1 MCQ Questions Preliminary examination All of these questions are based on what people remembered after exams SO IT CAN

NOT BERELIEDON 100% but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters and topics you would beasked about. Please add whatever you can after the exam ends and keep this sample in thehands of any who is sitting the exam. By the way it took me about 4 months to get this organisedthe way it is now.THANKS to all who have contributed to this and to all who will.Hadi 1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A. Avoid buccal pulp hornB. Avoid lingual pulp hornC. Remove unsupported enamelD. Conserve lingual dentine 2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should, A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistanceB. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cuspC. reduce 2mm for retention form 3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should, A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acidB. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anythingC. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly 4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. 5. The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed, A. Parallel to the outer wallB. Parallel to the long axis of tooth 6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is, A. Injecting too lowB. Injecting too high 7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation: A. SnF2B. 1.23% APFC. H2SiF2D.

CaSiF2E. 8% Stannous fluoride 8. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is, A. H2O2B. Phosphoric AcidC. Polyacrylic acid

2 9. The most mineralised part of dentine is, A. Peritubular dentine 10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of theupper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had the swelling, pain or dentalcomplaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical areaof rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is: A. Acute periapical abscessB. Angioneurotic oedemaC. Infectious mononucleosisD. Acute maxillary sinusitisE. Acute apical periodontitis 11. Internal resorption is, A. Radiolucency over unaltered canalB. Usually in a response to traumaC. Radiopacity over unaltered canal 12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see, A. Surface resorption, external resorptionB. Internal resorptionC. Inflammatory resorptionD. Replacement resorptionE. A, C and DF. All of the above 13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make in 0.5mm away from pulp is, A. 20%B. 50%

LingualC. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. Sharp curvatureC. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping? A. . What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. reparative dentineB. demineralisation. Distal 19. elongation of enamel epithelium. Elongation of enamel epithelium. sclerosis.14. sclerosis. 16. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture? A. dentine formation then enamelformation. A reversal lineB. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is. MesialD. Differentiation of odontoblast. demineralisation. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards? A. Removal of caries has exposed the pulpC. Afferent & sympathetic 18. Perio abscess like appearanceB. differentiation of odontoblast. reparative dentine. Facial / buccal/B.D.B. Zone of bacterial penetration. Differentiation of odontoblast. Displacement of fragments 20. A.B. demineralisation.C. Elongation of enamel epithelium. 3 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. A resting lineD.C. enamel formation then dentinformation. sclerosis. dentine formation thenenamel formation. Zone of bacterial penetration. A reduction in the number of tubules 15. reparative dentine. Zone of bacterial penetration. elongation of enamelepithelium. What is the correct sequence of events A. dentine formation then enamel formation. differentiation of odontoblast.

Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality 23. Following trauma to tooth. Review again later B. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operativelyE.1ml of blood from HIV patientC.1ml of blood from HIV patientB. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly e from the maxilla than from the mandibleextraction siteparalysisl dressing promote a rapid bone growthutans concentration of 10ause of RCT “Root Canal Treatment” failure is:f the upper lip with redness and drynessgingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth . Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patientD. Use spore test dailyB. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patientE. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each packageC. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil 25. the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should? A.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation? A. 0. Cleaning debris from root canal 24. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affectsD. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient? A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headacheB.When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ 21. what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred:** A. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics? A. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth? A. Start endodontic treatmentC. Obtain baseline responseB. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present 26. Decalcification of dentineB. Extraction of tooth 22. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperativelyC.

extraction sitecharacterised by:of itching and vesicalis on the upper labiumof:**using 100000 rpm and over rotors is:503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. A. To disclose the other rootsB. Posterior teeth 190. As far as you can obturateC. As close as possible to the gingival margins 193. Retentive Clasps: . Retentive part of clasp position is. Overdentures are best used for. Not to survey when making the crown 188. Use mucco-compressive impression 194. At the apexB. Above survey lineC. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimensionB. What is main reason of ordering another Periapical radiograph of the same tooth: A. To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture: A.is:not an effect of :cutting and a rougher surfacecutting and a rougher surfacercelain jacket crown is. What statement is false: A. 0.5 mm before the apex 192. A. but Co-Chrome has high modulus of elasticity A. Both are false 189. The first is true the second is falseD. A. The ideal length of RCT is. Canines and premolarsB. Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome. The first statement is false the second is trueB. 187.B. To observe tooth from different angle 191. Below the survey line.5 t0 1. Both are trueC.

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 25 199. In infected root canal. Internal resorption of RC usually A. Corticosteroid 198. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed: A. From inside to outsideB. Laterally above condensed 200. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A. Clasp arm is gingivally located 195. Alloy with high modulus of elasticityB. Mummification 197. In periodontal membrane. . From outside to inside 202. NecrosisB. Lateral CondensationB. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. the two most common micro-organisms are: A. One major Gutta Percha pointC. Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. AntibioticsB. Mechanical 203. AsymptomaticB. Painful 196. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of. you will find: A.A. A. what epithelial cells you can find: A.

Dimensional inaccuracy 209. the tissue may stick to the electrode because of . negative percussion and negative responseto palpation 205. which part of flame we will use A. The current intensity is too highB. oedema of the upper lip with redness and drynessB. negative thermal tests. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Reduced zoneB. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC. There is no caries. The occlusal plane should be below the tongueB. Contains micro filledB. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** A. Back pressure porosityB. In electro surgery. Proprioceptors 210. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interactionof afferent fibre synapses. The lingual flanges should be concave 207. A. Oxidizing zone 206. Overdenture advantage is.** A. If the investment is burnout rapidly. Better colour matching 212. what will happen: A.Gate theory about pain control is: A. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. 26 A. In melting gold. A. Puffiness around the eyes. The current intensity is too low 211. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. . Angioneurotic oedema. 204. To increase the stability of the lower denture. Cracking of the investment 208.

Chronic periodontal abscessC. Horizontal bone resorptionB. QuenchedC. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. “Main feature of suprabony pocket” A. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is: A. . Through the contacts. 1-2 mmB. A. Wrought metal is to be. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. 0-5 mm 219. Epithelial cellsC. Vertical bone resorptionC. Periodontitis occurs in. Alveolar boneB. 2-3 mmD. the most common finding is.The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by. A. Apical abscessD. In periodontitis. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. TaperingB. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) 214. FibroblastB. MarbleB. 215. A. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. Long path of insertion 213. Angular bone loss 217. 0-3 mmC. Periodontal membraneC. Acute periodontal abscessB.

Oral flora 222. The term false pocket stands for. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC. Infra bony pocketB. EDTAD. some areas of cementum appears to be soft. Tooth inclination and crowdingD. ChlorhexidineB. Eugenol 224.ErythrocytesD. The oral hygiene is not good. MasticationB. Ethyl alcoholE. A. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up”: A. Vest cells of malaiseE. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. what your first decision would be: A.mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. H2O2C. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. . Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. Salivary flowE. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. Loss of periodontal attachment 27 C. Tooth shapeC. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A.

. Traumatised teethB.Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucencyB. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cuspB. none of the aboveB. Apiectomy 225. A. Just erupted teethC. Multi-rooted teethD. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with. Leave it and observeD. General anaesthesia A. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/ . Which is not an effect of :I. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. 28 A. Advice patient about consequencesC. Root canal treatmentC. X-ray 226. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cuspC. what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. Capped teethE. Necrotic pulp 227. II and IIIE. ExtractionD. Under the disto lingual cusp 228. DiabeticsB. A. Excitement III. All of the aboveC. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. SedationII. I and IID. HypnosisV. AnalgesiaIV. Rheumatic fever 230. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is.

Paresthesia cutting and a rougher surfacecutting and a rougher surfacercelain jacket crown is. The flap designD. SerotoninB. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. II. The use of general anaesthetic 236. Apical abscessB. I. II and IIID.I. All of the aboveB. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD.characterised by:of itching and vesicalis on the upper labiumof:**using 100000 rpm and over rotors is:503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. Apical periodontitis 235. Injection in supine positionB. HistamineC. PainB. Pulpal necrosisC. BarbiturateII. Acetyl salicylic acid A. PethidineIV. III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. which are is contra indicated:I. Local anaestheticIII. Removal of enough boneB. A. Preoperative assessmentC. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI). Intravenous injection 233. None of the aboveC. Enkephalins 232. IV and V 231. . Injection into vascular areaC. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration which interferes with theocclusion A.

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Lateral CondensationB. In periodontal membrane. Angioneurotic oedema. Painful 196. One major Gutta Percha pointC. . Mummification 197. 204. Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. Corticosteroid 198. From inside to outsideB. From outside to inside 202. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interactionof afferent fibre synapses. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A.A. you will find: A. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed: A. AntibioticsB. Gate theory about pain control is: A. NecrosisB. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of. AsymptomaticB. In infected root canal. the two most common micro-organisms are: A. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. Mechanical 203. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 25 199. A. what epithelial cells you can find: A. Laterally above condensed 200.

A. If the investment is burnout rapidly. In melting gold. negative percussion and negative responseto palpation 205. The current intensity is too highB. Back pressure porosityB. Contains micro filledB. Dimensional inaccuracy 209. Cracking of the investment 208. negative thermal tests. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** A. To increase the stability of the lower denture. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC.A. In electro surgery. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. . There is no caries.** A. The lingual flanges should be concave 207. Proprioceptors 210. 26 A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Puffiness around the eyes. oedema of the upper lip with redness and drynessB. TaperingB. Oxidizing zone 206. Reduced zoneB. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. A. what will happen: A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongueB. the tissue may stick to the electrode because of . Better colour matching 212. which part of flame we will use A. The current intensity is too low 211. Overdenture advantage is. Long path of insertion 213.

2-3 mmD. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) 214. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. Periodontal membraneC. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. Acute periodontal abscessB. the most common finding is. Horizontal bone resorptionB. FibroblastB. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is: A. A. Alveolar boneB. Through the contacts. QuenchedC.Wrought metal is to be. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. 0-3 mmC. . Angular bone loss 217. Periodontitis occurs in. Vest cells of malaiseE. Epithelial cellsC. MarbleB. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. 1-2 mmB. Apical abscessD. ErythrocytesD. In periodontitis. A. Chronic periodontal abscessC. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. Vertical bone resorptionC. 0-5 mm 219. “Main feature of suprabony pocket” A. 215.

ChlorhexidineB. what your first decision would be: A. EDTAD. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. Tooth inclination and crowdingD. A. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A. Eugenol 224. some areas of cementum appears to be soft. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up”: A. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC. Oral flora 222. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Salivary flowE. Ethyl alcoholE. H2O2C. The oral hygiene is not good. MasticationB. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root.mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. Loss of periodontal attachment 27 C. Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. Apiectomy 225. ExtractionD. Root canal treatmentC. Tooth shapeC. Infra bony pocketB.The term false pocket stands for. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucencyB. .

All of the aboveC.what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/ . Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. A. Traumatised teethB. . SedationII. A. I and IID. Necrotic pulp 227. X-ray 226. none of the aboveB. I. Leave it and observeD. Multi-rooted teethD. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is. II and IIIE. SerotoninB. 28 A. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cuspC. General anaesthesia A. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with. IV and V 231. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cuspB. Just erupted teethC. Excitement III. HypnosisV. Rheumatic fever 230. DiabeticsB. AnalgesiaIV. Capped teethE. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. Advice patient about consequencesC. Under the disto lingual cusp 228. Which is not an effect of :I.

The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. II and IIID. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD. II. Local anaestheticIII. III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. Preoperative assessmentC. Tooth resorption 237. All of the aboveB. which are is contra indicated:I. BarbiturateII. Injection in supine positionB. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI). Removal of enough boneB. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip. The use of general anaesthetic 236. Acetyl salicylic acid A. Teeth movementD. Pulpal necrosisC. Apical periodontitis 235. the . I.HistamineC. The flap designD. A. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is. Intravenous injection 233. Injection into vascular areaC. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration which interferes with theocclusion A. PethidineIV. Enkephalins 232. Paresthesia 29 C. Apical abscessB. None of the aboveC. PainB.

Erythema multiforme 242. Herpes simplexC. CystD. TetracyclineB. Which two of the following conditions present as complete vesicles A. you diagnosis is** A. RanulaB. A. Uni lateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occurs frequently with meal. Mucocele 241. How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A.most commoncause is. Aphthous ulcer D. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia 240. Systemic penicillinC. Early lose of primary teethB. Sub-mandibular sialolithC. Erythema migransF. what is the possiblediagnosis: A. Facial nerve 239. which of the following would expect to find: A. Pressure on mental foramenB. Keratosis follicularisC. White sponge nevus 243. ANUGE. Nystatin + . The nerve supplies TMJ is. PemphigusB. A. Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines /Wickham’s Striae/ appears as lace-likenetwork on the buccal mucosa. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles 238. Lichen PlanusB. In cleidocranial dysplasia. Nerve to masseter C. Auricula Temporal NerveB.

244. Deficiency of . vitaminB. Fordyce’s granulesB. LeukoplakiaD. Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white lesion: A. HyperparathyroidismC. 35. 43 245. 22B. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is a result of: A. Hyperthyroidism 250. None of the above 247. The absence of lamina dura in radiograph is a feature of all of these except for:** A. 15. Osteogenesis imperfectaE. Smoker’s keratosisC.. Paget’s diseaseB. 25D. Geographic tongueD. 33. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are:** A. 12. Fibrous dysplasiaD. Lichen planus 248. Low vertical dimension 249. Koplik spotsC. What is the percentage of leukoplakia that turn into cancer:** A. 45C. . What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth: A. 10%C. Fordyce’s spotsB. 25% 246. 5%-6% 30 B.

