This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
rate of return d. number of distributors 2. The maximum load that a fund can charge is determined by the : a. AMC b. SEBI c. AMFI d. distribution agents based on demand for the fund 3. The amount required to buy 100 units of a scheme having an entry load of 1.5% and NAV of Rs.20 is : a. Rs.2000 b. Rs.2015 c. Rs.1985 d. Rs.2030 4. A gilt fund is a special type of fund that invests : a. in very high quality equity only b. in instruments issued by companies with a sound track record c. in short-term securities d. in government securities only 5. Of the following fund types, the highest risk is associated with a. Balanced Funds b. Gilt Funds c. Equity Growth Funds d. Debt Funds 6. The NAV of a mutual fund: a. is always constant b. keeps going up at a steady rate c. fluctuates with market price movements d. cannot go down at all 7. An open-ended mutual fund is one that has: a. an option to invest in any kind of security b. units available for sale and repurchase at all times c. an upper limit on its NAV d. a fixed fund size 8. An investor in a close-ended mutual fund can get his/her money back by selling his/her units: a. back to the fund b. to a special trust at NAV c. on a stock exchange where the fund is listed d. to the agent through which he/she subscribed to the units of the fund
9. The "load" charged to an investor in a mutual fund is a. entry fee b. cost of the paper on which the unit certificates are printed c. the fee the agent charges to the investor d. the expenses incurred by fund managers for marketing a mutual fund scheme 10. A mutual fund is owned by a. the Govt. of India b. SEBI c. all its investors d. AMFI 11. Units from an open-ended mutual fund are bought a. on a stock exchange b. from the fund itself c. from AMFI d. from a stock broker 12. A mutual fund is not a. owned jointly by all investors b. a company that manages investment portfolios of high networth individuals c. a pool of funds used to purchase securities on behalf of investors d. a collective investment vehicle 13. "Load" cannot be recovered a. at the time of the investor's entry into the fund b. as a fixed amount each year c. at the time the investor exits the fund d. from the fund's distribution agent 14. The most important advantage of a money market mutual fund is a. quick capital appreciation b. high regular income c. safety of principal d. no loads 15. Some close-ended funds are quoted at a discount to their NAV because a. of high expense ratios b. investors do not expect the current NAV to be sustained in future c. the repurchase price fixed by the fund in lower than the NAV
of the inherent risk involved in investing in such type of funds
16. The NAV of each scheme should be updated on AMFI's website a. every quarter b. every month c. every hour d. every day 17. Debt funds target a. low risk and stable income b. protection of principal c. high growth with risk d. long term capital appreciation 18. In which of the following do debt funds not invest a. government debt instruments b. corporate paper c. financial institutions' bonds d. equity of private companies 19. Which of the following risks do not affect a debt fund a. default by issuer on payment of interest or principal b. price fluctuations of the debt securities c. share price movements d. interest volatility 20. Assured return or guaranteed monthly income plans are essentially a. Hybrid funds b. Growth Funds c. Debt/Income funds d. Sector funds 21. A Fixed Term Plan Series is a. an open-ended fund b. a close-ended fund c. a fixed term bank deposit d. a fixed term corporate bond 22. NAVs of equity funds are not affected by a. Stock market movements b. Events affecting the industry/sector in which the fund has invested c. Happenings in the companies in which the fund has invested d. real estate prices 23. The greatest potential for growth in capital is offered by a. debt funds b. gilt funds c. growth funds
24. A Systematic Withdrawal Plan, allows investors to get back the principal amounts invested in addition to the income on investment a. True b. False 25. Which of the following is untrue of an automatic reinvestment plan? a. The plan allows for automatic reinvestment of all income and capital gains b. Automatic reinvestment allows for accumulation of additional units of the fund c. The major benefit of automatic reinvestment is compounding d. The benefit of automatic reinvestment is often lost on account of the heavy load charge on the reinvestment 26. Constraints imposed by most funds on check writing are: a. Account balance should not fall below the minimum capital required b. Checks issued must be for at least the minimum amount specified. c. Number of checks per month must not exceed a specified number d. Both a & b above 27. The performance of a fund is largely measured by the success of a. the marketing function b. the operations function c. the portfolio market function d. none of the above 28. Generally invest in a. unlisted b. market-traded c. thinly traded d. privately placed 29. Which of the following is not an equity instrument a. preference shares b. equity warrants c. ordinary debentures d. convertible debentures 30. The drawback of an ordinary share is A. possibility of capital appreciation B. ownership privilege of the company C. guaranteed dividend income D. no guaranteed income or security
31. An owner of preference shares is given which of the following rights a. voting rights b. fixed dividend income from post-tax profits c. voting rights and unlimited dividend income d. no guaranteed rights 32. Market capitalisation of a company is calculated by multiplying the number of outstanding shares by a. R.10 b. Face value of each share c. Current market value of each share d. dividend yield 33. The Price/Earnings (P/E) Ratio is an important measure of a company's anticipated performance. It is calculated using: a. Market price and dividend b. Market price and earning per share c. Market capitalisation and dividend d. Market price and face value 34. A company whose earnings are strongly related to the state of economy is known as a. Economy stocks b. Cyclical Stocks c. Value Stocks d. Growth stocks 35. A Growth stock refers to shares of a company whose earnings are projected to grow at the normal market rates a. True b. False 36. Which of the following is generally true for a growth stock? a. steady capita appreciation and steady dividends yields b. high capital appreciation and high dividend yields c. high capital appreciation but low dividend yields d. steady capital appreciation but high dividend yields 37. Shares of companies with large capital market capitalisation a. have greater growth potential b. are more liquid c. are not available d. none of the above 38. Dividend yield for a stock is
a. b. c. d.
dividend per share dividend per face value dividend per share to current market price none of the above
39. Value stocks a. have high current dividend yield b. yield high growth in earnings c. are currently under valued d. none of the above 40. A better performance than the return on index is given by a. passive fund manager b. an active fund manager c. all fund managers d. non fund manager 41. A change in key personnel especially the fund manager of an AMC does not necessitate a revision of the offer document a. True b. False 42. If fresh litigation cases or adjudication proceedings are referred by SEBI against the fund sponsors or a company associated with the sponsors, then the offer document needs to be revised a. True b. False 43. The offer document need not be revised if the management or the controlling interest in the AMC change a. True b. False 44. An AMC cannot explain adverse variations between expense estimates for the scheme on offer and actual expenses for past schemes in a. financial newspapers b. business channels on TV c. the offer document d. AMFI newsletter 45. Information on estimated expenses to be incurred by a scheme is not found in the offer document, but in brochures of the fund a. True b. False 46. When comparing a fund's performance with that of its peer group, the following cannot be compared a. Two debt funds with 5 year maturities
all schemes of all mutual funds in the capital market b. change with change in the AMC's key personnel 54. True b. The investment policies listed out in the offer document of a fund do not include e. False 49. need not be disclosed in the offer document 59. False 52. the type of securities in which the scheme will invest principally f. trustees and custodian of the mutual fund are listed in a. The investment objectives of the fund an investor selects for investment e. For assured return schemes. name and addresses of the board of trustees h. the offer document f. AMFI Newsletter 48. offer document e. none of the above 51. can be decided based on investor response to the offer g. information about the guarantor's net worth which justifies the guarantor's ability to meet any shortfalls in the returns assured under the scheme can be found in e. The offer document and key information memorandum contain financial information for a. activities of the sponsor f. both (a) and (b) h. AMC.b. expenses for past schemes in b. Information on estimated expenses to be incurred by a scheme is not found in the offer document. are declared in newspaper advertisements 58. none of the schemes d. should be the same as his own investment objectives g. An AMC must explain adverse variation between expense estimates for the scheme on offer and actual a. are disclosed in the offer document h. Information about trusteeship fees is included in the offer document but not in the key information memorandum e. False 60. all schemes launched by the particular fund during the last 3 fiscal years c. 40% 56. A bond fund with a bond d. but only on the application e. are defined as per SEBI Regulations before the offer is made h. 100% f. companies in which investment is proposed 50. policy of diversification h. offer document only b. key information memorandum c. and the maximum target amount e. business channels on TV d. then it should invest at least the following percentage of its total assets in the indicated type of security/industry/sector e. 65% h. The functions and responsibilities of the sponsor. but in brochures of the fund a. The following information about the constitution of the mutual fund is found in both the offer document and key information memorandum e. A broad-based equity fund with an IT Sector Fund c. If a scheme's name implies that it will invest primarily in a particular type of security or in certain industry/sector. financial newspapers c. the specific securities in which the fund will invest 55. are of no relevance as they may change g. are not known before the offer is concluded f. the key information memorandum g. 80% g. are of no relevance f. The names and background of key personnel of the AMC e. True f. change with market movements h. both offer document and key information memorandum d. asset allocation pattern g. all of the above 53. none of the above 57. summary of trust deed provisions g. The circumstances for refund of investment in the initial offer and period within which refund must be carried out are not specified in the offer document. need not be disclosed to investors f. Offer related information required to be listed in the offer document and key information memorandum includes . The minimum amount to be raised. True f. A government securities fund with a government security 47.
