Que: Can you provide some information on this examination?

Ans: The Civil Services Examination (CSE) is conducted every year by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) as a common entrance examination for recruitment to various services like the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS), Group 'A' and Group 'B' - Central Services. (more content follows the advertisement below) ADVERTISEMENT

Que: Who can appear for this examination?
Ans: I. Academic Eligibility The candidate must possess a degree from an Indian University or an educational institution deemed as a University or possess an equivalent qualification. Those in the final year of a degree course can also appear in the Preliminary Examination. II. Other Eligibility Conditions i. For the IAS and the IPS, the candidate must be a citizen of India. For the other services, a candidate must be either: a citizen of India, or a subject of Nepal, or a subject of Bhutan, or a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before January 1, 1962, with the intention of permanently settling in India, or a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. The candidate must have attained 21 years of age on August 1st of the year of examination and must not have attained 30 years of age on that date. The upper age limit will be relaxed by 3 years for OBC candidates and 5 years for SC/ST candidates. The upper age limit is also relaxed in favour of certain categories of civil servants working under the Government of India and Defence Services Personnel.

Que: What are Optional Subjects for the Main Examination?
Ans: Optional subjects: Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science, Botany, Chemistry, Civil Engineering, Commerce and Accountancy, Economics, Electrical Engineering, Geography, Geology, History, Law, Management, Mathematics, Mechanical Engineering, Medical Science, Philosophy, Physics, Political Science and International Relations, Psychology, Public Administration, Sociology, Statistics, Zoology. Each paper is of 3 hours duration.

Que: Which combinations not allowed in IAS Examination?
Ans: The following combinations not allowed are: Political Science & International Relations and Public Administration Commerce and Management Anthropology and Sociology Maths and Statistics Agriculture and Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Management and Public Administration Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science and Medical Science Any two branches of engineering. Combination of two literatures in the above list.

Que: Information about
all Eligibility Conditions?

Ans: (i) Nationality: (1) For the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India. (2) For other services, a candidate must be either: (a) A citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India. or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Srilanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Provided further that candidates belonging to categories (b), (c) and (d) above will not be eligible for appointment to the Indian Foreign Service. A candidate, in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India. (ii) Minimum Educational Qualifications: The candidate must hold a degree of any of Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University Under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or possess an equivalent qualification. Note I: Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission's examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifyingexamination will also be eligible for admission to the Preliminary Examination. All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission for taking the Civil Services (Main) Examination will be required to produce proof of passing the requisite examination with their application for the Main Examination failing which such candidates will not be admitted to the Main Examination. Note II: In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his admission to the examination. Note III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications, which are recognised by Government, as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination. Note IV: Candidates who have passed the final professional M.B.B.S. or any other Medical Examination but have not completed their internship by the time of submission of their applications for the Civil Services (Main) Examination, will be provisionally admitted to theExamination provided they submit along with their application a copy of certificate from the concerned authority of the University/Institution that they had passed the requisite final professional medical examination. In such cases, the candidates will be required to produce at the time of their interview original Degree or a certificate from the concerned competent authority of the University/Institution that they had completed all requirements (including completion of internship) for the award of the Degree. (iii) Age limit: 21 years must be completed on 1st August of the year, which a candidate is appearing. Maximum 30 for general category, 33 for OBCs and 35 for SCs/STs. Ex-servicemen will get 5 more years exemption from the prescribed age limit. (The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalentexamination certificate). (iv) Number of Attempts: Four attempts for open, seven for OBCs and no limit for SCs/STs. If a person appears in the PreliminaryExamination or even one paper is counted as an attempt. (v) Restrictions on applying for the examination: A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of an earlier examinationand continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this examination.

Que: How to Apply for the examination?
Ans: The UPSC have developed an application form common for all their examinations, which will be processed on computerised machines. This application form alongwith an Information Brochure containing general instructions for filling up the form, an acknowledgement card and an envelope for sending the application is obtainable from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices throughout the country as against cash payment of Rs. 20/- (Rupees twenty only). Form should be purchased from the designated Post Offices only and not from any other agency. This form can be used only once and for only one examination. Candidates must use the form supplied with the Information Brochure only and they should in no case use photocopy / reproduction / unauthorisedly printed copy of the Form. Since this form is electronically scannable, due care should be taken to fill up the application form, correctly. While filling up the application

form, please refer to detailed instructions given in the Notice.

Keywords:
Frequently Asked Questions for IAS Aspirants,Academic Eligibility,science questions, questions books, questions notes, paper questions, examination questions, exam questions, sample questions, tests questions, study questions

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1. Be very particular about the subject you choose for prelims, as you will be appearing for an objective type of paper. History, maths, geography may prove to be very scoring. Choose subjects which have availability of books, reading material and guidance. In recent years engineering subjects like civil and electrical can be chosen, giving BEs and IITians an edge (yes! even here they are giving the BAs and BScs a tough fight!) (more content follows the advertisement below) ADVERTISEMENT 2. G.K. will definitely pay in your prelims. Reading newspapers, watching TV news and of course quiz shows like KBC is a must. 3. If you have been lucky enough to reach the interview stage book knowledge may not be the only thing you need. Your mental alertness will count as they ask you questions like “How many steps did you walk up to reach here?” or “ What is the colour of the wall behind you ?” - So be prepared. 4. Enhance your personality because it will definitely be one of the criteria for selection. For IPS physical wellbeing is of great importance, you should be medically fit. 5. Improve your communication skills. IFS aspirants must be proficient in at least one foreign language. So go ahead, have your say in this political mess of our country and try to make it a better place.

TIPS on IAS From Mr. Vaid of Vaid's ICS Coaching Center
It was in 1981 when I had my first encounters with UPSC through the aspirants (for IAS etc.) who sought my help to prepare for certain specific topics in GS and my parent discipline, i.e. Anthropology. Today, 13 years later, through regular interaction with the UPSC experts and students all over India, particularly at Delhi, Lucknow, Patna, Chandigarh and Hyderabad, I find myself in a favourable position to pen down my experiences and suggestions to the young aspirants. In the early eighties, there were three (Delhi, Allahabad and Patna) major centre of UPSC related activities, while Hyderabad was coming up fast. There used to be 40 to 60 thousand contenders for the coveted posts. Today, while the number of aspirants has risen by over 200 percent, many new centres have come up in almost every state capital and many other major cities. In those days professionals did not see any merit in contention for these jobs, but recent years have witnessed a flood of such aspirants, at times sweeping the top positions in the merit list. In those days History, Sociology, Political Science etc. used to be the most popular optionals while today, many hitherto less known subjects have taken over. Besides, many states have changed their pattern of PCS examination in line with UPSC examination. This change in the scenario, resultant of a number of factors, demands that the serious contenders to the job must adopt a more rational, more systematic strategy and approach, right from the moment they think of preparing for the civil services examination. On the first thought of appearing in the Civil Services Examination (C.S.E.), the first issue is the selection of optionals. In a way, selection of right optionals is the most crucial step. Post-graduates in any discipline, generally prefer taking up their parent subject for Prelims. Though such selection is quite logical, aspirants with any science discipline as their base subject must ponder over the issue more seriously. Maths, Physics, Geology etc., optionals for Prelims must be opted for, only if one is out and out thorough with the subject. As UPSC ensures that 'some' candidates from every discipline must qualify for the Mains, aspirants with a science subject must judge themselves correctly regarding their own capability to be included in these 'some'. Some of the social sciences (e.g. History, Sociology and Public Administration) opted by quite a significant majority can, however, be a much safer bet, particularly for those (ordinary science graduates) who do not have any specific parent subject or for those who are not able to develop confidence in their parental subject. In either case, the formal preparation must start from the basic fundamentals, even if a person is already a post-graduate in that subject. General Studies (GS) has to be prepared on quite a different plane because the content of this paper is too spread out

and because any issue, major or minor, can be asked objectively. Traditionally, 10 + 2 level books of NCERT or any state education board had been covering a major part of the content but, these days, the items in news during the last one year or so, are being asked quite frequently. Problems are generally faced in everyday science (by the candidates with social sciences background) or in mental ability or in the fundamentals of economics. The most important aspect for the preparation of GS Prelims, therefore, is to identify the loop-holes and plug them urgently. Many of you prepare a subject in terms of "reading" (once, twice, thrice etc.) with or without underlining the important facts. It results not only in longer time of preparation, but also many important points may skip. Also, even if you underline the highlighting points, most of you have the tendency to read the text in full while going for the subsequent readings. It is, therefore, advisable that texts must be read once and all important points (likely to be forgotten) recorded separately so that you need not study volumious texts again. This would save on your time and should result in greater efficiency. The Mains: For right approach, the preparation of Mains should start before or at least concurrent with Prelims. Just because you have to prepare for Essay, GS and the two optionals (English and a regional language, the one/two other compulsory, do not require a separate preparation) you never get enough time (to prepare for all these) after the declaration of Prelims' results. Further, while Prelims is only a screening test, it is on the basis of your performance in Mains, on which mainly depends the final outcome of your efforts. Strategically, therefore, the preparation for the examination should start about one year in advance and you should think about appearing in the Prelims only when you have had a strong grip over the Mains' subject matter.

