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Model Test  04
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each section.
Each section contains 50 questions. Observe the given weightage
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Questions 1  5 are based on the following passage
Whenever the human ear perceives music, or any other sound, it is always the result of a vibrating object. These
vibrations, usually of a string or column of air in the case of an instrument, act to move the air around the virating
source, creating a sound wave with the same frequency as the original vibration. The original waves are classified
as either transverse or longitudinal, depending on whether a string or a coloumn of air is vibrating, respectively
Certain frequencies of sound correspond to musical notes within an octave; for the same note one octave above,
thefrequency is double its value in the lower octave. Therefore, in order to play a specific note of either a string or
wind instrument, the string or column of air must vibrate at the appropriate frequency.
In the case of string instruments, a series of strings is fixed at both ends, vibrating to produce a sinusoidal wave,
figure  1
Figure  1
The wavelength of any wave propagating in that string is dependent on the length of the string, which is assumed
to remain constant during virbration. When the string vibrates at its lowest frequency, it is termed the first harmonic,
vibrations at the second lowest frequency are termed the first overtone, or second harmonic, and so forth. When a
musician presses on the strings, the effective length of the string shortens, increasing the frequency of the first
harmonic. However, even without pressing down on the strings, the musician can produce different sounds from
them, since although the strings are of equal length, they do not have equal mass or equal tension. The dependence
of frequency on linear density, or mass per unit length, and tension is illustrated by equation 1.
λ
ρ
·
2 / 1
) / T (
f Equation  1
Where f is the frequency, T is the tension on the string, p is the linear density of the string, and λ is the wavelength.
In wind instruments, though the mechanism of sound production differes from that of the string instruments, the
basic principles of a vibrating medium are retained. These instruments use a column of air, open at one, both, or
neither end, to propagate a sound wave. Nodes and antinodes are crreated along the length of the column of air. A
node exists when some value is maximally restricted from change; whereas an antinode exists where some value
can maximally change. For example, a mode of vibration in terms of displacement of air would have a node at a
closed end, since air is not free to move there, resulting in no change in displacement, for example a mode in terms
of air pressure. Analogously to the string instrument, the wind instrument may have its air column shortened or
elongated by a skilled musician, producing specific notes, which are arranged in a specific way to produce music.
1. It is known that some note D# roughly corresponds to a frequency of 311 sec
1
. A musician attempts to play that
some note in an octave lower. If the wavelength of the vibrating string is 0.25 m, how fast must the wave be moving
to achieve this note?
a) 77.8 m sec
1
b) 155.5 m sec
1
c) 332 m sec
1
d) 777.5 m sec
1
2. Which of the following is true regarding a vibrating string that is fixed at both ends?
a) Thefirst harmonic has 1 more displacement node than the third overtone has.
b) The third overtone has 2 more displacement antipodes than the fifth harmonic has.
c) the fifth harmonic has 3 fewer displacement nodes than eighth overtone has.
d) The eighth overtone has 4 fewer displacement antipodes than the thirteenth harmonic has.
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
Paper  I : Physics  1 to 50
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3. What is the most likely explanation for using strings of different densities to achieve different sounds, rather
thanrelying solely on different string lengths?
a) Larger densities allow the strings to have less weight, leading to greater range of frequencies.
b) There is only a finite number of wavelengths able to be produced by changing string length alone.
c) The range of string lengths required for a variety of frequencies becomes impractical.
d) The combination of altering string length and density allows for frequencies that are independent of velocity.
4. A student suspends a block vertically from a string, and when the string is plucked, it vibrates at some frequency.
Which of the following can the student change in order double the frequency of vibration, assuming all other
variable remain unchanged?
a) have the mass of the string
b) double the wavelength
c) decrease the length of the string one fourth isoriginal length
d) quadruple the mass of the block
5. A spherical particle is travelling horizontally when it collides with a portion of a vibrating string with both ends
fixed. Assuming the string was propagating a horizontal wave, and that this collision is completely inelastic, which
set of information allows for the determination of the particle’s velocity before the collision?
a) The final velocity of the particle.
b) the density of the particle, length of the portion of string contributing to the collision, and volume of the
particle.
c) the length of the portion of string contributing to the collision, the linear density of the string, the mass of
the particle, and the final velocity of the particle.
d) the linear density of the string, the density of the particle, the volume of the particle, and the final velocity of
the particle.
Questions 6 to 45 are independent Question
6. A homogeneous copper disc of mass ‘m’ kg and radius ‘r’ mt is placed with its centre at ‘O’ in a magnetic field of
induction B Tesla so that the disc is perpendicular to the magnetic field. When the circuit is closed the disc begins
to rotate in t sec acquiring a velocity of ‘n’ revolution per second. The current in the circuit is —
O
B
+
a)
2 nm
Bt
π
b)
n m
Bt
π
c)
2
nm
Bt
π
d)
2
nm
Bt
π
7. In a circular motion of a particle the tangential acceleration of the particle is given by
2
2
t
m
a t
s
·
. The radius of the
circle described is 4m. The particle was initially at rest. Time after which total acceleration of the particle makes
45º with radial acceleration is —
a) 1 sec b) 2 sec c) 3 sec d) 4 sec
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
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8. Three nonzero vectors will have zero resultant only when
a) the cross product of resultant of any 2 vectors with third vector is zero
b) the dot product of resultant of any two vectors with the third is zero
c) all the 3 vectors are collinear
d) none of these
9. 3 Cal of heat is given to one mole of a monoatomic gas contained in a closed vessel at 300k. The fractional change
in the RMS speed of the molecules of the gas is nearly —
a)
1
300
b)
1
200
c)
1
600
d)
1
900
10. The two ends of a uniformly tapered nod are maintained at temperatures 100ºC and 0ºC respectively. Under steady
state, the temperature of the section AA’ is —
L
100ºC OºC
A
1
A
L
2
a) 50ºC b) > 50ºC c) ∠50ºC d) none of these
11. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton in hydrogen atom when they are at a distance ‘r’ is given
by
2
log U Ke r · , where K is a constant. Given e– the charge of electron/proton, m = mass of electron then
according to Bohr’s theory its velocity in n
th
orbit is —
a)
2
h
mr π
b) 2
2
n h
mr π
c)
2
Ke
nm
d)
2
Ke
m
12. A rope of mass M and length L hangs vertically. The time needed for a pulse to travel from the bottom to the
support is —
a)
2
L
g
π
b)
L
g
π
c)
2
L
g
⋅
d)
L
g
13. Sound waves of frequency 660 Hz fall normally on a perfectly reflcting wall. The shortest distance from the wall
at which the air particles vibrate with maximum amplitude is ——— (Given velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s)
a) 2 m b) 1 m c) 0.25 m d) 0.125 m
14. Two waves
1
sin(3.14 50 ) y a x t · − and 2
sin 3.14 50
3
y a x t
π  `
· + +
. ,
superposed, then the first two nodes
(x > 0) for the standing wave is —
a) 0.833 m, 1.833 m b) 0.415m, 0.930 m c) 0.677 m, 1.677 m d) 0.1667 m, 1.667 m
15. A radio active isotope is being produced at a constant rate A. The isotope has a halflife T. After a time l >> T, the
member of nuclei become constant. The value of this constant is —
a)
2
AT
l n
b) 2 AT l n ⋅ c)
2
A
l n
T
⋅
d)
AT
(3 mark)
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(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
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16. The daughter nucleus in a nuclear decay is itself radioactive. Let
p
λ and
d
λ be the decay constant of the parent
and the daughter nuclei. Also, let
p
N and
d
N be the number of parent and daughter nuclei at time ‘t’. Then
condition for which the number of daughter nuclei becomes constant is —
a)
p p d d
N N λ > λ b)
p p d d
N N λ < λ c)
p p d d
N N λ · λ d)
p
d
p d
N N
λ
λ
·
17. A cubical vesel with non transparent walls is so located that the eye of an observer does not see its bottom but see
all of the wall CD. The height of liquid
( 13/ 8) µ ·
should be poured into the vesel for the observer to see an
object ‘O’ located at a distance ‘b’ from the corner S is —
Q R
S
b
P
O
a)
2
b
b) b c) 2b d) 3b
18. In Young’s double slit experiment (S
1
S
2
=d) given S
1
S – S
2
S =
2
λ
, where
λ
= wavelength of light used. Then
central fringe of fring pattern forms at —
S
S
1
S
2
D
O
Screen
a) point O b) a distance
2
D
d
λ
above the point O
c) a distance
2
D
d
λ
below the point O d) none of these
19. A parallel sided slab has its refractive index variying linearly with the distance from one parallel side, from
1
µ , at
the first side to
2
µ , at the opposite side. The slab is placed in a medium of refractive index
0
µ . If a parallel beam
monochromatic light is incident on the first surface from the outside medium at an angle of incidence α, the angle
of emergence from the second face is —
a)
1
2
µ
⋅ α
µ
b)
1 1
2
sin sin
−
] µ
⋅ α
]
µ
]
c)
1 1
2
sin sin
−
] µ
α
]
µ
]
d) α
(3 mark)
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(3 mark)
(3 mark)
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20. Two lenses A and B are placed at closer seperation as shown. The focal length of combination of these two lenses
is f. An opaque screen ‘SS’ is introduced between them as shown, blocking half the space. The resulting focal
length of combination in —
S
S
a)
2
f
b) 2 f c) f d) cannot be determined
21. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 650nm and 520nm is used to obtain interference fringes in Young’s
double slit experiment. The distance between slits is 2mm, and between the planes of slits and screen is 120cm.
