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Q.2 A ladder lies against a wall. The top of the ladder reaches 8 ft. above the ground. When the ladder slips two metres away from the wall, the top of the ladder touches the foot of the wall. The length of the ladder is 1) 15 2) 17 3) 8 4) 10 Q.3 A takes 4 days to do a work. B takes twice as long as A. C takes twice as long as B and D takes twice as long as C. They are made in groups of two. One of the groups takes two third of the time taken by second pair. What is the combination of the first pair? 1) A,C 2) A,D 3) B,C 4) B,D Q.4 A student got marks in the ratio 6:7:8:9:10 in five subjects having equal maximum marks. In all, he scored 60% marks. In how many subjects, he got more than 50% ? 1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) None of these Q.5 What is the least value of x for which expression x3 7x2 + 11x 5 gives positive quantity? 1) 4 2) 5 3) 8 4) None of these Q.9 Ram is having 158 coins of one rupee. He puts it in different bags, so that he can hand over the cash of any denomination required between Rs. 1 to Rs. 158. What is the least no. of bags required ? 1) 11 2) 13 3) 15 4) None of these Q.10 Train X starts from A towards B. At same time, train Y start from B towards A. Train X travels at speed of 70 kmph and Y travels at 50 kmph. While X does not stop anywhere on the way, the train Y stops at station C in between at 60km from B for 15 minutes. At what distance from A they would meet 1) 115km 2) 112km 3) 120km 4) None of these Q.11 There are three classes X,Y and Z. Average of class X is 83. Average of Class Y is 76. Average of class Z is 85. Average of class X and Y is 79, average of class Y and Z is 81. Find average of three Classes. 1) 81 2) 81.5 3) 82 4) 84 Q.12 There are five nos. a,b,c,d,e having value of 2,5,6,10,4, not necessarily in this order. We have following clues 1) c + a = e 2) e + a = d 3) b-d = d Which of the following is true ? 1) 10-5 = b-d 2) 4 + 6 = a+e 3) 4-2 = b-d 4) None of these. Q.13 How many 5 digit different nos. can be formed which is divisible by 4 from the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 without repetition. 1)144 2)168 3)192 4)None of these

Q.14 All the pages of a book starting from page 1 are summed. One of the pages has been added twice, and the total thus obtained is 1000. Which is the page that has been added twice ? 1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) None of these. Q.15 In a certain system product of 44 X 11 is represented as 2124 find how 1453 can be represented in decimal system ? 1)248 2) 346 3) 393 4) 410 Q.16 All positive consecutive integers starting from 1 were written on the blackboard. One of the students entered the class and erased one of the numbers. Now the average of the remaining numbers is 35 7/17.The erased number is _______. 1)17 2)8 3)9 4)None of these Q.18 In a four digit number, the sum of digits in the first and fourth place is twice the sum of the digits in the third and fourth place. The difference in the first and third digit is equal to the second digit. What is the digit in the third place? 1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1 Q.19 A person had to multiply two numbers. Instead of multiplying by 35, the person multiplied by 53, and the product went up by 540.What was the raised product? 1) 780 2) 1040 3) 1590 4) None of these Q.20 Euclid had a triangle in his mind .The longest side is 20 and the other side is 10.Area of the triangle is 80.The third side is__ 1) root 260 2) root 240 3) root 250 4)root 210 Q.21 09/12/2001 is Sunday. What was the day on 09/12/9071? 1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Saturday 4) Sunday Q.22 In a fibonacci series, difference between squares of 6th and 7th terms was 517. What is the 8th term. 1) 32 2) 65 3) 83 4) None of these Q.23 There is a circular field having four doors in North, East, West and South. A person walks 3 meters from the North door. Another person comes out of the South door and walks 9 meter towards East so that he is just able to see the first man. What is the diameter of the field. 1) 12 2) 15 3) 9 4) None of these. Q.25 Ram has 128 boxes with him. He has to put atleast 120 oranges in one box and 144 at the most. Find the least number of boxes which will have the same number of oranges. 1) 5 2) 6 3) 103 4) Cant determine. Q.26 There are two persons A and B who joined an organization on 1st Jan 1970. A joined at Rs. 300 and annual increment of Rs.30. B gets salary of Rs. 200 and hike of

Rs. 50 per six month. Find the total amount distributed at the end of 31st December 1979. 1) 91200 2) 92800 3) 97200 4) None of these Q.29 If X and Y are positive integers and X + Y = 1, what is the least value of (X + 1/X)2 + (Y+1/Y)2 ? 1) 24 2) 12.5 3) 20 4) None of these Q.30 2<X<3 and 7<Y<-8, which of the following is minimum ? 1) XY2 2) X2Y 3) 5XY 4) None of these Q.31 Rs. 960 is formed with denominations of Rs. 5, Rs. 2, Re. 1 coins. If the no. of coins Rs 2 and Re 1 are interchanged then the amount varies by Rs. 40. If the total no. of coins are 300, find the no. of coins of Rs. 5. 1)100 2)140 3) 60 4)None of these Q. 32 If a=b2 - b, b 4 ,then a2 -2a is always divisible by__ 1) 15 2) 20 3) 24 4) None of these Q.33 A shopkeeper increases the selling price of his articles by 10% and then reduces it by 10%.Again he does the same thing. Finally the selling price of the articles comes down to 1944.75.What was the original selling price. 1) 1984.75 2) 2000 3) 2500 4) 2148.75 Q.34 a,b,c,d are non Zero real numbers. If a is > b and c> d and abcd =1 ,then which of the following is correct? 1) bd ac 2) a+c > b+d 3) a2 b<d c 4) None of these Q.35 There are two lights. The first light blinks 3 times per minute while the other blinks 5 times in two minutes. Find the no. of times they will blink together in an hour. 1) 20 2) 30 3) 60 4) None of these Q.36 In a shop, cost of 3 burgers, 7 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 120. In the same shop, cost of 4 burgers, 10 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 164.5. Find the cost of 1 Burger, 1 Milkshake and french fries in the shop. 1) 41 2) 21 3) 31 4) None of these Q.37 Fresh grapes contain 90% water, dry grapes contain 20% water. From 20 Kg fresh grapes, How many Kg of dry grape can be obtain ? 1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.2 4) None of these Q.38 x > 5 and y < -1. Which of the following is true ? 1) x2y >1 2) 4x > 5y 3) 4x < 5y 4) None of these

Q.39 x,y and z are integers, x and y are positive odd and z is positive even integers then which is even ? 1) (x-z)2y > 0 2) (x-z)y2 > 0 3) (x-y)2z > 0 4) None of these Q.40 There is a rectangular field of length 60 m and width 20 m. A path of uniform width and area 516 sq m surrounds the field. Find the width of path 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 Q.41 If abcd = 1 then the minimum value of (1+a)(1+b) (1+c) (1+d) is __________ 1) 8 2) 16 3) 4 4) None of these Q no.42 -44 are based on the following data: A player X played an inning such that r1=Scores of completed innings. r2=Scores of incomplete innings. n1= number of completed innings. n2=number of incomplete innings. B=r1+r2 / n1 C=r1/n1 + max { 0,r2-r1/n2} D= r1+r2/ n1+n2 Q.42 Which of the following holds? 1) C B D 2) D B C 3) B C D 4) None of these. Q.43 If B=100 and in next innings he scored 45 not out, then which of the following holds? 1) B>C 2) C>B 3) C>D 4) None of these Q.44 If total number of matches played were 20 and the score was 620,which of the following is true? 1) B=31 2) D=31 3) C>D 4) None of these. Q.45 What is the minimum value of value of x for which the expression x3-5x2+11x-5 gives positive values? 1) 5 2) 8 3) 4 4) None of these. Q.46 One boy while solving a Quadratic equation takes the constant term wrong and gets the roots (4,3). Another boy takes the coefficient of x wrong and gets the roots (2,3). What are the actual roots? 1) (6,1) 2) (-4,3) 3) (2,-3) 4) None of these. Q.47 If A,B,C are running a race A beats B by 12m while B beats C by 8 m. What is the length of the track ?