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Civil Service Test Practice
By Ajit kumar singh on July 21st, 2011 No matter how much you may want one of these pre-employment types of exams to go away, it never will. And the best way to deal with an examination is to embrace it and give it your best shot. After all, careful preparation is required. And this type of pre-test prep can help you [...] No Comments | Read full story » • • • • • Current Affairs Careers in IAS IAS Eligibility IAS Interview IAS Centers List

IAS Papers : Tips to Prepare General Studies Paper

An extensive study is required for preparing GS Prelims. Start your preparation with ncert books of 10th standard on various subjects like History, Geography, Polity, Science etc. and then go through other books recommended for G.S. It will be better to prepare G.S. Mains first and then for Prelims. For G.S. Mains start your preparation [...]
Current Affairs

The current affairs of india and international current event affairs, are an important part of the general studies paper, both in the mains and the prelims. At the interview current affairs news rules and decides the rank of the candidate and even whether s/he will get through or not. In such a scenario the [...]
Multiple Choice Economics Questions

1. According to the Economic survey 2010-11 what percentage growth was recorded by the manufacturing sector in 2010? a. 9.1% b. 8.6% c. 7.3% d. 8% Answer: a

2. As per the economic Survey of India 2010-11, the production of food grains is estimated at over 232 million tonnes with record production of which food crop? a. Rice b. Wheat c. Bajra d. Maize Answer: [...]
General Knowledge Questions With Answers

1.Which Indian state is the largest producer in the world of the golden coloured ‘Muga’ silk? Assam Orissa West Bengal 2. Anandmath’, ‘Durgeshnondini’ and ‘Kapalkundala’ novels were authored by which Bengali writer ? Sharat Chandra Chatterjee Bankim Chandra Chatterjee Bibhuti Bhushan Bandopadhyay 3. Which country is also known as the ‘Rainbow Nation’ ? Australia Switzerland South Africa 4. Which among the following is manufactured at Avadi [...]
IAS Exam Preparation Guidance and Success Tips

Exam fear is an awful sensation that we many people experience. From those early school examinations we sat, right through to the Civil Service test – examinations never get any easier. But there is one thing you can do though to give yourself the best chance possible at getting a great mark. And that [...]
UPSC aspirants can now choose Indian languages for interview

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has informed the Bombay high court that candidates, who opt for an Indian language medium (other than Hindi) for the written Civil Services exam, can henceforth either choose the same Indian language, English or Hindi for the interview. Similarly, even those candidates, who give the main exam in English, [...]
3 Tihar inmates appear in civil services exam

Among the thousands of civil services aspirants are three inmates of Tihar Prisons, including a murder convict and an IITian, who appeared in the examination this time. Siddharth Singh Sidar from Chhattisgarh, who is undergoing imprisonment for cheating and once trained IAS aspirants, Amit Jha from Bihar who was held for kidnapping and Sandeep from [...]
How to crack civil service exam

Civil services exams are one of the respectable exams. Each year, thousands of people take up this exam but only few are able to make it through preliminary exams. Cracking IAS examination is not a cakewalk. Aspiring candidates have to undergo a rigorous process for clearing the paper and being selected for preferred services. [...] • • • • • • • • • • • •

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e.. He sleeps at night. If you had three apples and four oranges in one hand and four apples and three oranges in the other hand. What looks like half apple? A: The other half.02 Q...05 Q.. (UPSC 23 Rank Opted for IFS) . JUNE 21.08 Q. How can you drop a raw egg onto a concrete floor without cracking it? A... .. UPSC Exam 1998 Interview Question and there Answer given by candidates. 2011 Some important twisted questions asked in IAS Interview.. .06 Q..(Good one) (UPSC 11 Rank Opted for IPS) .09 Q.. What happened when wheel was invented? A: It caused a revolution. Very large hands. how long would it take four men to build it? A. How can a man go eight days without sleep? A.10 Q. 50 51 52 53 The national flower of Italy is The national flower of China is The permanent secretariat of the SAARC is located at The gateway to the Gulf of Iran is Lily Narcissus Kathmandu Strait of Hormuz . (UPSC IAS Rank 98) . No time at all it is already built..07 Q. And now these are IAS i. If you throw a red stone into the blue sea what it will become? A.(UPSC Rank 14 Opted for IES) . It will Wet or Sink as simple as that.11 Q: what is the opposite of Nag panchmi? A: Nag did not punch me.Examinations Sample IAS Exam PaperInterview Techniques for IAS Calendar for IAS ExamPost Offices for IAS Exam Form Time Table for IAS Exam Copyright © 2011 IAS Papers | Civil Service Exam Preparation | TUESDAY.. Bay of Bengal is in which state? A: Liquid (UPSC 33Rank) . What can you never eat for breakfast? A: Dinner.... what would you have? A. Concrete floors are very hard to crack! (UPSC Topper) . (UPSC .IAS Topper) . since you will never find an elephant with onehand. No Probs.oh sorry!! IAS Officers now .01 Q. (UPSC IAS Rank 2) . It is not a problem. How can you lift an elephant with one hand? A.04 Q.. If it took eight men ten hours to build a wall..03 Q.

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integrity and qualities of leadership .93 94 95 The country known as the Land of Thunderbolts is The highest waterfalls in the world is the The largest library in the world is the Bhutan Salto Angel Falls. integrity and qualities of leadership .Optional Subjects  General Studies  Mathematics . There are two papers (duration of each being 2 hrs). Essay GK and Current Affairs: 2 papers on general studiesOptionals: papers from two subjects that fall in optional-1 and two papers from optional-2 (a choice of subjects is listed by the UPSC in the prospectus) Candidates who are successful in the main examinations are eligible for an interview which plays a crucial part in the selection. it comprises of 9 papers in all (a lot more strenuous than CAT!) Duration of each paper is 3 hrs.It has objective ie multiple choice questions. The prelims score has no bearing for determining the final merit list for the services. Under each subject is provided reources regarding the subject that includes prelims and mains IAS syllabus as well as question papers. 2. The main written examination usually takes place in Oct-Nov. Important: It is not compulsory to choose the same subjects of your graduation. strategy and suggested readings for the subject. it comprises of 9 papers in all (a lot more strenuous than CAT!) Duration of each paper is 3 hrs. Main examination The main written examination usually takes place in Oct-Nov. English. Chem. English. Stats etc. The number of candidates called for the interview is normally twice the number of vacancies. PS. The IAS Syllabus and other services like the IPS and Income Tax is the same. 3. The Board of interviewers look for a well-adjusted personality with the social traits. Essay GK and Current Affairs: 2 papers on general studiesOptionals: papers from two subjects that fall in optional-1 and two papers from optional-2 (a choice of subjects is listed by the UPSC in the prospectus) Candidates who are successful in the main examinations are eligible for an interview which plays a crucial part in the selection. PS. The Board of interviewers look for a well-adjusted personality with the social traits. Maths. Preliminary examinations The prelims are held around May-June. Language: one of the Indian languages. Washington DC PREVIOUS PAGE 1. The Interview The interview calls are sent in March-April of the following year and they take place in the month of April-May. The number of candidates called for the interview is normally twice the number of vacancies.It has objective ie multiple choice questions.UPSC Preliminary Examination . Sociology. Venezuela United States Library of Congress. PS. Language: one of the Indian languages. a) General studies b) Optional subject (more content follows the advertisement below) ADVERTISEMENT The prelims are held around May-June. Phy. Part A . The interview calls are sent in March-April of the following year and they take place in the month of April-May. Agriculture. The results are declared in July-August and the successful candidates are called for the main examinations. Here is a list of subjects for IAS/UPSC exams. There are two papers (duration of each being 2 hrs). a) General studies and b)Optional subject: you can choose from Psychology. Philosophy.

Optional Subjects  General Studies  Agriculture  Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science  Botany  Chemistry  Civil Engineering  Commerce  Economics  Electrical Engineering  Geography  Geology  Indian History  Law  Bengali  Chinese  English  German  Gujarati  Hindi  Kannada  Kashmiri  Konkani  Malayalam  Manipuri  Marathi  Nepali  Oriya  Pali  Mathematics  Mechanical Engineering . Agriculture  Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science  Botany  Chemistry  Civil Engineering  Commerce  Economics  Electrical Engineering  Mechanical Engineering  Medical Science  Philosophy  Physics  Political Science  Psychology  Public Administration  Sociology  Geography  Geology  Indian History  Law  Statistics  Zoology Part B .UPSC Main Examination .

chemistry syllabus. physics syllabus. science syllabus. It is designed to test not only the academic talent of the aspirant but also his ability to coordinate and present his knowledge in a clear and cogent manner. exam preparation. chemistry exam. physics exam. exam questions. engineering syllabus. exam papers. study exam. science exam The Main examination comprises of nine papers. sample exam. syllabus questions. Civil Services Main Examination Timetable Part B . mathematics syllabus. exam books. all of them of a descriptive type conducted within a span of 20 days.Optional Subjects One of the Indian Languages to be selected by the candidate from the 22 languages included in the VIIIth Schedule to the Constitution (Qualifying Paper) English (Qualifying Paper) Essay [in the medium you choose] Paper-I 300 Marks Paper-II Paper-III 300 Marks 200 Marks Papers IV General Studies (300 Marks for each 600 Marks &V paper) Papers Any two subjects (each having 2 1200 Marks .000 peoples were qualified for the Main Examination in 2010. paper exam. About 12.objective exam. Medical Science  Philosophy  Physics  Political Science  Psychology  Public Administration  Sociology  Statistics  Zoology  Anthropology  Arabic  Assamese  Persian  Punjabi  Russian  Sanskrit  Sindhi  Tamil  Telugu  Urdu  Management Keywords: IAS Exam Syllabus.Main Examination .