The least distance from the central maximum, where the bright fringes due to both waveleng coincide is —
a) 156 mm b) 1.56 cm c) 1.44 cm d) 144 mn
22. The time constant of the circuit shown is — (L–Inductance, R–Resistance) :
L
L
R
R
a)
L
R
b)
4L
R
c)
2
L
R
d)
3
4
L
R
23. Magnetic flux linked with a stationary loop of resistance R varies with respect to time (t) during the time period T
as : ( ) at T t · − φ , where a is a constant. Calculate the amount of heat generated in the loop during that time.
Assume the inductance of the coil as negligible.
a)
3
4
aT
R
b)
2 3
4
a T
R
c)
3 3
3
a T
R
d)
2 3
3
a T
R
24. In a certain polytropic process, the volume argon was increased by 4 times and pressure decreased by 8 times
simultaneously. The molar heat capacity of argon in this process is ——(Assume argon to be ideal)
a)
4.2J
k mol −
b)
4.2J
k mol
−
−
c)
8.4J
k mol −
d)
8.4J
k mol
−
−
25. The initial velocity of a particle of mass 2kg is
( )
4 4 i j +
G G
m/s. A constant force of
20 j N −
G
is applied on the
particle. Initially the particle was at (0, 0). The xcoordinates of the point where its ycoordinate is again zero is —
a) 3.2m b) 6 m c) 4.8 m d) 1.2 m
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
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26. A small ball of mass ‘m’ is connected to a wire (AB) and a cord (BC) as shown. If the cord is cut then ratio of
tension in supporting wire immediately after the cord is cut to that in the wire before the cord is cut is —
A
B
C
m
a) 0 b) 1 c)
2
cos θ d)
2
sin θ
27. Orbital velocity is a certain orbit (1) is same as the escape velocity from some other orbit (2). The ratio for the
amount of energy to be imparted to a satellite in order to transfer it from circular orbit (2) to (1), to gravitational
potential energy is orbit (1) will be —
a)
4
3
b)
3
4
c)
5
4
d)
4
5
28. A billiard ball rolls without slipping across a horizontal table and hits a vertical wall. During the impact both the
ball and the wall deform elastically. The coefficient of friction of the ball against the wall is µ. If both gravity and
rolling friction during impart neglected, the angle to the horizontal at which the ball will rebound from the wall is
—
a)
1
tan
−
µ b)
1
1
tan
−
 `
µ
. ,
c)
1
tan
2
−
µ  `
. ,
d)
1
tan (2 )
−
µ
29. A uniform circular disc which rolls without slipping with a velocity ‘v’ encounters an abrupt change in the direction
of its motion as it rolls on to the incline ‘
θ
’. The new velocity v
1
of the centre of the disc as it start up the
incline is —
V
a)
(1 2cos )
3
V + θ
b)
(1 2cos )
3
V − θ
c) (sin ) V θ d) cos V θ
30. A particle executes SHM in a straight line. In the first second starting from rest it travels a distance ‘a’ and in the
next second a distance ‘b’ in same direction. The amptitude is —
a)
2
2
3
a
a b −
b)
2
3
a
a b −
c)
2a b −
d)
a b −
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(6 mark)
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31. Calculate the natural frequency of the oscillation of spring (spring constant = K) loaded with a mass ‘m’ when it is
set in motion. Both the springs are identical and are in tension all time.
m
K
K
a)
1
2
K
m π
b)
1 2
2
K
m π
c)
1
2 2
K
m π
d)
1
2
m
K π
32. Two point charges q
1
and q
2
are placed at A and B curve drawn represent the distribution of potential due to the
charges along the line connecting the charges. The curve indicates that
V V
P
q
1
q
2
a) charges q
1
and q
2
are same in nature b) charges q
1
and q
2
are opposite in nature
c) electric field intensity at point P is zero d) none of the above
33. A metallic wire PQR in the shape of a radius ‘a’ slides with constant velocity ‘v’ is a uniform magnetic field of
induction ‘B’ as shown resistance ‘R’ is —
V R
P
Q
a)
BV a
R
π
b)
BV a
R
c)
2BV a
R
d) zero
34. A cylindrical container of height h and area A, is immersed in water to a depth ho. A small hole of area A
2
appears
in the bottom of the container. The time in which the container sinks is ——(Neglect atmospheric pressure)
a)
2
1
( )
2
A h ho
A gho
·
b)
1
2
2
Ah
A gho
c)
1
2
( )
2
A h ho
A gho
−
d)
1
2
2 ( )
A h
A g h ho −
(3 mark)
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(3 mark)
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35. A uniform elastic plank moves over a smooth horizontal plane due to a constant force F distributed uniformally
over the end face. The surface of the end face is equal to A and Young’s modulus of the material to Y. The strain
of the plank in the direction of the acting force is —
a)
3
F
AY
b)
2
F
AY
c)
F
AY
d)
3
2
F
AY
36. A uniformly charged semi circular loop of radius R carries a uniformly distributed positive charge q as shown. The
net electric field at the centre of loop is —
+
Y
X
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
a) zero b) 2 2
0
along Y axis
4
q
R π ε
c) 2 2
0
2
along  axis
q
x
R π ε
d) 2 2
0
along  axis
2
q
x
R π ε
37. Gas at pressure P
0
is contained in a vessel of the masses of all the molecules are halved and their speed doubled, the
resulting pressure P will be —
a) 4 P
0
b) 2 P
0
c) P
0
d) P
0
/2
38. In the circuit shown, the final voltage drop (in steady state) across the capacitor ‘C’ is —
C
V r
3
r
2
r
1
a)
1 2
1 2 3
( ) V r r
r r r
+
+ +
b)
1 2
2
( ) V r r
r
+
c)
2
1 2
V r
r r +
d)
1
1 2
V r
r r +
39. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the ratio 1 : 2 are carrying curents in the ratio 4:1. The ratio
of the drift speed of electrons in A and B is —
a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 1 : 16 d) 16 : 1
(3 mark)
(6 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
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40. A cell of emf ε and internal resistance r is connected in series with a variable resistance. The potential difference
(V) of the cell is measured for different values of current (I) external resistance. V and I is shown in figure. Internal
resistance is —
V
o, q
p, o
I
a) P b) q c)
P
q
d)
q
P
41. Consider a circuit that consists of four ressitors (each with R = 1
MΩ
), a capacitor µΩ). 1 (C · and a battery (V
= 10 MV) as shown. If the capacitor is fully charged and then the battery is removed, find the current at t = 0.5 s as
the capacitor discharges.
