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Section I  Physics & Chemistry
1. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are (1) speed and (µ ο ε ο ) – 1 / 2 (2) torque and work (3) momentum and Planck’s constant (4) stress and Young’s modulus sol (3) Momentum [p] = [MLT–1] and Plank’s constant [h] = [ML2T–1] 2. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a particle moving with velocity, v. These forces are represented in magnitude and direction by the three sides of a triangle ABC (as shown). The particle will now move with velocity (1) v, remaining unchanged (2) less than v (3) greater than v (4)  v  in the direction of the largest force BC
r sol (1) Net force on the particle is zero so the v remains unchanged
3.
3 The coordinates of a moving particle at any time ‘t’ are given by x = αt and y = βt 3 . The speed of the
particle at time ‘t’ is given by (1)
(α 2 + β 2 )
2) 3t (α 2 + β 2 ) (3) 3t 2 (α 2 + β 2 ) (4) t 2 (α 2 + β 2 )
2 2 2 2 x 2 + y 2 ⇒ r2 = ( α + β ) t6 ⇒ 2r (dr / dt) = ( α + β ) . 6t5 ⇒ (dr / dt) = 3t2 (α 2 + β 2 ) .
sol (3) r = 4.
A car, moving with a speed of 50 km / hr, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6m. If the same car is moving at a speed of 100 km / hr, the minimum stopping distance is (1) 6 m (2) 12 m (3) 18 m (4) 24 m sol (4) 0 = (250 / 18)2 + 2a . 6; S = u2 / 2a = 24.
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5.
A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws a ball with a speed of 10 m /s. at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball be at the height of 10 m from the ground ? (1) 8.66 m (2) 5.20 m (3) 4.33 m (4) 2.60 m sol (1) calculate the range of ball R =
v 2 sin 2θ (10) 2 sin(2 × 30) = = 5 3 = 8.66 m g 10
6.
The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 4 (cos πt + sin πt ). The amplitude of the particle is (1) 8 (2) – 4 (3) 4 (4) 4 2 sol (4) x = 4 2 (cos π t . sin 45º + sin π t . cos 45º) = 4 2 sin ( π t + 45º)
7.
Consider the following two statements : A. Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero. B. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero. Then (1) A implies B and B implies A (2) A does not imply B and B does not imply A (3) A implies B but B does not imply A (4) A does not imply B but B implies A sol (4) Momentum being a vector quantity where K.E. being a scalar and a +ve quantity
8.
A horizontal force of 10 N necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is (1) 2 N (2) 20 N (3) 50 N (4) 100 N
10N
sol (1) f = µ R = mg = 0.2 × 10 = 2 N 9. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m / s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of friction is (1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.04 sol (2) The Correct answer is 0.06
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10.
A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is (1) Both the scales read M / 2 kg each (2) Both the scales read M kg each (3) The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero (4) The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg sol (2) The mass is hanging from the lower spring. Since the springs are light, tension is constant throughout the springs.
11.
A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block is (1) PM / (M + m) (2) Pm / (M + m)10 N (3) Pm / (M – m) (4) P sol (1) P’ = Ma; P = (m + M)a ⇒ P’ = PM / (m + M)
12.
A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m / s2, the reading of the spring balance will be (1) 49 N (2) 24 N (3) 74 N (4) 15 N sol (2) When the lift is stationary R= mg ⇒ 49 = m × 9.8 ⇒ m = 5kg When the lift is moving downward with an acceleration R = m (9.8  a) ⇒ R = 5 (9.85) = 24N
13.
When a U238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed ‘u’, the recoil speed of the residual nucleus is (1) – 4u / 238 (2) 4u / 238 (3) – 4u / 234 (4) 4u / 234 sol (4) Initial momentum of the system = Mass × velocity of nucleus = 238 × 0 = 0 Final momentum of the system = Momentum of α particle + Momentum of residual nucleus = 4u + 34v
r 4u 4u . But speed = . By equating 4u + 234v = 0 ⇒ v = 234 234
14.
A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance moved by the body in time ‘t’ is proportional to (1) t½ (2) t¾ (3) t3 / 2 (4) t¼ sol (3) P = const. (d / dt)(½ mv2) = const.
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15.
A rocket with a liftoff mass 3.5 × 104 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 10 m / s2. Then the initial thrust of the blast is (1) 1.75 × 105 N (2) 3.5 × 105 N (3) 7.0 × 105 N (4) 14.0 × 105 N sol (3) F– mg = ma F = m (g + a) F = 7 × 105
16.
Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is (1) 1.5 R (2) 2.5 R (3) 4.5 R (4) 7.5 R sol (4) am = 5a5m. since the force on both the masses will be equal
17.
A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is (1) L / 2 (2) L / 4 (3) 2L (4) 4L sol (2) E =
Ε 1 Lω ∴ Lα so if its angular frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy is haved then new 3 ω L times. 4
angular momentum will become 18.
Let F be the force acting on a particle having position vector r, and T be the torque of this force about the origin. Then (1) r . T = 0 and F . T = 0 (2) r . T = 0 and F . T 1 0 (3) r . T ¹ 0 and F . T = 0 (4) r . T ¹ 0 and F . T 1 0 sol (1) since T = F × r, ∴ T is ⊥ r to F & r
19.
A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness t / 4. Then the relation between the moment of inertia IX and IY is (1) IY = 64 IX (2) IY = 32 IX (3) IY = 16 IX (4) IY = IX sol (1) Moment of inertia of circular disc I =
1 ρ π R 4T ⇒ I ∝ R 4 t (where ρ = density, R= Radius, t = thickness) 2
I Y R2 = I x R1
4
t2 1 ⇒ (4) 4 ⇒ I Y = 64 I X t 4 1
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20.
The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become (1) 20 hours (2) 10 hours (3) 80 hours (4) 40 hours
R sol (4) T ∝ R 3 / 2 ⇒ T2 = T1 2 R1
3/ 2
= T1 (4) 3 / 2 = 8 × T1 = 8 × 5 = 40 hours .
21.
The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth is 11 km / s. If the body is projected at an angle of 45° with the vertical, the escape velocity will be (1) 11 / 2 km / s (2) 11 2 km / s (3) 22 km / s (4) 11 km / s sol (4) Escape velocity does not depends on angle of projection ve =
2GM R
22.
A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the time period becomes5T/ 3.Then the ratio of m / M is (1) 5 / 3 (2) 3 / 5 (3) 25 / 9 (4) 16 / 9 sol (4) T ∝
M / k ⇒ (5T / 3) = 2 π {(Μ + m)/k} = 16 / 9.
23.
A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N / m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position. Then the work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is (1) 6.25 N  m (2) 12.50 N  m (3) 18.75 N  m (4) 25.00 N  m sol (3) Work done =
1 1 2 2 K ( x2 − x1 ) = 5 × 10 3 (10 2 − 5 2 ) × 10 − 4 = 18.75 N − m 2 2
24.
A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is (1) 0.1 J (2) 0.2 J (3) 10 J (4) 20 J sol (1) E = ½ F . (dl) = ½ × 200 × 10–3 = 0.1 J
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25.
A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (K.E.) and total energy (T.E.) are measured as a function of displacement x. Which of the following statements is true ? (1) P.E. is maximum when x = 0 (2) K.E. is maximum when x = 0 (3) T.E. is zero when x = 0 (4) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum. sol (2) Kinetic Energy is maximum at mean position KE =
KE max = 1 mω2 a 2 (when x = a i.e., mean position) 2 1 m ω2 (a 2 − x 2 ) 2
26.
The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is (1) 10% (2) 11% (3) 21% (4) 42% sol (1) T ∝
l ⇒ T’ / T =
(1.21 l / l ) ⇒ T’ = 1.1 T ⇒ % increased in T = 10%.
27.
Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constants k1 and k2,respectively. If the maximum velocities, during oscillation, are equal, the ratio of amplitudes of A and B is (1) k1 / k2 (2)
( k1 / k 2 )
( k 2 / k1 )
(3) k2 / k1 (4)
KA KB sol (4) (Vmax ) A = (Vmax ) B ⇒ a A ω Α = a B ωΒ ⇒ a A m = a s m [m A = m B given] A B a A k1 = a B k 2 ⇒ aA = aB k2 k1
28.
A metal wire of linear mass density of 9.8 g / m is stretched with a tension of 10 kgwt between two rigid supports 1 metre apart. The wire passes at its middle point between the poles of a permanent magnet, and it vibrates in resonance when carrying an alternating current of frequency n. The frequency n of the alternating source is (1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 100 Hz (4) 200 Hz sol (2) In condition of resonance frequency of A.C. will be equal to natural frequency of wire
n=
1 T 1 10 × 9.8 100 = = = 50 Hz −3 2l µ 2 × 1 9.8 ×10 2
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29.