1) 48 2) 30 3) 50 4) None of these. Q.48 The difference in the money between A and B is Rs.1450.C has money twice of B and difference in the money between A and C is Rs.700.So the amount with A is? 1) 750 Rs. 2) 2200Rs. 3) 800Rs. 4) None of these. Q.49 P, Q and S are moving on a circular stadium of circumference 2100 m. When P completes one round, Q is still 700 m behind. When S completes one round, Q is 300 m ahead of him. How far from the starting point three of them will meet for the first time ? 1) 168 2) 2568 3) 2100 4) None of these Q.50 x, y, z are distinct integers such as x is positive, y is lesser than x and z is more than x and y. Then which of the following is true ? 1) x y 0 2) x-y > 0 3) x y z >0 4) None of these

1. (1)

2. (2)

4. (1)

5. (4)

6. (1)

7. (1)

8. (4)

9. (4)

14.(1)

15.(3)

16.(4)

17.(2)

18.(2)

19.(3)

30.(3)

40.(3)

50.(2)

Directions for Qns. 27 to 30. The first pie-chart gives in percentage the quantity of oil carried through d quantity of oil transported is 12 million tonnes. The second pie-chart gives in percentage the cost involv The total cost involved is Rs. 30 million. Q.27 What is the cost of transportation per tonne through roads (in Rs.)? (1)1 (2)1.5 (3)0.5 (4)2 Q.28 The minimum cost of transportation is through which means ? (1)Rail (2)Road (3)Ship (4)Pipeline.

Q.29 The maximum cost of transportation is through which means ? (1)Air (2)Ship (3)Rail (4)Pipeline.

Q.30. If P, Q, R denotes the cost per tonne for transportation through pipeline, ship and road respective order is correct ? (1) P>R>Q (2) Q>P>R (3) R>Q>P (4) P>Q>R

Directions for Qns. 31 to 34. The following two bar graphs gives the breakup of man-work hours for a s offshore and onsite man-work hours for three different work-activities of the organization. The second b for the same 3 activities. Q.31 Of the total work hours involved , what percent was devoted to Coding ? (1)55% (2)45% (3)65% (4)60%

Q.32 If 50% of the offshore coding hours is equally distributed among the onsite activities, then which o following is true. (1)Onsite design hours becomes almost equal to offshore coding hours. (2)Onsite design hours becomes less than offshore coding hours. (3)Onsite testing hours become less than offshore coding hours. (4)Onsite coding hours become less than offshore coding hours.

Q.33 The actual hours devoted to offshore design falls short of the estimated offshore design hours by h much percent. (1)15% (2)10% (c)20% (d)30% Q.34. The total onsite hours devoted to testing and design corresponds to which of the following? (1)It is more than the offshore coding hours. (2)It is more than the onshore coding hours. (3)It is less than the estimated offshore testing and design hours. (4)It is more than the estimated offshore testing and design hours. Directions:

Amit wants to see some plays. There are six plays going on. Amit wants to see all of them, as well as ta tp 1:30p.m. The names of the plays, their durations and timings are all mentioned in the following table Number 1 Play Sati Savitri Duration Timings 1 hour 9:00a.m, 2:00

30 10:30 a.m , 2:30 minutes p.m 10:00 a.m, 11:00 a.m 11:00 a.m 2:00 p.m

Q.35 Which is the best possible plan for Amit. (1). Sundar Kand first, Jhansi Ki Rani third, Tipu Sultan fifth. (2) Sati Savitri first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth. (3) Jhansi ki Rani first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth. (4) None of the above Directions: Elle is three times Yogesh. Zahir is half Wahida Zahir is younger than Yogesh. Q.36. Which of the following are necessary to find the age of each. (1). Wahida is same age as that of Yogesh. (2). Age of Zahir is ten. (3). Both are required. (4). None of these Q. 37. Which of the following is true? (1). Elle is the eldest. (2) Wahida can be elder to Elle (3) Wahida is eldert to Yogesh (4) None of the above Directions:

Peter owned a butchers shop. In Peters absence, a dog ran away with a piece of meat. When Peter ret jealous of him, gave two statements each, one of which was a lie. Ist Shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had no collar.

2nd shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had a short tail. 3rd shopkeeper: The dog was white. It had a collar. Q. 38 Therefore, the dog (1). Was white with a short tail and no collar. (2) was black with a long tail and a collar. (3) was black with a short tail and a collar. (4) was white with a long tail and no collar. Directions: Certain sets are defined as follows.

If A is a set of all mothers and B is a set of all women, then, C =A.B represents all women who are mot either in A or in B or in both. If there are no women who are mothers, then, A.B = f , where f is a null s

V is set of Vertebrates, F is the set of Fish, D is the set of Dogs, P is Pluto, M is the set of Mammals, A is Alsatians. Q 39. If X = M.D and X = D, then, which of the following is true? (1) All dogs are mammals (2) Some dogs are mammals (3) All mammals are dogs (4) None of the above Q 40. If P.D = f and P D = M, then, which of the following is true? (1) Pluto or any of the dogs are mammals. (2) Pluto and dogs are mammals (3) Pluto is a dog and is a mammal. (4) None of the above. Q 41. If P D = A (1) All dogs are Alsatians (2) Pluto is an Alsatian (3) No dog is an Alsatian (4) Either (1) or (2).

There are 3 families.Bannerjees, Guptas and Sharmas.Each family has a feast every Sunday at differ family eats different dishes and uses different coloured dinner sets. The Bannerjees eat sambhar but not in the red dinner set. The last family does not eat karela or brinjal.

The other dinner sets are yellow and blue in colour. The Guptas use the yellow dinner set.

Q 42. Which of the following is true ? 1) The Bannerjees eat at 12. 2) The last family eats sambhar in the blue dinner set. 3) The Guptas eat karela in the yellow dinner set. 4) None of these.

Back to top ANSWERS KEY: 1. 3 11. 1 21. 2 31. 1 41. 4 2. 4 12. 1 22. 4 32. 1 42.2 3.3 13. 4 23. 2 33. 2 43 4. 4 14. 1 24. 2 34. 3 44 5. 3 15. 2 25. 1 35. 2 45 6. 1 16. 3 26. 2 36. 3 46 7. 4 17. 4 27. 2 37. 4 47 8. 3 18. 1 28. 2 38. 1 48 9. 4 19.2 29. 1 39. 1 49 10.3 20. 4 30. 2 40. 1 50

Doing a number of tests paid off. I know doing these tests caused much discomfort as scores were not able to cross 70 or so. But then the actual CAT turned out just like some of our papers, maybe a little easier. The paper was easier than expected, but then the questions were not straightforward. They required some thought and needed some calculations. The verbal section threw a surprise, but an easy one at that. The passages in reading comprehension were also attemptible. Once again, CAT looked for mental toughness, or, the ability to perform under pressure. What is one to do when each question is a challenge of sorts? When one is aware of the clock ticking away, the pressure mounts and one is tempted to make blind guesses. Hopefully, CAT aspirants did not make that mistake. First, let me look at the pattern of the paper. The pattern was very much expected: 3 sections, 150 questions. So children used to a pattern of 3 sections were comfortable. The number of questions is decreasing with the years: I remember the times when CAT had 240 questions. One can be rest assured that in future it will have 150 questions, or even lesser number of questions. The Verbal Section had a mix of comprehension and English; and the surprise was that there was some direct vocabulary this time. Fortunately the words were all from our wordlists: parsimonious, mellow, disuse, facetious, and the like. The difference was that this time dictionary usage was given and one had to pick out the choice which was not part of the usage. Children who had done our word exercises were definitely at an advantage, since not a single word was asked that we had not done in class. Some of the questions were expected: parajumbles though this time there were ABCDE and even ABCDEF, that is sentence arrangement of 5 or 6 sentences. The passages too were more or less expected: There were 6 of them, on the

