Study Guide for the Foreign Service Officer Test
Introduction.....................................................................................................1 Purpose of the Study Guide..................................................................1 How to Use the Study Guide ................................................................1 The Contents of the Study Guide .........................................................1 FSO Test Date.......................................................................................1 Career Track Selection .........................................................................1 Five-Step Selection Process .................................................................1 Registration ..........................................................................................1 FSOT ....................................................................................................1 Personal Narratives…………………………………………………...2 QEP ......................................................................................................2 Oral Assessment ...................................................................................2 General Information ..........................................................................................2 Disability Accommodations .................................................................2 Sample Examination Questions............................................................2 Preparing for the FSOT.....................................................................................3 Physical and Mental Preparation ..........................................................3 Test-Taking Strategies ..........................................................................3 Knowledge Areas .................................................................................4 Suggested Course of Study...................................................................5 How to Get Started ..............................................................................5 Sample Written Essay Topics............................................................................6 The Job Knowledge Test....................................................................................6 Sample Questions for the Job Knowledge Test................................................7 Rationales for Sample Job Knowledge Questions.........................................12 Sample Questions for the English Expression Test .......................................18 Rationales for Sample English Expression Questions ..................................29 The Biographic Information Questionnaire ..................................................36 Sample Items for the Biographic Information Questionnaire .....................36 Suggested Study Materials ..............................................................................39 The Oral Assessment........................................................................................41

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Purpose of the Study Guide
Our purpose is to give applicants the opportunity to review information and sample questions for the four components of the Foreign Service Officer Test (FSOT): the Job Knowledge Test, the English Expression Test, the Biographic Information Questionnaire, and the Written Essay. Political, and Public Diplomacy. During the FSOT registration, applicants must select their career track. Once this selection has been made, it cannot be changed, and it will have a significant effect on one’s career direction. To make a careful, informed decision, applicants should visit, which explains career tracks in detail.

How to Use the Study Guide
The best way to use this guide is to read the section on Preparing for the Foreign Service Officer Test first. You can then answer the sample questions for each part of the FSOT and review your answers.

Five-Step Selection Process
The Foreign Service Officer selection process includes five steps: 1) registration application form, 2) Foreign Service Officer test (FSOT), 3) personal narrative submission, 4) qualifications evaluation panel (QEP) review, and 5) oral assessment.

The Contents of the Study Guide
This guide concentrates on the Job Knowledge and English Expression sections of the FSOT. Sample questions for these tests are provided, followed by the correct answers and rationales that explain what each question tests, why the indicated answer is correct, and why the other choices are incorrect. The third component of the FSOT is the Biographic Information Questionnaire. There is also a Written Essay, which will not be scored unless the Job Knowledge, English Expression, and Biographic Information Questionnaire sections are passed. The section entitled Preparing for the Foreign Service Officer Test provides an explanation of the Job Knowledge content areas and a list of suggested academic courses. The section entitled The Oral Assessment concerns steps that follow the FSOT, and gives an overview of the Oral Assessment.

Applicants should visit to begin Step 1 by completing an application form. After submitting the registration form, applicants will receive authorization to select a seat at a test center for the next available FSOT testing window. This authorization will be sent approximately five to six weeks prior to the opening of the test window.

Step 2, the FSOT, will be administered online at hundreds of test centers across the United States and abroad. The test, as outlined in this study guide, is a computer-based test. Applicants will be notified by e-mail whether they passed the FSOT approximately six weeks after the test window closes. Passers who claimed a working knowledge of a language that is identified as a Super Critical Needs Language – Arabic (Modern Standard, Egyptian, or Iraqi), Chinese (Mandarin), Dari, Farsi, Hindi, or Urdu – will be invited to schedule quickly a telephonic language test with the Foreign Service Institute. Receiving a “pass,” i.e., at least a speaking-level “2” on a 5-point scale, will enhance an applicant’s candidacy in the review by the Qualifications Evaluation Panel. (Candidates who pass both the telephonic test and, eventually, the Oral Assessment can take advantage of a language bonus when their names are placed on rank-ordered hiring registers. Those who do so will be required to serve at least twice in a country where that language is spoken. See for details.)

Test Dates
The FSOT will be administered three times per year, during an eight-day testing “window” each time. Visit our website ( for the schedule of upcoming test dates.

Career Track Selection
The Department plans to hire Foreign Service Officers in all five career tracks. Applicants should fully inform themselves about the five job specialization areas (career tracks) of Foreign Service work: Consular, Economic, Management,

education. customs and culture. Past behavior has been shown to be highly related to job performance. Consequently. concepts tested include editing and revising. grammar. such as ability to analyze a topic.S. this type of questionnaire has been shown to be a good predictor of a variety of performance measures for many different jobs. will be reviewed by a Qualifications Evaluation Panel (QEP). QEP Information from the registration form of applicants who passed the FSOT. with passage-related test questions as well as several non-passage-dependent items. U. Candidates with disabilities who need accommodation to take the test are requested to register at least four weeks before the next test window. Representative topics include U. religion.Personal Narrative Questionnaire Candidates who pass the FSOT will be asked to complete short-essay responses to five personal narrative questions. scores on the FSOT.S. and Math and Statistics. Candidates will be asked to respond to a topic assigned at random. The questions were written to assess relevant past interests. organize and develop ideas. such as communication. These include: Job Knowledge: The sample questions cover major content areas. clarity of purpose. not on opinions expressed. 2 Sample Examination Questions The FSOT Study Guide includes sample questions for each portion of the examination. activities. and interpersonal conflict resolution skills. Government and Political System. and behaviors that are related to specific performance dimensions. and mechanics. such as U. punctuating relationships and sequences. Economics. Written Essay: The written essay is used to evaluate each candidate’s ability to analyze a substantive topic. The . along with their personal narrative responses. and results of telephonic Super Critical Needs language tests (if General Information Disability Accommodation In addition to the preparation and administration of the FSOT. Biographic Information Questionnaire: The Study Guide includes sample questions from the Biographic Information Questionnaire. Accommodation requests must be submitted in writing with accompanying documentation at least three weeks before a requested test date in order for ACT to have sufficient time to make the necessary arrangements. English Expression: The sample questions encompass English expression and language usage skills required for preparing or editing written reports. which is a non-cognitive measure designed to assess an individual’s experience. sentence structure. etc. and World History.S. taken). and express them in correct and readable English prose. including correct grammar and good writing at the sentence and paragraph levels. and/or international social systems and issues. and managing sentence elements effectively. Geography. history. All information in both the application and the personal narrative is subject to verification and any misrepresentation of fact is grounds for terminating the candidacy. These questions include passages similar to those on the actual test. ACT will be responsible for all special accommodation requests for people with disabilities. Applicants will be notified by e-mail whether or not they are invited to the Oral Assessment. employment issues. using words to fit meaning and function. Oral Assessment Candidates invited to take the Oral Assessment must bring a completed Statement of Interest (DS-4017) and should complete an on-line security background form (SF-86) to submit electronically in the event of passing the Oral Assessment. Essays are evaluated using established scoring criteria.

it is also unwise. You may need to return to questions that you skipped or reconsider questions about which you were unsure when you first read them. wish to spend the early part of the exam organizing your ideas on the topic. the number of questions that you answer correctly determines your score. Try to maintain your normal exercise regimen in the days before the test. An important aspect of this is knowing what to expect. At times. Some people prefer not to pay attention to the time at all. Again. Significantly changing your normal habits just prior to the test may have unintended consequences. but just work as quickly and smoothly as they can. Try to answer them under controlled conditions to give yourself a good idea of what the actual test will be like. Skipping over key words or concepts could lead to incorrect answers. and you cannot go back to a previous individual test if you finish a later section with time to spare. however. However. is choosing answers in a pattern. This Study Guide should be helpful in that regard. it is to your advantage to answer questions even if you have to guess. Make an effort to plan accordingly. it is still a good idea to gain more experience in this area. Again. Being well rested does not necessarily mean getting more sleep than usual. you may . On multiple-choice exams. Therefore. you are already experienced in taking exams. Although the FSOT does not involve any purely physical activities. for example) can also help make you more comfortable with the multiple-choice format. 3 Test-Taking Strategies In all likelihood. The goal of proper mental preparation is to have you arrive for the test feeling confident and as calm as possible. there are many methods for writing an essay. On these tests. You need to balance time and accuracy. On the Job Knowledge and English Expression sections of the FSOT. which are multiple-choice. You should be able to design the test-taking strategy that will work best for you. Similarly. you have a better chance of choosing the correct answer. try to factor in time to review your answers. it is probably best not to do anything that is too out of the ordinary. When thinking about your strategy for completing the test in the required time. go on to ones you can answer. The sample questions included in this guide are a start. Any time you can eliminate one of the answer choices.Preparing for the FSOT Physical and Mental Preparation Physical preparation for an exam is something that many people overlook. The urge to quickly scan the directions to an exam and start on the questions is a natural one. In a timed essay exam. Careful reading is also important when reading the questions and answer choices. The tests are designed so that most people can finish them in the designated time period. One strategy is to skip such questions. The following information will explain what steps you can take to prepare for the test and how to build that confidence. taking exams can be physically as well as mentally challenging. Standardized exams are typically designed so “pattern guessing” is ineffective and probably detrimental to your score. you may be unsure about the answer to a particular question. You know how your body responds to the type of breakfast you eat. The important thing to realize is that you should have a plan for how to organize your time. Remember that all test-taking tips are general. The individual tests in the FSOT are timed – that is. You are the best judge of how much sleep you need to work at peak efficiency. There is no penalty for guessing. and come back to the troublesome ones in that section later. Taking sample standardized tests in other areas (college admissions. The same concept applies to the amount of sleep you plan to get the night before the test. Of course. this is an individual decision. each test must be completed within a certain time limit. do not forget to eat a breakfast that will supply you with the necessary fuel for testing time. it is important that you have a strategy for pacing yourself to ensure that you will complete the test. Reading the directions carefully is an important place to start. One strategy for guessing that you should avoid. you can easily figure out how much time you should spend on each question in order to answer all of the questions in the allotted time.

sentence structure. organization. and using e-mail and the Internet. and the goals and techniques of public diplomacy and their use to support work functions. including correct grammar and good writing at the sentence and paragraph level. motivational strategies and equal employment practices. The knowledge areas are listed below. Computers and the Internet. Economics. spreadsheets. World History and Geography. and punctuation required for writing or editing reports. as well as general knowledge of public media. and foreign affairs. . as well as knowledge of world geography and its relationship to U. the Constitution and its history. United States Government. This knowledge area encompasses a general understanding of basic computer operations such as word processing. This knowledge area encompasses a general understanding of basic mathematical and statistical procedures. This knowledge area encompasses a general understanding of basic management and supervisory techniques and methods. social issues and trends. This knowledge area encompasses a general understanding of significant world historical events. May include calculations. as well as national customs and culture. Proper preparation requires that the candidate has read widely from many different sources and/or has taken courses in a number of different fields. including their impact on U. This knowledge area encompasses an understanding of basic economic principles. Communication. databases. including political and economic history. issues. Includes knowledge of human psychology. institutions. This knowledge area encompasses an understanding of major events. Encompasses English expression and language usage skills required for preparing or editing written reports.Knowledge Areas Preparation for taking the Foreign Service Officer Test involves much more than studying for a test.S. A job analysis of Foreign Service Officer positions identified these areas as critical to success on the job. Correct grammar. foreign policy. leadership. and developments. This knowledge area encompasses a general understanding of principles of effective communication and public speaking techniques. United States Society and Culture. writing strategy. as well as a general understanding of economic issues and the economic system of the United States. as well as the United States political system and its role in governmental structure.S. and the influence of U. the structure of Congress and its role in foreign affairs. Mathematics and Statistics. media relations.S. and movements in national history. Management. society and culture on foreign policy and foreign affairs. formulation of government policies. foreign policy. This knowledge area encompasses a general understanding of the composition and functioning of the federal government.