The displacement y of a wave travelling in the xdirection is given by y = 10–4 sin (600 t – 2x + (p / 3)) metres, where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds. The speed of the wavemotion, in ms– 1, is (1) 200 (2) 300 (3) 600 (4) 1200 sol (2) y = a sin (ωt − kx + φ) in above equation wave velocity v =
ω k
So by comparing this with given equation ω = 600, k = 2 so v = 300 m/s 30. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was (1) 256 + 5 Hz (2) 256 + 2 Hz (3) 256 – 2 Hz (4) 256 – 5 Hz sol (4) 256 ~ fp = 5 Þ fp = (256 – 5) or (256 + 5); since f ∝ T ,∴ fp increases to f ‘p;since 256 ~ f ‘p = 2, ∴ fp = (256 – 5). 31. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal. of heat from a reservoir at 627° C, and gives it to a sink at 27° C. The work done by the engine is (1) zero (2) 4.2 × 106 J (3) 8.4 × 106 J (4) 16.8 × 106 J
T2 Q2 Q2 300 = ⇒ Q2 = 10 6 cal sol (3) T = Q ⇒ 900 3 × 10 6 1 1
Work done = Q1 − Q2 = 3 × 10 6 − 10 6 = 2 × 10 6 cal = 2 × 4.2 × 10 6 J = 8.4 × 10 6 J 32. “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature” is a statement or consequence of (1) first law of thermodynamics (2) second law of thermodynamics (3) conservation of momentum (4) conservation of mass sol (2) 33. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ration Cp / Cv for the gas is (1) 3 / 2 (2) 4 / 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 / 8
γ 3 3 =3⇒ γ = sol (1) Adiabatic law P1− γT γ = constant P ∝ T γ/γ−1 given that Pα T ∴ γ −1 2
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34.
Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter? (1) Volume (2) Temperature (3) Pressure (4) Work. sol 4 P, V & T are thermodynamic variables which characterize the thermodynamic state of matter.
35.
According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to (∆θ)n, where ∆θ is the difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings, and n is equal to (1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four. sol (1) Rate of cooling ∝ ∆θ, ∴ n = 1
36.
The earth radiates in the infrared region of the spectrum. The spectrum is correctly given by (1) Wien’s law (2) Rayleigh Jeans law (3) Planck’s law of radiation (4) Stefan’s law of radiation. sol (3) Infrared lies in longer wavelength side and Planck’s law is applicable both for short and long waves.
37.
To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of (1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 120°
360 360 − 1 ⇒ 3 = − 1 ⇒ θ = 90° sol (3) By using n = θ θ
38.
Consider telecommunication through optical fibers. Which of the following statements is not true? (1) Optical fibers may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding (2) Optical fibers can be of graded refractive index (3) Optical fibers are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside (4) Optical fibers have extremely low transmission loss. sol (2) If optical fibers are subjected to electromagnetic interference from outside then due to interference, the transmission of a particular signal could never have been possible
39.
The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is (1) virtual and enlarged (2) virtual and diminished (3) real and diminished (4) real and enlarged sol (4) since uo > fo, ∴ image (vo) is real and enlarged.
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40.
To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require two sources which emit radiation (1) of the same frequency and having a definite phase relationship (2) of nearly the same frequency (3) of the same frequency (4) of different wavelengths sol 1 For interference, the sources should be coherent
41.
Dimensions of (1 / µ ο ε ο ), where symbols have their usual meaning, are (1) [LT –1] (2) [L– 1 T] (3) [L– 2T2] (4) [L– 2T –2] sol (4) C = 1 / (µοεο ) , \ [1 / (µ ο ε ο ) ] = [C2] = [L2T–2]
42.
Three charges –q1, + q2 and –q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The xcomponent of the force on –q1 is proportional to (1) (q2 / b2) – (q3 / a2) sin θ (2) (q2 / b2) – (q3 / a2) cos θ (3) (q2 / b2) + (q3 / a2) sin θ (4) (q2 / b2) + (q3 / a2) cos θ sol (3) force on –q1 due to q2 ∝ (q2 / b2) along +ve Xdirection and that due to q3 ∝ (q3 / a2) along the direction making an angle of θ with –ve Yaxis & (90° – θ ) with +ve Xaxis ∴ Fnet ∝ {(q2 / b2) + (q3 / a2) sin θ }
43.
A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of the shell.The electrostatic potential at a point P a distance R / 2 from the centre of the shell is (1) ((q + Q) / (4 πε )) (2 / R) (2) 2Q / 4πε ο R (3) (2Q / 4πε ο R) – (2q / 4πε ο R) (4) (2Q / 4πε ο R) + (q / 4πε ο R) sol (4) Net potential at P
V= Q q 1 1 q 2Q . ⇒V = + + 4πε 0 R 4πε 0 R 4πε 0 R 4πε 0 R 2
ο
−q 3 a θ b q1 +q 2 x
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44.
If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is φ1 and φ 2 , the electric charge inside the surface will be (1) (φ1 + φ 2 )ε ο (2) (φ 2 − φ1 )ε ο (3) (φ1 + φ 2 ) / ε ο (4) (φ 2 − φ1 ) / ε ο sol (2) Electric flux entering the surface (φ1 ) taken negative while flux leaving the surface (φ 2 ) taken positive and according to Gauss Law
φ Total = 1 (Qenclosed ) ⇒ Qenclosed = Qenclosed = φ Τotal × ε 0 ⇒ Qenclosed = (φ 2 − φ1 ) × ε 0 ε0
45.
The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10–18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 microfarad is (1) 32 ×10– 32 joule (2) 16 ×10– 32 joule (3) 3.1 ×10– 26 joule (4) 4 ×10– 10 joule. sol (1) By using W =
Q2 (8 × 10 −18 ) 2 = 32 × 10 −32 J ⇒W = −6 2C 2 × 100 × 0
46.
A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced between the plates of a capacitor. The capacitance of the capacitor (1) increases (2) decreases (3) Remains unchanged (4) Becomes infinite. sol (3) By using C ' =
ε0 A ε A . It t ≈ neglibible, then C ' = 0 d −t d
47.
A 3volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The current, I , in the circuit will be (1) 1 / 3A (2) 1A (3) 1.5A (4) 2A sol (3) c Req. = (3 × 6) / (3 + 6) = 2 Ω , ∴ i = (3 / 2) = 1.5 A
48.
An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range to 10 A the value of the required shunt is (1) 0.09 Ω (2) 0.03 Ω (3) 0.3 Ω (4) 0.9 Ω sol (1) ig G = (i – ig) . S ⇒ 1 × 0.81 = (10 – 1) S ⇒ S = 0.09 W
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49.
The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the e.m.f of its stand ard cell is E volt. It is employed to measure the e.m.f. of a battery whose internal resistance is 0.5 Ω . If the balance point is obtained at l = 30 cm.from the positive end, the e.m.f. of the battery is (1) 30 E / 100 (2) 30 E / 100.5 (3) 30 E / (100 – 0.5) (4) 30 (E – 0.5i) / 100, where i is the current in the potentiometer wire. sol (1) e – ir = (E / 100) × 30; i = 0 at balance point.
50.
The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100 %. due to the consequent decrease in diameter the change in the resistance in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be (1) 300 % (2) 200% (3) 100 % (4) 50% sol (1) R = ρI / ( π D2 / 4) ⇒ R = KLD–2 & R’ = K . (2l) D’2, ∴ R’ / R = 2D2 / D’2 = 4 ⇒ R’ = 4R, ∴ dR’ = 3R, ∴ % change in R = (3R / R) × 100 % = 300 %
51.
A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of (1) Each of these increases (2) Each of these decreases (3) Copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases (4) Copper strip decreases and that of germainium increases. sol (4) Resistance of a conductor increases with temperature where as for a semiconductor the resistance de creases with rise in temperature.
52.
A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across a 110 volt. mains supply. The power consumed will be (1) 1000 watt (2) 750 watt (3) 500watt (4) 250 watt
V 110 sol (4) By using Pconsumed = A × PR = × 1000 = 250 watt V 220 R
2
2
53.
The thermo e.m.f of a thermocouple is 25 µ V/ °C at room temperature. A galvanometer of 40 ohm resis tance, capable of detecting current as low as 10–5 A, is connected with the thermocouple. The smallest temperature difference that can be detected by this system is (1) 20° C (2) 16°C (3) 12° C (4) 8° C sol (2) According to ohm’s law V=iR so here if temperature difference is ∆θ then
25 × 10 −6 × ∆θ = 10 −5 × 40 ⇒ ∆θ = 16°C
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54.
The negative Zn pole of a Daniell cell, sending a constant current through a circuit, decreases in mass by 0.13g in 30 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of Zn and Cu are 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the increase in the mass of the positive Cu pole in this time is 1) 0.242 g (2) 0.180 g (3) 0.141g (4) 0.126 g. sol (4) m1 / m2 = Z1 / Z2 = E1 / E2 ⇒ m2 = (0.13 × 31.5) / 32.5 = 0.126 g
55.
A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation equal to T. Now it is broken into two equal halves (each having half of the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the same field. If the period of oscillation is T ‘, the ratio T ‘ / T is (1) 1/4 (2) 1 / 2 2 (3) 1/2 (4) 2 sol (3) By using T ' =
T T' 1 T' 1 ⇒ = ⇒ = 2 n T n T (Ml2 / 12) / (Ml2 / (8 × 12)) = 8 & M / M’ = (ml / (m (l / 2)) = 2 ≈ ∴ T / T’ =
{IM ' / I ' M } = 2 ⇒ T’ / T = ½
56.
A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field when the particle completes one full circle is (1) B Q v 2 π R (2) (Mv2 / R) 2 π R (3) zero (4) BQ2 πR sol (3) c W = F . d = Fd cos 90° = 0
57.