following topics: 1) Racial Discrimination, 2) History of Universe, 3) Childrens phonetic skills, 4) Billy Holiday, 5) Kurusawas characters, and 6) Democracy. The number of questions per passage were slightly less, and there were a total of 30 questions on comprehension. There was no technical passage this time. The Maths section had some surprises too. No questions on functions, or higher maths. This time there was some arithmetic, with some direct questions. The question on dry grapes was asked (answer 2.5!) as also one on roots. Fortunately we had done many such questions. Surprise, there was also a question on calendars this time (find the day on 9 Dec 1971) and something on averages. On the whole, the section was attemptible though, as I said before, there was need for calculation and one should not have hurried. There were some questions on umber systems as well. The idea was to keep cool and keep attempting the questions you knew. The tendency in these type or papers is to lose patience and mark blindly, in the hope that some will be right at least. This is terrible. So, even if you were able to do just 10-20 questions out of 55, that was all right. At least they would be right. I have always been saying that no matter how difficult the paper, there will always be 10-15 questions which you can do. The same applied this year too. The DI section was comparatively easier. Some sets were quite difficult but others were easy. The question on Data Sufficiency were relatively simple, though some graphs required some calculations. This section was comparatively easy. The questions on Reasoning were scary, since they were stand-alone questions, but some of these should also have been attempted. What could have been done in such a paper? Depending on your area of strength, you should have started with Maths or Verbal, done the easy questions and sailed through, avoiding the speed breakers. The first round should have seen you spot at least 15 questions in Maths, another 15 in Verbal and 12-15 in Data. One to two passages in Comprehension should have been attempted in the first round. Having done 50 questions or so, your confidence would have been gained and then you should have attempted the rest of the questions, taking each one separately and figured out the logic. The paper was certainly not for people who had not done difficult type of tests, nor for the guess-makers. Thought was needed on each and every question; the paper could not have been done in a hurry. Some questions required quick wits -- again this would be difficult if one was tense. But I wonder if students were able to spot the completely easy ones. Children who gave the CAT this year have brought in a large number of questions. We should be able to offer the complete paper in a few days. It is being said that the score for IIMs this year would be 70+. I am sure that students who did the paper intelligently, will be able to reach that score. However, in such a paper, the number of attempts is no criteria for judging ones performance. What matters is whether it was a balanced score and whether one was able to control the number of mistakes. : 1. CAT is finally out of the Bag. 9 Dec 2001 (the D Day) finally arrived. Before the exam, outside exam Hall, various guess work by students on No. of sections, questions, Difficulty level etc. was the order of the Day. Finally at 12.30 p.m., the CAT was over. Mixed reaction could be observed on the faces of the students. The PAPER was on similar pattern of last year viz. 3 sections, but this year only 150

questions, 2 hour paper without any sectional time limits. There were not many SURPRISES. 2. By and large, students felt that Quantitative Ability (QA) section was comparatively simpler. The English Reading Comprehension (RCs) were comparatively tougher but apart from of a few questions remaining English and Data Interpretation (DI) questions were average. 3. Detailed Analysis of the respective sections is discussed below. Outline of the Paper At a Glance Section No. 1. 2. Subject QA /Problem Solving English (RC & EU) DI & Data Sufficiency 3. ( incl. 10 questions on analytical reasoning) Total Questions Detailed Analysis - Section - I ( QA ) Detailed Analysis - Quantitative Ability (QA) Section Sr. Subject / No Topic 1. 1a. 1b. 1c. 1d. 1e. 1f. 1g. 1h. 1i. 1j. 2 2a. 2b. 2c. 2d. 3. 4. 5. 6. Arithmetic No. of Difficulty Level / Remarks Questions Easy/Average/Difficult/Very Diff. 3 5 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 No. of Questions. 50 50 50 150

Number 14 system Averages 03 Percentages 03 SI & CI Profit, Loss & Discount Ratio and 02 Proportion Time, Speed 06 and Distance Work, Wages 02 (Time & Work) Calendars 01 General 01 Arithmatics Algebra Permutation and 1 Combination linear and Quadratic 7 Equation Set Theory FunctionsMaxima 1 /Minima Geometry & 7 Mensuration Trigonometry1 Others 1 Total 50

1 1 1 1 2 1

1 2 1

1 1 3 1 2

1 2 2 1 1 1 2

Comments and Analysis : Overall the level of difficulty was average. Students found this to be surprising as it was speculated as a very difficult section. Format/contents of the questions were as follows :Six Questions:- Based on time and distance which also included a problem based on streams and another based on races and games. 2 of them were also based on a small graph representing amount of fuel consumed varying with the speed of the vehicle. Two Questions:- Based on time and work were direct application on formulae Seven Questions:- Based on Geometry and Mensuration were by and large simple and could be solved comparing the giving options. Fourteen Questions:- Mainly number system, 1 on permutation & combination. Eleven Questions:- Based on basic arithmetic and algebraic fundamentals, formulation of linear and Quadratic Equation. Total Questions 50 Suggested Time Allotment for QA Section - 40 to 45 min Suggested Questions Attempts - 40 Plus Likely cut off score - 35 Plus Detailed Analysis Section - II ( RC & EU ) RC 1. Passage I a) Subject - Narration of Film b) Approx Words - 1000 c) Number of Questions - 6 d) Type of Questions - Specific questions mainly from the illustrative matter used in the passage. e) Difficulty level - Average f) Other related aspects & comments - The passage did not contain difficult vocabulary or language. However, the entire structure was soaked in the subject matter alone. 2. Passage II a) Subject - An obituary of a single named Billie Holiday. b) Approx Words - 800 c) Number of Questions - 4

d) Type of Questions - General questions by and large. e) Difficulty level Average f) Other related aspects & comments - The passage was simple and interesting which helped to remember the contexts of the passage. 3. Passage III a) Subject - U.N.Conference on racial and cast decimation. b) Approx Words - 800 c) Number of Questions - 5 d) Type of Questions - Not straight abstractive from the passage. e) Difficulty level - Difficult f) Other related aspects & comments - Was a general topic but the questions were not direct abstraction from the passage. 4. Passage IV a) Subject - Astronomy based passage-having concepts of Dark Age, big bank theory and quasars, etc. b) Approx Words - 750 c) Number of Questions - 4 d) Type of Questions - By and large questions. e) Difficulty level - Difficult f) Other related aspects & comments - Technical language. 5. Passage V a) Subject - Phonological skills in young children b) Approx Words - 1200 c) Number of Questions - 6 d) Type of Questions - Could not be deducted from the passage directly. e) Difficulty level - Difficult f) Comments - Language was average but the passage contained a lot of obscurity. 6. Passage VI a) Subject-Leadership and democracy. b) Approx Words-750

c) Number of Questions-5 d) Type of Questions-Based on facts derived from the passage. e) Difficulty Level-Difficult f) Comments-Concept was general but the answers could not be derived easily from the passage. 7. General Comments: RC Passages a) The passages were all reasonably lengthy (above 800 words). b) Language was easy & simple. However, each passage had its own technical paths to tread. c) Subjects range from very general to a very technical one. d) Questions were not sequenced on any difficulty level. e) Almost all questions had their answers drawn from the passages 8. English Usage : Exercise Set I a) Subject - Parajumbles ( 5 sentences type ) b) No. of. questions - 5 c) Difficulty Level - 3 problems Average, 2 problems-Difficult. Exercise Set II a) Contextual usages-Words to be phrased in properly to fit in the correct context. b) No. of. Questions - 5 b) Difficulty Level - Average Exercise Set III a) Subject: Fill in the blanks b) No. of Questions : 5 c) Type of Questions : There were 2 blanks in each sentence. The best alternative of a set of 2 words had to be chosen from among the four options given. e. g. In these black and depressing times of ______________ prices, non performing governments and ___________________ crime rates, Sourav Ganguly has given us, Indians, a lot to cheer about. 1. escalating, increasing (Suggested Ans.) 2. spiraling, booming

3. spiraling, roaring 4. ascending , debilitating c) Difficulty Level - Easy Comments - It was relatively easy to arrive at the correct option by the process of elimination. Exercise Set IV a) Subject - Matching the Dictionary and usage based statements. b) No of Questions - 5 c) Type of Questions - 2 Groups in vertical base were given, each having 5 subgroups the first vertical group containing dictionary group meaning and the second corresponding group containing usage based statements were given to match with each other. d) Difficulty Level - Average RC & EU Section Over all comments : 10. Difficulty Level : RC - difficult EU Easy / Average 11. Suggested Time Allotment RC & EU Section - 35 to 40 min. 12. Suggested Questions Attempts - 40 Plus 13.Likely cut off Score - 30 Plus. Section - III Detailed Analysis -- Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency Section Ex. No. 1 2 Subject / Topic ONE TABULAR Data various airports with there codes, locations, passengers etc. ONE TABULAR Data of various types of garments in three different colors, each available in four different sizes. ONE SEGREGATED BAR DIAGRAM four bars each divided into five different segments representing the five different operations undertaken by four companies. ONE BAR DIAGRAM giving data on coding decoding and testing (Three stages in a software products life cycle). No. of Difficulty Level/ Questions Remarks 5 4 Easy/Average Easy / Average

Difficult

Difficult

ONE PIE DIAGRAM containing 2 pies one giving 3 transportation amount and another total

