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MOCK MAT Test Booklet Serial Number:

Before the Test:
2. Keep only the pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide
rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones,
stop watches or any other device or loose paper.
3. Use only an HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.
4. Enter in your Answer Sheet: (a) in Box 10 the Test Form Number, which appears at the bottom of
this page, (b) in Box 11 the Test Booklet Serial number, which appears at the top of this page.
5. Ensure that your personal data have been entered correctly on Side 1 of the Answer Sheet.
6. Check whether you have entered your 7-digit Enrollment ID in Box 2 of the Answer sheet correctly.
At the Start of the Test:
1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.
2. This Test booklet contains 32 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test
Booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form
Number indicated on the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a
problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided
with a replacement.
How to answer:
1. This paper has 200 questions. You will be given 150 minutes to complete the test.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary.
Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on
the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
3. All questions carry 1 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 0.25 mark.
4. General Awareness questions will not be included for marking.
5. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.
6. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be
After the Test:
1. At the end of the test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your seat.
Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will
make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or
copying in any manner in the test will do so at the risk of being dishonest.

1 1
2 + 7 ¸ 28 19 - 13 of ¸
- 33 11 =
1. 19 + 5 ¸ 24 of 2 1
of 6
11 33

23 1 1 7
(a) – (b) (c) (d)
8 8 2 2

2. Two years ago, father was 5 times older to his son. Seven years from now father will be four years
less than thrice the age of his son. The present ratio of their ages is
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 37 : 9 (c) 7 : 2 (d) 19 : 4

3. Amit is 5 years older to Rishi while Rita is three years older to Sunil but half as old as Amit. If Sunil
is seven years old, how many times age of Rishi is that of Rita?
(a) 2.5 (b) 2 (c) 1.5 (d) 3

1 1
4. Probability of solving a specific problem independently by A and B are and respectively. If both
3 5
A and B try to solve the problem independently, find the probability that the problem is solved.
1 7 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
15 15 5

5. A box contains 6 red balls and 5 blue balls. If a person draws two balls from the box, then the
probability that both the balls are of the same colour is
2 6 2 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 55 55 11

6. Out of 6 men and 4 women, a committee of 3 members has to be formed. The probability that the
committee consists at least 2 men is
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
2 3 4

7. The average age of a group of 23 persons increases by 4 months, when a person of 20 years is
replaced by a new person. The age of the new person is
(a) 28 years (b) 27 years (c) 27 years 8 months (d) 26 years 6 months

8. The average monthly salary of employees of an organization consisting of officers and workers is
Rs. 4,000. The average salary of an officer is Rs. 12,000 per month while that of a worker is Rs.
2,500 per month. If the number of officers is 45, then the total number of employees in the organization
(a) 285 (b) 295 (c) 175 (d) 315


9. Two mixtures P and Q containing wine and water in the ratios 4 : 5 and 1 : 2 respectively are mixed
in equal quantities. The ratio of the wine to water in the resulting mixture is
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 7 : 5 (c) 6 : 11 (d) 7 : 11

10. Sixty liters solution of milk and water contain 85% milk. The quantity of water that should be added
to the solution so that milk becomes 60% of the solution is
(a) 40 liters (b) 35 liters (c) 25 liters (d) 20 liters

11. The ratios of gold and copper in two alloys A and B are 5 : 2 and 1 : 4 respectively. Mixing 14 kg of
the first alloy, 15 kg of second alloy and some pure gold a new alloy is formed. If the ratio of gold to
copper in the new alloy is 5 : 4, then the total weight of the new alloy is
(a) 7 kg (b) 36 kg (c) 29 kg (d) 33 kg

12. A person has Rs. 15,000 with him. He invested Rs. 6,000 in a bank at simple interest rate of 7% per
annum and the remaining amount at compound interest rate of 10% per annum. The total interest
earned by him in 2 years is
(a) Rs. 2,140 (b) Rs. 2,620 (c) Rs. 2,730 (d) Rs. 2,815

13. A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground
making an angle of 60° with it. If the distance between the foot of the tree to the point where the top
touches the ground is 10 3 m, then the height of the tree is
(a) 20(1 + 3 )m (b) 10(3 + 2 3 ) m (c) 10(3 – 2 3 ) m (d) 56 m

14. There were 2500 candidates appeared for MAT examination, out of which 1600 were males and rest
were females. If 67% of the males and 72% of the females failed in the examination, then the total
percentage of passed candidates is
(a) 32.4% (b) 68.8% (c) 31.2% (d) 30.8%

15. Govind spent 25% of his salary as “house rent & transportation” then 20% of the rest he spent on
“clothes & foods” and finally 35% of the rest he spent on entertainment. If he is left with Rs. 4,797.
What was the salary of Govind?
(a) Rs.12,300 (b) Rs.11,200 (c) Rs.14,300 (d) Rs.12,700

16. If a shopkeeper offers a discount of 30% on the list price of a shirt, he makes a profit of 8.5%. What
profit or loss % will he make if he sells the shirt at a discount of 38% on the list price?
(a) 3.9% profit (b) 4.1% loss (c) 0.5% profit (d) 3.9% loss

17. A fruit seller buys three varieties of apples in the ratio of 5:6:10 by weight at the rate of Rs.60, Rs.50
and Rs.30 per kg respectively. By selling the apples, the aggregate loss on the first two varieties
is 10% but on the entire transaction of buying and selling of all three verities of apples he made no
profit no loss. What is the profit percentage the fruit seller made on the third variety ?
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 30%


18. Eight men can complete a piece of work in 1 day, 4 women can complete the same piece of work in
3 days and 6 boys the same piece of work in 4 days. How much time will 1 man, 2 women and 3
boys together will take to finish the same piece of work?
3 2 2 3
(a) 1 days (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 2 days
10 5 5 10

19. Vishal can row a certain distance upstream from a particular point in 12 hours and can return to the
same point in 8 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2.7 km/hr, then the speed of Vishal in still water
(a) 13.5 km/hr (b) 14.5 km/hr (c) 12.7 km/hr (d) None of these

20. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘EQUATION’ be arranged such that all the vowels of
the word are together?
(a) 3! ´ 5! (b) 4! ´ 5! (c) 576 (d) None of these

Directions for questions 21 to 24: Each of these sentences have two blanks, choose the best possible
answer choice which will aptly complete the sentence.

21. The governor today dismissed the _________ that Britain is poised for its first _________ due to
surge in oil prices.
(a) rumination, slump (b) speculation, recession
(c) expectancy, withdrawal (d) possibility, boom

22. The anniversaries of the nuclear tests were _________ both in India and Pakistan. Neither country
arranged official ceremonies to _________ the tests; they drew little public support and there were
a few public events.
(a) subdued, accolade (b) choked, obviate
(c) muted, commemorate (d) rendered, assonate

23. The Supreme Court's decision could _________ the fifteen year old law but Chief Justice clearly
held that the judiciary is ________ by legislation.
(a) abrogate, circumscribed (b) imbue, averted
(c) winnow, limited (d) aver, detained

24. "What needs to be __________ is that China has always advocated the peaceful use of nuclear
energy, and has opposed the ___________ of nuclear weapons", Mr. Liu said.
(a) accentuated, proliferation (b) beatified, maturation
(c) tried , growth (d) insinuate, contraction


Directions for questions 25 to 28: Fill up the blanks, numbered [25], [26] .. up to [28], in the passage
below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

Drug Companies have a business and have one ____[25]____ goal and that is to make as much money as
possible. What does this say for our society when the very people that are deemed to be our protectors are
in fact our ____[26]____ in our demise? We are ____[27]____ with TV commercials by big drugs directed
at you and me. I am ____[28]____ opposed to drugs of any kind whether they are prescribed or sold over
the counter.