please e-mail state@socent. To request a hard copy of the guide.state.Suggested Course of Study Success on the Foreign Service Officer Test is not necessarily dependent on a specific course of the curriculum of the following collegelevel courses should prepare an examinee for the content of the test.state. English Composition/Rhetoric American History American Studies (including cultural and social history) American Political Thought United States Political System American Economic History Introduction to Economics (micro and macro) World History (Western and non-Western) World Geography International Economics World Religions Introduction to Statistics Introduction to Management Principles Intercultural Communication Mass Communication Psychology How to Get Started A booklet entitled Guide to the Foreign Service Officer Selection Process can be downloaded (in PDF format) from the registration website at 5 . The names of the courses are general and may differ from institution to institution. However. Online registration for the FSOT is available during the registration period at the following web address:

we treasure our rights and freedoms. It should show your ability to analyze a topic in a way that is appropriate for the intended audience. their ability to compete is diminished. at best offensive and at worst dangerous to others. if any. Others maintain that limits should be placed on freedom of speech only when our national security is threatened.S. federal regulations should be implemented only in selected countries. companies have a moral obligation to observe all U. our freedom to say what is on our minds. The writing should be coherent with only occasional lapses that do not impede flow or readers’ comprehension. In your opinion. The language should also be free of errors in grammar and syntax. After answering the questions. some argue. When composing your essay. as it might be when the U.S.S.S. In the U. 6 . however. what limits. In your view. Sample topics are provided below. is at war. The Job Knowledge test consists of questions that represent knowledge areas that are equally important across all five career tracks.S. in particular. what regulations.. federal regulations when operating abroad. There are 50 sample items. many of these regulations no longer apply. you should present your point of view clearly and support it. Others argue that hate speech or pornography. Therefore.S.Sample Written Essay Topics You will have 30 minutes to write an essay on an assigned topic. We think of this right as fundamental to a democratic society. 2. Language should be generally concise with clear and appropriate word choice.S.. Although they raise the costs of doing business. not the opinions expressed. should be limited by federal legislation or by local community ordinances. should apply to U.S. if any. and environmental impact. The Job Knowledge Test The Job Knowledge test consists of 60 questions and is administered in 40 minutes. There is no limit on length. and not in the Job Knowledge test. there should be no limits placed on freedom of speech. companies doing business abroad? Carefully explain the rationale for your position. companies meet costs associated with these regulations and the additional costs of doing business abroad. In the U. Some argue that if U. should be imposed on our freedom of speech? Carefully explain the rationale for your position. product safety. A successful essay should have an obvious structure and clear thesis supported by relevant substantiating details. businesses must comply with federal regulations regarding labor practices. with only minor errors in spelling and punctuation. Note: English language skills are tested in the English Expression and Written Essay portions of the FSOT. companies operate in other countries. Your writing will be evaluated on the quality of the writing. Another view is that U. Others maintain that some U. you can check your answers and review the questions. When U. Knowledge areas were described previously in this Study Guide.S. such regulations are generally regarded as a legitimate way to balance the public good against corporate profits. 1.

whitehouse.Sample Questions for the Job Knowledge Test DIRECTIONS: Each question or incomplete statement below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. money.0. and mode of their performance evaluations. B. new highways. 4. Woodrow Wilson to support Great Britain against German aggression. At the end of the year you are asked to summarize the performance evaluation ratings of the nine employees that you supervise.00 U. 3. 7 .0. D. 4.whitehouse.S. When reporting the descriptive statistics on your group. C. C.00 in that country’s currency. B. D.5. 2. C.S.S. in U. You are traveling to a foreign country. One Congressional district in a state has many more voters per square mile than the other districts in the state.0 8. The representative to the House of Representatives from a congressional district in a large state is a member of one major party while the majority of voters in the district are members of the other major party.5. Thirteenth Amendment Emancipation Proclamation Cessation of War Powers Nineteenth Amendment 5. D. President@whitehouse. C. On the day of arrival you spend 168.S.25 $81. source will be specifically identified. The Monroe Doctrine of 1823 was expanded by President: A. C. 3. 3. D. Select the one that is best in each case. most journalists agree “background information” means that the: A. story’s subject will not be specifically identified.33. interests in southeast Asia. Lyndon Johnson to protect U. D. D. in correct order. 3. light provided by President@whitehouse. 3. 3. 4. B.33 3. 4. 4. are: A. Franklin Roosevelt to extend U.00 = $ President@ovaloffice.5.20 $82. median. Which of the following authorized Congress to legislate against slavery? A. and 4. new automobiles.wdc President@ovaloffice. B. C. An oddly shaped Congressional district has a majority of voters from one of the two major parties while surrounding districts have majorities from the other major party. right to intervene in Latin America to preserve law and order. 1. C. D. you have to report the mean. C. national defense products. The Federal Reserve Bank The Joint Economic Committee of Congress The President of the United States The Senate Budget Committee 6. D. 3. numerous derivatives are allowed. 4. Which of the following scenarios describes a situation in which “gerrymandering” might be in evidence? A. These numbers.0. 7.0.wdc. source will not be specifically identified. The exchange rate is 4. Theodore Roosevelt to assert a U. however. All of the following are examples of United States products that would typically fail to be produced to optimal output without government intervention EXCEPT: A. B. D. The exchange rate is 8.0.5 3. C. A Congressional district traditionally has an almost even split between voters from each major party.00 = $1.00 2. B. 4.S.5.00 in the local currency. $62. The Council of Economic Advisers advises which of the following on monetary and fiscal policy? A. Which is NOT a proper e-mail address form? A.S.0. An e-mail address must follow a specific form and contain certain elements. 9.5.25 $84. influence in the Pacific. The next day you travel to a neighboring country and spend 245. B.33. When writing or producing a story. B. Their scores on a 5-point scale are 2.0. B.33.33. did you spend in total? A. 2.5. How much. story’s subject will be specifically identified.00 U. 3.0 3.

work in a very noisy environment that makes it hard to concentrate. Preparing evaluations that are too strict C. the fact that the majority of the world’s population still lives in rural areas.0 million capital investment)? A. Anecdotes and jargon B. As a supervisor. The invention of coinage as a means of exchange D. troops: A.10. C. B. A traditionally structured. Slippery slope arguments and circular reasoning D.5 million. government sponsored leadership programs to retrain women as executives and corporation managers. D. resulting in the first “equal pay for equal work” legislation. The War Powers Resolution specifies that U. Creating a hostile or abusive work environment B. The conquest of Persia and Northern India 19. D. Being a sexual harasser D. D. cannot be sent into combat without prior congressional approval. People are MOST likely to feel stressed if they: A. D. and South Africa 15. cannot be sent into combat unless Congress declares war.0 million capital investment) and Company B (net profits of $1. Women lost higher-paying jobs to veterans but many returned to lower-paying jobs. Another manager in your department suggests that this subordinate needs some retraining. B. Their systematic approach to knowledge B. 12. Company A is more successful than Company B. persuasive speech incorporates which of the following in support of a thesis or claim? A. greatly decreasing the numbers of women in paid wage labor. C. but you recognize that training will work only if the problem is that the subordinate: A. A subordinate employee who is given a poor performance evaluation complains to the manager that the organization’s lack of response to her complaint of sexual harassment by a colleague was a major factor in the decline in performance. Failing to hold proper employee-employer reviews 11. C. must be withdrawn from combat within 90 days unless Congress approves their deployment. which of the following statements is true when comparing Company A (net profits of $1. C. effective. try to ignore a problem and hope it will go away. Ghana. universal access to information through electronic media. B. Under Title VII of the Civil Rights Acts. Company B is more successful than Company A. lacks the material resources to do the job. C. $6. 8 . B. lacks the skills to do the job. the U. Marshall McLuhan’s “global village” refers to: A. the persistence of traditional societies within modernized nations.S. 14. B. C. have a great many things to do both at home and at work. D. believe they are incapable of dealing with a situation.S. Which of the following is considered the most important contribution of the ancient Greeks to modern Western civilization? A. Which sub-Saharan African countries were independent at the end of World War II in 1945? A. Women competed with returning veterans to keep their high-paying jobs. Reasons and evidence C. C. B. you have noticed the poor performance of one of your subordinates. for what is the manager held accountable? A. the tendency of nations to specialize as tradespeople used to a village setting. B. Neither company is a success. In order to make room for veterans to resume their old jobs. can only be sent into combat by order of the president in a national emergency. How did the end of World War II affect women’s employment in the 1950s in the United States? A. The invention of double-entry bookkeeping C. is not getting paid enough to do the job. D. D. lacks the motivation to do the job. 17. Both companies are equally successful. If ROI is calculated by computing profits as a percentage of capital invested. Women gave up their jobs to veterans and returned to staying at home. 16. Ethiopia. and Somalia Liberia. Return on investment (ROI) is often used as an indicator of an organization’s success. Newspaper features and personal interviews 13. 18. $4. Nigeria and Kenya Senegal and Ghana Mozambique.0 million.

compassion and empathy. When counseling a subordinate about unsatisfactory job performance.20. President Roosevelt’s Destroyer-for-Bases deal in 1940. and advise the subordinate that he or she may have an attorney present. B. 28. D. D. llanos. people are likely to be most creative when: A. actor-observer error. 25. Which of the following countries imports the most U. Kosovo was of special national significance to which of the following ethnic groups? A. stereotyping error. Jews Serbs Greeks Croats 29. manipulation and negotiation. Showing appreciation for team efforts D. have a secretary sit in and make a verbatim transcript of any discussion of performance problems to be signed by both the manager and the subordinate. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be effective in promoting teamwork in the workplace? A. B. Which of the following extensions would appear on a file made by a word processing program? A. B. the lack of finances to support newspapers. 26. during any discussion of performance problems. the War Powers Resolution of 1973.S. D. B. collaboration and reason. B. B. Intermediate-range Nuclear Forces Treaty of 1988 D.S. they see their work as a valued goal in its own right and believe they will be well paid. Senate? A. C. make notes of any discussion of performance problems with the subordinate and give the employee a copy of the notes. D. they believe that they will receive a reward separate from what the work itself provides. presidential power in foreign policy is best illustrated by: A. B. and you judge that employee as “lazy. pampas. C. C. D. discuss performance problems only after completing the individual’s annual written performance review. C. Canada Germany Japan United Kingdom The expansion of U.S. the Senate’s decision in regard to the Treaty of Versailles in 1919-1920. Prior to the Ottoman incursion into Europe. fundamental attribution error.exe 30. The reduction in the number of newspapers in the United States is primarily due to: A.eps . C. 23. Gran Chaco. they see their work as a valued goal in its own right. contemporary organizations are more likely to exercise power through: A. Compared to older methods of direct coercion and threat. B. Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty of 1979 C. Encouraging worker participation in decisionmaking B. an agency attorney is present for the manager’s protection.doc . self-serving bias error. The grassland zone of Argentina is known as the: A. C. D. Being flexible in making assignments 9 . merchandise? A. 27. . Conventional Forces in Europe Treaty of 1992 31. television’s more comprehensive coverage of news events. Which of the following treaties was not approved by the U.xls . D. C. Avoiding discipline in the interest of teamwork C. When engaged in work activities. 24. pay is linked directly to productivity.” you may be making the: A. the better quality of and greater competition among newspapers. Threshold Test Ban Treaty of 1974 B. ensure that. 22. B. If you see an employee staring out the window rather than working. the United Nations Act of 1945. 21. Andes. competition and antagonism. a manager should generally: A. D. C. D. consumer preferences for listening to or watching news events. C. B. D. C.

