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Number of Questions: 30 Time : 30mins Full Mins Marks : 30

Directions for questions 1-6: Read the pair of statements given below and mark the answer choice which follows most logically






All scientists are fools. All fools are literates (1) All literates are scientists. (2) All scientists are literates (3) No scientists are literates. (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct. No apple is an orange. All bananas are oranges. (1) All apples are oranges. (2) Some apples are oranges. (3) No apple is banana. (4) None of the above. All pens are elephants. Some elephants are cats. (1) Some pens are cats. (2) No pens are cats. (3) All pens are cats. (4) None of the above. All shares are debentures. No debentures are deposits. (1) All shares are deposits. (2) Some shares are deposits. (3) No shares are deposits. (4) None of the above. Many fathers are brothers. All brothers are priests. (1) No father is a priest. (2) Many fathers are not priests. (3) Many fathers are priests. (4) Both (2) and (3). Some green are blue. No blue are white. (1) No green are white. (2) Some green are white. (3) Some green are not white. (4) None of the above.

Directions for questions 7-9: Prakash and Ganesh are friends. Prakash has three sons while Ganesh has two. Product of the ages of Ganesh' s sons is equal to the product of ages of Prakash's sons. The maximum and minimum age differences between any two of Prakash's son's are 2 years and 1 year respectively. The age difference between the sons of Ganesh is 1 year. One of Ganesh's sons had fallen sick when he was nine-year-old. Ganesh had got married on February 29th, 19 years back. Ages of all the sons of Prakash and Ganesh are integers.



What is the age of the youngest son of Prakash? (1) 1 year (2) 2 years (3) 3 years (4) None of these What is the age of the eldest son of Prakash? (1) 9 years (2) 10 years (3) 7 years (4) Data insufficient What is the age of Ganesh's eldest son? (1) 13 years (2) 14 years (3) Data insufficient (4) None of these

Directions for questions 10-12: Bulgaria, Canada, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Holland and Iceland are the only participants in an international curling Competition. The three teams with the highest scores receive medals. There can be no ties and the following conditions apply:Finland scores higher that Estonia but lower than Holland Iceland scores higher than Estonia but lower than Germany Both Bulgaria and Canada score higher than Holland If Denmark receives a medal, then Iceland does not receive a medal If Bulgaria receives a medal, then Holland also receives a medal.



Which of the following could be the three teams that receive medals (1) Bulgaria, Holland, Germany (2) Canada, Denmark, Iceland (3) Germany, Iceland, Canada (4) Finland Holland Bulgaria If Holland does not receive a medal, then which of the following two teams must receive medals? (1) Bulgaria and Germany (2) Germany and Canada (3) Canada and Finland (4) Denmark and Canada If Germany scores lower than Bulgaria, then each of the following must be true EXCEPT? (1) Canada receives a medal (2) Denmark scores higher than Bulgaria (3) Germany scores lower than Holland (4) Holland receives a medal

Directions for questions 13-15: A grocer has to stock grains and dals. He has to buy equal quantities of any four from the following varieties such that he stocks at least 2 types grains. Grains: Wheat, Maize, Rice. Dals: Moong, Masur, Udad, Channa. On analysis of budgetary constraints and demand, he has reached the conclusion that Maize and Moong dal cannot both be bought together, Rice and Urad dal cannot be bought together, and Urad dal and Channa Dal cannot be bought together.



If the grocer decides to stock Urad dal, which other items will he stock? (1) Wheat, Maize, Moong (2) Wheat, Maize, Masur (3) Wheat, Maize, Channa (4) Rice, Maize, Moong If the grocer does not buy maize, yet he buys channa which is the possible combination of items he buys? (1) wheat, moong, masur, channa (2) wheat masur, urad, channa (3) wheat, rice, moong, channa (4) wheat, rice, urad, channa Which of the following combination is not possible? i. buying moong and urad together ii. buying maize and rice together iii. buying moong, masur and urad together (2) i and ii (3) i and iii (4) iii only

(1) i,ii,iii

Directions for question 16-18 Vibha has a choice of the following fruits for dinner - oranges, mangoes, bananas, pineapple, peaches, apples, guavas, and sweet lime. Given below is some additional information: Oranges and sweet lime are citrus fruits. Vibha has four fruits for dinner on any given day. Vibha does not have citrus fruits along with mangoes. Vibha eats peaches only if she eats sweet lime. Vibha has at least one of the three fruits - bananas, guavas, apples - everyday. Only one unit of any fruit can be eaten.