A particle of charge–16 × 10–18 coulomb moving with velocity 10 ms–1 along the xaxis enters a region where a magnetic field of induction B is along the yaxis, and an electric field of magnitude 104 V/ m is along the negative zaxis. If the charged particle continues moving along the xaxis, the magnitude of B is (1) 10–3 Wb/m2 (2) 103 Wb/m2 (3) 105 Wb/m2 (4) 1016 Wb/m2 sol (2) qE = qvB sin 90° ⇒ B = E / v = 103 wb / m2
58.
Curie temperature is the temperature above which (1) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic (2) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic (3) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic (4) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
ferro sol (2). χ ∝ (1 / T); χ >> χ para , both of +ve valve. As is increased and so above curie temperature,
ferromagnetic material behaves like paramagnetic material.
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59.
A manetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be (1) 2W (2) 3W (3) W (4) ( 3 / 2)W sol ( 2) Work done in deflecting magnetic needle through an angle θ W = MB (1 cos θ ) and torque in this position ; τ = ÌÂsinθ so WMB (1 − cos60°) ⇒ W = and τ = ÌÂ × sin 60° ⇒ τ =
MB 2
...(1)
3MB 2
...(2)
from equation (1) ⇒ τ = 3 W 60. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet (1) are from southpole to northpole of the magnet (2) are from northpole to southpole of the magnet (3) do not exist (4) depend upon the area of crosssection of the bar magnet sol (2) Lines of force inside the magnet are form south pole to north pole of the magnet 61. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon (1) the currents in the two coils (2) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils (3) relative position and orientation of the two coils (4) the materials of the wires of the coils. sol (3) Mutual inductance depends on the linkage of flux between the two coils hence on relative position & orientation of the two coils 62. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to (1) increase the secondary voltage (2) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents (3) make it light weight (4) make it robust and strong sol (2) loss due to eddy current is reduced 63. When the current changes from +2A to – 2A in 0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of selfinduction of the coil is (1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2H (3) 0.4 H (4) 0.8 H sol (1) e = – L (di / dt) ⇒ 8 = 4L / 0.5 ⇒ L = 0.1 H
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64.
In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic field is (1) Q (2) Q / 2 (3) Q / (4) Q /
3
2
2
sol (4) Max ES energy = Q2 / 2c; if EES = EM then EES = Q2 / 4C ⇒ Q’2 / 2C = Q2 / 4C ⇒ Q’ = Q / 65. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength ? (1) Xrays (2) γ rays (3) β rays (4) α rays sol (2) λ r is least among the wavelengths of the given rays. 66. Two identical photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are respectivley v1 and v2, then (1) v1 – v2 = [(2h / m) (f1 – f2)]½
2 2 (2) v1 − v2 = (2h / m) (f1 – f2) (3) v1 + v2 = [(2h / m) (f1 + f2)]½ 2 2 (4) v1 + v2 = (2h / m) (f1 + f2)
sol (2) hf1 = φ 0
t 2 mv1 2 1 2 mv2 2
...(1) ....(2)
2h ( f1 − f 2 ) m
and hf 2 = φ 0 +
2 2 Solving equation (1) and (2) we get v1 − v2 =
67.
Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substances during their decay? (1) electrons (2) Protons (3) Neutrinoes (4) Helium nuclei sol (2) Neutrinoes are emitted in β decay along with e– & e+
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68.
A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute. Then, the decay constant (Per minute) is (1) 0.8 ln 2 (2) 0.4 ln 2 (3) 0.2 ln 2 (4) 0.1 ln 2 sol (2) R ∝ Nt; 1250 = 500 (½)n ⇒ n = (t / T) = 2 ⇒ T = t / N = 5 / 2 = 2.5 min ; l = 0.693 / 2.5 = 0.4 ln2 ∴
69.
A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence : α, β − ,β− , α, α, α, α, α, β− ,β− , α, β + ,b+, α. The Z of the resulting nucleus is (1) 74 (2) 76 (3) 78 (4) 82. sol (3) DZ = – (2 × 8) + (4 × 1) – (2 × 1) = – 14 ∴ Z = 92 – 14 = 78
70.
Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential ? (1) 8O16 (2) 7N14 (3) 55Cs133 (4) 18Ar40 sol (3) 55Cs133 has least stable configuration
71.
2 The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium ( 1 D) are slightly different from that of hydrogen
spectrum, because (1) the attraction between the electron and the nucleus is different in the two cases (2) the size of the two nuclei are different (3) the nuclear forces are different in the two cases (4) the masses of the two nuclei are different sol (3) in Hspectra, wavelengths are determined on the basis of ES coulomb attraction between e– and +ve nucleus (P+). In deutron nucleus, there is a neutron in addition to proton and nuclear force is different which gives rise to different energy level. 72.
3 2 In the nuclear fusion reaction 1 H + 1 H → 4 2
He + n, given that the repulsive potential energy between the two
nuclei is Na + , Ca 2+ , Mg 2+ the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly [Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/ K] (1) 109 K (2) 107 K (3) 105 K (4) 103 K sol (1)
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73.
If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li++ is (1) 122.4 eV (2) 30.6 eV (3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
13.6 z 2 n
2
sol (2) Ei = 74.
here n = 2; z = 3 so Ei =
13.6 × 32 = 30.6 eV 4
The difference in the variation of resistance within temperature in a metal and a semiconductor arises essentially due to the difference in the (1) variation of scattering mechanism with temperature (2) crystal structure (3) variation of the number of charge carries with temperature (4) type of bonding. sol (3) With increase in temp., more electrons are released due to breaking of bonds in a semiconductor hence conductivity increases. In metals, due to raise in temp., nucleus vibrate and obstruct the passage of e– & hence conductivity decreases
75.
In the middle of the depletion layer of a reversebiased pn junction, the (1) potential is zero (2) electric field is zero (3) potential is maximum (4) electric field is maximum. sol (2) During reversed bias current through P–N junction is zero. since i ∝ E, ∴ E = 0
76.
In Bohr series of lines hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the following inter–orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen ? (1) 3 → 2 (2) 5 → 2 (3) 4 → 1 (4) 2 → 5 sol (2) IIIrd line of visible region of H2 spectrum jumps from 5 → 2
77.
The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is approximately [Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10–34 Js] (1) 10–33 metre (2) 10–31 metre (3) 10–16 metre (4) 10–25 metre sol (1) λ = h / mv = (6.63 × 10–34) / (60 × 10–3 × 10) = 1.105 × 10–33 M
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78.
The orbital angular momentum for an electron revolving in an orbit is given by Öl(l + 1).(h / 2p). This momentum for an s–electron will be given by (1) +½.(h / 2 π ) (2) zero (3) (h / 2 π ) (4) 2.(h / 2 π ) sol (2) mvΩ =
h l (l + 1) , thus for a ‘S’ orbital Angular momentum = 0 2π
79.
How many unit cells are present in a cube–shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1 g ? (1) 2.57 × 1021 unit cells (2) 5.14 × 1021 unit cells (3) 1.28 × 1021 unit cells (4) 1.71 × 1021 unit cells sol (1) No. of unit cells = ¼ × (1 / 58.5) × 6.02 × 1023 = 2.57 × 1021
80.
Glass is a (1) micro–crystalline solid (2) super–cooled liquid (3) gel (4) polymeric mixture sol (2) super–cooled liquid of silicates
81.
Which one of the following statements is correct ? (1) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in the reducing flame (2) From a mixed ppt. of AgCl and AgI, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl (3) Ferric ions give a deep green ppt. on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution
− (4) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ & HCO 3 ions we get a ppt. of K2Ca(CO3)2
sol (2) AgCl dissolves in NH3 giving colourless complex of [Ag(NH3)2]Cl. 82. According to the Periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their (1) atomic masses (2) nuclear masses (3) atomic numbers (4) nuclear neutron–proton number ratios sol (3) Modern periodic law 83. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite (1) is a non–crystalline substance (2) is an allotropic form of diamond (3) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers (4) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds sol (4) Graphite has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bond carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds.
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84.
The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is (1) Isopropylmethyl ketone (2) 2–methyl–3–butanone (3) 4–methylisopropyl ketone (4) 3–methyl–2–butanone
O  CH 3 − C sol (4) 1 2
85.
CH 3
−
 CH − CH
3 4
3
When CH2=CH–COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be (1) CH3–CH2–COOH (2) CH2=CH–CH2OH (3) CH3–CH2–CH2OH (4) CH3–CH2–CHO sol (2) CH 2 = CH = COOH
LiAlH 4 CH 2 = CH 2 − CH 2 − OH + H 2 O 2H
86.
According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels (1) in a circular path (2) in a wavy path (3) in a straight line path (4) with an accelerated velocity sol (3) kinetic assumption
87.
A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characteristic of elements of (1) high atomic masses (2) d–block (3) f–block (4) radioactive series sol (3) Lanthanide contraction.
88.
The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open chain (1) diketones (2) carboxylic acids (3) diols (4) dialdehydes sol (2) General formula for carboxylic acids
89.
An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having same molecular formula. This is due to (1) dipolar character of ethers (2) alcohols having resonance structures (3) inter–molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers (4) inter–molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols sol (4) Due to inter molecular H 2 bond in alcohols. B.P. of Alcohols in much then ether.
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90.