Congress. and applies to individuals at least the age of: A. which of the following must be licensed in order to operate? A. 40. C. B. For last year. The path taken in the 1830s by thousands of southeastern Native Americans when the U. B. 38. C. Senate campaigns House campaigns Gubernatorial campaigns in all 50 states Presidential campaigns 10 . D. C. the term poisoning the well refers to: A.S. D. James Brown Charlie Parker Duke Ellington Tommy Dorsey 36. law. the currency declined by 50% against the U. an important consideration when giving employees negative feedback about their job performance is to: A. C. What was the Trail of Tears? A. he must: A. B. D. repetition of a claim offered as a reason in support of it. Which of the following types of political campaigns is partially publicly financed? A. Which famed musician helped develop the bebop style of jazz in the 1940s? A. Broadcast stations Newspapers Magazines Websites 35. 62. on appropriations and expenditures. Last year. C. 41. clearly indicate the consequences of poor performance. inform the leaders of Congress. What do you get if you add all of your students’ final grades together and then divide the total by the number of students? A. on management of the debt. According to U. The automobile highway route in the southwestern states used during the Great Depression by thousands of Oklahoma sharecroppers migrating to California D. African Americans. C. in dollar terms. a disingenuous and vilifying definition of terms or characterization of an argument. 39. what did you earn on the bond? A. built by the hard labor of immigrant Chinese and Irish. an irrelevant personal attack on one’s opponent instead of a refutation of her or his position. C. In the federal government. Secretary of the Treasury. C. provide a clear explanation of why negative feedback is being provided. D. D. government forced them to relocate west of the Mississippi River B. 65. inform the congressional intelligence committees. 70% 20% 10% Nothing 42. 55. 34. B. B. D. C. You own a bond issued by a foreign government. C. B. D. which does not allow for reasoned opposition. The overland route across the Rocky Mountains taken by the Mormons in 1847 when they moved from Illinois to Utah in order to find a safe haven to practice their religion 37. an undesirable consequence necessarily and inevitably will follow. B. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) makes it illegal for an employer to discriminate based on age. not become emotionally engaged in the feedback session. President. D.S. B. the interest rate is 20% in that country’s currency. dollar. the General Accounting Office reports to the: A. Deviation Mean Variance Median 40. B. focus on personality and attitude factors that seem to underlie the problem. In public speaking. According to Procedural Justice Theory. D. on government expenditures and other tasks assigned to it. Congressional Budget Office. get approval from the congressional intelligence committees. a false claim that if an action is taken. 33.32. The first transcontinental railroad route in 1863. Before the President orders a covert intelligence operation. B.S. on waste and financial mismanagement. and Mexican Americans C. inform the National Security Council. D.

a dislike for what was previously said. usually marked with a number. B. but more slowly than the increase at the state and local level. D. Whether to produce. filenames altogether. D. which to produce 50. 47. What are the three basic economic problems that every economy must solve? A. 48. C. D. D. the need for more time. always answer all questions completely. D. halt the influence of the U. can best be described as which of the following? A. where to produce. C. The work environment is highly bureaucratic 11 . for whom to produce B. C. B. attempt to maintain control of the interview. while employment by state and local government has fallen.43. C. foreign policy designed primarily to: A. federal government direct-hire employment has: A. Operating system Service provider Content community Search engine 49. respect for what was previously said. restrict the flow of immigrant workers. where to produce. compliment the reporter.S. increased. A directive leadership style is most appropriate under which of the following conditions? A. B. B. the most important general rule is to: A. C. decreased. entries in a database. C. Subordinates are performing highly structured tasks B. D.S. log entries. restrict American intervention in foreign conflicts. When giving an interview to a member of the media. Google. why to produce D. The term containment was used to describe the principle of Cold War U. What to produce. never speak until spoken to. while employment at the state and local level has risen. how to produce. decreased.S. the use of silence in Japan normally signifies: A. but more slowly than the decrease in employment at the state and local level. In contrast to communication in the United States. Subordinates have high levels of ability and experience D.R. During the last decade. versions of the file. B. What to produce. Some word processing systems allow you to keep all files you edit with the same name. There is substantive conflict among subordinates C. disapproval of a proposition. for whom to produce C. 46. but they save them as different: A. 44. B. 45. how to produce. eliminate activity of members of the American Communist Party. Why to produce.

D. C. This is the correct answer. 6. See A. was used to justify the freeing of slaves by Union armies. Divide 168 by 8 to get $21. Government – Interactions among components of the federal government A. Named after Massachusetts Governor Elbridge Gerry. See C. This is the correct answer. D. C. Theodore Roosevelt justified U. A concentration of voters without regard to political party would not indicate gerrymandering. except as punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted. See A. to the exercise of an international police power. median. 3. 1865. The CEA was established in 1946 to give the President objective analyses on domestic and international economic issues. B. C. Knowledge tested: Mathematics and Statistics – Basic statistics A.25. See C. . Knowledge tested: Computers – Basic e-mail operations A.” This became known as the Roosevelt Corollary to the Monroe Doctrine. See C. The total is $82. C.S. Knowledge tested: U. 12 .S. shall exist within the United States. 7. and half below. B. Government – Constitution and its history A.S.S.Rationales for Sample Job Knowledge Questions 1. Knowledge tested: Communications – Media relations A. Section 1. This is the correct answer. An e-mail address may include numerous sub-domains. history on foreign affairs A. The Emancipation Proclamation. Knowledge tested: Mathematics and Statistics – Basic mathematics A. The Monroe Doctrine of 1823 tried to prevent further colonization and revival of old colonial claims in Latin America by European nations. 5. D. Society – Influence of U. gerrymandering is laying out Congressional districts to favor a certain political party. Ratified on Dec. the score most frequently achieved.S. C.S. See A. . D. See C. 6.25. See A. See A. Knowledge tested: U. intervention in Latin American countries threatened by European powers by declaring that “adherence of the United States to the Monroe Doctrine may force the United States . See A. the score with half the other scores above. D. C. whose 1812 crafting of a politically advantageous district looked like a salamander. D. B. signed by President Lincoln in 1863. D. states: “Neither slavery nor involuntary work. The designation “wdc” cannot be last in an e-mail address because it is not a top-level domain. C. This is the correct answer for the is a top-level domain assigned to government organizations in the U. See A. This is the correct answer. B. Divide 245 by 4 to get $61. Knowledge tested: U. See C. the sum of all scores divided by total number of scores. This would indicate the absence of gerrymandering. 2.” Section 2 grants Congress the power to enforce Section I. .S. . B. This is the correct answer. 8.00. or anyplace subject to their jurisdiction. which must be ordered hierarchically and end with a legitimate top-level domain. B. 4. C. Knowledge tested: U. D. See A. President Lincoln used his war powers as a basis for certain declarations in the Emancipation Proclamation. political system A. This would show that the representative was elected in spite of a political disadvantage. B. Amendment XIII. mode.S. See A. This is the correct is a top-level domain assigned to colleges and universities in the U. See C. B.S. This is the correct answer. Government – U. The Nineteenth Amendment grants women the right to vote.

D. C. B. B. D. D. Knowledge tested: Economics – U. The systematic approach to knowledge laid lasting foundations in mathematics. 17. B. C. See C. See A. 10. 11. See C. Management is required to provide a workplace free of sexual harassment by anyone. Society on foreign policy and foreign affairs A. Knowledge tested: Management – Basic understanding of human behavior A. Knowledge tested: U. South Africa became independent in 1910. These are fallacies and should not be included. but may not suffice as evidence. Among several criteria used to determine sexual harassment. C. C. C. This is the correct answer. C. medicine.” 16. Nigeria became independent in 1960. The speech should be logical. B. Public goods. and other branches of knowledge. no such specialization analogy is intended by the term. Increased pay will probably only exacerbate the problem. Knowledge tested: World History and Geography – Significant historical events A. See C. D. This is the correct answer. Kenya in 1963. This is the correct answer. If motivation is a problem. that should be dealt with before training is considered. D. How much of any public good is produced is primarily a political decision. This is the correct answer. Optimal production of automobiles is related to the demand for them by individual consumers. not a decision made by demands of individual consumers. This is the correct answer. Somalia in 1960. D. C. Senegal became independent in 1960. 12. Retraining will not help if resources are still unavailable.S. D. Society – Influence of U. New highways are a public good. This is the correct answer. B. Knowledge tested: Communication – Public speaking techniques A. Training should improve the skill level. and all generalizations must be supported with convincing. Jargon could confuse an audience not included in the group to which the jargon applies. C. The review itself is not in question. only management’s role in the employee’s poor performance as alleged in the review. Although nations may elect to produce goods for which they have a comparative advantage. This is the correct answer. Stress is intensified when no solution seems possible. This term is related to connections among world peoples. Knowledge tested: Management – EEO laws and regulations A. B. philosophy. or offensive work environment. Light provided by lighthouses is a public good. This is the correct answer. See C. The Greek contribution to coinage does not outweigh their contributions to areas described in A. “global village. Automobiles are not a public good. Strictness of evaluations done in a nondiscriminatory manner is not a consideration.S. See C. Economists classify national defense products as a public good. D. produced for society as a whole. Coined by McLuhan in the 1960s. economy A. Liberia and Ethiopia were never colonized. The ratio of net profits to capital investment for both companies is 1:4 or 25 percent. “global village” is now often associated with the worldwide connections through the Internet. Double entry bookkeeping came about in the Middle Ages. This is the correct answer. not status within one nation. 14.S. Knowledge tested: World Geography – Geographically based national rivalries and alliances A. can be consumed by one person without diminishing how much other individuals can consume. B. Anecdotes may add interest. B. pertinent evidence. These are only two of many types of sources that could be used as evidence. Knowledge tested: Economics – Basic Economic principles A. 13 . B. Knowledge tested: Management – Basic principles and techniques A. 13. Ghana in 1957.9. the EEOC considers unreasonable interference with an employee’s performance and the creation of an intimidating. so they are equally successful. Mozambique became independent in 1975. See C. D. 15. This term is not related to demographics in a literal sense. C. hostile.

D. data entry. This is the correct answer. human rights. B. but many women still desired to work.. Multi-page documents. Knowledge tested: Understanding of basic strategies such as reward and punishment and corresponding motivational techniques: e. Responsibilities are often carried out in teams of workers who brainstorm together to generate desirable outcomes and collaborate in efforts to see projects through. exports 23 percent of merchandise to Canada. narcotics control. C. B. D. Knowledge tested: U. The U. bonuses. but President Carter withdrew it from the Senate after the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan. This is the correct answer. These are communication skills particularly important for listening and understanding others’ views. C.g. national interests and objectives pursued abroad. word processing. Knowledge tested: United States Society – Events and trends A. Knowledge tested: Communication – Sources of information A. The percentage of women in the work force decreased only slightly by 1950. Shared goals arrived at through collaborative work arrangements lessen the tendency for one person to try to manipulate others or bargain to reach a goal. 14 . B.S. The treaty was signed on 6-18-79. 4. This did not happen to any great extent until later decades.5 percent is exported to the U. C. A declaration of war by Congress is not necessary before the President can send troops into combat.g. B. promotion of U.g.S. C. An . See D. This is the correct answer. 21.exe file extension indicates programs of various types. trade A. See D. troops sent into combat by the President must be withdrawn within 90 days. crime. A. 20. The President’s authority in sending troops into combat is not limited to a national emergency. Knowledge tested: General understanding of U. e. Congressional approval is not required for the President to send troops into combat. D. This is the correct answer. U. terrorism. This is the correct answer. Knowledge tested: Understanding of basic computer functions: e. promotion of U. Compensation based on piece-work rates and bonuses for completing tasks have been shown to diminish the intrinsic value of the work in ways that flat-fees and hourly wages usually do not. Government – Congress and its role in foreign affairs A. C. See A. D. consisting primarily of text. This is the correct answer. basic spreadsheets. cable macros. 25. such as modeling. can be composed by word processing programs. Veterans were given priority. 22.eps extension indicates a single-page graphic file which might include some text.. Unless Congress approves. human rights. and saved with this extension. Signed on 7-3-74. Knowledge tested: Basic leadership principles. terrorism. C. entered into force on 6-1-88. There is less emphasis on getting ahead of others. 24.S. A.18. Knowledge tested: General understanding of U. printing documents. This is the correct answer. 3. such as Wordpad or Microsoft Word. An . entered into force on 12-1190.S. C. See D. B. D. Signed on 11-19-90. B. B. Coupling the task with an extrinsic reward would diminish the creative value for the person engaged in the task. B. narcotics control. 23.g. D. crime. Intrinsic satisfaction of creative work is high and remains highest when it is the only reward for engaging in a particular task.8 percent is exported to Germany. 19.. D. 6. trade A.8 percent is exported to Japan. The promise of external rewards is counterproductive to the creative aspects of a task.K.. Signed on 12-8-87. national interests and objectives pursued abroad. This did not happen. e. C.S.S.S. A.xls extension indicates a spreadsheet file. entered into force on 7-17-92. This is the correct answer. D. An .