Surgery and radiation 254. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray 252. Pain when eating cold foodD. Pain when eating hot foodC. Impression without elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown preparation. How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A. RadiationD. . Which impressionmaterial is preferred? A. Diabetic patient with moist skin. Thiokol or meraptan rubber C. Give glucoseB. Pain on percussionB. Administer adrenalineD. Fever C. it will betwo days before impression gets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. Lingually 255. Inject insulin 253. ExcisionB. Regional lymph nodeB. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess: A. Administer O2C. RotationB. moist mouth and weak pulse. Cellulitis 251. Buccally 31 C. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar: A. Polyether B. Condensation siliconeD. what would you do: A.Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present: A. Excision and extraction of teethC.

you would expect: A. sequentially trituratedD.Vinyl polysiloxane 256. A large mix to ensure homogeneityB. 95-110°E. Setting contraction of the composite resin 258. Several small mixes. The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is: A. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been etched by anacid solution. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the compositeC. Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphidesB. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 daysC. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely to be due: A. . 45-80°D. Undergo greater colour changeD. Exhibit less wear on timeC. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualitiesC. 70-85°C. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the compositeB. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during settingor in function the light cures material tends to: A. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratiosE. Seal the margins better and completelyB. 130-150° 259. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamelD. Posses greater fracture toughness 260. what type of amalgam mix would you prefer: A. Salivary pellicle growth at the interfaceE. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed 257. Shrink rapidlyE. 45-60°B.

4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface 32 262. In radiographs. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp hornIII.Continued enamel declassification in the etched areaD. All of the aboveE. 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceB. which one of the following is theMOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying adequate occlusal clearance A. Wax bite chew inB. the more number of cutting blades and low speed will result in: A. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you should consider: A. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surfaceC. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surfaceC. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceB. Slight attrition of the opposing tooth 261. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp hornIV. I and IIB. None of the above 264. Radiopaque areaB. III and IVE. In regards to carbide burs. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface 265. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp A. I I a n d I V D. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth. Larger in radiographs than actual lesionD. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the occlusal surface of class II cavity on amandibular first premolar in order to:I. IV only 263. an incipient carious lesion limited to the end of the proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as: A. 4mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceD. More efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceD. . I and IIIC. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cuspsC. Remove unsupported enamelII.

Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant reliefC. tin. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal 270. Poor B. Refer him to physician 33 B. The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is : A. one of them is mercuryD. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teethE. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been dissolved in each other inthe molten state. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swellingD. Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver. Articulating paper 266. His body temperature is 39°. The term TUGBEN?? is related to : “When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha conein endodontics” . Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM: A.Proper depth cutsC. copper and zincB. Good if apex can be sealedC. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is mixed with mercuryE. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. A right angleD. An obtuse angleC. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. What is the first thing you would do after taking history andtemperature: A. An acute angleB. fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a class II preparation for amalgam should be finished A. An angle of 45° 268. Visual inspectionD. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced 269. one of them is tin 267. The swollen area is soft. Dependant upon periapical surgeryD. the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye.C.

Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mmE. Excessive firing temperatureC. A. Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth . at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontalsupportD. Failure to anneal the platinum matrixD. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete sealC. Consistency of gutta perchaC. compared wit full ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is. One canal with one foremanB. One or two canals with one foremanC. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crown is. Two canals with one foremanD. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatmentB. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root filling. Length of the cone 271. Tensile strength of the gutta perchaB. Size of the coneD. A. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain 274. A. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healingD. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY have: A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thicknessB. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensiveoral reconstruction is whether. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant theplanned reconstruction 275. Overall conservative for tooth structureC. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of thecrownsC. An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns. A. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritationB.A. Two canals with two foremen 273. Excessive condensation of the porcelainE. Moisture contaminationB. The extension of the filling is not critical 272.

Prevent settling of major connectorsC. Stabilise against lateral movementB. Restrict tissue movement at the distal extension base of the partial dentureD. Closely related to the rugae of the palate . Be invisibleD. When a removable partial denture is terminally seated . Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth 286. Hardness was too greatC. It is used when the space between raised floor. Elastic limit was exceeded 285.35 A. Should be make thicker when short 288. the retentive clasps tips should: A. Ductility was too lowB. Morphologically related to the formation of the premaxillaC. Ultimate tensile strength was too lowD. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hard and softpalateD. Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical use probably indicates that the: A. Why do you construct a lower removable partial denture with lingual bar: A. Exert no forceC. Foramina covering the lesser palatine nerves and vesselsB. Adhesive is applied immediately before procedureD. The Fovea Palatinae are: A. Plaque accumulation is less than lingual plateC. Adhesive is preferred over perforationB. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue 284. Tension temperature was too highE. Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth 287. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom tray for elastomericimpression: A. Perforation provides adequate retentionC. mouth and gingival margin isminimalB. Apply retentive force into the body of the teethB.

It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off teeth. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be rinsed off the teethE. Increased the potential of infectionC. Alveolar bone resorption is reducedD. Composite resin 290. The gingivae of child is diagnosed on the basis of all of these except of: A. Which one of following statement about Overdenture is not correct: A. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denturetherapy: A. Sulcus depthC. Trauma to extraction site 36 B. Tight filling of gingival collar 295. Impossibility for anterior try inD. Contour of gingival papillaB. Retention and stability are generally better than with conventional complete dentureC. Which one of the following statement is correct.289. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be rinsed off teethB. Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in: A. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries andperiodontal diseases 291. Which of following restoration material its strength is not effected by pins: A. HyperparathyroidismB. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patientB. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off teethC. Excessive resorption of residual ridge 292. Which statement BEST prescribe plaque: A. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can not be rinsed offthe teethD. Von Willebrand’s syndrome 293. AmalgamB. 294. Contour of Nasmyth membraneD. .

A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strengthC. . the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum XC. It is accumulative and cause brain poisonE. Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide EugenolC. Minimum stress in structureE. 299. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failureC. Rank the following impressions materials according to their flexibility A. the powder is referred to as. A.A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>Silicone 37 D.** A. A. It is accumulative and cause kidney poisonC. It induces neoplasia in the liver D. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticleD. It induces neoplasia in the brain 298. A. the microfill resins tend tohave. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide EugenolB. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strengthD. In regards to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failureB. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle 296. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strengthB. Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide 300. Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide EugenolE. It is accumulative and cause liver poisonB. Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour form because of. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticleB. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation of a structureD. Denture resin are usually available as powder and liquid that are mixed to form a plastic dough. Maximum strain that can be measured. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength 297. The elastic limit may be defined as the **.

claspsconstructed of which material can be engage the deepest under cut: A. Polymer C. Dimer 301. Which one of the following types of pain is most likely to be associated with craniomandibular disorders: A. Slip plane lockingE. 302. When all other removable partial denture consideration remains unchanged. Highly vesiculated tissues 304. Inhibitor D. A. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original impressionC. A specially adapted.** A. Monomer E. Growth of glass crystalsD. highly fibrous tissueB. Solvent evaporation 303. Wrought gold 305. They lack accurate reproduction of surface detailsB. Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of. Acid-Base reactionB. Hyaline cartilageC. Addition polymerisation reactionC. .Initiator B. Chondroitin-6-phosphateD. The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular joint are lined with. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies. Exacerbated pain by hot or cold foodB. Chrome cobalt castsB. The strength of the stoneD. A. Nickel chrome castsC. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crownfabrication. Wrought stainless steelD.

the best wayto help preventing caries is. 8 ppmD. The most resistant filling materials to fill class IV cavities are: A. Associated with muscle tendernessD. The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth are: A. Report the patient is having expectorantC.Keeps patient awake at nightC. Child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantity of sugar. All of the above 311. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp chambersB. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper and lower incisorsB. Estimated by the equation: Incisal guidance = 1/8 of condylar guidance 307. Necrosis of the pulp 308. 38 A. Mechanical equivalent at the compensating curveC. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:** A. Associated with trigger spots related to the trigeminal nerve 306. A. Chronic inflammation of the pulpB. 1. . 1 ppmB. 2 ppmC. the most probable pathology is. Same as condylar guidanceD. How many ppm “ Part Per Million” of fluoride are present in water supply in case of temperate climate:** A. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener B. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surfaceD. When immature permanent molars that have been treated with Ledermix pulpcapping. Give him the syrup during sleep timeD. Give him inverted sugar 309.2 ppm 310. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areasC.

All of the above 39 316. With dentin bonding agent. A. Why the method of extracting lower 8’s by directing the extraction lingually isused:** A. TeethB. Receptors in periodontal membraneC. Short. One major Gutta Percha coneB. Laterally condensedC. What is the best way to apply aspiration before injection: A. Bonding agent directly to dentineC.D. Laterally above condensed 315. ProprioceptorsD. sharp pressure backwardsB. TMJF. . The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateral incisor is: A. Turning the needle 90° between two aspirations 314. Silicates 312. Resins with glass or quartzC. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent 313. How would you extract 35? A. What controls the occlusion:**?? Check Boucher C. Labially 317. Neuromuscular receptorsE.Resins with silicone dioxide (SiO2)B. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agentB. Silico-phosphateD. you apply: A. RotationB. LinguallyC. Pressure for 2 to 3 secondsC. Long pressureD.

Thinner boneC. Improper surveyB. In regards to distal free end saddle.Because of the roots directionB. Resin layer 320. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth 323. 5 mlB. 100 ml 319. Next to gingival margins 322. . Where is the retentive position on tooth according to the survey line: A. What is the function of gypsum-binder in the investment:** A. What the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine without vasoconstrictors:** A. Which periodontal pockets are evident on periapical x rays: A. Sinuous 325. Bad positioning of the occlusal restsC. Buccal pocketsB. Lingual pocketsC. Mesial pocketsD. Lingual deviation 318. Setting and hydroscopicB. Below the height of contour B. 50 mlD. Resin-metalB. Strength and rigidity 321. Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often: A. Distal pocketsE. what is TRUE: A. 10 mlC. What are the most common errors when constructing partial denture: A. Resin enamelC. Incorrect design 324.

Pulpotomy 328. Bone resorptionB. DiazepamB.What factor do you consider the most important when storing the occlusal part of atooth: A. Ca(OH)2C. All of the above 330. Root canal therapyC. Tooth under occlusal trauma shows: A. Produce cariesC. Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia: A. Produce acidB. Which material is not compatible with composite resin: A. Which Nerve is anesthetised in anterior border of ramus and 1 cm above occlusal plane of lower posterior teeth: . Occlusal anatomyB. All dental plaque:** 40 A. Produce chelationD. Zinc Oxide and eugenol ZOEB. Phenytoin 331. Pulp cappingB. Treatment of gangrenous tooth: A. Function 326. Necrosis of the pulpC. CarboxylateD. ErgotamineD. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)C. HypercementosisD. Not necessarily produce acid 327. Zinc phosphate cement 329. TriangulationE.

Use of weak cementumC. Which of the following is false in regards to Cleft-Palate? A. Inclusion of platinum foilB. A. Lingual nerveB. More common in males than femalesC. May be submucousB. Voids of porcelainD. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosisB. Too small vertical angulationD. 334. Predispose to speech defects.A. Slightly compress soft tissuesB. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm 336. Too big vertical angulationC. . X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healingD. In an X ray. Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be: A. Mesio angular horizontalB. the mesio buccal root of upper first molars is elongated which is the result of: A. the crown will appears: A. Just in contact with soft tissues 337. Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease:** A. ZoE paste will accelerate healing 335. Long buccal nerve 332. Labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch. High angulation 333. Systemic diseases have no effects on it 41 E. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general population. A communicable diseaseC. Be clear of soft tissuesC. orthodontics problem and hearing lossD.

Not at all 341. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgamB. Dental plaque produces: A. Contact area 340. Radio opaqueC. A. Better marginal sealing . NarrowD. 3 to 4 weeksE. A. PulpectomyC. PulpotomyD. The best location of pin in class II inlay is. ChelationB. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is: A. LongC. on x rays you find dent in dent. Quick in setting 339.ShortB. Wide 338. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber. Not irritatingD. Acids 343. Immediately after applicationC. the right treatment is: A. Which is NOT characteristics of canal filing materials “obturation material” A. 3 to 4 daysD. 24 hours after applicationB. Mesial and distal angleC. Tacky adhesive to wallsB. Dental cariesC. Where is the biggest thicknessB. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam 342.

How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with amalgam: A.5mmC. 2mmD. Friction lockedB. for aesthetic considerations 349. High buccal pulp hornD. Not all sizes availableD. IB. . Higher and immediate compressive strength 344. 1mmB. IIIE. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A. May cause tooth cracking 345. Etching techniques are used always to: A. Less corrosionC.5mm 347.What is complicated by” A. Sjogren syndrome is characterised by: A. V 346. Small lingual pulpC. IVD. what is important about the application of thematrix band: “the question has shown too as ….42 B. 2. minimise the leakage of restorationsB. 1. The mesial concavity of the root surfaceB. Better tensile strengthD. Concavity of distal root surface 348. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is: A. Too expensiveC. Upper premolar with MO cavity. High lingual pulp hornE. IIC.

Dryness of the eyesC. The corrosive properties 353. The most common characteristic symptom of malignant tumours occurring in lower jaw is. PainB. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Blister formationB.Dryness of the mouthB. Hard in room temperatureC. Can not be polished “burnished”B. AgranulocytosisB. Higher flow in room temperature 356. All of the above 350. how do you establish reliable vertical dimension. . A. In regards to indirect compare to direct wax technique:** A. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude 355. Candida Albicans 351. the most uncommon result is:** A. A. BleedingC. In regards to Partial dentures. A. If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture. Post operative painC. Why Class IV gold can not be used in cavity as a filling material: 43 A. The type of gold that used for dental bridges is. Paraesthesia 352. Low temperature solidifying pointB. Secondary cariesD. Hard 18%B. Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by:** A. Type IV 75% 354.

LeukoplakiaB. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosisC. your diagnosis would be: A. Smooth rete pegsB. patient complains of itching and vesicalis on the upper labium (Vermillion region)every year. 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6B. AmphotencinB. A. Loss of contactsB. 8. Impetigo 362. Long buccal nerve 360. 7 and 6 361. Tetracycline lozengesC. Slight tiltingC. Which is not a malignant lesion: A. The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can show as. Mycostatin . Herpes simplexB. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer 44 363. Recurrent ulceration aphthaeC. Pocket formationD. 8. Lingual NerveB. What is the typical feature of Lichen planus:** A. TMJ problemE. A. Denture stomatitis is treated with. Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies:** A. All of the above 358. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetise: A.Lower compressive strength 357. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/ 359.