for investment purposes g. can be changed to suit the requirements of the AMC g. The circumstances under which a scheme shall be wound up are to be described in the offer document at the time of the initial launch of the scheme itself e.dates of opening. False 72. In the offer document. dividend reinvestment plant) f. names of lenders 69. As a part of borrowing policy. at the end of every financial year f. A scheme's policy on dividends and distribution e. False 63. minimum initial (and subsequent) investment g. in the offer document at the time of launch of the scheme h. should be disclosed at the time of initial launch 65. Mutual funds are allowed to borrow e. not all h. both the above h. freely to meet their requirements f. 40% g. True f. form a section in the offer document f. various plans under the scheme (e. details of other competing mutual funds 64. Documents available to investors for inspection do not include . form a section in the key information memorandum h. SEBI restricts mutual fund investments in companies forming part of the same group as the AMC. applied only to some mutual funds. closing. indicate the redemption or repurchase price as at the end of the current fiscal year 71. The fund need not describe its accounting policies in the offer document as these are of no use to an investor e. the following need not be disclosed in an offer document e. not favourable to investors at all 66. 5 fiscal years 62. being confidential information 70.g. only to meet redemption demands h. purpose and circumstances of borrowing f. include names of centres where redemption can be effected h. should not be disclosed. neither of the above 61. SEBI regulations g. allotment and despatch of certificates f. procedure for transfer and transmission of units g. 3 fiscal years h. Procedure for redemption or repurchase need not e. 2 fiscal years g. not allowed at all 68. 25% h. 10% e. Valuation norms for non-traded securities should be disclosed e. every quarter g. 50% f. earliest closing. include how redemption or repurchase price of units would be determined g. 67. be described in the offer document f. is decided by the fund manager as per is market outlook f. True f. need not be consistent h. Tax treatment of investments does not e. details of who can invest h. one fiscal year f. The accounting policies of a fund should be in accordance with e. offer tax advice to investors 74. GAAP f. describe the tax elements applicable to investors who invest in the fund g. regulatory limits on borrowing g. This is: e. ICAI Guidelines h. in the interest of investor protection g. The following do not form a part of the investment procedure described in an offer document e. potential risk to AMC and unit-holders h. not true f. funds are required to make disclosures summarizing associate transactions and their impact on the performance of the scheme for the last e. A disclosure should be made in the offer document if an AMC has invested more than the following percentage of its net assets in group companies e. American GAAP 73.
Memorandum and Articles of Association of AMC consent of auditors and legal advisors investment management reports reports based on which actual investments are made 83. Most eligible investors of Mutual Funds can broadly be grouped into either individual or institutional investors e. Any pending cases or penalties levied on the sponsors or AMC should be disclosed in the offer document e. uniform for all schemes of all funds f. 50000 f. 2 fiscal years g. 3 fiscal years h. No f. Offer document h. LIC Mutual Fund f. if Ministry of Finance approves h. The most important link between Mutual Fund and Investors is e. Non Banking Finance Companies d. True f. SEBI Regulations Manual f. False 87. AMFI 82. which category of investors need advice for Investing in Mutual Funds c. Government f. none of the above 88.c. d. What document Mutual Fund distributors need to refer for finding out eligible category of investors in a particular Mutual Fund Scheme e. As per AMFI figures. Provident Funds h. 150000 90. Generally. It is compulsory to use fund agents/intermediaries for investing MFs e. not charges to either h. Fund distributors h. RBI Guidelines 89. Foreign Citizens 80. False 85. UTI Mutual Fund g. Investors' rights under a scheme are e. True f. one fiscal year f. if AMFI approves . not defined g. True b. Insurance Companies e. Who among the following are not Institutional Investors e. Who among the following are not eligible to invest in MF e. False 79. Which Mutual Fund has majority of the agents selling its Mutual Fund units in India e. Banks f. Individuals 86. Resident Individuals g. False 81. Banks g. listed in the offer document h. different g. Foreign Institutional Investors f. None of the above 75. True f. SBI Mutual Fund h. 100000 g. available with stock exchanges 76. Yes g. Commission rates or loads applicable to big investors and small investors are e. Indian Companies f. AMFI booklet g. True f. An offer document contains an AMC's investor grievance's history for the past e. NRIs are eligible to invest in Mutual Funds a. are there in India selling Mutual Funds e. Non Banking Finance Companies 84. Non Banking Finance Companies h. f. e. six months 78. how many agents approximately. 75000 h. same f. Are Overseas Corporate Bodies allowed to invest in Mutual Funds e. False 77. SEBI g. The offer document for a scheme should describe how the NAV of the scheme is to be computed e.
True j. trustees. Offer document 107. SEBI f. True j. i. Yes. True g. The following need not be covered in a Key Information Memorandum c. a standard risk factor for all schemes k. False 103. 91. The risk of a scheme's NAV moving up or down on the basis of capital market movements is a standard risk factor i. False 98. specific to that scheme l. How many major distributor Companies are there in India selling Mutual Fund units c. Opening. a test conducted by AMFI d. approximately 9 d. Mutual Fund agents/distributors are not allowed to sell Financial Products other than Mutual Funds c. this information can be found in i. A "glossary" of Defined Terms must be included in the offer document e. approximately 11 e. 101. applicable only to gilt funds 104. it must be stated in the offer document that there is no guarantee for sustaining the assured return for the remaining duration of the scheme i. j. h. True f. the AMC g. Functions and responsibilities of the sponsor. if assurance is only for a limited period. closing and earliest closing date of the offer disclaimer clause legal and regulator compliance price of units 100. a scheme-specific risk factor l. True d. False 95. True f. False 106. the Company Law Board 97. not applicable to debt funds 105.e. approximately 25 94. SEBI does not certify the accuracy or adequacy of the document f. The front page of an offer document need not cover f. Though the offer document of a scheme is prepared as per SEBI Regulations and is filed with SEBI. not true j. approximately 10 f. Disclaimer Clause f. A compliance officer . h. Closing and earliest Closing Date of the offer e. g. False g. No f. Risk Factors d. This is i. A copy of all changes in the offer document has to be filed with SEBI c. not present j. The offer document is not a legal document e. True d. a test conducted by SEBI e. The legal responsibility for the accuracy of the statements made in the offer document lies with e. Standard risk factors are not market driven common to all schemes of relevance to novice investors new to a regular investor 102. False 92. AMFI Newsletter l. False 96. SEBI k. Are Mutual Fund agents/distributors in India required to pass any examination to qualify to sell Mutual Fund Units c. newspapers j. AMFI h. In an assured returns scheme. AMC and Custodian responsibilities 99. opening. common to all schemes k. a Post Graduate university course 93. Yes. If the AMC is managing a fund for the first time. Risk arising from a scheme's investment objective/strategy and proposed asset allocation is i. Past performance of a sponsor/AMC mutual fund is not indicative of the future performance of the scheme.
Excess distribution expenses are to be borne by the i. open ended funds g. High Networth individuals/institutional investors i. but arise from convention only i. through commissions k. all legal requirements connected with launching of the scheme have been complied with i. Qualified Mutual Fund agents l. Agents are compensated by mutual funds i. The due diligence certificate that must be submitted to SEBI along with the draft offer document cannot be signed by i. True j. agents commission j. False 119. AMC j. Lowest commissions are paid on i. through an annual fee l. Mutual Funds often use their own employees to mobilise funds from g. l. tax benefit schemes of mutual funds k. l. Banks k. the compliance officer l. Equity funds j. stock broking 116. A due diligence certificate does not certify that g. AMFI 121. True j. SEBI l. Sub-brokers serve as agents of the principal . Investor relations officer 109. sell investments 122. disclosures made in the offer document are true. the managing director of the AMC j. "Sales Practices" cover the following areas i. Emerging or new channel for distributors/marketing of Mutual Fund in India is i. Retail Distributors 111. not in cash but in kind 118. Sales practices are never mandated by regulators. charge a fee from agents h. To cover fund distribution expenses. the AMC guarantees a good performance 110. Non-Banking Finance Companies l. the entire commission after five years 123. charge entry and exit loads from investors i. part of the commission up-front and the balance in phases l. In India the minimum or maximum commissions payable to distributors are not prescribed by law. k. no commission at all j. unit holders k. The following are not termed as "sales practices" i. all investors j. Banks k. fair and adequate j. False 117. j. advertising of schemes l.i. Insurance Companies j. the draft offer document forwarded to SEBI is in accordance with SEBI regulations h. through salaries j. Trail commission means paying i. ethical code of conduct all of the above 108. Insurance Companies j. the entire commission up-front k. retail investors h. debt funds l. foreign investors 113. create a reserve j. In developed countries. before-and after-sales service to investors k. an executive director of the AMC k. Direct Sales agents of respective mutual funds 112. True j. False 114. agents' responsibilities to the investor 115. desirable marketing practices j. Retail distribution channels are a critical element in the distribution of mutual funds in India i. but are decided using the fund's own discretion i. stands guarantee to the information contained in the offer document belongs to SEBI cannot certify that the AMC's legal and procedural obligations are fulfilled cannot be appointed by the AMC k. long-term investments in mutual funds 120. an important Mutual Fund marketing channel is through i.