Average

transportation cost. 6 ONE DIAGRAMATIC REPRESENTAION five cities 4 connected through pipe lines. Problems based on demand and supply and also the capacity of the connecting pipe line. Four Set theory based problems using concepts 5 of intersection and union of the sets. ANALYTICAL REASONING data given as a form of small passage which included relationship caselets, selection of groups age related problem etc. DATA SUFFICIENCY TOTAL QUESTIONS : 10 11 12. 13. Difficulty Level / Comments Suggested Time Allotment for Section Suggested questions Attempt Likely Cutoff Score 10 Easy

7 8

Average/Difficult Average

9 9

Analysis Summary And Overall Expert Comments - CAT 2001 1. Comments - Paper Pattern similar to CAT-2000. QA section Difficulty Level lower than the other two sections i.e. English & DI. 2. CAT 2001 Paper Likely Cut Off Score English RC & EU Section - 30Plus QA/Problem Solving Section - 35Plus DI & DS Section - 30 Plus OVER ALL FOR IIM (For Interview Call) - 95 Plus OVER ALL for MDI & SP JAIN - 85 - 90 plus OVER ALL for MICA, CHANDIGARH UBS, GOA - 75 to 80 3. Strategies Suggested for CAT 2002 : - Shifting trends towards analytical Reasoning. Focus Accordingly. - Trend towards QA/Problem Solving section becoming more logic based more focus on Number System and algebraic equations. Prepare/Practice QA more effectively. - More emphasis required on speed reading for RC Passages. - Time Planning importance on the increase. - No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Sections could be 3 ( as for CAT '2000 & CAT 2001) or could even go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc. - Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections. Prepare accordingly. COMPARATIVE ANALYSIS - CAT 99, CAT 2000 & CAT 2001 READING COMPREHENSION CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001 No. of Passage 5 5 6 Approx. Words in Passage 1475 (6) 1200 (8) 1000 (6) & (No. of Questions) 850 (6) 1100 (8) 800 (4)

825 (5) 1100 (8) 800 (5) 875 (5) 1100 (8) 750 (4) 850 (5) 1000 (8) 1200 (5) 750 (5) Total Words & (No.of 5100 (27) 5500 (40) 5300 (30) (Questions) ENGLISH USAGE Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT2001 Parajumbles Questions 10 10 5 (4/5/6 Type) Sentence Correction 8 Inferential / Deductive Reasoning 10 Fill in the Blanks 5 5 Sentence Arrangement (4 /6 Statements) Short Paragraphs Substitute Underlines Portion in sentence Contextual usage 5 Match the two columns 5 Total Questions ------------ ------------ -------------28 15 20 QUANTITATIVE ABILITY/ PROBLEM SOLVING Topic Arithmetic Questions - Number System - Time, Speed & Distance - General Arithmetic Algebra Questions Geometry & Mensuration Permutations & Combination Maxima & Minima Related 10 3 3 9 6 3 2 15 2 1 8 9 2 1 2 4 14 6 6 6 7 7 1 1 - Averages, percentage/Mixtures 3 CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001

7 5 55

3 8 55

2 50

DATA INTERPRETATION (DI) & DATA SUFFICIENCY Topic Line Chart Tabular Data Pie Chart Case Bar Diagram Data Suffiency Critical Reasoning Set Theory TOTAL : CAT 99 5 5 6 10 30 CAT 2000 6 14 5 10 10 10 55 CAT 2001 15 3 14 3 10 5 50 Line Graph Questions 4

Analytical Reasoning -

Comparative Analysis - Trends & Expert Comments 1.Change in Format :- There is a clear increasing trend towards change in format and flexibility in number of sections and questions. CAT paper NO MORE STEREOTYPED. 2. Analytical and Logical Reasoning :- Focus shifting towards this. 3.Conventional Formula Based Questions :- A paradigm shift away from such questions. 4. Level of Difficulty :- Trend towards SURPRISES. Quant Ability/Problem solving section emerging as a less difficult section this year and reading comprehension getting difficult over the years. Increasing competition for CAT is possibly one of the major reason for this and QA/Problem solving section can eliminate large Number of students from the race. 5. Time Planning & Accuracy :- Increasing Importance towards these aspects. 6. No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Section could be 3 (as for CAT 2000 & CAT 2001) or could go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc. 7. Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections. Prepare accordingly.

Section I - English Questions 55 English Usage PARAJUMBLES Parajumbles ( 4-sentence type) Parajumbles ( 5-sentence type) Parajumbles ( 6-sentence type) 1 4 5 5 15 Words Questions 1300 1450 1450 1400 1300 8 8 8 8 8 North Indian Classical Music) Electronic & Magnetic Storage Technology Settlement of Tribes Abstractionism Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) 6900 40 Questions 10

Every test taker must have let off a sigh of relief after seeing the RC passages. One should have spent about 40 minutes in this section attempting 3 passages that were relatively easy, and mostly contained fact-based questions, amounting to 24 questions. The language was simple, and comprehension wasn't difficult at all. The sentence completion questions were also easy as were the parajumbles and all 15 questions should have been attempted. Thus, totally one could have attempted around 35 - 40 questions in 40 minutes, achieving a score of 30. Section II - Quantitative Questions 55 Topic ARITHMETIC Number Systems Rest of Arithmetic Equations/Inequalities Plane Geometry 3 PERMUTATION / COMBINATION 6 3 9 GEOMETRY Co-ordinate + Graphs 8 1 3 12 ALGEBRA Functionss Progressions 11 4 No. of Questions 15

8 8 55

The pattern of this section was not very different from last year - most of the questions were reasoning driven. For example, the set of questions on cricket was very simple, but most people dropped it because of lack of comfort with cases. A large number of questions could have been attempted by working with choices. The paper would look difficult to someone who was not very comfortable with functions and Algebra - though the number of questions from these topics was not high, they presented a prominent front in the paper. But out of the 12 problems in functions 7 of them had nothing but a intimidating facade. A second look at the paper would have enabled one to identify about 15-17 oneliners that were a straight go! An allocation of about 40 minutes would have made an attempt of about 25 fairly achievable. Section III - DI, DS and Inferential Reasoning Questions 55 Questions Data Sufficiency Data Interpretation Table- IT Industry Table - Factories & Employment Table - Export-Import Intensity Bar Chart - Foreign Equity Inflow to GDP Ratio Multiple Bar Chart - 4 bar charts (for 1990 - 98) Line Chart - Variable Cost / Marginal Cost 5 10 55 6 4 5 4 5 6 10 30

This section, comprising reasoning and data interpretation, could have come as a relief after the quant section. The key to this section was to attempt the DS and Inferential Reasoning questions and then pick up the easier sets of data. The five Logical Reasoning questions were lengthy to read, took time to solve, and hence, should have been the last resort as far as this section was concerned. The tables on export-import intensity, factories and employment were a bit confusing and could have been left. The table on IT sector, was easy to understand and the questions were also direct. Similarly, the line chart on variable cost of Widget Manufacturing by ABC Ltd. and bar chart on Foreign Equity Inflow were straightforward. The set of data with four bar charts looked intimidating, but was very simple and should have been attempted. Out of the 10 questions in Inferential Reasoning, 8 were easy. The options did not seem too confusing, but for someone who was daunted by the size of the paragraphs, these should not have been attempted at all! An attempt of about 6-7 questions was achievable.

An attempt of 7 to 8 in DS, 15 in DI and 7 to 8 in Inferential Reasoning was possible in 40 min. A net score of 25 was definitely on.

Comprehensive Analysis of the Common Admission Test (for admission to the IIMs and other allied institutions in India) Total Time allotted = 120 minutes (2 hours) Total number of Sections = 3 Total Questions = 165 Section 1 English Usage + Reading Comprehension No. of questions = 55 Section 2 Mathematical Aptitude + Logical Reasoning No. of questions = 55 Section 3 Data Interpretation + Data Sufficiency + EU/RC + LR No. of questions = 55 CAT 2000 -- OVERALL BASIC SUMMARY

(as compared to the conventional 4 sections that have been coming for the past 10 years before that). A basic reason for this could have been the examiners attempt to put stress on the students however, since the students' already knew the pattern of the CAT and many had anticipated almost what it would be like this year, it was a sigh of relief for many ! (not that it would matter much as far as scores are concerned) It must be mentioned here that this pattern along with many others were taken up in the MM courseware and we are sure that our students would have benefited immensely from that rigorous practice. (2) English Usage was based primarily on "understanding of language and not cramming of words." Almost 10 questions were based on "Paragraph Formation" and "Rearrangement of sentences". This trend has been seen for the past 10 years. (MM students have a major advantage over others this practice has been done in the class hundreds of times.) Typical "Fill in the Blanks" type questions came again (they were not a part of CAT 1999). These have been done repeatedly in the MM classroom sessions. No direct questions on Vocabulary came this time. No synonyms-antonyms types, no verbal analogies types, no odd-man-out types.

