable order of
plans offered by SAI. One plan requires a the speakers from first to last?
sizable monetary contribution from employees; 1 2 3 4 5 6
the other plan is paid for entirely by SAI. Many (A) Frank Greg Magda Nick Julia Laura
SAI employees enroll in the plan requiring (B) Frank Julia Greg Nick Magda Laura
employee contributions. This fact does not show (C) GregJulia Frank Nick Laura Magda
that they feel that this plan’s benefits are (D) Julia Laura Frank Magda Greg Nick
superior to those provided by the plan requiring (E) Nick Julia Greg Frank Magda Laura
no employee contribution since----.
(A) the plan that requires an employee contribution 12. If Julia is the first speaker, which of the
costs and enrolled employee significantly less following must be the second speaker?
per year than do typical health insurance (A) Frank
plans offered by corporations other than SAI (B) Greg
(B) only SAI employees who have worked for (C) Laura
SAI for at least fifteen years are eligible to (D) Magda
enroll in the plan paid for entirely by SAI (E) Nick
(C) the two health insurance plans currently
offered by SAI are substantially the same 13. If Julia speaks fourth, the third speaker must be
plans SAI has offered for the past ten years either
(D) most of the SAI employees enrolled in the (A) Frank or Greg
plan paid for entirely by SAI are under 50 (B) Frank or Magda
years old (C) Greg or Laura
(E) both plans offered by SAI provide benefits (D) Laura or Nick
not only for employees of SAI but also for (E) Magda or Nick
children and spouses of enrolled employees
14. If Laura speaks in the morning and Magda is
Questions 11-17 not the sixth speaker, which of the following
must be the next speaker after Magda?
Frank, Greg, Julia, Laura, Magda, and Nick will be (A) Frank
the speakers at an all-day meeting of a local (B) Greg
astronomy club. Each speaker will speak once, for (C) Julia
one hour, with no other speakers in that hour. Three (D) Laura
speakers will be scheduled to speak before lunch (E) Nick

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GRE10-8(98.4)
15. If lunch intervenes between Magda’s and (B) Second
Nick’s speeches, which of the following lists all (C) Third
the speakers who can be the speaker scheduled (D) Fourth
between Magda and Nick? (E) Fifth
(A) Frank, Greg
(B) Greg, Julia 17. If Laura is scheduled to be the next speaker after
(C) Julia, Laura Julia, how many speakers in total must be scheduled
(D) Frank, Greg, Julia to speak before Laura?
(E) Frank, Greg, Julia, Laura (A) One
(B) Two
16. If Julia is scheduled to speak at some time before (C) Three
Frank, in which of the following positions in the (D) Four
order of speakers can Nick be scheduled to speak? (E) Five
(A) First

Questions 18-22
A kennel worker must both walk and groom each of three dogs — Lucky, Muffin, and Rover. The worker is
scheduling these activities into exactly six time slots— slot 1 through slot 6. During each time slot, the worker will
be scheduled to perform only one activity, either walking or grooming, with only one dog. The following conditions
also apply to the schedule:
Neither Lucky nor Muffin can be walked until both of them have been groomed.
Rover must be walked at some time before being groomed.
The worker cannot perform the same activity, either walking or grooming, for more than two consecutive time
slots.

18. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule for the first four time slots?
Slot 1 Slot 2 Slot 3 Slot 4
(A) Grooming Lucky Grooming Muffin Walking Lucky Grooming Rover
(B) Grooming Lucky Walking Muffin Walking Lucky Grooming Muffin
(C) Grooming Muffin Walking Rover Grooming Lucky Walking Rover
(D) Grooming Muffin Walking Rover Grooming Lucky Walking Muffin
(E) Walking Rover Grooming Muffin Groming Rover Grooming Lucky