R
C
V
R
R
R
a) 40 A b) 20 A c) 24.3 A d) 5.4 A
42. The propagation of sound in a gas may be modeled as adiabatic in nature. For a three degree of freedeom ideal gas,
by what factor does the sound speed change when the presure is doubled at constant density ?
a) increases by factor
2
b) decrease by factor
2
c) increases by factor 2 d) decrease by factor 2
43. Board A is placed on board B as shown. Both boards slide. Without moving with respect to each other, along a
frictionless horizontal surface at a speed v. Board B hits a resting board C “headon.” After the collision, boards B
and C move together, and board A slides on top of board C and stops ats motion relative to C in the position shown
on the diagram. What is the length of each board ? All three boards have the same mass, size, and shape. It is
known there is no friction between boards A and B; the coefficient of kinetic friction between boards A and C is
. µ
k
A
B
C
0 v =
B
A
C
BEFORE
AFTER
a)
g
k
2
6µ
v
b)
g
k
2
4µ
v
c)
g
k
2
2µ
v
d)
g
k
2
µ
v
(3 mark)
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(3 mark)
(6 mark)
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44. Refer to the diagram below. A very large, charged plate floats in deep space. Due to the charge on the plate, a
constant electric field E exists everywhere above the plate. An object with mass m and and charge q is shot upward
from the plate with a velocity v and at an angle
θ
. It follows the path shown reaching a height h and a range R.
Assume the effects of gravity to be negligible.
E
h
θ
R
Which of the following is true concerning the flight of the projectile shown ?
a) Increasing the mass m decreases the maximum height h.
b) Increasing the charge q increases the maximum height h
c) Increasing the mass m decreases the downward acceleration.
d) Increasing the charge q decreases the downward acceleration
45. Refer to the diagram below. inside a vacuum chamber, a point charge
1
q is separated by a distance d from the
surface of a hollow sphere with a radius r and made from a conducting material. The sphere has a charge . q
2
(Note: k is the Coulomb’s law constant).
. q
2
d
1
q
When
1
q is removed, the force on the sphere charges. Which of the following represents the time between the
moment
1
q is removed and the moment the sphere experiences any change in force ?
a) The sphere feels the change instantaneously
b)
) 10 3 /(
8
× d
c)
d / ) 10 3 (
8
×
d)
) 10 3 /( ) (
8
× + r d
Questions 46  50 are based on the following passage
A Vast majority of worldwide energy production comes from the combustion of fossil fuels or products derived
from fossil fuels. As energy demands constantly increase, there is a growing trend to supplant these less desirable
forms of energy production with cleaner renewable alternatives such as wind, solar and hydroelectric power.
solar power generation leverages the photovoltaic effect to convert sunlight into electricity. Initial efficiencies
ranged from 12% whereas curent technologies allow for the direct conversion of 717% of the solar energy reaching
the collection panels. these collection panels are commonly cmprised of two separate semiconductors. sandwiched
together. The amount of energy that can be generated by these panels is inversely proportional to the ratio of the
transmission intensity, I, to light intensity, I
0
:
bx
0
I I
−
· (Equation  1)
Where I
0
is the light intensity that reaches the surface of the panel, b is the absorption coefficient of the panel, and
X is the thickness. One factor that contributes to decreasing the light intensity includes the conducting element
lining the surface of the panel.
(3 mark)
(3 mark)
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Unlike solar power, where solar energy is directly converted into electricity, both wind and hydroelectric power
generation requires the conversion of kinetic energy into mechanical power, which is then used to create electrical
power. A wind turbine converts the kinetic energy of passing air molecules while a hydroelectric turbine converts
the kinetic energy of passing water molecules. Both forms of energy production proceeds through the use of a large
rotor connected to an induction generator. A siple induction generator is comprised of a flat rectangular coil rotating
in magnetic field, and the emf, ε , produced by such a generator can be calculated with the following formula.
ft) sin(2
max
π ε · ε (Equaton 2)
f NBA
max
· ε (Equation 3
Where
max
ε is the peak emf produced, N represents the number of turns in the coil, B is the constant magnetic field,
A is the area covered by the coil, f represents the number of complete rotations the coils executes per second, and
t is the duration of time that the generator is operating.
46. In the United States, the alternating emf produced power stations must oscillate at exactly 60 Hz. In order to
increase the potential voltage generated, manufacturers of generators may do all of the following EXCEPT.
a) Increase the magnetic field. b) Increase the number of turns in the coil
c) Increase the rotational speed of the generator d) Increase the overal coil size
47. Current investigation into improving the efficiency of solar power conversion includes maximizing the amount of
photons that are absorbed within the surface of collector panels. According to the passage, which of the following
would NOT be useful for this purpose:
a) Increasing the number of conducting elements to maximize electrical transmission.
b) Increase the thickness of the semiconductor plates.
c) Using mirrors to combine and concentrate more sunlight onto the panel surface.
d) Minimizing reflective loses from conducting elements.
48. Any photon striking an electron in a solar panel semiconductor must have sufficient energy to liberate that electron
without causing heat because heat significantly decreases the conductivity and lifespan materials. Currently, the
best photovoltaic substances require light in the visible range. Which of the following the would best help to
maximize energy generation
a) Use semiconductive material whose electrons are liberated at the lowest possible frequencies.
b) Coat the surface to remove infrared radiation
c) Coat the surface to remove UV radiation
d) Use a coolant to maintain a constant operating temperature.
49. A marooned physicist creates a crude hydroelectric generator hoping to use the kinetic energy of a small waterfall
as a source of energy for his radio. Given a mechanical efficiency of 75%, power and AC cycling frequency
requirement of 20 watts and 60 Hz respectively, along with a voltage requirement of
' rms
V 120 how far below the
top of the waterfall should he place his generator ? (NOTE: Assume that 1kg of water strikes the surface of the rotor
per second, and neglect air resistance)
a) 2 . 04 m b) 2 . 72 m
c) 6 . 44 m d) 27 . 2 m
50. Wind turbines are giant fans mounted high above the ground. They are subject to shear forces from high winds on
their rotor blades and mounting poles. To minimize the possible damage due to bending from extreme winds,
engineers may employ all of the following EXCEPT.
a) Decrease the height of the mounting pole. Minimize the rotor blae profile to
b) decrease the force exerted on the wind turbine.
c) Increase the rotor blade size to maximize the conversion of the kinetic energy contained in high winds.
d) Decrease the total number of rotor blades.