VII. VIII & IX papers) to be selected from the prescribed optional subjects (300 marks for each paper) 2000 Marks Total Marks for Written Examination Interview Test [in the medium you choose] 300 Marks Grand Total 2300 Marks  General Studies  Essay  English Qualifying  Indian Languages  Agriculture Main Syllabus  Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science  Botany Main Syllabus  Chemistry Main Syllabus  Civil Engineering Main Syllabus  Commerce Main Syllabus  Economics Main Syllabus  Electrical Engineering Main Syllabus  Geography Main Syllabus  Geology Main Syllabus  Indian History Main Syllabus  Law Main Syllabus  Mathematics Main Syllabus  Mechanical Engineering Main Syllabus  Bengali Main Syllabus  Chinese Main Syllabus  English Main Syllabus  French Main Syllabus  German Main Syllabus  Gujarati Main Syllabus  Hindi Main Syllabus  Kannada Main Syllabus  Kashmiri Main Syllabus  Konkani Main Syllabus  Malayalam Main Syllabus  Manipuri Main Syllabus  Marathi Main Syllabus  Nepali Main Syllabus  Oriya Main Syllabus  Pali Main Syllabus  Persian Main Syllabus  Punjabi Main Syllabus  Russian Main Syllabus  Sanskrit Main Syllabus .VI.

SSC. create all the necessary jobs. Passage-I For achieving inclusive growth there is-a critical need to rethink the-role of the State.II) Sub Date: 6/12/2011 IAS Prelims General Studies II Solved Question Paper 2011. Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. RBI. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. Asking the Government to produse all the essential goods. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. UPSC conducted Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2011 on 12 June 2011. The early debate among economists about the size of the Goverment can be misleading. The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the . Medical Science Main Syllabus  Philosophy Main Syllabus  Physics Main Syllabus  Political Science Main Syllabus  Psychology Main Syllabus  Public Administration Main Syllabus  Sociology Main Syllabus  Statistics Main Syllabus  Zoology Main Syllabus  Anthropology Main Syllabus  Arabic Main Syllabus  Assamese Main Syllabus  Sindhi Main Syllabus  Tamil Main Syllabus  Telugu Main Syllabus  Urdu Main Syllabus  Management Main IAS CSAT 2011 Solved Paper (General Studies. Go through these solved questions to prepare yourself for major competitive exams conducted by UPSC. and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.II) IAS CSAT 2011 Solved Paper (General Studies. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. SBI and other major bodies of the Government of India.

and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves. (b) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector. 3. A large bureaucracy. and. 1. Hence we need a Government that. 2. it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can. no matter what the system. The Government should engage III maximum interference in market processes. the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on (a) meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country. when it comes to the market. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. 5. plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food . a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise Providing resources to those who are underprivileged. 2. 3. provide for the needs of one another. 2. have sufficient bureaucracy. 3 and 4 Ans: a 2. 4 and 5 only (d) 1. 2. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) 1. who need support and help. at the same time. (d) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society. 4. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1. for the most part. It does not promote inclusive growth. that is. Implementationof welfare programmes through representatives. (c) Controlling the distribution of manufacturing goods. 2. It does not. for there will always be individuals. Instead. Why is the State unable to deliver "all thai is needed"? 1. According to the passage. sets effective. What constitutes an enabling Government? 1. Ans: d 3. According to passage : 1. 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 3. 4. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) 1 only . This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State. incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference. There is a need to change the size of the Government. 4 and 5 Ans: c 4. 3.founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.

The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. 2 and 3 (b) 4 only (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Ans: c 7. Quest for social equality and individual freedom. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1. 6. What does the author imply by "creative society" ? 1. 2. Instigation by external forces. (d) There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth. and the women's movements in the developing countries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. With reference to the passage. (b) The Government needs to make available more schools and health sevices. the environmental movements.(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: d 5. What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements? 1. their human rights and Select the correct answerusing the codes given below : (a) 1. where diverse art forms and literary writings seck incentive. where social inequalities are accepted as the norm. 3 and 4Ans: c 8. A society 4. the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination. A society 2. 2. To be a creative society. What is essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ? (a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the foundings fathers of the nation should be remembered. A society upliftment. 2. Ans: d Passage-2 The concept of 'creative society' refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. 4. 3. it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts. consider the following statements: 1. To be a creative society. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? . Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society. The upsurge of the peasants and tribals. where' the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of. (c) The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country. Aggressiveness and being incendiary. A society 3. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. it is essential to have a variety of social movements. where a large number of contradictions are recognised.

Codes: (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ans: a 11. Codes: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Ans: c 12. but both can be false. B. Which one of them indicates the declining population ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Ans: c 13. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements : 10. 2. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. two cannot both be true. . The followings figures has four curves namely A.(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: c 9. (c) All participants in the race are students. Study the figure and answer the item that follows. C and D representing four different countries. 3. 4. Examine the following statements: 1. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A. No train is run by diesel engine. C and D. Ans: c Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching. (b) and (c) given above is correct. All trains are run by diesel engine. B. Some participants in the race are girls. All animals are carnivorous. (b) All students are invited for coaching. 4. Some trains are run by diesel engine. Some trains are not run by diesel engine. Examine the following statements: 1. Only students can participate in the race. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements? (a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching. Some animals are carnivorous. 3. (d) None of the statements (a). 3. Some animals are not carnivorous. 2. 2. Animals are not carnivorous. Consider the following three statements: 1.

14. Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes? (a) Town A (b) Town B (c) Same in Town A and Town B . Pie charts plot the disease Categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Town A and Town B. Based on these.Which curve indicates the exponential growth ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Ans: c Directions for the following 2 (two) items: The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns. answer the two items that follow the charts.

particularly food. For example. short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth's ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and services. (b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times. (d) No inference can be drawn. timber. With reference to the above graph. potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating seawater. consider the following statements. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes. Ans: d Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Ans: b 16. clean air. efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water. Moreover. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ? (a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A. food. 4. Spiritual fulfilment Aesthetic enjoyment Potable fresh water Production of food and fibre Biodiversity Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1. 17. which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A. pollination. 3. Consider the followmg Velocity-Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks. The benefits have not been equally distributed. (c) There'are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B. clean water. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.(d) No inference can be drawn Ans: d 15. (c) Both trains have the same velocity at time to' (d) Both trains travel the same distance in time to units. 2. climate regulation. Passage-1 Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services. soil stabilization. spritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. but pnly great cost. fresh water. flood control. (b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B. 5. For example. Expanding human' population has an adverse effect on : 1. regulate flooding and support biodiversity. 2 and 3 only (b) 2. 4 and 5 only . With reference to the passage. fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. to name just a few.

Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action. The passage mentions that "some people have actually been harmed by these changes. For. (b) It is an action baased on our sence of discretion. How can a man understand morality who does not use his own intelligence and power of thought. according to the writer ? (a) it is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors. in doing so. which is/are nearest in meaning to this? 1. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the statements given above Ans: a 19. but lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current ? Sometimes a. man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good. 4 and 5 Ans: c 18. we use our discrimination. Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems. Ans: b 22." Among the following statements. Man should react to a situation immediately. but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications In the Earth's ecosystems.(c) 3 and 5 only (d) 1. 2. (d) It is a religious action based on understanding. have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre. must spring from our own will. 3. Such action would be moral. Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral. If we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. If we act mechanically. consider the following statements: 1. Sufficient efforts. But if the messenger were to carry out the king's order considering it to be his duty. . 4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: b Passage-B: A moral act must be our own act. Man must do his duty. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. 3. It is imperative to modify the Earth's ecosystems for the well being of mankind. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Ans: d 21. (c) IS a clever action based on the clarity of purpose. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current. 2. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king's moral act. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. his action would be a moral one. He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges. In the short term some people may be harmed. 3. 2. Which of the following statements best describe/describes the thought of the writer? 1." What does it imply ? 1. He is susceptible to influence/pressure. 20. 2. these is no moral content in our act. 3. 2. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people. With reference to the passage. A moral act calls for using our discretion. A person docs not use his own reason.

the race was won by A. Consider the following figures : What is the missing number ? (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 Ans: c 25. B was ahead of A up to 25 km 26 mark. How many different . 3. 2 and 3 Ans: b 24. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Ans: b 23. With reference to the above graph consider the following statements : 1. He is like a log of wood.4. The graph shows three athletes A. Consider the following distance . 2. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1.time graph. Band C running side by side for a 30 km race. Study the following figure: A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the Jines. C ran very slowly from the begining.

It refers to people who 1. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit. 27. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit. He seeks also some inner meaning. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans: b 28.routes can he adopt? Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 Ans: c 26. So also subject peoples. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down. . and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. 3. for this world is evidently not meant for them. 2. Consider the following assumptions : 1. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity. or satisfied with. seek freedom from foreign domination. The passage mentions that "this world is evidently not meant for them". A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit. unless they become revolutionaries. Passage A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. there is an equilibrium and stability. become revolutionaries . As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in. the external objective world. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly. some psychological and physical satisfactions. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. or on starvation and misery. in the world in other respects. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows : What is total number of triangles in the above grid ? (a) 27 (b) 26 (c) 23 (d) 22 Ans: c Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. 2. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. live in starvation and misery. Where they meet or keep close to each other.