25. (a) basic (b) elementary (c) ultimate (d) absolute

26. (a) foes (b) defenders (c) benefactors (d) henchmen

27. (a) blurred (b) disconcerted (c) exposited (d) inundated

28. (a) impudently (b) impenitently (c) lividly (d) inalterably

Directions for questions 29 to 32: Identify the correct sentence from the given options.

29. (a) Mr. George Garner, a schoolmaster of Springfield, England, has got into trouble.
(b) Mr. George Garner, a schoolmaster of Springfield, England, had getting into trouble.
(c) Mr. George Garner, a schoolmaster of Springfield, England, has been getting into trouble.
(d) Mr. George Garner, a schoolmaster of Springfield, England, had been getting into trouble.

30. (a) We can avoid risking such diseases by choosing to eat healthy food.
(b) We can avoid risking such diseases by choosing to eating healthy food.
(c) We can avoid to risk such diseases by choosing to eat healthy food.
(d) We can avoid risking such diseases through choosing to eat healthy food.

31 (a) Daniel was sitting with his sister when his friend, in accompaniment with his roommate, entered
the garden.
(b) Daniel was sitting with his sister when his friend, accompanying his roommate, entered the
(c) Daniel was sitting with his sister when his friend, accompanied by his roommate, entered the
(d) Daniel was sitting with his sister when his friend, accompanied his roommate, entered the

32. (a) Balancing a pizza with one hand and having gripped a file with another, Aman paused in front of
a first floor flat of his colony.
(b) Having a pizza in one hand and having gripped a file with another, Aman paused in front of a first
floor flat of his colony.
(c) Having balanced a pizza with one hand and having gripping a file with another, Aman paused in
front of a first floor flat of his colony.
(d) Balancing a pizza with one hand and gripping a file with another, Aman paused in front of a first
floor flat of his colony.


Directions for questions 33 to 35: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

33. A. For the very simple reason that poor nations can't pay top dollar for new drugs.
B. What's fascinating and potentially disturbing about this program, though, is the fact that the
reward consists of a transferable FDA "priority review" for a new drug.
C. That may be changing, though, thanks to a new federal program that rewards companies who
get drugs approved for malaria, tuberculosis and similar undertreated diseases.
D. For all its rhetoric about advancing human health, the drug industry has never shown much
interest in tropical diseases that kill or plague millions of people.
(a) ABCD (b) DCBA (c) CADB (d) DACB

34. A. In 1985, 115,000 deaths from CHD were attributed to cigarette smoking.
B. Also, the benefit of cessation appears within a short period of time.
C. Cigarette smoking is one of the most potent risk factors for cardiovascular disease, with smokers
having a 70% excess death rate from coronary heart disease (CHD).
D. There is a large body of evidence documenting that former smokers have a lower risk of CHD
than do current smokers.
(a) CADB (b) ADBC (c) DACB (d) CDBA

35. A. A study conducted using a sample of 242 college students from a US state university shows
that ethnic background, academic level, parents' credit card use, money ethics, and locus of
control were associated with college students' credit card attitudes.
B. Many students in the US, though having credit problems did not have a written budget, and of
those who had a budget, few young people actually used it.
C. It was decided to further consider this assertion by examining college students' credit card use
behavior and attitudes.
D. Few years back, it was reported that many college students in the US are living on the verge of
a financial crisis.
(a) ABDC (b) BADC (c) DCAB (d) ADBC

Directions for questions 36 to 40: Identify the part of the sentence which is incorrect.

36. I haven't had / a cigarette for / I gave it up on my / birthday last year.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

37. When I was on / a holiday in Australia last spring, / I had sometimes spent time /
(a) (b) (c)

with them in pubs.


38. Do you need some new / clothes for the evening? / Why don't you / try out these jeans?
(a) (b) (c) (d)


39. We were glad / to reach the main country / after spending six weeks / at sea.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

40. What can we do / to living a healthy life? / In our society, we spend /most of our time working.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions for questions 41 to 43: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The line chart given below shows the number of bottles manufactured by three companies A, B and C
during the period 1999 to 2003.


Number of bottles in 000'units


Company A
Company B
Company C


1999 2000 2001 2002 2003

41. In the period 1999 to 2003, which of the following companies has the maximum average of annual
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) B and C both

42. Total production of company A for the years 1999, 2001 and 2002 is what percent of the total
production of company B for the years 1999, 2002 and 2003?
(a) 55% (b) 150% (c) 83.33% (d) 66.67%

43. What is the average annual growth rate for the company C during the given period?
(a) 25% (b) 53.64% (c) 33.33% (d) 133.33%


Directions for questions 44 to 47: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
For the upcoming Olympic tour, a country has prepared a team of 150 athletes all of whom will be participating
in it. The ratio of males and females in the team is 3:2. The country has prepared to participate in six major
events. The events are Boxing, Shooting, Gymnastics, Weightlifting, Badminton and Table Tennis. A
maximum of 42 athletes will participate in Gymnastics. The ratio between the number of male gymnasts
and male badminton players is 2:1. Number of female shooters and female table-tennis players is equal. A
total of 30 athletes are participating in Weightlifting. The number of male shooters is equal to the number
of female gymnasts. Seven male athletes are participating in table tennis. The ratio between the number of
male boxers to the number of female boxers is same as the ratio between the number of male weightlifters
to the number of female boxers. The number of female badminton players is one more than the number of
male table tennis players. The total number of male gymnasts and male badminton players is 27. Assume
that at least one male athlete and one female athlete is participating in each of the events.

44. What is the minimum number of female athletes will be participating in Boxing and Shooting?
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) None of these

45. What is the number of male weightlifters?

(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 18

46. What is the number of female table tennis players?

(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) Cannot be determined

47. What is the total number of male athletes participating in Boxing and Badminton?
(a) 16 (b) 22 (c) 19 (d) 25

Directions for questions 48 to 52: Two quantities are given, one in column A and another in column B.
Compare the two quantities.

Mark answer as:

(a) If the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity in column B.
(b) If the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity in column A.
(c) If the quantities are equal.
(d) If the comparison cannot be made.

Column – A Column – B

48. (12% of x) (One-fourth of three-fifth of x)

( ) ( )
2 2
49. 3+ 4 2+ 5

50. (One-third of 30% of 45) (One-eighth of 40% of 90)

51. The average of 6% of 10, 0.64 and 0.715
52. Area of a square whose diagonal is 5 3 cm Area of a circle with semi-circumference 11 cm


Directions for questions 53 to 57: In each of the questions given below, a question is followed by two
statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the questions. Read both the statements and mark your answer as:

(a) If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If both the statements together are required to answer the question.
(d) If question cannot be answered even using both the statements together.

53. Whose area is maximum among a triangle, a rectangle and a circle. It is given that length of the
rectangle is greater than its breadth?
I. Diameter of the circle is the base of the triangle and length of the rectangle.
II. Width of rectangle is equal to height of triangle and radius of the circle.

54. Who wins the race?

I. A finished the race ahead of B and C.
II. C finished the race ahead of D and E.

55. What is the surname of Chanchal, it is given that surname of a female will be same as that of her
husband after marriage?
I. Chanchal is married to Sashi.
II. Surname of Sashi’s father is Sharma.