The terms of appointment of a broker by a fund are g. the fund j. an agent need not g. laid down by SEBI h. each investment decision should be approved by investors 137. know his/her client's risk profile i. Adequate disclosures should be made to the investors h. conflict of interest should be avoided in dealings with directors or employees j. is in the form of recommended practices i. SEBI's advertising code mandate that all performance calculations in a fund's advertisement should be based g. True j. False 138. problems or the quality of the investment c.broker and a mutual fund is not answerable for their activities i. requires SEBI's approval j. give after sales service j. ensuring compliance with applicable regulations is the responsibility of i. True j. The AMFI code of ethics does not cover the following prescriptions g. AMFI l. An investor does not have recourse to his agent in case of errors. the NSE Fifty Index i. False 124. not uniform to all funds j. it is mandatory to distribute i. The code of ethics for mutual funds published by AMFI g. l. In India. the agent k. uniform presentations of dividends k. any price he chooses j. key information memorandum l. False 131. SEBI 134. none of the above 135. False 133. Individual Agents j. stock exchange bye-laws i. k. For investors to correctly compare performance of different funds SEBI's advertising codes include i. Funds should be managed in accordance with stated investment objectives i. Distribution and sales practices are only partly regulated by SEBI at present i. laid down by AMFI i. An agent's appointment by a fund i. offer large investment rebates 127. Which of the following distribution channels is preferred by private mutual funds i. AMFI rules j. uniform computation of yields j. Small Distribution companies k. all of the above 128. none of the above 129. offers or sells units. is unfavourable to investors j. convention 125. is a lengthy and cumbersome process k. An agent can offer and sell a funds's units at i. True j. identical time periods l. does not require any approval 130. Mutual fund agents' rate and services are at present defined by g. investment rebate j. To sell funds effectively. the BSE Sensex j. True d. is mandatorily preceded by an AMFI test l. established distribution companies l. is mandatory h. be fully aware of the important characteristics of the scheme h. none of the above 126. NAV h. When an agent purchases. Along with the application. SEBI rules h. All buy orders through an agent do not become valid till the fund accepts and confirms the orders i. does not cover distribution and selling practices 136. a price determined by competition among agents a price based on demand for that fund's units the public offering price currently in effect 132. offer document k. the Internet .
valuation date i. previous day k. Which of the following is not true for Index Funds m.the repurchase price should not be lower than g. 93% of NAV l. AMFI's Code for Agents l. 1. These funds cannot invest in equity 154. If a fund calculates NAV daily. 2. 93% of NAV j. 0. 5% of the amount raised 152. These funds invests in the shares that constitute a specific index . When computing NAV of fund SEBI requires accrual of major expenses to be accounted i. SEBI Advertising k. assets f. Initial expenses of launching schemes should not exceed k. For a close-ended fund. annually k. For a open-ended fund.139. none of the above 141. 95% of NAV i. Which of the following sales practices is prescribed by regulation i.25% j. 15% of amount received l.50% h. none of the above 142. Net Asset Value (NAV) of a mutual fund scheme is defined as the schemes g. all of the above 146. computation date h. the AMC can change an investment management fee not exceeding g. none of the above 144. deposits k. Which of the following are not true for Equity Linked Savings Schemes? m. 97% of NAV 150. Which of the following expenses cannot be charged to the scheme k. in the form of long-term loans h. not allowed as per regulations 143. assets minus liabilities per unit j. combination of long term and short term j. Investors can claim an income tax rebate n. NAV h. A funds NAV is affected by e. assets per unit i. unit capital l. Audit fees l. on a day to day basis l. assets minus liabilities h. Purchase and sale of investment securities f. it will include all the transaction concluded up to h. 10% of amount raised m.00% i. Liabilities in the balance sheet of a mutual fund are g. 97% of NAV 149. 1. when actually paid 147. In a mutual fund investors' subscriptions are accounted for as i. costs related to investor communication m. units sold or redeemed h. quarterly j. The day on which NAV is calculated by a fund is known as g. valuation of all investment securities held g. None of the above 140. There are not specific restrictions on investment objectives for the fund managers p. strictly short term in nature i. 95% of NAV k. record date j. 6% of amount raised n. AMFI Code of Ethics j. For a scheme that has a load. today 148. penalties and fines for infraction of laws 153. last two days j. the repurchase price should not be lower than i. capital h. last week i. winding costs for terminating the scheme n. liabilities j.50% 151. book closure date 145. NAV j. liabilities g. There is a lock-in period before investment can be withdrawn o. Investments made by a mutual fund on behalf of investors are accounted as e.
10 Crores 168. 12 months m. the Chief Executive of a Company o. do not have the right to dismiss the AMC p. The networth of an asset management company should be greater than m. Issuing and redeeming units of a mutual fund is the role m. Fund Sponsor n. These funds take only the overall market risk p. The Finance Ministry n. the trustees p. Rs. cannot invest the funds in securities 158. Transfer Agents of a mutual fund are not responsible for m. undertake advisory services or financial consulting n. o. R. Promoter of a Company p. investing the funds in securities markets 161. Agents and distributors n. can distribute several mutual funds simultaneously 162.I o. the transfer agent o. SEBI p. cannot invest the funds in government paper o. not required to be registered with SEBI n. AMC 163. A transfer in the management of a close-ended scheme does not require the consent of k. act as a protector of investors' interests n. cannot appoint sub-agents or sub-brokers should be only individuals not companies or banks should not be an employee or associate of the AMC 155. nothing to the AMC l. the total networth of the AMC m. The trust that manages a mutual fund is appointed by m. should be atleast Rs. Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) m. an equity shareholder in a Company 165. The fund sponsors should have a sound financial track record of k. The custodian of a mutual fund: k.100 Crores n. issuing and redeeming units of the mutual fund n. The sponsor of a mutual fund may be compared to m. Stock Brokers 169. can be decided by the Sponsor o. 10 Crores at all times p. exactly 50% 164. The structure which is required to be followed by mutual funds in India is laid down by k. cannot supervise and direct the working of the AMC 157. Distributors or agents m. Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI) 156. 5 years n. The Board of Trustees m. 7 years l. SEBI m. act as a trustee of more than one mutual fund p. The investment in shares is in the same proportion as in the index o. should be greater than Rs.n. does not give or receive deliveries of physical securities 160. 3 years 167. the bankers 166. a director in a Company n. The role of an AMC is to act as 1. The fund sponsor has to contribute k. The sponsor of that mutual fund 159.B. promoters . Financial Ministry l. unit holders with 75% voting rights l. Stock Exchanges l. p. is appointed for safekeeping of securities l. directly manage the portfolio of securities o. the custodian n. The AMC of a mutual fund cannot m. These funds are not diversified n. The AMC and directors are answerable to k. atleast 40% of the AMC's networth n. updating investor records o. need not be an entity independent of the sponsors m. Trustees n. The Board of Trustees of a mutual fund: m. preparing transfer documents p.
unit capital n. none of the above 172. RBI 185. none of the above 180. SEBI l. A close-ended scheme of a mutual fund is not governed by m. UTI h. stock exchanges p. RBI n. To transfer the management of a scheme from one AMC to another. provide merchant banking services n. The "Capital" of a scheme does not include m. RBI n. Private Sector mutual funds m. Which of the following are Self Regulatory Organisations k. Fund Manager p. The accounts and all other records of an AMC are filed with k. p. engage in real estate and property development business m. SEBI l. AMFI n. False 173.2. A Self Regulatory Organisation can regulate k. investment managers distribution agents regulators o. Unit holders m. 3. Ministry of Finance 175. Bombay Stock Exchange l. The entity that SEBI does not regulate is m. the consent of the following is required k. 50% of trustees o. mutual funds o. True n. Private Sector mutual funds g. public sector banks m. reserves o. After UTI. 75% of unit holders p. non-banking finance companies 176. share registrars n. UTI 177. Insurance Companies 181. IDBI p. networth of the AMC 184. The highest authority among the following is the k. invest in securities 183. private sector banks l. the AMC and the Board of Trustees of a fund should belong to the same sponsors m. the first mutual funds were started by k. SEBI m. non-banking finance companies 174. it must obtain the consent of m. UTI Cannot provide k. mutual funds set up by insurance companies 179. Bank-owned mutual funds f. The entry of mutual funds in India was initiated by mutual funds set up by k. LIC o. corporate finance l. guidelines issued by the Ministry of Commerce Companies Act provisions relating to transactions in securities 170. only its own members in a limited way . 50% of unit holders n. For a close-ended scheme to change its fundamental attributes. Company Law Board m. Members of the AMFI Committee 171. The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) 182. Registrar of Companies m. The largest corpus of investable funds in India is with e. all entities in the market l. As per SEBI's principles. borrowing p. financial institutions n. 4. The Board of Trustees of the UTI does not have nominees from m. Unit Trust of India n. A change in the following key people does not materially impact the performance of the fund m. Public Sector Banks l. both SEBI and unit holders n. Listing Agreement between the fund and the stock exchange 178. Exchange Rules of the stock exchange where it is listed n. Trustees of the fund o. Agents' Association n. AMFI l. Fund sponsors n.