19. The earliest time slot for which Muffin can be (E) Walking Rover
scheduled for walking is slot
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 21. If Lucky is scheduled for walking in the time
slot immediately before the time slot for which
20. If Rover is scheduled for walking in the time Rover is scheduled for walking, then which of
slot immediately before the time slot for which the following must be true?
(A) Grooming is scheduled for slot 3.
Muffin is scheduled for walking, then which
(B) Walking is scheduled for slot 2.
of the following must be scheduled for slot 5?
(C) Walking is scheduled for slot 6.
(A) Grooming Lucky
(D) Lucky is scheduled for grooming in slot 1.
(B) Grooming Rover
(E) Muffin is scheduled for walking in slot 4.
(C) Walking Lucky
22. If Rover is scheduled for walking in slot 1,
(D) Walking Muffin
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GRE10-8(98.4)
which of the following must be true? survey reported allegiance to one of the two
(A) Grooming is scheduled for slot 5. major political parties. But over a third of the
(B) Walking is scheduled for slot 2. voters from each party reported being so
(C) Walking is scheduled for slot 4. disenchanted with the governing philosophies
(D) Muffin is scheduled for grooming in slot 3. of both parties that they might join a third
(E) Rover is scheduled for grooming in slot 6. major party if one were formed. Even if this
poll reflects general voter sentiment, however,
23. V-shaped walled structures in central Asia there is no chance that a new party could
were used by prehistoric hunters who drove attract a third of all voters, since----.
hoofed animals into an enclosure at the point (A) the current level of disenchantment with the
of the V. The central Asians who built these governing philosophies of the two major
structures probably learned this hunting parties is unprecedented
technique from invaders from southwest Asia, (B) the disenchanted members of the two major
because the arrival of invaders from a region parties are attracted to very different
in southwest Asia where similar structures had governing philosophies
long been used coincides roughly with the (C) most respondents overestimated the proportion
building of the earliest of such structures in of voters disenchanted with both parties, saving
central Asia. that the proportion was more than 50 percent
(D) nearly half of all respondents reported that
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens they would be more likely to cease voting
the argument? altogether than to switch their party affiliation
(A) Excavations in the central Asian region do (E) any new party would be likely to inspire
not indicate whether invaders from citizens who have not voted before to join
southwest Asia settled permanently in and to become regular voters
central Asia.
(B) The V-shaped structures in central Asia 25. When amphibians first appeared on Earth millions
were roughly 70 meters long, whereas the of years ago, the amount of ultraviolet radiation
similar structures in southwest Asia were penetrating Earth’s atmosphere was much greater
usually over 300 meters long. than it is today. Therefore, current dramatic
(C) The walls of the structures in central Asia decreases in amphibian populations cannot be the
were made from earth, whereas the walls result of recent increases in ultraviolet radiation
of the structures in southwest Asia penetrating Earth’s atmosphere.
were made of rock.
(D) The earliest examples of V-shaped walled Which of the following is an assumption on which
structures in central Asia were of an the argument depends?
advanced design. (A) The eggs of modern amphibians are not
(E) Some of the walled structures used for significantly more vulnerable to ultraviolet
hunting in southwest Asia were built well radiation than the eggs of the first
after the earliest such structures were built amphibians were.
in central Asia. (B) Modern amphibians are not as likely as the
first amphibians were to live in habitats that
24. Which of the following most logically shield them from ultraviolet radiation.
completes the argument? (C) Populations of modern amphibians are not
able to adapt to changing levels of radiation
Virtually all respondents to a recent voter as readily as populations of early amphibians

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GRE10-8(98.4)
were. SECTION 3
(D) The skin of amphibians is generally more Time— 30 minutes
sensitive to ultravio let radiation than the 30 Questions
skin of other animals is.
(E) The skin of amphibians is less sensitive to The rent for each room at Hotel X was $ 120 before it
ultraviolet radiation than to other types of was increased 10 percent.
radiation.
1. The rent for each room $132
at Hotel X immediately
after the increase

1 1
2.
22.03 − 1.03 2

Train X traveled away from station A, and train Y


traveled toward station A. The trains traveled toward
each other on parallel tracks and passed each other at
10:30 A.M.

3. The number of min- The number of min-


utes before 10:30 A.M. utes after 10:30 A.M.
that train X traveled that train Y traveled
after leaving station A before arriving at
station A

4. The length of the The length of the


hypotenuse of a right hypotenuse of a right
triangle with legs of triangle with legs of
lengths 3 and 4 lengths 2 and 5

The average (arithmetic mean )of the numbers


1, 2, 3, 4, and n is equal to 2.

5. n 2

6. x y

1 1 m+n
7. +
m n mn
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GRE10-8(98.4)
16. If the range of the six measurements 140,
Points P, Q, and R have rectangular coordinates 125, 180, 110, 165, and x is 80, which of the
(0,8), (4, 0), and (0, -3) , respectively. following could be the value of x?
(A) 60
8. The perimeter of 25 (B) 85
△PQR (C) 190
(D) 220
4 6 (E) 245
The result of multiplying z by is
5 7
a p
9. z 1 k k k
1 100 0.10
2 200 0.25
xyz < 0 3 300 0.20
yz > 0 4 400 0.25
10. x y 5 500 0.20
____________________________________
17. If in an experiment the probabilities of
1
11. (0.01) 5
10 10 obtaining the values a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5 are

p , p , p , p , and p , respectively, then the


1 2 3 4 5
expected value is defined as
a1p1 a2p2 a3p3 a4p4+a5p5. For the values
+ + +

and their corresponding probabilities in the


table above, what is the expected value?
(A) 350
(B) 320
(C) 300
(D) 270
(E) 250

12. The perimeter of the XZ+YZ


18. If m is an integer, for what value of m is
shaded region
_____________________________________ 3m < 100 < 3m+1?

13. 3-5 0 (A) 0


(B) 1
_____________________________________
(C) 2
The sum of x and y is less than the product of x
(D) 3
and y.
(E) 4
y=1
2
14. x 0

19. A certain club is collecting money for a


10 7
− 10 6
3
charity. A local company has agreed to
15 . 100
9 contribute $ 1 to the charity for every $3

194
GRE10-8(98.4)
collected by the club. How much money must (B) 10%
the club collect in order for the total amount (C) 12%
for the charity, including the company (D) 20%
contribution, to equal $24,000? (E) 25%
(A) $18,000
(B) $16,000 23. The median score for the class is
(C) $15,000 (A) 76
(D) $12,000 (B) 77
(E) $10,000 (C) 78
(D) 79
20. A corner of a square tile is cut off, leaving (E) 80
the piece shown above. What is the area of
this piece? 24. If 5 points were added to each score, which of
(A) 90 sq in the following would NOT be affected?
(B) 85 sq in (A) The highest score
(C) 80 sq in (B) The mean for all scores
(D) 75 sq in (C) The median for the seniors’ scores
(E) 70 sq in (D) The mode for the juniors’ scores
(E) The standard deviation for all scores
Questions 21-25 refer to the following
distribution. 25. If the mean score for the juniors were known,
which of the following could be calculated
TEST SCORES FOR A CLASS OF from the information given?
8 JUNIORS AND 12 SENIORS Ⅰ.The range of the scores for the seniors
Ⅱ.The median score for the juniors
Ⅲ.The mean score for the seniors
(A) None
(B) Ⅰ only
(C) Ⅲ only
(D) Ⅰ and Ⅱ
(E) Ⅱ and Ⅲ