If Vibha eats peaches, which of the following fruits can she not eat on the same day ? (1) Banana (2) Guava (3) Mango (4) Orange Vibha eats sweet lime and guavas, then the number of possible combinations is (1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 20 (4) 16 Vibha has mangoes, then the number of possible combinations is (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 24 (4) 10



Directions for questions 19-24: The problems below contain question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions. The correct answer is (1) If Statement I alone is sufficient but Statement II alone is not sufficient. (2) If Statement II alone is sufficient but Statement I alone is not sufficient. (3) If both statements I and II together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient. (4) If Statement I and II together are not sufficient. A man rows downstream and back, a total distance of 50 km in 2 hours. If the speed of the current increases by 4 kmph, how long will the man take to complete the journey? I. The ratio of times taken by the man to travel downstream and to travel upstream is 5:7 at the current's original speed. II. The current helps the man to travel faster when going downstream. 20. A jar is filled with 60 marbles. All the marbles in the jar are either red or green. What is the smallest number of marbles, which must be drawn from the jar in order to be certain that a red marble is drawn? I. The ratio of diameter of red marbles to green marbles is 2: 1. II. There are 20 green marbles in the jar. 21. The density of a planet varies directly as its weight and inversely as the square of its distance from the Sun. How far is Neptune from the Sun?

The Earth, which is 4.28 x 106 units from the Sun, weighs 2.719 x 106 units and has density 3.12 x106 units II. Neptune is0.8 times as heavy as the Earth and twice as dense. 22. In a school election, if each of the 900 voters voted for either Amit or Mukund (but not both), what percent of the voters in this election voted for Mukund? I. Eighty percent of the 'female voters voted for Amit. II. Sixty percent of the male voters voted for Mukund I.

Directions for questions 23-24: N is a natural number and it has only four distinct factors viz. 1, x, y and N itself. (Assume that x is always less than y.)

Integer x is a (1) Prime number (3) Data insufficient (2) Composite number x. x. y = (1) N

(4) none of these


(2) N2

(3) N

(4) xN

Directions for questions 25-30: In a quiz, there are ten questions to be answered. Each correct answer gets 3 points. For each wrong answer, 2 points are subtracted from the score. For every question left unanswered, 1 point is subtracted from the score. All students taking the quiz start with a score of 5.


The minimum possible final score for a student taking the test is (1) 5 (2) 0 (3) -5 (4) -15 If in a test, a student got the highest final score of 19, and if no student got the same final score, the highest possible score for the student who came third would be: (1)18 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 11 If a student has answered at least 5 questions correctly, left at least 1 question unanswered and answered at least 1 question incorrectly, then what are the minimum and maximum possible final scores? (1) 11 and 17 (2) 11 and 26 (3) 14 and 17 (4) 14 and 22




What is the minimum number of questions a student has to answer correctly to get a final score of more than 20? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 If a student taking a test got a final score of 0, what is the maximum possible number of incorrect answers he or she could have got? (1)1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7 If in a test only two questions are left unanswered, then which of the following digits cannot occur in the final score? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 7