its own members 5. RBI 187. Annual Reports p. Quarterly Reports o. approving investment decisions of the fund 192. AMFI 199. proportionate ownership of the scheme's assets n. one week n. A special act o. UTI was set up by l. unit-holders are entitled to receive dividend within m. company law board 4. If an investor failed to claim his redemption proceeds within 3 years. by sponsors of such schemes only if the offer document specifically provided such a guarantee by a named sponsor m. Unit holders of a mutual fund scheme do not have a right to m. Shortfalls in the case of assured returns schemes are met k. AMFI n. The responsibilities of a unit-holder do not include: i. After dividend declaration. If the Directors of an AMC commit fraud. Unit-holders aggrieved by a Fund or AMC can get redressed from k. SEBI l. SEBI m.m. regulate mutual funds in n. Monitor his investments carefully j. carefully studying the offer document l. dividend declared for other schemes of the mutual funds p. dividend declared for that scheme o. False 197. six weeks 191. 42 days p. SEBI m. crease public awareness of mutual funds in the country 188. one month o. set a Code of Ethics m. income declared under that scheme 190. self-regulatory organisation is defined by 2. The rights of investors in a mutual fund scheme are laid down in m. promote the interests of the unit holders l. he can claim the proceeds at k. inspecting major documents of a fund k. Bank owned Mutual Funds are supervised by k. AMFI n. obtaining from the trustees any information having an adverse effect on their investments j. its own members with total jurisdiction n. . marketing brochures 189. RBI 194. the apex regulatory authority 3. Unit holders' right to information does not include i. Prevailing NAV l. receiving of a copy of the annual financial statements of that fund l. RBI 198. False 195. being aware of information that affects his investment in a major way k. True l. Consumer Courts l. taking decisions about where the fund managers should invest 196. The amount of authority enjoyed by a 1. True n. RBI m. False 200. Unitholders investments' cannot be protected by the Department of Company Affairs and the Company Law Board k. AMFI 193. Investor does not have the right to receive any interest from an AMC if his redemption proceeds are not despatched within 10 working days m. jointly by SEBI & RBI n. Par l. The role of AMFI in the mutual funds industry is not to k. the Offer Document of that scheme n. the Government of India n. no entity at all 186. True n. UTIs scheme US-64 falls under the purview of SEBI m.
on going sales and repurchases must start within o. SEBI r. True r. once in two years s. by regulation. every quarter r. SEBI does not require the following to be included in the offer document issued by a mutual fund q. The offer document for a scheme remains valid even if q. all of the above 213. 50% of the trustees q. the Memorandum & Articles of Association of the AMC q. contains the terms of issue r. 30 days q. Annual Report of the AMC 210. inviting the the investors t. every month 212. do not include the objective of the scheme r. SEBI s. giving detailed information about the scheme s. The offer document q. entry or exit load are changed s. Fundamental attributes of scheme q. 45 days r. the on the date he has applied for redemption n. is not the operating document describing the scheme t. are not necessary for deciding whether to invest in the scheme or not 207. Performance of other mutual funds 209. All important disclosures that the mutual fund is required to make. include the terms of the scheme t. a sheet containing historical NAVs of other fund schemes r. are contained in the offer document q. The offer document issued when an open-ended scheme is launched is valid for all times. it is registered with SEBI q. cannot be called a reference document 208. The prospectus of a close-ended fund is issued o. An addendum giving details of material change in the offer document should be circulated o. it is first issued at the time the scheme is launched p. The offer document issued by mutual funds does not serve the purpose of q. new plans are added to existing schemes 211. an abridged version of the offer document p. distributors/brokers p. it has to be revised periodically r. The offer document has to be fully revised and updated q. every quarter t. Which of the following is not true for offer documents of open-ended schemes o. Bombay Stock Exchange t. The prospectus or Offer Document containing the details of new scheme is first registered with the q. Investors' Rights and Services t.m. details of the Sponsor and the AMC r. until amended . announcing the scheme r. For scheme to be able to change its fundamental attributes. 180 days 202. none of the above 203. Ministry of Finance 204. AMFI r. 'Key Information Memorandum' is o. Description of the Scheme & investment objective/strategy s. False 215. 15% below the prevailing NAV 201. unit holders q. giving the fund manager's investment outlook for the next quarter 205. only once at the time of issue q. every six months 206. it must obtain the consent of o. 50% of the unit holders p. the AMC is reconstituted r. 75% of the unit holders r. every six months r. gives no information relevant for making an investment decision s. One week p. After closure of the initial offer an open ended scheme. it need not be revised at all 214. the scheme's NAV changes t. can be changed without the investor's approval or knowledge s. every year p.
high current income r. checking the foundations of the company's factory building j. on a mark-to-market basis q. Rs 2. Rs 3. historical data on the company's share price r. does not have to research stocks q. long term capital appreciation 229 From an investor's viewpoint. True f.As per SEBI regulations. the AMC can charge the fund with investment and advisory fees upto: o. True p. offer document p. none of the above 227 A growth manager looks for q. False 219 Initial issue expenses are charged to a scheme in the first year itself e. False 220 Scheme-wise annual report of a mutual fund need not be q. stock exchanges 221 Mutual funds value their investments o. False 224 A close-ended has average weekly net assets of Rs 200 crore. the company's regulatory environment 232. performance of the fund s. high current yield r. True p.50 crore r. current market sentiment t. Economic Times r. researches stocks extensively r. forwarded to SEBI s. sent to all unit-holders r. False 218 The offer document is not a legal document o. stocks that are currently undervalued in the market p. does not have to go through the process of stock selection t. a fund's investment style r.q. the company shares' trading volume s. research into the operations and finances of the company k. False 223 Income distributed to unit-holders by a debt fund is liable to dividend distribution tax o.00 crore q. Quantitative analysis is more likely to be done to evaluate a particular sector or industry rather than any specific stock o. False . none of the above 230 Fundamental analysis involves i. Rs 2. does not have to balance his portfolio r. at book value 222 Investors are totally exempt from paying any tax on the dividend income they receive from mutual funds o. Rs 2. True p. above average earnings growth t. at purchase price p.00 crore 225 A passive fund manager q. Which of the following is not considered for technical analysis q.25 crore p. Annual Report of the AMC q. none of the above 228 A value manager does not look for o. True r. published as an advertisement t. undervalued stocks s. AMFI Newsletter 217 The offer document need not be studied by an investor before investing in a scheme q. the fund manager's judgement t. studying the company's share prices l. True p. does not have to track stocks 226 A fund manager managing an index fund o. has to keep fund expenses low p. the most important is q. True r. none of the above 231. False 216 The most important source of information for a prospective investor is o. does not buy and sell stocks often s. at par r. stocks whose worth will be recognised by the market in the long term q.
Corporates q. using equity derivatives i. A futures contract allows one to buy or sell the underlying shares. zero coupon bonds o. a floating rate basis n. PSU Bonds 248. whether to buy or sell p. The Indian debt market is largely wholesale in nature o. True r. the overall decisions on allocating money to particular industries/sectors are taken by q. financial institutions 249. whether to buy a given share or not s. interest bearing n. security dealers t. Security dealers of a mutual fund o. whether company's technical personnel are adequately qualified r. whether to use technical analysis or quantitative analysis t. In India. fund managers s. mutual funds p. False 247. Fundamental analysis forms the basis to decide q. Corporate Bonds 3. Derivatives cannot be based on market indices q. Scheduled commercial banks r. As per SEBI's requirements each scheme of a mutual fund should have a different fund manager o. whether the company's factory can withstand earthquakes 234. zero coupon basis 246. but need not result in delivery q.233. a fixed rate p. equity analysts r. n. not buying and selling shares at all for some days h. foreign banks q. none of the above 250. Equity derivative instruments are o. finding value stocks 236. False 240. fund managers can reduce the loss in portfolio value by f. when to buy a given share r. a fixed rate plus a variable portion o. the right time to buy or sell q. False 244. When expecting a fall in market price. Debt securities bought at a discount to their face value are generally m. contracts r. paying interest at a floating rate p. True p. the largest proportion of trading is seen in 1. focusing on growth sectors q. none of the above 243. trustees 241. a large part of debt securities pay interest on m. none of the above 245. guard the cabin of the fund manager p. notes 238. capitalising on economic cycles p. shares p. In the wholesale debt market. speculating g. True p. Government Securities 2. o. Technical analysis guides the decision on o. Indian banks r. Which of the following is not an investment philosophy o. Continuous tracking of the companies in which a mutual fund has invested is done by m. Regional Rural Banks p. decide which shares to buy or sell r. False 239. capitalisation r. True r. giving TV interviews to improve sentiment 237. In a mutual fund. Certificates of Deposits (CDs) are issued by o. none of the above 235. bonds q. continuous tracking systems equity analysts trustees security dealers 242. p. The largest proportion of trades done in the wholesale debt market is accounted by o. Commercial Paper is issued by Corporate bodies . execute buy and sell orders for the fund q. T-Bills 4.
the current price of T-Bills 261. none of the above 256. When interest rates rise. reinvestment risk t. inflation risk u. The yield on Treasury Bill (T-Bill) us determined by s.to meet short-term working capital requirements p. maturities and prices. to retire long term debt r. False 252. Coupon of a debt security refers to s. technical analysis w. the return on investor would earn u. The Economic Times t. Term Structure of Interest Rates u. the Government of India t. A bond's rating indicates its s. the Yield Curve v. to finance the acquisition of long term capital assets q. fair value x. A put provision in a debt issue allows 1. investors to extend the tenure of debt 260. fall 3. auction u. to pay dividend 251. w. none of the above 264. its current market price v. True v. x. This is known as s. fundamental analysis 262. bonds issued by financial institutions x. To compare bonds with different coupon rates. the Chief Minister's Speech 265. face value w. False 258. certificates of deposit issued by banks 254. the date on which the certificates becomes old v. also rise 2. the Sensex u. Which of the following do not apply to the term 'maturity' of a debt security? u. True t. par value v. investors would use: u. Call or put provisions are used to modify the fixed maturity of debt securities u. An important indicator of expected trends in interest rates is s. interest-rate risk v. v. default risk . call out the names of the investors redeem the debt on maturity extend the tenure of the debt redeem the debt before maturity 259. Yield curve is also known as s. u. Curve that yields v. bond prices 1. redemption value 255. Corporate debentures w. long-dated Government Securities v. It may not be possible to reinvest interest received at the same rate as principal. fluctuate either up or down 263. floating rate method 253. Government securities are issued through the RBI s. reinvestment risk t. a piece of paper attached to the certificate t. Curve of Interest t. Current yield relates interest on a security to u. are not affected 4. its fair value x. call risk 266. the State Governments v. the term of the bond w. the date of redemption x. Which of the following are not normally found in the portfolio of a debt fund u. yield to maturity x. issuers to redeem debt prior to maturity 4. Which of the following do not represent the amount an investor of a debt security will be paid upon maturity u. the amount rate of interest paid on par value of the bond v. the date on which the issuer has to repay the amount 257. current yield v. investors to redeem debt prior to maturity 3. investor to put away the certificates in safe deposit vaults 2. its face value w. A call provision in a debt issue allows the issuer to o.