26. A membership list of 620 people shows that


31 of them have first and last names that
21. If 5 seniors have scores of 82 or above, how begin with the same letter. If a person is
many juniors have scores below 82? selected at random from the list, what is the
(A) 7 probability that the person’s first and last
(B) 6 names do not begin with the same letter?
(C) 5 (A) 0.05
(D) 4 (B) 0.25
(E) 3 (C) 0.50
(D) 0.75 (E) 0.95
22. If 76 is the lowest passing score, what percent 27. If p and r are prime numbers, which of the
of the class did not get a passing score? following must also be prime?
(A) 8% (A) pr

195
GRE10-8(98.4)
(B) p + r SECTION 4
(C) pr + 1 Time – 30 minutes
(D) p2 + r2 38 Questions
(E) None of the above
1. Punishment for violating moral rules is much
28. For what ordered pair (x, y) on the graph of more common than reward for following them;
y = 1 x - 1 does the x - coordinate equal the thus, ----- the rules goes almost ---- in society.
2
(A) association with .. undefended
y- coordinate?
(B) adherence to .. unnoticed
(A) (-2, -2)
(C) affiliation of .. uncorrected
1 1
(B) ( , ) (D) opposition to .. unchecked
2 2
(E) ignorance of .. unresolved
1
(C) (1, − )
2
2. Compassion is a great respecter of justice: we
(D) (2 , 1)
pity those who suffer ----.
(E) (2, 2)
(A) shamelessly
(B) unwittingly
29. David and Michael charged Mr. Jimenez $3,000 to
(C) vicariously
remodel his basement. To complete the project,
(D) intensively
David worked 4 days alone, Michael worked 1 day
(E) undeservedly
alone, and they worked 10 days together. If they
each received the same amount of money for each
3. No work illustrated his disdain for a systematic
day that they worked, how much of the $3,000 did
approach to research better than his
David receive?
dissertation, which was rejected primarily
(A) $1,800
because his bibliography constituted, at best,
(B) $1,750
----- survey of the major texts in his field.
(C) $1,680
(A) an unimaginative
(D) $1,575
(B) an orthodox
(E) $1,200
(C) a meticulous
(D) a comprehensive
15
30. If x is positive and 6 - x 2 = , then x = (E) a haphazard
16
81
(A)
16 4. In contrast to the----- with which the
9
(B) acquisition of language by young children was
10
once regarded, the process by which such
3
(C) learning occurs has now become the object
2
2 of ----- .
(D)
3 (A) intensity .. fascination
3
(E) (B) incuriosity .. scrutiny
2
(C) anxiety .. criticism
(D) reverence .. admiration
(E) impatience .. training

5. The senator’s remark that she is ambivalent


about running for a second term is -----given

196
GRE10-8(98.4)
the extremely ----- fund-raising activities of (A) recommend: insistence
her campaign committee. (B) reciprocate: treatment
(A) disingenuous .. reluctant (C) rehabilitate: demolition
(B) futile .. clandestine (D) attach: conquest
(C) sincere .. visible (E) offer: sale
(D) persuasive .. apathetic
(E) straightforward .. energetic 10. DICTIONARY: ALPHABETICAL::
(A) map: contoured
6. Until quite recently research on diabetes had, as (B) diary: anecdotal
a kind of holding action, attempted to refine (C) outline: detailed
the -----of the disease, primarily because no (D) narrative: prosaic
preventive strategy seemed at all likely to (E) annals: chronological
be ----- .
(A) definition .. necessary 11. ATTENUATE: THICKNESS::
(B) anticipation .. acceptable (A) separate: substance
(C) understanding .. costly (B) ventilate: circulation
(D) treatment .. practicable (C) vaccinate: immunity
(E) symptoms .. feasible (D) relocate: site
(E) debilitate: strength
7. Most plant species exhibit ----- in their
geographical distribution: often, a given species 12. SATIRE: RIDICULE::
is found over a large geographical area, but (A) oration: enmity
individual populations within that range are (B) lullaby: dream
widely ----- . (C) parody: praise
(A) discontinuity .. separated (D) elegy: sorrow
(B) density .. dispersed (E) sonnet: remembrance
(C) symmetry .. observed
(D) uniformity .. scattered 13. STOIC: PERTURB::
(E) concentration .. adaptable (A) perplexed: enlighten
(B) nondescript: neglect
(C) tranquil: pacify
Directions: In each of the following questions, a (D) avaricious: satisfy
related pair of words or phrases is followed by five (E) daunting: bewilder
lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair
that best expresses a relationship similar to that 14. EXCULPATORY: ABSOLVE::
expressed in the original pair. (A) motivational: stir
(B) conventional: resist
8. FATIGUE: REST:: (C) rhetorical: speak
(A) gravity: weight (D) pedantic: learn
(B) friction: heat (E) ponderous: choose
(C) dehydration: water
(D) dizziness: vertigo 15. MODERATE: INTENSITY::
(E) radiation: light (A) extenuate: seriousness
(B) separate: distance
9. RECYCLE: DISPOSAL:: (C) indulge: chaos