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Paper  I I : Mathematics  51 to 100
Questions 51  54 are based on the following passage
Let ( ) f x be a function and a be a point within or without the domain of ( ) f x . Then we say that
1. ( ) f x has an infinite discontinuity at x a · if
( )
x a
Lt f x
−
→
or
( )
x a
Lt f x
+
→
is infinite.
2. ( ) f x has oscillating discontinuity at x a · if
( )
x a
Lt f x
−
→
and
( )
x a
Lt f x
+
→
lie in a certain range but do not
approach to a definite value at x a · .
3. ( ) f x has jump ........ both exist finitely but their values are unequal. We define
( ) ( )
x a x a
Lt f x Lt f x
− +
→ →
−
=
jump function at x a · .
4. ( ) f x has a removable discontinuity at x a · if
( ) & ( )
x a x a
Lt f x Lt f x
− +
→ →
both exist finitely & their values
are equal but this value is ( ) f a ≠ . Such a function can be made continuous by redefining the function at
x a · so that
( ) ( ) ( )
x a x a
Lt f x Lt f x f a
− +
→ →
· ·
.
51. The function defined by
1
,
( )
1
,
x a
x a
x a
f x
e
O x a
−
− ¹
≠
¹
¹
·
'
+
¹
·
¹
¹
at x a · .
(a) is constant (b) has removable discontinuity
(c) has jump discontinuity (d) has infinite discontinuity
52. The function
1
cos , 0
( )
, 0
x
f x x
O x
¹
≠
¹
·
'
¹
·
¹
at
0 x ·
.
(a) is constant (b) has removable discontinuity
(c) has jump discontinuity (d) has oscillating discontinuity
53. The function
( )
sin log , 0
( )
, 0
e
x x
f x
O x
¹
≠
¹
·
'
· ¹
¹
at 0 x · .
(a) is constant (b) has removable discontinuity
(c) has jump discontinuity (d) has oscillating discontinuity
54. The function
1
sin , 0
( )
, 0
m
x x
f x x
O x
¹
≠
¹
·
'
¹
·
¹
is constant at 0 x · if
(a)
m O ≥
(b)
m O >
(c)
1 m ≥
(d) both (b) & (c)
Questions 55  95 are independent questions
55. If the square root of
2 2
2 2
1 31
is , then is
2 16
x y x y x y i
m
y x i y x y x m
 `  `
+ + + + t + −
. , . ,
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) none of these
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56. The angle θ between the line az + az =0 and its reflection in real axis is given by
a) 2 2
Re(a) Im (a)
tan θ =
(Re( )) (Im( )) a a −
b)
2 2
Re a Im (a)
tan θ =
(Re( )) (Im( )) a a
⋅
 `
. ,
+
c) 2 2
2Re (a) Im (a)
tan θ =
(Re( )) (Im( )) a a −
d) none of these
57 Let I be the incenter of triangle ABC. Let the incircle of ABC touch the sides BC, CA and AB at K, L and M
respectively. The line through B parallel to MK meets the lines LM and LK at at R and S, respectively.
Angle RIS is
a) acute b) obtuse c) right angle d) any of these
58. Two circles

1
I and

2
I intersect at M and N.
Let l be the common tangent to

1
I and

2
I so that M is closer to l than N is. Let l touch

1
I at A and

2
I at B.
Let the line thorugh M parallel to l meet the circle

1
I again at C and the circle

2
I again at D.
Lines CA and DB meet at E; lines AN and CD meet at P; lines BN and CD meet at Q, then
a) MP = MQ b) EP = EQ c) AP = CP d) both a & b
59. Show that
0
lim
( 3)
n
n
k
k
n
k
C
n k
→∞
·
·
+
∑
a) (2  e) b) does not exist c) e  2 d) e
60. The function
2 2
( ) ( 1) [ 3 2  cos( ) is not differentiable at f x x x x x · − − + +
a) 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
61. Find the points of discontinuity of
2
1
,
2
y
u u
·
+ −
where
1
1
u
x
·
−
a)
1
, 1, 2
2
b)
1
, 1, 2
2
−
c) 0, 1 d) 1, 2
62. The number of rectangels excluding squares from a rectangle of size 9 6 × is
a) 789 b) 790 c) 791 d) none of these
63. In a city no person have identical set of teeth and there is no human person without a tooth. Also no person has
more than 32 teeth. If we disregard the shape and size of tooth and consider only the positioning of the teeth, then
the maximum population of the city is
a)
32
2
b)
32
2 1 −
c)
32
2 1 +
d) none of these
64. To avoid detection at customs, a smuggler has placed six narcotic tablets in a bottle containing nine vitamin pills
that are similar in appearance. If the customs official selects three of the tablets at random for analysis, then the
probability that smuggler will be arrested for illegal possession of narcotics is
a)
12
65
b)
53
65
c)
1
65
d) none of these
65. If ‘head’ means one and ‘tail’ means two, then coefficient of quadratic equation
2
0 ax bx c + + ·
are chosen by
tossing three fair coins. The probability that roots of the equations are imaginary is
a) 5/8 b) 3/8 c) 7/8 d) 1/8
66. Let a, b, c be real. If
2
0 ax bx c + + ·
has two real roots α and β, where α < 1 and β > 1, then
a)
1 0
c b
a a
+ + <
b)
1 0
c b
a a
+ + <
c)
1 0
c b
a a
+ + <
d)
0
b c
a
+
<
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67. Find the value of :
1 1 1
1
cos(2 cos sin ) , where 0 cos π
5
x x at x x
− −
+ · ≤ ≤
and
1
π/2 sin π/2. x − ≤ ≤
a)
2 6
5
t
b)
2 6
5
c)
2 6
5
−
d) does not exist
68. Evaluate 8/ 7 6/ 7
( ) ( )
dx
x a x b + −
∫
a)
1
7
7
( )
x b
c
a b x a
−  `
+
+ +
. ,
b)
1
7
7
( )
x a
c
a b x b
+  `
+
+ −
. ,
c)
1
7
7
( )
x a
c
a b x b
+  `
+
− −
. ,
d)
1
7
7
( )
x b
c
a b x a
−  `
+
− +
. ,
69. Solve
4
4
sin
cos
( )
(cos 2 ) ( )
t
t
f z dz
I
f t z f z
−
·
− +
∫
a)
2
1 1
sin 2
2 4
t − b)
2
1 1
sin 2
2 4
t − + c)
2
1
1 sin 2
2
t − + d)
2
1 1
sin 2
2 2
t − +
70. Determine the area of the figure bounded by two branches of the curve
2 3
( ) y x x − · and the straight line x = 1.