56. Four persons A, B, C and D are standing in a line exactly one behind other in the given order. What
is the distance between B and C?
I. Distance between B and D is 30 feet.
II. Distance between A and C is 25 feet.

57. A swimming pool is getting filled by a pipe A at a constant rate. At what time the pool will be
completely filled?
I. The pipe A was opened at 6:00 a.m.
II. At 10:00 a.m. the pool was half filled and at 12:00 noon the pool was three-quarter filled.


Directions for questions 58 to 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table given below shows the scores of final year students of Jhumritallya University in the examination
during the period 2000-2004. The table represents the number of students having at least a certain minimum
score in each of the years during 2000-2004. The maximum possible marks in the examination was 100.
Scores of the students are integral numbers only.

Scores 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004

10+ 128 215 331 229 187
20+ 116 196 289 201 157
30+ 98 183 247 187 139
40+ 71 169 196 168 118
50+ 45 127 135 149 97
60+ 33 109 106 121 69
70+ 12 89 98 96 54
80+ 9 72 63 54 33
90+ 2 66 38 23 23

58. In which year, the total number of students in their final year was maximum?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2003 (d) Cannot be determined

59. If the number of final year students, in each of the five mentioned years is 375, which year has
maximum number of students scoring less than or equal to 50 marks?
(a) 2000 (b) 2004 (c) 2001 (d) 2002

60. Based on the information given in the previous question, in which year the number of students
scoring less than 11 marks is the minimum?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2003 (d) 2004

61. During the given period, which year has the number of students scoring greater than 50 marks but
less than or equal to 60 marks, the maximum?
(a) 2004 (b) 2003 (c) 2002 (d) Cannot be determined

62. Find the missing number in the following series.

4, 18, 48, 100, ?, 294, 448
(a) 178 (b) 180 (c) 188 (d) 190

63. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given sequence?
G3X, I7U, L15R, N27O, Q43L, ?
(a) S64H (b) T59I (c) T61H (d) S63I

64. Nikhil starts from a point and moves 4 km towards south, then he turns to his left and walks 3 km.
Then he turns to his right and walks 2 km and then he turns to his right and moves 11 km . How far
is he from the starting point?
(a) 10 2 km (b) 10 km (c) 12 km (d) 20 km


65. Deepali walks 50 m towards north from her hostel, then turns to her right and walks 75 m, again
turns to her right and walks 80 m, then turns to her left and walks 25 m to reach her office. In which
direction is the office from her hostel?
(a) North-west (b) North (c) South-east (d) South

66. In a certain code language, TASSHAN is coded as AGXWKCO, what is the code for CREATIV in the
same code language?

67. In a certain code language, COMBINATIONAL is coded as ESSDMTCXOQRGN, what is the code
for RAIDERS in the same code language?

Directions for questions 68 and 69: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a family of eight persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, there are three married couples. The family
consists of three sons, a daughter and two grandsons. Each of the married couple has at least one child.
F likes his aunt D very much. E likes his uncle H. G is the mother of F and B is the grandmother of E. C is
the husband of D.

68. Who is the grandfather of F?

(a) B (b) D (c) A (d) H

69. Who is the daughter in the family?

(a) D (b) E (c) F (d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 70 to 74: Read the following information and answer the questions based on it.
There are five friends Aditi, Arti, Ananya, Ankita and Anjula all having different ages, heights and strengths.
Ananya who is the eldest is the shortest among all. Arti who is the weakest is elder to exactly two girls.
Ankita who is older than Arti is the strongest. The tallest among them is neither the youngest nor the
strongest and nor the weakest. Anjula is shorter than Arti and taller than Ankita and also weaker than Aditi
and Ananya.

70. Who is the youngest?

(a) Aditi (b) Arti (c) Anjula (d) Ankita

71. How many girls are stronger than Ananya?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Cannot be determined

72. Who is the second tallest?

(a) Aditi (b) Arti (c) Ankita (d) Anjula

73. Who is/are taller than Anjula?

(a) Aditi and Arti (b) Arti (c) Ankita and Arti (d) Ankita and Aditi

74. How many girls are younger than Ankita?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

Page 10 MOCK MAT

Directions for question 75 to 77: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The MotoGP race was organized in the mid of May 2007. There are only 4 participants in the race namely
Mika Kallio, Mattia Passini, Alex Debon and Yuki Takahashi. The race consisted of four laps; Lap-1, Lap-
2, Lap-3 and Lap-4. Each of the four participants finished each of the lap at a different position. At the end
of Lap-4 Mika Kallio completed the race first, followed by Yuki Takahashi, Mattia Passini and Alex Debon
in that order. The winner of Lap-1, Lap-2 and Lap-3 were Mattia Passini, Yuki Takahashi and Alex Debon

75. If Debon finished Lap-2 at 3rd position and Passini finished Lap-3 at 4th position then at what
position Takahashi finished Lap-3?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th

76. If Passini finished Lap-3 at 2nd position and Kallio finished Lap-1 at 3rd position then at what
position Debon finished Lap-1?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th

77. If Takahashi finished Lap-1 at 3rd position and Passini finished Lap-3 at 2nd position then at what
position Kallio finished Lap-3?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th

Directions for questions 78 to 81: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Five chief ministers Lalu, Mulayam, Modi, Nitish and Shivraj travelled to 5 different cities Lucknow, Bhopal,
Jaipur, Raipur and Mumbai (not necessarily in this order) by five different cars, Tata Safari, Skoda Fabia,
Toyota Corolla, CRV Honda and BMW from Delhi (not necessarily in this order).

i. Mulayam and Modi did not travel by Toyota Corolla.

ii. Nitish travelled by BMW whereas Shivraj travelled by Skoda Fabia.
iii. Modi went to Bhopal and Mulayam went to Jaipur.
iv. Toyota Corolla did not go to Mumbai and Raipur.

78. The chief minister travelling to Mumbai used which of the following car?
(a) BMW (b) Skoda Fabia
(c) Tata Safari (d) Cannot be determined

79. If Shivraj went to Raipur, then which of the following combinations is true for Nitish?
(a) CRV Honda : Lucknow (b) Skoda Fabia : Mumbai
(c) BMW : Mumbai (d) Toyota Corolla : Lucknow

80. If Modi travelled by Tata Safari, then Mulayam travelled by

(a) CRV Honda (b) Toyota Corolla
(c) Skoda Fabia (d) BMW

81. Which of the following combinations of chief ministers and cars is incorrect?
(a) Nitish : BMW (b) Shivraj : Skoda Fabia
(c) Lalu : Toyota Corolla (d) None of these

MOCK MAT Page 11

Directions for questions 82 to 85: Study the statements and the two courses of action which follow each
of them. Mark:
(a) if only course of action I follows.
(b) if only course of action II follows.
(c) if both the courses of action I and II follow.
(d) if neither course of action I nor II follows.
82. A recent survey reveals that children in metropolitan cities are more obese because they have a
major obsession with video games.
I. Schools should motivate students to participate more in various outdoor activities.
II. Children should display self - interest to do more of physical exercises.

83. The infrastructure development plans of Apex Ltd. are hardly ever completed on time.
I. The project heads should routinely carry out investigation of the progress.
II. Those who are not efficient should be given warnings.

84. Lot of children in the villages are known to suffer from malnutrition.
I. Such children should be sent to hospitals.
II. The villagers should migrate to the cities.

85. An Indian plane has been hijacked and flown to Sri Lanka.
I. The CBI should investigate the matter.
II. The Indian government should negotiate with the hijackers.