Knowledge tested: Understanding the basic strategies such as reward and punishment and corresponding motivational techniques. Stereotyping is regarding certain behaviors as typical of a group of the same ethnicity. Stockpiling problems for an annual review allows them to worsen and deprives the employee of an opportunity to respond to constructive feedback as problems emerge. See A. A. This adversarial arrangement would counter the mutual goodwill that could foster trust and lead to collaborative efforts at problem solving. history A. A. C. 32. See A. B. 31. 30. C. B. See A. This is the correct answer. D. 27. B.26. Serbs saw this area as a Holy Land where many of their medieval kings were crowned. D. See B. President Truman and both Houses were in accord regarding the signing of the U. B.S. This arrangement would be likely to create an adversarial atmosphere and inspire mistrust.S.g. D. B. See B. Appreciation shown for a team’s efforts is likely to encourage more of the same. 33. D.S. This is the correct answer. D. The Senate’s failure to ratify the Treaty of Versailles was an assertion of its own Constitutional power to ratify treaties. This area did not hold such significance for Greeks. B.000 Cherokees died. The dry pampas are along the south and west. D. Not applying disciplinary consequences for unacceptable behavior or performance may invite similar problems from others or make them reluctant to work closely with the person not complying with acceptable standards. the Senate’s decision prevented President Wilson from bringing the U. D. Charter. This is the correct answer. C. This is the correct answer. See B. Knowledge tested: Feedback techniques: basic knowledge of how to give short. See A. Having a voice in decision-making is usually motivating. provide a basis for follow-up reviews. It is attributing behavior to a person’s qualities without taking sufficient account of the circumstances. Assignment flexibility based on the variety of talents and other individual considerations is likely to result in members finding their most suitable places within the team. See A. This is taking credit for successes but no blame for failures. Knowledge tested: EEO regulations. This is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. 29. See B. C. This area was not a special area for Jews. bonuses. The Indian Removal Act of 1830 resulted in forced westward migrations of numerous tribes from the southeastern united States. etc. destroyers to Britain in exchange for six U. See A. Problems not addressed tend to worsen. A. C. Knowledge tested: Management principles A. informal suggestions to individuals. naval bases in British-controlled Caribbean islands. The Trail of Tears refers specifically to the 1838 migration of 15. written guidelines about expectations assist the employee in ongoing self-evaluation. during which some 4. This is the correct answer. Knowledge tested: Statistics A. D.N. See C. Constitution—treaties A. Knowledge tested: Locations of countries and their significant physical features. A. race. D. See B. B. Team performance is likely to suffer. into the League of Nations.S. Knowledge tested: Major events in U. See B. In this case. This is the tendency to blame external causes for one’s own problems while faulting other people for theirs. B. This is the correct answer. 15 . e. B. FDR bypassed Congress in committing 50 U. This area did not hold such significance for Croats. Clear.S. C. C. C. gender. This is the correct answer. Knowledge tested: World history A. C. 28. 34. The humid pampas are along the seaboard. and serve as documentation should the employee’s performance warrant disciplinary action.000 Cherokees from Georgia to Oklahoma.. Knowledge tested: U.

See A. Duke Ellington. culture and lifestyle A. James Brown. Knowledge tested: Basic mathematics A. B. See C. and the Congressional Research Service report to Congress.S. Knowledge tested: U. A Select Committee in Congress must be informed prior to a covert operation. 38. 39. Money is gathered through a voluntary tax check-off on federal income tax forms for the presidential Election Campaign Fund. Knowledge tested: Public speaking A. 41. oversight is shared with the Foreign Relations Committee. C.S. See C. D. C. See C. See D. This is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. See A. This is the correct answer. Government A. See A. Assume your bond is worth 100 dollars of the foreign country’s currency. C. In the case of the CIA. and band leader. That is 10% of the bond’s original worth. Treasury.S. C. political process and impact on policy A. See B. Charlie “Yardbird” Parker was renowned for his bebop style and considered by many to be the greatest alto saxophonist ever. This is not related to how the negative performance evaluation came about. B. D. C. 37. 36. Knowledge tested: U. musician. 16 .35. The Congressional Budget Office. called the “Godfather of Soul. See B. See A. Informing the leaders of Congress is not required. Knowledge tested: Management—feedback techniques A. This is the correct answer. See D. D. D. C. While this may be appropriate. 42. This is the correct answer. but because the currency declined by 50%. This is an ad hominem argument in a broad sense. In a typical year you would make $20 interest. D. which is maintained by the U. D. See D. 44. B. C.S. Tommy Dorsey and his band are associated with the swing style of the big band era. See D. last year you would have made $10. Hiring only at the state and local levels is expected to increase. Knowledge tested: U. B. B. The President is not required to inform the National Security Council. B. D. B. C. Due to that shift and the rising demand for services. D. C. D. See D. A vilifying personal attack on a speaker to discredit that person’s arguments is a particular type of ad hominem argument. Knowledge tested: Sources of information A. See B. B. See A. The heart of procedural justice is for each employee to be confident that policies are applied equally to all employees when decisions and evaluations are made. The GAO reports to Congress on government expenditures and other tasks assigned to it. See A. it is not the defining characteristic of this theory. Knowledge tested: U. Knowledge tested: Structure of Congress and its role in foreign affairs A. See A. Hiring only at the federal level is expected to decrease. as in the previous decade. is known for swing style of the big band era that began in the late 1920s. This is the correct answer. B. D. federal direct-hire employment will continue to go down. C. C. the GAO. economy A. This is the correct answer.S. composer. 43. 45. This is the correct answer. The opposite is true. Knowledge tested: Economic principles A. arranger.” came to prominence in the 1950s. B. employment at the state and local levels is expected to increase. This is the correct answer. This is the correct answer. See D. Analyses of the personality and attitude of the employee are not appropriate or relevant to procedural justice. 40. Due to more contracting out of jobs to private companies and the shift of more responsibilities to state and local governments. Congressional committee approval is not required to proceed. Knowledge tested: General knowledge of information available on the Internet A. B. This is the correct answer. D.

Leaders dealing with subordinates performing highly structured tasks can effectively employ any leadership style. Knowledge tested: Media relations When giving an interview to a member of the media. A discordant team is unlikely to respond to more win-win or cooperative styles of leadership.S. Knowledge tested: U. C. A common method of saving an edited file is to use the same name. Questions should be answered according to the interviewee’s message points and only to the extent considered beneficial to their objectives. dependent upon the work environment and individuals. While the bureaucratic nature of the work environment might lend itself to directive leadership. 49. consulting or delegating leadership styles. foreign policy The term containment was used to describe the principle of Cold War U. A log file lists actions that have occurred within a program or on a website. Berlin airlift and creation of NATO. 48. it is not a direct word processing tool. See A. Knowledge tested: Computer operations – Understanding of basic computer functions such as word processing. See B. Knowledge tested: Psychology and human behavior A. This is the best answer. Immigrant workers were not a major issue of the Cold War. This is the best answer. 50. 17 . The strategy of containment did not specifically apply to the American Communist Party movement. While some people may choose to enter totally different file names for edited versions of the same document. the foreign policy strategy of containment sought to end Soviet expansionism by restricting their sphere of power to within their current borders. customs and culture on U. followed by the number of the edited version. C. the Marshall Plan. customs and culture – Influence of U. D. C. B. the most important rule is to: A. B. D. D. Conflict among subordinates often necessitates this highly autocratic leadership style to accomplish a goal. For instance. it is not a word processing tool. Kennan and first applied in the Truman Doctrine of 1947. Knowledge tested: Basic leadership principles A directive leadership style is most appropriate under which of the following conditions? A. it is not a recommended procedure. Introduced by George F.S. B. the foreign service worker achieves two important objectives: staying on message about the important issues or desired response to a particular situation. C.S. but they save them as different: A. D. While at times a sincere compliment can set a tone or diffuse tension. The Truman Doctrine led to direct intervention into the European conflict. 47. See B. By maintaining control of the interview. C. foreign policy designed primarily to: A. any style of leadership could prove effective.S. See B. and minimizing opportunities to be led in an unwanted direction or taken by surprise. Some word processing systems allow you to keep all files you edit with the same name. D. including aid to beleaguered countries. This is the best answer. this is not an important part of an interview. This is the best answer. In many cases the optimal time to garner control of an interview is before a question is asked. A database is an information management system that allows users to organize data from a number of different sources and/or programs. “introduction19” would be the nineteenth version of the introduction document. Experienced and capable subordinates are more apt to respond favorably to problemsolving. B.46. This is the correct answer. B.

rejected the old revolutionary model of a temporary political movement organized to respond to a particular crisis. which is the same as the original version. choose the alternative you consider best and circle the letter of that choice. B. but rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box. two enduring political creations: written constitutions and a mass political party. ¶2 In creating their political organization. There are 70 sample questions provided below. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage. agree.Sample Questions for the English Expression Test The English Expression Test consists of 65 questions and is administered in 50 minutes. partisan competition was transformed into partisans’ competition was transformed from partisan competition were transformed into partisans’ competition were transformed from 18 . that agree that agree. world: two enduring political creations: written constitutions and mass political parties. A. makes the statement appropriate for standard written English. For each question. or about the passage as a whole.. You may also find questions about a section of the passage. 2. you can check your answers and review the questions. and especially Martin Van Buren and his New York State party known as the Albany Regency. C. world. A. world two enduring creations in politics: a written constitution and a mass political party. Jacksonian Democrats. political parties and regularized ®3partisan competition was transformed into permanent constitutional establishments. In the right-hand column. Instead. You are to choose the one that best expresses the idea. certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. originated and gained acceptance and respectability in antebellum America and that the Jacksonian Democrats were primarily responsible. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. Students of 2 American politics ® agree. B. C. under their leadership. world two enduring political creations: written constitutions and mass political parties. that mass political parties 1. two enduring political creations: written 1 constitutions and a mass political party. D. D. C. 3. If you think the original version is best. That agree that. Passage 1 ¶1 The United States has bequeathed to the ® world. Answer the questions by circling the choice you believe to be best. B. you will find alternatives for each underlined part. D. English Expression Sample Questions DIRECTIONS: In the passages that follow. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative. choose option A. A. After answering the questions. You cannot determine most answers without reading several sentences beyond the question.

B. ® a Constitution against political parties had been 6 created by the founders. in general. D. members. the ®5Constitution’s and the political culture’s general antipartyism threatened to abort any attempt to legitimize political parties. A.¶3 ® Not only were they engaged in the novel 4 experiment of creating new political institutions. C. In addition. Constitution’s and the political culture’s Constitutions’ and the political cultures’ Constitution’s. Even in politics. 6. what had been created by the founders was a Constitution against political parties. A. it requires them members. D. 5. who are required 7. B. A. B. therefore. B. Governmental change is usually slow to occur. and the political cultures’ Constitution’s and the political culture’s. D. C. however. despite this. a Constitution against political parties had been created by the founders. B. the 7 traditional republican ideal ® having assumed a statesman who exercised independent judgment to determine what is in the public’s interest and how best to serve that interest. D. B. but also 4. the founders had created a Constitution against political parties. C. A mass political party appeared to be equivalent to the majority faction that the founders had feared and sought to prevent. Relying on the large territory and population of the United States and auxiliary institutional arrangements to prevent any one faction or party from controlling all branches of the government. having assumed a statesman who exercised assumed a statesman who exercised assumed a statesman whose exercising of has assumed a statesman who would have exercised ® members. D. Which of the following sentences would provide the most effective introduction for the subject of Paragraph 3? A. An institutionalized political party. C. imposes partisan discipline upon its 8 8. persistence will eventually pay off. D. 9. C. ® despite this. they are required to subordinate personal 9 judgment to the party’s position. A. a Constitution had been created by the founders against political parties. 19 . Politicians that work so hard for any cause are worthy of respect. C. A daunting challenge confronted these political innovators. they are required members and are required members. A.