197
GRE10-8(98.4)
(D) commemorate: memorial 18. The author of the passage would most likely
(E) disparage: animosity describe the findings of Roup and Sepkoski as
(A) plausible, because the findings supported
16. JOLT: MOVE:: the theories of previous researchers
(A) possess: acquire (B) significant, because the findings were an
(B) arrive: remain impetus for subsequent research
(C) check: stop (C) controversial, because the findings contradicted
(D) spiral: turn the theories of previous researchers
(E) rattle: hear (D) questionable, because the authors were not
working in their field of expertise
The origin of the theory that major geologic events (E) definitive, because the findings confirmed
may occur at regular intervals can be traced back not the existence of a rhythmically recurring
to a study of volcanism or plate tectonics but to an force
investigation of marine extinctions. In the early 1980’s,
(5) scientists began to look closely at the question of how 19. The author of the passage is primarily
these extinctions occur. Two paleontologists, Raup concerned with
and Sepkoski, compiled amaster list of marine species (A) determining the dates of various geologic
that died out duringthe past 268 million years and events
noted that there were brief periods during which (B) defending the conclusions reached by
(10) many species disappeared at once. These mass extinc - Raup and Sepkoski
tions occurred at surprisingly regular intervals. (C) establishing a link between the disciplines
Later studies revealed that extinctions of terrestrial of paleontology and geology
reptiles and mammals also occurred periodically. (D) proving that mass extinctions of marine
These findings, combined with the research of Raup animals occur periodcally
(15) and Sepkoski, led scientists to hypothesize the (E) explaining how a theory concerning
existence of some kind of cyclically recurring force geologic events was formulated
powerful enough to affect living things profoundly.
Speculation that so powerful a force might affect 20. The passage suggests which of the following
gelogic events as well led geologists to search for about the “force” mentioned in lines 16 and
(20) evidence of periodicity in episodes of volcanism, 18 ?
seafloor spreading, and plate movement. (A) It is responsible for most of the major
geologic events that have occurred.
17. According to the passage, Raup and Sepkoski’s (B) It is responsible for most of the marine
research was concerned with extinctions that have occurred.
(A) learning more about the habitats of marine (C) Its recurrence is unlikely to be able to be
species predicted by scientists.
(B) studying plate tectonics and the occurrence (D) Its existence was not seriously considered
of volcanism over the past 268 million years by scientists before Raup and Sepkoski did
(C) examining extinctions of marine species their research.
over the past 268 million years (E) Its existence was confirmed by the research
(D) finding out whether a rhythmically recurring of Raup and Sepkoski.
geologic force exists
(E) confirming previous evidence suggesting A recent history of the Chicago meat-packing
that extinction of terrestrial species occurred industry and its workers examines how the industry
regularly grew from its appearance in the 1830’s through the

198
GRE10-8(98.4)
early 1890’s. Meat-packers, the author argues, had feelings the meat-packers had for their industrial
(5) good wages, working conditions, and prospects for (50) neighborhood may account for the history’s faulty
advancement within the packinghouses, and did not generalizations. The pride and contentment the author
cooperate with labor agitators since labor relations remarks upon were, arguably, less the products of the
were so harmonious. Because the history maintains industrial world of the packers ---- the giant yards and
that conditions were above standard for the era, the the intricate plants ---- than of the unity and vibrance
(10) frequency of labor disputes, especially in the mid- (55)of the ethnic cultures that formed a viable community
1880’s, is not accounted for. The work ignores the on Chicago’s South Side. Indeed, the strength of this
fact that the 1880’s were crucial years in American community succeeded in generating a social movement
labor history, and that the packinghouse workers’ that effectively confronted the problems of the industry
efforts were part of the national movement for labor that provided its livelihood.
(15) reform.
In fact, other historical sources for the late nine- 21. The passage is primarily concerned with discussing
teenth century record deteriorating housing and high (A) how historians ought to explain the origins
disease and infant mortality rates in the industrial of the conditions in the Chicago meat-
community, due to low wages and unhealthy working packing industry
(20) conditions. Additional data from the University of (B) why it is difficult to determine the actual
Chicago suggest that the packinghouses were danger- nature of the conditions in the Chicago
ous places to work. The government investigation meat-packing industry
commissioned by President Theodore Roosevelt (C) why a particular account of the conditions
which eventually led to the adoption of the 1906 in the Chicago meat-packing industry is
(25) Meat Inspection Act found the packinghouses inaccurate
unsanitary, while social workers observed that most (D) what ought to be included in any account
of the workers were poorly paid and overworked. of the Chicago meat-packers’ role in the
The history may be too optimistic because most of national labor movement
its data date from the 1880’s at the latest, and the infor- (E) what data are most relevant for an accurate
(30) mation provided from that decade is insufficiently account of the relations between Chicago
analyzed. Conditions actually declined in the 1880’s, meat-packers and local labor agitators
and continued to decline after the 1880’s, due to a
reorganization of the packing process and a massive 22. The author of the passage mentions all of the
influx of unskilled workers. The deterioration in following as describing negative conditions in
(35) worker status, partly a result of the new availability of the meat-packing industry EXCEPT
unskilled and hence cheap labor, is not discussed. (A) data from the University of Chicago
Though a detailed account of work in the packing- (B) a recent history of the meat-packing
houses is attempted, the author fails to distinguish industry
between the wages and conditions for skilled workers (C) social workers
(40) and for those unskilled laborers who comprised the (D) historical sources for the late nineteenth
majority of the industry’s workers from the 1880’s century
on. While conditions for the former were arguably (E) government records
tolerable due to the strategic importance of skilled
workers in the complicated slaughtering, cutting, and 23. The author of the passage mentions the “social
(45) packing process (though worker complaints about the movement” (line 57) generated by Chicago’s
rate and conditions of work were frequent), pay and South Side community primarily in order to
conditions for the latter were wretched. (A) inform the reader of events that occurred in
The author ’s misinterpretation of the origins of the the meat-packing industry after the period