al securities bought can be held in a general account and transferred later to various schemes to attain certain profit or loss objectives u. low liquidity risk v. False 281. If 10-year government securities Neil 10% and a 10-Year fixed deposit in a company yields 12%. yield premium 269. False 274. 10% x. In a mutual fund. high default risk u. at a price unrelated to the prevailing interest rate 273. True r. high perceived safety i. 100% of NAV 278. >5% of net assets . In case of listed securities of group companies of the sponsor.u. above par r. As per SEBI norms. 25% of NAV v. high liquidity risk t. it means that investment in this bond has s. the yield spread is u. having many schemes. equal to its maturity v. Changes in foreign exchange rates have no bearing on interest rates q. Inflation and interest rates are inversely proportional s. 10% of NAV w. The additional yield required to account for the risk of default by the borrower is known as q. True v. a fund's investments. inflation risk 268. False 280. Investment policies of a mutual fund are determined by u. ensuring that the funds are not used to favour a few companies u. 25% of its net assets r. A mutual fund manager is not allowed to sell short when he expects a crash in the market s. physical assets x. the fund manager v. ensuring that the funds are invested in approved securities only 277. the marketing department based on what distributors want x. below par s. the AMC management w. low risk premium 270. False 275. longer than its maturity t. A mutual fund may invest in short-term deposits of scheduled commercial banks m. yield plus r. none of the above 282. yield spread s. at all t. 22% w. low yield spread j. A high credit rating does not mean g. If a bond cannot be sold at a price near its value. at par t. 2% 271. 10% of its net assets s. v. the quality of paper used for the certificate 272. True t. mutual fund is not allowed to invest q. the investors 276. inflation risk interest-rate risk 267. securities w. The "duration" of an interest-bearing bond is s. A bond with a coupon of 9% when interest rates for similar maturities are 11% will sell q. in the equity shares of any one company are restricted to u. mandating minimum levels of diversification for mutual funds t. loans v. Which of the following measures are not taken by SEBI for protecting investors of mutual funds s. 50% of NAV x. high yield spread h. True t. 12% v. False 279. yield extra t. tracking the securities that each fund has invested in v. less than its maturity u. True n. Mutual funds are allowed to lend u.
While computing the Expense Ratio for a fund. Debt fund r. total return does not take NAVs into account t. 40. Total Return u. 6. below par u. growth in the economy s. Equity fund t. NAV Change t.16 at the beginning of the year and Rs. The Expense Ratio is not of utmost importance in case of q. total expenses and total assets s. at current market rates w. Options u. AMCs need not maintain records in support of each investment decision j. at par v. When interest rates for similar maturities' bonds are 11%. the fund's efficiency 294. none r. accountants 286. technicians t. Interest Rate Risk for an Indian debt fund can be reduced by using s. at cost price x. at a price unrelated to the interest rates for similar securities 288. The Expense Ratio is not affected by e. Total Return with reinvestment v. bond with a 9% coupon rate will sell s. If the NAV of an open-ended fund was Rs. product market condition r. at a fixed premium over market rate 284.283. total return takes dividend into account while NAV change does not s. Futures t. The expense ratio used for measuring fund performance is an indicator of q. brokerage commissions on the fund's transactions are not included in the fund expenses q. total return does not take the time period into account 292. The most suitable measure for a fund's performance does not depend on the s. prevalent market practices t. none of the above 285. True k. investment objective of the fund u. False 287. net investment income and net assets u. none of the above 293. The Income Ratio as a measure of a fund's performance is defined by the fund's s. type of fund t. the annualised change in NAV is s. The Expense Ratio as a measure of a fund's performance is defined by a fund's q. Index fund s. Change in NAV as a measure of fund performance is more suitable for u. not at all v. average expenses and average net assets t. True r.22 after 13 months. stock market conditions 298. portfolio composition h. financial market conditions v. total expenses and average net assets r. above par t. Bond fund 297. income funds w. none of the above 295. A mutual fund may transfer investments from one scheme to another u. total income and total assets t.0% t.6% u. False 296. The most suitable measure of fund performance for all fund types is s. average account size g. The Interest Rate Forecasting Unit of a debt fund is generally manned by s. growth funds v. amount invested by investor 289. none of the above 291. total income and net assets v. 37. The difference between NAV change and total return as measures of fund performance is q.6% v. statisticians u. economists & econometricians v. fund size f. 34.5% 290. funds with withdrawal plans x. Interest Rate Swaps v. none of the above .
have no benchmarks bb. Fund managers 314. The performance of other mutual funds aa. a rising market 302. custodian's fees z. stamp duty on transfers aa. dealer spreads y. underperform when compared with the benchmark 311. size of the fund's portfolio t. To evaluate a close-ended debt-fund. Transaction costs include y. S&P CNX Defty 313. Which of the following is false? w. brokerage commissions x. The performance of the stock market as a whole z. Which of the following is of no relevance in evaluating a fund's performance y. Fund size z. earn the same returns as the benchmark aa. The returns given by other comparable financial products bb. agent commissions 305. Which of the following are not included in Transaction costs? y. True z. SEBI h. debt funds z. S&P CNX Sectoral Indices 312. False 307. mutual funds can borrow for short term to the extent of w. BSE Sensex f. BSE 200 bb. the following need not be similar w. brokerage commissions z. the average number of units sold by the fund in one day v. The change in wholesale price index 309. S&P CNX Nifty aa. the fund manager f. interest on bank fixed deposits of similar maturity h. a suitable benchmark would be e. When comparing performance of two funds. Equity Funds t. none of the above 304. all expenes charged to the fund aa. I-Sec's I-BEX g. BSE Sensex z. equity funds x. all expenses related to trading z. Growth Funds u. the preferred benchmark would be the y. As per SEBI. An actively managed equity fund expects to y. Investment objectives y. growth funds y. distribution expenses bb. high transaction costs v. A high turnover rate for a fund indicates u. Regular Income Funds v. registrar's fees 306. amount of buying and selling done by the fund u. none of the above 301. z. total net assets x. Index Funds 300. 50% of net assets 25% of net assets 20% of net assets 308. the investment objective of the fund g. AMFI 310. Risk profiles x. ROI is a measure similar to Total Return with Reinvestment of distribution x. custodians fees bb.299. greater efficiency w. Portfolio turnover rate of a fund measure the s. be able to beat the benchmarks z. The choice of an appropriate benchmark for evaluating a fund's performance depends on e. The Income Ratio is more suitable for evaluating the performance of s. Which of the following transaction costs are not quantified in the offer document w. Total Return with Reinvestment of distributions assumes reinvestment at NAV on the distribution date . high returns to the investor x. The size of a fund has no bearing on its performance y. For evaluating funds. Turnover rates would be most relevant to analyse the performance of w. value funds 303. y.
to achieve financial goals through proper management of finances y. equity etc. all responsibility ends with the financial planner and the client has no responsibilities y. True z. allocating funds to asset classes (e. interest received on the fund's assets z. Total Return with Reinvestment of distribution seeks to overcome the shortcomings of simple Total Return Because of its simplicity. disciplined monthly budgeting x. monitoring financial planning recommendations v. Which of the following works with an investor on his overall financial situation k. True v. saving for child's education 317. a professional fund manager x. reinvestment of dividend which is like compounding y. False 327 In financial planning. True x. Financial planning does work for older clients y. True z. False 319. Financial Advisor 320. Financial Planner m. the financial planner v. tracking stocks which they feel have potential . planning for retirement z. none of the above 329 In the growth option offered by mutual funds. True v. none of the above 318. debt. False 321. once an investor buys into a fund. disciplining children w. decreasing the standard of living v. all of the above 324. defining a client's profile and goals t.g. Within an asset class. False 325. winning a sports gold medal y. the number of units held by an investor increases because of w. The basis of genuine investment advice should be 1. capital appreciation x.y. False 326 Financial planning is primarily tax planning w. A financial planner takes responsibility for the financial well-being of his/her clients y. recommending appropriate asset allocation u. to invest in foreign countries z. Financial plans do not alter in any way the amount of tax an investor pays as the tax is on his income u. True z. Insurance Agent n. none of the above 322. to become a billionaire x. an objective advisor 323. which individual security to invest in should be decided by u. Financial Planning comprises s. allocating funds to individual securities y. As a measure of performance. the agent commissions paid by different funds 3.e. Tax Advisor l. simple Total Return is preferred in practice to Total Return with Reinvestment of distribution z. Financial planners and their clients should focus on w. buying a home x. none of the above 330 To maximise returns on investment.) x. planning to complete the agent's annual targets 316. financial planning to suit the investor's situation 4. growth in net asset value i. the investor himself w. Financial planning is relevant only for high networth individuals u. he/she should hold on to it no matter what happens 315. the current market situation 2. Financial planning allows a person w. z. Financial goals do not include w. False 328 The constraint on financial planning due to insufficient investable resources can be remedied to some extent by u.
