What Is Meant By " Because He Could Swear By No Greater?

Hello Mr. Vinson and IWWB,

I have spent a lot of time wandering in and out of understanding as to who and what manner of God we have. I was at one time under the belief of the Jehovah's Witness heresy that Christ was not divine, but simply a "little god". Then I was under the belief that Jesus was just a chosen man in the manner of Moses or Elijah. The difference was that God's full Spirit had come to rest on Christ..

Now I know and understand that Christ is God, because He just recently allowed me to see and fully understand Phil 2:5 - 8 and what those verses are really saying. I now know that Jesus Christ is God Almighty and that Jesus is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Thank the Lord for that! A huge burden has been lifted and the path to fully knowing God and His Father or My Fathers Father is opening for me. I only have one snag and I am turning to a brother in Christ who is far more schooled in the deep things of God than I. Heb 6:13 For when God made promise to Abraham, because he could swear by no greater, he swore by himself, "God" is Christ Jesus in that verse.

I don't know why this causes me such confusion, but in my mind it "appears" that Christ would not be able to swear by Himself on the grounds of "none greater to swear by" if His Father is greater than He. I have meditated on this for many days and many nights, and the only explanation that keeps coming back is that Christ was equal with His Father or "all power" is given to Him by His Father. That's all I can figure based on scripture that I know currently. These seem most plausible to me, but I can't cement it into my faith because it's not confirmed in me as so many other truths have been. I keep wanting to wander back to a "heirarchy" mentality. Perhaps this is a small lesson in patience, but I want to finish this segment of my study and move on to other subjects of God's Word.

Perhaps, if this "theory" of mine is correct and confirmed by a brother I trust in the things of God, I can finally move on in my search for that most valuable of treasures. I know it seems silly..

If I am wrong on any point, PLEASE correct me.

With much gratitude, R____ Hi R____,. In the story of Joseph, the Pharaoh symbolizes God the Father giving all but the power of the throne to Christ. So for every Egyptian, Joseph was "equal with" the Pharaoh. Just as God has made Christ "the Father of the faithful" and a "Father of many nations," so too, was Joseph a "Father to Pharaoh" inasmuch as Joseph 'fathered' Pharaoh's entire kingdom. Gen 45:8 So now it was not you that sent me hither, but God: and he hath made me a father to Pharaoh, and lord of all his house, and a ruler throughout all the land of Egypt. "A father to Pharaoh" makes Joseph "equal with" Pharaoh in every way. And yet it is understood that while Joseph was "lord over all of Pharaoh's house," Joseph was never over Pharaoh himself. Likewise Christ too is called in the King James, "The Everlasting [olawm - aionian] Father" and "the Almighty." Isa 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty. Joseph was given Pharaoh's seal. Joseph's word was Pharaoh's word. Joseph could have made the statement, 'Because I can swear by no greater name I swear by myself.' He would then have put Pharaoh's seal to the document and it would have been binding, simply because Joseph was for all of Egypt equal with Pharaoh. But this is not "the sum of thy word" on this subject of Joseph and Pharaoh, who symbolize Christ and God the Father. We must never fail to remember who gave what to whom: Psa 119:160 The sum of Your word is truth, And every one of Your righteous ordinances is everlasting. Gen 41:40 Thou shalt be over my house, and according unto thy word shall all my people be ruled: only in the throne will I be greater than thou.

Gen 41:41 And Pharaoh said unto Joseph, See, I have set thee over all the land of Egypt. Gen 41:42 And Pharaoh took off his ring from his hand, and put it upon Joseph's hand, and arrayed him in vestures of fine linen, and put a gold chain about his neck; Gen 41:43 And he made him to ride in the second chariot which he had; and they cried before him, Bow the knee: and he made him ruler over all the land of Egypt. Gen 41:44 And Pharaoh said unto Joseph, I am Pharaoh, and without thee shall no man lift up his hand or foot in all the land of Egypt. Gen 41:45 And Pharaoh called Joseph's name Zaphnathpaaneah; and he gave him to wife Asenath the daughter of Potipherah priest of On. And Joseph went out over [all] the land of Egypt. "I am Pharaoh, and without thee shall no man lift up his hand or foot in all the land of Egypt." That is what is meant by "He could swear by no greater." The alignment with Pharaoh is so close that Joseph represents Pharaoh. Joseph's name is Pharaoh's name, and Joseph says and does what Pharaoh wants said and done. Christ's association with His heavenly Father is every bit as close, to the extent that Christ makes this statement: John 10:30 I and my Father are one. It is understanding what Christ meant by "are one" that we are told... Php 2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: When you have been given a name which is above every name, it is then impossible to swear by a greater name than the one which is "above every name." I hope that helps you to see what "Because He could swear by no greater he swore by Himself," is indeed referring to Christ as His Father's representative. When all is said and done and the aions have run their course, there Christ will still "be subject" to His Father: 1 Cor 15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. Mike