Among the following four structures I to IV, it is true that,
CH

O
3
C 2 H 5 − CH − C3 H 7
CH 3 − C − CH − C2 H 5

CH3

H  H −C ⊕  H
(III)
CH3 C2 H 5 − CH − C2 H 5
(IV)

(I) (II) (1) all four are chiral compounds (2) only I and II are chiral compounds (3) only III is a chiral compound (4) only II and IV are chiral compounds sol (2) Because the carbon contains different substitutent groups. 91. Which one of the following processes will produce hard water ? (1) saturation of water with CaCO3 (2) saturation of water with MgCO3 (3) saturation of water with CaSO4 (4) addition of Na2SO4 to water sol (3) Presence of sulphates of Ca & Mg causes hardness in water. 92.
Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule ? (1) SO2 (2) OH2 (3) SH2 (4) NH3 sol (3) Almost pure p orbitals of Sulphur are involved
93.
Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members ? (1) SiF4 & NO2 (2) NO2 & CO2 (3) NO2 & O3 (4) SiF4 and CO2 sol (3) Both are bent molecules
94.
Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species ? (atomic numbers : Cs : 55, Br : 35) (1) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (2) N3–, F–, Na+ (3) Be, Al3+, Cl– (4) Ca2+, Cs+, Br sol (2) No. of electron is 10 in N 3− , F − , Na + , N 3− = 7 + 3, F − = 9 + 1, Na + = 11 − 1
95.
In the anion HCOO– the two carbon–oxygen bonds are found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it ? (1) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised (2) The C=O bond is weaker than the C–O bond (3) The anion HCOO– has two resonating structures (4) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the acid molecule sol (3) FaCl
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96.
The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is (1) CF4, SF4 (2) XeF2, CO2 (3) BF3, PCl3 (4) PF5, IF5 sol (2) XeF2 & CO2 is linear structure
97.
The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe)are respectively 23, 24,25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy? (1) V (2) Cr (3) Mn (4) Fe sol (2) Elimination of first electron gives a stable cation, so it has a high second I.E.
98.
Consider the reaction equilibrium, 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2SO3(g); DHº = –198 KJ. On the basis of Le Chatelier’s principle, the condition favourable for forward reaction is : (1) lowering of temperature as well as pressure (2) increasing temperature as well as pressure (3) lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure (4) any value of temperature and pressure sol (3) According to Lechataliear principle, lowering the temperature & increasing the pressure is favourable condition for the reaction.
99.
What volume of hydrogen gas, at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen ? (1) 89.6 L (2) 67.2 L (3) 44.8 L (4) 22.4 L sol (3) 2BCl3 + 3H2 → 2B + 6HCl; use (moles of H2) / 3 = (moles of B) / 2
100.
For the reaction equilibrium, N2O4 (g) ↔ 2NO2 (g); the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8 × 10–2 and 1.2 × 10–2 mol L–1 respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction is : (1) 3.3 × 102 mol L–1 (2) 3 × 10–1 mol L–1 (3) 3 × 10–3 mol L–1 (4) 3 × 103 mol L–1 sol (3) Kc = [NO2]2 / [N2O4] = (1.2 × 10–2 )2 / (4.8 × 10–2) = 3 × 10–3 mol L–1
101.
The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility product number will be (1) 4 × 10–15 (2) 4 × 10–10 (3) 1 × 10–15 (4) 1 × 10–10 sol 1 KSP (AB2) = S (2S)2 = 4S3 = 4 × (1.0 × 10–5)3 = 4 × 10–15
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102.
When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3 9650 coulombs of charge pass through the electroplating bath, the mass of silver deposited on the cathode will be (1) 1.08 g (2) 10.8 g (3) 21.6 g (4) 108 g sol (2) 9650 C = 1 / 10 eq. of electrons
103.
For the redox reaction : Zn (s) + Cu2+ (0.1 M) → Zn2+ (1 M) + Cu (s) taking place in a cell, Eºcell is 1.10 Volt. Ecell for the cell will be [2.303 (RT / F) = 0.0591] (1) 2.14 volt (2) 1.80 volt (3) 1.07 volt (4) 0.82 volt
ο sol (3) ε = ε −
0.059 ( Zn + + ) log n (Cu + + )
1.10 
0.059 1 log 2 0.1 1.10  0.0295 log 10 = 1.07 volt
104.
In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking Kf for water as 1.85,the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to (1) –0.480ºC (2) –0.360ºC (3) –0.260ºC (4) +0.480ºC sol (1)
105.
The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by Rate = k [A]n [B]m. On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as 1 (1) 2 ( m+ n ) (2) (m + n) (3) (n – m) (4) 2(n–m) sol (4) Rate1 = K xn ym; Rate2 = K (2x)n (y / 2)m = 2(n–m)K xn ym; Ratio = 2(n–m)
106.
25 ml of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a litre value of 35 ml. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was (1) 0.07 (2) 0.14 (3) 0.28 (4) 0.35 sol (2) m1v1 = m2 v2, m1 =
.1× 35 = .14 25
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107.
The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding equilibrium constant Kc is (1) ∆G =RT ln Kc (2) − ∆G =RT ln Kc (3) ∆G ° =RT ln Kc (4) − ∆G ° =RT ln Kc sol (4) ∆G ° =RT ln Kc or ∆G ° =  RT In Kc
108.
If at 298 K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H–H are respectively 414, 347, 615, and 435 KJ mol–1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction H2C=CH2 (g) + H2 (g) → H3C–CH3 (g) at 298 K will be , (1) +250 KJ (2) –250 KJ (3) +125 KJ (4) –125 KJ sol (4)
∆H
= Σ B.E. (reactants) – Σ B.E. (products)
109.
The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon (1) the physical states of reactants and products (2) use of different reactants for the same product (3) the nature of intermediate reaction steps (4) the differences in initial or final temperatures of involved substances sol (3) According to Hess low, enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend on the nature of inter mediate reaction steps.
110.
A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because (1) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space (2) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased (3) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material (4) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature sol (2) B.pt of H2O involved in cooking is increased.
111.
If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, (1) the enthalpy of mixing is zero (2) the entropy of mixing is zero (3) the free energy of mixing is zero (4) the free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero sol (1)For ideal solution ∆H (mixing) = 0
112.
For the reaction system : 2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and second order with respect to NO, the rate of reaction will (1) diminish to one–fourth of its initial value (2) diminish to one–eighth of its initial value (3) increase to eight times of its initial value (4) increase to four times of its initial value sol (3) Rate = K [O2][NO]2
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113.
For a cell reaction involving a two–electron change, the standard e.m.f. of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25ºC.The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25ºC will be (1) 1 × 10–10 (2) 29.5 × 10–2 (3) 10 (4) 1 × 1010 sol (4) E° = (0.059 / 2) log10 KC
114.
In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and P and in which only pressure – volume work is being done, the change in Gibbs freee energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria (1) (dS)V, E < 0, (dG)T, P < 0 (2) (dS)V, E > 0, (dG)T, P < 0 (3) (dS)V, E = 0, (dG)T, P = 0 (4) (dS)V, E = 0, (dG)T, P > 0 sol (2) The value of (dS) is always greater than zero for an irreversible process.
115.
Which one of the following characterstics is not correct for physical adsorption (1) Adsorption on solids is reversible (2) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature (3) Adsorption is spontaneous (4) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative. sol (2) Physical, adsorption decreases with temperature
116.
In respect of the equation K = Ae –Ea / RT in chemical kinetics, which one of the following statements is correct? (1) k is equilibrium constant (2) A is adsorption factor (3) Ea is energy of activation (4) R is Rydberg’s constant sol (3) Ea is activation energy
117.
Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are respectively + 0.5 V, – 3.0 V and – 1.2 V. The reducing powers of these metals are (1) B > C > A (2) A > B > C (3) C > B > A (4) A > C > B sol (1) High reduction potential implies strong O.A.
118.
Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity? (1) H2O (2) H2S (3) NH3 (4) PH3 sol (3) NH3 is a strong base compared to others and hence will be protonated faster.
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119.
Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide? (1) ZnO (2) Na2O (3) SO2 (4) B2O3 sol (1) ZnO is amphoteric & dissolved in both acid & base
120.
A red solid is insoluble in water. However it become soluable if some KI is added to water. Heating the red solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts of test tube. The red solid is (1) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (2) HgI2 (3) HgO (4) Pb3O4 sol (2) HgI2(scarlet red) + KI → K2[HgI4] (soluble); HgI2 → Hg + I2 (violet fumes);
121.
Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The explanation for it is that. (1) concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly smelling HCl gas all the time (2) oxygen in the air reacts with the emitted HCl gas to form a cloud of chlorine gas (3) strong affinity of HCl gas for moisture in air results in forming of droplets of liquid solution which appears like cloudy smoke (4) due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydrocholoric acid pulls moisture of air towards itself. This moisture forms droplets of water and hence the cloud. sol (3)
122.
What may be expected to happen when phospine gas is mixed with chlorine gas? (1) The mixture only cools down (2) PCl3 and HCl are formed and the mixture warms up (3) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture cools down (4) PH3 . Cl2 is formed with warming up. sol (2) Phosphine reacts violently with chlorine forming PCl3 and HCl.
123.
The number of delectrons retained in Fe2+ (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 sol (4) Configuration for Fe2+ will be 4d6 4s0
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124.
What would happen when a solution of potassium chormate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid?