Number of Questions: 30 Time: 30 Minutes PASSAGE 1 Full Mark-30

The countrywide implementation of Value Added Tax (VAT) finally got off the ground on April I. But it remains as divisive as ever. Several States have chosen not to implement it. Eight major States, five under control of the Bhartiya Janta Party., Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh have postponed its implementations. Opposition to VA.T remains strong. Traders across the country welcomed VAT with a three-day nationwide strike. The divisions on VAT are quite sharp. While the big industry organizations welcomed it and lobbied aggressively for its implementation, small business particularly retail traders protested against it. The Bhartiya Janta Party was quick to realize the pote!1tial of dissent from this substantial section. The party which initiated the move towards VAT changed track. Two weeks before the regime was to take off, it announced that the State under its control would not implement VAT until requisite preparatory steps were taken by the Union Government. It said that Bhartiya Janta Party-ruled States would not implement VAT until the Centre committed itself to a road map to phase out the Union Government levied Central State 'tax. VAT is an attempt to address the problem of taxing inputs. Proponents of the tax argue that since inputs that go into the making ofa product are already taxed once, they should be set off at the higher levels along the chain. They claim that this would avoid the tax on tax effect which is inflationary. A unified VAT rate across the country, it is claimed, will replace the Sales Tax rates that different State levy. Unified VAT rates would result in a pan-Indian market which manufactures and traders can address. It will also halt the practice of State indulging in a race to the bottom by offering competing incentives to attract investment. Proponents of VAT argue that it will reduce price and enable a more efficient allocation of resources in the market. Since entities along the supply chain have a stake in claiming set-offs for value addition that they have carried out, each of them has a stake in maintaining accounts in a transparent manner. Why should a tax that appears so reasonable at first glance provoke so much actrimony? The apprehensions about VAT can be broadly classified into three sets. First, there are fears that VAT's proponents grossly exaggerate the advantages of the tax when compared to the Sales Tax which has been the single most important source of revenue for the States for the past 75 years. Only physical verification of individual invoices of which there will be millions can weed out the bogus claims made by traders understand that the tax authorities are unable to track and examine their credit feelings, they will deluge the system with spurious claims. This is exactly what happened in several advanced countries. France, where the idea of VAT originated, has had problem with the tax. In 1981, according to Mukhopadhya, the net evasion of VAT defined as the deviation between actual and hypothetical revenue, amounted to 18 percent. This amounted to 6.6 percent of the total revenues, and 0.7 percent of France's GDP. In India the mounting bogus claims on State finances by the VAT able entities class can add significantly to the problem of diminished revenues that VAT itself nay cause.


Which is/are the fear (s) about VAT? (1) Advantage of VAT is grossly exaggerated. (2) VAT undermines the Centre-State financial relations. (3) VAT is more complicated as compared to Sales Tax. (4) All the above; Which country is credited with originating the idea of VAT? (1) India (2) USA (3) France (4) UK



According to the passage, which one of the following statements is NOT true? (1) Unified VAT rates will stop the practice of offering competing incentives by States to attract investment.

(2) VAT will solve the problem of tracing inputs at multiple levels. (3) BJP-ruled States will implement VAT after the Centre clarifies abolition of Central Sales tax. (4) Both big industry organizations and retail traders protested against the implementation of VAT.


Punctuality is a necessary habit in all public affairs of a civilized society. Without it nothing could ever be brought to a conclusion, everything would be in a stage of chaos. Only in a sparsely populated rural community it is possible to disregard it. In ordinary living there can be some tolerance of un punctuality. The intellectual, who is working on some abstruse problem, has everything coordinated and organized for the matter in hand. He is therefore forgiven, if late for the dinner party. But people are often reproached for unpunctuality when their only fault is cutting thing fine. It is hard for energetic, quick-minded people to waste\ time, so they are often tempted to finish a job before setting out to keep an appointment. If no accidents occur on the way like punctured tyres, diversion of traffic, sudden descent of fog, they will be on time. They are often more industrious and more useful citizens than those who are never late. The over-punctual can be as much a trial to others as the unpunctual. The guest who arrives half an hour too soon is the greatest nuisance. Some friends of my family had this irritating habit. The only thing to do was to ask them to come half an hour later than the other guests. Then they arrived just when we wanted them. If you are catching a train, it is always better to be comfortable early than even a fraction of a minute to late. Although being early may mean wasting a-little time, this will be less then if you miss the train and have to wait an hour or so for the next one. And you avoid the frustration of arriving at the very moment when the train is drawing out of the station and being unable to get on i~. And even a harder situation is to be on the platform in good time for a train and still to see it go off without you. Such an experience befell a certain young girl the first time she was travelling alone. She entered the station twenty minutes before the train was due, since her parents had impressed upon her that it would be unforgivable to miss it and cause the friends with whom she was going to stay to make two journeys to meet her. She gave her luggage to a porter and showed him her ticket. To her horror he said that she was two hours too soon. She felt in her handbag for the piece of paper on which her father had written down 'all the details of the journey and gave it to the porter. He agreed that a train did come in the station at the time on the paper and that it did stop, but only to take on water, not passengers,. The girl asked to see a timetable, feeling sure that her father could not have made such a mistake. The porter went to fetch