Directions for questions 86 to 89: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Examine each of the given statements and decide which of the following statements is implicit.
Mark your answers as:
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If both the assumptions I and II are implicit.
(d) If neither assumption I or II is implicit.
86. By the end of World War II, about 10 million copies of Hitler's Mein Kampf had been sold or
distributed in Germany.
I. Hitler was a popular dictator in Germany.
II. People liked reading books about their dictator.

87. Socrates was accused of corrupting young men.

I. Socrates was capable of corrupting young men.
II. Socrates had a corrupted character.

88. Diabetics are three times more at risk of developing active TB that those with normal blood sugar.
I. TB is caused by blood sugar.
II. Diabetics do not have normal blood sugar.

89. US should work with India to solve Dalit problems.

I. Dalit problems can be solved.
II. US and India can work together.

Page 12 MOCK MAT

Directions for questions 90 to 93: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Examine each of the given statements and decide which of the following arguments is forceful.
Mark your answers as:
(a) If only argument I is forceful
(b) If only argument II is forceful
(c) If both the arguments I and II are forceful
(d) If neither argument I or II is forceful

90. Should the reporters be given full freedom to intrude in any matter?
I. Yes, because that will help people to know the truth.
II. No, because they may infringe on other's right to freedom.

91. Should India and Pakistan sign a no-war pact?

I. Yes, because this will help in maintaining stability and peace in both the countries.
II. No, because Pakistan cannot be trusted.

92. Should all the universities in India have a common examination?

I. Yes, because following a common standard will be easier.
II. No, because it will unnecessarily cause burden on administration.

93. Should there be a regulation on the number of reality shows telecasted on TV?
I. Yes, because too many cooks spoil the broth.
II. No, because each show gives an opportunity to some candidates to display and enhance their

Directions for questions 94 to 97: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow.

94. Mr. Gazzania argues that what makes the human brain unique and different is not just the size and
structure of our brain, but how our brain evolved in a specifically social environment. The development
of the brain within a social environment, he says, is what has brought us to the present day, where
humans stand as an enormously sophisticated evolutionary success story.

Which of the following most seriously weakens Mr. Gazzania's argument?

(a) The brain of any other mammal is shaped in the same way as that of human.
(b) Socialisation's effect on human brain is less as compared to that on other mammals.
(c) The development of brain in social environment is more in other animals than in humans because
their communities are well-knit.
(d) The human brain takes much longer to develop in social environment than in isolation.

MOCK MAT Page 13

95. A year after the U.S. financial crisis surfaced, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) has
explained its causes and ramifications. The BIS has for long spoken of the dangers in unbridled
credit expansion and asset price inflation, two interrelated factors that are at the heart of the crisis.

If the author believes in the explanation of the BIS, he is most likely to agree with:

(a) The current market turmoil in the main financial centers is without precedent in the post-war
(b) There is a significant risk of economic recession in the United States, while many countries are
ravaged by inflation.
(c) The Americans did not pay heed to the warnings given by the BIS.
(d) The financial crisis in the US could have been avoided by solving the problems of inflation and
credit expansion at an early stage.

96. Many poor countries fear they will lose jobs and revenue from a new global trade treaty that trade
ministers will try to push towards conclusion next week.

Which of the following may be the most logical reason behind such a fear among developing countries?

(a) The treaty will flood their vulnerable markets with cheaper foreign goods and services, and make
their situation worse off.
(b) It is better not to have a deal at all than have such a deal.
(c) Such global treaties have caused harm to them even in the past.
(d) It will boost world trade and help developed countries export their goods.

97. Villagers have observed that a large number of birds migrate before the full moon in October. They
are convinced that full moon in October causes the birds to migrate.

Which of the following if true, would support the villagers’ conviction?

(a) It is autumn which is responsible for migration of birds in October.

(b) Absence of full moon in October causes the birds to migrate.
(c) Villagers are superstitious.
(d) None of the above.

Directions for questions 98 to 101: Read the statements and decide which of the following correctly
depicts the relationship between the two statements.
(a) If statement I is the cause and II is the effect.
(b) If statement II is the cause and I is the effect.
(c) If both statements I and II are independent causes.
(d) If both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

98. I. New images of Mars suggest that it once had a huge lake and clay minerals.
II. Top political leaders from Andhra Pradesh are making a beeline to the national capital.

Page 14 MOCK MAT

99 I. The Northern Railway has announced that the Purshottam Express passing through Jharsuguda
will run on the diverted route.
II. Torrential rain on South Eastern Railway has caused breaches on the railway tracks.

100. I. Leading real estate player Parsvnath Developers joined hands with Sabeer Bhatia and the Haryana
Government to develop infrastructure.
II. Parsvanath Developers is creating a 11,138-acre world-class "Nano Knowledge City" at Panchkula
near Chandigarh.

101. I. Geeta Chandran has been given the Chitra Kala Award.
II. Chitra Kala Sangam, the Delhi-based socio-cultural-art organisation, is impressed by the work
of the Bharatanatyam dancer Geeta Chandran.

102. Prashant is the name of a/an…

(a) warship (b) aircraft (c) radar (d) battle tank

103. National Development Council is a part of…

(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) National Human Rights Commission

104. Which of the following is the largest Public Sector Bank of India?
(a) Canara Bank
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Punjab National Bank

105. As per the Global Competitiveness Report 2007-2008, which of the following represents the rank of
(a) 46 (b) 48 (c) 50 (d) 52

106. Which of the following represents the contribution of the services sector to the GDP of the Indian
(a) 48% (b) 52% (c) 55% (d) 58%

107. The United Nations has declared year 2008 as the International Year of …
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Fruits (d) Potato

108. Which of the following represents the venue of the Global Summit of Women -2008 that was held in
the first week of June 2008?
(a) Singapore (b) Hanoi (c) Hong Kong (d) Doha

109. The venue of the forthcoming 15th SAARC summit is …

(a) Dhaka (b) New Delhi (c) Bangkok (d) Colombo

MOCK MAT Page 15

110. Credit & Monetary Policy meant to maintain the balance in the Indian economy, is issued by the
Reserve Bank of India ___________in a year.
(a) once (b) two times (c) three times (d) four times

111. Where would you find the headquarters of European Central Bank (ECB)?
(a) Vienna (b) Geneva (c) Frankfurt (d) Rome

112. e-Choupal is an initiative of…

(a) Hindustan Unilever Ltd. (b) ITC Ltd.
(c) IFFCO (d) Food Corporation of India

113. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is headquartered at …

(a) Vienna (b) Geneva (c) Frankfurt (d) Rome

114. Which of the following articles deal with constitutional amendments?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 368 (d) Article 376

115. What percentage of the world’s land is occupied by India?

(a) 1.2% (b) 2.4% (c) 3.6% (d) 5.7%

116. The Grass is Singing is a famous work of…

(a) J.M. Coetzee (b) Dorris Lessing
(c) Anne Enright (d) Kiran Desai

117. This personality is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). Identify him from
the given options.
(a) A.S. Anand (b) S.R. Pandiyan
(c) S. Rajendra Babu (d) None of these

118. 'For the good of the game', is the slogan used by _____for its promotion.
(a) Commonwealth Games (b) FIFA
(c) ICC (d) Asian Games

119. You would closely associate Ken Thompson, Dennis Ritchie and Douglas McIlroy with the development
(a) Linux (b) UNIX (c) Java (d) COBOL

120. Which of the following is NOT matched properly?

Name of the Organization Headquarters
(a) International Labour Organization Geneva
(b) International Monetary Fund Washington DC
(c) Food & Agriculture Organization Rome
(d) UNESCO New York

121. The Director General of World Trade Organization is …

(a) Robert Zoellick (b) Susan Schwab
(c) Pascal Lamy (d) Peter Madelson

Page 16 MOCK MAT

Directions for questions 122 to 141: The passages given below are followed by a set of questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.