199
GRE10-8(98.4)
of time covered by the history 26. The tone of the author of the passage in discussing
(B) suggest the history’s limitations by the meat-packer community on Chicago’s South Side
pointing out a situation that the history can best be described as one of
failed to explain adequately (A) appreciation of the community’s ability to
(C) salvage the history’s point of view by cope with difficult conditions
suggesting that there were positive (B) admiration for the community’s refusal to
developments in the meat-packing industry cooperate with labor agitators
due to worker unity (C) indignation at the kinds of social conditions the
(D) introduce a new issue designed to elaborate community faced
on the good relationship between the meat- (D) annoyance at the community’s inability to
packers and Chicago’s ethnic communities abolish discrimination in the meat-packing
(E) suggest that the history should have industry
focused more on the general issue of the (E) concern that the meat-packers’ feelings for
relationship between labor movements and their community have not been documented
healthy industrial communities
27. The information in the passage suggests that
24. According to the passage, the working the author of the history discussed in the
conditions of skilled workers in the meat- passage made which of the following errors?
packing industry during the 1880’s were (A) Failing to recognize the effect of the
influenced by diversity of the South Side community on
(A) the workers’determined complaints about the meat-packers’efforts to reform the
the rate and conditions of their work industry
(B) the efforts of social workers to improve (B) Attributing good working conditions in the
sanitation in the packinghouses meat-packing industry to the efforts of labor
(C) the workers’ability to perform the agitators
industry’s complex tasks (C) Overemphasizing the importance of the
(D) improvements in the industry’s packing availability of unskilled labor as an influence
process that occurred in the 1880’s on conditions in the meat packing industry
(E) opportunities for job advancement due to (D) Interpreting the meat-packers’ feelings for
the filling of less desira ble positions by their community as appreciation of their
increasing numbers of unskilled workers industry
(E) Failing to observe the pride and contentment
25. The author of the passage uses the second felt by the meat-packers
paragraph to
(A) summarize the main point of the history 28. CELEBRITY:
discussed in the passage (A) eccentricity
(B) explain why the history discussed in the (B) informality
passage has been disparaged by critics (C) obscurity
(C) evaluate the findings of recent studies that (D) aloofness
undermine the premises of the history (E) nonchalance
discussed in the passage
(D) introduce a hypothesis that will be discussed in 29. CHRONIC:
detail later in the passage (A) imminent
(E) present evidence that is intended to refute the (B) asynchronous
argument of the history discussed in the passage (C) sequential

200
GRE10-8(98.4)
(D) sporadic 36. DIURNAL:
(E) spontaneous (A) predictable
(B) ephemeral
30. ACCUMULATION: (C) primitive
(A) severance (D) nocturnal
(B) dissipation (E) vestigial
(C) reciprocity
(D) absolution 37. APOLOGIST:
(E) remuneration (A) accompanist
(B) protagonist
31. CALCIFICATION: (C) supplicant
(A) forgetfulness (D) critic
(B) abundance (E) conspirator
(C) streamlining
(D) clairvoyance 38. VIRULENT:
(E) flexibility (A) auspicious
(B) polite
32. MIGRATORY: (C) salubrious
(A) speculative (D) vanquished
(B) transitory (E) intermittent
(C) sedentary
(D) kinetic
(E) convergent

33. CIVILITY:
(A) impassivity
(B) rudeness
(C) indiscretion
(D) dubiety
(E) indolence

34. VARIANCE:
(A) contingency
(B) congruity
(C) encumbrance
(D) usefulness
(E) distinctness

35. GENIAL:
(A) dyspeptic
(B) ceremonious
(C) wistful
(D) ravishing
(E) variable

201
GRE10-8(98.4)
SECTION 5 basic commodities.
Time – 30 minutes (C) Jars of cooking oil were traditionally
25 Questions bought as wedding gifts in Selea at the time
the tax went into effect, and gifts of
1. Chris: Hundreds of traffic accidents annually are cooking oil increased after the
attributable to the poor condition of our city’s implementation of the tax.
streets. The streets must therefore be repaired to (D) After the tax was imposed., Selean
save lives. merchants began selling cooking oil in
larger jars than before.
Leslie: For less than the cost of those repairs, the city (E) Few Selean households began to produce
could improve its mass transit system and thus their own cooking oil after the tax was
dramatically reduce traffic congestion, which imposed.
contributes significantly to those traffic accidents.
The city cannot afford to do both, so it should Questions 3-8
improve mass transit, because reduced traffic A small ski resort’s ski patrol has exactly six members
congestion has additional advantages. –--- F, G, J, K, M, and O –--- who communicate with
each other by means of one-way and two-way radios.
Which of the following best describes the point Each patrol member has a oneway radio capable of
at issue between Chris and Leslie? transmitting signals to exactly one other patrol member:
(A) Whether a certain problem in fact exists F signals G, G signals J, J signals K, K signals M, M
(B) How a certain problem came into being signals O, and O signals F. In addition, F and K have
(C) Who is responsible for addressing a certain two-way radios enabling each to signal the other, and J
problem and O have two-way radios enabling each to signal the
(D) Whether the city has sufficient financial other.
resources to address a certain problem
(E) How the city can best address a certain No other transmissions of signals between ski
problem patrol members are possible.
No patrol member can transmit a particular
2. According to ancient records, the first tax that the message more than once.
government of Selea imposed on a basic commodity Transmission of a message ceases once the
was a tax of two centima coins on every jar of intended recipient receives the message.
cooking oil sold in Selea. Tax records show that
despite a stable population and strict enforcement of 3. Which of the following patrol members can
tax laws, revenues from the oil tax declined steeply signal M directly?
over the first two years that the tax was in effect. (A) F
(B) G
Which of the following, if true, most helps to (C) J
explain the decline in Selean oil-tax revenues? (D) K
(E) O
(A) During the decade following the
implementation of the tax, the average 4. If O wishes to send a communication to G using
household income in Selea rose steadily. the fewest possible intermediaries, the person O
(B) Two years after implementing the tax on signals directly must be
cooking oil, the Selean government began (A) F
to implement taxes on numerous other (B) G