Intermittent pain 368. Cavernous sinus thrombosisC. CellulitisB. BiopsyD.364. The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Blood countD. Paget’s disease shows in the early stages in jaws: A. The most serious complications which may occur from abscess of max canine is: A. BiopsyC. Tenderness of tooth to pressureB. Beaten copped 365. CystsC. Extra oral swellingC. PericoronitisB. Thermal 367. Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A. Microscopic examination of smearsB. Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of: A. Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth . Damage to infra orbital nerves 366. Electric pulp testC. RadiographsB. Lacrimal duct stenosisD. Cotton woolB. Orange peelD. Granulomas. Serological exam 370. Ground glassC. Abscesses 369. cysts and chronic periapical abscesses may mostly be differentiatedby : A.

A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history of steroid therapy. In the maxillaC. At the mandibular symphysis 45 372. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administrationof antibiotic prior to removal of teeth. PenicillinB. she has painful cervical lymphadenitisand a temperature of 39°c. Patient is more susceptible to infectionB. oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. Near the angle of the mandibleB. MeaslesB. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orallyB. Patient will need haematological evaluation 373. indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment 375. TetracyclineC. until aweek ago. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortexC.discolouration: A. A patient whose hands fell warm and moist is MOST likely to be suffering from:** A. . Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operationC. The dentist should consult the patient’s physicianbecause: A. What is theMOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. he presents for multiple extractions. A 12 year old girl complains of sore mouth. AnxietyB. Streptomycin 371. Erythema multiformC. Thyrotoxicosis 374. Congestive cardiac failureC. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently: A.

Borrelia vincentii 377. ChlorhexidineC. At what rate is closed chest cardiac compression should be in an adult:** A. Sodium hypochloriteB. Sever uncontrolled diabetesC. Leukaemia 380. Stevens-Johnson syndrome 376. Herpes simplex bacteriaB. AgranulocytosisB. 24 times a minuteC. GlutaraldehydeD. To reduce the side effects risk of local anaesthetic injections. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. . Use the smallest effective volumeC. Quaternary ammonium 379. The most potent viricidal properties: “another format of the same answer: Indicatewhich of the following has viricidal properties” A. Aplastic anaemiaD. Alcohol 70%E. Aspirate before injectionB. Herpes simplex virusC. Mumps 46 E. Inject rapidly 378.Herpetic gingivostomatitisD. you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. Use the weakest efficient percentage strengthD. Herpes zoster virusD. 12 times a minuteB. 50 times a minuteD. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is: A.

Polymorphonuclear leukocytesC. GICC. X-RayB. Wrought base metal crown 384.80 times a minute 381. Which type of cells does an abscess contain: A. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of:** A. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe/C. The final material you use for endodontically treated deciduous molars is:** A. Mast cellsB. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general anaesthetic agent because of:** A. Composite resinD. Avoid OsteomyelitisB. EosinophilsD. CandidosisC. Sharp explorer F. Keratocyte 386. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to:** A. AmalgamB. ActinomycosisB. Bitewing radiographE. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentrationB. Periodontal marker D. Viral infectionD. Study cast 383. Epithelial cells 385. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised:** A. Control pain 387. . Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia: A. Poor analgesics affects 382. Adverse affects on liver C.

MucoceleB. Oral lichenoid reaction 47 C. Sjogren’s syndrome 390. Diabetes 391. Emotional reactionC. MumpsC. Coarse food 393. Pemphigus vulgarisE. CalculusC. Submandibular sialolith 388. Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres: . Antidepressants drugsD. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in:** A. Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease: A. Aphthous ulcerationD.Sjogren’s syndromeB. Cervical cementum 392. The marginal gingivaB. Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to:** A. Chronic inflammatory periodontal disease originates in: A. Herpes simplex infectionB. Heart diseaseB. Liver damageC. A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected suffering from: A. Brushing habitsD. Occlusal traumaB. The crystal alveolar boneC. Cicatricial pemphigoid 389.

A. What preoperative advice you should give: . this would MOSTLY affects the growth of:** A. ElasticB. Non striatedD. StriatedC. Loss of facial contour 397. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swellingC. he has taken insulin in the morning. Loss of arch lengthB. Intravenous injections 395. Maxilla 396. In regards to third molars surgery: A. If a child’s teeth do not form. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. Injecting in vascular areaC. the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occurs: 70 C. After the age of 6 years. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hoursB. LevityE. Antibiotic cover is compulsory 603. Whole faceC. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling 602. MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molar is: A. Injecting in supine positionB. MandibleD. Alveolar boneB. A 65 year old patient needs extraction of 44. Wavy 394. Loss of speech soundC. Which of the following is LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A.

3g Amoxil. stop warfarin and suture later 605. Adjacent teethB. Full mouth . Medication increases preoperatively 604. Associated with periodontal pocketD. suture when bleeding has stoppedC. stop warfarin.5 mg warfarin. A mandibular permanent first molar had to be extracted. give heparin and suture later E. Patient with prosthetic heart valve taking 7. Ampicillin cover. Oral exam is negative. Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. Patient needsextraction. give heparin and suture later D. Antibiotic 2 hours beforeD. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and aggravated by stress andalcohol. A patient 37 year old. this will affect: A. with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to hismaxillary posterior teeth. Teeth in the same quadrantC. CEJ to base of pocketB. 3g Amoxil. The probable diagnosis is: A. What is your management: A. stop warfarin. Cluster headacheC. Take more sugar B. Pathognomonic of periodontal diseaseB. Both arches the same sideD. Commonly related to radiograph angulation 607. She has????. Indicative of attachment lossC. suture after surgical removalB. Temporal neuritis 608. MigraineB. Top of the gingiva to the base 606. Loss of the gingival attachment is measured between: A. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover. Trigeminal neuralgiaD. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover.A. Maintain normal dietC.

Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phaseB. The places for new erupted mandibular molars are created by: A. Plaque inducedD. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient 614. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is: A. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topicallyC. Pleomorphic adenomaB. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvementD. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:** A. Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytesC. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible 71 610. painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. Apposition of alveolar processC. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytesD. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPPB. HereditaryB. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorlyB. Leukaemia . This is most likelyto be: A. Lymphoma of parotid 611.609. Drug inducedC. Spontaneous bleeding interproximalC. A patient comes with a firm. What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque following 21 days of plaqueaccumulate: A. Primarily infiltrate of plasma cellsB. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis 613. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. Carcinoma of the parotidC. Infiltrate of neutrophils 612.

Amelogenesis imperfectaC. gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is youtreatment: A. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignantC. . you would:** A. Oral prophylaxis. root planningC. Which of the following procedures should beemployed:** A. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses for re-examinationD. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to returnin six monthsB. Removes plaqueC.D. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:** A. reduction in size of pulp chamber. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplastyB. During extraction of maxillary third molar.615. Stop medication 616. Remove the tuberosity and sutureB. FluorosisB. it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture. Repeat the biopsy 621. Which is wrong in regards to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy: A. Removes required pellicle 618. the tuberosity is fractured. A patient has improperly formed DEJ. leave in place and suture 620. however. Hypodontia or anodontia 72 619. chipping andattrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be: A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 617. scaling. Does not harm gingivaeB. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if requiredC. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in 50 years oldfemale reveals chronic inflammation. A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae.

Flexion of the neck 73 630. What would you do if the systole is elevated:** A. RubellaE. How do treat the cause of airway obstruction: A. Viral infectionB. DiabetesC.What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic response to medication: A. 10-12 times a minuteB. Air way obstruction 624. Skin rash “dermatitis” with swelling of lips and eyes 622. Fontanelles 627. . What would you do if the diastole is elevated: A. Koplik’s spots are associated with one of the following: A. Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation 629. Calm down the patient 625. How many time do you breath in mouth to mouth resuscitation: A. What is Von Reckling hausen disease: A. MeaslesD. Which are non-calcified areas in the child’s cranium: A. Candidosis 628. NeurofibromaB. Extension of the neck B. 4-6 times a minute 623. What cause a reduce of pulmonary ventilation: A. Investigate systemic cause 626. Laryngeal muscle paralysisB.

LeucopoeniaB. Diabetes mellitusB.your first management is: A. LeukocytosisD. Codeine 632. supine 636. Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated in patient before oral surgery with: A. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Recumbent position. Nitro glycerine sub linguallyD. Poor surgical techniquesC. Eosinophilia 633. Bacterial endocarditis 634. Patient has fainted. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillinB. moist skin. shallow respiration. the signs are. Antibiotic therapyB. Addison’s diseaseC. Multiple myelomaD. NeutropeniaC. Acute pyogenic bacteria infection may result in:** A. Herpes simplexB. blanched face. LymphocytosisE. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneouslyB.How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively 631. . weak pulse. Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. AspirinD. Bright’s diseaseF. Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. Mouth to mouth respirationC. Cushing’s disease 635. Whooping coughC.

Trauma of occlusal factors causes cleft or fibrous thickening of marginal gingivaeC. Securing a blood units to replace any lossB. Vitamin K 642. In regards to the conditions where you have to prescribe antibiotic prior to dental treatment: A. Which of the following is TRUE: A.Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: A. Rheumatic fever B. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of ANUGB. All of the above 640. OedemaB. . Sub-acute bacterial endocarditisC. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of age. The immediate concern in the management of facial trauma should be: A. The main vitamin to synthesis prothrombin is: A. All Perio pockets can be detected by x rays 74 D. Herpangina is caused by: A. Polycythemia 638. By passD. Acute infection 637. Patient who has WBC count of just over 100000 is most likely suffering from:** A. HaemorrhageC. LeucopoeniaB. Uncontrolled diabetesF. 639. Valve replacementE. Periodontitis is the most common problem in teenageE. LeukaemiaC. Coxsackie virus 641.

Erythema multiformeC. herpes simplex. Delayed healingC. Improper eye sightD. Neurological consultation 643. ExcitementB. . EuphoriaH. OsteoporosisD. Esophagitis. Buffered penicillinD. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological trauma: A. Achromycin 645. A young patient presented with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. ChloromycetinB. SulphonamideC. Sever headacheF. You will find the same signs of: A. All of the above 647.Fixation of fracturesC. VomitingG. Fixed dilated pupils 644. Shock C. colitis during 5 weeks. LeaningE. ErythromycinE. Adrenal suppression 646. Checking the breath and insure a free airwaysD. Theantibiotic of choice is: A. Patient under treatment with corticosteroids may develop: A. Disorder of steroid will result in: A. Multiple myeloma 75 B. Adrenal suppressionB.

None of the above 649. How does it work: A. AmphetamineD. All of the above 650. BradykininB. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosaC. what is the medication of choice to reverse its act: A. Iron deficiency is a featureB. Dehydration of DNA 651. Naloxone 652. In regards to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Dysphagia and angular cheilitisD. Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:** A. They produce penicillinase. Steam under pressure sterilisation is the best method to kill microorganisms. 653. When comparing the mesio distal length of second deciduous molar with the length of 2 nd premolar. Delayed eruption of permanent teethE. EpinephrineC. Defective formation of claviclesB. Predisposing oral cancer E. What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia:** A. Patient with morphine coma. Retention of maxillaD. Longer B. Delayed closure of fontanellesC. Near the same size . Shorter C. we will find the deciduous tooth is: A. Coagulation of plasma proteinB.AIDS 648.

Which of the following does not carry a risk of infection from hepatitis B patient: A. Insertion of lateral pterygoid 657. Like a diabetic childC. Down’s syndromeB. BleedingB. Bleeding in periodontal ligament 837. Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:** 94 E. History 655. Origin of masseter muscleB. Which is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. . How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:** A. HBs AgC. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva 838. How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately: A.654. Like a haemophilic child 656. Hyperdontia can be seen in: A. Like a normal childB. Origin of temporalisC. Protects parotid glandD. Down’s syndromeC. HBs Ag antigensB. Hypodontia can be seen in: A. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis” 840. Rickets 839. Papillon le fever syndromeD. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis”B. The zygomatic process serves as: A.

Which one of the following is expansile lesion of jaw bone:** A. Radicular cystD. Oral hygiene. Osteomyelitis 847. Remove the dentigerous cystB. sub-gingival debridement. No treatment 845. Removes low energy x rays 843. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no other pathology. regular review and maintenanceC. what is your decision to retrieve it: A. Through the alveolar B. What is your management: A. Surgery. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer isneeded or notC. sub-gingival debridement. The MOST frequent retained deciduous teeth in permanent dentition are: . Which is the MOST conservative treatment for periodontal disease: A. Soft tissues recision to allow eruptionC. Central haemangioma 95 C. Nasal antrostomy 846. Filter is used in x ray machine to: A. regular review and maintenanceB. Reduce exposure timeB. Surgical opening of canine fossaC. Oral hygiene. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption 844. Odontogenic keratocyteB.HBe Ag 841. Palatal root displaced into the antrum while extracting. Loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years old child required: A. Band and loop to maintain spaceB. sub-gingival debridement 842. A patient 8 years old has 3 of first premolars erupted with swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar.

½ unit class IIC. Lower central incisorsD. Second upper molars 848. The tensile nodes are located at: A. Upper central incisorsC. Full unit Class III 852. 24 were extracted. Mechanical exposureD. Post operative headacheD. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects 850. The arches are now wellaligned. Carious exposureC. Second lower molarsE. Periapical disease 851. After you have successfully treated an Angle’s Class II division I malocclusion. Class ID. GlucanD. ½ unit Class IIIE. What molar occlusion will there be at the end of treatment when all spaces are closed: A. Glycogen 849.A. The ideal ClassI incisor relationship has been produced and 14. Full unit Class IIB. Upper lateral incisorsB. LivenB. FructoseC. The MOST frequently synthesized substance by Streptococcus mutans is: A. A good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessionsB. . Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry DOESNOT give: A. Formcresol fixation is used in deciduous dentition in: A. The mandible angleB. Necrotic pulpB. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a BenzodiazepamC.