In 1977, the Office of Technology Assessment (OTA) published an exhaustive report that could have changed
the future of the United States and the world. The government report, written by some of the top energy
experts in the country, concluded that if the federal government and energy industries worked together to
speed up the mass production of renewable energy technologies, these technologies "could be made
competitive in markets representing over 40% of U.S. energy demand by the mid-1980s." Given this
timetable, it is reasonable to conclude that by 2004, renewable technologies would be supplying well over
50% of all our current energy needs.

The key to this timetable, however, had always been predicated on whether there was the political will to
implement a national energy policy designed to mass produce renewable technologies-- like photovoltaic
(PV) panels and wind mills-- to drive down their cost and make them cost effective for all Americans. Back
in the latter half of the 1970s, Jimmy Carter got the program off to a good start. He put PV panels on the
White House roof and initiated a new energy policy that gave U.S. businesses and consumers various
incentives and tax credits to reduce the cost of renewable energy technology. The idea was that once the
per unit cost dropped and became more competitive with the cost of producing fossil fuels, more startup
companies would emerge and begin mass producing renewable technology, thereby driving down the cost
even more. And the more competitive the industry became, the more innovations and technological
breakthroughs would follow.

Nothing particularly original or unusual about this strategy. The federal government has used it for decades
to help the oil and gas industries increase production and become more profitable- just ask George Bush
and Dick Cheney.

Of course, this is nothing new. Even during Democratic administrations, the federal government was always
very generous with the fossil fuels industry. One example: the oil depletion allowance, which allows oil
companies to deduct 15% of their gross income from their taxable incomes each year. This nifty little
accounting trick has been around for decades and has cost American taxpayers over a billion dollars each

Unfortunately, the renewable energy industry does not have the same clout as the oil and gas lobbies.
Never did. And when Ronald Reagan became president, he removed the PV panels from the White House
roof, gutted Jimmy Carter's renewable energy program, and gave a green light to the oil and gas industries
to do whatever they wanted. No doubt George Bush Senior, then vice president (and longtime business
associate of Saudi oil sheiks, including Saleem bin Laden), was not "out of the loop" when he and his oil
buddies counseled Reagan to help the fossil fuels industries at the expense of renewable energy technologies.
Of course, Reagan and Bush Senior were not the only ones who were eager to sabotage the renewable
energy industry. Almost every Republican in the Congress was in lock step with them, and so were many
Democrats- and have been ever since. Which explains why all the major members of George Bush Junior's
administration are connected to the oil industry either directly or indirectly and have no intention of cutting
into their profits by promoting renewable energy technology. Unfortunately, it is also true that many Democrats
either accept large contributions from the fossil fuels industry or are heavily invested in it themselves. Even

MOCK MAT Page 17

Mr. Environment, Al Gore, the author of the Earth in the Balance, kept his "green" views about renewable
energy under wraps during the Clinton years. As a result, very little was accomplished to increase the
mass production of renewable energy on a federal level, and as long as the price of gas stayed relatively
low, the American public forgot about the issue.

122. The author calls the oil depletion allowance a trick because -
(a) the tax rebate given to the oil companies was compensated by taxing the citizens more.
(b) the democrats accepted contributions from oil companies for bringing out this allowance.
(c) the democrats always subverted renewable energy industry and helped fossil fuels industry.
(d) this strategy had been used for decades by the federal government.

123. Al Gore did not raise his 'green' views during -

(a) Democratic rule
(b) Republic rule
(c) Ronald Reagan's rule
(d) Bill Clinton's rule

124. Why is it said that OTA report could have changed the future? Because-
(a) It could put pressure on the government to use PV panels and windmills to produce energy.
(b) If the government were to implement a policy for production of renewable sources, it could have
solved the energy problems of the future.
(c) It could have made the US a competitive force in the energy markets.
(d) It could have reduced the cost of production of renewable energy technology.

125. What was the strategy to bring down the cost of any new energy technology?
(a) To give incentives and tax breaks to companies.
(b) Help the industries to bring out more innovations and technological breakthroughs.
(c) To drop the cost initially to bring in more competition that could further decrease the cost.
(d) To give subsidies to the companies and collect it from taxpayers.

126. The author is most likely to agree with the fact that
(a) The Bush administration has been biased towards oil companies.
(b) The federal government should have continued with the policy initiated by Jimmy Carter.
(c) All of the foregoing
(d) None of the foregoing

Page 18 MOCK MAT


Online Marketing Service, also referred to as Internet marketing service is about using the Internet as
another channel to market your business or organization. It's about broadening your Web visibility, attracting
qualified visitors to your website or getting interested people to email or call without even needing to come
to your site. When visitors do come, through on-site marketing efforts and strong features, you lead them
to do what you want them to do: fill out a form, register for an event or make a purchase from you through
the internet usage. Some people would be eased to make their necessary work about their company by
providing online worker from other place to make their job easier to do.

For making online marketing more effective, it is important that the company defines its goal and works
together with every member of its company. Also, the company should develop the plan and design
strategic, effective and measurable direct response marketing plans to achieve the company goals.

To execute the plan the company must provide capable and experienced project management throughout
the entire implementation process. Each member of the company should be reliable, thorough, well-
connected, and determined to make satisfied clients that are connected to the company.

No online marketing campaign is complete without measuring the results. Internet marketing strategies
take tracking and measuring of the clients' website advertisements before implementation occurs. This
way, the company can measure their effectiveness to the clients as well as how better they know their
company's effectiveness in the process.

Internet Marketing is a broad term that can include everything from pay-per-click management to a full-
blown online marketing campaign that builds traffic and tracks site visitors to increase conversions from all
mediums. Internet Marketing can be thought as encompassing all of the following disciplines: search
engine optimization, pay-per-click management, link building and affiliate marketing.

Internet Marketing Companies work solely towards getting their client's product or services marketed
online, and this is really becoming something that modern businesses can't live without.

The things that an Internet marketing company can do are pretty amazing, though, because the costs are
fairly low and the results can potentially reach a global audience. The interactive nature of Internet marketing,
which allows businesses to draw out an instant response from potential customers, is a unique quality of
the medium. Internet marketing companies can bring creative and technical aspects together, including
design, development, advertising and sales.

An online marketing campaign is necessary these days with the Internet becoming bigger and bigger by
the day. Therefore, it is crucial to hire an effective Internet marketing company to help your business
achieve the online results you are looking for.

127. What is the passage mainly about?

(a) How internet marketing helps in getting more clients.
(b) The benefits of using an internet marketing company.
(c) How internet marketing can be used as a service to promote one's business.
(d) How to use internet as a medium to grow a business or an organization.

MOCK MAT Page 19

128. Why is hiring a good internet advertising company so important?
(a) To attract a large online audience.
(b) Because the internet is growing bigger and better each day and it's important to utilize this
(c) It helps to get people who can become future customers.
(d) To utilise the internet effectively and help business achieve desired results.
129. Which of the following is not mentioned as a part of Internet Marketing in the passage?
(a) search engine optimization
(b) affiliate marketing
(c) foundation building
(d) pay-per-click management
130. The author will agree with all of the following except:
(a) A company must clearly develop its plan before using online marketing service.
(b) Internet marketing companies offer services which are not very creative and tangible but interactive
due to use of technology.
(c) Marketing online can help new age businesses.
(d) A company should set marketing plans before using internet marketing services.
131. Which of the following is necessary to execute a plan successfully?
(a) Clearly defining the role of every member of the company.
(b) Ensuring higher search engine ranking of the company.
(c) Measuring the results of online marketing strategies.
(d) Having a competent project management at the time of executing the plan.