one and arrived back with the Station master, who produced it with a flourish and pointed out a microscopic '0' beside the time of the arrival of the train at his face; begged to be al10wed to slip into the guard's van. But the station Master was adamant: rules will not be broken. And she had to watch that train disappear towards her destination while she was left behind. 4. The author feels it is necessary to be punctual in a civilised society, because (1) It makes people think that you are a good tempered person. (2) It elevates your social status. (4) It makes your friends trust you. 5. The author's family asked some of their friends to come half an hour later than others because (1) They did not like their friends. (2) They did not want them to meet other guests. (3) These friends had to meet some other people on the way. (4) They were in the habit of arriving too early. 6. The author implies that it is better to arrive early at the station so that (1) There is not chance of missing your train. (2) There is a chance of meeting the important people who travel by train. (3) You can get into the compartment of your choice. (4) You can find porters to help you and carry your luggage. 7. The expression 'to her horror' used in the passage comes nearest in meaning to (1) She was very scared to see. (2) She was disgusted to discover. (3) It helps to conduct things without confusion.

(3) She was disappointed to find. .. (4) She was surprised to fin~

Direction (Qs. 8 to 11): Each of the sentences below has blank spaces. Following each sentence, four sets of words are given numbered (1) to (4). Select the appropriate set of words that makes the sentence most meaningful. 8. We can coax physical nature intomany of our wishes but we cannotauthority over it or make it changed its ways one jot. (1) Granting, empower 9. (2) Satiating, display (3) Satisfying, exercise (4) Strimulating, exercise

War has been, throughout history, the chief.of social cohesion; and since science began, it has been the technical progress. (1) Reason, encouragement (2) Origin, boost (3) Cause, provocation (4)Source,incentive


Genetic engineering in humans should be used todiseases, not togenetic uniformity. (1) Treat, foster (2) Eradicate, cater (3) Cure, generate (4) Avoid, promote


The conflict of man with physical nature is turned into ain proportion as man learns the .of nature and there by becomes able to co-operate with her. (1) Cohesion, mysteries (2) Unity, puzzles (3) Harmony, secrets (4) Collation, riddles


took a vicious turn as well armed rebels massacred government forces

(1) The six-year old battle against Maoist insurgent

(2) The six-year old battle for Maoist insurgents

(3) The six-years old battle against Maoist insurgents (4) The six-year old battle against Maoist insurgents


Latin America has for long been a forgotten wasteland..Indian foreign policy (1) to the politics controllers (2) to the politics controllers by (3) to the political controllers by (4) to the politics controllers in


ahead of the herd. (1) Intelligence investors make their move (2) Intelligence investors make its move (3) Intelligent investors make their moves (4) Intelligent investors make their move Hakeem said the Muslims had been overlooked in.. (1) earlier peace bids which ended in disaster (2) earliest peace bids which ended in disaster (3) early peace bids which ended in disaster (4) earlier peace birds which end in disaster


Directions (Qs. 16-20): Each sentence has four underlined parts marked At B, C & D. Identify the part that must be changed to make the sentence correct 16. Of all the problems. that have confronted (1)/human beings (2)/the beginning of recorded history, perhaps the most significant have been (3)/ the riddle of (4)/their own origin. (1)A 17. (2) B (3) C (4) D