202
GRE10-8(98.4)
(C) J house fires, mandating acoustic -sensor-based alarms
(D) K instead of smoke detectors will eliminate house fire as
(E) M a major cause of death.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens


5. Which of the following communications would
the argument given?
require a minimum of two intermediaries?
(A) The present high cost of acoustic-sensor-
(A) From F to K
based alarm systems will decline if their
(B) From G to K
use becomes widespread.
(C) From J to F
(B) When fully ignited, many materials used in
(D) From K to G
housing construction give off sounds that are
(E) From M to K
audible even from several hundred yards away.
(C) Many fires begin in cushions or in
6. If a communication is to be sent from K to G via
mattresses, producing large amounts of
the fewest possible intermediaries, that
smoke without giving off any sounds.
communication must be sent
(D) Two or more acoustic -sensor-based alarms
(A) from K to F to G
would be needed to provide adequate
(B) from K to J to G
protection in some larger houses.
(C) from K to O to G
(E) Smoke detectors have been responsible for
(D) from K to O to J to G
saving many lives since their use became
(E) from K to M to O to F to G
widespread.
10. In December 1992 Tideville Shopping Mall repaired
7. A message could be sent by either of two
and improved the lighting in the mall’s parking lots,
different routes, each using the same number of
and in 1993 car thefts and attempted car thefts from
intermediaries, from
those lots decreased by 76 percent from the previous
(A) F to O
year. Since potential car thieves are generally
(B) G to M
deterred by good lighting, the decrease can be
(C) G to K
attributed to these improvements.
(D) J to O
(E) M to G
Which of the following, if true, most helps to
strengthen the argument above?
8. A message could be sent by any of three
(A) Both in 1992 and in 1993, most of the cars
different routes from
stolen from the mall’s parking lots were
(A) F to M
relatively new and expensive luxury
(B) G to F
models.
(C) G to O
(B) Most of the cars that were stolen from the
(D) J to K
mall in 1992 were stolen between 11 A. M.
(E) K to G
and 4 P.M.
(C) Tideville Shopping Mall is one of only
9. Housing construction materials give off distinctive
three shopping malls in the Tideville area.
sounds when exposed to high temperatures. Acoustic
(D) In the town of Tideville, where the mall is
sensors accurately detect such sounds and fire alarms
located, the number of car thefts was about
incorporating acoustic sensors can provide an early
the same in 1993 as in 1992.
warning of house fires, allowing inhabitants to escape
(E) In 1993 the number of security officers
before being overcome by smoke. Since smoke
patrolling the mall’s parking lots at night
inhalation is the most common cause of fatalities in
was doubled.
203
GRE10-8(98.4)
11. Legislator: We should not waste any more of the airline compares to other airlines with
taxpayers’ money on the government’s job-creation respect to the percentage of flights delayed
program. The unemployment rate in this country has last year
actually risen since the program was begun, so the (D) those airlines with the best on-time
program has clearly been a failure. performance record last year also had the
greatest number of delays for mechanical
Which of the following is an assumption on which reasons
the legislator’s argument depends? (E) on-time performance was approximately
(A) The budget of the job-creation program has the same for all domestic airlines last year
typically increased every year.
(B) The unemployment rate would not have Questions 13-18
risen even more than it has if the job- Four types of vines – ---F, G, H, and I ---– are
creation program had not been in existence. indigenous to an area that contains a small forest. The
(C) The unemployment rate is higher now than forest has three habitats – 1, 2, and 3 – which are located
at any time before the inception of the so that 1 is adjacent to 2 and 2 is adjacent to 3, but 1 is
job-creation program. not adjacent to 3. In the forest, the nature of the habitats
(D) If the job-creation program had been run and of the vines causes the growth of the vines to
more efficiently, it could have better conform to the following conditions:
served its purpose.
(E) Other government programs are no more Each habitat has either F vines or H vines or
effective in reducing unemployment than is both.
the job-creation program. G vines do not grow in habitat 2.
If F vines grow in a habitat, then G vines also
12. Which of the following most logically grow in that habitat.
completes the argument? If H vines grow in a habitat, then I vines do not
Each year a consumer agency ranks all domestic grow in any adjacent habitat.
airlines for on-time performance during the previous If I vines grow in a habitat, then F vines grow in
year, using as its sole criterion the percentage of each at least one adjacent habitat.
airline’s flights that left no more than fifteen minutes
late. The agency does not count delays due to 13. Which of the following can be a distribution of
mechanical reasons, but the fact that the percentage vine types in habitats?
of delayed flights hat were delayed for mechanical Habitat 1 Habitat 2 Habitat 3
reasons was approximately the same for all domestic (A) F, G F, H F, G, H
airlines last year means that ----- . (B) F, G G, H G, H
(C) F, G, I H, I F, G
(A) including delays for mechanical reasons in (D) G, H, I H F, G, H
calculating the airline rankings for on- (E) H H F, G, H
time performance would have had little, if
any, effect on last year’s rankings 14. Which of the following CANNOT be true?
(B) airlines would work harder to reduce (A) F vines grow in habitat 2.
delays if delays for mechanical reasons (B) F vines grow in habitat 3.
were included in the determination of on- (C) G vines grow in habitat 1.
time performance rankings (D) G vines grow in habitat 3.
(C) the agency’s rankings do not give (E) I vines grow in habitat 2.
consumers an accurate idea of how a given