The blogosphere and news media are a buzz recently over the launch of the widely anticipated 3G iPhone.
In case you live in a cave, a new iPhone that will be half the price ($199-$299) with double the download
speeds of the first generation will soon rule the market. Among its many new features, local search
arguably stands to benefit the most, even though it's probably not as enticing as the social or gaming
applications that we'll see roll out in the coming months.

One of the device's biggest talking points is new GPS capability. GPS will complement the iPhone's
existing location awareness that utilizes Wi-Fi and cell tower triangulation to fix on a location and deliver
local search results accordingly. Though GPS is more accurate (down to the meter level), it drops off in
urban areas and indoors, where Wi-Fi positioning shines. Having both will allow the 3G iPhone to switch
back and forth when situational factors dictate the optimal technology.

Already, we've seen a few mobile local search applications announced. Location-based social network
Loopt shows users where their friends are on a map, and its new native iPhone application will have the
ability to send recommendations or invitations for local businesses. "You will never have to eat alone, or at
a bad restaurant again," said Loopt's CEO Sam Altman on stage during the iPhone announcement. AT&T's has also been quick on the draw, with a 3G iPhone application that similarly lets users
save and share local business listings with friends. And popular local reviews site Yelp has revealed that it's
working on an iPhone application that will let users save and share restaurant listings and photos while on
the go.

Page 20 MOCK MAT

Each of these products position social media as a killer application for mobile, along with local search. The
combination of all three makes sense, as they go hand in hand in lots of situations, such as letting you see
who's around you, and how they might relate to you in any way, such as LinkedIn, or Facebook.

Walking into any public or social venue with the ability to see and be seen in this way (on an opt-in basis)
could be well received among a generation of social networking and mobile mavens. The iPhone techno-
elitist crowd that makes up its early adopters could be the perfect base to get this mobile social graph
started, given the camaraderie among its ranks. From there, it could grow in sync with greater iPhone
penetration that will come with cheaper and faster product generations.

The question is, will the development-to-market timeline and the social acceptance of these new mobile/
social applications be in step? And what local search mash-ups will we see, given that bars and restaurants
are a central part of this vision? Advertiser adoption of mobile marketing isn't yet at the point where there
are comprehensive paid listings from local businesses; and usage isn't yet great enough to compel them.
But as usage rises, we'll see advertiser interest follow, and viable business models could be formed at this
intersection of mobile, local, and social.

With more time, product development, and spikes in user adoption, these applications could even rival the
traffic and monetization potential of top online local search sites. It can be argued that mobile is a closer
relative to local than online search. Steve Jobs seems to think so: "Location-based services are going to be
a really big deal on the iPhone," he said on Monday while showing off the new device. And he has a pretty
decent track record.

132. How does GPS differ from Wi-Fi when used in iPhones?
(a) It uses cell tower triangulation to deliver search results but Wi-Fi doesn't.
(b) GPS is only available in 3G iPhone.
(c) Although it is more precise, it is not efficient in urban areas and indoors.
(d) GPS supports many more applications than WI-Fi.
133. The passage mainly talks about:
(a) the latest features of iPhone.
(b) functions of GPS , Wi-Fi and Loopt in iPhone.
(c) location-based services of iPhone.
(d) the 3G applications of iPhone and their uses.
134. Which of the following is not true according to the passage?
(a) The GPS and Wi-Fi technology in iPhone are substitutes of each other.
(b) The features that iPhone provides will be well received with mobile whizzes.
(c) All the classes can make a perfect base for iPhone and its applications.
(d) The application helps the users to find out the places and people around their area.
135. According to the passage, these applications could even rival the traffic top online search sites
(a) The applications are very popular among the mobile users.
(b) The applications in the phone are more accurate.
(c) The applications can provide more details than provided by the online search sites.
(d) The applications in the phone can make local search easier than online search.

MOCK MAT Page 21

136. Which of the following software helps users save and share local business listings with friends?
(a) LinkedIn
(b) Yelp
(c) Loopt
(d) Application by AT&T's


To hear some tell it, April 23, 1985, was a day that will live in marketing infamy. That's the day The Coca-
Cola Company took arguably the biggest risk in consumer goods history, announcing that it was changing
the formula for the world's most popular soft drink, and spawning consumer angst the likes of which no
business has ever seen.

The Coca-Cola Company introduced reformulated Coca-Cola®, often referred to as "new Coke®," marking
the firstformula change in 99 years. The company didn't set out to create the firestorm of consumer protest
that ensued; instead, The Coca-Cola Company intended to re-energize its Coca-Cola brand and the cola
category in its largest market, the United States. That firestorm ended with the return of the original
formula, now called Coca-Cola classic®, a few months later. The return of original formula Coca-Cola on
July 11, 1985, put the cap on 79 days that revolutionized the soft-drink industry, transformed The Coca-
Cola Company and stands today as testimony to the power of taking intelligent risks, even when they don't
quite work as intended. "We set out to change the dynamics of sugar colas in the United States, and we
did exactly that -- albeit not in the way we had planned," then chairman and chief executive officer Roberto
Goizueta said in 1995 at a special employee event honoring the 10-year anniversary of "new Coke."

The story of "new Coke" is widely recalled, but the context is often forgotten. In 1985, The Coca-Cola
Company's share lead over its chief competitor, in its flagship market, with its flagship product, which had
been slowly slipping for 15 consecutive years. The cola category in general was lethargic. Consumer
preference for Coca-Cola was dipping, as was consumer awareness. That changed, of course, in the
summer of 1985 as the consumer outcry over "new Coke" was replaced by consumer affection for Coca-
Cola classic.

The fabled secret formula for Coca-Cola was changed, adopting a formula preferred in taste tests of nearly
200,000 consumers. What these tests didn't show, of course, was the bond consumers felt with their
Coca-Cola -- something they didn't want anyone, including The Coca-Cola Company, to be tampering with.
The events of the spring and summer of '85 - pundits blasting the "marketing blunder of the century,"
consumers hoarding the "old" Coke, calls of protests by the thousands -- changed forever The Coca-Cola
Company's thinking.

At the 10-year anniversary celebration, Mr. Goizueta characterized the "new Coke" decision as a prime
example of "taking intelligent risks." He urged all employees to take intelligent risks in their jobs, saying it
was critical to the company's success. Many of the employees there that day had worked for the company
in 1985 and remembered the thousands of calls and consumer complaints. People seemed to hold any
Coca-Cola employee - from security officers at our headquarters building to their neighbors who worked for
Coke-personally responsible for the change.

Page 22 MOCK MAT

When the taste change was announced, some consumers panicked, filling their basements with cases of
Coke®. A man in San Antonio, Texas, drove to a local bottler and bought $1,000 worth of Coca-Cola. Some
people got depressed over the loss of their favorite soft drink. Suddenly everyone was talking about Coca-
Cola, realizing what an important role it played in his or her life. Protest groups -- such as the Society for
the Preservation of the Real Thing and Old Cola Drinkers of America (which claimed to have recruited
100,000 in a drive to bring back "old" Coke) -- popped up around the country. Songs were written to honor
the old taste. Protestors at a Coca-Cola event in downtown Atlanta in May carried signs with "We want the
real thing" and "Our children will never know refreshment." When the announcement of the return of "old"
Coca-Cola was made in July 1985, those hoardings as many as 900 bottles in their basements could stop
their self imposed rationing and begin to drink the product as they always had -- as often as they'd like.