2 (1) Cr3+ and Cr2O 7 − are formed 2 (2) Cr2O 7 − and H2O are formed
(3) CrO 2− is reduced to +3 state of Cr 4 (4) CrO 2− is oxidized to +7 state of Cr 4
+ −2 2− sol (2) 2CrO4 + 2 H → Cr2 O7 + 2 H 2O Alkaline Acidic
125.
In the coordination compound, K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation state of nickel is (1) – 1 (2) 0 (3) + 1 (4) + 2 sol (3) 4 + x – 4 = 0 ⇒ x = 0
126.
Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with copper ions in alkaline solutions but not in acidic solutions. What is the reason for it? (1) In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions (2) In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH 4 ions and NH3 molecules are not available (3) In alkaline solutions insoluable Cu(OH)2 is precipitated which is sloluable in excess of any alkali (4) Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance.
+ sol (2) NH 3 + H + ( Acid ) → NH 4 ; NH 3 not available as a ligand +
127.
One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl3 gives 3 moles of ions on dissolutions in water. Ohe mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 solution to yeild two moles of AgCl (s). The structure of the complex is. (1) [Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3].2 NH3 (3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl. NH3 (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2. NH3 sol (1) As it gives three ions on dissolution and two moles of AgCl are precipitated.
128.
The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57) is 1.06 Å. Which one of the following given values will be clolsest to the radius of Lu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71) (1) 1.60 Å (2) 1.40 Å (3) 1.06 Å (4) 0.85 Å sol (4) Lu +4 = 0.85 Å
+3 +3 La57 → Lu71 size decreases due to lanthanide contraction
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129.
The radionucleide 90Th234 undergoes two successive β decays followed by one α  decay. The atomic number and the mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are (1) 92 and 234 (2) 94 and 230 (3) 90 and 230 (4) 92 and 230 sol (3) Th234
→
−2β
90
92
X 234 − α →
90
Y 230
130.
The half life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be. (1) 4.0 g (2) 8.0 g (3) 12.0 g (4) 16.0 g sol (1) No. of halflives = 18 / 3 = 6 hours; Mass undecayed = (1 / 26) × 256 = 4 g
131.
Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to (1) keep away the sharks (2) Make the ship lighter (3) Prevent action of water and salt (4) Prevent puncturing by under sea rocks sol (3) Prevent action of water and salt
.
132.
In curing cement plasters water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in (1) keeping it cool (2) developing interlocking needlelike crystals of hydrated silicates (3) hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement (4) converting sand into silicic acid sol (2)
133.
Which one of the following statements is not true? (1) The conjugate base of H2PO − is HPO 4 4
2−
(2) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions (3) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8 (4) 96,500 couloumbs of electricity when passed through CuSO4 solution deposits 1 gram equivalent of copper at the chathode. sol (3) Being acidic solution pH should be less than 7 134. The correct order of increasing basic nature for bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is (1) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2 (3) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH (4) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3 sol (3) The presence of lone pair of electrons increases according to number of CH3 groups present due to +I effect and also there is no steric factor in operation.
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135.
Butane  1 may be converted to butane by reaction with. (1) Zn – HCl (2) Sn – HCl (3) Zn – Hg (4) Pd / H2
pd sol (4) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2 + H 2 → CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3
136.
The solubilities of carbonates decrease down the magnesium group due to a decrease in (1) lattice energies of solids (2) hydration energies of cations (3) interionic attraction (4) entropy of solution formation sol (2) Due to decrease in hydration energy of cation & lattice energy remains almost unchanged.
137.
During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc H2SO4 the initiation step is (1) protonation of alcohol molecule (2) formation of carbocation (3) elimination of water (4) formation of an ester.
sol (1)
− H 2 SO4 → H + + HSO4 ; C2 H 5OH + H +
⊕ .. Protonetion O of alcohol C 2 H 5 − ↓  H Protoneted Alcohol H
138.
Which one of the following nitrates will leave behind a metal on strong heating ? (1) Ferric nitrate (2) Copper nitrate (3) Manganese nitrate (4) Silver nitrate sol (4) 2AgNO3 → 2Ag + 2NO2 + O2
139.
When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value (1) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm (2) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there (3) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm (4) which depends on the amount of dust in air. sol (1)
140.
Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives (1) D–fructose (2) D–ribose (3) D–glucose (4) L–glucose sol (3) Cellulose is a polymer of β − D  glucose
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141.
For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating molten glass over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The metal used can be (1) mercury (2) tin (3) sodium (4) magnesium sol (1)
142.
The substance not likely to contain CaCO is (1) a marble statue (2) calcined gypsum (3) sea shells (4) dolomite sol (2)
143.
The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of (1) van der Waal’s forces (2) dipole–dipole interaction (3) hydrogen bonding (4) electrostatic attractions sol (3)
144.
Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their original labels. They were labelled A and B for testing. A and B were separately taken in test tubes and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance B gave a yellow precipitate. Which one of the following statements is true for this experiment ? (1) A was C6H5I (2) A was C6H5CH2I (3) B was C6H5I (4) Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary sol (1)
145.
Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates (1) ethylamine salt and methanoic acid (2) propanoic acid and ammonium salt (3) ethanoic acid and ammonium salt (4) methylamine salt and ethanoic acid sol (1) C2H5NC → C2H5NH2 + HCOOH
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146.
The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 KJ / mole. If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what would be the net change in internal energy ? (1) 40 KJ (2) > 40 KJ (3) < 40 KJ (4) Zero
40 sol (4) A → B
A −40 → B
∆H = zero
147.
The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p–toluidine forms (1)H3C (2)H3C (3)H3C (4) H3C
CN N2Cl NHCHCl2 NC
sol (4) Carbylamine reaction 148. Nylon threads are made of (1) polyvinyl polymer (2) polyester polymer (3) polyamide polymer (4) polyethylene polymer sol (3) 149. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, it forms only one monochloroalkane.This alkane could be (1) propane (2) pentane (3) isopentane (4) neopentane sol (4) Neopentane gives only mono chloro pentane because of only 10 hydrogen atoms
CH 3 CH 3  − C  CH 3 − CH 3
150.
Which of the following could act as a propellant for rockets ? (1) Liquid hydogen + liquid nitrogen (2) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon (3) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen (4) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen sol (3)
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Sectoin II  Maths
1. The foci of the ellipse (x2 / 16) + (y2 / b2) = 1 and the hyperbola (x2 / 144) – (y2 / 81) = (1 / 25) coincide. Then the value of b2 is (1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 1 sol (2) (25x2 / 144) – (25y2 / 81) = 1 ⇒ {x2 / (12 / 5)2 – (y2 / (9 / 5)2} = 1 ; (9 / 5)2 = (12 / 5)2 (1 – e2) ⇒ 1 – e2 = 81 / 144 Foci ( ± ae , 0) ≡ ( ± a / e , 0) ; Hence b2 = 7 2. The normal atg the point (bt1 2 , 2bt1) on a parabola meets the parabola again in the point (bt2 2 , 2bt2), then (1) t2 = – t1 + (2 / t1) (2) t2 = t1 – (2 / t1) (3) t2 = t1 + (2 / t1) (4) t2 = t1 – (2 / t1) sol (2) Parabola : y2 = 4bx { from parameter) MN = –1 / (dy / dx) = – y / 2b = – t1 ⇒ N : Y – 2 bt1 = – t1 ( X – bt12) .....(i) (bt22 , 2bt2) on this ⇒ t2 = (– t1 – 2 / t1) 3. If the two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then (1) r < 2 (2) r = 2 (3) r > 2 (4) 2 < r < 8 sol (4) For S1 : C1 (1 , 3) , R1 = r. For S2 : C2 (4 , –1) , R2 = 3. Condition R – r < CC1 < R + r =  R2 – r  < 5 <  R2 + r  ⇒ 2 < r < 8 4. The degree and order of the differential equation of the family of all parabolas whose axis is x–axis , are respectively. (1) 1 , 2 (2) 3 , 2 (3) 2 , 3 (4) 2 , 1 sol (1) y 2 = 4a( x − h)
2 2 yy1 = 4a ⇒ yy1 = 2a ⇒ y1 + yy2 = 0 Degree =1, order = 2 ⇒ y2 = 2yxdy / dx ⇒ y = 2x (dy / dx)
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5.
Consider points A , B , C and D with position vectors 7 i – 4 j + 7 k , i – 6j + 10 k, –i , 3j + 4k and 5i – j + 5k respectively. Then ABCD is a (1) rhombus (2) rectangle (3) parallelogram but not a rhombus (4) square sol . None of the option is correct A = (7, 4, 7), B = (1, 6, 10), C(1, 3, 4) and D (5, 1, 5) AB = BC = CD = DA =
(7 − 1) 2 + (−4 + 6) 2 + (7 − 10) 2 = 36 + 4 + 9 = 7 (1 + 1) 2 + (−6 + 3) 2 + (10 − 4) 2 = 4 + 9 + 36 = 7 (−1 − 5) 2 + (−3 + 1) 2 + (4 − 5) 2 = 36 + 4 + 1 = 41 (5 − 7) 2 + (−1 + 4) 2 + (5 − 7) 2 = 4 + 9 + 4 = 17
6.
r r r If u , v and w are three non–coplanar vectors , then (u + v – w) , (u – v) (v – w) equals r r r (1) u. v w r rr (2) u , w v r r r (3) 3 u. v w (4) 0
rrr rrr rr r rr r rrr rr r rrr rr r sol (1) Expn. = [u u v ] – [u v v ] – [u u w] + [u v w] – [ v u v ] – [ v u w] – [ v v v ] + [ v v w] – r rr r r r rrr rr r rr r [ w u v ] + [ w u w] + [ w v v ] – [ w v w] = [ u v w]
7.