[3] Despite this antiparty tradition. C. D. competingly. C. D. for 10 Van Buren and ® like-minded others. A. 15. B. 1. others with his thoughts. A. 2. [4] The suburbs. and safe 14. [2] City dwellers began to move out of compact urban 14 neighborhoods to new suburbs ® on the cities parameters. 10. on the other hand. too. 2 2. in terms of that. 3. other similar people. C. more effectively checked governmental power then Which of the following orderings of sentences makes Paragraph 4 most logical? A. checked governmental power more effectively than C. D. on the cities’ edges. checks governmental power more effectively than B. regular partisan competition for office ®11checks governmental power more effectively than did the formal constitutional system of separate institutions sharing power. A. contrastedly. ® Passage reprinted with permission from Political Science Quarterly. in or around the cities. 2 __________________________________________________________________________________________________ Passage 2 ¶1 [1] The American landscape ® has 13 13. A. like-minded others. big yards. B. D. 20 . ® contrastedly. other people who agreed with his way of thinking. Democratic politicians broke new ground and accepted political parties as constitutional establishments necessary for the 12 proper working of the Constitution. 3. offered affordable homes. [3] The old neighborhoods seemed crowded. D. A. [2] Furthermore. effectively checks governmental power more then D. 3 1. C. in the area surrounding the cities. 101 (1986): 85-107. B. C. 1 3. 11. 1. and noisy. on the cities parameters.¶4 [1] Martin Van Buren and other Democratic party thinkers defended national political parties as solutions to two crises in presidential selection: the malfunctioning of the electoral college and the dangerous character of presidential campaigns. 12. 15 dirty. has underwent had underwent has undergone had undergone underwent profound transformations since World War II. B. B.

So But Instead Except an increase increasingly many more more and more an increasingly great amount disinvested out of divested out of divided from diverted from ¶2 This outward migration has delivered a high quality of life for many. 4. returning to traditional neighborhood patterns 21.” ¶3 One response to sprawl is New ® Urbanism. and safe 17. ®18So for others—and for ® an increase of us as time goes on—the results are 19 20 mixed. According to New Urbanist planners. C. A. B. As investment is ® disinvested out of the urban core. D. A. 20. 18. residents of older suburbs confront many of the “urban” ills they ® saw to escape. 1. B. These effects of unplanned growth are known collectively as “sprawl. 23. Urbanism. 3. 2. A Urbanism: A Urbanism. C. As development pushes further out. streets and streets. residents of newer 22 suburbs find themselves mired in traffic for hours that 23 they ® would prefer to spending with their families. B. rural 21 communities struggle to sustain ® there way of life. B. As farmland is converted to subdivisions. C. a growing movement of architects. A. A. D. D. A. D. D. The best place for this phrase would be at the beginning of Sentence: A. 24 planners. C. C.® streets and schools. D. B. B. B. B. there theyre they’re their 22. ® 16 17 16. a 21 . and streets and safe streets. C. D. A. crime and unemployment rise and basic services decrease. saw seeked sought thought would prefer to spending will have been spending would prefer to spend will have spent 24. C. C. D. A. D. A. and developers. Meanwhile. 19. a Urbanism. B. The writer wants to insert the following phrase: Enjoying post-war prosperity and able to afford new cars. C.

a community 29 should have a ® describable center—a town square. 29. D. 28. that is for example such as for instance 31. The best place for the underlined phrase is: A. C.S. C. B. interested in creating livable communities. 26. its infancy. with parking ®32delegated to the rear 30. 25 25. still young and developing its principles. C. B. B. or simply a memorable street corner— within an easy walk of residential areas. C. C. and retirees. B. village green. creating an environment that encourages walking and biking. In the U. beginning to influence U. B. . be impactful. more than 200 new towns.. D. C. A. development. have an impact. B. are is were was it’s infancy its’ infancy it’s infancy. the essay would lose support for the argument that New Urbanism is: A. Streets should form a connected network through the neighborhood ®34in such a way as to provide a variety of routes to any destination. C. where it is now. A. D. Without this sentence. A.S. a movement of planners and developers. impact on us. 34. A. The writer is considering deleting the last sentence of Paragraph ¶3. buildings should be close to the street. D. D. The neighborhood should include a variety of types of housing ®30that is freestanding houses. rowhouses. A. 27. A. B. 27 villages. after neighborhood. D. 26 Still in ® it’s infancy the movement is beginning to ® be impactful. B. impact. 35. B. and neighborhoods are planned or under construction using principles of New Urbanism. D. ®28 ¶4 According to those principles. D. D. 32. B. describable discernible designable disputable 31 and apartment buildings ® both wealthy and poor to accommodate single people. C. families. D. 33.® are essential to restoring livable communities. C. Such changes 35 slow and ® dispense traffic. To create a strong sense of place. after housing. after retirees. A. B. A. C. D. 22 delegated relegated demoted related accessed through the means of available through the use of addressed by accessible by in such a way as to provide for the purpose of providing in order to provide to provide dispense disburse disperse dispel and ®33accessed through the means of alleys. A. C.

A. serves as a “mini-constitution” and provides for fundamental rights such as freedom of speech. and of publication. B. Hong Kong retained a high degree of autonomy and ®38remained a free society with legally protected rights. Florida. The writer wishes to include the following sentence in the essay: Seaside and Celebration. Newspapers continue to publish a ®40wide variety of opinions. 40. B. The writer wants to substitute an expression that fits with the imagery in the rest of the sentence. Which expression fits best? A. B. The Basic Law. remained remaining had remained will have remained Chinas National People’s Chinas’ National Peoples’ China’s National Peoples China’s National People’s to be seen whether our destination is the livable community. C. D. withering away C. D. Political . ¶2 There was no apparent change in the tradition of respect for these freedoms after reversion. ¶1. __________________________________________________________________________________________________ Passage 3 ¶1 After its reversion from British to Chinese sovereignty in July 1997. down for the count 37. ¶3. and it remains 36. D. on its last legs B. C. D. C. But America’s driving passion for 36 the automobile is not ® over just yet. B.¶5 Clearly. 41. A. A. ¶5. a central goal of New Urbanism is to get us out of the cars that first brought us to the suburbs half a century ago. This sentence would fit best at the end of Paragraph: A. A. 39. 23 wide variety of large assortment of many sizeable collection of myriad huge mixture of diverse speaking speak spoke would have spoke 38. D. C. C. running on empty D. are two of the best-known examples of New Urbanism in practice. approved in 1990 by ®39Chinas National People’s Congress. ® 37 People ®41speaking freely to the media. ¶2. B. of the press.

Which readers would be most interested in this additional information? A. they are careful caring taking care careful 24 . and Hong Kong is one of the world’s largest. A. and by political groups. C. C. A.debate is vigorous. There are no direct orders to refrain from writing. A. including. Human rights advocates who are investigating allegations of abuses in Hong Kong D. 42. a widespread impression among both ®45journalism and their public that it is prudent to engage in a degree of self-censorship. consequently. D. or Taiwanese or Tibetan independence. pervasive if tacit. military activity. B. Journalists who are seeking employment in Hong Kong 44. correspondingly. pervasive. numerous ®42viewpoints including stories and opinions critical of the Hong Kong and Chinese governments and statements by leading Chinese dissidents. if tacit pervasive if tacit pervasive. ® Sixteen major daily newspapers. such as leadership dynamics. viewpoints including viewpoints. B. 46. therefore. The writer is considering adding the following sentence at this point: Many journalists prefer the vibrant atmosphere of a large city. B. D. C. B. two commercial television stations. A. are provided in the mass media. understanding that editors expect those reporting on China to be particularly certain of their facts and ®47they are careful in their wording. D. if tacit. International media 43 organizations operate freely. B. A. D. Chinese-language journalists report a ®46pervasive if tacit. including 43. although numerous articles on these topics continue to appear. viewpoints. Chinese dissidents who are seeking asylum in Hong Kong C. D. 45. The pressures on journalists are subtle. C. British diplomats who are assigned to the embassy in Hong Kong B. and two commercial radio stations function with virtually no government control. journalism and their journalists and the journalist’s and the journalism and the ¶3 There remains. but there is a widespread perception of a need for special care toward topics of particular sensitivity to China. however. ®44therefore. including viewpoints. 47. in public forums. C.

If the writer were to add this sentence to the essay. end of Paragraph ¶3. 51. 2. 1. B. It narrates the sequence of events that led to Hong Kong’s reversion to Chinese sovereignty. D. B. It analyzes the role played by the media in achieving Hong Kong’s independence from Britain. In reviewing her notes the writer finds the following sentence: Media companies currently feel satisfied that the Basic Law has allowed them to perform their work without interference. D. B. C. [3] And although Governor Christopher Patten’s account of the prehandover negotiations and reforms was widely available throughout Hong Kong. 3 1. [2] For example. C. 2 50. were having been will have would be 49. the refusal of some bookstores to carry the book was also cited by human rights groups as an example of commercial self49 50 51 censorship. journalists have been told by their boards of directors not to publish stories about a prominent local businessman’s property development project in Beijing. 1. it would most logically be added at the: A. ® ® ® 48. end of Paragraph ¶4. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes Paragraph ¶4 most logical? A. beginning of Paragraph ¶1. D. Which of the following best describes the way in which the essay is organized? A.¶4 [1] Another source of pressure comes from the belief by some publishers and editors that advertising revenues or their business interests in China could suffer if they ®48were seen to be too antagonistic to China or to powerful local interests. 3. 3. It examines the continuing influence of British culture in former colonies such as Hong Kong. 25 . D. beginning of Paragraph ¶2. 1 3. B. C. 2 2. A. It describes how Hong Kong’s reversion to Chinese sovereignty has affected press freedoms. C.

which one provides the most relevant information at this point in the paragraph? A. The threat of a second sovereignty referendum led to the negotiation of the Charlottetown Accord. 1960s (PQ). which has a colonial history and a diverse population. was clearly a help to one side of a debatable issue. D. D. however. in fact. A. 58. which 1960s which 1960s. D. C. but concerns while concerns. 52. A. 57. D. C. C. 1960s. B. D. By 1976. C. A second referendum on separation. 56. D. B.Passage 4 ¶1 The ®521960s. had (PQ) had (PQ) has (PQ). this agreement was defeated in a national referendum in 1992. Sixty percent of the voters rejected the proposal and eventually the PQ lost control of the province to the Liberals. consequently. ¶3 The 1994 re-election of the separatist PQ in Quebec ®58was an interesting development for several reasons. the separatist Parti Quebecois ®53(PQ). when Canada assumed from the United Kingdom full responsibility for ®55its’ constitution and Quebec objected ®56disagreeably to some aspects of the new arrangement. B. combining political independence with a continued economic association. C. had won the provincial election and began to seek greater independence from the rest of Canada. D. In a 1980 referendum. B. might have been viewed as a complication. held in Quebec in October 1995. resulted in a 55. a federalist party. but lack of support in two other provinces prevented the accord from taking effect. B. concerns. B. 26 . putting an indelible mark on the new decade. was an interesting development for several reasons. helped to keep national unity in the forefront of political debate. its’ its it’s their disagreeably disapprovingly in dissent OMIT the underlined portion. Given that all of the following statements are true. which one would best complete the sentence while introducing the main topic of the paragraph? A. A. B. 53. ®54combining political independence with a continued economic association. The 1987 Meech Lake Accord attempted to address Quebec’s ®57concerns. the PQ sought a mandate from the people of Quebec to negotiate a new status within Canada. which saw a heightened sense of cultural identity among Canada’s French-speaking Quebecois and with it an upsurge of separatist feeling. concerns. C. hoping to gain the support of the electorate. A. Given that all of the following statements are true. ¶2 Another turning point came in 1982. A. C. has 54.