That July day, the story that the "old" Coca-Cola was returning to store shelves led two network newscasts
and made the front page of virtually every major newspaper. Consumers applauded the decision. In just two
days after the announcement of Coca-Cola classic, The Coca-Cola Company received 31,600 telephone
calls on the hotline. Coca-Cola was obviously more than just a soft drink.

The events of 1985 changed forever the dynamics of the softdrink industry and the success of The Coca
Cola Company, as the Coca-Cola brand soared to new heights and consumers continued to remember the
love they have for Coca-Cola.

137. Why did people call the introduction of the new Coke a marketing blunder?
(a) The company took the biggest risk which provoked consumers' firestorm.
(b) The new product did not attract consumers.
(c) The secret formula of the most famous soft drink was tampered with.
(d) The first formula change in 94 years of the company's history was a failure.

138. Which of the following would hold true for Mr. Goizueta?
(a) He is an inefficient manager.
(b) He was personally responsible for the failure of the new Coke.
(c) He took an intelligent decision which resulted in success.
(d) He was afraid of taking decisions.

139. The writing style of the passage is -

(a) Exposition
(b) Digression
(c) Argumentation
(d) Description.

140. "The story of ‘new Coke’ is widely recalled, but the context is often forgotten." Which context is the
author referring to?
(a) thousands of calls of protests across US.
(b) the change in the dynamics of The Coca Cola Company.
(c) that a substitute drink to the old Coke was launched.
(d) that year the company regained its position in shares and among consumers.

MOCK MAT Page 23

141. Which of the following was not a part of the protest against Coca Cola's new Coke?
(a) Protest groups held a drive to bring back 'old ' Coke.
(b) People bought lots of cases of Coke for their future use.
(c) Songs were written for the old drink.
(d) Protestors carried placards during protests in the US.

Directions for questions 142 to 146: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Production and Export of Wheat in India

800 650
600 475 450
400 325
225 250
125 150

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Production (in million kg) Export (in million kg)

Per capita availability of wheat (gms) in India

2004 500

2003 475

2002 600

2001 525

2000 400

0 200 400 600 800

Total availability = (Value of production – Value of exports)

142. Which year shows the maximum percentage of exports with respect to production?
(a) 2000 (b) 2001 (c) 2003 (d) 2004

143. What was the population of India in year 2004?

(a) 650 million (b) 700 million (c) 750 million (d) Cannot be determined

Page 24 MOCK MAT

144. In which year the availability of wheat for domestic consumption is maximum?
(a) 2000 (b) 2002 (c) 2003 (d) 2004

145. If the area under wheat production was less by 10% in year 2002 than in year 2001, then the
approximate rate of increase in productivity in year 2002 was (Productivity = ):
(a) 5.26% (b) 8.75% (c) 11.50% (d) None of these

146. What is the simple annual growth rate of the domestic availability of wheat during the given period?
(a) 4.17% (b) 6.25% (c) 10.29% (d) 16.66%
Directions for questions 147 to 150: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The two pie charts are given below. Pie chart (i) shows the percentage break-up of the students qualified
from each of the eight institutes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Pie chart (ii) shows the distribution of students
amongst the branches namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V of institute D. The total number of students qualified
was 1800.

H 5%
7% 35° 36°
10% U 42°
16% 20% 40°

4% 120°

(i) (ii)
147. What was the total number of students qualified from branch Q and R together?
(a) 60 (b) 64 (c) 58 (d) 74
148. By how much percentage the number of students qualified from institute G was greater than that
qualified from institute F?
(a) 14.28% (b) 16.66% (c) 25% (d) 20.66%

149. What was the difference between the number of students qualified from institute H and institute G?
(a) 148 (b) 154 (c) 136 (d) 144

150. What was the difference between the total numbers of students qualified from branch P, Q and
R and the total number of student qualified from branch U of the institute D?
(a) 35 (b) 32 (c) 28 (d) 45

MOCK MAT Page 25

Directions for questions 151 to 154: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table given below shows the grades achieved by 11 students in four semesters Semester-I, Semester-
II, Semester-III and Semester-IV. The grading scheme is such that the grades A+, A, B+, B and C are
awarded with 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 points respectively. At the end of the Semester IV, a test of practical skills is
necessary for all the students which is graded on a scale of 1 to 5 points. The bar graph given below shows
the point obtained by the students in the practical skills. While calculating the value of GPA, 60% weightage
is given to ‘Practical skills’ and rest of the weightage is given to the average of points scored in all semesters.
The student having the highest GPA score has scored numerically lesser rank and so on.

Semester I Semester II Semester III Semester IV

Praveen A+ B+ B B
Shweta A B+ A+ A
Swati A A+ A B+
Sushil C B+ C B+
Sachin B+ A B B+
Saurav B+ A+ B+ A+
Nabonita A B A+ C
Nandita C B B B+
Pooja B B+ B+ A
Shakya A+ A B+ A
Onkush A A+ B A+



Candidates Name


Sw ati
Shw eta


0 1 2 3 4 5

Practical skills

151. Who is the topper?

(a) Onkush (b) Shakya (c) Saurav (d) Cannot be determined

Page 26 MOCK MAT

152. What is the difference between the GPA of Shakya and Sachin?
(a) 0.58 (b) 0.47 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.48

153. How many students have a GPA greater than 3.20?

(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) None of these

154. What is the GPA of Shweta?

(a) 4.24 (b) 3.90 (c) 4.00 (d) 4.48

Directions for questions 155 to 157: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The line chart given below shows the sales, expense and equity of a company XYZ over the years from
2003 to 2007.


612 625
Value( in Rs.'000)

445 490 492
225 250

150 150 175


2003 2004 2005 2006 2007


Sales Expense Equity

Profit = (Sales – Expense)

155. In which year the ratio of sales to the expense was minimum?
(a) 2007 (b) 2005 (c) 2004 (d) 2006

156. In which year the ratio of profit to equity was maximum?

(a) 2004 (b) 2007 (c) 2003 (d) 2005

157. What is the annual growth rate of expenses during the given period?
(a) 40.45% (b) 12.14% (c) 10.11% (d) 8.46%

MOCK MAT Page 27

Directions for questions 158 to 160: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The bar graph given below shows the data regarding the marks secured by three students Andy, Bruce and
Will in a class test. The maximum marks for the test was 20. Bar-I represents that Bruce has scored 7
marks more than Andy and bar II represents the sum of the marks of the three students. No student has
scored either 0 or 20 marks in the test.