Two systems of rectangular axes have the same origin. If a plane cuts them at distances a , b , c and a’ , b’ , c ‘ from the origin, then (1) 1 / a2 + 1 / b2 – 1 / c2 + 1 / a’2 + 1 / b’2 – 1 / c’2 = 0 (2) 1 / a2 – 1 / b2 – 1 / c2 + 1 / a’2 – 1 / b’2 – 1 / c’2 = 0 (3) 1 / a2 + 1 / b2 + 1 / c2 – 1 / a’2 – 1 / b’2 – 1 / c’2 = 0 (4) 1 / a2 + 1 / b2 + 1 / c2 + 1 / a’2 + 1 / b’2 + 1 / c’2 = 0 sol (3) Sum of reciprocal of squares of intercepts = const.
8.
The trigonometric equation sin–1 x = 2 sin–1 a , has a solution for (1) all real values of a (2)  a  < ½ (3)  a  3 1 /
2
2
(4) ½ <  a  < 1 /
sol (2)  sin (2 sin–1 a)  < 1 ⇒ 2a
(1 − a 2 ) < 1 ⇒ a2 (1 – a2) < 1 / 4. ⇒ 2  a  < ½
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9.
Events A , B , C are mutually exclusive events such that P(A) = {(3x + 1) / 3}, P(B) = {(1 – x) / 4} and P(C) = {(1 – 2x) / 2}. The set of possible values of x are in the interval (1) [1 / 3 , 2 / 3 ] (2) [1 / 3 , 13 / 3 ] (3) [0 , 1 ] (4) [1 / 3 , 1 / 2] sol (4) P (A) , P (B) , P (C) all lie between 0 & 1
10.
Five horses are in a race. Mr A selects two of the horses at random and bets on them. The probability that Mr.A selected the winning horse is (1) 3 / 5 (2) 1 / 5 (3) 2 / 5 (4) 4 / 5 sol (3) n( S ) =5 C2
n( E ) = 2 C1 + 2 C1
p( E ) = n( E ) 2 C1 + 2 C1 2 = = 5 5 n( S ) C2
11.
The value of ‘a’ for which one root of the quadratic equation (a2 – 5a + 3) x2 + (3a – 1) x + 2 = 0 is twice as large as the other , is (1) – 2 / 3 (2) 1 / 3 (3) – 1 / 3 (4) 2 / 3 sol (4) (3 α )2 = {(1 – 3a) / (a2 – 5a + 3)}2 ; 2α 2 = {2 / (a2 – 5a + 3)}
⇒ (a / 2) = {(1 – 3a)2 / 2 (a2 – 5a + 3)} ⇒ a = 2 / 3
12. A body travels a distance s in t seconds. It starts from rest and ends at rest. In the first part of the journey, it moves with constant acceleration f and in the second part with constant retardation r. The value of t is given by (1) {2s / (1 / f) + (1 / r)} (2) (3)
{2 s ( f + r )}
{2s (1 / f + 1 / r )}
(4) 2s (1 / f + 1 / r) sol (3) S = ½ f t12 + ½ r t2 2 ...... (i) Also f t1 = r t2 = Vmax ...........(ii)
⇒ From (ii) in (i) , t2= {2 s / r (1 + r / f )}
⇒ t = t2 {(1 + (r / f ) =
{2 S (1 / f + 1 / r )
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13.
Two stones are projected from the top of a cliff h metres high, with the same speed u so as to hit the ground at the same spot. If one of the stones is projected horizontally and the other is projected at an angle q to the horizontal then tan q equals (1) 2g (2) 2h
(u / h ) (u / g )
(3) u (2 / gh) (4)
( 2u / gh)
sol (3) u cos θ ´ t1 = u ´ t2 t2 =
(2 h/g ) . t1 = (2u sin θ / g) +
{2/ g(u 2 sin 2θ/2g) + h}
Note : Only (3) is dimensionless.
ωn ω2 n 1 ω2n 1 ω
n
1
14.
If 1, w , w2 are the cube roots of unity, then, ∆ = ωn ω2 n (1) 1 (2) w (3) w2 (4) 0 sol (4) Applying R1 → R1 + R2 + R3
is equal to
As, 1 + ωn + ω2n = 0 (if you don’t remember this, put n = 1 and you will get the answer) ∴∆ = 0 15. Let u = i + j , v – j and w = i + 2j + 3k. If n is a unit vector such that u , n = 0 and v . n = 0, then  w . n  is equal to (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0 sol (3) Should hold for all n . Observe n = k is a possible solution. ⇒  w . n  = 3 16. A particle acted on by constant forces 4i + j – 3k and 3i + j – k is displaced from the point i + 2j + 3k to the point 5i + 4j + k. The total work done by the forces is (1) 30 units (2) 40 units (3) 50 units (4) 20 units sol (2) W = F . S = (7i + 2j – 4k) . (4i + 2j – 2k) = 40 Units
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17.
The vectors AB = 3i + 4k , and AC = 5i – 2j + 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC. The length of the median through A is (1) (2) (3) (4)
72
33 288
18
sol (2) Choose A as origin ⇒ B ≡ 3i + 4k ; C = 5i – 2j + 4k ⇒ P.V. of mid pt. of BC is M (4i – j + 4 k) ⇒ Vector AM = 4i – j + 4k ⇒ length = AM  = 33. 18. The area of the region bounded by the curves y =  x – 1  and y = 3 –  x  is (1) 3 sq. units (2) 4 sq. units (3) 6 sq. units (4) 2 sq. units sol (2) Curve 1 : y = x – 1, x > 1 & 1 – x, x < 1 Curve 2 : y = 3 + x, x > 0 = 3 – x, x < 0 ⇒ Area = 4 19.
O
y
1
x
The solution of the differential equation (1 + y2) + (x – ea y) (dy / dx) = 0. is (where tan–1 = a) (1) 2x ea y = e2a y + k (2) x ea y = tan–1 y + k (3) x e2a y = e tan–1 y + k (4) (x – 2) = ke–a y sol (1) Linear diff. eqn Bemoulli’s form
20.
Let f (x) be a function satisfying f ‘ (x) = f (x) with f (0) = 1 and g (x) be a function that y x 1 O satisfies f (x) + g (x) = x2 . Then the value of the integral 0 ∫1 f (x) g (x) dx , is (1) e + (e2 / 2) – (3 / 2) (2) e – (e2 / 2) – (3 / 2) (3) e + (e2 / 2) + (5 / 2) (4) e – (e2 / 2) – (5 / 2) sol (2) f (x) = ex ⇒ g (x) = x2 – ex ⇒ I = 0 ∫1 ex (x2 – ex) dx = e – (e2 / 2) – 3 / 2
21.
The lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y = 7 are diameters of a circle having area as 154 sq. units. Then the equation of the circle is (1) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 47 (2) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 47 (3) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 62 (4) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 62 sol (2) Intensection at centre (1, – 1) . pr2 = 154 ⇒ r = 7 ⇒ circle : (x – 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = 49
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22.
If f (y) = e y , g (y) = y ; y > 0 and F(t) = 0 ∫ t f (t – y) g(y) dy , then (1) F (t) = et – (1 + t) (2) F (t) = t e t (3) F (t) = t e –1 (4) F(t) = 1 – e–1(1 + t) sol (1) F (t) = 0 ∫ t et – y . ydy = et 0 ∫ t ye– ydy = et – (1 + t)
23.
The function f (x) = log {x +
x 2 + 1)} , is
(1) an odd function (2) a periodic function (3) neither an even nor an odd function (4) an even function sol (1) f (– x)= log ( x 2 + 1) – x)¹ f (x). Also f (x) + f (– x) = log {x2 + 1 – x2}= 0 ⇒ Odd function 24. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then (a / c), (b / a) and (c / b) are in (1) Geometric Progression (2) Harmonic Progression (3) Arithmetic Geometric Progression (4) Arithmetic Progression sol (2) a + b = – b / a, For reciprocal roots : eqn : cy2 + by + a = 0 ⇒ (1 / a) + (1 / b) = – (b / c) ⇒ (1 / a2) + (1 / b2) = (2ac – b2) / c2 ⇒ from cond n : (a / c), (b / a), (c / b) in HP 25. If the system of linear equations x + 2ay + az = 0 x + 3by + bz = 0 has a non–zero solution, then a , b , c (1) are in G.P. (2) aqre in H.P. (3) satisfy a + 2b + 3c = 0 (4) are in A.P.
x + 4cy + cz = 0
sol (2) Nontrivial sol. ⇒ D = [1, 2a, a][1, 3b, b][1, 4c, c] = 0 ⇒ a, b, c in H.P 26. If {(1 + i) / (1 – i)}x = 1, then (1) x = 2n , where n is any positive integer (2) x = 4n + 1, where n is any positive integer (3) x = 2n + 1 , where n is any positive integer (4) x = 4n , where n is any positive integer sol (4) (eip /4 / e–ip / 4)x = 1 ⇒ ei x p / 2 = 1 ⇒ x = 4n
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27.