Metallic Plato backing the intra oral films are for:** A. The developing time for dental x ray should be: A. 5 minutes at 20ºCB.The jugular-digastric interactionC. Until it clears upD. When restoring with GIC base and composite laminationD. 100-120 nmB. MicroscopyC. The fixing time for dental x ray should be: A. ImmunofluorescenceB. 470 nm or 450-500 nm 858. 400-430 nmD. What is the range of the visible light cure beam: A. Herpangina is the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:** A. When restoring with GIC for abrasionB. Until it clears upD. Internal carotid level 853. 200-300 nmC. 2 minutes at 40ºC 857. Mylohyoideus intersectionD. Reduces patient exposure to x raysC. Increases the bending capacity of films 96 855. When restoring with GIC for root cariesC. When is LEAST required gingival groove: A. 2 minutes at 40ºC 856. Reduces the flexibility of filmsB. Serology 854. 5 minutes at 20ºCB. . At least 10 minutesC. At least 10 minutesC.

Radiograph shows anenlargement of periodontal ligament space of 11 which has a large restoration without a base. Sulphur oxidesB. According to the depth of gingival creviceC. Patient presents with fever of 39ºC. Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is usually caused by: A.C. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death 862. Use a flat fissure bur C. Just supragingival whenever is possibleB. When you find ditching in an amalgam filing you would: A. Complete debridement of root canal. Cervical finish line of full veneer crown preparation should be placed: A. pain. OxygenC. At the junction of tooth and amalgam core 865. apply a sedative dressing with corticosteroids 864. At right angle to the long axis of toothE. Antibiotic. Remove restoration. Use an inverted cone bur B. ChloridesD. analgesic followed by root canal treatment after remission of acutephase.When restoring with amalgam 859. Which is TRUE in regards to the preparation of occlusal rests: A.What would your treatment be: A. Replace the defective filingB. Over trituration 860. Repair defect with unfilled resins 861. Recision and antibioticB. swelling of upper lip and nose. . Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent cariesD. Parallel to occlusal planeD. None of the above 863. What is the reason that pulp calcified after trauma: A. analgesic and antibiotic 97 D.

Decrease the chemical bonding capability 866. Swallowing 868. Base is wider than free marginB. To decrease surface areaC. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone 867. Base has an adequate blood supplyD. Increase the chemical bonding capabilityE. Hedstrom fileC. Why do you over pack amalgam: A. How do remove the smear layer in root canal treatment: A. Is a thermoplastic material 869.Why do we itch enamel for composite restorations: A. All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. Dispersion plate not applied to patientD.5% hypochlorite sodiumB. None of the above 870. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of operationE. Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteumC. Current intensity is too highB. The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually means: A. PhoneticsC. Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of vertical dimension: A. Use of 0. EDTA 871. To increase surface areaB. AestheticB. . May cause irritation to mucosaB. Current intensity is too lowC. Gothic arch tracingD. Zinc oxide impression material: A. Does not really change the surface areaD.

How will the tooth appear: A. Degree of taper E. what is the optimum depth for a pin hole in a tooth: A. . To narrowD. Less than 2mmD. Acute angleB. Obtuse angleD. Too wideB. In vital pulp therapy. 1-1. Lingual of upper molarsD. 45 angle 877.5mm 876. Too shortC. Should befinished at which angle to external surface: A. To long 98 873. All of the above 875.To ensure excess mercury reaches the surface 872. 4-5mmB. Buccal of upper molars 874. Lingual of lower molarsC. Approximately 2mmC. Buccal of lower molarsB. Right angleC. Proximal cavosurface walls in Class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam. MaterialD. Cross sectionC. LengthB. Why are three tripod marked on a cast being surveyed: A. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on: A. Which of the following is more prone to crack: A. A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in normal alignment with PFM retraction.

Too weak for narrow canals 880. which of the following is correct: A. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor 884. Soluble in chloroformB. What control tooth or teeth should be used when testing a suspected pulpally involved tooth: A. In regards to connectors on dentures. Opposing and adjacent teethD. What effect do fissure sealants have on caries progression: A. Burning out of wax was inadequateD. The powder/water ratio for the investment was too high 879. To orient cast to surveyor C. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of existing caries 881. Air carried into mouldC. First molar> first premolar> second premolar B. All of the above 883. Contralateral and opposing teethC. To provide guide planes 878. An irregular shaped void on surface of a gold cast would indicate that: A. Adjacent tooth and contralateral teethB. . What is CORRECT in regards to periodontal surface area in mandibular teeth: A. Minor connector should engage undercuts 99 882.To orient cast to articulator B. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of freshly established cariesB. Major connector should be rigid as possibleB. Test only suspected tooth/teethE. The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is: A. Canine> first premolar> second premolar C. A fragment of investment had been carried into the mouldB.

Cast crown fits on die but not on tooth. Value 889. Relieve cast from the insideB.3mm what would you do: A. Coronoid processB. 12 hrsB. BrightnessB. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further breakdownC. walls of the fissure 887. After been left in water for an hour D. Use thick mix of cement 885. Pit and fissure caries start at: A. Masseter muscle 888. In regards to marginal leakage in amalgam: A. bottom of the fissureB. Burnish marginsD. how long should have been made prior taking impression: A. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary cariesB. In regards to shade. Take a new impression and make new crownC. Acrylic self-cure special trays. Placement of denturesB. Saturation of hueC. discrepancy is about 0. CondyleC. Secondary caries may develop 886. Wait for an hour before pouring 890. Chroma is: A. . Movable component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed bridge is placed. What interferes with maxillary denture in posterior vestibular fold: A. The MAIN CAUSE of gingivitis in partial dentures patients is: A. Immediately after fabricating itC. Plaque accumulation 891.

How long it would take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylicC. 1mm 898. Which is the neutral zone: A. Contraction of temporalisC. Formed of. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylicB. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment 893. Which of thefollowing is contra indicated: A. two laminae. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutmentB. How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. The zone where displacing forces are neutralB. Should be placed on the longer retainer B. Contraction of lateral pterygoidB. Which is the distal attachment ofsuperior hard lateral plate 895. 2mm to achieve a good resistance formC. or thin plates. Contraction of the suprahyoid musclesD. Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forcesagainst the gravity 896. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector 892. patient has Class II Division II type with deep bite. 2 mm to achieve a good retention formB. Contraction of the infrahyoid musclesE. When lateral incisor is lost. .Which of thefollowing is TRUE: 100 A. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced 894. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic 897. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to hardness: A. or having. Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible: A. What is the Bilaminar Zone: A.

Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operativebleeding: A. Autoclave at 121ºC “250ºF” under 15psi for 20 minsD. Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization: A. None of the above 905. 27 years old female. Gastric ulcer C. Blood pressure reading of 180/110B. When treating a tooth with a non-vital pulp with a fistula presented. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula 901.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration 903. o. 1 monthC.6 monthsB. A & D are correctE. Hot air at 160ºC “320ºF” for 90minsB. Tongue thrust 900. Class II Division IB. Dry heat at 177ºC “350ºF” for 60minsE. 3 months 899. To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would: 101 A. shows sudden oedematous rash and collapses after an injection of barbiturates. The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is: A. Elevated prothrombin timeD.M. Your management is: A. 50 years old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. fistula should be treatedby: A. Surgical incisionB. Use a cold glass slab 902. . I. Antibiotic coverageC. Boiling water at 100ºC “210ºF” for 2 hoursC. All of the above will achieve sterilisation 904.

Freeze-dried bone graftC. Heltozygo?? Marrow graftD. she has had a rubbery. painless nodulewithin the substance of parotid gland. What is TRUE in regards to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. Benign mixed tumour D. Use lead collimator 102 910. Never accompanied with skin lesionsB. Sialolith with encapsulations 909. Mitosis in osteoblastB. Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic potential is: A. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysisD. Lesions may present on legsE. Which is NOT CHARCTERISTIC of dentinogenesis imperfecta: . Mitosis of osteoblastC. The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is: A. A patient states that for ALMOST a year now. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis 906. The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molar is: A. Lymph nodeC. Cortical bone graftE. MucoceleB. Cancellous bone graft 908. This MOST likely is: A. Always accompanied with skin lesionsC. Lymphocytic bone graftB. Lesions may present on arms 907. firm.Long bone growth by: A. Lesions may present anywhereD. Density of lamina dura 911.

ConcrescenceE. Dull pain on closingC. Presence of true pocketD.A. GeminationC. Nasal floor B. your diagnosis is:** A. Anterior cranial base 914. mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual. Taurodontism 913. Naso maxillary complexE. Occlusal planeD. Child with less than normal number of teeth. Apical migration of gingival epitheliumE. Presence of subgingival calculusF. FusionD. MobilityB. Oral screenB. Expansion screw plate 915. on x rays it shows with two roots and two roots canals. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teethD. Incompetent lips 916. What is your management: A. DilacerationB. Clinical indications of pathogenic chronic periodontitis: A. . Dentinal tubules are more than usual 912. 7 years child with Class I malocclusion. Head cap therapyC. Hawley plateE. The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is: A. Cranial vaultC. adequate archlength. C. Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in: A. slight version of maxillary Class I. D & E 917.

Full thickness flapD. Split thickness flap 918. Deposits in boneC. Long attached gingivaC. Distal flutingB. Excretes rapidly by kidneyD. Crosses placental barrier B. Examination reveals area of gingival recession. Sub-epithelial tissue graftC. Free gingival graftE. Produces extrinsic tooth stain 923. teeth should be splinted: A. Double flapB. exposed wide area of dental roots. What does contra indicate distal wedge in molars’ area: A. Apically positioned flapE. Bacteria staticE. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molarsD. In advance periodontitis with marked mobility. Mobility caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal ligament 103 919. To improve comfort and function 920. What is TRUE in regards to primary occlusal trauma: A. Which isthe procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface: A. Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride ion: A. Modified wide flap 921. Free gingival autograftB. . Supra bony pockets distal to molars 922. Apically positioned graftD.To prevent exposure of a ?????? on a permanent root. Stripping procedureC. the dentist BEST approach for elevatingflap is to use: A.

4 weeksC. Less vibration on patient 929. Effective in incorporated into dental plaqueB. Cross sectionC. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisationC. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel 925. Infectious mononuclears 928. 2:3B. MaterialD.Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of fluoride element: A. Under cut area 926. The OPTIMUM crown to root ratio for abutment tooth is:** A. LEAST use of blood count: A. LengthB. 1:1 . Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities 924. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentineB. Can not be perforated 927. Degree of taper E. 6-8 weeksB. Protrusive movement in wax: A. 6-8 monthsD. 4 months 930. How long it would take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using Calciumhydroxide:** 104 A. The FIRST advantage of using 100000 rpm and over rotors is: A. In regards to topically applied fluoride : A. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm Does not relate to: A.

What is the difference between arcon and non arcon articulator: A. Prevents distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth 933. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks 938. Accidental exposure of pulpB. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cementB. what would you do: A. Elevators are not used in: A. Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally: A. How would you treat hyperaemia “hyperaemic tooth”:** A. Haemangioma 936. the tooth is filled with composite longtime ago. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping: A. . what would you do: A. Calcium hydroxideC. Patient has been coming to your clinic for several times complaining about soreness under the denture. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment 935. Corticosteroid paste 939. Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there since birth. X ray. the diagnosis is: A. What does contraindicate bridge works: A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments 932. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic toothC. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia: A. Halothane should not be less than 5%B.931. Patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps 934. Dividing third lower molars roots 937. remove filling and restore with temporarily filling 940.

Epithelial cellsC. Giant cell lesionD. . FibroblastB. When you apply a pressure of 0. The auxiliary occlusal rest on tooth for partial denture should be placed: A.Oxygen must not be less than 30% 941. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of cariesB. Acromegaly 105 B. Dental cysts 942. Top of the gingiva to the base 944. Vest cells of malaiseE. Enough proximal surfaceB. Missing proximal contacts 947. Primordial cystsE. Periodontal pocket is measured between: A. Which of the following situations make periodontal disease more sever: A. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 946. For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the primarily retentive care: A. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth 943. Too wide bucco lingual embrasureC. 4 mm indicates periodontitis 945.25N to measure pocket depth: A. Paget’s diseaseC. CEJ to base of pocketB. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be caused by: A. ErythrocytesD. Which of the following elements is not found in normal periodontal membrane: A.

Loss of blood supplyB. Thyroglossal duct cystC. Which is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic: A. Respiratory depressionD. HypotensionC. Hypertension 950. A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam cored. In the crown and the rootD.Patient complains of pain associated with poor dentition. where does failureoccur: A. In the core and the margin preparation 949. . The reason that endodontically treated teeth are weak is: A. Retention cyst 111 D. No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasmsD. Away from fulcrum line 948.Away from edentulous spaceB. 58 years old male has had a 60 yo WM course of radiation given for carcinoma of tongue. Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic with antibioticcoverageB. Near fulcrum lineD. Adjacent to edentulous spaceC. Palatal 1004. Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problemsC. The dental management would be: A. RanulaD. Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of: A. Angioneurotic oedemaB. Between core and cementC. Branchial cystB. Loss of coronal tissues 1005. Between crown and cementB.

Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner B. Signs of reversible pulpitis 1010. “Pop off” of a porcelain veneer from under the lying gold crown is due to:** A. The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is: A. PulpalgiaB. Between one opaque and two opaque stages 1011. Under firing the opaque layer D. On examination of composite restoration you find a dark attain: A. No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae 1006. Between preheat and opaque stagesC. Between bisque stage and glazing stageB. Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeksE. Occasional sensitivity in a shallow class I amalgam restoration after two days would bemanaged by: A. Using thicker mix of cementsD.Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen treatment plus a primaryclosure of wounds under antibiotic coverageE. Hypercalcification within root canalsD. Contamination at the porcelain metal interfaceC. Replace the compositeB. Repair with unfilled resinC. Oxide Zinc and eugenolC. . Replace old filing immediatelyB. Internal resorptionC. Between opaque and bisque stagesD. All of the above 1009. Ledermix 1008. When should not contaminate metallic framework during fabrication of porcelain fused tometal crown: A. Pulp capping in mature tooth may be followed by:** A. Apply topical fluoride at the margin 1007.