Y
O
1/2
1
2
x = 1
y = x  x x
x
x
y
+
=
a) 0 b)
4
5
c)
2
5
d)
1
5
71. Find the equation of the curve such that the square of the intercept cut off by any tangent from the yaxis is equal to
the product of the coordinates of the point of tangency.
a) y = ce b)
y
x
y 2 log t ·
c)
x = ce
y
x
d)
2
x = ce
y
x
+
72. The sum of the torques about any point in the plane of the polygon of forces represented by the sides of the polygon
taken in order is.
a) twice the vector area b) vector area of closed plane
c) nothing can be said d) proportional to area of polygon
73. Given that vectors, A, B, C from a triangle such that A = B + C. Find a, b, c, d such that the area of the triangle
is
5 6
where A = ai + bJ + cK. B = di + 3j + 4k, C = 3i + j  2k.
a) 8, 4, 2, 11 b) 8, 4, 2, 11 c) 3, 4, 2, 5 d) 3, 4, 2, 5
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74. The curves
2
4 y ax · and
2 3
4 ay x · intersect each other at an angle of
1
tan (1/ 2)
−
and also if
1
PG and
2
PG be the
normals to the two curves at common point of intersection (which is not orgin) meeting the axis of x in
1
G and
2
G ,
then
1 2
G G ? ·
a) 5a b) 4a c) 2a d) 10a
75. If cos (x  y), cos x and cos (x + y) are in H.P., then cos x. sec
2
y
is equal to
a)
2
b)
2 −
c)
2 t
d) none of these
76. Given that (1 1 ) tan 1 1 , x x x + + · + − then value of sin 4x is equal to
a) x b) 2x c) 3x d) 4x
77. A variable line thro’ P with coordinates (2, 1) cuts the axis in A, B resp. Q is a point on AB such that PA, PQ and
PB are in H.P. Then the locus of Q is a straight line.
a) x = 2y b) x = 2y + 1 c) x = 2y + 2 d) x = y + 2
78. If the line 3 y x · cuts the curve
3 3 2 2
3 5 3 4 5 1 0 x y xy x y x y + + + + + + − · at the points A, B, C, then OA.OB.OC
is
a)
4
(3 3 1)
13
−
b)
3 3 1 +
c)
2
7
3
+
d) none of these
79. The equation of four circles are
2 2 2
( ) ( ) . x a y a c t + t · The radius of a circle touching all the four circles is
a) ( 2 1) or ( 2 1) a a − + b) 2 2 a
c) (2 2)a − d) (2 2)a +
80. If from a point A, the two tangents drawn to the parabola
2
4 y ax · are normals to the parabola
2
4 , x by · then
a)
2 2
2 a b >
b)
2 2
4 a b <
c)
2 2
8 a b >
d)
2 2
7 a b ·
81. If the polar of
2 2
2 2
1
x y
a b
+ ·
is always touching the curve
2 2
2 2
1,
x y
b a
+ ·
then the locus of the pole is
a) parabola b) ellipse c) hyperbola d) circle
82. If the sum of the slopes of the normal from a point ‘P’ to the hyperbola
2
xy c · is equal to
+
λ(λ R ), ∈ then locus of
point ‘P’ is
a)
2 2
x c λ · b)
2 2
y c λ · c)
2
xy c λ · d) none of these
83. Given lines are x + 2y + 3z + 4 = 0, 2x + 3y + 4z + 5 = 0
The axes being rectangular, find the equation of the perpendicular from the origin to the line
a)
2 1 4
x y z
· · b)
2 1 4
x y z
· ·
− −
c)
2 1 4
x y z
· ·
−
d)
2 1 4
x y z
· ·
−
84. Graph of the equation
2 2
0 y z + · in three dimensional space is
a) xaxis b) y  axis c) zaxis d) yzplane
85. If sum of the first 2n terms of the A.P., 2, 5, 8,.......is equal to the sum of first n terms of the A.P. 57, 59, 61...., then
n equals
a) 10 b) 12 c) 11 d) 13
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86. If a, b, c d are four distinct positive numbers in H.P., then
a)
2 2 2
2 a c b + >
b)
3 2 3
2 b d c + >
c)
5 5 5
a c b + >
d) all of these
87. The expression
2 2
4 4  sinθ  cos θ x x + attains the minimum value
a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 0
88. If A = 840°, then 2 sin
2
A  `
. ,
euqals
a)
1 sin 1 sin A A + + −
b)
1 sin 1 sin A A − + + −
c)
1+ sinA  1  sinA
d)
1+ sinA  1  sinA −
89. Taking the function f(x) = (x  3) log x,
There is at leat one value of x in (1, 3) which satisfies
a) x log x = 3  x b) x log x = 3 + x c) x log x = x  3 d) x log x =  3 x
90. Let
2
1
( ) ,1 4. [.]
[ ]
x
f x x
x
+
· ≤ ≤
denotes the greatest integer function. Then
a) f(x) is monotonically decreasing [1, 3, 9] b) f(x) is monotonically increasing in [1, 3, 9]
c) The greatest value of f(x) is
17
2
d) The least value of f(x) is 2
91. Suppose, f(x) is a function satisfying the following conditions :
(i) f(0) = 2, f(1) = 1;
(ii) f has a minimum value at x = 5/2 and
iii) For all x
b ax b ax b ax
b b
b ax ax ax
x f
+ + + +
− +
+ + −
·
2 1 2 2 ) ( 2
1 1
1 2 1 2 2
) ( '
The constants a, b respectively will be
a)
1 5
,
4 8
b)
1 5
,
4 4
c)
1 5
,
4 4
− d)
1 5
,
4 4
− −
92. Number of solutions of sin
2 2
2π x = x π 1is
2
x
+ + +
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) none of these
93. In the expansion of (1 ) (1 ) (1 ) ,
n n n
x y z + + + sum of the coefficients of the terms of degree r’ is
a)
3
n
r
C b) 3
n
r
C c)
3n
r
C d)
2
3.
n
r
C
94. Solution set of the inequality
x
x
/ 1
2
25
1
5
,
`
.

>
+
is
a) (2, 0) b) (2, 2) c) (5, 5) d) ) , 0 ( ∞
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95. If
, 1
3
1
3
1
3
72
>
,
`
.

,
`
.

x x
then
a) ) 1 , 0 [ ∈ x b) ) 16 , 0 [ ∈ x c) ) 64 , 0 [ ∈ x d) none of these
Questions 96  100 are based on the following passage
(IV)
3 2
( ) , 0 f x ax bx cx d a · + + + > then
1 2
( ) 3 2 f x ax bx c · + + .
Case:1
1
( ) 0 f x · has no real roots. Then ( ) f x always increases as x increases & ( ) 0 f x ·
has one real root.
Case:2
1
( ) 0 f x · has two distinct roots & α β ( ) α< β . If ( ) ( ) 0 f f α β > then ( ) 0 f x · has one real root.
Case:3
1
( ) 0 f x · has two distinct roots & α β ( ) α< β . If ( ) ( ) 0 f f α β < then the equation ( ) 0 f x · has
three real roots.
Case:4
1
( ) 0 f x · has two distinct roots & α β ( ) α< β , but ( ) 0 f β · , also in this case ( ) 0 f x · has
repeated root & one other root.
(β, 0)
In general, the equation ( ) 0 g x · has a repeated root , x · α if
1
( ) ( ) 0 g g α · α · .
96. The equation
3
3 1 0 x x − + ·
has
(a) three distinct real root (b) one repeated & one different root
(c) only one real root which is not repeated (d) only one repeated root
97. The no. of integral roots of the equation in previous question is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
98. If the roots of
3
3 1 0 x x − + · has roots , , α β γ then the value of [ ] [ ] [ ] α + β + γ is
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) –1 (d) not defined as all roots are not real
99. The equation
3 2
8 20 6 9 0 x x x − + + ·
has
(a) one repeated root (b) all distinct real roots
(c) all roots repeated (d) only one real root which is not repeated
100. The solution set of the equation given in (1) is
a)
1 1 3
, ,
2 6 2
− ¹ ¹
' '
¹ ¹
b)
1 3
,
6 2
¹ ¹
' '
¹ ¹
c)
1 3
,
2 2
− ¹ ¹
' '
¹ ¹
d)
3
2
¹ ¹
' '
¹ ¹
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Questions 101 to 105 are based on the following passage
A chemist is studying the boiling points of various silanes. Due to similarities in reactivity, many silanes exist as
mistures with a variety of molecular formulas. In order to determine the boiling point of a pure silane, individual
compounds must be separated by distillation.