(3) Reading Comprehension was not very easy but was manageable for the sincere student. A mix of very direct and some indirect questions given. Direct RC (passages followed by set of questions) had 5 passages and 40 questions. This came as part of the Language (EU + RC) section. Indirect RC (small passages followed by ONE question) had 10 questions. This came in the third section (DI +DS + LR + RC) MM students have a great edge over others as these types of passages have been discussed several times in the classes and the Library has several books of these types for students reference.

(5) Not a single question based on Verbal Analogies, Synonyms, Antonyms, Odd Man Out was asked. The message is clear No direct vocabulary questions please ! (6) Data Sufficiency has been standardised for the past 3 years. "Any one statement alone is sufficient" type directions came again. A total of 10 questions appeared. (7) Data Interpretation was very easy this time compared to last few years. This is so because there were several very direct questions in the DI sets. (8) A lot of Logical Reasoning based questions came this year spread across two sections. (9) Maths section was not a cakewalk. Though about 20 questions were direct, the rest needed a lot of prior exposure and practice to manage. An interesting thing that has emerged is that the easiest of questions get couched in the most abstruse language and look difficult ! (10) The overall structure of CAT was clear Language - Usage + Comprehension 55 questions Mathematics -- Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions Data Analysis -- Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions (11) An ideal time division could have been Scheme No. 1 (for those more comfortable with Language) Priority 1 English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 10-15 minutes Priority 2 Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 30-35 min Priority 3 Maths questions Time = 35 min Priority 4 LR + DS + DI questions Time = 30-35 min

Priority 1 Maths questions Time = 35 min Priority 2 LR + DS + DI questions Time = 25-30 min Priority 3 Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 35 min Priority 4 English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 20 minutes

(This is just a sketch exact sectionwise details given later.) The Basic Structure of each section was : Section 1: English Usage + Reading Comprehension

Q.1 to Q.5 Paragraph formation of 5 statements (*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in MMs courseware for CAT). Q.6 to Q.10 Fill in the blanks type questions. There were 2 blanks to be filled in each question. Very direct questions. (*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in MMs courseware for CAT that included even 4 blanks per question!). Q.11 to Q.15 Paragraph formation of 6 statements (4 between 2 types) (*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in MMs courseware for CAT). Q.16 to Q.23 Reading Comprehension passage no. 1 on 'Crisis faced by the School of Abstractionist Art'. Q.24 to Q.31 Reading Comprehension passage no. 2 on 'Differences in approach between North Indian classical music and Western classical music'. Q.32 to Q. 39 Reading Comprehension passage no. 3 on 'MNCs in Agribusiness and TRIPS'. Q.40 to Q.47 Reading Comprehension passage no. 4 on 'Different Types of Storage devices used in computers'. Q.48 to Q.55 Reading Comprehension passage no. 5 on 'The Conquest of the West by the European Settlers' (*ample practice material of hundreds of passages given in MMs courseware for CAT. These passages were almost identical to the ones in MMs study material). Section 2: Mathematical Aptitude Q. Conversion of Decimal into Fractions type questions Number theory based question A must do type would take 15 seconds at the most. Q. Linear equations with tabulated data given for X and Y Linear equation theory based question Can be done type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Generation of Numbers series (A1, A2 types) Number theory based question A must do type would take 30 seconds at the most. Q. Value of a given fraction Number theory based question A can do type would take 80 seconds at the most. Q. Truck travelling at a rate and fuel consumption types Percentages and Time-Speed theory based question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Sequence of 7 consecutive integers given and average is asked Number theory based question A can do type would take 45 seconds at the most. Q. Given conditions on X and Y, find the true statement Logic and Number theory based question A must do type would take 30 seconds at the most.

Q. One red, three white, and two blue flags to be arranged, finding the number of arrangements Permutations and combinations based question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Given a set of integers X and some conditions Number theory and Set theory based question A can do type would take 50 seconds at the most Q. Three distinct integers X, Y, Z positive and odd, finding the false statement Logic and Number theory based question A must do type would take 30 seconds at the most. Q. A set of prime numbers > 2 and < 100 given, find the number of consecutive zeroes in the product Logic and Number theory based question A must do type would take 30 seconds at the most. Q. N = 1421 x 1423.. divided by 12 to get the remainder Modulus theory based question A must do type would take 15 seconds at the most. Q. Number of distinct triangles with some given perimeter Geometry theory based question A must do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Given 34041 and 32506 being divided by a three digit number to give a common remainder. What could that number be ? Number theory based question A must do type would take 25 seconds at the most. Q. Given the numbers x1, x2 etc. upto xn each having a range of values. Finding the value of n. Logic + Number theory based question A may do type would take 120 seconds at the most. Q. Table of age of people (of a country called Indonesia) Finding the number of females Calculation based question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Sam forgets his friend's phone number (and other conditions given) . Number of attempts required to get through Permutation and Combinations based question A not do type. Q. Binary operations based two questions with symbols like @, /, X etc. Binary operations based question A must do type would take 60 seconds at the most. {it seems this question had a printing error --many students reported so} Q. X, Y, Z are real numbers. Functions f(X, Y, Z) defined as .etc. Number theory based question A must do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Robot delivering goods to machines A, B, C, D, E etc. Logic based question A can do type would take 120 seconds at the most for both the questions. Q. Function based question with three graphs given (exactly similar as last year's CAT) Graph based question A must do type would take 60 seconds at the most.

Q. Three bottles A, B, C having certain capacities .. controlled by a computer. Logic based question A must do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Sixteen teams playing ABC goldcup matches to be played in 2 stages . Logic based question A can do type would take 250 seconds at the most. Q. N = 55cubed + 17 cubed - 72 cubed divided by Logic + Number theory based question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. X2 + Y2 = 1 and other conditions given Number theory based question A not do type. Q. Rhombus ABCD diagonals intersecting at the origin and other conditions . Geometry based question A must do type would take 45 seconds at the most. Q. Circle of unit radius having sectors S1, S2 .. Areas of sectors. Geometry based question A must do type would take 45 seconds at the most. Q. Books 1, 2 and 3 placed in an order on a table.. to be shifted to the next table Logic based question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Area bounded by 3 curves | X + Y |= 1 and other conditions given Geometry + Logic based question A not do type. Q. Given equation X cubed - a X squared etc. having real roots, then find a,b Linear equations + Logic based question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most. Q. Sides of a triangle are given (a, b, c). Find the triangle . Trigonometry based question A not do type. Q. Figure given ab = bc = cd finding dae etc. Geometry based question A not do type. Q. A shipping clerk having 5 boxes weighing them in pairs find the heaviest box Logic based question A not do type. Q. Three cities A, B, C connected by road .. Find the number of ways of going from one city to another etc. Pure Logic based question (several such questions appear in the MM material especially the Final Test series) A not do type basically because of the time involved. Q. Convert 1982 from base 10 to base 12 Number theory based that can be done from the options directly A must do type would take 10 seconds at the most. Q. Two tanks, cylindrical and conical.. difference of capacities of the two given. Finding capacity of cylindrical Working backwards from options based question A must do type Would take at the most 15 seconds. Q. Farmer fencing his field gets less number of fences find length of field and number of fences. Linear equation based question A must do type at the most 30 seconds.

Section 3: Data Interpretation/Data Sufficiency/Verbal Reasoning/Logical Reasoning Q. 111-115 LR based 5 questions Q. 116-126 5 questions on Import Export data and Deficit SOME MORE ALSO unable to recall Q. 127-131 Bar graph based questions on "Various sectors of Economy" Q. 132-136 IT in India - Tabular type questions Q. 137-141 Tabular question on "Companies and Sectors of Corporate India" Q. 142-145 FEI graph and questions based on that bar graph Q. 146-155 DS questions Q. 156-165 RC Theme based questions General Caveat: This question numbering is based on a particular set of test paper. Your test paper may have had a different numbering order but the questions are identical across all sets.