Over a period of time. buy and hold on to investments for a long time x. True False 331 If an investor keeps investing a fixed amount at regular intervals. Hedge against inflation 340. unfavourable effect of tax x. active switching bb. Depreciation in value as time passes bb. real estate n. not doing any re-balancing and letting the profits run aa. Investment is for the same amount at regular intervals x. Rupee cost averaging has no serious shortcomings 336. capital market instruments m. p. the stock market situation v. UTI x.o. switch from poor performers to good performers 335. individual investors do not have direct access to l. Less potential for capital appreciation z. sell or switch from one scheme to another z. low risk z. Listing of shares at a stock exchange ensures w. high liquidity 343. A Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation means y. Bank deposits x. The biggest advantage of investment in gold is w. continuously changing the ratio of various assets in the portfolio z. High returns x. It does not tell you when to buy. Units of a mutual fund 339. Investment without any asset allocation plan x. The rate of interest paid by a company on debentures issued by it depends on u. True z. High purchase price aa. In India. A criticism of rupee-cost averaging is w. Which of the following investment products do not give guarantee for return or capital w. A higher rate of interest v. the amount of money being raised 344. SEBI guidelines w. False 332. very high liquidity . Value gets eroded due to inflation 341. long term capital appreciation y. the average purchase price will work out higher than if one tries to guess the market highs and lows y. Low Purchase price z. Buy and Hold Strategy 333. Which of the following lets an investor book profits in a rising market and increase holdings in a falling market u. Pubic provident fund (PPF) y. Which of the following entities can given loans against securities w. Banks y. Which of the following is not a characteristic of company fixed deposits u. The biggest disadvantage of investment in real estate is y. higher risk w. The strategy advisable for an investor to maximise investment return in the long run is w. bullion o. the company's credit rating x. none of the above 338. High yield after tax 342. Low entry price x. Fixed Rates of Asset Allocation v. the average cost of his purchases will always be less than if he makes investment at irregular periods y. National Savings Certificates (NSC) z. guaranteed returns x. Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation w. liquidate good performing investments fro time to time z. Liquidity v. High appreciation in value y. none of the above 334. Which of the following is not an advantage of bank deposits? u. High perceived safety w. money market instruments 337. Mutual funds z. liquidate poorly performing investments from time to time y.
9% 351. Rs. 10. Liquidity is rather low v. Dividends distributed by mutual funds are aa.345. risk taking investors 347. investors in high tax bracket w.600 and Rs. 8 years 353. Which of the following is not an advantage of mutual fund investment over direct investment cc. Investing through mutual fund is a better option than investing directly in the stock market because identifying stocks is a difficult process agents get commissions on mutual fund investment returned are guaranteed by mutual funds all of the above 358. between 100 and Rs. debt fund . Higher liquidity dd. The current yield on Indira Vikas Patra works out to w. 6 years cc. Indira Vikas Patra is an investment product popular with u.5% before tax ee. taxed in the hands of the investors cc. none of the above 359. The amount an insurance company would pay to the nominee if a policyholder died is known as the aa. 8. high returns 349. guaranteed returns 360.5% dd. 11% y. taxed at source bb.1000 z. 12% j. Post-tax returns are attractive u. 10% z. sum assured cc. easy liquidity z.5% k. bank deposit j. 7 years dd. 6 years aa. buying one share each of all listed companies bb. Greater convenience ff. none of the above 355. The interest is tax-free t. There is no contractual guarantee for repayment of principal or interest to an investor in i. urban investors x. The maturity period of RBI Relief Bonds is aa. 10. Individual investors do not normally invest in Government Securities because cc. face value dd. The annual yield on RBI Relief Bonds is cc.5% before tax ff. Finance Acts of 2000 and 2001 have reduced tax-free interest on Public Provident Fund to i. borrowing enough money to buy shares of well-managed companies dd. investing in a mutual fund cc. 8.10000 x.6000 y. risk protection x. rural investors v. 9% l. 9. are subject to capital gains tax dd. 5 years bb. Which of the following is untrue for Public Provident Fund Schemes s. the amount required for investment is very large ee. none of the above 346. 11% 348 Most individuals invest in life insurance policies for w. none of the above 350. A small investor can build a diversified portfolio by aa. Lower transaction costs ee. 3 years 352. real value 356. premium bb. 9. safety of principal is not guaranteed ff. tax benefits y.5% x. are tax-free in the hands of the investor 357. individual investors re not allowed to invest in Government Securities dd.5% after tax 354. 5 years bb. Annual contribution to Public Provident Fund should be w. The tenure of an Indira Vikas Patra is y. between Rs. 7 years z.
all depend on the aa. Deciding on strategies such as long-term compounding. False 363. financing the client's investments dd. number of investors in the scheme 377. a fund with stable positive earnings w. the stock market movements dd. his job security 368. his age bb. is more risky 375. Commercial Paper ee. moderate risk funds cc. True bb. studying financial management bb. managing the risks of investing cc. True f. gives lower returns z. secured debentures all of the above 361. the number of investors in a fund z. l. cost averaging. has large capital. value averaging. dd. cc. stock market situation on date bb. volatility of earnings x. high risk dd. False 371. and a higher risk portfolio guarantees higher returns e. Greater returns come only from assuring higher risks. active switching. knowledge and resources for research k. bb. his income cc. of the above depending on the market 373. gives higher returns x. As compared to a fund with fluctuating total returns. The risk level of commodity funds is y. Company Deposit ff. Volatility of an equity fund portfolio is independent of the aa. False 370. False 372. Corporate Bonds dd. kind of stocks in the portfolio bb. Which of the following debt investments is not rated cc. low risk fund moderate risk fund high risk fund low-to-moderate risk fund 369. investor's risk tolerance dd. By their very nature. False 367. "Risk" is equated with w. is less risky y. fund manager's success at market timing dd. International funds invest in various and so are low risk funds w. Investment in gold is a hedge against inflation but investment in a precious metal fund falls in the high risk category o. The risk tolerance of an investors is independent of aa. True p. high risk category z. determined by the commodity price movements aa. level of earnings y. low risk category 374. growth funds are considered as high risk funds aa. has identified a bullish phase in the stock market l. True x. A sector fund is a aa. phase through which the economy is passing 365. Gold and real estate are attractive investment options only in high inflation economies cc. amount of money to be invested cc. low risk funds bb. cannot be specified bb. Financial Planning involves aa.k. Equity price risks are . wants to invest for the long term 364. Direct investment in stock market can be a better option than investing through mutual funds if the investor i. Short Term bond funds are aa. True dd. none of the above 366. Debt Fund 362. degree of diversification of the portfolio cc. the number of schemes of a fund family 376. wants better returns than those offered by mutual funds j.
Income Funds cc. better returns than every other available option ff. Diversification reduces aa. both of the above dd. in accumulation phase ee. point out the features and benefits of various investments options bb. not just market risk r. debt and money market securities dd. Index Funds cc. allocating the right proportion of funds to equity. debt and money market securities should correspond to the investors' need for capital growth. keeping certificates of the physical securities in proper places bb. offer ad hoc advise whenever the investor has surplus money available 383. recommend some investment option available dd. Equity Growth funds dd. Money Market funds dd. which does not necessarily indicate further performance s. in transition phase 378. True bb. All types of funds can be measured with standard deviation 382. It is an independent number t. True q. Which of the following is most risky? y. a greater proportion of investment should be advised in aa. allocation the available money to all the securities available cc. True bb. Asset distribution among equity. dramatic results ee. develop a model portfolio z. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Standard Deviation as a measure of risk q. Gilt funds bb. Equity Funds bb. Long term investment in an equity fund 380. False 381. Sector Funds 389.y. low post tax returns . Mutual fund should be advised to expect cc. buy a few units of every mutual fund scheme available aa. and is more risky in a falling market aa. False 388. help the investor develop the right approach to investing cc. company specific market level sector specific all of the above dd. it can be used for all investors whom he/she advises aa. Debt funds bb. bb. Liquid funds 391. The role of an agent is to aa. To satisfy a young investor's need for growth. It is based on past returns. Equity funds cc. z. False 387. All of the above 390. market level risk cc. A very high proportion of investment in all types of equity funds is advisable for investors cc. Investing in a money market mutual fund z. One of the most effective ways to invest through mutual funds is to y. Investing in an index fund aa. invest all the money in one fund scheme bb. aa. none of the above 379. Short term investment in an equity fund bb. company specific risk bb. invest all the money in different schemes of the same fund family 384. Money Market Funds dd. Once a financial advisor works out ideal Asset Allocation. income and liquidity p. only realistic wealth accumulation goals 385. A retired person generally needs a greater proportion of aa. none of the above 386. Asset Allocation is aa. Standard Deviation measures total risk. A fund with a high beta coefficient gives greater returns in a rising market. The liquidity needs of an investor are met through aa. in distribution phase dd.