On starting the treatment. (b) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation III visions of past greatness. 31. which of the above assumptions is/are valid ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans: c 29. According to the passage. The passage thematically centres on (a) the state of mind of oppressed people (b) starvation and misery (c) the growth of civilization (d) body. study the graph that follows and answer the three items given belwo the figure. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection ? (a) A only (b) B only (c) Band C (d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase Ans: a 32. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief? (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) The curve does not indicate the treatment Ans: c 34. D and E of the curve. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ? (a) 24 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 8 . There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. (c) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life. he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. mind and spirit of people in general Ans: a 30. B. During a party. A few days later. a person was exposed to cotaminated water. Subject peoples may become other-wordly. he developed fever and loose motions. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A. With reference to the passage. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. (d) due to one's inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.3. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Ans: b 33. C. Ans: c Directions for the following 3 (Three) items: Read the passage given below. the torture of the mind and spirit is caused (a) by the impact of foreign domination.

How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ? (a) Rs. Rs. OP 1 and OP 2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. (b) At 45° to the direction S. (d) At 60° to the direction S. (c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S. Rs. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date IS as follows : Rs. 650 Ans: b 36. 300 for the third day etc. 200 for the first day.. 4950 (b) Rs. 4250 (c) Rs. the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding day. Consider the following tlgure and answer the item that follows: What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour ? (a) 3 (b) 4 . 3600 (d) Rs.Ans: a 35. Consider the figure given below and answer the items that follows: In the figure shown above. S is the direction of a beam of light falIing on the mirror OP 1. Ans: c 37. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP 2 will be (a) Perpendicular to the direction S. 250 for the second day.

respectively (a) 15 and 35 (b) 35 and 15 (e) 30 and 20 (d) 25 and 25 Ans: d 40. 75. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural n umbers. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ? (a) 8 : 5 (b) 5 : 8 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 1 : 2 Ans: b 42. There are 100 students in a particular class. A person has only Rs.(c) 5 (d) 6 Ans: a 38. Consider the following fogure and answer the items that follows: A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. What is the length of each side of the square ? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 15 (d) Cannot be determined as the given data are Insufficient Ans: b 39. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ? (a) 25 m 20 cm (b) 50 m 40 cm (c) 75 m 60 cm (d) 100 m 80 cm Ans: a 41. 2 coins are. The water of this tank will last for (a) 2 days (b) 3 days (c) 4 days (d) 5 days Ans: b . A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 liters of water per head per day. 60% students play cricket. 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 30% student play football and 10% student play both the games. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. 2 coins with her. 1 and Rs. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ? (a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 15 Ans: b 43.

consider the following statements : 1. By consuming mussels. which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 ony (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: d 46. (c) Keystone species ensures species diversity. The sea star Pisaster the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. 2 and 3 Ans: a 48. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. Two major changes occured in the areas from which sea stars were removed. The survival of sea stars is generally determined by the abundance of mussels. Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.stars. 2. is also an example of a keystone species. 3. 3. Mussels-are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems. it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem. Consider the following argument: "In. The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus . mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone. 2. Some Mathematicians are poets.Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the follouing passage and answer the items that follow. No college graduate is poor. 44. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ? 1. All poets are poor. With reference to the passage. occupied the entire substratum. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus. sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species. First. Through its effect on competitive relationships. 2. the lower edge of the 46. Ans: c 45. order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 nad 3 only (d) 1. Second. (d) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America. 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus. Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars. the dominant competitor. and more dramatically. which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America. Consider the following assumptions: 1." Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument? . In the absence of sea. The food chains/food web in an influenced ecosystem are keystone species. Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution. What is the crux of the passage ? (a) Sea star has a preferred prey. (b) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans: d 47. an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems. If the keystone species is completely removed from an ecosystem. showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. A study at the University of washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. With reference to the passage. Passage A species that exerts.

The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south. turns left. 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. travels 5 km to the front of D's house. 4. Passage Now India's children have a right to receive at least eight years of education. (c) The houses of C than 20 km apart. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood. if at all. that the beneficiary . A comes out of his house. where a child's right to education is denied. travels 5 km. turns right. In a group of persons. 20 points on her fourth test. 2. the gnawing question is whether' it will remain 'on paper' or 'become a reality. 2. With reference to the passage. if a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: d 53. it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. If two sevenths of males are married. consider the following statements : 1. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution. This is so because childhood does not last. This is "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society which compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. d) None of the above Ans: c Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.a six year old child cannot demand it. If she exceeds her previous average score b. A's being on the western side. A student on her first 3 tests receive. what could be 55 the traditional obstacles to the education of girls ? 1. (c) Teachers are not poor. In all cases. adult society does not act on behalf of them. 52. which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) C and D live on the same street.(a) Some Mathematicians are not teachers. (b) C's house faces south. . Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country. then what is the average score for the firs 4 tests ? (a) N + 20 (b) N + 10 (c) N + 4 (d) N + 5 Ans: d 50. what fraction of the females is single ? (a) 2/7 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/7 (d) 2/3 Ans: d 51. B does exactly the same and reaches the fron t of C's house. Your answers to these items should-be based on the passage only. When children are denied education. The traditional way of thinking about girl's role in society. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children. 4 an average score of N points. According to the passage. no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. (b) Some teachers are not Mathematicians. "Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it. (d) Poets are not teachers. In another peculiarity. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India's history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. Improper system of education. nor can she or hefight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. 3. Ans: b 49. In this context.

needs to be safeguarded. Whose wife is the teacher? (a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B Ans: d Read the following passage and ans the 3 (three) items that follow: In a survey regarding a proposal measure to be introduced. How is D realated to E ? (a) Husband (b) Son (c) Father (d) Wife Ans: a 58. The teacher was the. Ans: c 56. (d) The system of education should be address the issue of right to education. wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. For realising the goal of universal education. (d) There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood. There are two fathers. 3 and 4 Ans: b 54. 196 females wet undecided. 2. 3 and 4 only (d) 1. 12 persons voted against the proposal which 796 were males. D and E are members of the same family. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: d 55. 1425 persons vote for the proposal. 2.Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2. consider the following statements: 1. 57. E is not male. the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries. B. (c) The Right to Education. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right. 60. two wives. (b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. 3 and 4 only (c) 1. particularly of a girl child. (c) The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive. Who are the females in the group ? (a) C and E (b) C and D (c) E and A (d) D and E Ans: c 59. B is a male. On the basis of the passage. two sons. (b) Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education. How many females voted for the proposal ? (a) 430 (b) 600 (c) 624 (d) 640 Ans: b . Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ? (a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls. Ans: d Read the following paesage and answer (three) items that follow: A. three males and two females. neither also a wife of a professional. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ? (a) India has declared that education is compulsory for its children. 2878 person took part of which 1652 were males. C.

He however. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: a Passage . X and Mr. he slept (a) in the open field (b) under a pile of dry grass (c) in a farmer's cottage (d) under a tree Ans: b 65. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. a horrible idea occured to meet Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don't know how it is. an makes my life a misery. Y is seventeenth from the end. Read each passage and answer the items that follow. and it is always the last thing I turn out of the . With reference to the passage. in the morning. 64. He felt frightened at first. In a queue. I dream that haven't packed it. The cottagers and farmers gave his enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry. soon fell asleep. but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush. which he got from cottagers and farmers. When he got up next day. while Mr. Passage-I He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water. He was walking through the countryside. just as I was going to close it. he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had. If Mr. Mr. he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow.61. being much tired with his long walk. X is ahead Mr. consider the following statements : 1. and then . and wake up in a col perspiration. how many persons are then between Mr. for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue. As night fell. and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. When the night fell.II I opened the bag and packed the boots in . And. He felt cold and hungry. and get out of bed and hur for it. Z is exactly in between Mr. How many females were not in favour the proposal ? (a) 430 (b) 496 (c) 586 (d) 1226 Ans: a 63. Y. X and Mr. He soon fell asleep because (a) he was exhausted (b) he was all alone (c) he had not slept for days (d) he was very frightened Ans: a 66. 2. Z ? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 Ans: c Directions for the following 9 (nine) items: The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. How many males were undecided ? (a) 31 (b) 227 (c) 426 (d) 581 Ans: a 62. I pack it before I have used it.

Female polar bears give birth during (a) spnng (b) summer (c) autumn (d) winter Ans: d 71. You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. and have to rug upstairs for it at the last moment an carry it to the railway station. the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others.bag. Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items. 73. 67. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: d Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Given below are eight items. When he was going to close the bag. 2. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. the idea that occurred to him was (a) unpleasant (b) sad (c) fantastic (d) amusing Ans: a 68. polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to . What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling? (a) Going to railway station (b) Forgetting the toothbrush (c) Packing his bag (d) Bad dreams Ans: b 69. His toothbrush is finally (a) in his bag (b) in his bed (c) in his handkerchief (d) lost Ans: c Passage-III In spring. With reference to the passage. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. and then repack and forget it. Choose only one response for each item. Mother bear (a) takes sides over cubs (b) lets the cubs fend for themselves (c) feeds only their favourites (d) see that all cubs get an equal share Ans: b 72. In 21 years of photographing polar bears. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability prey. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriatehess for the given situation. I've only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn. If there are triplets. wrapped u in my pocket-handkerchief. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. the following assumptions have been made: 1. 70. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. Polar bears always give birth to triplets.