10 7

158. Which of the following cannot be the marks scored by Bruce?

(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 17 (d) 19

159. Which of the following can be the maximum marks scored by Andy?
(a) 19 (b) 14 (c) 7 (d) 12

160. Which of the following can be the minimum sum of marks scored by Bruce and Will?
(a) 32 (b) 27 (c) 23 (d) 22

161. How many different five digit numbers can be formed using the digits 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 such that the
numbers are always divisible by both 2 and 3?
(a) 72 ways (b) 24 ways (c) 27 ways (d) 81 ways

162. A copper cuboid of dimensions 10 cm × 8 cm × 6 cm is melted and recast into a rectangular sheet
of thickness 1 mm. If the sides of the sheet are in the ratio 4 : 3, then length of other two edges of
the rectangular sheet are
(a) 40 cm, 30 cm (b) 160 cm, 120 cm (c) 80 cm, 60 cm (d) None of these

163. Akshay, Aditya and Anil can complete a certain piece of work in 10 days, 15 days and 20 days
respectively. If only one of them is allowed to work for a day in given order, in how many days the
work would be completed?
(a) 12 days (b) 10 days (c) 11 days (d) None of these

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164. Fifty-four persons were employed for a certain task to get it completed in 20 days. After working for
5 days, 2 persons left, after another 5 days 4 more persons left. If the same process of leaving
4 persons continues after every 5 days. How many extra days it will take to complete the task?
1 1 1
(a) 2 days (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 3 days
2 3 2

165. Pawan, Quraishi and Ratan have certain number marbles. If Ratan gives 6 marbles to Pawan then
all three will have equal number of marbles with them. Among the given options which cannot be the
total number of marbles with them?
(a) 48 (b) 72 (c) 51 (d) 68

166. In a class of 60 students, 36 play cricket, 8 play both cricket and hockey. How many of the students
play only hockey (Assuming that every student play either cricket or hockey)?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 30

167. If bottle is called food, food is called tree and tree is called water, then what does a person eat?
(a) water (b) food (c) bottle (d) tree

168. There are five books that of Chemistry, English, Hindi, Mathematics and Physics. If Physics book is
kept above Chemistry book, Mathematics book is kept below Chemistry book, English book is kept
above Physics book and Hindi book is kept at the top, then which book is kept 4th from the top?
(a) Physics (b) Chemistry (c) Mathematics (d) English

169. After traveling for 100 km a bus meet with an accident then proceeds at th of its normal speed and
reaches at its destination 4 hours late. Had the accident occurred 300 km further, it would have
reached the destination only 2 hours late. What is the distance traveled by the bus after the accident?
(a) 700 km (b) 600 km (c) 550 km (d) 800 km

170. Find the number of zeroes in 8 × 9 × 10 × 11 × 12 × 13 × 14 × 15.

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 4

171. Find the unit digit of the expression: 8562 × 9125 × 7257 .
(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 4

172. The least number which should be added to 2500 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 3, 7, 8
and 12 is
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 28

173. If (m + 3 )2 = 16 and (n + 4 )2 = 36 , then the maximum value of is
(a) – 0.1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.7 (d) 3.5

MOCK MAT Page 29

174. The triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of an isosceles triangle is
(a) equilateral triangle (b) isosceles triangle
(c) right-angled triangle (d) None of these

175. If O is the centre of the circle, then ∠PQB is equal to:

A 38° B

(a) 48° (b) 38° (c) 52° (d) 42°

176. With the vertices of a triangle PQR as centres, three circles are drawn such that each circle drawn
touches the other two externally. If the length of sides of the triangle are 9 cm, 7 cm and 6 cm, then
the radii of the circles are
(a) 4 cm, 6 cm, 2 cm (b) 6 cm, 5 cm, 3 cm (c) 7 cm, 6 cm, 2 cm (d) 4 cm, 5 cm, 2 cm

177. Two trains start at the same time from two different points A and B on a straight road AB and proceed
towards each other at the uniform speeds of 16 km/hr and 21 km/hr respectively. When they meet
it is found that one train has travelled 45 km more than the other. The distance between the point A
and B is
(a) 333 km (b) 666 km (c) 336 km (d) 363 km

178. At PVR cinema, on a particular day the cost of a Platinum class, a Gold class and a Bronze class
ticket are Rs. 175, Rs. 140 and Rs. 105 respectively. On the particular day, the ratio between the
number of tickets sold of each class were in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4, in that order. If an amount of Rs.
6,300 was collected by selling the Gold class tickets, what was the total number of tickets sold on
that particular day?
(a) 135 (b) 200 (c) 105 (d) Cannot be determined

179. A contractor employed certain number of labourers for a work. The labourers were graded in two
levels, level I and level II. The ratio between the efficiency of level-I and level-II labourers is 2 : 3.
Further, the efficiency of labourers of the same level is equal. If 15 labourers of level-I can complete
a work in 30 days for working 8 hours per day, then 20 labourers of level-II can complete the same
work in 20 days for working how many hours per day?
(a) 9 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12

180. Two inlet pipes, P and Q, mounted on the top of a tank, can fill the empty tank in 10 minutes and 15
minutes respectively. There is an outlet pipe R, which is situated exactly at three-fourth level of the
tank, can pump out 50 L of water per minute. If all the three pipes P, Q and R are opened
simultaneously it takes 15 minutes to fill the tank. What is the capacity of the tank?
(a) 700 L (b) 2100 L (c) 2800 L (d) 1800 L

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181. Usain Bolt is a world famous sportsperson. He belongs to the discipline of …
(a) Chess (b) Swimming (c) Athletics (d) Golf

182. The name of the official mascot of Beijing Olympics -2008 is…
(a) Molu (b) Fuwa
(c) Dazzler (d) Ka Nako

183. Which of the following represents the venue of the 95th Indian Science Congress that took place in
(a) Hyderabad (b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Chennai (d) Bangalore

184. The best picture of Oscars 2008 was…

(a) The Aviator (b) No Country For Old Man
(c) There Will Be Blood (d) Elizabeth: The Golden Age

185. The IT brand Acer has the punch line…

(a) Leading Innovation (b) Experience Results
(c) High Performance. Delivered (d) Empowering People

186. The newly appointed chief minister of Karnataka is…

(a) H. D. Kumaraswamy (b) S.M. Krishna
(c) B. S. Yedurappa (d) None of these

187. The name of India's first unmanned mission to moon is …

(a) Moon-1 (b) Chandrayaan-1
(c) Mayank -1 (d) Shashi -1

188. Which of the following countries will host the 2014 Asian Games?
(a) Thailand (b) India
(c) Malaysia (d) South Korea

189. Yves Saint Laurent who passed away recently belonged to …

(a) Sports (b) Fashion
(c) Diplomacy (d) Politics

190. Who is the author of the book The 3 Mistakes of My Life?

(a) Vikram Seth (b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Shobha De (d) Chetan Bhagat

191. Which of the following personalities is the present speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Shivraj Patil (b) Somnath Chatterjee
(c) Priyar Ranjan Dasmunshi (d) Sushil Kumar Shinde

MOCK MAT Page 31

192. Which of the following represents the correct expansion of NPA?
(a) Net Performance Value (b) Non Performing Assets
(c) Net Proceeds Value (d) New Public Ventures

193. Which of the following is NOT Matched properly?

(a) NASSCOM – IT body of India
(b) CII – Industrial Conglomerate of India
(c) SEBI – Indian Stock Market Regulator
(d) IRDA –Foreign Investment regulator in India

194. Which of the following Union Territories is the least literate?

(a) Lakshadweep (b) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
(c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (d) Pudducherry

195. Mohammed Elbaradei is the present chief of …

(a) NAM (b) IAEA
(c) EU (d) ILO

196. Which of the following days is celebrated as World Health Day?

(a) April 7 (b) May 8
(c) June 5 (d) July 11

197. GNP minus Depreciation is equal to…

(a) GDP (b) NNP
(c) Trade deficit (d) Inflation

198. The first cloned animal was a …

(a) horse (b) sheep
(c) cat (d) dog

199. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about World Trade Organization (WTO)?
(a) WTO is the new avatar of GATS
(b) WTO is headquartered at Geneva
(c) The latest country to join WTO is Cape Verde
(d) The present strength of WTO is 153

200. The winner of Euro cup -2008 is …

(a) Italy (b) Spain
(c) Germany (d) England

Page 32 MOCK MAT

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