As an assessment of the situation. It emphasizes the aboriginals’ position as the only minority group in Quebec. C. homogeneous ethnic minority. However. Given that all of the following choices are true. is perhaps perhaps was may be maybe 27 . C. It emphasizes the unanimous opposition of aboriginal people to Quebec separatism. One concern Complicating the sovereignty debate Following these issues Another matter not so easy to define 61. the Quebec 63. B.000 aboriginals as a ®62single. B. diverse tribes with varied concerns— within a nation struggling to stay united— ®65is perhaps difficult to appease. B. D. B. 64. To address these sentiments. Many members of these communities fear infringement of their rights by a sovereign Quebec. It implies that a sovereign Quebec won’t recognize the diversity within the aboriginal community. regarding negotiations regarding negotiations and with regard to negotiations that regard government agreed to initiate ®64negotiations. A. Native leaders maintain that a sovereign Quebec would treat the province’s 60. C. ®63As an assessment of the situation. It implies that a sovereign Quebec will treat different tribes differently. What purpose is served by the underlined phrase? A. ¶4 ®60One concern is the fact that there are aboriginal and English-speaking minorities in Quebec who assert the right to keep parts of the province in Canada in the event of Quebec independence. B. negotiations. 65. A. ¶5 Quebec’s “First Nations” peoples also are overwhelmingly opposed to ®61dissolution from Canada. 59. C. dissolution separate independence independent autonomy separation 62. Which of the following phrases provides the best transition between this sentence and the preceding sentence? A. A. D. A. English speakers are particularly anxious about restrictions placed on Englishlanguage use. C. C. regarding long-standing grievances over timber resources and public rights-of-way on tribal lands. B. D.®59much more narrower victory for federalists and ensured that the province’s status would remain a serious political issue. which one would best introduce the paragraph by showing that the division within Quebec was not a simple. D. Moving forward. B. D. two-sided issue? A. D. Hopefully. D. C. much more narrower more narrower much narrower most narrow 60.

68. Situation: The State Department announces that Freedonia is prosecuting dissidents under a national security law.® Amidst the ® worlds nations. and convicted by threatening national security. was arrested. Situation: The FSO is describing the structure of the Freedonian health care system. A. and convicted for threatening national security. populist. 67. The FSO should say: Health care responsibilities A. tried. B. were tried. D. 66. B. 68 69. A. with more than a billion inhabitants. tried. world’s nation’s. C. B. world’s nations. D. are the division between federal and local agencies. have divided federal and local agencies. was convicted. and arrested by threatening national security. 70. China is the most 66 67 ® populist. C. popularized. The FSO should say: A human rights activist and a journalist A. C. D. were arrested. populous. arrested. A. C. popular. are divided between federal and local agencies. B. B. and convicted for threatening national security. C. divide between federal and local agencies. D. 28 . D. worlds’ nations. Amidst Among Between Within worlds nations. tried.

Concepts tested: Avoiding unnecessary punctuation. This is the best answer. Both possessives are singular and are punctuated correctly. The colon after “world” is incorrect and should be deleted. There is an illogical tense shift from the past tense to the present perfect “has assumed. C. B. D. Also..” and incorrectly uses the plural possessive for “culture. It effectively introduces the subject of the paragraph: the challenge that the political innovators faced. B. This choice creates a misplaced modifier and confuses the reader. 3. This adds an unnecessary comma after “Constitution’s. See A. A. The phrase “despite this” does not logically link this sentence with the point made in the preceding sentence. See A. the preposition “from” is not idiomatic. Concepts tested: Assuring grammatical agreement—predicate with subjects of varying complexity. using the idioms of standard written English. The colon after “creations” is correctly used to introduce the two-item list. D. choosing words to fit meaning and function.Rationales for Sample English Expression Questions Main sources used: The Elements of Style by William Strunk. 1. It is a complete sentence that needs no internal punctuation. This choice introduces a subject that is not included in the paragraph. This is the best answer. D. This is the best answer. B. B. B. 5. “Therefore” indicates a cause-effect relationship that does not exist. 29 .” C. A. Concept tested: Making decisions about cohesion devices—openings. C. 4. D. “A Constitution” does not modify the opening clause. Concepts tested: Avoiding sentence fragments. Concepts tested: Punctuating relationships that indicate possession. This choice suggests a theme that is not covered in the paragraph. and E.” Concept tested: Establishing logical order— choosing the appropriate transition word or phrase. A. The plural verb “were” agrees with the compound subject. It is a complete sentence and uses the appropriate verb tense. A. White. 8. C. This is the best answer. This is the best answer. Jr. avoiding sentence fragments. B. B. avoiding unnecessary shifts in construction. D. This is the best answer. This is the best answer. and closings. Concepts tested: Avoiding unnecessary punctuation. This adds an unnecessary comma after “culture’s. The singular verb “was” is not in agreement with the compound subject. The preposition “from” is not idiomatic.” D. The comma after “world” is unnecessary. This is the best answer. The comma after “agree” is unnecessary. D. “In general” implies a generalization that does not exist. B. 2. The word “founders” modifies and should immediately follow the subordinate clause in this sentence. D. C. A. This choice results in an incomplete sentence. C. C. adding a plural possessive to “partisan” is unnecessary. managing sentence elements effectively— using rhetorically effective subordination and combination. This creates a sentence fragment. 6. A. A. A. transitions. The phrase “creations in politics” is vague. C. B. “However” shows the contrast between two points. The ineffective subordination results in an unclear sentence. The Chicago Manual of Style. See A. 7. The comma after “that” is unnecessary. In addition. 14th ed. This incorrectly uses the plural possessive for both “Constitution” and “culture.” Concepts tested: Using modifiers—placing modifiers so that they modify the appropriate element. avoiding unnecessary punctuation. This choice does not introduce the main topic of the paragraph.

Concepts tested: Using the idioms of standard written English. Contrast is intended. “Furthermore” and “too” create a redundancy. This is the best answer. This is the best answer. 14. See A. It is the only choice that is structurally sound. D. “But” leads into contrasting information about a new group of people. “Similar people” is imprecise and does not fully express the writer’s intent.” B. 16. or the suburbs—are the only subjects capable of “enjoying” and “affording” anything. The correct tense. establishing logical order. Concept tested: Establishing logical order— ordering sentences in a logical way. See A. but its placement here is awkward and unclear. 10. open the paragraph.” B. “Like-minded” precisely indicates that the others thought along the same lines as Van Buren. making decisions about appropriateness of expression. This choice is unnecessarily wordy. avoiding faulty subordination and coordination. editing and revising effectively. Sentence 2 logically follows Sentence 1 and cannot. This construction would be correct if the first “and” were deleted. A. Because the topic of the article is urban sprawl.9. This word is unrecognized. This vague wording is redundant. choosing words to fit meaning and function. No comma should separate “schools” from its modifier. This is the best answer. the old neighborhoods. D. Past perfect tense is inappropriate here. D. C. B. using the idioms of standard written English. C. 18. C. The use of the past tense “checked” is the same construction as the rest of the paragraph. punctuating relationships and sequences. It reiterates the definition of “suburbs” and implies that all cities are in the same area. Concepts tested: Avoiding unnecessary punctuation. C. making decisions about cohesive devices. “So” incorrectly implies a conclusion drawn from the previous statement. B. A. C. therefore. “Others with his thoughts” is an ineffective way to make this comparison. B. Sentence 3. A. This is the best answer. See A. A. Faulty sentence structure makes this sentence unclear.” C. B. A “parameter” is a quantity that a mathematical system depends on. A. C. so this placement is the only one that fits within the logical order of the paragraph. The second use of “safe” is unnecessary. choosing words to fit meaning and function. D. Past perfect tense is inappropriate. Concepts tested: Relating clauses. Concepts tested: Choosing words to fit meaning and function. This is the best answer. See A. This choice creates a dangling modifier. 15. 30 . This is the best response. See A. 17. D. “Except” implies a deviation from a general rule that has not been established. D. B. “safe. Concepts tested: Avoiding unnecessary shifts in construction (tense). D. logically follows the point made at the end of Paragraph 3. This vague reference is a weak transition that fails to convey the intended relationship of contrast. D. Concepts tested: Using modifiers. 12. suburbs are never “in” the city. Concepts tested: Avoiding comma splices. and its use here creates a sentence fragment. Concepts tested: Using words precisely and fluently. The phrase “Despite this antiparty tradition” logically flows from the point made at the end of Paragraph 3. The verb “checks” creates an illogical shift from past to present tense. not Sentence 1. This is the best answer. This is a comma splice. This is the best answer. By definition. D. A. This is the best answer. B. This is the best answer. D. but using “safe” twice would still be somewhat redundant. It establishes contrast and provides a transition that enhances coherence. A. 13. “City dwellers”—not the American landscape. C. The auxiliary verb “has” cannot be combined with “underwent. 11. editing and revising. This is a comma splice. A. B. A. this provides a point of spatial contrast. present perfect. is used to refer to the time between WWII and the present. B. C. “Instead” connotes contrast. avoiding unnecessary shifts in tense. Concepts tested: Forming verbs. See A. “Has” cannot be added to “underwent. avoiding redundancy. “Then” is incorrect usage. A. C. avoiding wordiness.

This choice is awkward and wordy. It is clear. This is the best answer. Concepts tested: Punctuating relationships to indicate apposition. C. “Theyre” is not a word. Concept tested: Use the proper form of the possessives. See A. “Sought” expresses the intended meaning. This is the best answer. using the idioms of standard written English. The sentence to which the question refers is not relevant to this aspect of New Urbanism.” which does not fit the intended meaning. “Disinvested” is not a generally recognized word. See A. D. D. A. B. This is the best answer. C. A. “Saw” is the past tense of “see. This is the correct answer.” C. See A. Concept tested: Judging the relevance of material. C. C.” B. “There” indicates location and is not a possessive. 27. This is not a recognized word. C. editing and revising. This is the best answer. “They’re” is a contraction of “they are” and is not a possessive.19. This is the correct answer. 24. relating sentence clauses. See A. Semicolons are not used to form appositives. “Impact” is not a verb. 29. 20. and concise. “Impact” is not a verb and “us” as an object is vague. C. This formation of the verb doesn’t make sense in context. 22. 21.” C. The noun “impact” is correctly used here as a direct object. This is the best answer. In this context. “Are” does not agree in number with the subject “returning. A. Division is not the intended meaning here. A. B. Concepts tested: Forming verbs. Concept tested: Choosing words to fit function. Concepts tested: Assuring grammatical agreement. and the form is correct. “Were” disagrees with the verb in number and inappropriately shifts the tense to the past. This word does not fit the intended meaning at all.” B. A. B. A. The possessive form is correct and the comma correctly separates the introductory phrase from the subject it modifies. straightforward. it means a common area that can be identified as distinct from the residential part of the community. choosing words to fit meaning and function. A. This is the best answer. B. “their” is a possessive referring to the rural communities. There is no apostrophe in the possessive form of “it. C. 25. avoiding sentence fragments. This is the best answer. “Amount” cannot be used to describe people. Concepts tested: Editing and revising effectively. “Increase” should precede expressions of quantity. D. but inappropriately shifts the tense to the past. D. D. B. C. relating clauses. Concepts tested: Choosing words to fit meaning and function.” A comma is required after “infancy. A colon would be appropriate for a lengthy appositive or a statement going from general to specific. such as “the percent of” or “the number of. falling short of the intended meaning. The formation of the verb is proper for the context. B. See C. This choice would create a fragment of the phrase containing “movement. It means that monies have been withdrawn from one area and turned toward another—a major point of this article. “Describable” is vague in this context. avoiding unnecessary shifts in tense. forming modifiers. “New Urbanism” is correctly separated from its definition by a comma. This is the best answer. 28. A. “Thought” does not fit the intended meaning. C. “Was” agrees with the verb in number. B. 23. Concepts tested: Forming verbs. See A. A. B. D. “Divested” is not used with “out. using idioms of standard written English. 31 . The verb agrees in number with the subject. A. and the choice is also wordy. “Seeked” is an incorrect formation of the past tense. A. D. indicating possession. This is the best answer. Concepts tested: Punctuating introductory phrases. D. D. Concepts tested: Using words to fit meaning and function. 26. See A. D. The sentence provides evidence of the movement’s growing influence and this is relevant. D.” B.