Experiment  1 : A mixture of silanes is placed in a distillation apparatus at  115
0
C. The temperature is slowly
raised. Between  113
0
C and 109
0
C, a colorless vapor boils off the liquid mixture. This is collected and labeled
Flask A. the chemist continues to raise the temperature, and another vapor is collected between 17
0
C and 12
0
C.
This is labeled Flask B. Between 50
0
C and 54
0
C, a third sample is collected and labeled Flask C. Finally, the
remainder of the mixture boils between 84
0
C and 85
0
C. This is collected in Flask D.
Experiment  2 : The chemist injects 25 L µ of the sample from Flask D into a gas chromatograph. Analysis of the
results shows that the sample is a mixture of straightchain and branchedchain isomers. Expriment 3 Flasks A, B,
C, and D are analyzed individually to give the boiling point data in Table  1
Silane Normal Boiling Point (
0
C)
SiH
4
111.8
Si
2
H
6
14.5
Si
3
H
8
52.9
Si
4
H
10
84.3
Table 1
For comparison, the boiling points of several lowmolecular weight hydrocarbons are shown in Table  2
Hydrocarbon Normal Boiling Point (
0
C)
CH
4
 164
C
2
H
6
 88.6
C
3
H
6
 44
C
4
H
10
 05
Table  2
101. Many lowmolecular weight hydrocarbons are gases under standard conditions, making a determination of the
boiling point difficult. What might a chemist do to determine the boiling point of a low  molecular weight
hydrocarbon?
a) Lower the temperature at which the determinations are made
b) Pressures, then extrapolate the curve to I atm
c) Mix the hydrocrbons with suitably highermolecular weight compounds, then determine the boiling point of
the mixture.
d) Determine the boiling point at lower pressures, then extrapolate the curve to 1 atm.
102. Compared with hydrocarbons of the same general moelcular formula, the boiling points of silanes are:
a) Higher, because of the greater number of electrons and stronger intermolecular forces in siliconbased
compounds.
b) Higher, because of the lower number of electrons and weaker intermolecular forces in siliconbased
compounds.
c) Lower, because of the lower number of electrons and weaker intermolecular forces in siliconbased compounds.
d) Lower, because of the greater number of electrons and stronger intermolecular forces in siliconbased
compounds.
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103. Which of the following quantum numbers correspond to the outermost valence electron of silicon?
a) n = 2; ℓ = 2 b) n=2; ℓ = 1
c) n = 3; ℓ = 1 d) n = 3; ℓ = 2
104. Which of the Si
4
H
10
isomers would be expected to have the higher boiling point?
a) The straightchain isomer, because there are more sites for hydrogen bonding.
b) The straightchain isomer, because there is more opportunity for V an der Waals interactions.
c) The branchedchain isomer, because V an der Waals interactions are more significant with substituted
structures.
d) Neither, the structure does not affect the boiling point.
105. Why does the chemist observe a range of boiling temperatures for each silane compound?
I. minute differences in the structure of each compound cause differences in the boiling points.
II. Each additional compound in the mixture acts a solute
III. The substance that boils off is impure
a) I only b) II only
c) I and III only d) II and III only
Questions 106 to 145 are independent Question
106. Both
2 2
O H and
3
O acts as oxidising agents. The oxidising action in which they are similar
1)
4
PbSO to PbS 2)
+ + 3 2
Fe to Fe
3) ] ) ( [ K to ] ) ( [
6 3 6 4
CN Fe CN Fe K 4) decolourising of acidified
4
KMnO
Which of the given statement(s) match with the main statement.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) none
107.
4 2
SO Na is water soluble but
4
BaSO is insoluble because
1) The hydration energy of
4 2
SO Na is higher than that of its lattice energy
2) the hydration energy of
4 2
SO Na is less than that of its lattice energy
3) the hydration energy of
4
BaSO is less than that of its lattice energy
4) the hydration energy of
4
BaSO is higher than that of its lattice energy
Which of the given statement(s) match with the main statement.
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 2, 4
108.
4
C(OH) is unstable because a carbon atom cannot hold more than one OH groups but
4
Si(OH) is a stable
compound because
1) CO bond energy is low 2) CO bond energy is high
3) SiO bond energy is low 4) SiO bond energy is high
Which of the given statement(s) match with the main statement.
a) 1, 4 b) 1, 3 c) 1, 2 d) none
(3 mark)
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109. Which of the following statements concern with transition metals ?
1) Compounds containing ions of transition elements are usually coloured
2) the most stable oxidation state is + 3.
3) they show variable oxidation states, which differ by two units only
4) they easily form complexes.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) none
110. In electrorefining of metals, anode and cathode are madeup of impure metal and a strip, a puremetal respectively
while the electrolyte is solution of a complex metal salt. This method cannot be applied for the refining of
a) Copper b) Sodium c) Aluminium d) Zink and Silver
111. A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution, which is neutral to litmus. When silver nitrate
solution is added to this solution, a white precipitate is formed which does not dissolve in dilute
3
HNO . The
acidic would be
a)
 2
3
CO
b)

Cl
c)
 2
3
SO
d)

Br
112. Amongst the following, choose the correct statement(s)
1) atomic hydrogen is obtained by passing hydrogen through an electric arc.
2) hydrogen gas will not reduce heated aluminium oxide.
3) finely divided paladium absorbs large amount of hydrogen gas
4) pure nascent hydrogen is the beast obtained by reacting Na with OH H C
5 2
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) none
113. If one measures the gradient of the e.m.f of a cell with respect to temperature the end result will be a value for
a)
∆H
of the cell reaction b) the heat of the cell reaction
c)
∆S
of the cell reaction d)
∆G
of the cell reaction
114. The average osmotic pressure π ,of blood is 12.3 atm at 27°C . What concentration of glucose ,
6 12 6
C H O
will be isotonic with blood ?
a) 2.0M b) 0.025M c) 0.5M d) 1.5M
115. A balloon initially contains 20 grams of helium at a pressure of 1000 torr . After some helium is let out of the
balloon ,the new pressure is 900torr ,and the volume is half of what is was .If the temperature has not changed ,how
much helium is now in the balloon ?
a) 9 grams b) 10 grams c) 11 grams d) cannot
116. In a titration of
2 3
Na CO with HCl,which of the relations shown below would yield the molarity of HCl to pH 4 end
point ?
2 3 2 3
2HCl+Na CO H CO +2NaCl U
a)
2 3
2 3
(gNa CO ) (2)
(mol.wt.Na CO ) (ml HCl/1000)
b)
2 3
1
( gNa CO )
2
(mol HCl/1000)
 `
. ,
c)
2 3
1
( moles Na CO )
2
(ml HCl/1000)
 `
. ,
d)
2 3
moles Na CO
(ml HCl/1000)
(3 mark)
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(3 mark)
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117. Which of the following explains the pressure and volumes deviations in a real gas compared to an ideal gas ?