Repeat restoration 1017. Formation of dentine 1013. on examination you found a composite restoring a goodcavity preparation without any secondary caries. Attrition in elderly. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulpC. Inaccessible area 1016. Increased interocclusal distanceC. Regeneration periodontal surgery: . The MOST likely factor contributes to tooth eruption is:** A. what is your next step: A. Decrease incisal guidanceB. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of: A. Increase compensate curve 1015. Vascular pressureD. The developing periodontal ligament 1014. Smooth surfaceC. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementumB. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamedB. What changeswill you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. why do teeth maintain contact: 112 A.All of the above 1012. Bone growthC. Reduce cusps heightC. Ask patient to come back in six monthsD. What is the shape of occlusal rest: A. The growing rootB. Patient complains of sensitivity. Spoon shape with rounded margin 1018. Initial condylar guidance of 25 degree was wrong is changed to 45 degree. Pit and fissureB.

Hypersecretion of the adrenalC. Myxoedema occurs due to:** A. Mobility 1020.A. Hypersecretion of the thyroidB. Desquamative gingivitis 1025. necrosis and plasma cells at the basal membrane with atrophic thin areas. Homo formation is better at high sugar intakeD. 2-5 hoursB. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentrationC. Hyposecretion of the adrenal 1024. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque 1021. 12-30 hoursD. Long junctional epithelium 1019. 30-48 hoursE. Hyposecretion of thyroid-hypothyroidismD. Which of the following is seen in benign mucosal membrane pemphigoid:** A. DiabetesB. Regeneration of cementumB. Low number of streptococcus mutansB. 48-96 hours 1023. reduced rete pegs will be diagnosed as: A. Ulcers. Viral infection 1022. . The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of: A. Why is the frequency of carbohydrates intake more important quantity: A. What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis: A. Gingivitis is not caused by: A. 5-12 hours 113 C.

Which of the following is not true about warfarin. Intraepithelial vesiclesC. Staphylococcus aureus can cause which of the following infection: A. Which of the following is TRUE about syphilis: A. Ask the patient to come after the deciduous teeth fall off and complete permanentdentition eruptsD. ScarlatinaE. A. PancreatitisC. Histopathology like aphthous ulcer D. All of the above 1028. What your next step would be: A. Perform mixed dentition analysisB.Tzanck cellsB. Spirochetes disseminate in 24 hours 1027. Oral lesions are not seen in less than 1%C. The spirochetes disseminate rapidly throughout the body within 24hour after contactB. A 10 year old child presents with crowding of the dentition and desirescorrection. INR of 3 is enough to start any extractionB. OsteomyelitisD. Review in yearly intervals 114 . Apply a fixed appliancesE. Only the lesions of the primary and secondary stages are contagiousD. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin timeC. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidlyD. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin 1029. ThyroiditisB. In syphilis: A. Both the primary chancre and the secondary mucous patch stages of the diseaseare highly infectiousC. Pneumonia 1030. Primary lesion is not contagiousB. Extract the deciduous teethC. Scarring of the conjunctiva 1026.

The lesion is painless and of normal colour. Aphthous ulcer C. Administer oxygenD. Less than 45 degreeC. Hawley appliance 1035. In regards to paracetamol: A. Single retroclined upper incisor in 9 years old. Change fro aerobic into anaerobic 1033. Must always treated by surgeryD. Less than 90 degreeD.1031. In which of the following conditions vesicles/bullae are never seen prior toulceration: A. Pemphigus 1037. Patient with weak pulse. The MOST PROBABLE . The angle of blade for closed curettage is:** A. What is your management: A. Give insulin injectionC. Bite planeC. Less than 35 degreeB. moist skin and dyspnoea. Are predominantly anaerobicB. Maintain airway and place in supine positionB. Liver damage in mild overdose 1032. Patient complains of finger-like growth on the lateral aspect of the tongue. what is TRUE: A. what is the first thing to do: A. In regards to periapical lesions. Expansion screwD. Must be treated by antibioticsC. HSV 1B. Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teethB. space is sufficient. Inject adrenaline 1034. Less than 100 degree 1036.

Uric acidC. Osteoarthritis 1041. Applied after eruption 115 1040. On HIV patient which of the following IS NOT RECOGNISED: A. What your next step would be: A. Folate papillaeB. UreaB. End product of amino acids metabolism is: A. Cellular energy production 1039. NeurofibromaD. Collagen synthesisB. Filiform papillaeC. Rheumatic fever B. Papilloma 1038. Keep observingB. Child presented to you with sore throat. Thiamine is useful in: A. Perform an excision biopsyC. Clotting factor productionC. . Topical fluorides are MOST beneficial when: A. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase 1043. Allantoin 1042. fever and joint swelling. Directly applied on decalcified enamelB. Rheumatic arthritisC. Patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth.diagnosis is: A. You “roundedoff” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. the MOST probable diagnosis is: A. Epithelial integrityD.

The hamular notch is important in full dentures construction because it aids in the setting position of the artificial teeth A. Flap surgery 1045. Infection with new bone formation is: A. Prescribe antibioticsB. Sedimentation rateE. Remove and replace the Ag point with Gutta Percha before the post preparation. What would you do: A. Garr’s osteomyelitisB. Clotting timeB. A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction. Kaposi sarcoma 1044. Bleeding timeC. Condensing osteitisC. Complete blood cell count 1046. Prothrombin timeD. . OsteosarcomaD. You want to place a post on an endodontically treated tooth which has a good silver point “Ag point”. Which of the following isMOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks: A. GingivoplastyD. HIV gingivitisC. The placement of metal stops at a location remote to direct retainers to increase retention istermed: 116 A. there is no evidence of failure of the previous root filing. Indirect retainers 1049. The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. External lymphomaE. 1048. Debridement and antimicrobial rinsesC.Squamous cell carcinomaB. Torus 1047.

separation of posterior teeth during protrusion is done by: A. Minimise distortionB. The MOST common reason for full denture failure: A. Loss of water and contraction 1058. . Increase the compensatory curveB. Upper buccal and lower lingual cusps 1055. When patient bites in protrusion you notice that posterior teeth do not meet. What does “SYNERESIS” in prosthodontics mean: A.First statement is true. but the reason given is false 1050. The bilaminar zone in reference to TMJ refers to: A. A complaint of burning tongue in an elderly female would be a result of: A. What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the mesial buccal canal of upper first molar:** A. Decrease the angle of the occlusal plane 1052. Two canals and one foramina 1057. The distal attachments of the lateral pterygoid to the condyle 1056. A systemic allergyB. Why would you invest the wax pattern as soon as possible in an indirect inlay fabrication: A. The upper and lower joint spacesB. Psychogenic 1054. what would youdo to solve this: A. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curveB. Allergy because of dentureC. When setting up teeth for complete dentures having bilateral balanced occlusion. In posterior crossbite situation which are the supporting cusps: A. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane 1051. Inadequate interocclusal clearance 1053.

Posterior teeth 190. Overdentures are best used for. All of the above. IIIC. What is main reason of ordering another Periapical radiograph of the same tooth: A. Mental foramenIV. I and II 117 B. The first is true the second is falseD. II. A. Midline of the palateII. Canines and premolarsB. Why do people with cleft palate/lip have speech difficulties: A. 1060. Both are trueC. Both are false 189. ToriA. I. Upon palpation which of the following areas would be found to have overlying mucosa: I. I. To observe tooth from different angle . None of the aboveE. Incisive foramenV. Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome. 187. The first statement is false the second is trueB. II. but Co-Chrome has high modulus of elasticity A. What statement is false: A. To disclose the other rootsB.Avoid contractionC. Not to survey when making the crown 188.QUESTIONS IN DOUBT:131415192426303234374246485859606669737680828991929698*100104105109110111118125136 141142147150152154180181215218223226 118 227223234246249253260265272276284285290294296299301303304 503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. Avoid expansion 1059. Mylohyoid ridgeI I I . Difficulties in keeping the intraoral pressure. VD.

A. Below the survey line. the two most common micro-organisms are: A. At the apexB. As close as possible to the gingival margins 193. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol. Use mucco-compressive impression 194.5 t0 1. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 25 199. NecrosisB. A.5 mm before the apex 192. you will find: A. Painful 196. As far as you can obturateC. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimensionB. Internal resorption of RC usually A. Corticosteroid 198. Clasp arm is gingivally located 195. . Mummification 197. The ideal length of RCT is. 0. AntibioticsB. AsymptomaticB. To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture: A. In infected root canal. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed: A.B. Alloy with high modulus of elasticityB.191. Retentive Clasps: A. Above survey lineC. Retentive part of clasp position is. A.

which part of flame we will use A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. negative thermal tests. what will happen: A. what epithelial cells you can find: A. Angioneurotic oedema. A. There is no caries. A. If the investment is burnout rapidly. The lingual flanges should be concave 207. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interactionof afferent fibre synapses. In periodontal membrane. Back pressure porosityB.Lateral CondensationB. 204. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A. In melting gold. To increase the stability of the lower denture. From outside to inside 202. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** . negative percussion and negative responseto palpation 205. Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. Gate theory about pain control is: A. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. Cracking of the investment 208. The occlusal plane should be below the tongueB. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC. Mechanical 203. One major Gutta Percha pointC. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. Oxidizing zone 206. From inside to outsideB. Puffiness around the eyes. Laterally above condensed 200. Reduced zoneB. oedema of the upper lip with redness and drynessB.

Through the contacts. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) 214. Long path of insertion 213. Acute periodontal abscessB. QuenchedC.A. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. MarbleB. 215. Apical abscessD. A. A. the tissue may stick to the electrode because of . The current intensity is too low 211. Wrought metal is to be. In periodontitis. Chronic periodontal abscessC. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. Dimensional inaccuracy 209.** A. 26 A. Overdenture advantage is. “Main feature of suprabony pocket” A. The current intensity is too highB. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. . In electro surgery. Proprioceptors 210. Horizontal bone resorptionB. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. the most common finding is. Vertical bone resorptionC. Contains micro filledB. TaperingB. Better colour matching 212.

0-3 mmC. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up”: A. Alveolar boneB. A. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A.mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. ErythrocytesD. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. 1-2 mmB.Angular bone loss 217. Epithelial cellsC. . Tooth inclination and crowdingD. A. Periodontitis occurs in. 0-5 mm 219. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. Vest cells of malaiseE. Infra bony pocketB. Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. The oral hygiene is not good. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is: A. MasticationB. Periodontal membraneC. some areas of cementum appears to be soft. Oral flora 222. Salivary flowE. Loss of periodontal attachment 27 C. 2-3 mmD. FibroblastB. Tooth shapeC. The term false pocket stands for.

ChlorhexidineB. . Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucencyB. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Necrotic pulp 227. Apiectomy 225. Capped teethE. Leave it and observeD. Ethyl alcoholE. Traumatised teethB. Root canal treatmentC. EDTAD. A. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/ . In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cuspB. X-ray 226. Advice patient about consequencesC. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC. Eugenol 224. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. what your first decision would be: A. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root. what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. Multi-rooted teethD. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cuspC. Just erupted teethC. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. H2O2C. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE.Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. ExtractionD.

II. III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. SerotoninB.Under the disto lingual cusp 228. All of the aboveC. BarbiturateII. Which is not an effect of :I. II and IIID. II and IIIE. HypnosisV. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. SedationII. PethidineIV. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with. General anaesthesia A. Intravenous injection 233. Injection in supine positionB. HistamineC. 28 A. IV and V 231. Enkephalins 232. A. DiabeticsB. Injection into vascular areaC. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. I. None of the aboveC. AnalgesiaIV. none of the aboveB. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration which interferes with theocclusion . Excitement III. Rheumatic fever 230. I and IID. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI). which are is contra indicated:I. I. All of the aboveB. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is. Local anaestheticIII. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. Acetyl salicylic acid A. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD.

Pressure on mental foramenB. Pulpal necrosisC. The flap designD. Removal of enough boneB. PainB. Preoperative assessmentC. The nerve supplies TMJ is. Uni lateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occurs frequently with meal. Early lose of primary teethB. Paresthesia 29 C. Sub-mandibular sialolithC. A. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Tooth resorption 237. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is. A. the most commoncause is. Apical abscessB. RanulaB. Facial nerve 239. which of the following would expect to find: A.A. The use of general anaesthetic 236. Teeth movementD. Auricula Temporal NerveB. CystD. Apical periodontitis 235. A. In cleidocranial dysplasia. Nerve to masseter C. what is the possiblediagnosis: A. . Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia 240. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles 238.

PemphigusB. Which two of the following conditions present as complete vesicles A. 25% 246. Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines /Wickham’s Striae/ appears as lace-likenetwork on the buccal mucosa. What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth: A. What is the percentage of leukoplakia that turn into cancer:** A. Aphthous ulcer D. 35. 12. How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A. Nystatin + 244. White sponge nevus 243. 45C. ANUGE. Geographic tongueD. 5%-6% 30 B. Erythema migransF. 25D. 15. 43 245. Herpes simplexC. 22B.Mucocele 241. Lichen PlanusB. 33. . TetracyclineB. Erythema multiforme 242. Koplik spotsC. Keratosis follicularisC. you diagnosis is** A. Systemic penicillinC. Fordyce’s spotsB. 10%C. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are:** A.

How would you diagnose a periapical abscess: A. Cellulitis 251. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is a result of: A.None of the above 247. what would you do: A. Pain on percussionB. Fever C. The absence of lamina dura in radiograph is a feature of all of these except for:** A. Give glucoseB. Administer O2C. Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present: A. Paget’s diseaseB. Low vertical dimension 249. .. vitaminB. Fordyce’s granulesB. Deficiency of . moist mouth and weak pulse. Osteogenesis imperfectaE. Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white lesion: A. Hyperthyroidism 250. HyperparathyroidismC. Regional lymph nodeB. Administer adrenalineD. Inject insulin 253. Pain when eating hot foodC. Lichen planus 248. Pain when eating cold foodD. LeukoplakiaD. Smoker’s keratosisC. Diabetic patient with moist skin. Fibrous dysplasiaD. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray 252.