A. This is the best answer. A. C. B. 33. C. Concept tested: Using modifiers. The future perfect “will have remained” also creates faulty parallelism. It seems to be leading into a clause where “that” refers to “housing. Concepts tested: Using words to fit meaning and function. and the construction is wordy. B. This is the clearest and most succinct wording. The use of the past tense “remained” is the same construction as the verb “retained” in the first part of this sentence. D. It is clear and requires no punctuation. number. 31. 38. A. Concept tested: Editing and revising to avoid wordiness.” B. The participle “remaining” is not parallel with the past tense “retained. D. B. C. This wording is correct and concise. B. This final paragraph wraps up the essay. tense. 37. See A. C. “Withering” would fit with flowers. not cars. Edit and revise effectively (avoid redundancy). and this construction is wordy. D. “Dispense” means to hand out or deal out in portions. B. New Urbanism has not been introduced. so it is not appropriate here. 32 . The apostrophe in “Peoples” is missing. out of sight. “Down for the count” is a boxing image. Concept tested: Punctuate relationships and sequences (indicate possession). “Large assortment” and “many” create a redundancy. See A. Both apostrophes are misplaced. punctuating phrases. “Wealthy and poor” correctly refers to the people who would live in the community. This is the best answer. “Dispel” means to get rid of something. This is the best answer. D. C.30. This answer is wordy. A. it means to spread the traffic flow among a number of streets. The singular. 36. This is the best answer.” C. this choice creates a misplaced modifier. D. D. A. A. forming modifiers. Availability is not relevant here. The discussion of New Urbanism is in progress at this point. “Related” is unclear in this context.” this word choice is confusing. C. Both possessives are singular and are punctuated correctly. This is the best answer. D. This is the best answer. 34. A. 35. B. Concepts tested: Managing sentence elements to avoid ambiguity. “Relegated” in this context means that parked cars should be in a less prominent area. In this context. C. A. Concepts tested: Editing and revising to avoid wordiness. Since “wealthy and poor” are intended to describe the people in the community. “accessible” properly modifies “parking. mood). C. The apostrophe in the possessive noun “Chinas” is missing. This phrase is imprecise and unnecessarily wordy. A. This is the best choice. D. Concepts tested: Establishing logical order. Without punctuation before and after “that is. It is too late to introduce examples. This answer fits best with the images of driving and cars in the rest of the sentence. This is the best answer. choosing words to fit meaning. B. See B. This phrase must be set off with punctuation. A. See A. B. D.” 39. Concept tested: Avoid unnecessary shifts in construction (person. “Legs” does not fit with the image of cars and driving. “Demoted” means a lowering of rank. B. B. possessive forms are required. Concepts tested: Edit and revise effectively (avoid wordiness). The verbs “retained” and “had remained” are not parallel elements. Concept tested: Choosing words to fit meaning. C. 40. See A. “Access” is not a verb. “Disburse” means to pay out monies. See A. “Addressed” is unclear and incorrect here. so it is too soon to give an example of it. D. 32. voice. “Delegated” refers to the assignment of tasks or the appointment of someone as an agent. Concepts tested: Using words to fit meaning and function. A. C. This is the best answer. D. See C. not plural.

44. This information would not affect the British diplomats because they are not choosing their assignments. Concept tested: Establish logical order (choose the appropriate transition word or phrase). The comma after “including” is missing. 50. The comma after “pervasive” is missing. B. Concepts tested: Form verbs (compound tenses). A. This is the best answer. nonessential phrase “if tacit” needs to be set off with commas. See A. The past tense “spoke” is an illogical tense shift. The semicolon after “viewpoints” is incorrect punctuation. D. C. A. C. C. number. not on media companies. C. Choose words to fit meaning and function (use words precisely and fluently).” this information would not affect their plans to seek asylum. A. A. B. D. so this choice is ruled out. This is the best answer. B. D. 48. Paragraph 3 focuses on the subtle pressures on journalists. C. A. A. and closings–select an effective statement relative to specific paragraphs). See A. Faulty sentence structure and an ambiguous referent for the pronoun “they” make this sentence unclear. B. See B. 47. This is the best answer. “Therefore” suggests a cause-effect relationship. D. This is an incorrect verb form. number. 33 . D. Concepts tested: Form verbs (tenses of regular and irregular verbs). The transition word “however” logically connects this sentence with the preceding one. It provides the clearest and most precise wording. A. C. 42. See A and B. This is an incorrect verb form. The sentence would be an ineffective conclusion to the essay. This is not a possessive. It is the only choice that uses a proper verb form. It is the only choice that is structurally sound. therefore. This is the best answer. The word “journalists” should replace “journalism. mood).” D. Although Chinese dissidents may appreciate “the vibrant atmosphere. A. D. Concept tested: Make decisions about cohesion devices (openings. which is not the case here. Sentence 1 is the only sentence that logically follows Paragraph 3 and introduces the topic of Paragraph 4. The word “caring” does not precisely express the writer’s intent. See B. The use of the verb form “would be seen” creates an illogical tense shift. This is the best answer. tense. C. D. mood).” B. The parenthetical. This is the best answer. The use of the present tense “speak” logically follows the preceding sentence. 46. The use of the participle “speaking” creates a sentence fragment. Concept tested: Punctuate breaks in thought (between clauses of compound sentences when conjunction is omitted). This is a poor introduction to the essay because the reader would not yet understand the concept of Basic Law. It is unlikely that the work of human rights advocates would change as a result of this information. number. Relate clauses (avoid sentence fragments).” D. This is the best answer. B. transitions. B. A. This is the best answer. Avoid unnecessary shifts in construction (person. It is the best introduction to the information presented in Paragraph 2. Sentence 3 provides the best conclusion to this paragraph and should remain where it is.41. B. Concept tested: Use the idioms of standard written English. tense. parentheses). 43. The word “correspondingly” in this context makes no sense. Concept tested: Punctuate breaks in thought (parenthetical elements–comma. A. B. Concept tested: Make decisions about appropriateness of expressions for audience and purpose. mood). The comma after “tacit” is missing. 45. voice. Journalists who want to work in Hong Kong would most likely be interested in this information. C. D. Concept tested: Establish logical order (order sentences or parts of a sentence in a logical way). The example in Sentence 2 logically follows Sentence 1. The comma after “viewpoints” is unnecessary punctuation. 49. C. Avoid unnecessary shifts in construction (person. B. voice. A comma is needed after the word “including” to set off the parenthetical element that ends with “dissidents. This is the best answer. Concepts tested: Avoid unnecessary shifts in construction (person. voice. This wording is unclear and nonsensical. tense. This is the best answer. The phrase “taking care” is not parallel with “certain. the apostrophe is incorrect punctuation. C.

34 . This creates a sentence fragment. 57. Concepts tested: Avoid unnecessary punctuation. tense. See A. The comma after 1960s is unnecessary and should be deleted. This is the best answer. A. its role in Hong Kong’s independence is not discussed. It is the best transition to link the two clauses of this sentence. “Most narrow” is not a comparative form. Assure grammatical agreement (pronoun with antecedent). C.51. This is the best answer. C. 54. 55. This generalization would add nothing to the paragraph. The essay mentions reversion but does not describe the events leading up to it. This is the best answer. The apostrophe after “its” creates an improper possessive form. “One concern” wrongly suggests that the issue is simple. C. D. The comma after (PQ) is unnecessary. This is a tentative and vague statement. Although the media is mentioned. voice. and closings–select an effective statement relative to essay as a whole). B. B. so this choice is also ruled out. D. This is redundant: “sought a mandate” and “hoping to gain the support of the electorate” have the same meaning. This is the best answer. This is a contraction that means “it is. B.” D. The main focus of the essay is to show how reversion has affected journalists. “In fact” incorrectly suggests that the second clause is evidence to support the first clause. This is the best answer. A. Edit and revise effectively (Avoid redundancy). A. 53. Concept tested: Relate clauses (avoid sentence fragments). Concepts tested: Use pronouns (use the proper form of the possessives and distinguish them from adverbs [there] and contractions [it’s] ). C. This is the best answer. D. A. number. B. 58. Edit and revise effectively (avoid redundancy). so this is a poor introduction. Concept tested: Make decisions about appropriateness of expressions for audience and purpose. Concept tested: Establish logical order (choose the appropriate transition word or phrase). A. This is the best answer. Avoid unnecessary shifts in construction (person. A. See A. D. 56. Concepts tested: Edit and revise effectively (avoid wordiness). C. D. This information logically precedes the sentence that follows. C. See A and C. This is an unnecessary addition because the word “objected” already suggests disagreement. “More narrower” is an incorrect comparative form. There is little mention of British culture in the essay. D. It uses the past tense and has no unnecessary punctuation. This introduction to the paragraph does not logically follow the information in the preceding paragraph. C. B. “Consequently” suggests a cause-effect relationship. A. The word “complicating” clues the reader that the issue is complex. A. “Several reasons” are not given in the sentence that follows. B. A. This is the best answer. See C. See A. B. which is not the case here. D. B. The verb “has” creates an illogical tense shift from past to present. Concepts tested: Judge the relevancy of material. Concept tested: Clearly state a purpose. D. C. transitions. C. Taking sides is not mentioned in the paragraph. This is the best answer. It is a complete sentence that is correctly punctuated. See A. 59. A. 52. D. This information is irrelevant and does not logically fit at this point in the essay. B. The plural “their” does not agree with its singular referent “Canada. B. mood). This is the best answer.” 60. The use of the transitional word “while” distorts the writer’s intended meaning. It is the correct possessive form. It is the only choice that adds relevant information to the paragraph. C. “Narrower” is the proper comparative form. It eliminates redundancy and unnecessary wordiness. Concept tested: Form modifiers (use the appropriate comparative or superlative form depending on the context). Concept tested: Make decisions about cohesion devices (openings.

D. This choice is imprecise and makes the writer’s intended meaning unclear. the order of the actions is unreasonable.” 62. C. It is the most precise and succinct wording for this sentence. 66. The adverb “hopefully” is misused in this context. “independence” already suggests separateness. The phrase emphasizes the native leaders’ concerns. Concept tested: Establish logical order (choose the appropriate transition word or phrase). D. A. B. the choice of the preposition “by” is incorrect. No punctuation is needed here. D. A. using the idioms of standard written English. This is the best answer. Faulty sentence structure makes this sentence unclear. 70. “autonomy” already suggests independence. The singular verb “is” does not agree with the plural subject “tribes. “Popular” means favored by many people. A. B. This is the best answer. D. “Popularized” means made widely known or easily understandable to the layman. The apostrophe is incorrect. A populist is a believer in populism. “Independent autonomy” is redundant. 69. B. B. D. The actions are in logical order and the verbs agree with the subjects. it suggests that a sovereign Quebec will treat different tribes as one minority group. The subject and verb are in agreement. In this context. D. See C. C. This is the correct response. This choice is nonsensical.” B. 67. “Nations” should not be in the possessive case. The verb “was” is incorrect. Concepts tested: Choose words to fit meaning and function (maintain the level of style and tone). The phrase implies the opposite. the use of the preposition “by” is incorrect. This is the best answer. it does not make sense in this context. B. Concept tested: Make decisions about appropriateness of expressions for audience and purpose. Concept tested: Choosing words to fit meaning. 65. Concepts tested: Choosing words to fit meaning. A. C.” It does not fit the intended meaning. B.” C. B. “Within” refers to an inner area. A. This is the best answer. The apostrophe correctly forms the possessive case of “world. “Between” is not usually applied to more than two nouns and is not appropriate here. The singular verb “was” does not agree with the plural subject “tribes. C. This is the best answer. It effectively links information about the native leaders’ concerns with information about the Quebec government’s negotiations. D. The order of the actions is unreasonable. China is one among many nations. D. This choice is ruled out because it misstates the aboriginals’ position. C. See A. Concepts tested: Avoid unnecessary punctuation. C. “Amidst” means “surrounded by. This implies more than one world. forming verbs. “Separate independence” is redundant. collective nouns). This choice is vague. a political ideology. Edit and revise effectively (avoid redundancy). B. 64. 35 . This is the correct response. This poor word choice distorts the writer’s intended meaning. “Worlds” is not in the possessive case. 68. B. Concepts tested: Punctuating correctly to indicate plural forms and possessives. This is the only choice that makes the sentence logical. Concepts tested: Assure grammatical agreement (predicate with subjects of varying complexity– including compound subjects. D. A. D. Concept tested: Choosing words to fit meaning and function. C. A. C. 63. and it is not consistent with the established tone of the essay. Relate clauses (avoid sentence fragments). C. It fits the intended meaning of having many people. Concepts tested: Establishing logical order. Although this choice works grammatically. This is the correct response. Relate clauses (avoid faulty subordination and coordination). A. A.61. The verb “was” is incorrect.” and “nations” is the correct plural form of “nation. A. This is the best answer. This is the best answer. The purpose of the phrase is to show that the native leaders are concerned that a sovereign Quebec will view all aboriginals as a homogeneous group. This creates a sentence fragment. it does not indicate that opposition to Quebec separatism is unanimous. The comma after “negotiations” is unnecessary.