I Ideal gas molecules don’t have volume and real gas molecules do
II Ideal gas molecules don’t exert forces on one another and real gas molecules do
III Ideal gas molecules all move at the same speed for a given temperature , whereas the speed of real gas
molecules varies within a sample of gas at a given temperature
a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I , II and III
118. Reaction chambers A and B both contain equal amounts of pure 1butene. A catalyst for the isomerization of
1butene to 2  butene is added to chamber A . Assuming there are no other products ,and that both chambers
eventually reach equilibrium:
a) chamber A will always contain at least as much 2butene as chamber B, with the difference increasing over
time.
b) chamber A will always contain at least as much 2 butene as chamber B, with the difference first increasing, but
then decreasing over time.
c) chamber A will always contain at least as much 2butene as chamber B, with the difference first decreasing,
but then increasing over time.
d) chamber B will always contain at least as much2 butene as chamber A, with the difference increasing over
time.
119. Direction : Use the following information to answer the question Objects radiate heat at a rate given by the
following equation.
4
AT P σε ·
where P is the rate at which heat is radiated, σ is the StefanBoltzman constant
), K m W 10 (5.67
4 2 8 − − −
×
ε is
the emissivity of the object’s surface having a value between zero and one, A is the surface area, and T is the
temperature in Kelvin.
The rate at which objects absorb heat from their environment is given by the same equation except that T is the
temperature of the environment. The net rate of energy exchange due to radiative processes is given by :
) ( P
4 4
n
T T A
env
− ·σε
where
n
P is the net rate of energy exchange and
env
T is the temperature of the environment.
A black body radiator has an emissivity of :
a) 0 b) 0.5
c) 1.0 d) The emissivity of a blackbody radiator may vary.
120. Hexane is infinitely soluble in octane Why ?
a) Because hexane and octane have similar molecular weights
b) Because the hexaneoctane intermolecular bond is much stronger than either the hexanehexane or the
octaneoctane intermolecular bonds
c) Because hexane can hydrogen bond to octane
d) Because the entropy increase upon mixing the two materials is the dominant factor in the free energy change
when the two are mixed.
121. Suppose the amount of material undergoing an oxidation reduction reaction doubles, but all other conditions
remain the same. Which of the following also doubles ?
I) Free energy changes
II) Total change flow
III) Potential
a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) II and III only
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122. Direction : Cocaine is stimulant that is isolated from coca leaves Refer to the structure of cocaine shown below
to answer question
3
CH
O
O
O
O
4
H
5
N
3
CH
9
8
7
6
1
10
11
12
3
How much p character is in the hybridised orbital on the N8 nitrogen in the cocaine structure ?
a) 33.3% b) 50% c) 66.6% d) 75%
123. Direction : A lower heat of hydrogenation indicates a more stable alkene. Refer to the table below to answer
question
Alkene
Molar heat
Of hydrogenation
ethylene
propene
1butene
cis2butene
trans2butene
cis2pentene
2methyl2butene
2, 3dimethyl2butene
137 kJ
126 kJ
127 kJ
120 kJ
116 kJ
120 kJ
113 kJ
111 kJ
Which of the following alkenes is the Most stable ?
a) ethylene b) cis2butene c) 2Methyl2butene d) 2, 3dimethyl2butene
124. In the sturcture shown below, which carbon is most nucleophilic ?
O
4 2
3
1
O
a) The carbon atom labeled 1. b) The cabon atom labelled 2.
c) The carbon atom labeled 3. d) The carbon atom labeled 4
125. The neurotransmitter shown below contains what functional groups ?
N
O
O
a) a primary amine and a carboxylic acid b) a tetriary amine and a carboxylic acid
c) a tertiary amine and an ester d) a quaternary amine and an ester
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126. The stability of most cycloalkanes (which is indicated by their higher boiling and melting points) as welll as their
nonplanar structure is not dependent upon :
a) Baeyer strain b) Strecker strain
c) Pitzer strain d) nonbonded interactions.
127. Catechol is treated with four reagents, as follows :
catechol
Cl
O
Cl CH  C
2
HCl 
A
3
POCl
B
2 3
NH CH
D C
2
H
Pd HCL −
What is the structure of D ?
a)
OH
OH
3 2 2
CH CH C H − −
b)
OH
3 2
CH CH  C  H −
COOH
OH
c)
OH
3 2
CH NH CH  C  H − −
OH
OH
d)
OH
CHO
3
CH  NH  C O =
128. Calculate the number of carbon atoms in 27.3 g of trichloroacetic acid. (Atomic weights : C = 12.0, = 35.5,
O = 16.0, H = 1.0)
a)
5 . 163 / ) 10 02 . 6 ( ) 2 ( 3 . 27
23
×
b)
5 . 163
) 2 ( 3 . 27
c)
) 10 02 . 6 ( 2
) 3 . 27 ( 5 . 163
23
×
d)
) 10 02 . 6 (
5 . 163
3 . 27
23
×
129. A 0.56g sample of iron ore is dissolved in acid,the iron is oxidized to the +3 state and then precipitated as
O. xH O Fe
2 3 2
⋅ This precipitate is filtered, washed and ignited to . O Fe
3 2
The
3 2
O Fe weighs 0.29 g. the
reaction is :
3
2 3
2Fe Fe O (s)
+
→ and the atomic weights of iron and oxygen are 55.9 and 16.0, respectively. The
percentage of iron in the sample would be equal to :
a)
8 . 159
2 ) 9 . 55 (
29 . 0
56 . 0
100 × ×
b)
56 . 0
] 8 . 159 / ) 9 . 55 2 [( 29 . 0
100
×
×
c)
8 . 159
56 . 0
) 9 . 55 ( 2
29 . 0
100 × ×
d)
56 . 0
] 29 . 0 / ) 8 . 159 2 [( 9 . 55
100
×
×
130. Which of the following statements is true of isotopes ?
a) They have different atomic numbers and the same atomic masses.
b) Their electronic configurations differ
c) slight differences in chemical behavior of isotopes (called isotope effects) influence rather the kind of
reaction than the rate of reaction itself.
d) The first ones discovered were those of neon.
131. Based on the Third Law of thermodynamics we know that all perfect crystals at absolute zero have :
a) the same enthalpy b) the same crystal lattices
c) differing A ∆ values. d) two of the above, (a) and (c)
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(6 mark)
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132. For a homologous series (nhexane, nheptane, noctane and noctane), select the graph that appropriately repre
sents the relationship between the numbers of carbon atoms and the logarithm of the retention volume ( ). V
R
a)
R
V
l
o
g
#carbon atoms
b)
R
V
l
o
g
#carbon atoms
c)
R
V
l
o
g
#carbon atoms
d)
R
V
l
o
g
#carbon atoms
133. A perpetual motion machine capable of generating increasing amounts of energy without interacting with its
surrounding cannot exist. This is best explained by the
a) First Law of Thermodynamics b) Third Law of thermodynamics
c) Energy conservation principle d) GibbsHelm holtz equation
134. An electron in a certain element can have energies of 2 . 3, 5 . 1, 5 . 3, 8 . 2, and 14 . 9 eV. is the ground state of
the electron, and no other levels exists between 14.9and 2.3 eV. Which of the following represents a partial list of
photon energies that could be absorbed by an electron in the ground state of this atom ? All energies are in electron
volts.