. Buccally 31 C. ExcisionB. Setting contraction of the composite resin 258. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the compositeC. Thiokol or meraptan rubber C. it will betwo days before impression gets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar: A. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualitiesC. Several small mixes.How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed 257. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratiosE. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamelD. Which impressionmaterial is preferred? A. what type of amalgam mix would you prefer: A. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the compositeB. Surgery and radiation 254. Vinyl polysiloxane 256. sequentially trituratedD. Polyether B. RotationB. A large mix to ensure homogeneityB. Salivary pellicle growth at the interfaceE. Impression without elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown preparation. Condensation siliconeD. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely to be due: A. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth. Excision and extraction of teethC. RadiationD. Lingually 255.

4mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceD. 4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface 32 262. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the occlusal surface of class II cavity on amandibular first premolar in order to:I.The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is: A. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you should consider: A. 130-150° 259. you would expect: A. II a nd IV D. I and IIIC. Posses greater fracture toughness 260. 95-110°E. Seal the margins better and completelyB. Remove unsupported enamelII. Undergo greater colour changeD. Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphidesB. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp A. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been etched by anacid solution. 45-60°B. . Slight attrition of the opposing tooth 261. III and IVE. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during settingor in function the light cures material tends to: A. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cuspsC. Exhibit less wear on timeC. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 daysC. 45-80°D. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp hornIV. 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceB. Shrink rapidlyE. I and IIB. 70-85°C. Continued enamel declassification in the etched areaD. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp hornIII.

More efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceD. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceB. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been dissolved in each other inthe molten state. Proper depth cutsC.C. the more number of cutting blades and low speed will result in: A. an incipient carious lesion limited to the end of the proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as: A. Larger in radiographs than actual lesionD. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface 265. one of them is mercuryD. . At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a class II preparation for amalgam should be finished A. one of them is tin 267. An acute angleB. An angle of 45° 268. copper and zincB. None of the above 264. In regards to carbide burs. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surfaceC. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals.IV only 263. Articulating paper 266. An obtuse angleC. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver. A right angleD. Wax bite chew inB. which one of the following is theMOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying adequate occlusal clearance A. In radiographs. All of the aboveE. tin. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surfaceC. Radiopaque areaB. Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM: A. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is mixed with mercuryE. Visual inspectionD.

Size of the coneD.Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip. One canal with one foremanB. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healingD. the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye. His body temperature is 39°. Consistency of gutta perchaC. The term TUGBEN?? is related to : “When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha conein endodontics” A. A. Refer him to physician 33 B. Two canals with two foremen 273. Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant reliefC. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete sealC. Good if apex can be sealedC. . In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root filling. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY have: A. One or two canals with one foremanC. Dependant upon periapical surgeryD. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teethE. The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is : A. Tensile strength of the gutta perchaB. The extension of the filling is not critical 272. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal 270. What is the first thing you would do after taking history andtemperature: A. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced 269. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mmE. Length of the cone 271. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritationB. fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swellingD. Poor B. The swollen area is soft. Two canals with one foremanD.

A. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm 336. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of thecrownsC. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain 274. Just in contact with soft tissues 337. Excessive condensation of the porcelainE. Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth 41 E. Be clear of soft tissuesC. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontalsupportD. ZoE paste will accelerate healing 335. Failure to anneal the platinum matrixD. . Voids of porcelainD. Overall conservative for tooth structureC. Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be: A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thicknessB. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant theplanned reconstruction 275. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatmentB. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is. ShortB.The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crown is. the crown will appears: A. A. Use of weak cementumC. Slightly compress soft tissuesB. compared wit full ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is. Moisture contaminationB. A. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensiveoral reconstruction is whether. Labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch. An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns. Excessive firing temperatureC. Inclusion of platinum foilB. A.

Tacky adhesive to wallsB. Dental cariesC. The best location of pin in class II inlay is. ChelationB. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished. A. PulpotomyD. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgamB. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber. Where is the biggest thicknessB. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is: A. Better marginal sealing 42 . Wide 338. PulpectomyC. Contact area 340. on x rays you find dent in dent. Mesial and distal angleC. Radio opaqueC. NarrowD. the right treatment is: A. Dental plaque produces: A. 3 to 4 weeksE. Not irritatingD. 3 to 4 daysD. Not at all 341. A. Immediately after applicationC.LongC. Quick in setting 339. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam 342. Which is NOT characteristics of canal filing materials “obturation material” A. Acids 343. 24 hours after applicationB.

Upper premolar with MO cavity. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with amalgam: A. IB. V 346. Less corrosionC. Not all sizes availableD. 2. IIC. minimise the leakage of restorationsB. what is important about the application of thematrix band: “the question has shown too as …. Friction lockedB. Too expensiveC. The mesial concavity of the root surfaceB. Better tensile strengthD. IIIE. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A. May cause tooth cracking 345. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is: A. 1.B. Concavity of distal root surface 348. Small lingual pulpC. Etching techniques are used always to: A. Dryness of the mouthB. High lingual pulp hornE.5mm 347.What is complicated by” A. High buccal pulp hornD. 2mmD. . IVD.5mmC. Sjogren syndrome is characterised by: A. Higher and immediate compressive strength 344. 1mmB. for aesthetic considerations 349.

Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by:** A. The corrosive properties 353. Lower compressive strength . In regards to Partial dentures. Post operative painC. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Hard in room temperatureC. Type IV 75% 354. Secondary cariesD.Dryness of the eyesC. All of the above 350. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude 355. Paraesthesia 352. Why Class IV gold can not be used in cavity as a filling material: 43 A. AgranulocytosisB. Higher flow in room temperature 356. Low temperature solidifying pointB. Can not be polished “burnished”B. If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture. PainB. the most uncommon result is:** A. Candida Albicans 351. BleedingC. A. A. Blister formationB. how do you establish reliable vertical dimension. In regards to indirect compare to direct wax technique:** A. A. The type of gold that used for dental bridges is. Hard 18%B. The most common characteristic symptom of malignant tumours occurring in lower jaw is.

. your diagnosis would be: A. Lingual NerveB. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosisC. Smooth rete pegsB. LeukoplakiaB. What is the typical feature of Lichen planus:** A. Pocket formationD. 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6B. A. patient complains of itching and vesicalis on the upper labium (Vermillion region)every year. Denture stomatitis is treated with. Slight tiltingC. Long buccal nerve 360. Which is not a malignant lesion: A.357. Herpes simplexB. Mycostatin 364. AmphotencinB. TMJ problemE. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/ 359. Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies:** A. The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can show as. Impetigo 362. 7 and 6 361. Recurrent ulceration aphthaeC. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetise: A. All of the above 358. Tetracycline lozengesC. 8. A. Loss of contactsB. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer 44 363. 8.

CellulitisB. Blood countD. Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth discolouration: . PericoronitisB. Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of: A. Extra oral swellingC. Cotton woolB. Damage to infra orbital nerves 366. BiopsyD. Thermal 367. Electric pulp testC. The most serious complications which may occur from abscess of max canine is: A. cysts and chronic periapical abscesses may mostly be differentiatedby : A. Ground glassC. Granulomas. Orange peelD.Paget’s disease shows in the early stages in jaws: A. Intermittent pain 368. Microscopic examination of smearsB. The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Lacrimal duct stenosisD. Tenderness of tooth to pressureB. Serological exam 370. Beaten copped 365. Cavernous sinus thrombosisC. BiopsyC. Abscesses 369. CystsC. RadiographsB. Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A.

A 12 year old girl complains of sore mouth. indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. she has painful cervical lymphadenitisand a temperature of 39°c. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orallyB. Congestive cardiac failureC. AnxietyB. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortexC. The dentist should consult the patient’s physicianbecause: A. Thyrotoxicosis 374. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently: A. MeaslesB. TetracyclineC. Patient is more susceptible to infectionB. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment 375. Streptomycin 371. At the mandibular symphysis 45 372. Herpetic gingivostomatitisD. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operationC. oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history of steroid therapy. Erythema multiformC. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administrationof antibiotic prior to removal of teeth. . In the maxillaC. A patient whose hands fell warm and moist is MOST likely to be suffering from:** A. Near the angle of the mandibleB. PenicillinB. he presents for multiple extractions. What is theMOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Patient will need haematological evaluation 373.A. until aweek ago.

Alcohol 70%E. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is: A. To reduce the side effects risk of local anaesthetic injections. Sever uncontrolled diabetesC. At what rate is closed chest cardiac compression should be in an adult:** A. The most potent viricidal properties: “another format of the same answer: Indicatewhich of the following has viricidal properties” A. Herpes simplex virusC. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. GlutaraldehydeD. Herpes simplex bacteriaB. Use the weakest efficient percentage strengthD. Aspirate before injectionB. Mumps 46 E. Quaternary ammonium 379.Stevens-Johnson syndrome 376. 80 times a minute 381. Herpes zoster virusD. Leukaemia 380. Aplastic anaemiaD. Use the smallest effective volumeC. Sodium hypochloriteB. 50 times a minuteD. ChlorhexidineC. Borrelia vincentii 377. . you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. 12 times a minuteB. 24 times a minuteC. AgranulocytosisB. Inject rapidly 378.

Viral infectionD. EosinophilsD. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentrationB. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesC. Study cast 383. Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia: A. . Adverse affects on liver C. Mast cellsB. Composite resinD. Control pain 387. Avoid OsteomyelitisB. CandidosisC. Poor analgesics affects 382. GICC. Keratocyte 386. AmalgamB. Wrought base metal crown 384. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of:** A. Which type of cells does an abscess contain: A. Sjogren’s syndromeB. The final material you use for endodontically treated deciduous molars is:** A. Periodontal marker D. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to:** A. Sharp explorer F. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe/C. Epithelial cells 385. Bitewing radiographE. X-RayB.Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general anaesthetic agent because of:** A. ActinomycosisB. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised:** A.

A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected suffering from: A. Oral lichenoid reaction 47 C.Emotional reactionC. Heart diseaseB. Coarse food 393. . Liver damageC. Cervical cementum 392. Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease: A. Cicatricial pemphigoid 389. Sjogren’s syndrome 390. Occlusal traumaB. MumpsC. Diabetes 391. The marginal gingivaB. MucoceleB. The crystal alveolar boneC. Submandibular sialolith 388. Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres: A. Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to:** A. Brushing habitsD. Herpes simplex infectionB. Pemphigus vulgarisE. CalculusC. Antidepressants drugsD. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in:** A. Chronic inflammatory periodontal disease originates in: A. Aphthous ulcerationD.

Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hoursB. MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molar is: A. LevityE. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. If a child’s teeth do not form. Antibiotic cover is compulsory 603. this would MOSTLY affects the growth of:** A. Loss of facial contour 397. Intravenous injections 395. Whole faceC.ElasticB. Injecting in vascular areaC. MandibleD. the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occurs: 70 C. StriatedC. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swellingC. What preoperative advice you should give: A. After the age of 6 years. In regards to third molars surgery: A. Loss of arch lengthB. Non striatedD. Alveolar boneB. A 65 year old patient needs extraction of 44. Loss of speech soundC. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling 602. Injecting in supine positionB. . he has taken insulin in the morning. Wavy 394. Maxilla 396. Which of the following is LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A.

Both arches the same sideD.Take more sugar B. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover. Cluster headacheC. A mandibular permanent first molar had to be extracted. Associated with periodontal pocketD. Commonly related to radiograph angulation 607. Oral exam is negative. Trigeminal neuralgiaD. suture after surgical removalB. Loss of the gingival attachment is measured between: A.5 mg warfarin. stop warfarin and suture later 605. suture when bleeding has stoppedC. 3g Amoxil. Maintain normal dietC. Full mouth 609. this will affect: A. stop warfarin. Indicative of attachment lossC. give heparin and suture later E. Patient with prosthetic heart valve taking 7. Medication increases preoperatively 604. Temporal neuritis 608. Ampicillin cover. give heparin and suture later D. stop warfarin. What is your management: A. Patient needsextraction. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and aggravated by stress andalcohol. Top of the gingiva to the base 606. MigraineB. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover. The probable diagnosis is: A. She has????. Adjacent teethB. Teeth in the same quadrantC. 3g Amoxil. with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to hismaxillary posterior teeth. Pathognomonic of periodontal diseaseB. A patient 37 year old. Antibiotic 2 hours beforeD. CEJ to base of pocketB. Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. .

This is most likelyto be: A. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topicallyC. Lymphoma of parotid 611. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible 71 610. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis 613. Leukaemia 615. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPPB. What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:** A. Plaque inducedD. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phaseB. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is: A. Drug inducedC. Primarily infiltrate of plasma cellsB. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. Pleomorphic adenomaB. Spontaneous bleeding interproximalC. HereditaryB.The places for new erupted mandibular molars are created by: A. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytesD. A patient comes with a firm. Carcinoma of the parotidC. . Infiltrate of neutrophils 612. Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytesC. Apposition of alveolar processC. What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque following 21 days of plaqueaccumulate: A. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient 614. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvementD. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorlyB.

Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses for re-examinationD. root planningC. A patient has improperly formed DEJ. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to returnin six monthsB. reduction in size of pulp chamber. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignantC. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in 50 years oldfemale reveals chronic inflammation.A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae. Which is wrong in regards to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy: A. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if requiredC. Which of the following procedures should beemployed:** A. Amelogenesis imperfectaC. Removes plaqueC. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm. Oral prophylaxis. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 617. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplastyB.D. scaling. you would:** A. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:** A. chipping andattrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be: A. During extraction of maxillary third molar. What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic response to . it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. Stop medication 616. Remove the tuberosity and sutureB. Does not harm gingivaeB. however. leave in place and suture 620. Hypodontia or anodontia 72 619. Repeat the biopsy 621. FluorosisB. the tuberosity is fractured. gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is youtreatment: A. Removes required pellicle 618.

How many time do you breath in mouth to mouth resuscitation: A. What would you do if the systole is elevated:** A. Skin rash “dermatitis” with swelling of lips and eyes 622. Air way obstruction 624. Koplik’s spots are associated with one of the following: A. . Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation 629. Calm down the patient 625. Which are non-calcified areas in the child’s cranium: A. How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. 4-6 times a minute 623. What is Von Reckling hausen disease: A. Candidosis 628.medication: A. How do treat the cause of airway obstruction: A. What would you do if the diastole is elevated: A. Extension of the neck B. MeaslesD. Laryngeal muscle paralysisB. 10-12 times a minuteB. Fontanelles 627. DiabetesC. Flexion of the neck 73 630. Viral infectionB. What cause a reduce of pulmonary ventilation: A. NeurofibromaB. RubellaE. Investigate systemic cause 626.