You have to accomplish a very important task for your headquarters within the next two days. You would (a) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station. (d) put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing. (d) stay away till you recover. (c) admit your fault to save the situation. You would (a) send a written reply explaining the fact. You would (a) let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter. (c) Suggest alternate person to headquarters who may do the needful. given such a circumstance. have been approached. (c) ask for help from your neighbours. Within a week of establishing the shelters. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the GramPradhan and also a poor villager. (b) inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time. (c) not pay attention to allegations. You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village. by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. Suddenly you meet with an accident. You would (a) ask for an extension of deadline. (d) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area. you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. (d) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price. people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You are being pressurised by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. (c) refer the matter to the Government and wait. Ans: b 78. Your office insists that you complete the task. (c) take action after her parents approach you. You would (a) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price. You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season.place an allegation against him / her. (d) threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence. You would (a) call the in-laws for an explanation. (c) ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency. Ans: b 80. Despite your best possible effort. You would (a) initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either. (c) ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. Ans: b 76. (d) stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved. (b) seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation. You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. (d) continue with the project and ignore their complaint. Ans: b 75. (b) go to the police for necessary action. . (b) counsel the lady to adjust. You would (a) sell the property at a cheap price to him. Ans: a 74. (d) ask her to lodge complaint with the police. and you are left with only one vaccine. Ans: a 77. Ans: c 79. (b) accept the lowest price. (b) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. (b) ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place. as an administrative authority. (b) assure residents of an enquiry into the matter. You.

Solved Question Paper BPSC Combined (Pre) Competitive Examination 2011.com solved BPSC PT 2011 questions. The highest coal-producing country in the world is (A) India (B) USA (C) China (D) Russia Answer: C . Learn and judge yourself with jagranjosh. 1. Here you find its solved question paper.Ans: d BPSC Combined (Pre) Competitive Examination 2011. Where is 'Ninety East Ridge' situated? (A) Pacific Ocean (B) Indian Ocean (C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Arctic Ocean Answer: B 4. In which country is 'Takla Makan' desert situated? (A) Kazakhstan (B) Turkmenistan (C) Uzbekistan (D) China Answer: D 2. make your exam preparation strong. 2011. Solved Question Paper Sub Date: 4/17/2011 The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) conducted 53rd to 55th Common Combined (Pre) Competitive Examination 2011 on April 17. Which strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean? (A) Bab-el-Mandeb (B) Hormuz (C) Bosporus (D) Malacca Answer: A 3. jagranjosh. In the Bihar Public Service Commission PT 2011 Exam's Solution. Our Expert team has done a comprehensive and exhaustive research work from all the possible authentic sources to produce the solutions of the questions that a competitive exam's student can really rely upon. Which of the following is not a capital city? (A) Canberra (B) Sydney (C) Wellington (D) Riyadh Answer: B 5.com has offered you the authentic answers for all questions. broad and dynamic.

Major source of oceanic salinity is (A) rivers (B) land (C) wind (D) ash from volcanoes 10. (A) second (B) third (C) fourth (D) fifth Answer: B 12. The highest wheat-producing State of India is (A) Haryana (B) Punjab (C) Bihar (D) Uttar Pradesh Answer: D 13.6. Madhya Pradesh.largest State of India according to Census 2001. but their climate difference is due to (A) the difference in their altitudes (B) their distance from sea (C) snowfall in Shimla (D) pollution in Amritsar Answer: A 8. Rajasthan. Maharashtra (C) Maharashtra. Maharashtra. Maharashtra (B) Madhya Pradesh. TISCO plant is located near (A) Patna (B) Darbhanga (C) Dhanbad (D) Tatanagar . Rajasthan. Madhya Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh. The large States of India in the order of area are (A) Rajasthan. Rajasthan Answer: A 11. Folding is the result of (A) epeirogenetic force (8) Coriolis force (C) orogenetic force (D) exogenetic force Answer: C 7. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude. Bihar is the -. Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at (A) Jharia (B) Jamshedpur (C) Ranchi (D) Lohardaga Answer: A 9.

Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)? (A) Aurangabad (B) Sasaram (C) Mohania (D) Patna Answer: D 21. The purpose of the resolution was (A) right to make a constitution for themselves but it was not done (B) to secure self-rule . Congress passed the 'Swaraj' resolution in the year 1905. what is the total population of Bihar? (A) 82998509 (B) 76210007 (C) 96878627 (D) 80176197 Answer: A 17. Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane? (A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan (C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir (D) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh Answer: A 15. According to 2001 Census. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste? (A) Bihar (B) West Bengal (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punja Answer: C 16. Where is Industries Commissioner Office of Bihar situated? (A) Patna (B) Gaya (C) Hajipur (D) Muzaffarpur Answer: A 19. The East Central Railway zone headquarters is located at (A) Patna (B) Hajipur (C) M uzaffarpur (D) Katihar Answer: B 18. North Bihar is famous for (A) agricultural prosperity (B) heavy industries (C) flood (D) famine Answer: C 20.Answer: D 14.

Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? (A) Right to constitutional remedies (B) Freedom to speech (C) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country (D) Freedom to acquire property Answer: A . The Rajya Sabha consists of (A) 280 members of which 20 members are nominated by the President of India (B) 275 members of which 18 members are nominated by the President of India (C) 250 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India (D) 252 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India Answer: C 25. January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution. Of the following statements. 23 Parts and 8 Schedules Answer: A 24. 22 Parts and 12 Schedules (B) 371 Articles. 21 Parts and 11 Schedules (C) 372 Articles. which one is not correct? (A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter (B) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha (C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha (D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha Answer: B 28. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to (A) the Comptroller and Auditor General (B) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (C) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs (D) the President of India Answer: B 27. because (A) the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930 (B) on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942 (C) it was considered to be an auspicious day (D) None of the above Answer: A 26. The Indian comprises of Constitution (A) 395 Articles. 20 Parts and 7 Schedules (D) 381 Articles.(C) responsible government (D) self-government Answer: B 22. The Provincial were constituted Act of Governments under the (A) 1935 (B) 1932 (C) 1936 (D) 1947 Answer: A 23.

per capita consumption of energy in 1994 was (A) 300 kg of oil equivalent (B) 360 kg of oil equivalent (C) 243 kg of oil equivalent (D) 343 kg of oil equivalent Answer: A 35. Consider the following reasons for financial sickness of State Electricity Boards (SEBs) in India: I. Commercial sources of energy purely consist of (A) power. Which of the above are correct? .29. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee? (A) Home Minister (B) Prime Minister (C) President (D) Vice-President 30. firewood. Of the following statements. hydro-electricity and uranium (B) coal. oil. In India. oil. Lack of commercial autonomy for SEBs IV. Transmission and distribution losses are very high III. animal dung and firewood (D) coal. coal. gas. 'National Emergency' may be declared by the President of India in line with (A) Article 352 (B) Article 370 (C) Article 371 (D) Article 395 Answer: C 31. oil and firewood Answer: A 34. which one is not correct? (A) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950 (B) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country (C) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial (D) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial Answer: D 32. coal. State Governments have implemented social subsidy policies through SEBs 37. gas. Sale of power to agricultural and domestic consumers below the cost of production II. When did the first oil crisis/ energy crisis occur in India? (A) During 1950's and 1960's (B) During 1930's and 1940's (C) During 1990's and 2000's (D) During 1970's and 1980's Answer: D 36. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments? (A) Chief Minister (B) Governor (C) Speaker (D) High Court Judge Answer: B 33. vegetable waste and agricultural waste (C) power.

We witnessed the first telephones in India in which year? (A) 1951 (B) 1981 (C) 1851 (D) 1861 Answer: D 40. II. II. Low utilisation capacity of washeries III. When was 'Speed Post Service' launched by the Indian Postal Department as competition to the 'Courier Service'? (A) 1988 (B) 1987 (C) 1989 (D) 1986 Answer: D 39. II and III Answer: B 41. III and IV (D) II. which suggested a three tier system of rural local government (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Ashok Mehta Committee (C) Maharashtra Committee on Democratic Decentralisation (D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee Answer: A 42. Administered prices Which of the above are correct? (A) II. Consider the following problems being faced by the Indian Coal Industry : I. III and IV 37. Consider the following about the 'Rolling Plan': . III and IV (B) I. Name the committee which was set up by the NDC in 1957 for the reorganisation of CDP and NES. III and IV (D) I. III and IV (C) I. Ashok Mehta recommended (A) three-tier government of Panchayati Raj Committee (B) two-tier government of Panchayati Raj (C) single-tier government of Panchayati Raj (D) multiple-tier government of Panchayati Raj Answer: B 43. Which type of economy does India have? (A) Socialist (B) Gandhian (C) Mixed (D) Free Answer: C 38. Poor quali ty of coal and bottlenecks m the coal movement II.(A) I. III and IV (C) I. II and III (B) I. Growing dependence on the import of coking coal IV.