Overall we can summarise that the level of difficulty of this paper was marginally tougher than that of CAT 2000. Hence, cut-offs are likely to drop a little. An attempt of 90 can be considered a good one. With inputs from Mumbai, Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi, Cochin, Tiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Lucknow, Jaipur, Calcutta, Guwahati, and Pune the following performance parameters can be taken as a benchmark for all the CAT 2000 takers. Section Questions Section 55 I Section 55 II Section 55 III Total 165 Possible Attempts 40 25 30 95 Possible Score 30 - 35 20 25 75 - 80 Cut-off for a definite call 26 16 22 70 - 75

For IIMs the cutoff could be 70 and 75+ is a sure shot call from the top ones. For institutes like MDI, SPJain the cutoff could be 65+ net and for MICA, GIM, UBS the cutoffs could be 60+. It is quite likely that these institutes may look at only total cutoffs and not sectional ones. Though the most important of all the MBA entrances is behind, others are round the corner. With IITs, FMS, XLRI etc. to follow, it is time to look ahead and be determined to do well in those. Be positive in realizing your dreams. We are sure you all will. However good or bad you may feel about the CAT, the results are bound to surprise many of you. This has been happening year after year leaving many with hardly any time to prepare for the second round - face to face. Hence start thinking about the preparation for the next phase - Group discussions and Interviews. Do not be left behind. Evaluate and join programs on personality development that are being offered by some organizations in your city. The programs will expose you to the challenges ahead and prepare you to face it confidently. Enroll yourselves now and make a difference to yourself.

NUMBER OF SECTIONS- 3 The main subjects were distributed over the three sections as illustrated in the table below. Subject Marks Difficulty Level Average Average

Verbal Skills Reading Comprehension Quantitative Ability Data Interpretation Critical Reasoning TOTAL

15 40

II

55

Tough

III

45 10

Average+ Average+

165

Given this format there were several possible strategies you could have adopted. These are two of the most likely approaches to have been taken. TIME ALLOTMENT STRATEGIES Strategy 1 Section 1- 40 minutes Section 2- 40 minutes Section 3- 40 minutes Strategy 2 Section 1- 40 minutes Section 2- 50 minutes Section 3- 30 minutes

It is probable that some of you may have got a little nervous and failed to optimise your resources. But given that you have been preparing for all kinds of possibilities, we hope that all of you have allocated more time to the tough Quantitative section. However remember that strategies depend upon your individual methods of functioning and your strengths and that whatever you chose may work out for you in the end. Our next task is to look at the five main subject sections [Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Reasoning (including Critical, Mathematical, Analytical), Mathematics and Data Interpretation] and examine the areas that CAT focussed on in each. Here is a break up of each subject in terms of the marks allotted to different kinds of questions and the level of difficulty. Verbal Ability Types of Questions Allotted Marks Difficulty Level

Jumbled Sentences (4-5) Jumbled Sentences (6) Fill in the Blanks (5) Total Reading Comprehension Serial No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Total Reasoning Areas Tested Critical Reasoning Maths Reasoning Analytical Reasoning TOTAL Mathematics Subject Functions Permutations Geometry Algebra Coordinate Geometry Understanding Numbers Mensuration Subject IT Abstract Art TRIPS Classical Music

5 5 5 15

No. of qns. 8 8 8 8 8 40

Number of Questions 10 13 10 33

Allotted Marks 13 3 3 7 3 7 1

2 3 42

Average Average

35

Since the level of difficulty coupled with the novelty of the paper pattern has probably thrown most people off guard, cut-offs this year are likely to be slightly lower than they usually are. Our tea leaves tell us that given this break up Section Optimal Time Optimal Attempts Optimum Score I II III Total 40 minutes 50 minutes 30 minutes 2 hours 40-45 25-30 30-35 95-110 32+ 20+ 25+ 85 Cut-Offs- IIMs 25 17 23 75

It has been a tough roadespecially the last leg of the journey. No Deductive Reasoning, no Percentages, no Alligation, no Trigonometry, no GrammarIt only proves what we all know and dread. You can make very few predictions about CAT. This year has driven it home more truly than ever before. Section II 2. What is the area of the region bounded by |x + y| = 1, | x | = 1 & |y | = 1 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3 3. ABCD is a rhombus with diagonals AC & BD intersecting in at the origin in the xy plane. If equations of AD is x + y = 1 then the equation of line BC is (a) x + y = 1 (b) x + y = - 1 (c) x y = 1 (d) none of these Directions : For question (4-5), certain relation is defined among variable A & B. Using the relation answer the question given below. @ (A, B) = average of A & B \ (A, B) = product of A & B x (A, B) = the result when A is divided by B 4. The sum of A & B is given by (a) \ (@ (A, B), 2) (b) @ (\(A, B),2)

(c) @ (X (A, B) 2) (d) none of these 5. The average of A, B & C is given by (a) @(x ( \ (@ ( A, B ), 2 ), c), 3) (b) \ (x ( \ (@ (A, B ) ) c, 2) (c) X (@ ( \ (@ (A, B), 2) c, 3) (d) @ ( \ (@ (A,B), 2), C) Directions for question 6-8: x & y are non zero real numbers F (x, y) = +(x + y)0. 5 , If (x +y) 0. 5is real, otherwise = (x + y )2 g (x, y) = (x + y )2 if (x + y ) 0 . 5 is real , otherwise = - (x + y ) 6. For which of the following is F(x, y) necessarily greater than g(x, y) (a) x & y are positive (b) x & y are negative (c) x & y are grater than - 1 (d) none of these 7. Which of the following is necessarily false ? (a) f (x, y) <= g (x, y) for 0 <= x, y < 0.5 (b) f (x, y) > g (x, y) when x, y < - 1 (c) f(x,y) > g(x,y) for x,y>1 (d) None of these 8. If f(x,y) = g(x,y) then (a) x = y (b) x + y = 1 (c) x = - y = 5/4 (d) Both b & c 9. Convert 1982 in base 10 to base 12. (a) 1129 (b) 1292 (c) 1192 (d) 1832 10. Sameer has to make a telephone call to his friend Harish. Unfortunately he does not remember the 7 digit phone number. But he remembers the first 3 digits are 635 or 674, the number is odd and there is exactly one 9 in the number. The minimum number of trials that Sameer has to make to be successful is (a) 10,000 (b) 2430 (c) 3200 (d) 5000 11. D is a real number with non terminating digits after the decimal point. D = 0.a1 a2 a1 a2 a1 a2..with a1 & a 2 not both zero. Which of the following when multiplied by D will necessarily give an integer? (a) 18 (b) 198 (c) 100 (d) 288 12. P is the product of all the prime numbers between 1 to 100. Then the number of Zeroes at the end of P are: (a) 1 (b) 24 (c) 0 (d) none of these 13. There are two disjoint sets S1 and S2 where S1 = { f (1), f (2), f (3) , } S2 = {g (1), g (2), g (3) , .} such that S1 U S2 forms the set of natural numbers. Also f (1)< f (2) < f (3) & g (1) < g (2) < g (3)f(n) = g(g(n)) + 1 Then what is g (1)? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) cant be determined 14. There is a regular octagon A B C D E F G, a Frog is at the vertex A. it can jump on to any of the vertices except the exactly opposite vertex the frog visits all the vertices exactly once and then reaches vertex E then how many

times did it jump before reaching E ? (a) 7 (b) 2n + 1 (c) 6 (d) cant be determined 15. Find the following sum: 1/(22 - 1 ) + 1/(42 1)+ 1/(62 1) + +1/(202 1) (a) 9/10 (b) 10/11 (c) 19/21 (d) 10/21 16.