s) 2.3, 5.1, 5.3, 8.2, 14.9 b) 0.2, 2.8, 2.9, 6.7
c) 2.3, 5.1, 5.3, 8.2, 14.9 d) 6.7, 9.6, 9.8, 12.6, 15.0, 16.1
135. Direction : Use the following information to answer to the question
Using calculus, the the rate law for a first order reaction can be transformed to :
0 t
g[A] 303 . 2 / log[A] lo kt + − ·
where
t
[A] is the concentration of A at time t,
0
[A] is the initial concentration of A, and k is the rate constant of
the reaction. Methyl isonitrile is converted to accetonitrile in a first order process as follows :
CN(g) CH NC(g) CH
3 3
→
The rate constant for the conversion of methyl isonitrile is
. s 10 5
1 5 − −
×
A scientist has a container containing
methyl isonitrile gas with a partial pressure of 100 torr. After 12.8 hours (approx. 46,000 seconds), what is the
partial pressure of methyl isonitrile gas inside the container ?
a) 1 torr b) 10 torr c) 25 torr d) 50 torr
136. The free energy of a gas depends on its partial pressure according to the expression
). (P/P In RT G G
o o
+ ·
Which of the following plots below shows agreement with this relationship?
a)
P (atm)
(
k
j
)
G
e
n
e
r
g
y
,
F
r
e
e
2
9
8
b)
P (atm)
(
k
j
)
G
e
n
e
r
g
y
,
F
r
e
e
2
9
8
c)
P (atm)
(
k
j
)
G
e
n
e
r
g
y
,
F
r
e
e
2
9
8
d)
1 n P (atm)
(
k
j
)
G
e
n
e
r
g
y
,
F
r
e
e
2
9
8
137. Suppose a certain reaction has the rate law :
B] [ k[A] Rate
1/2
·
Which of the following can be concluded about the reaction ?
a) Two molecules of B react for every molecule of A
b) Two molecules of A react for every molecule of B
c) B reacts at twice the rate of A
d) This reaction does not take place in a single step
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138. For question refer to Habeer process shown below :
C
o
n
c
e
n
t
r
a
t
i
o
n
→ Time
A
B
C
2 2 2
N (g)+3H (g) 2NH (g) U
In 1912 Fritz Haber developed the Habber process for making ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen. His devel
opment was crucial for the German war effort of World wat I, providing the Germans with sample fixed nitrogen
for the manufacture of explosives.
The Haber process takes place at 500°C and 200 atm. It is an exothermic reaction. The graph below shows the
change in concentrations of reactants and products as the reaction progresses.
Even at the high temperatures, the conversion of nitrogen and hydrogen to ammonia was slow. In order to make the
process industrially efficient Fritz Haber used a metal oxide catalyst. Which of the following was accomplished by
use of the metal oxide catalust ?
I) The rate of production ammonia increased
II) The energy of activation was raised
III) The equilibrium shifted to the right
a) I only b) II only c) I and II only d) I, II, and III
139. Given the fact that the standard free energies of formation of water vapor and liquid water are 229 kJ/mol and
237 kJ/mol respectively, what is the free energy of the vaporization of water? Assume all measurements were
preformed at 25°C.
a) 466 kJ/mol b) 8 kJ/mol c) + 8kJ/mol d) +466 kJ/mol
140. When slat X is dissolved in water to form a 1 molar unsaturated solution, the temperature of the solution is seen
to drop. From this information, we can conclude that for dissolving this salt in water :
a)
positive all are G and , , H
o o
∆ ∆ ∆
o
S
b)
negative all are G and , , H
o o
∆ ∆ ∆
o
S
c)
negative is G positive; is H
o o
∆ ∆
d)
o o
H is positive; no conlusion can be reached about G ∆ ∆
141. Which of the following structures is an amide ?
a)
OH
b)
N H
2
O
c)
O
d)
O
HO
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142. Refer to the structure of 3β  cholestanol to answer questions
l cholestano  3β
HO
How many tertiary carbons are in 3β cholestanol ?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
143. The reaction of 1, 3butadiene with HBr is shown below. At 40°C the major product is the 1,4addition product;
however, at 80°C the major product is the 1, 2addition product. Use this information and the reaction below to
answer question
HBr
Br
addition  2 1,
addition  4 1,
Br
Which product is more thermodynamically stable ?
a) 1, 2addition product
b) 1, 4addition product
c) The products have the same stability
d) The relative stability cannot be determined.
144. The iodoform test shown below is used to identify methyl ketones. A positive test gives the yellow crystalline
3
CHI . Use the euqation shown below to answer question.
O 3H CHI O C R 4OH 3I CH  C  R
2 3 2 3
+ + − − → + +
−
O O
Why does the hydroxide substitute for the carbon group only after three iodine ions have added ?
a) The presence of the iodide atoms forms a much better leaving group
b) Iodide is a good leaving group.
c) HI is a strong acid.
d) Water is a good leaving group.
145. In the protein hemoglobin, the histidine residue is attached to the Fe of the heme group. The formation of the
bond between the histidine and the Fe is a :
a) Lewis acidbase reaction
b) condensation reaction
c) dehydration reaction
d) hydrogenation reaction
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(3 mark)
(3 mark)
Questions 146 to 150 are independent Question
Water is often referred to as the “universal solvent”. Most compounds are at least partially soluble in water. The
efficiency of water as a solvent makes the purifying of water and the handling of water difficult for certain applications.
Even in state of the art research facilities, sterile and deionized water is usually neither sterile nor devoid of solutes.
The pH of this water, for example, is often as low as 5 instead of the expected 7 for pure water. Distillation of water
9the process of evaporating and condensing water to remove impurities) is not a perfect method for purifying
water, as distilled water will leach substances out of any container or tubing in which it is placed. Furthermore,
water will dissolve gases from the air. While nitrogen gas (the main constituent in air) is inert for most purposes,
oxygen in the water can lead to oxidation of any solutes. Carbon dioxide complexes with water to form carbonic
acid, H
2
CO
3
H2CO3. Even though carbonic acid is a weak acid, the pH of a standing body of pure water will drop
steadily if left exposed to air.
Purification standards for drinking water are much less rigorous than those used in the laboratory. Techniques such
as distillation are much too energy inefficient to perform on the large scale needed for a public water supply.
Instead, water purification for drinking water mainly involves slight chlorination to kill bacteria and the removal of
most solids and particulates by sedimentation. As a result, drinking water is not pure by any real measure. The
majority of drinking water supplied to the public has a very hight mineral content consisting mostly of sodium and
calcium salts in additon to fluoride ions which are added for dental health. The presence of impurities can contribute
to proplems such as corrosion, precipitation, and bad tasting water.
146. Which of the following salts would cause the most problems by precipitation in water pipes and fixtures?
a) NaCI b) Na
2
SO
4
c) CaCI
2
d) CaSO
4
147. If the pH of carbonated water (water with dissolved carbon dioxide) is 5, what is the hydrogen ion concentration?
a) 1 x 10
5
M b) 5 M
c) 5 x 10
5
M d) 1 x 10
9
M
148. Water softeners replace calcium ions in “hard” water with sodium ions. By doing so, water softeners do all of the
following except?
a) Add more cations to the solution
b) Decrease the freezing point of the solution
c) Decrease the osmotic pressure of the solution
d) Increase the boiling point of the solution
149. Which of the following would affect the boiling point of and aqueous solution without altering
its electrical conductance?
a) Methanol b) Acetic acid
c) Sodium chloride d) Sodium benzoate
150. Under what conditions will liquid water have absolutely no ions in solution?
a) In equilibrium with ice at 0
0
C
b) As a 90% sucrose solution
c) Perfectly buffered pH 7.00 solution
d) None
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