15 or 20 years Which of the above are correct? (A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) I. viz. Ranchi and Bokaro. A perspective plan for 10. in 1993-94. 4 or 5 III. A plan for the current year which includes the annual budget II. In Bihar. Muzaffarpur. A plan for a fixed number of years. Patna International Airport is directly connected with (A) Kathmandu (Nepal). Bihar State (before separation) had how many 'Industrial Area Development Authorities'? (A) Six. Adityapur. viz. Varanasi and Ranchi (B) Bengaluru.. air services are provided by (A) only Indian Airlines (B) only Sahara Airlines (C) only Royal Nepal Airlines (D) Indian Airlines. II. Darbhanga and Muzaffarpur (B) Five. Sahara Airlines and Royal Nepal Airlines Answer: D 47. For Bihar. Ranchi. Kolkata. Lucknow. Darbhanga. In Bihar. Adityapur.. Khagaria 50. Dhaka and Bengaluru (D) Washington. Patna.I. Bokaro. the Planning Commission estimated that percentage of below poverty line (BPL) was (A) 55 (B) 65 (C) 45 (D) 35 48. Bhojpur and Muzaffarpur. In Bihar. Patna. Adityapur. the social base of land control remained in the grip of (A) Middle Caste Hindus (B) Scheduled Caste Hindus (C) Dominant Caste Hindus (D) Scheduled Tribe Hindus Answer: C 49. viz. though 'Zamindari' was statutorily abolished In 1952. Mumbai. It is revised every year as per requirements of the economy IV. III and IV Answer: B 44. In which year was the 'Planning Commission' set up in India? (A) 1950 (B) 1947 (C) 1948 (D) 1951 Answer: A 45. Bokaro. name the scheme which aims at building up infrastructural facilities of high standard. Bhojpur (d) Four. Muzaffarpur and Patna (c) Seven. Hyderabad and Dhaka (C) Islamabad. viz. Adityapur. say 3.. New Delhi.. Dhaka and Chennai Answer: A 46. required for establishment of 'Export oriented Units' (A) Integrated Infrastructural Development (IID) . Darbhanga.

"Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it. 1903 (B) 15th August. The Non-Cooperation Movement was started in (A) 1918 (B) 1920 (C) 1921 (D) 1922 Answer: B 57. Ambedkar Answer: A 55. How many representatives took part in the First Session of the Indian National Congress? (A) 52 (B) 62 (C) 72 (D) 82 Answer: C 54. 1906 Answer: D 56. 1904 (C) 15th August." Who said? (A) M.Transfer (BOT) (D) Software/Hardware Technology Park (STP /HTP) 51. K.(B) Export Promotion Industrial Park (EPIP) (C) Concept of Build-Operate. 1905 (D) 15th August. Who is popularly known as 'Sher-e-Punjab. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of (A) the Indian Independence Act. 1919 (D) the Government of India Act. 1909 (C) the Government of India Act.? . The first Indian Governor General of Independent India was (A) Raja Gopalachari (B) Surinder Nath (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) B. The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in the year (A) 1880 (B) 1881 (C) 1882 (D) 1883 Answer: D 53. When was the National Council of Education established? (A) 15th August. R. 1935 Answer: C 58. Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Bhagat Singh Answer: C 52. 1947 (B) the Indian Councils Act.

Who is associated with 'Abhinav Bharat'? (A) V. D. Gokhale (B) Shri Deepnarayan Singh (C) Shri Krishna (D) Surendranath Banerjee Answer: B 64. R. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932? (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth Answer: C 61. With whose efforts was Second Bihar Provincial Congress Session held? (A) G. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in (A) 1930 (B) 1931 (C) 1932 (D) 1933 Answer: B 60. 'Do or Die' is associated with the following movement (A) Dandi (B) Non-Cooperation (C) Khilafat (D) Quit India Answer: D 63. The 16th Session of Bihari Students' Conference at Hazaribag took place in (A) 1921 (B) 1922 (C) 1923 (D) 1924 Answer: A . At which place was the 27th Session of the Indian National Congress held? (A) Bhagalpur (B) Patna (C) Ranchi (D) Bankipur 65. C. K. Bose Answer: A 62. Das (C) B. Tilak (D) S. G.(A) Rajguru (B) Bhagat Singh (C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) Udham Singh Answer: C 59. Savarkar (B) C.

y-z (C) 1 (D) ° Answer: C 72. 12. Prasad (B) Babu Ram Prasad (C) Babu Gopal Prasad (D) Babu Maheshwar Prasad Answer: D 67. Lord Sinha had resigned in 1921 from the post of Governor of (A) Bihar-Orissa (B) Bengal (C) Punjab (D) Madras Answer: A 71.z)}j is (A) x+ y+z (B) x . f(x) = log x then the value of f(x) + f(y) is (A) f(xy) (B) f(x+ y) (C) f (x/y) (d) f(y/x) Answer: C 73. The value of x . Kunwar Singh was the King of (A) Hamirpur (B) Dheerpur (C) Jagdishpur (D) Rampur Answer:C 70. 4. The median of 2. a leading newspaper of Bihar.[y .{z . If the function f : I --? R. 10. 14.(x . Shri Nivaranchandra Dasgupta belonged to (A) Patna (B) Purulia (C) Hazipur (D) Meenapur Answer: B 69. 16 is (A) 8 (B) 9 (C)10 (D)11 . Raj Kumar Shukla was resident of the village (A) Murli Bharhawa (B) Murli Bheet (C) Murli Dheer (D) Murli Kher Answer: A 68. was (A) Babu G. 6.y . The editor of 'Bihari'.66. 8.

4. 40° Answer: C 80.3-. then L. The coordinates of the mid. The value of is . 30° (B) 30°. 6) and Q (.R will be respectively (A) 60°. The solution of the differential equation d2 d -----. The inverse of the matrix is (B) (C) (D) Answer: C 75. 7) Answer: D 78.point on joining the points P (4. A player completes 2200-metre race in any circular path with 7 revolutions. 8) will be (A) (2.1{ + 2y = e5x dx2 dx is A) y = C eX + C e2x + ~e5x 1 2 12 B) Y = C e-x + C e2x + ~e5X 1 2 12 C) y = C eX + C e-2x + ~ e5x 1 2 12 79. Q and L.P = 1200 and PQ = PR. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 12 cm. 30° (D) 20°. 0) (D) (0. 7) (B) (7. 2) (C) (7.Answer: B 74.l:L . 40° (C) 30°. Then the area swept by the minute hand in one minute will be (A) 22·12 cm2 (B) 23·10 cm2 (C) 24·12 cm2 (D) None of the above Answer: D 76. Then the radius of the circular path is ( 1t = ~2) (A) 30 metres (B) 40 metres (C) 50 metres (D) 60 metres Answer: C 77. In triangle PQR if L.

Environment is a composite state of (A) biotic factors (B) physiographic factors (C) abiotic factors (D) All of the above Answer: D 84. Plants which grow on saline soils are (A) xerophytes (B) hydrophytes (C) halophytes (D) succulents Answer: C 83. The visible range of solar radiation is (A) 100-400 nm (B) 400-700 nm (C) 740-10000 nm (D) None of the above Answer: B 82. Development of the natural systems is described as (A)~nction of the systems (B) evolution of the systems (C) self-sustained process of the systems (D) None of the above Answer: C .ea (D) a. Minerals are (A) liquids (B) inorganic solids(C) gases (D) All of the above Answer: C 87. Water is conducted in vascular plants by (A) phloem tissue (B) parenchyma tissue (C) meristems (D) xylem tissue Answer: C 85.b Answer: B 81. Which component of plants receives stimulus for flowering? (A) Stems (B) Branches (C) Leaves (D) Roots 86.lim X→0 (A) 0 (B) loge ~ b (C) log .

Capillaries are most effective in (A) clayey soil (8) silty soil (C) sandy soil (D) loamy soil Answer: C 95. A single type of atom is found in (A) compounds of minerals (B) mixture of minerals (C) native elements (D) None of the above Answer: C 93. Genetics deals with (A) Mendel's laws (B) organic evolution (C) DNA structure (D) heredity and variations Answer: C 89. Embryo is found in (A) flowers (B) leaves (C) seeds (D) buds Answer: C 91.88.tance are based on (A) vegetative reproduction (B) asexual reproduction (C) sexual reproduction (D) All of the above Answer: C 90. Soil water available to plants is maximum in (A) clayey soil (8) silty soil (C) sandy soil (D) loamy soil Answer: C 94. Mendel's principles of inheri. What soil particles are present in loamy soils? (A) Sand particles(B) Clay particles (C) Silt particles (D) All types of particles Answer: D 92. Photosynthesis occurs in (A) nucleus (b) mitochondria (C) chloroplast (D) peroxisome .

For which word. Average salinity of water of Arabian Sea is (A) 25 ppt (8) 35 ppt (C) 45 ppt (D) 55 ppt Answer: C 101. Who among the following is the winner of the Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation. 2009? (A) Yukia Amano (B) Aung San Suu Kyi (C) Bill Gates (D) Hillary Clinton Answer: B 102. the letter 'G' has been used in '2G Spectrum'? (A) Global (B) Government (C) Generation (D) Google Answer: C .Answer: C 96. Which of the following do not belong to solar system? (A) Asteroids (8) Comets (C) Planets (D) Nebulae Answer: C 98. 'Durand Cup' is associated with the game of (A) football (B) polo (C) cricket (D) hockey Answer: A 103. Table salt (NaCI) is a product of (A) weak acid and weak base (B) strong acid and strong base (C) weak acid and strong base (D) strong acid and weak base 99. Continents have drifted apart because of (A) volcanic eruptions (8) tectonic activities (C) folding and faulting of rocks (D) All of the above Answer: C 97. Sexual reproduction causes genetic variation because of (A) blending of genes (B) chromosomal changes (C) Shuffling of genes (D) All of the above Answer: D 100.