204
GRE10-8(98.4)
15. Which of the following must be true? umpire.
(A) F vines grow in habitat 1. Jean and Karen cannot both be spectators.
(B) F vines grow in habitat 3.
(C) H vines grow in habitat 1. 19. If Karen is a spectator, which of the following
(D) H vines grow in habitat 2. must be true?
(E) H vines grow in habitat 3. (A) Irma is a player.
(B) Jean is a player.
16. Which of the following is a complete and (C) Lois is a player.
accurate list of the habitats in which I vines (D) Maria is the umpire.
can grow? (E) Ruth is a spectator.
(A) 2
(B) 3 20. If Karen is among the players, the two
(C) 1,2 spectators can be
(D) 2,3 (A) Fran and Irma
(E) 1,2,3 (B) Fran and Jean
(C) Irma and Jean
17. If I vines grow in habitat 2, which of the (D) Irma and Lois
following must be true? (E) Maria and Ruth
(A) F vines grow in 1.
(B) F vines grow in 2. 21. Which of the following can be assigned as
(C) H vines grow in 1. the group of players?
(D) H vines grow in 3. (A) Fran, Irma, Karen, and Lois
(E) I vines grow in 1. (B) Fran, Irma, Karen, and Maria
(C) Fran, Jean, Lois, and Maria
18. If F vines do not grow in any of the habitats, (D) Jean, Karen, Lois, and Ruth
which of the following must be true? (E) Jean, Karen, Maria, and Ruth
(A) G vines grow in habitat 1.
(B) G vines grow in habitat 3. 22. If Maria is the umpire, the spectators can be
(C) H vines grow in habitat 1. (A) Fran and Irma
(D) H vines do not grow in any habitat. (B) Fran and Jean
(E) I vines grow in exactly one of the habitats. (C) Irma and Karen
(D) Jean and Ruth
(E) Karen and Lois
Questions 19-22
A team consisting of seven members – Fran, Irma, Jean, 23. No one can be licensed as an electrician in Parker
Karen, Lois, Maria, and Ruth – is scheduled to hold a County without first completing a certain course in
special practice session in which four team members are electrical safety procedures. All students majoring in
to be assigned as players, one as the umpire, and two as computer technology at Parker County Technical
spectators. The assignments will hold throughout the College must complete that course before graduating.
session and are to be made in accordance with the Therefore, any of the college’s graduates in
following conditions: computer technology can be licensed as an
electrician in Parker County.
If Fran is a player, Irma must be a player.
The answer to which of the following would be
Karen and Lois cannot both be players.
most helpful in evaluating the argument?
Neither Jean nor Lois nor Ruth can be the
(A) Is a college degree a requirement for being
205
GRE10-8(98.4)
licensed as an electrician in Parker County? (E) Decaying matter exists on all forest floors
(B) Do all students majoring in computer and is an important factor in maintaining
technology who complete the course in the healthy growth of the forests.
electrical safety procedures at Parker
County Technical College eventually graduate? 25. Most of Earth’s surface is ocean. The ocean floor is
(C) Is completion of a course in electrical inaccessible for extensive research without
safety procedures the only way a person equipment of greater technological sophistication
licensed as an electrician in Parker County than is currently available. It must therefore be true
can have learned those procedures? that scientists know less about the ocean floor
(D) Is a period of practical apprenticeship a environment than about almost any other
requirement for becoming a licensed environment on Earth.
electrician in Parker County but not for
graduating from the college in computer Which of the following, if true, provides the
technology? most support for the conclusion?
(E) Do any of the students at Parker County (A) Many mountain ranges lie entirely beneath the
Technical College who are not majoring in ocean surface, yet new underwater surveying
computer technology take the course in equipment has produced three-dimensional charts
electrical safety procedures? of them that are as accurate as those available for
24. Pollutants in the atmosphere can cause acid rain (rain mountain ranges on land.
with high acidity levels). While acid rain in itself (B) Strong water currents circulate on the ocean
cannot significantly affect the acidity of bodies of floor, but the general pattern of their
water into which it falls, it can greatly increase the movement is not so well understood as is the
acidity of nearby lakes by increasing the amount of pattern of air currents that circulate over
decaying matter on a forest floor. A recent increase land.
in the acidity of the water in Forest Lake, therefore, (C) In contrast to most land environments,
surely indicates that the rain falling nearby has temperature conditions at the ocean floor are
become more acid. generally stable and uniform, since sunlight
does not penetrate far below the ocean
Which of the following, if true, most seriously surface.
weakens the argument? (D) Very few people have seen detailed maps
(A) Even in areas without significant amounts of extended regions of the ocean floor,
of acid rain, most lakes in regions with even though such maps are available in
vegetation similar to the vegetation around almost all large libraries.
Forest Lake have acidity levels higher than (E) Animals living on the ocean floor must be
those of other lakes. able to withstand water pres sure that is far
(B) Recent air-quality tests in the region around greater than the atmospheric pressure with
Forest Lake have revealed a slight increase in which land animals live.
the amount of pollutants in the air.
(C) Large-scale logging, which was recently
begun in the forest surrounding Forest
Lake, has increased the amount of decaying
matter on the forest floor.
(D) There is some disagreement among scientists
about exactly how pollutants in the atmosphere
cause acid rain.