The water flows at (1)/about 2.5 m per second for about 12 hours when the tide is rising (2)/through the channel, paused (3)/at high tide and then reverses direction. (4) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


Vimal's two sisters (1)/are both (2)/very intelligent and hardworking still, (3)/I donot know why, I like the former the most.(4) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


She would have asked (1)/sita to leave her room that very minute (2)/if her brother would have been (3)/in the house that day. (4) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

20. It is a pity that (1)/a son born from (2)/very good parents should live a life of misery (3)/and deprivation of the worst order. (4) (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Directions Questions 21-26: Select the pair of words, which do have a relationship similar to the relationship between the given pair. 21. FOOT: FINGERS

(1) bottom: top (3) pedal: handicap 22. NATURAL: SYNTHETIC (1) hypothesis: conclusion (3) fragrance: perfume 23 MOVING: STATIC (1) rain: cloud (3) river: alluvium 24 FAMILY: SPOUSE (1) business: partner (3) truth: witness 25 WRAITH: GHOST (1) vertex: summit (3) sloth: slogan 26 SMILE: FROWN (1) drink: eat (3) life: death

(2) finger: thumb (4) pedicure: manicure

(2) cotton: wool (4) honey: sugarcane

(2) glacier: snow (4) dynamics : electronics

(2) army: major (4) home: lady

(2) surmise: combination (4) retinue: excuse

(2) slip: fall (4) travel: run

Direction Questions 27-30: Read the paragraph given below and choose the most appropriate answer to the question that follows 27. Scientists have uncovered evidence that even ancient people believed in the concept of time. Sites uncovered during archeological expeditions in many parts of the world including places like India have shown the existence of either hourglasses or huge sundials. The Inca temple in Peru is the earliest known example of this belief in the ability to calculate time. Which of the following is an assumption based on the argument above? (1) The placement of time measuring instruments in the ancient civilizations indicates a feeling of reverence towards the concept of time. (2) Belief in the concept of time is the central tenet of most ancient civilizations. (3) Only people who believe in the concept of time would have built sundials and manufactured hourglasses. (4) All ancient civilizations worked day to day under a strict regimen based on time. 28. The reason that the Prime Minister appointed John Galt as the chairman of the Planning Commission, and the reason that the conservatives are happy about the decision is that they believe that Galt's appointment, if approved by the Parliament, will ensure that the Commission is dominated by the far Right for a long time to come. For the same reason, the liberals oppose him. The speaker in the above paragraph implies that (1) (2) (3) (4) 29. liberals believe that Galt would make a good chairman of the Planning Commission. liberals believe that Galt would take conservative planning decisions. liberals would not oppose Galt's appointment if the conservatives did not support it. conservatives would not support Galt's appointment if the liberals did not oppose it. The ratio of post-graduates opting for teaching has declined over the past decade. The HAPTA (Help All Poor Teaching Associates) has therefore decided to hike salaries and offer annual income tax relief

packages to those opting to teach at Post-Graduate level in an attempt to lure students to this career. Which of the following is an assumption justifying the action of the HAPTA? (1) (2) (3) (4) 30. Fewer students have been enrolling for Post-Graduate courses in the last few years. Most students are interested in professional courses like the MBA. Increasing the benefits would help lure more people to opt for teaching. The HAPTA can implement any policy approved by the government. Average test scores on standardized tests have been dropping for the last decade. This is not the fault of the student. The dissolution of the nuclear family has created instability for thousands of American children. And students need stability to fulfill their academic potential. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the above statement (1) in New Guinea, where fewer than 10 per cent of all teenagers come from one-parent families academic achievement is on an all-time high. (2) Many more people took the test recently than took them in the last year in which the score rose. (3) Fifty per cent of all scholarship students at American colleges last year were from single-parent homes. (4) Orphans tested the highest on standardized test of any subgroup of students.