An equity fund's age and size are irrelevant when selecting a fund for investment cc. not draw down on their capital z. financial goals are approaching bb. the investor has retired aa. exit load 403. is the same for all investors irrespective of how long they stay invested jj. The load amount charged to a scheme over a period of time is called gg. A bond fund and a debt fund . should take the effect of taxes into account z. all of the above 401. entry load hh. Contingent Deferred Sales Charge (CDSC) gg. True dd. False 399. The transition phase of an investor's wealth cycle is when y. exit load ii. need not pay any taxes on the newly acquired wealth as it is not a part of their regular income 397. is not allowed to be charged to mutual fund investors in India 405 A fund's declared NAV does not include loads ee. For older investors who want to transfer their wealth y. the specific securities in which the fund has invested cc. Retired investors should y. never invest in equity 395. should not use any of the new wealth to invest in equity y. no financial planning is required z. can speculate with all the acquired money in the stock markets x.ff. Between the past performance of a fund and its suitability for an investor. repurchase load gg. not invest in securities which bear risk of capital erosion aa. accumulating investors bb. deferred load jj. costs of investing bb. False 398. it can be considered for investment by a retiree y. who are wealth preserving affluent individuals 392. False 402. Which of the following fund types are comparable ee. True ff. no-load 404. Investors who acquire sudden wealth w. investors in the distribution phase 394. Structural characterisations of an equity fund include aa. True z. True bb. is higher for investors who stay invested in the scheme longer hh. the financial goals have been already met z. the right investment strategy depends upon who the beneficiaries are aa. is lower for investors who stay invested in the scheme longer ii. True n. redemption weight hh. the number of employees of the AMC dd. investor suddenly gets a windfall 393. Only if a specialty offshore fund has consistently given very good performance. all the funds can be invested in aggressive equity funds 396. the right investment strategy depends upon the state of the stock market bb. past performance is more important aa. continue holding a major portion of their holding in equity growth funds bb. recovery charge ff. A value fund and a government securities fund gg. False 400. False 406. An aggressive equity fund and a money market mutual fund ff. Past performance should not be solely relied on for selecting a fund m. The charge to an investor at the time of he redeems his units from the fund is known as ee. A high proportion of investment in income funds is required by aa. affluent investors cc. investors in the inter-generational transfer phase dd.
lower Ex Marks. higher gg. Ex-Mark of an equity fund measures its ee. all of the above 409. True hh. all of the above 420. higher Beta and higher Gross Dividend Yield 417. In case of a fund merger or Take-over gg. when top ten holdings account for more than 25% of net assets invested 412. lower Beta and higher Gross Dividend Yield ff. Who is the primary guardian of unitholders' funds/assets ee. banks o. when top ten holdings account for more than 50% of net assets invested hh. both the above hh. lower transaction costs gg. A steady holding of investments in an equity fund's portfolio indicates ee. When selecting equity funds for investing. Units of a money market mutual fund can be issued to m. both the above j. ff. the returns are more predictable s. all of the above 410. True z. The Trustees gg. state of the stock market p. higher Beta and higher Gross Dividend Yield gg. A debt fund's age and size are not important when selecting a fund for investment y. current income dd. the same hh. total return ee. The custodians 408. all of the above 421. performance risk both the above none of the above 415. The size of the market capitalisation of a fund's equity holdings is inversely proportional to the returns that m. level of risk assumed by the fund o. The best equity fund. lower Ex Marks. False 411. Debt funds with long-term investments carry higher risk of capital loss . UTI is allowed to borrow within more relaxed norms gg. A diversified equity fund and a debt fund 407. performance h. none of the above 416. Debt schemes are popular because q. individuals n. The Registrars hh.hh. lower Beta and lower Gross Dividend Yield hh. SEBI approval is a must ii. liquidity ff. income margins for debt funds are ee. can be expected from the fund n. Yield-to-maturity of a debt fund's portfolio is more important when the investment objective is cc. Beta of an equity fund measures its g. all unitholders must be informed jj. risk i. The AMC ff. none of the above 414. hh. most investors are always in debt t. True ff. An equity fund can be said to be concentrated when ee. the Indian Stock Market is always going down r. higher Ex Marks. False 419. almost nil 422. Though Indian mutual funds have restrictions on borrowings (only20% of net assets and for six months only) which are to meet cash needs for redemption only. when it invests in only in two or three stocks ff. those at the top of the performance rankings should be avoided ee. all of the above 413. High Court approval may not be necessary hh. Compared to equity funds. False 418. relative to others. trusts p. higher Ex Marks. would have ee. narrow ff. when it invests in may companies of the same sector gg. gg. long-term orientation ff.
all the above 430. an agent sells many mutual funds 437. An application form for investment in a mutual fund is available with cc. lower expense ratio ee. A trail commission is justified when r. which type of fund would have a higher P/E multiple in comparison to the average market multiple . an investor cancels his investment s. Running a money market mutual fund requires more of cc. False 426. past performance ff. accept the application as a direct application 432. An aggrieved unit-holder of a mutual fund can sue gg. is held by the mutual fund without buying or selling 435. True dd. cyclical changes in economy v. the securities in which it has invested 428. not that of a client u. has not been traded for 30 days prior to valuation gg. none of the above 425. trading skills 427. low quality of investments ff. debt funds cc. a security is considered "non-traded" when it ee. Investors should be advised to avoid investing in a debt fund with a cc. refer to the offer document hh. the offer document dd. True ff. If a charitable trust approaches a distributor with an application for investment in a mutual fund. none of the above 434. gross yields bb. The differerentiating factor among debt funds of comparable maturity and quality is aa. an aggressive growth fund ee. An Ex-Mark of 100% is possible for cc. An ideal money market mutual fund must have cc. the key information memorandum ff. the AMC hh. lower rated portfolio and higher expense ratio dd. fund expertise hh. All debt fund investors are exposed to risk of principal loss ee. As per SEBI regulations for valuation of investments held by mutual funds. fund age dd. lower rated portfolio and lower expense ratio ff. accept the application without wasting time ff. level of interest rates gg. a growth fund dd. Circumstances that might cause an investor to change the composition of his portfolio u. equity analysis skills ee. a bank challan 433. patience ff. both the above x. the distributor should ee. higher rated portfolio and lower expense ratio ee. lower returns dd. Dstribution tax should be taken into into account when computing net returns from aa. an agent invests his own money. has not been traded for 60 days prior to valuation ff. equity funds bb. False 423. reject the application outright gg. lower rated portfolio and higher expense ratio 429. Which is the most important in selecting debt fund for better return ee. both the above dd. the investor redeems his investment in a very short time t. Of the following. none of the above 431. the trustees ii. costs cc. unforeseen economic changes affecting the portfolio's preferred sectors w. is not listed on any stock exchange hh.cc. the sponsor if returns have been guaranteed by them jj. credit analysis skills dd. the abridged annual report ee. an index fund ff. tenure of the fund manager 424. a balanced fund 436.
gg. all of the above 449. Total investment in rated debt securities below investment grade should not exceed 25% of NAV 439. individual agents bb. All of the above 447. Diversified Equity Fund ii. Unrated securities in the portfolio of a mutual fund are not to be valued ee. True ff.ee. A Money Market Mutual Fund is most likely to invest in ee. the stock market ee. Value Fund hh. Which of the following is true for Equity Linked Savings Scheme (ELSS) aa. both the above ff. that the fund is active dd. True bb. Investment in rated debt securities of a single issuer should not exceed 15% of NAV ff. The investment has to be locked in for 3 years cc. A Value Fund A Growth Fund An Index Fund Could be any of the above three. Unit Trust of India's US-64 Scheme ee. False 451 Bonds held in the portfolio of a mutual fund are valued at yield to maturity ee. An exit load guarantees a higher return aa. Of the following. other financial products ff. A high portfolio turnover for a fund indicates cc. other mutual fund of the same type dd. Corporate Bonds ff. none of the above 442. is Wholesale in nature dd. Balanced Fund 441. hh. All of the above 440. Equity Shares gg. False 452 The Valuation of non-traded equity shares is done at the trading price 30 days prior to valuation date ii. True ff. witnesses large scale trading in government securities ff. True dd. False 450. An investor can assess the performance of his mutual fund by comparing it with the performance of cc. which would be suitable for a retiree with a modest risk appetite gg. A prospective investor o. all of the above . An AMC can approach investors either directly or with the help of aa. True jj. is listed on stock exchanges ff. Which of the following is not true as per SEBI Regulations for Debt Funds? ee. distribution companies dd. has no legal recourse r. has the same status as a unit-holder of a fund p. Government Securities with maturity less than 1 year hh. has a fixed price for sale and repurchase gg. False 438. all of the above 448. banks and non-banking finance companies cc. has its sale and repurchase price declared periodicaly by UTI hh. comprises large players like financial institutions and banks ee. A tax rebate is available to investors in these schemes bb. higher transaction costs ee. The Indian debt market cc. Total investment in unrated debt securities of a single issuer should not exceed 25% of NAV gg. The minimum amount for investment is fixed dd. A fund that charges a load is better than a noload fund cc. one cannot generalise 444. False 445. ff. Total investment in unrated debt securities below investment grade should not exceed 25% of NAV hh. has its price determined by market forces 443. Growth Fund jj. all of the above 446. can sue the AMC/trustee q.