206
GRE10-8(98.4)
SECTION 6
Time— 30 minutes
30 Questions

2 5
1.
3 6

r=7
s = -7

8. The area of the shaded 6xy


2. 2r - 2s + r2 2s - 2r + s2 region

A total of 600 tickets to a concert were sold at prices


ranging from $10 to $50 each.

9. The average (arithmetic $30


mean) price per ticket

6
10. 2 3
3
3. y z
11. C 5
0.1234 < n < 0.1245
4. The thousandths digit 4 A light-year is the distance that light travels in one year,
of n
or approximately 9.5×1012 kilometers. A certain star is

5. The perimeter of a Four times the peri-


2.4 ×1015 kilometers away from the Sun.
square with side of meter of a square with
length 4x side of length x
12. The number of light- 1,000
m-n = 0 years that the star is
mn ? 0 away from the Sun
m 1
6.
m+n 3 E is the sum of the first 40 positive even
integers.
K is the sum of the first 40 positive odd integers.
10x-125y

7. x y 13. E-K 40

x=y
14. 5(y - 4) 4(x - 5)

The probability that even t R will occur is 0.38.


207
GRE10-8(98.4)

(A)2
15. The probability that 0.40 (B)1
events R and W will 1
(C)
both occur 4
(D) −1
(E) − 4
16. For a certain telephone company, it is projected that
next year 2 out of every 3 new telephone numbers
will be assigned to cellular telephones. If the 20. Art, Bob, and Carmen share a prize of $400.
company projects that a total of 1,200,000 new 1
Bob receives 1/2 as much as Carmen, how
telephone numbers will be assigned next year, how 2
many of these numbers are projected to be assigned If Art receives twice as much as Bob, and if
to cellular telephones? much does Carmen receive?
(A) 800,000 (A) $20
(B) 600,000 (B) $40
(C) 400,000 (C) $80
(D) 360,000 (D) $140
(E) 240,000 (E) $160

17. In the figure above, M, N, and P are the


midpoints on the respective sides of
equilateral triangle ABC. If the perimeter of
triangle ABC is 24, what is the perimeter of
quadrilateral AMNP?
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32
(D) 48 (E) 64

18. Of the 500 delegates attending a convention, 200 are


Republicans and the rest are Democrats. One hundred
of the delegates are vegetarians and, of those who are
not vegetarians, 270 are Democrats. How many of the
vegetarian delegates are Republicans?
(A) 30 (B) 40
(C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 70
19. If 3x = (x+2) (x-2), then x could be

208
GRE10-8(98.4)

Questions 21-25 refer to the following graph.

21. Approximately how many feet from flood 24. For how many successive pairs of readings
stage was the water level at 11:00 in the was there a drop in water level of at least
morning on Tuesday? 1 foot?
(A) 1.2 2
(B) 1.6 (A) None
(C) 2.2 (B) One
(D) 2.6 (C) Two
(E) 3.2 (D) Three
(E) Four
22. Which reading indicated the greatest rise in
water level from the previous reading?
(A) Sunday at 11:00 in the morning 25. The highest water level reading was
(B) Tuesday at 3:00 in the afternoon approximately what percent greater than the
(C) Tuesday at 7:00 in the evening lowest water level reading?
(D) Wednesday at 7:00 in the morning (A) 4%
(E) Thursday at 7:00 in the evening (B) 13%
(C) 16%
23. Approximately what was the average rise in (D) 20%
water level per hour from the last reading on (E) 24%
Tuesday to the first reading on Wednesday?
(A) 0.05 feet
(B) 0.10 feet
(C) 0.15 feet
(D) 0.20 feet
(E) 0.25 feet

209
GRE10-8(98.4)

y
29. If x = , z = x , and y ≠ 0 , what is the
7 y
Value of (z-1)2 ?

1
(A)
49
36
(B)
49
8
(C)
7
26.In the figure above, if lines l, m, and n are 64
(D)
parallel and z = x + 60, what is the value of 49
36
x +y + z? (E)
7
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180 30. Which of the following CANNOT be
(D) 210 expressed as the product of exactly 2
(E) 240 consecutive integers?
(A) (2) (3) (7)
27. The average (arithmetic mean) of 6 numbers is (B) (2) (3) (7) (11)
49. How much greater would the average of (C) (2) (52) (13)
the 7 numbers consisting of the original 6
numbers and the number 112 be than the (D) (22) (3) (5) (7)
average of the original 6 numbers ?
(A) 9 (E) (32) (11) (13)
(B) 31.5
(C) 55
(D) 63
(E) 80.5

28. According to a newspaper article about


employment in Country J, 30.2 million
workers, or 20.9 percent of the labor force of
Country J, were union members. Which of the
following equals the number of workers in
millions in the labor force of Country J?

(A) (30,2) (20.9)


(B) (30.2) (0.209)
20.9
(C)
0.302
30.2
(D)
20.9
30.2
(E)
0.209

210