Madhya Pradesh. Haryana. A. Rajasthan (B) Bihar. Gujarat (C) Bihar. Himachal Pradesh. The Union Cabinet. Karnataka. Himachal Pradesh (C) Bihar. Himachal Pradesh. which State Governments have provided 50 percent reservation for women in local bodies? (A) Bihar. Jammu and Kashmir. Jharkhand. Kerala (D) Bihar. Chhattisgarh. 2010 in comparison to the elections of 2005? JDU BJP RJD WP CONG OTHERS (A) +40 +25 -30 -10 -7 -19 (B) +25 +34 -20 -5 -3 -11 (C) +27 +36 -32 -7 -5 -19 (D) + 17 +46 -15 -10 -10 -10 Answer: C 110. Former Central Minister for Communication and Information Technology. Rajasthan. Which was reported the richest party according to the 'National Election Watch' on August 2010? (A) BSP (B) BJP (C) Socialist Party (D) Congress Answer: D 109. decided to form institutes like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which six States? (A) Bihar. Uttar Pradesh . Kerala. Assam Answer: A 108. Uttar Pradesh.104. Till 2010. Uttar Pradesh. Which one of the following numbered Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance? (A) 12429 Bangalore City Junction (B) 12431 Trivandrum Central (C) 12433 Chennai Central (D) 12435 Dibrugarh Town Answer: B 106. Orissa. Tamil Nadu. on August 2010. Andhra Pradesh. Madhya Pradesh. Mr. Orissa. Maharashtra (D) Bihar. Uttar Pradesh. Uttarakhand (B) Bihar. Madhya Pradesh. What is the minimum age of a person whose photographing. Raja belongs to which of the following parties? (A) Congress (B) BJP (C) Communist Party of India (D) DMK Answer: D 105. fingerprinting and iris mapping will be done for the Census of 2011? (A) 12 years (B) 15 years (C) 18 years (D) 21 years Answer: B 107. Which party-wise performance is correct for Bihar Assembly Elections. Uttarakhand.

The headquarters of International Court of Justice is at (A) Hague (B) New York (C) Geneva (D) Paris Answer: A 117. compiled by the reputed 'News Week' magazine in 2010. A recently held underwater meeting has drawn attention world over. What was the rank of India? (A)17 (B)48 (C)66 (D)78 . the Indian segment of 'Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation'. In the world's best countries' list. it is located at (A) 30° W longitude (B) 30° E longitude (C) 28° E longitude (D) 28° W longitude Answer: B 116. the first position went to Finland. Which one of the following cities is not located on the bank of river Ganga? (A) Fatehpur (B) Bhagalpur (C) Uttarkashi (D) Kanpur Answer: C 114. The meeting was held by (A) Some Somali pirates to make a new strategy for capturing ships for ransom (B) Some environmental scientists for promoting awareness for saving water (C) some activists environmental awareness for promoting against air pollution (D) The cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of rising sea level for any country Answer: D 113. The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence. is engaged in the prevention of (A) dengue (B) polio (C) HIV / AIDS (D) filariasis Answer: C 112. 'AVAHAN'.Answer: B 111. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India? (A) Right to Information (B) Right to Work (C) Right to Education (D) Right to Housing Answer: C 115.

Which date is known as 'Diabetes Day'? (A) 14th February (B) 14th May (C) 14th September (D) 14th November Answer: D 120. P. 2010 sworn in as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand. How many MLAs in the 81.member Assembly supported him? (A) 41 (C) 50 (B) 45 (D) 55 Answer: B 123. India (B) Cambridge University. Thomas has been appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner on September 7. Which university was ranked first in the list of '2010 Academic Rankings of the World Universities '? (A) Jawaharlal Nehru University. 2010? (A) USA (B) France (C) Italy (D) Holland Answer: B 122. Mr. USA (D) Massachusetts Institute of Technology.2010. Arjun Munda was on September 11. category I? (A) Rs 250 crore (B) Rs 350 crore (C) Rs 400 crore (D) Rs 500 crore Answer: D .Answer: D 118. Britain (C) Harvard University. What was the maximum amount which has been provided as financial autonomy by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises of Union Government to the 'Mini Ratna'. USA Answer: C 119. Julia Gillard was made the first woman Prime Minister in the year 2010? (A) Australia (B) Canada (C) Germany (D) Poland Answer: A 121. In which country. He is an IAS Officer of the following State's cadre (A) Assam (B) Karnataka (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu Answer: C 124. Which country's parliament has banned 'Burqa' by passing a law on 14th September. Mr. J. Ms.

women and men respectively? (A) 0. Sonia Gandhi (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (C) Dr. 64 (C) 1. 36. To which institute. Silver R. 37. Bronze S. 37. 2010. 14 2. Which Indian was honoured by the 'World Statesman Award. India won 101 medals. Mumbai (B) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research. Manmohan Singh (D) Lal Krishna Advani Answer: C 129. Match the achievements of India in the XVI Asian Games. In Commonwealth Games. Out of them. 06 4. 2010 (C) 1st October. 63 (D) 1.) 1 2 3 4 PQRS (D) 1 2 3 4 SRPQ Answer: C 127. Which of the following is a Harappan port? (A) Alexandria (B) Lothal . 64 Answer: B 131. Kanpur (D) Indian Institute of Science"Bengaluru Answer: A 128. 17 (A. 64 (B) 2. Pune (C) Indian Institute of Technology. Rank P. 2010 : 1. 2010 Answer: A 126. Gold Q. 2010 (D) 1st December. 2010'? (A) Mrs. 35. Shubha Tole. how many medals have been received by team events. the first woman awardee of prestigious Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize. 2010 (B) 1st August. 2010 in the field of Science. India's Third Research Centre at Antarctica is name as (A) Bharti (B) Swagatam (C) Hindustan (D) Maitri Answer: A 130. When was the Right to Education added through the amendment in the Constitution of India? (A) 1st April.) 1 2 3 4 QRPS (B) 1 2 3 4 RPSQ (c. belongs? (A) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.125. 33 3.

Who was the founder of 'Prarthana Samaj? (A) Atmaram Panduranga (B) Tilak (C) Annie Besant (D) Rasbihari Ghosh Answer: A . What is the name of Kalhana's book? (A) Arthashastra (B) Indica (C) Purana (D) Rajtarangini Answer: D 134. Who was the first ruler of the Slave dynasty? (A) Qutubuddin Aibak (B) Iltutmish (C) Razia (D) 'Balban Answer: A 136. The Gupta emperor who defeated the 'Hunas' was (A) Samudragupta (B) Chandragupta II (C) Skandagupta (D) Ramgupta Answer: C 133. The 'Permanent Settlement' was made with (A) Zamindars (B) village communities (C) Muqaddamas (D) peasants Answer: A 140. Who of the following Muslim rulers abolished the pilgrimage tax? (A) Bahalol Lodi (B) Sher Shah (C) Humayun (D) Akbar Answer: D 138. Which inscription tells about the various achievements of Rudradaman I? (A) Junagarh (B) Bhitari (C) Nasik (D) Sanchi Answer: A 135.(C) Mahasthangarh (D) Nagapattanam Answer: B 132. Who was the ruler of Devgiri at the time of Alauddin Khalji's invasion? (A) Prataprudra bev (B) Ramchandra Dev (C) Malik Kafoor (D) Rana Ratan Singh Answer: B 137. What was 'Dar-ul-Shafa' established by Firoz Tughlaq? (A) An alms house (B) A free hospital (C) A library (D) A guesthouse for pilgrims Answer: B 139.

Where did Mahatma Buddha's 'Mahaparinirvan' take place? (A) Lumbini (B) Bodh Gaya (C) Kushinara (D) Kapilavastu Answer: C 147. Blavatsky (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Swami Vivekananda Answer: A 144. Who founded the 'Theosophical Society'? (A)Madame H. Which one of the following books was written by Tilak? (A) India in Transition (B) Gita Rahasya (C) Gokhale-My Political Guru (D) Discovery of India Answer: B 145. Who was the father of Indian Renaissance? (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (B) Dayananda Saraswati (C) Shraddhananda (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Answer: D 142. 'Swaraj Dal' was founded by (A) Tilak and Chittaranjan Das (B) Gandhi and Motilal Nehru (C) Gandhi and Tilak (D) Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru Answer: D 143. What was the early capital of Magadh? (A) Pataliputra .141. Where was Mahaveer Swami born? (A) Kundagram (B) Pataliputra (C) Magadh (D) Vaishali Answer: D 146. P. At which place did Mahatma Buddha give his first 'Dharmachakrapravartan '? (A) Lumbini (B) Sarnath (C) Pataliputra (D) Vaishali Answer: B 148.