A function f from the set of natural numbers to integers defined by f (n) = {{(n – 1) / 2}, when n is odd { – (n / 2) , when n is even is (1) onto but not one–one (2) one–one and onto both (3) neither one–one nor onto (4) one–one but not onto sol (4) Not all integer covered
28.
Let f (x) be a polynomial function of second degree. If f (1) = f (–1) f and a , b , c are in A.P., then f ‘ (a) , f ‘(b) and f ‘(c) are in (1) G.P. (2) H.P. (3) Arithmetic–geometric Progression (4) A.P sol (4) f (x) = Px2 + R ⇒ f ‘ (x) = 2Px
29.
The sum of the series (1 / 1.2) – (1 / 2.3) + (1 / 3.4) – .....upto (1) log e 2 – 1 (2) log e 2 (3) log e (4 / e) (4) 2 loge 2 sol (1) S = lt n → ∞
r=1
Y is equal to
S n ((– 1)r +1) / r (r + 1)) = loge 2 – 1
30.
A square of side a lies above the x–axis and has one vertex at the origin. The side passing through the origin makes an angle a{0 < a < (p / 4)} withs the positive direction of x–axis. The equation of its diagonal not passing through the origin is B (1) y (cos α + sin α ) + x (sin α – cos α ) = a (2) y (cos α + sin α ) + x (sin α + cos α ) = a A (3) y (cos α + sin α ) + x (cos α – sin α ) = a M (4) y (cos α – sin α ) – x (sin α – cos α ) = a O 1
C
sol (3) D1 : y1 = x tan a; Aº (–
2a cos a,
2a sin a)
⇒ M º (– a /
31.
2 cos a, (a /
2 ) sin a) MBC = – cot a & D2 OBACMthrough M
If the pair of straight lines x2 – 2pxy – y2 = 0 and x2 – 2qxy – y2 = 0 be such that each pair bisects the angle between the other pair, then (1) p = – q (2) pq = 1 (3) pq = –1 (4) p = q sol (1) P = – q Locus of centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (a cos t , a sin t) , (b sin t , – b cos t) and (1 , 0), where t is a parameter, is (1) (3x – 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 + b2 (2) (3x + 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 + b2 (3) (3x + 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 – b2 (4) (3x – 1)2 + (3y)2 = a2 – b2 sol (1) 3x = a cos t + b sin t + 1; 3y = a sin t – b cos t Eliminate t
32.
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33.
If limx → 0 {log (3 + x) – log (3 – x) / x } = k , the value of k is (1) – (1 / 3) (2) (2 / 3) (3) – (2 / 3) (4) 0 sol (2) L.H. rule ⇒ limit = 2 / 3
34.
The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine at a round table if no two women are to sit together is given by (1) 30 (2) ∠5 × ∠4 (3) ∠7 × ∠5 (4) ∠6 × ∠5 sol (4) First arrange the men in 5! ways & them select 5 out of 6 gaps to arrange the women. for women ⇒ 6! ways. ⇒ 6! ways ⇒ total = 6! × 5!
35.
A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose at least 4 from the first five questions. The number of choices available to him is (1) 196 (2) 280 (3) 346 (4) 140 sol (1) Either 4 from 1st fine or 5 from first five ⇒ 5C4 × 8C6 + 5C5 × 8C5 = 196
36.
If A = {[a , b] [b , a]} and A2 = [a , b ] [ b , a], then (1) α = a2 + b2 , β = 2ab (2) α = a2 + b2 , β = a2 – b2 (3) α = 2ab , β = a2 + b2 (4) α = a2 + b2 , β = ab sol (1) On multiplying & equating corresponding elements
37.
In an experiment with 15 observations on x, the following results were available : Σx2 = 2830 , Σx = 170 One observation that was 20 was found to be wrong and was replaced by the correct value 30. Then the corrected variance is (1) 188.66 (2) 177.33 (3) 8.33 (4) 78.00 sol (4) x1 +.... + xn – 1 = 170 – 20 = 150; x1 2 + .... + xn – 1 2 = 2830 – 400 = 2430 New S1 xi = 180. New Sxi2 = 3330 ⇒ New variance = 78; New mean = 12
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38.
The shortest distance from the plane 12 x + 4 y + 3 z = 327 to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 + 4 x – 2 y – 6z = 155 is (1) 11(4 / 13) (2) 13 (3) 39 (4) 26 sol (2) Shortest dist. ⇒ perp.dist. ⇒ dist. from centre to plane = 13 units
39.
The two lines x = ay + b, z – cy + d and x = a’ y + b’, z = c’y + d’ will be perpendicular, if and only if (1) aa’ + bb’ + cc’ = 0 (2) (a + a’) (b + b’) + (c + c’) = 0 (3) aa’ + cc’ + 1 = 0 (4) aa’ + bb’ + cc’ + 1 = 0 sol (3) Apply. perp. condn for planes
40.
The lines (x – 2 ) / 1 = (y – 3) / 1 = (z – 4) / – k and (x – 1) / k = (y – 4) / 2 = (z – 5) / 1 are coplanar if (1) k = 1 or – 1 (2) k = 0 or – 3 (3) k = 3 or – 3 (4) k = 0 or – 1 sol (2) D = 0 for coplannar ⇒ k = 0 or – 3
41.
If f (a + b – x) = f (x), then a ∫ b x f (x) dx is equal to (1) (a + b) / 2 a ∫ b f (x) dx (2) (b – a) / 2 a ∫ b f(x) dx (3) (a + b) / 2 a ∫ b f (a + b – x) dx (4) (a + b) / 2 a ∫ b f (b – x) dx sol (1) I = a ∫ b xf (x) dx = a ∫ b (a + b – x) f (a + b – x) dx ⇒ 2I = (a + b) a ∫ b f (x) dx.
42.
A couple is of moment G and the force forming the couple is P. If P is turned through a right angle, the moment of the couple thus formed is H. If instead, the forces P are turned through and angle a, then the moment of couple be comes (1) H cos α + G sin α (2) G cos α + H sin α (3) H sin α – G cos α (4) H sin α – G cos α sol (2) For α = 0, moment = G ; α = 90°, moment = H
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43.
The resultant of forces P and Q is R. If Q doubled then R is doubled. If the direction of Q is reversed, then R is again doubled. Then P2 : Q2 : R2 is (1) 2 : 3 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 (3) 2 : 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 1 : 1 sol (2) P + Q = R; P + 2Q = 2R ; P – Q = 2R Hence P2 : Q2 : R2
44.
The mean and variance of a random variable X having a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then P (X = 1) is (1) 1 / 16 (2) 1 / 8 (3) 1 / 4 (4) 1 / 32 sol (4) np = 4 ; npq = 2 ⇒ 1 – p = 1 / 2 ⇒ p = 1 / 2, q = 1 / 2, n = 8 p(x = 1) = 8 × p (1 – p)7 = 23 / 28 = 1 / 32
45.
If f (x) = xn, then the value of f (1) – f ‘(1) / 1! + f ‘’ (1) / 2 ! – f ‘’’ (1) / 3! + ...... + (– 1)n f n (1) / n! is (1) 2n – 1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2n sol (2) Taylor expansion with x = 1. = zero The sum of the radii of inscribed and circumscribed circles for an n sides regular polygon of side a, is (1) (a / 2) cot ( π / 2) (2) a cot ( π / 2) (3) (a / 4) cot ( π / 2n) (4) a cot ( π / n) sol (1) Draw fig. a2 = 2Rc 2 {1 – cos (2 π / 2n)} & ri = (a / 2) cot ( π / 2n) ⇒ Rc + ri = (a / 2) cot ( π / 2n)
46.
47.
If x1, x2, x3 and y1, y2, y3 are both in G.P with the same common ratio, then the point (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (y3 , y3) (1) lie on an ellipse (2) lie on a circle (3) are vertices of a triangle (4) lie on a straight line sol (4) All lie on the line y = rx r : common ratio
48.
If z and ω are two nonzero complex numbers such that zω = 1 Arg(z) – Arg ( ω ) = ( π / 2), then zω is equal to (1) – 1 (2) i (3) – i (4) 1 sol (3) Consider z = i, ω = 1 ⇒ zω = – i
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49.
Let z1 and z2 be two roots of the equation z2 + az + b = 0, z being complex. Further assume that the origin, z1 and z2 form and equilateral triangle. Then (1) a2 = 2b (2) a 2 = 3b (3) a2 = 4b (4) a2 = b sol (4) z1 2 + z22 = z1 z2 (eq. D) ⇒ a2 – 2b = b ⇒ a2 = b
50.
The upper (3 / 4)th portion of a vertical pole subtends an angle tan–1 (3 / 5) at a point in the horizontal plane through its foot and at a distance 40 m from the foot. A possible height of the vertical (1) 40 m (2) 60 m (3) 80 m (4) 20 m sol (1) (l / 4) cot θ = 40 & l cot (tan– 1 3 / 5 + θ ) = 40, Solving, we get l = 40
51.
In a triangle ABC, medium AD and BE are drawn. If AD = 4, <DAB = ( π / 6) and < ABE = ( π / 3), then the A are of D ABC is (1) 16 / 3 (2) 32 / 3 E F 30° 8/3 (3) 64 / 3 (4) 8 / 3 60°
B D 4/3 C
sol (4)
Apply sine rule to find OB, & then AO / OD = BO / OE = CO / OF Area = D AOB + D AOE + D BOD + D CEOD = 32 / 3 3
52.