Cushing’s disease 635. Whooping coughC. Herpes simplexB. Multiple myelomaD. Mouth to mouth respirationC.6000000 units of benzoyl penicillinB. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively 631. Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: . LeucopoeniaB. Nitro glycerine sub linguallyD. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Patient has fainted. AspirinD. Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated in patient before oral surgery with: A. NeutropeniaC. shallow respiration. Addison’s diseaseC. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneouslyB. LeukocytosisD. Acute pyogenic bacteria infection may result in:** A. Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. Diabetes mellitusB. Antibiotic therapyB. Codeine 632. moist skin. supine 636. Recumbent position. the signs are. Poor surgical techniquesC. LymphocytosisE.your first management is: A. Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. Bright’s diseaseF. Eosinophilia 633. Bacterial endocarditis 634. blanched face. weak pulse.

The immediate concern in the management of facial trauma should be: A. Uncontrolled diabetesF. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of ANUGB. The main vitamin to synthesis prothrombin is: A. By passD. Periodontitis is the most common problem in teenageE. Polycythemia 638. All of the above 640. All Perio pockets can be detected by x rays 74 D. Acute infection 637. Vitamin K 642.A. In regards to the conditions where you have to prescribe antibiotic prior to dental treatment: A. Valve replacementE. Securing a blood units to replace any lossB. 639. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of age. Patient who has WBC count of just over 100000 is most likely suffering from:** A. . Fixation of fracturesC. OedemaB. Coxsackie virus 641. Trauma of occlusal factors causes cleft or fibrous thickening of marginal gingivaeC. LeukaemiaC. HaemorrhageC. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditisC. Herpangina is caused by: A. LeucopoeniaB. Rheumatic fever B. Which of the following is TRUE: A.

SulphonamideC. ChloromycetinB. colitis during 5 weeks. . ErythromycinE. Patient under treatment with corticosteroids may develop: A. LeaningE. OsteoporosisD. Adrenal suppressionB. ExcitementB. Improper eye sightD. Neurological consultation 643. Disorder of steroid will result in: A. All of the above 647.Checking the breath and insure a free airwaysD. You will find the same signs of: A. Sever headacheF. Adrenal suppression 646. EuphoriaH. VomitingG. Multiple myeloma 75 B. herpes simplex. Shock C. Theantibiotic of choice is: A. Fixed dilated pupils 644. Achromycin 645. Esophagitis. AIDS 648. A young patient presented with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological trauma: A. Erythema multiformeC. Buffered penicillinD. Delayed healingC.

BradykininB. Delayed closure of fontanellesC. In regards to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Steam under pressure sterilisation is the best method to kill microorganisms. Near the same size 654. How does it work: A. They produce penicillinase. 653. . Atrophic oral and gastric mucosaC. Patient with morphine coma. None of the above 649. Naloxone 652. Dehydration of DNA 651. All of the above 650. Coagulation of plasma proteinB. EpinephrineC. AmphetamineD. Retention of maxillaD. When comparing the mesio distal length of second deciduous molar with the length of 2 nd premolar. Iron deficiency is a featureB. Dysphagia and angular cheilitisD. Shorter C. we will find the deciduous tooth is: A. Predisposing oral cancer E. Longer B.What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia:** A. what is the medication of choice to reverse its act: A. Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:** A. Defective formation of claviclesB. Delayed eruption of permanent teethE.

How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:** A. Origin of temporalisC. Like a haemophilic child 656. Origin of masseter muscleB. Like a normal childB. BleedingB. Hypodontia can be seen in: A. Which of the following does not carry a risk of infection from hepatitis B patient: A. HBs AgC. History 655. Protects parotid glandD. Bleeding in periodontal ligament 837. Rickets 839. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva 838. Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:** 94 E. HBe Ag . Hyperdontia can be seen in: A. The zygomatic process serves as: A.How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately: A. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis” 840. HBs Ag antigensB. Down’s syndromeC. Down’s syndromeB. Papillon le fever syndromeD. Insertion of lateral pterygoid 657. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis”B. Which is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Like a diabetic childC.

Through the alveolar B. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer isneeded or notC. sub-gingival debridement. sub-gingival debridement. Surgery. Oral hygiene. Oral hygiene. Loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years old child required: A. Surgical opening of canine fossaC. Odontogenic keratocyteB. Band and loop to maintain spaceB. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no other pathology. Filter is used in x ray machine to: A. What is your management: A. Removes low energy x rays 843. regular review and maintenanceC. Palatal root displaced into the antrum while extracting. Reduce exposure timeB. No treatment 845. Osteomyelitis 847. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption 844. . Radicular cystD. Remove the dentigerous cystB. sub-gingival debridement 842. regular review and maintenanceB. Central haemangioma 95 C. A patient 8 years old has 3 of first premolars erupted with swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. Nasal antrostomy 846. Which is the MOST conservative treatment for periodontal disease: A.841. Which one of the following is expansile lesion of jaw bone:** A. Soft tissues recision to allow eruptionC. what is your decision to retrieve it: A. The MOST frequent retained deciduous teeth in permanent dentition are: A.

24 were extracted. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a BenzodiazepamC. FructoseC. Mechanical exposureD. Full unit Class IIB. Carious exposureC. The MOST frequently synthesized substance by Streptococcus mutans is: A. The jugular-digastric interactionC. Class ID. Necrotic pulpB. . LivenB. ½ unit class IIC. ½ unit Class IIIE. The tensile nodes are located at: A. Post operative headacheD. Lower central incisorsD. Second lower molarsE. Second upper molars 848. Periapical disease 851. Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry DOESNOT give: A. Formcresol fixation is used in deciduous dentition in: A. The arches are now wellaligned. GlucanD. A good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessionsB. What molar occlusion will there be at the end of treatment when all spaces are closed: A. After you have successfully treated an Angle’s Class II division I malocclusion. The ideal ClassI incisor relationship has been produced and 14. Upper central incisorsC.Upper lateral incisorsB. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects 850. The mandible angleB. Full unit Class III 852. Glycogen 849.

5 minutes at 20ºCB. Until it clears upD. The fixing time for dental x ray should be: A. Increases the bending capacity of films 96 855. ImmunofluorescenceB. Serology 854. When restoring with GIC for abrasionB. 2 minutes at 40ºC 856. 2 minutes at 40ºC 857. Reduces patient exposure to x raysC. The developing time for dental x ray should be: A. When is LEAST required gingival groove: A. What is the range of the visible light cure beam: A. Internal carotid level 853. Metallic Plato backing the intra oral films are for:** A. 5 minutes at 20ºCB. At least 10 minutesC. Herpangina is the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:** A. Until it clears upD. At least 10 minutesC. 100-120 nmB.Mylohyoideus intersectionD. 200-300 nmC. When restoring with GIC base and composite laminationD. MicroscopyC. When restoring with amalgam . When restoring with GIC for root cariesC. 400-430 nmD. 470 nm or 450-500 nm 858. Reduces the flexibility of filmsB.

OxygenC.What would your treatment be: A. Radiograph shows anenlargement of periodontal ligament space of 11 which has a large restoration without a base. Why do we itch enamel for composite restorations: . Over trituration 860.C. Just supragingival whenever is possibleB. Cervical finish line of full veneer crown preparation should be placed: A. When you find ditching in an amalgam filing you would: A. Recision and antibioticB. Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is usually caused by: A. Antibiotic. According to the depth of gingival creviceC. Remove restoration.859. analgesic followed by root canal treatment after remission of acutephase. Sulphur oxidesB. Use an inverted cone bur B. Which is TRUE in regards to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. None of the above 863. pain. Repair defect with unfilled resins 861. Replace the defective filingB. Use a flat fissure bur C. Complete debridement of root canal. Patient presents with fever of 39ºC. Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent cariesD. ChloridesD. analgesic and antibiotic 97 D. At right angle to the long axis of toothE. swelling of upper lip and nose. What is the reason that pulp calcified after trauma: A. Parallel to occlusal planeD. apply a sedative dressing with corticosteroids 864. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death 862. At the junction of tooth and amalgam core 865.

To ensure excess mercury reaches the surface . Base has an adequate blood supplyD. How do remove the smear layer in root canal treatment: A. Use of 0. Decrease the chemical bonding capability 866. Current intensity is too highB. Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteumC. Base is wider than free marginB. Increase the chemical bonding capabilityE. Is a thermoplastic material 869. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of operationE. To decrease surface areaC. Why do you over pack amalgam: A. Gothic arch tracingD. Dispersion plate not applied to patientD. AestheticB. May cause irritation to mucosaB. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone 867. Current intensity is too lowC. Hedstrom fileC.A. To increase surface areaB. Swallowing 868. Zinc oxide impression material: A. EDTA 871. Does not really change the surface areaD. Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of vertical dimension: A. The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually means: A. None of the above 870. All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. PhoneticsC.5% hypochlorite sodiumB.

4-5mmB. To narrowD. Too shortC. Lingual of lower molarsC. Right angleC. To long 98 873. A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in normal alignment with PFM retraction. In vital pulp therapy. Buccal of upper molars 874. Too wideB. LengthB. . 45 angle 877. Why are three tripod marked on a cast being surveyed: A. Acute angleB. Lingual of upper molarsD. Degree of taper E. MaterialD. what is the optimum depth for a pin hole in a tooth: A. To orient cast to articulator B. Less than 2mmD. Cross sectionC. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on: A.5mm 876. How will the tooth appear: A.872. Approximately 2mmC. 1-1. Proximal cavosurface walls in Class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam. All of the above 875. Should befinished at which angle to external surface: A. Which of the following is more prone to crack: A. Obtuse angleD. Buccal of lower molarsB.

What effect do fissure sealants have on caries progression: A. Opposing and adjacent teethD. which of the following is correct: A. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor 884. The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is: A. To provide guide planes 878. Minor connector should engage undercuts 99 882. Test only suspected tooth/teethE. All of the above 883. Canine> first premolar> second premolar C. First molar> first premolar> second premolar B. The powder/water ratio for the investment was too high 879. What control tooth or teeth should be used when testing a suspected pulpally involved tooth: A. Soluble in chloroformB. Major connector should be rigid as possibleB. Contralateral and opposing teethC. Air carried into mouldC. Too weak for narrow canals 880.3mm what . An irregular shaped void on surface of a gold cast would indicate that: A. Adjacent tooth and contralateral teethB. discrepancy is about 0. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of freshly established cariesB.To orient cast to surveyor C. In regards to connectors on dentures. Cast crown fits on die but not on tooth. A fragment of investment had been carried into the mouldB. Burning out of wax was inadequateD. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of existing caries 881. What is CORRECT in regards to periodontal surface area in mandibular teeth: A.

12 hrsB. walls of the fissure 887. Acrylic self-cure special trays. how long should have been made prior taking impression: A. Wait for an hour before pouring 890. Movable component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed bridge is placed. Burnish marginsD. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further breakdownC. CondyleC. Coronoid processB. In regards to marginal leakage in amalgam: A. Masseter muscle 888. Chroma is: A.would you do: A. In regards to shade. Use thick mix of cement 885. Value 889. Immediately after fabricating itC. Plaque accumulation 891. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary cariesB. What interferes with maxillary denture in posterior vestibular fold: A. bottom of the fissureB. Take a new impression and make new crownC. Which of thefollowing is TRUE: . After been left in water for an hour D. Pit and fissure caries start at: A. Saturation of hueC. Placement of denturesB. BrightnessB. Secondary caries may develop 886. The MAIN CAUSE of gingivitis in partial dentures patients is: A. Relieve cast from the insideB.

1mm 898. 1 monthC. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced 894. Contraction of the infrahyoid musclesE. When lateral incisor is lost. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment 893. 2mm to achieve a good resistance formC. . Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forcesagainst the gravity 896. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic 897. 2 mm to achieve a good retention formB. Should be placed on the longer retainer B. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector 892. Contraction of lateral pterygoidB.100 A. or having. Contraction of temporalisC. 6 monthsB. Which is the distal attachment ofsuperior hard lateral plate 895. How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutmentB. two laminae. Contraction of the suprahyoid musclesD. What is the Bilaminar Zone: A. patient has Class II Division II type with deep bite. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylicB. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to hardness: A. Which is the neutral zone: A. or thin plates. How long it would take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. Which of thefollowing is contra indicated: A. Formed of. Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible: A. The zone where displacing forces are neutralB. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylicC.

Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operativebleeding: A. To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would: 101 A. Use a cold glass slab 902. Boiling water at 100ºC “210ºF” for 2 hoursC.3 months 899. Tongue thrust 900. o. 50 years old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. Elevated prothrombin timeD. 27 years old female. None of the above 905. Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization: A.M. . Surgical incisionB. When treating a tooth with a non-vital pulp with a fistula presented. Class II Division IB. A & D are correctE. Dry heat at 177ºC “350ºF” for 60minsE. Your management is: A.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration 903. Antibiotic coverageC. All of the above will achieve sterilisation 904. shows sudden oedematous rash and collapses after an injection of barbiturates. Hot air at 160ºC “320ºF” for 90minsB. The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is: A. fistula should be treatedby: A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110B. Long bone growth by: A. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula 901. Gastric ulcer C. Autoclave at 121ºC “250ºF” under 15psi for 20 minsD. I.

she has had a rubbery. Mitosis of osteoblastC. MucoceleB. The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is: A. Cortical bone graftE. Lymph nodeC. painless nodulewithin the substance of parotid gland. Lesions may present anywhereD. Use lead collimator 102 910. Lesions may present on legsE. Lymphocytic bone graftB. Heltozygo?? Marrow graftD. What is TRUE in regards to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. Freeze-dried bone graftC. A patient states that for ALMOST a year now. Cancellous bone graft 908. This MOST likely is: A. Benign mixed tumour D. Dentinal tubules are more than usual . Sialolith with encapsulations 909. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysisD. Always accompanied with skin lesionsC. Never accompanied with skin lesionsB. Which is NOT CHARCTERISTIC of dentinogenesis imperfecta: A. Lesions may present on arms 907. The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molar is: A. Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic potential is: A. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis 906. firm. Density of lamina dura 911.Mitosis in osteoblastB.

your diagnosis is:** A. ConcrescenceE. DilacerationB. Occlusal planeD. Hawley plateE. Incompetent lips 916. The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is: A. Naso maxillary complexE. slight version of maxillary Class I. Anterior cranial base 914. Head cap therapyC. MobilityB. Presence of true pocketD. adequate archlength. mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual. 7 years child with Class I malocclusion. C. Oral screenB. Nasal floor B. Taurodontism 913. What is your management: A. To prevent exposure of a ?????? on a permanent root. Apical migration of gingival epitheliumE. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teethD. Cranial vaultC. on x rays it shows with two roots and two roots canals. Expansion screw plate 915. the dentist BEST approach for elevatingflap is to use: . GeminationC. Presence of subgingival calculusF. Dull pain on closingC. Clinical indications of pathogenic chronic periodontitis: A. Child with less than normal number of teeth. D & E 917. Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in: A.912. FusionD.