How has satellite television brought about cultural change in Indian mindsets. 6. Globalization Would Finish Small-Scale Industries in India. 5. Increasing Computerization Would lead to the Creation of a Dehumanized Society. Justice must reach the poor The hand that rocks the cradle If women ruled the world What is real education? Terrorism and world peace Food security for sustainable national development . Protection of Ecology and Environment is Essential for Sustained Economic Development. Evaluation of Panchayati Raj System in India from the point of view of eradication of power to people. habit makes character and character makes a man. BPO boom in India 2006 1. Attitude makes. (IV). 3. 6. Nuclear Agreement "Education for All" Campaign in India: Myth or Reality. 4. Independent thinking should be encouraged right form the childhood. (VI). 2. Is Autonomy the best answer to combat balkanization? (V). 2005 1. Importance of Indo-U. 5. Women's Reservation Bill Would Usher in Empowerment for Women in India. (III). 3.(B) Vaishali (C) Rajagriha (Girivraja) (D) Champa Answer: C 149. 2. What was the name of the dynasty of Ajatshatru? (A) Maurya (B) Haryanka (C) Nanda (D) Gupta Answer: B 150. 4. The Third Buddhist Council was convented at (A) Takshashila (B) Sarnath (C) Bodh Gaya (D) Pataliputra Answer: D Preparing Current A IAS Essay : Past Eleven Years Paper IAS Essay : Past Eleven Years Paper Sub Date: 5/4/2011 (I). (II).S.

2. 5. 6. Mass media and cultural invasion. politics and empowerment. 1997 1. Privatization of higher education in India. 4. 3. Woman is God's best creation. India's contribution to world wisdom. Modernism and our traditional socio-ethical values. Indian culture today: A myth or a reality? The implications of globalization for India. True religion cannot be misused. 2.The misinterpretation and misuse of freedom in India. The Lure of Space. 2002 1. The country's need for a better disaster management system. 4. 2. 3. 3. What have we gained from our democratic set-up? My vision of an ideal world order. 4. 5. 2. 2000 1. 2. 3. 4. The pursuit of excellence. 2. 5. 2. 4. Water Resources Should Be Under the Control of the Central Government. Resource management in the Indian context. Modern technological education and human values. 5. Greater political power alone will not improve women's plight. 5. 2. 1999 1. 5. 4. Responsibility of media in a democracy. Search for truth can only be a spiritual problem. present and prospects. Value-based science and education. 3. 6. 3. The Masks of New Imperialism. The language problem in India: Its past. There is nothing either good or bad but thinking makes it so. The march of science and the erosion of human values. . 6. How far has democracy in India delivered the goods? How should a civil servant conduct himself? As civilization advances culture declines. Women empowerment: Challenges and prospects. 3. if age could. Spirituality and Scientific temper. 3. 1998 1. The paths of glory lead but to the grave. Why should we be proud of being Indians? The cyberworld: Its charms and challenges. Irrelevance of the classroom. 4. Whither Women's Emancipation? Globalizations and Its Impact on Indian Culture. India's Role in Promoting ASEAN Co-operation. 5. 6. 6. 6. The composite culture of India. Judicial activism. If youth knew. What we have not learnt during fifty years of Independence. 4.2004 1. 2001 1. Youth culture today. Reservation. 6. 2003 1. Judicial Activism and Indian Democracy. Empowerment alone cannot help our women. The world of the twenty-first century.

Urbanization is a blessing in disguise. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ? (A) Planning (B) Advising (C) Consultation (D) Achieving goals Ans : (D) 29. process. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called— (A) Depoliticised bureaucracy (B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy (C) Committed bureaucracy (D) Fully politicised bureaucracy Ans : (C) 27. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ? (A) Cabinet Secretariat (B) Cabinet Committees (C) Planning Commission (D) Economic Affairs Department Ans : (D) 30. the term 'scalar' means— (A) Step (B) Ladder (C) Position (D) Process Ans : (B) 31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are— (A) Purpose. plan. process. programme. In hierarchy. programme (D) Purpose. where the work is of a more simple and routine nature. The modern doctor and his patients. process. process (C) Purpose. 6. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called— (A) A squealer (B) A rate buster (C) A chiseller (D) None of these Ans : (A) 33.5. The principle of 'span of control' means— (A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only (B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct (C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate (D) The number of people being controlled Ans : (B) 28. the span of control varies from— (A) 9 to 12 (B) 8 to 12 (C) 7 to 9 (D) 10 to 12 Ans : (B) . place Ans : (D) 32. 26. According to Urwick. person. place. person. place (B) Place.

The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by— (A) A. Finer Ans : (A) 42. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ? (A) The State is immune to being sued (B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts (C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 40. D. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was— (A) Norway (B) USA (C) Sweden (D) Finland Ans : (C) 39. White Lord Beveridge Lord Acton . 'Habeas Corpus' literally means— (A) To have the body of (B) To command (C) To prohibit (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 41. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is— (A) Election (B) Pressure Groups (C) Advisory Committees (D) Public Opinion Ans : (A) 37. V. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of— (A) Upward delegation (B) Sideward delegation (C) Downward delegation (D) None of these Ans : (C) 35. Willoughby (D) H.34. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in— (A) 1961 (B) 1964 (C) 1963 (D) 1962 Ans : (D) 38. core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions (D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority Ans : (C) 36. F. A virtual organisation is— (A) One which has profit as the major goal (B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates (C) A small. Dicey (B) Lowell (C) W. (A) (B) (C) Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ? L.

the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of— (A) The King or the Queen (B) The House of Commons (C) The House of Lords (D) All of these Ans : (B) 50. the term of the President is— (A) Four years (B) Five years (C) Six years (D) Seven years Ans : (D) 49. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ? 1. In France. UK 3. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in— (A) 1786 (B) 1778 (C) 1787 (D) 1789 Ans : (C) 47. USA 2. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for— (A) Senior level of specialist administrators (B) Senior level of generalist administrators (C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors (D) Senior level of defence administrators Ans : (C) 48. In England. it can lead to— (A) Error of law (B) Abuse of power (C) Error of authority (D) Error of fact finding Ans : (B) 45. France 4. India (A) 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 Ans : (B) 46. the British Civil servants— Are required to be neutral in politics Can be partisan Can be partly neutral and partly partian . (A) (B) (C) Under their service rules. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of— (A) 15 members (B) 22 members (C) 25 members (D) 30 members Ans : (B) 44.(D) Josiah Stamp Ans : (C) 43.

The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year— (A) 1920 (B) 1921 .(D) Can pursue active party politics Ans : (A) 1. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is— (A) 103 (B) 106 (C) 102 (D) 109 Ans : (A) 56. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by— (A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India (B) Second Hoover Commission of USA (C) Estimates Committee of India (D) First Hoover Commission of USA Ans : (D) 52. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ? (A) 1953 (B) 1956 (C) 1963 (D) 1964 Ans : (D) 55. The rule of lapse means— (A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year (B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation (C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition (D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days Ans : (A) 57. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are— (A) Discussed and approved (B) Discussed but not approved (C) Discussed and reduced (D) Not discussed for want of time Ans : (D) 53. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of— (A) Municipal undertakings (B) State Governments (C) Government companies (D) Central Government Ans : (A) 58. Audit of State Government is— (A) A state subject (B) A union subject (C) In the concurrent list (D) None of these Ans : (B) 54. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by— (A) The State Governments (B) The Zonal Councils (C) The Planning Commission (D) The Election Commission Ans : (A) 59.

G. paid and skilled" by— (A) Herman Finer (B) O. Deshmukh Ans : (B) 64. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials. G. Hanumanthiya (D) B. Stahl (C) Felix Nigro (D) E. permanent.(C) 1922 (D) 1923 Ans : (B) 60. in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may wish to apply is known as ? (A) Direct recruitment (B) Recruitment by promotion (C) Ordinary recruitment (D) Passive recruitment Ans : (A) 66. In which recruitment. Gladden Ans : (A) . Jha (C) K. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by— (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Prime Minister of India (C) President of India (D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha Ans : (A) 61. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by— (A) Rupees one hundred (B) Rupee one (C) A specified amount (D) An unspecified amount Ans : (C) 63. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the Central Government for its financial administration ? (A) 1950 (B) 1965 (C) 1976 (D) 2000 Ans : (C) 65. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called— (A) Supplementary question (B) Short notice question (C) Starred question (D) Unstarred question Ans : (C) 62. K. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ? (A) Dharam Vira (B) L. 'Position classification' is the classification of— (A) Salaries (B) Duties (C) Departments (D) Personal status of incumbents Ans : (B) 67. N.

Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the Indian Constitution under— (A) Article 315 (B) Article 335 (C) Article 365 (D) Article 375 Ans : (B) . The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the— (A) Article 315 (B) Article 320 (C) Article 325 (D) Article 335 Ans : (A) 74. Which of the following is not an All India Service ? (A) Indian Foreign Service (B) Indian Administrative Service (C) Indian Forest Service (D) Indian Police Service Ans : (A) 73. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of— (A) Jefferson (B) Jackson (C) Washington (D) Adams Ans : (B) 71. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ? (A) Haldane Committee Report (B) Sarkaria Commission Report (C) Fulton Committee Report (D) Kothari Committee Report Ans : (C) 75. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by— (A) Fulton Committee (B) Assheton Committee (C) Masterman Committee (D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee Ans : (C) 70. Promotion in Civil Services indicates— (A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility (B) Change in the place of work (C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters (D) Always an increase in pay Ans : (A) 72. A new All India Service can be created by— (A) An amendment of the constitution (B) An executive order (C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution (D) A statute Ans : (C) 69.68.

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