is always sold at a discount to its issue price jj. because the bank does not invest in securities ii. an asset management company 458. Asset Allocation jj. Rs. Rs.453 If a unit-holder does not agree to the merger of his fund with another. SEBI Regulations for Mutual Funds were formulated in . A debt fund distributes 10% dividend.1225 jj. assure a rate of return nn. bears interest at varying interests 457. Why should one buy an insurance policy? gg. Information for all schemes launched by the fund in the past kk. trustees of the fund r. trust ll. comparison with other mutual funds ll.2% ll.71% r. Non-banking finance companies t. is redeemed at a price much higher than issue price ll. A debt fund distributes a 10% dividend.10/. 12% kk. 20% ll. When a scheme with assured returns is being launched. A deep discount bond ii. 100 m. company kk. he has not exit option kk. How much tax does the investor have to pay on this dividend? ii. None 464. rate of interest mm. bears interest annually kk. compare the fund with other financial products 459.1000 ll. Selection of fund kk. How much tax does the fund have to pay? ii. none of the above 455. Rs. Mutual fund units can be distributed by q. True ll. None of the above 467. Rs. The most important factor look for when investing in a corporate fixed deposit is the kk. Investment objective 462. 12% kk.21. 40 l. A fund sells 100 units of face value Rs. 10. Means of fulfilling the guarantee jj. compare the fund with other mutual funds mm. A mutual fund in India is a ii. yield ll.25. banks 463. It gives good capital appreciation over its term ii.at an NAV of Rs. Studying the features of a scheme ll. 10% jj. none of the above 461.225 kk. 21. How many scrips is the NIFTY constitutes of k. describe the past performance of the scheme ll. All of the above 468.12. that the bank offers a guarantee jj. 10% jj. 25.75 460. all of the above 456. a good agent would never kk.21. None 465. the AMC s. the credit worthiness of the bank hh. The unit is redeemed at an NAV of Rs. An investor buys one unit of a fund at an NAV of Rs.51 s. It gives high current returns hh. Rs.27% t. The most important reason for an investor to prefer a bank deposit to a mutual fund is gg. none of the above 466. Total Return is q. body corporate jj.27. which of the following need not be published in the offer document? ii. It should be bought due to the need for insurance and not as an investment jj. When selling a mutual fund. False 454.3 when the NAV is Rs. credit rating of the deposit nn.22. How much would be credited to unit capital? ii. Which of the following is the first step in financial planning ii. 30 n. He receives a dividend of Rs.20.
Which of the following statements about UTI is untrue ii. The first non-UTI mutual fund was ii. Mutual fund can benefit from economies of scale because of ee. regulating the industry practices ll. Investment Objectives jj. UTI was the only mutual fund for the period ii. False 477. It was established by an act of Parliament ll. Investors who follow the fixed Asset Allocation approach ee. diversification ii. Board of Trustees ii. both the above hh. cc. A disadvantage suffered by mutual fund investor is that he has no control over the costs of investing gg. 1964 to 1992 ll. ULIP hh. 1992 z. Canbank MF ll. doing away with all regulations for mutual funds 469. portfolio diversification ff. low investment . It was set up in 1963 jj. no tailor made portfolio jj. Unit holders 471. It was not given a monopoly status 478. 1993 aa. none of the above 472. 15 Yrs x. Which scheme has the largest investor base? gg. 1995 481. none of the above 474. dd. approving the code of ethics formulated by AMFI nn. 1992 1993 1995 1996 476. UTI Mastershare ii. Which was the first diversified equity investment scheme in India gg. 1984 to 1988 jj. The private sector was granted permission to enter the mutual fund industry in y. maintain balance in their portfolio by liquidating a part of the position in the asset class which has given higher return and reinvesting in the other asset class which has lower return ff. A mutual funds' investments are guided by the gg. SBI MF jj. LIC MF kk. are not disciplined gg. Cannot be amortised 470. he is able to carry out detailed investment research and monitor the stock market gg. 1963 to 1988 kk. SBI Magnum hh. increase their equity position when equity prices tend to climb hh. none of the above 473. AMFI jj. 10 Yrs v. Indian Bank MF 482. SEBI ii.aa. High liquidity hh. 1998 bb. MEP-91 jj. True hh. 5 Yrs w. The 1999 Union Government Budget helped the Mutual Fund industry by kk. The organisation responsible for a comprehensive set of regulations for all mutual funds in India is gg. AMC hh. large volume of trades hh. SBI Magnum 479. risk reduction gg. US-64 jj. Mastergain-92 480. An investor should not invest in a mutual fund if ee. Which of the following is a disadvantage suffered by a mutual fund investor? gg. bb. exempting all mutual fund dividends in the hands of investors from income tax mm. his capital base is large ff. SHCIL 483. none of the above 475. Expenses incurred by a fund for printing of Key Information Memorandum can be amortised over u. UTI Mastershare ii. It was formed by RBI kk. RBI hh.
The specified stocks in the scheme's portfolio ll. selection of fund managers and schemes ll. A close-ended scheme is quoted on the stock exchange at a discount to its NAV when v. Which of the following is a fundamental attribute of a mutual fund scheme ii. contributions upto Rs. historical data of fund performance hh. The interest is tax free ii. Beta 1. He should switch from the money market fund to the equity fund in a rising market and switch back to money market fund when the market falls jj.40% of gross domestic savings 485. Ex-Marks 70 gg. For choosing an appropriate benchmark to measure a scheme's performance. none of the above 494. The steps involved in the selection of an equity fund for investment are kk.10% of gross domestic savings ll.a. value fund jj. the investment objective gg. asset classification. the one that meets his investment objective.6% of gross domestic savings jj. sector selection. Which of the following characterise the fund that a risk averse investor should choose ee. During the period 1992-99. AMC jj. selection of fund managers and schemes. False 490.5. the assets of the fund are undervalued y. Gross dividend yield 15% Beta 1. sector selection. The names and addresses of the registrars and custodians jj. RBI 493. Beta 0. all of the following are required except ee. The rate of interest is 12% p. asset classification mm. Offer Document of a mutual fund is ii. 7% . selection of fund managers and schemes nn. He should keep switching parts of his investment from the equity fund to the money market fund as the market rises and switch back to the equity fund when the market falls ii. 5% . jj. Which of the following about Public Providend Fund (PPF) are untrue gg. balanced fund hh. sector selection. Board of Trustees kk. Gross dividend yield 12%. SEBI ll. The nature of the scheme being income bearing kk. the composition and size of the portfolio ff. income fund 492.4% of gross domestic savings kk. required by investors jj. Gross dividend yield 11%. asset classification 491. the mobilisation of funds by the mutual fund industry was about ii.484. An investor wishes to switch between a money market mutual fund and an equity fund. none of the above 487. asset classification. Beta 1. required as per SEBI regulations ll. 25% . selection of fund managers and schemes.9. growth fund ii. the markets are bearish w. The units of a scheme being sold and repurchases as per the procedure laid down is one of the fundamental attributes of a scheme ii. 2% . ExMarks 90 ff. sector selection. 50% of the balance of the 4th year can be withdrawn in the 7th year hh. Compounding of interest is best explained by a gg. The name and address of the compliance officer 488. investors perceive that the fund will be unable to maintain the NAV x.60000 are eligible for tax rebate 486. required by the AMC for its own reference kk. It would be better to stick to one type of fund. Gross dividend Neil 10%.2. ExMarks 80 . the nature of investments 495. What would you advise him? gg. ExMarks 80 hh. hh. not mandatory as per SEBI 489. True jj. From whom can a unit-holder seek redressal if his complaint is not entertained by the mutual fund ii.
a debt fund manager will do all of the following except s. liquidity risk gg. sell short maturity securities and buy long maturity securities t.40. In which type of schemes should an unmarried professional working HLL invest gg. default risk 497.496. all the money in a balanced fund 499. 50% in equity funds and 50% in income funds ii. Scheme investing 80% in debt securities hh. Rs. An investor buys units in a fund that has given excellent returns in the past.700 crores. Rs. interest rate risk hh. 90% in equity funds having a higher P/E Ratio than the market jj.28 Crores. sue the AMC hh.19 dd. If yields fall. sue the Trustees ii. sell long duration securities and buy short duration securities v.15 ff. A fund's investments at market value total Rs. reinvestment risk ff.24. but his expectations are not met as the fund does not perform well this year. What is the NAV cc. sue the agent jj. see that the fund's average duration becomes longer than the market's average duration u.98 ee.30. Total liabilities stand at Rs. sell high coupon securities and buy low coupon securities 498. The investor can gg. none of the above 500. A mainstream diversified debt fund is most affected by ee.50 lacs and the number of units outstanding is Rs.49 Answers to Practice Question .32. Rs. Rs.
No 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 Ans a d b d c c c c b d c a d d b c c d c d b b d d c a c a d a c b b b d a b c b b b c c b a b a d c a Q.Q. No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 Ans d a b c a d a d d b b c a d d b b a c a b c a d c d d a d a d a b c b d a c b c a b c b d c d c b c Q. No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 Ans c d d d b a c d a d a d c c b d c b b d c b b d d b c c c c d b d c b a c a d b d b b a d b c c b a Q. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 Ans b b d d c c b c d c b b d c b d b d c c b d c a d d c b c d b c b b b c b c a b b a b c b b c b B A Q. No 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 Ans b d b d b c a d a c b d d a a a b b b d b a b a c a c c b b d a b b c c c a b b b b a b c a a c c a .
No 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 A n s a b d c c a a d b a c b b c a b a b a d b b b b b c b a b a b a b c c b b d c a b c d a a c d b c b Q. No 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 A n s b a d b b d a b d b d a b c b b c c b a b b a b a d d a c a b b a d c b a c a c b c d b b c b a b b Q.Answers to Practice Question for AMFI Test Q. No 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 A n s a b b c a c c c a c c d d c d a c d b c b a c c c a d c b b a b b a c b b c a c b c b c c c c c d b . No 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 A n s b c c b a c c d d a c b c a b a a a b b a a a b a d c a b c c c c b c b b b c d c c d b d d a d b b Q. No 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 A n s a a a d b b d d b a d c d d c b b b b a a c d b a b b c b b a a b d c d b d d b s d c d d c b b b a Q.
This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
We've moved you to where you read on your other device.
Get the full title to continue listening from where you left off, or restart the preview.