Produces extrinsic tooth stain 923. To improve comfort and function 920. exposed wide area of dental roots. Free gingival graftE. Excretes rapidly by kidneyD. Which isthe procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface: A.A. Modified wide flap 921. What does contra indicate distal wedge in molars’ area: A. Double flapB. Apically positioned flapE. Examination reveals area of gingival recession. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molarsD. Sub-epithelial tissue graftC. Long attached gingivaC. Supra bony pockets distal to molars 922. What is TRUE in regards to primary occlusal trauma: A. Split thickness flap 918. teeth should be splinted: A. Bacteria staticE. Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of fluoride element: . Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride ion: A. Crosses placental barrier B. Full thickness flapD. Apically positioned graftD. Deposits in boneC. Distal flutingB. Mobility caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal ligament 103 919. In advance periodontitis with marked mobility. Stripping procedureC. Free gingival autograftB.

4 weeksC. 1:1 931. Less vibration on patient 929. MaterialD. LEAST use of blood count: A. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisationC. Degree of taper E. 4 months 930. Cross sectionC. Effective in incorporated into dental plaqueB. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentineB. 6-8 monthsD. Under cut area 926. How long it would take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using Calciumhydroxide:** 104 A. The FIRST advantage of using 100000 rpm and over rotors is: A. Infectious mononuclears 928. 2:3B. 6-8 weeksB. Can not be perforated 927. Protrusive movement in wax: A. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm Does not relate to: A. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities 924. In regards to topically applied fluoride : A. LengthB. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel 925. What does contraindicate bridge works: . The OPTIMUM crown to root ratio for abutment tooth is:** A.A.

Prevents distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth 933. Patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth.A. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia: A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments 932. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks 938. remove filling and restore with temporarily filling 940. How would you treat hyperaemia “hyperaemic tooth”:** A. Calcium hydroxideC. Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there since birth. what would you do: A. the tooth is filled with composite longtime ago. Patient has been coming to your clinic for several times complaining about soreness under the denture. What is the difference between arcon and non arcon articulator: A. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps 934. Dividing third lower molars roots 937. . Elevators are not used in: A. Corticosteroid paste 939. Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally: A. Accidental exposure of pulpB. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cementB. the diagnosis is: A. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping: A. Oxygen must not be less than 30% 941. Haemangioma 936. X ray. what would you do: A. Halothane should not be less than 5%B. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment 935. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic toothC.

25N to measure pocket depth: A. Acromegaly 105 B. CEJ to base of pocketB. Missing proximal contacts 947. Which of the following elements is not found in normal periodontal membrane: A. Enough proximal surfaceB. For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the primarily retentive care: A. Periodontal pocket is measured between: A.Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be caused by: A. Paget’s diseaseC. FibroblastB. Which of the following situations make periodontal disease more sever: A. Away from edentulous spaceB. Too wide bucco lingual embrasureC. Vest cells of malaiseE. The auxiliary occlusal rest on tooth for partial denture should be placed: A. ErythrocytesD. 4 mm indicates periodontitis 945. When you apply a pressure of 0. Top of the gingiva to the base 944. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth 943. Epithelial cellsC. Giant cell lesionD. Dental cysts 942. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 946. Primordial cystsE. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of cariesB. .

Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of: A. Retention cyst 111 D. Respiratory depressionD. Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problemsC. Near fulcrum lineD. Thyroglossal duct cystC. A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam cored. The reason that endodontically treated teeth are weak is: A. Between crown and cementB. Branchial cystB. HypotensionC. Loss of coronal tissues 1005. Loss of blood supplyB. Hypertension 950.Adjacent to edentulous spaceC. In the crown and the rootD. 58 years old male has had a 60 yo WM course of radiation given for carcinoma of tongue. Palatal 1004. where does failureoccur: A. Away from fulcrum line 948. Between core and cementC. Which is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic: A. No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasmsD. .Patient complains of pain associated with poor dentition. Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic with antibioticcoverageB. The dental management would be: A. Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen treatment plus a primaryclosure of wounds under antibiotic coverageE. Angioneurotic oedemaB. In the core and the margin preparation 949. RanulaD.

Using thicker mix of cementsD. Oxide Zinc and eugenolC. All of the above 1009. Replace the compositeB. Contamination at the porcelain metal interfaceC. PulpalgiaB. On examination of composite restoration you find a dark attain: A. Ledermix 1008.No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae 1006. Between bisque stage and glazing stageB. Between one opaque and two opaque stages 1011. Occasional sensitivity in a shallow class I amalgam restoration after two days would bemanaged by: A. The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is: A. All of the above 1012. Between preheat and opaque stagesC. Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeksE. Pulp capping in mature tooth may be followed by:** A. Replace old filing immediatelyB. Hypercalcification within root canalsD. “Pop off” of a porcelain veneer from under the lying gold crown is due to:** A. Under firing the opaque layer D. Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner B. Repair with unfilled resinC. Apply topical fluoride at the margin 1007. Between opaque and bisque stagesD. When should not contaminate metallic framework during fabrication of porcelain fused tometal crown: A. Signs of reversible pulpitis 1010. . Internal resorptionC.

The MOST likely factor contributes to tooth eruption is:** A. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of: A. Decrease incisal guidanceB. Vascular pressureD.Attrition in elderly. Bone growthC. on examination you found a composite restoring a goodcavity preparation without any secondary caries. . Increase compensate curve 1015. Smooth surfaceC. Spoon shape with rounded margin 1018. Patient complains of sensitivity. Reduce cusps heightC. what is your next step: A. The developing periodontal ligament 1014. Regeneration periodontal surgery: A. Inaccessible area 1016. Regeneration of cementumB. why do teeth maintain contact: 112 A. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamedB. Increased interocclusal distanceC. What changeswill you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementumB. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulpC. Pit and fissureB. Formation of dentine 1013. The growing rootB. Repeat restoration 1017. Ask patient to come back in six monthsD. What is the shape of occlusal rest: A. Initial condylar guidance of 25 degree was wrong is changed to 45 degree.

Ulcers. Low number of streptococcus mutansB. Hyposecretion of the adrenal 1024. Viral infection 1022. reduced rete pegs will be diagnosed as: A. Myxoedema occurs due to:** A. Homo formation is better at high sugar intakeD. 12-30 hoursD. 5-12 hours 113 C. DiabetesB. Why is the frequency of carbohydrates intake more important quantity: A. 30-48 hoursE. Gingivitis is not caused by: A. Mobility 1020. 2-5 hoursB. Tzanck cellsB. Hyposecretion of thyroid-hypothyroidismD. 48-96 hours 1023. Desquamative gingivitis 1025. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque 1021. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentrationC. What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis: A. . Hypersecretion of the thyroidB. Which of the following is seen in benign mucosal membrane pemphigoid:** A.Long junctional epithelium 1019. The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of: A. necrosis and plasma cells at the basal membrane with atrophic thin areas. Hypersecretion of the adrenalC.

Ask the patient to come after the deciduous teeth fall off and complete permanentdentition eruptsD. Primary lesion is not contagiousB. A. Perform mixed dentition analysisB. In syphilis: A. Scarring of the conjunctiva 1026. Oral lesions are not seen in less than 1%C. ScarlatinaE. OsteomyelitisD. A 10 year old child presents with crowding of the dentition and desirescorrection. Which of the following is not true about warfarin. Only the lesions of the primary and secondary stages are contagiousD. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin 1029. PancreatitisC.Intraepithelial vesiclesC. Apply a fixed appliancesE. Histopathology like aphthous ulcer D. INR of 3 is enough to start any extractionB. ThyroiditisB. What your next step would be: A. The spirochetes disseminate rapidly throughout the body within 24hour after contactB. Pneumonia 1030. In regards to paracetamol: . Staphylococcus aureus can cause which of the following infection: A. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin timeC. Both the primary chancre and the secondary mucous patch stages of the diseaseare highly infectiousC. Extract the deciduous teethC. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidlyD. Which of the following is TRUE about syphilis: A. Spirochetes disseminate in 24 hours 1027. All of the above 1028. Review in yearly intervals 114 1031.

Patient with weak pulse. Give insulin injectionC. Inject adrenaline 1034. What is your management: A.The lesion is painless and of normal colour. Pemphigus 1037. moist skin and dyspnoea. Are predominantly anaerobicB. Less than 35 degreeB. Must always treated by surgeryD. Liver damage in mild overdose 1032. Expansion screwD. Aphthous ulcer C. Less than 45 degreeC. Bite planeC. Hawley appliance 1035. what is the first thing to do: A. Maintain airway and place in supine positionB.A. The angle of blade for closed curettage is:** A. HSV 1B. what is TRUE: A. Less than 100 degree 1036. Patient complains of finger-like growth on the lateral aspect of the tongue. Less than 90 degreeD. In regards to periapical lesions. . In which of the following conditions vesicles/bullae are never seen prior toulceration: A. Change fro aerobic into anaerobic 1033. Must be treated by antibioticsC. Single retroclined upper incisor in 9 years old. Administer oxygenD. The MOST PROBABLE diagnosis is: A. Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teethB. space is sufficient.

UreaB. On HIV patient which of the following IS NOT RECOGNISED: A. Directly applied on decalcified enamelB. Papilloma 1038. Clotting factor productionC. Cellular energy production 1039. Filiform papillaeC. Collagen synthesisB. Squamous cell carcinomaB. End product of amino acids metabolism is: A. Patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth. Thiamine is useful in: A. Epithelial integrityD. Perform an excision biopsyC. NeurofibromaD. Allantoin 1042. Rheumatic fever B. fever and joint swelling. the MOST probable diagnosis is: A. . Rheumatic arthritisC.Folate papillaeB. Applied after eruption 115 1040. Uric acidC. What your next step would be: A. Keep observingB. HIV gingivitisC. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase 1043. You “roundedoff” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. Osteoarthritis 1041. Topical fluorides are MOST beneficial when: A. Child presented to you with sore throat.

The hamular notch is important in full dentures construction because it aids in the setting position of the artificial teeth A. Garr’s osteomyelitisB. GingivoplastyD. Bleeding timeC. Which of the following isMOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks: A. Condensing osteitisC. First statement is true. Clotting timeB. A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction. 1048. External lymphomaE. The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. Sedimentation rateE. What would you do: A. Complete blood cell count 1046. . Flap surgery 1045. Debridement and antimicrobial rinsesC. Infection with new bone formation is: A. Indirect retainers 1049. Prescribe antibioticsB. You want to place a post on an endodontically treated tooth which has a good silver point “Ag point”. but the reason given is false 1050. there is no evidence of failure of the previous root filing. Remove and replace the Ag point with Gutta Percha before the post preparation.OsteosarcomaD. Prothrombin timeD. Kaposi sarcoma 1044. Torus 1047. The placement of metal stops at a location remote to direct retainers to increase retention istermed: 116 A.

Avoid contractionC. Loss of water and contraction 1058. The MOST common reason for full denture failure: A. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curveB.When setting up teeth for complete dentures having bilateral balanced occlusion. Two canals and one foramina 1057. what would youdo to solve this: A. Minimise distortionB. Upper buccal and lower lingual cusps 1055. A complaint of burning tongue in an elderly female would be a result of: A. Psychogenic 1054. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane 1051. Decrease the angle of the occlusal plane 1052. Increase the compensatory curveB. What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the mesial buccal canal of upper first molar:** A. Why would you invest the wax pattern as soon as possible in an indirect inlay fabrication: A. The distal attachments of the lateral pterygoid to the condyle 1056. What does “SYNERESIS” in prosthodontics mean: A. . The upper and lower joint spacesB. Allergy because of dentureC. Inadequate interocclusal clearance 1053. When patient bites in protrusion you notice that posterior teeth do not meet. separation of posterior teeth during protrusion is done by: A. In posterior crossbite situation which are the supporting cusps: A. A systemic allergyB. The bilaminar zone in reference to TMJ refers to: A.

I. Why do people with cleft palate/lip have speech difficulties: A. I and II 117 B. Mylohyoid ridgeIII . IIIC.714 Uploaded: 10/17/2008 Category: Uncategorized.Avoid expansion 1059. Incisive foramenV. ToriA. II. II. None of the aboveE. I. Midline of the palateII. Info and Rating Reads: 17. Difficulties in keeping the intraoral pressure. Mental foramenIV. VD. MCQ 1060 Questions Download this Document for FreePrintMobileCollectionsReport Document Report this document? Please tell us reason(s) for reporting this document Top of Form 300de2355fa558 doc Spam or junk Porn adult content Hateful or offensive If you are the copyright owner of this document and want to report it. All of the above.55556 5 false false 0 (9 Ratings) . Report Cancel This is a private document.QUESTIONS IN DOUBT:131415192426303234374246485859606669737680828991929698*100104105109110111118125136 141142147150152154180181215218223226 118 227223234246249253260265272276284285290294296299301303304 503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. Rated: Bottom of Form 4. please follow these directions to submit a copyright infringement notice. Upon palpation which of the following areas would be found to have overlying mucosa: I. 1060.

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