x y

1 4

2 8

14 22 32 44

Which of the following equation will be best fit for above data? (a) y = ax + b (b) y = a + bx+cx2 (c) y = ea x +b (d) None of these 17. There are five boxes, each of a different weight & none weighing more than 100. Arun weighs two boxes at a time and obtains the following readings in grams : 110, 111, 112, 114, 115, 116, 117, 119, 120, 121, what is the weight of the heaviest box? (a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 64 (d) cant be determined. 18. N = 1421 x 1423 x 1425 what is the remainder when N is divided by 12? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 9 19. x > 2, y > -1 then which of the following holds good? (a) xy > -2 (b) xy < -2 (c) x > -2/y (d) None of these 20. xn are either 1 or 1 & n 4 x1 x2 x3 x4 + x2 x3 x4 x5 + x3 x4 x5 x6 + +xn x1 x2 x3 = 0 then n can be (a) odd (b) even (c) prime (d)cant be determined 21. What number should be subtracted from both 32534 & 33069 so that the resultant give the same remainder on division by a 3 digit number? (a) 298 (b) 307 (c) 461 (d)cant be determined 22. If x, y and z are odd integers which of the following is necessarily false? (a) xyz is odd (b) ( x y) z is even (c) (x y ) (z + y ) x is even (d) (x y z ) (x + z ) is odd 23. A, B and C are 3 cities that form a triangle & where every city is connected to every other one by at least one direct root. There are 33 routes direct & indirect from A to C & there are 23 routes from B to A. How many direct routes are there from A to C? (a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 25 24. If f ( 0, y ) = y + 1, f (x + 1, y) = f ( x , f (x, y )) Then, what is the value of f(1,2)? (a) 1 (b)2 (c) 3 (d) 4

25. A and B are two cities 10 Km apart. A load of 80 Kg has to be transported from A to B. the courier service is charges @ 10 Rs per hour. The optimal speed that one can go without load is 10 Km/ hr, the speed reduces to 5 Km/hr with a weight of10 Kg. Further with 20 Kg (which is the maximum weight that can be carried), the speed is 2 km/hr. What is the minimum cost? (a) 200 (b) 180 (c) 160 (d) 140 26. If the perimeter of a triangle is 14 and the sides are integers, then how many different Triangles are possible? (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3 27. There are two tanks, one cylindrical and the other conical. The cylindrical tank contains 500 litre limca more than the conical tank. 200 litres is removed both from the cylindrical and conical tank. Now the cylindrical tank contains double the volume of liquid in the conical tank. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank in litre?. (a) 1000 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 1200 28. a,b & c are sides of a triangle. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ac then the triangle will be (a) equilateral (b) isosceles (c)right angled (d) obtuse angle 29. There are seven consecutive natural numbers such that the average of the first five is n. then average of all seven numbers will be? (a) n (b) n + 1 (c) kn + 1/k where k is a positive constraint. (d) n+2/7 Direction: For questions (30- 31). There are three vessels A,B, and C with capacities 5, 3 and 2 respectively. There is a computer program that can perform certain functions as described below: Drain (Y) : drains the liquid in a vessel Y.Fill (X,Y) : fill amount from Y into X such that the amount of liquid withdrawn from Yis equal to the liquid in X. Empty (X,Y) : empty amount from Y into X such that the amount left in Y is equal to the amount of liquid in X. 30. The following operations are performed in succession 1. Fill (C,A) 2. --------- 3. Fill (C,A) What should the second operation be if after the three operations A should contain one litre of liquid? (a)Empty (C,B) (b)Empty (B,C) (c)Fill (C,B) (d)Fill (B,C) 31. In addition to the three operations in above problem, the fourth operation performed is Drain A. What operations should follow so that A contains four litres of liquid? (a) Empty (B,A) , Drain (c) (b) Empty (B,A) , Empty (C,A) (c) Fill (B,A) , Fill (C,A) (d) Fill (A,B) , Fill(A,C) 32. If the equation of x3 ax2 + bx a has three real roots then the following is true. (a) a = 1 (b) a 1 (c) b = 1 (d) b 1 Directions: For questions (33-35) graphs of some functions are given mark the options (a) If f ( x ) = 3f (-x)

(b) If f (x) = f (-x) (c) If f (x) = - f (- x) (d) If 3f ( x ) = 6 f (- x) 36. There are three books on table A which has to be moved to table B. The order of the book on Table A was 1, 2, 3, with book 1 at the bottom. The order of the book on table 1 should be with book 2 on top and book 1 on bottom. Note (You can pick up the books in the order they have arranged. You cant remove the books from the middle of the stack) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Directions: For questions (37 38) There are five machines A, B, C, D, E arranged in a straight line with 10 m distance between adjacent machines a robot is waiting at the origin and is assigned the job to transport raw material from the origin from the machines for processing. A is nearest to the origin at a distance of 10 meters. Each of the machine sends a signal to the robot when it requires some raw material. The robot then carries the raw material to the respective machines. How ever if any machine sends the signal when the robot has already left the origin then it will receive the signal only when it returns to the origin. Speed of the robot is given as 10 m/s. Machine A sends a signal in the 1st second Machine B sends a signal in the 5th second Machine D sends a signal in the 6th second 37. Now if machine E sends a signal in the 8th second then what is the distance that the robot has travelled just before the machine E sends the signal ? (a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160 (d) 200 38. Now if the origin were at the other side 10 meter beyond E and the robot was at the new origin in the beginning. The robot after delivering the raw material to any of the machine goes to the origin which is nearest to him. Then what is the distance travelled before it receives the signal sent by machine E. (a) 160 (b) 140 (c)180 (d) none of these Directions: For questions (39 - 41): Functions m & M are defined as follows: m(a, b, c) = min (a+b, c,a) M (a,b,c) = max (a+b,c,a) 39. If a = -2, b = -3 & c = 2 what is the maximum between[m(a,b,c)+M(a,b,c)] / 2 & [m(a,b,c) M (a,b,c)] / 2 (a) 3/2 (b) 7/2 (c) 3/2 (d) 7/2 40. If a & b,c are negative, then what gives the minimum of a & b (a) m(a,b,c) (b) -M (-a, a,-b) (c) m(a+b,b,c) (d) none of these 41. What is m (M(a-b, b,c), m(a+b,c,b), -M (a,b,c) for a = 2 b = 4, c = 3? (a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 6 (d) 3 Directions: For questions (42- 43) F (x) = 1 / 1 + x if x is positive = 1 + x if x is negative or zero f n (x) = f ( f n 1 (x) )

42. If x = 1, find f 1(x) f 2 (x) f 3 (x) f 4(x) .f 9(x) (a) 1/15 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/18 (d) 1/17 43. If x = -1 what will f 5 (x) be (a) 2/3 (b)1/2 (c) 3/5 (d) 4 44. There are eight sectors with areas S1, S2, S3, ----- S8 in a circle of radius 1 unit. the total areas of the seven sectors is p /8 units. The area of the sector is given by Sj = 2(j 1) for j>1.What is the angle subtended by sector S1 at the centre ? (a) p /508 (b)p /1016 (c) p /2040 (d)p /127 45. 553 + 173 - 723 is divisible by (a) both 3 and 13 (b) both 7 and 17 (c) both 3 and 17 (d) both 7 and 13 46. 100? x ? 200, such that x is divisible by 3 but not 7 and x is odd. The possible number of values of x is, (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 13 47. One red, three white and two blue flags are to be arranged in such a way that no two flags of the same colour are adjacent and the flags at the two ends are of different colours. The number of ways in which this can be done is, (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 12 48. a1 = 1 and an+1 = 2an + 5, for n being a natural number. The value of a100 is (a) 5x299 + 6 (b) 5x299 - 6 (c) 6x299 + 5 (d) 6x299 - 5< 49. |x2 +y2| = 0.1 and |x-y| = 0.2, then the value of |x| + |y| is, (a) 0.6 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.4 Directions: For questions (50 53) The tournament for ABC Cup is arranged as per the following rules: In the beginning 16 teams are entered and divided in 2 groups of 8 teams each where the team in a any group plays exactly once with all the teams in the same group. At the end of this round top four teams from each group advance to the next round in which two teams play each other and the losing team goes out of the tournament. The rules of the tournament are such that every match can result only in a win or a loss and not in a tie. The winner in the first round takes one point from the win and the loser gets zero. In case of tie on a position the rules are very complex and include a series of deciding measures. 50. What is the total number of matches played in the tournament? (a) 63 (b) 56 (c) 64 (d) 55 51. The maximum number of matches that a team going out of the tournament in the first round itself can win is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 52. The minimum number of matches that a team must win in order to qualify for the second round is (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 53. Which of the following statements about a team which has already qualified for the second round is true? (a) To win the cup it has to win exactly 14 matches (b) To win the cup it has to win 3 more matches