If in a triangle ABC a cos2 (C / 2) + c cos2 (A / 2) = 3b / 2, then the sides a, b and c (1) are in G.P (2) are in H.P (3) satisfy a + b = c (4) are in A.P sol (4) (a / 2) (1 + cos C) + (c / 2) (1 + cos A) = 3b / 2 But a cos C + c cos A = b (Napier) ⇒ (a + c) + (a cos C + c cos A) = 3b
53.
a, b, c are 3 vectors, such that a + b + c = 0.a . b + b . c + c . a = 3, then a . b + b . c + c . a is equal to (1) – 7 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 0 sol (1) Choose a = i, b = 2i, c = – 3i ⇒ – 7
54.
If x is positive, the first negative term in the expansion of (1+ x) (27 /5) is (1) 5th terms (2) 8th (3) 6th term (4) 7 th terms sol (2) Tr + 1 = —— ⇒ 8th term negative
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55.
The number of integral terms in the expansion of ( 3 + 8 5) 256 is (1) 33 (2) 34 (3) 35 (4) 32 sol (1) Integral term ⇒ ( 3 )256 – r × (5)r / 8 to be integral ⇒ r = 0, 8, . . ., 256 = {33} terms
56.
If nCr denotes the number of combinations of n things taken r at a time, then the expression n Cr +1 + nCr – 1 + 2 × nCr equals (1) n +2Cr +1 (2) n +1Cr (3) n +1Cr +1 (4) n +2Cr sol (1) nCr – 1 + nCr = n + 1Cr ; nCr + 1 + nCr = n + 1Cr + 1 n + 1Cr = n + 1Cr + 1 = n + 1Cr + 1
57.
Two particles start simultaneously from the same point and move along two straight lines, one with uniform velocity u and the other from rest with uniform acceleration f. Let a be the angle between their directions of motion. The relative velocity of the second particle w.r.t. the first is least after a time (1) f cos α / u (2) u sin α (3) u cos α / f ft (4) u cos α / f Vrel2 = (u – ft cos α )2 + (ft sin α )2 ⇒ (d / dt) {Vrel2} = 0
sol (3) 58.
If  [a a2 1 + a3] [b b2 1 + b3] [c c2 1 + c3]  = 0 and vectors (1, a, a2), (1, b, b2) and (1, c, c2) are noncoplanar , then the product abc equals (1) – 1 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 2 sol (1) D = [1, a, a2][1, b, b2][1, c, c2] + abc [1, a, a2][1, b, b2][1, c, c2] = 0 ⇒ abc = – 1 u ft
59.
If the function f(x) = 2x3 – 9ax2 + 12 a2 x + 1, where a > 0, attains its maximum and minimum at p and q respectively such that p2 = q, then a (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) ½ (4) 3 sol (2) f’(x) = 0 ⇒ x2 – 3ax + 2a2 = 0 ⇒ (x – 2a) (x – a) = 0 f’’(x) = 12x – 18a > 0 for x = 2a ⇒ min at 2a ∴ p2 = q ⇒ a2 = 2a ⇒ a = 2
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60.
If f (x) = {xe – ((1 / x + ( 1 / x) , x ≠ 0 ; {0 , x = 0 then f (x) is (1) continuous for all x but not differentiable at x = 0 (2) neither differentiable nor continuous at x = 0 (3) discontinuous everywhere (4) continuous as well as differentiable for all x sol (2) f(x) = { x e– 0, x → 0– { x e– 2 / x, x → 0+ (undefined 1 / x) ⇒ NC, ND at O
61.
The number of real solutions of the equation x2 – 3  x  + 2 = 0 is (1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2 sol (1) (x – 1) (x – 2) = 0 ⇒ 4 real soln.
62.
The value of the integral I = ∫1 x (1 – x)n dx is 0 (1) 1 / (n + 2) (2) 1 / (n + 1) – 1 / (n + 2) (3) 1 / (n + 1) – 1 / (n + 2) (4) 1 / (n + 1) sol (2) Put 1 – x = t ⇒ I = 0 ∫ 1 tn × (1 – t)dt = (1 / (n + 1)) – (1 / (n + 2)) The value of lim x → 0 { 0 ∫ x sec2 t d t / x sin x} is (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 3 sol (2) LH rule L = (sec2 (x2) × 2x) / (x cos x + sin x); again LH rule ⇒ (2 sec2 (x2) + 0) / (2 cos x – x sin x) ⇒ L = 1.
2
63.
64.
The radius of the circle in which the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 + 2x – 2y – 4z – 19 = 0 is cut by the plane x + 2y + 2z + 7 = 0 is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 sol (2) Centre (–1, 1, 2) ⇒ distance from plane = 4. Radius of sphere = 5 ⇒ radius of circle =
(5 − 4 ) = 3
2 2
1
4
5
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65.
A tetrahedron has vertices at O (0, 0, 0), A (1, 2, 1), B (2, 1, 3) and C ( – 1, 1, 2). Then the angle between the faces OAB and ABC will be (1) cos–1 (17 / 31) (2) 30° (3) 90° (4) cos–1 (19 / 35) sol (4) Use vectors. Find normals to OAB and ABC Angle between faces = angle between normals
66.
Domain of definition of the function f(x) = 3 / (4 – x2) + log10 (x3 – x), is (1) (– 1, 0) ∪ (1, 2) (2) (1, 2) ∪ (2, ∞ ) (3) ( –1 , 0) ∪ (1, 2) ∪ (2 , ∞ ) (4) (1, 2) sol (3) x3 – x > 0 & 4 – x2 ≠ 0
67.
If f : R → R satisfies f (x + y) = f(x) + f (y), for all x, y ∈ R and f (1) = 7, (1) 7(n + 1) / 2 (2) 7n (n + 1) (3) 7n(n + 1) (4) 7n / 2 sol (3) f (x) = k x ⇒ r =1 Σ n n f (r) = k f (1) = 7 ⇒ k = 7
r =1 Σ n
r =1 Σ
n
f (r) is
r = kr (n +1) / 2
68.
The real number x when added to its inverse gives the minimum value of the sum at x equal to (1) 1 (2) – 1 (3) – 2 u θ (4) 2 sol (4) S = x + (1 / x) Smin = 2 (AM ³ GM) or ( x – (1 /
x )2 ≥ 0 x + (1 / x) ³ 2
69.
Let R1 and T2 respectively be the maximum ranges up and down an inclined plane and R be the maximum range on the horizontal plane. Then R1, R, R3 are in (1) A.P (2) G.P (3) H.P (4) ArithmeticGeometric Progression (A.G.P) 45 sol (2) R2 = Rmax × Rmin
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70.
Let (d / dx) F(x) = (e sin x / x), x > 0 If 1 ∫ 4 (3 / x) esin x3 dx = F (k) – F(1) then one of the possible values of k,is (1) 16 (2) 63 (3) 64 (4) 15 sol (2) 1 ∫ x (3 / x) e sin x3 dx = F (f (x)) – F (l) Diff. both sides f ‘ (x) × e sin f (x) / f (x) = (3 / x) e sin x3× 1 ⇒ f (x) = x3 ⇒ k = f (4) = 64
71.
lim n→∞ 1+ 24 + 34 + .... + n4 / n5– lim n→∞ 1 + 23 + 33 + ..... + n3 / n5 is (1) zero (2) 1 / 4 (3) 1 / 5 (4) 1 / 30
n →∞ r =1 Σ n
r =1 Σ n
sol (3) L = lt
(1 / n) (r / n)4 – (1 / n) lt
(1 / n) (r / n)3
= 1 ∫ 0 x4 dx = 1 / 5. 72. The median of a set of 9 distinct observation is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of the set is increased by 2, then the median of the new set (1) is decreased by 2 (2) is two times the original median (3) remains the same as that of the original set (4) is increased by 2. sol (3) Median = x5 ; (Median)New = (Median)old 73.
lim n→( π/2) [1 – tan (x / 2)] [1 – sin x] / [1 + tan (x / 2)] [ π – 2x]3 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 / 32 (3) ∞ (4) 1 / 8 sol (2) ( π / 4) – (x / 2) = h ⇒ L = It h → 0 = (1 / 64) × 1 × (22 / 2) = 1 / 32. (tan h / 64 h) × (1 – cos 2h) / h2
74.
Let f (a) = g (a) = k and their nth derivatives f n (a), gn (a) exist and are not equal for some n. Further if lim x → a f (a) g(x) – f(a) – g (a) f (x) + g(a) / g(x) – f(x) = 4 Then the value of k is (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 4 sol (4) Applying LH rule successively n times α θ u ⇒ f (a) g(n) (a) – g(a) f (n) (a) / g(n) (a) – f (n) (a) = 4 f (a) = g (a) = k ⇒ k = 4
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75.
If the equation of the locus of a point equidistant from the point (a1, b1) and (a2, b2) is (a1 – a2) x + (b1 – b2) y + c = 0. then the value of ‘c’ is (1) a12 – a22 + b12 – b2 2 (2) ½ (a12 + a2 2 + b12 + b22) (3)
a12 + b12 − a 2 2 − b2 2
(4) ½ (a22 + b22 – a12 – b12) sol (4) (a1 + a2 / 2, b1 + b2 / 2) lies on the locus ⇒ (a12 – a22) / 2 + (b12 – b22) / 2 + c = 0
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