(c) To win the cup it has to win 4 more matches (d) To win the cup it has to win 5 more matches 54. The vehicle of Mr. Ghosh needs 30% more fuel at the speed of 75 kmph than it needs at the seed of 50kmph. At a speed of 50 kmph, Mr. Ghosh can go to a distance of 195 kms. At the speed of 75 kmph, he will be able to travel a distance of, (a) 120 kms (b) 150 kms (c) 160 kms (d) 140 kms 55. Let f be a function from set A to set B for a set X B, define f -1(X) = {x A: f(x) X} Then which of the following is necessarily true for a subset U of X? (a) f(f -1 (U)) = U (b) f(f -1 (U)) U (c) f(f -1 (U)) U (d) f(f -1 (U)) U Answer Key : Back to top

SECTION III Directions for questions 18 to 27 : Mark (a) If one of the statement is sufficient to answer the question and another is not. (b) If both the statements can answer the question independently. (c) both statements are required to answer the question. (d) Question cannot be answered. 18. In a triangle D PQR, in which PQR is 90 . What is PQ+RQ? (I) The diameter of incircle is 10 cm. (II) The diameter of circumcircle is 18 cm. 19. X,Y,Z are real number, is Z smallest? (I) X is greater than at least one of the Y or Z. (II) Y is greater than at least one of the X or Z. 20. Today a person purchase some share and the next day he sells them. In both the transaction he paid a brokerage of 1% per share. What is the profit per rupee investes? (I) The selling price of a share is 1.05 times cost price. (II) The no of share he sells is 100. 21. Is modulus of x always less than 3? (I) x(x+3) < 0 (II) x(x-3) < 0

22. A line cuts 2 concentric circles in points a,e and b,d. Is ac/ce = 1? Point c is on line ae. (I) bc = cd (II) If a third circle cuts in same points b and d, points c lies on line joining the centres of circle. 23. If x and y are positive integer f (x,y) = . Find f(0,1) (a) f(a,b) = f(b,a) (b) f(a,b) = 0 if b = 0 24. In a group, 100 people drink coffee only, how many drink tea only? (a) 100 drink both tea and coffee. (b) Number of people having tea or coffee or both is 1500. 25. The equation of 2 lines are ax+by = c and dx+ey = f, are the lines intersecting? (a) a,b,c,d,e,f are distict real no's. (b) c and f are non zero's no's. 26. A person leaves for No man Island in North America from Mumbai at 5:00 pm. Local time and flies non stop . At what time he reaches no man Island(local time)? (a) He flies with an average speed of 150 kmph. (b) The distance between Mumbai and No man Island is 1500 km. 27.Ghosh Babu wanted to cordon off a triangular piece from a corner of his square piece of land of perimeter 400 meters. What was the length of the longest side of the cordoned off area? (a) The cordoned off area is an isosceles triangle. (b) Each of the smaller sides of the triangle is 20 m. Directions for questions 28 to 34 : The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Softsoft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores. 94-95 95-96 96-97 97-98 98-99 Haardware (a) Domestic 68 (b) Exports Software (a) Domestic 142 (b) Exports Peripherals Training Others Total 1100 25 140 12 2048 127 1200 10 106 19 10 2126 150 1339 25 160 25 19 2500 320 2500 20 240 92 40 5048 422 2215 37 161 126 24 4947 540 54 600 52 730 66 1770 35 1827

Maintenance 21

28. In which year hardware exports has been between 35 - 40 % of total? (a) 97 - 98 and 98 - 99 ; (b) 98 - 99 and 95 - 96 (c) 97 - 98 and 94 - 95 ; (d) 95 - 96 and 96 - 97 29. Which of the following is true? (a) The revenues from training consistently increases over a period of time (b) Hardware exports consistently increase over a period of time

(c) Software exports consistently increase over a period of time (d) None of the above 30. In how many years the total revenue on training and maintenance is less than ten percent of the total revenues? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) all 31. In which of the following years the total hardware revenue is more than 50 % of that of the software revenue in the same year ? (a) 94 - 95 (b) 95 -96 and 96 - 97 (c) 97 - 98 and 94 - 95 (d) None of the above 32.If in 99-00 total revenue decrease by five percent over previous years but software increases to 2437 crores what is the approximate percentage decrease in rest of the heads considering uniform decrease. (a) 1.0% (b)1.8% (c)2.0% (d)3.3% For the next two questions follow these additional directions. Taking a field (say A) , year X is said to dominate over year Y if the revenues from field A in year X is greater than that in year Y. Taking two years,1 and 2, into consideration, for two fields A and B , (a) A is said to dominate over B, if A B in one year and A>B in the other. (b) Year1 is said to dominate over year2, if A1 A2, and B1 B2. There should be strict inequality in atleast one year. 33. Which of the following is true? (a) Hardware and training dominate software throughout the period (b) Hardware dominates the peripherals throughout the period (c) Peripherals and Others dominate training in the year 94 - 95 and 98 - 99 (d) None of the above 34. Taking Peripherals Exports and Training together which of the following is true? (a) 96 - 97 dominates 97 -98 (b) 97 - 98 dominates 98 - 99 (c) 98 - 99 dominates 97 - 98 (d) None of the above 35. In a bag a person can carry 10 books. The books are mathematics physics, management and fiction. If a person carries a book of management, he has to carry two or more books of fiction. If he carries a book of mathematics he has to carry two or more books of physics. In carrying books he used to get certain points. To carry a book of management, mathematics, physics and fiction each the points he got were 4, 3, 2, 1 respectively. He has to carry a book of each subject. So what is the maximum no of points a person can get (a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23 36. Five persons P, Q, T, S, M lives in a hut, palace, hotel, cottage, penthouse not necessarily in that order. Each of them like two colours out of red, green, yellow, blue and black. P likes red and blue. Q lives in a hut. T likes yellow and black and S likes the colour liked by P. the person

who lives in a palace doesnt like blue or black colour where does M stay? (a) palace (b) hut (c) cottage (d) pent house 37. There is a gathering to felicitate 7 cricketers T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z. They are all seated on one side of a rectangular table. V and W want to leave early and so will occupy the two positions on the extreme right of the table. T is the man of the match and hence will occupy the centre position. U and V are bitter enemies and should be seated as far as possible. Y, T and X are great friends and so must be seated always next to each other. What is the position of X? (a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 3rd or 5th 38.Rita, Sita, Gita and Mita went to a dance party with Tarun, Arun, Varun and Karun.Rita did not dance with Tarun or Varun, Gita knew only disco dance and Arun and Varun did not know disco. Mita and Varun are bitter enemies and won't dance with each other. Given a choice, Arun won't dance with Mita. Karun's partener is Gita. Who was Mita's dance partner? (a) Tarun (b) Arun (c) Karun (d) Varun 39. Four persons A, B , C and D live in four houses which are Red, Green Blue and Yellow in colour. A doesn't live adjacent to the Yellow house. B lives in the Yellow house. The Yellow house is adjacent to the Green and the Red house. What is the colour of A's house? (a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) can't be determined Directions for questions 40 to 45 : Factories Employment Fixed Capital Variable Cost Value Added Government Central State Public Private Joint Total 18 8 4 12 55 15 100 15 6 6 3 8 65 12 100 14 5 4 5 6 72 8 100 22 7 8 7 19 54 5 100 25 10 3 12 8 62 5 100

Central/State 6

40. If the total work force was 76 million whereas the total value added was 225 million, then which of the following had the maximum value addition per worker? (a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public 41. Which of the following sectors has the maximum fixed capital invested per factory? (a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public 42. If the variable cost is proportional to the number of employees and the production per employee, then for which of the following is the production the highest? (a) Government (b) Private (c) Joint (d) Public

43. If the government has a fixed capital of $200 million in the Iron & Steel industry, which corresponds to 20.012% of its total investment as fixed capital, then how much, did the government invest (in Rs. Million) in Maruti Udyog Ltd. which forms 25% of the investment in the joint sector? (1 US $ = Rs. 45) (a) 6500 (b) 2500 (c) 143 (d) 145 44. Maruti Udyog Ltd. is a joint project of the Indian Government and Suzuki Motors, Japan, each having equal stake. One fine day, the Indian government decides to disinvest from the venture due to losses occurring from labor problems. How much money will be disinvested? ( Refered to question 43, if required) (a) Rs.246 million (b)Rs 6500 million (c) $246 million (d) $6500 million 45. Which of the following statement is true (a) the number of govt employees are more than that of the number of factories in joint sector (b)The number of employees in the public sector is same as fixed capital of joint sector (c) Both a and b (d) Cannot say A n s w e r K e y : B a c k t o t o p

41.b

42.b

43.a

44.b

45.d

Note : In actual test-paper 10 questions on Critical Reasoning were also there in this section.

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