For example. Always Almost always Often Sometimes Rarely 36 . how often are you relied upon to decide where to go or what to do? A. you should answer each item with your first impression. However. Therefore. you may not be able to provide much detail. it is not a test for which advance preparation is necessary. It is important to answer all of the questions in the Biographic Information Questionnaire in order to convey a complete picture of your previous experiences. highly verifiable items. each of the items. When going out with friends. Each dimension is measured by many different items written to assess a variety of contexts in which relevant behaviors may be exhibited. The “best” answer is an honest answer to the item. was included on the questionnaire based upon specific relationships between the item and a performance dimension. D. B. the relationship is not as clear. not under the candidate’s control. The biographic questionnaire has been validated in accordance with professional standards and legal guidelines. gender. Past behavior has been shown to be highly related to job performance. D. Some questions ask about your perceptions of others’ reactions to your behavior. Items may assess the degree to which you have had particular experiences as well as your reactions to different situations. On some questions. Since there is little space available for writing your elaborations and the amount of time is limited. The questions were written to assess relevant past interests. Sample Items for the Biographic Information Questionnaire The Biographic Information Questionnaire consists of about 75 questions and is administered in approximately 40 minutes. or national origin. C. Instead. E. items were subjected to multiple screenings in order to eliminate items that would be considered an invasion of privacy. it is important to manage your time effectively. Answer the items by circling the choice that is most accurate. During the last year.The Biographic Information Questionnaire The biographic questionnaire is a non-cognitive measure designed to assess an individual’s previous experience. whether apparent or not. you might be asked to elaborate on your answer choice. When completing your elaborations. which means that an item may measure several dimensions relevant to job performance. and/or biased against race. you might be asked to list them. The biographic questionnaire measures a number of dimensions identified from job analyses as highly relevant for successful Foreign Service Officer performance. if a question asked how many jobs you had held. this type of instrument has been found to be a consistently good predictor of a variety of performance measures for many different jobs. how often have you felt you had undertaken too many responsibilities? A. and problem-solving skills. More frequently. Many of the biographic items are also multidimensional. you should not spend too much time answering any one item. 1. This apparent lack of job-relatedness is a concern candidates sometimes express about biographic inventories. the biographic questionnaire measures previous experiences that are related to successful Foreign Service Officer performance. When completing the biographic questionnaire. such as communication. activities. Unlike cognitive tests. Very often Often Sometimes Seldom Never 2. Sometimes the relationship between an item and the dimension it measures is readily apparent. and elaborating your choice where required. Other examples of the types of items included in the biographic questionnaire are found below and on the next two pages. The questions combine both subjective items as well as objective. this questionnaire does not consist of questions with right and wrong answers. though. Consequently. Therefore. In developing the biographic questionnaire. E. B. and behaviors that are related to specific performance dimensions. Be as brief as possible. There are 26 sample items provided below. C. interpersonal.

Sometimes D. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ In the past six months. 13. 1 C.g. About as comfortable with me as with others D. 1 C. 12. Unlikely E. 6. C. Somewhat less comfortable with me than with others E. Much less comfortable with me than with others 15. 4. Never B. Frequently C. Very frequently B. 4 or more If you answered B. C. Very likely B. 2 D. or E to the previous question. fund-raiser. wedding. Very frequently B.or schoolrelated problems? A. how often have you volunteered to help someone with a difficult task? A. 3 E. Rarely E. 4 or more If you answered B. how likely has it been for you to mentally rehearse your thoughts before speaking? A. Somewhat difficult E.. 37 . Very unlikely In general. During the last two years. 9. list the names of the positions. C. important meeting)? A. Quite a few times B. or E to the previous question. Somewhat more comfortable with me than with others C. Occasionally D. Much more comfortable with me than with others B. Extremely difficult B. or E to the previous question. 16. C. D. how many non-credit courses have you taken to improve your skills? A. Never How many of your past jobs or positions have required that you coordinate the activities of others? A. In general. Several times C. Twice D. How many times over the last five years have you been in charge of planning an important “big” event (e. Neutral – neither likely nor unlikely D. 0 B. 5. 1 C. 5 or more times If you answered B. 3 E. 0 B. Not at all How comfortable have members of other ethnic or cultural groups been when interacting with you? A. 8. Seldom E. D. party. how many gatherings have you attended where you knew very few people? A. Never If you answered A. 3 or 4 times E. B. 2 D.3. 14. 3 E. 2 D. Not very difficult How frequently have your friends or colleagues sought your help with resolving work. Moderately difficult D. Likely C. Very difficult C. Once C. 7. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ 11. 4 or more How difficult would your colleagues say that you find it to adjust to a change in your environment? A. D. or D to the previous question. A couple of times D. 0 B. how frequently have you engaged in hobbies or activities to reduce or minimize stress? A. briefly list the most significant tasks and how you helped. list the names of the courses. reunion. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ During the last six months. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ 10. briefly describe up to five of the events you planned. Once E. Frequently C.

how often have you complimented someone for good service? A. Rarely How often do you make a grocery list before shopping? A. Very often Often Sometimes Seldom Never 18. Occasionally D. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ How often would your classmates or coworkers say that you have complimented them for a good idea? A. Seldom E. Very rarely If you answered A. Sometimes E. C. Very frequently B. Rarely E. Sometimes D. 38 . Often D. Somewhat less comfortable than most people E. Somewhat more comfortable than most people C. 21. A good bit less comfortable than most people When presenting ideas to others. B. or D to the previous question. Almost always B. E. Much more comfortable than most people B. briefly describe one or two of your ideas that were described as creative by others. Never In school.17. B. how frequently have you been asked to repeat yourself because you were not initially understood? A. Very often B. During the last six months. how comfortable are you in mediating conflicts between others? A. Frequently C. how often did you take notes or create outlines to summarize book chapters or articles? A. 20. 26. Very often C. B. Almost always B. Often C. how often have you worked overtime to get something done? A. Rarely E. Often C. 25. Very often B. 23. C. During the last year. list the approximate dates and how much overtime you worked each time. How often have others described your ideas or solutions as creative or innovative? A. Never 19. Sometimes D. 24. Rarely E. D. _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ _________________________________________ Compared to others. Almost always B. About as comfortable as most people D. or D to the previous question. Often C. Often C. Never If you answered A. Seldom E. Sometimes D. C. Never 22. Sometimes D.

politics) Davidson.. combined vol. Nation of Nations: A Narrative History of the American Republic. W.B. 2004. and White. Skidmore. News and World Report. P.E. ISBN 0195221478. J. management.S. and public administration. Chicago Manual of Style: The Essential Guide for Writers. Norton.S. New York: Oxford University Press. Boston: McGraw-Hill. 1999.. Armonk.D. Women and the American Experience.. The New Dictionary of Cultural Literacy. et al. and life experiences. Woloch. 2005. T. Central Asia: The Challenges of Independence.S. 2006. 7th ed.. J.. and Smith.H. NJ: Prentice Hall. 1998. J. geography. J. it is difficult to provide a formal. Jr. 2005. The Politics of United States Foreign Policy. ISBN 0072870982. international economics and trade. U. New York: Oxford University Press. Rumer. 4th ed. 2003. 7th ed. 3rd ed. ISBN 0765602547. et al. 39 . ISBN 0226104036. E. S. 2002. C. 2004. ISBN 0618226478. and Publishers. 15th ed. Boston: McGraw-Hill. Below. Boston: Houghton-Mifflin. Boston: Houghton Mifflin. The Economist A major daily newspaper such as The Wall Street Journal. foreign policy. New York Times. and Feagin. The Heritage of World Civilizations. A People and a Nation: A History of the United States. and Zhukov. 2004. 4th ed. ISBN 0131926233. comprehensive reading list that will prepare someone to pass the test. CA : Wadsworth/Thomson Learning. history. ISBN 0195170121. The best preparation is a good education. Modern Latin America. Upper Saddle River. NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall. usually gathered over an extended period of time through education. Current Affairs U.Suggested Study Materials (revised February 2007) The Foreign Service Officer Test measures broad knowledge in world and national affairs.B.and Pevehouse. 12th ed. J. English. Racial and Ethnic Relations. Washington Post.. 3rd ed. 2006. International Relations. United States (culture. Sharpe.R. Craig. NY: M. 2006. we suggest an illustrative list of the types of books and other readings that would prove useful. government and politics. 7th ed. J. Upper Saddle River. ISBN 0155058843. reading.F. and world history. Chicago: University of Chicago Press. E. international relations. New York : Pearson Longman. ideally one that includes courses in U. et al. ISBN 020530902X. ISBN 0618375899. and Trefil. N. Familiarity with American society and culture is important. 2003. Boston: Allyn & Bacon. political science. Hirsch E. ISBN 0321354745.B. M. Los Angeles Times Journals such as Foreign Affairs and Foreign Policy English Language Usage Strunk. B. Editors. World History and Geography Atlas of the World. Kett. The Elements of Style. Because the test covers such a broad range of topics.W. Belmont. Feagin. A.M. literature. ISBN 0072932848. ISBN 0130995339. 6th ed.S. J. Goldstein. Rosati.S. 7 th ed. 5th ed.

Belmont.W. Computer Applications Faigley. Intercultural Communication: A reader. J. Parson.J. and authors). ISBN 0073126675. Schneider. New Perspectives on Computer Concepts: Comprehensive. Boston: McGraw-Hill. H. Norton.R. 2003. OH : Thomson/South-Western. ISBN: 0321067304. R. J. Longman. Armonk. ISBN 0072981091. Osborn. ISBN 0618472428. 7th ed. Porter R. ISBN 0324271301. Fridlund.. and Barsoux. Gleitman. D. ISBN 0618531955. Harlow. Boston: McGraw-Hill. and policy. Psychology and Life. and Oja. and Zimbardo. T. 2005. and techniques.W. and McDaniel. Samovar. 2005. R.E. Shultz.A.A. MA: Adams Media. 6th ed. 2nd ed. 7th ed. Boston: Houghton Mifflin. D. 2nd ed. Martin’s.. ISBN 027364663X. The investigative reporter’s handbook: a guide to documents. Mason. G. Mason. A. E. OH : Thomson South-Western. W.P. (pre-publication information) Houston.E.. Bruzzese. 2000. Kiss. 2002. Rushefsky. (eds. CA: Thomson/Wadsworth. Communication and the Media Dominick. ISBN 0312248237. Macroeconomics: economic growth. News Writing and Reporting for Today’s Media. S. England. and Dam. Norton & Co. Avon. and Conaway. ISBN 076560647X. A. 5th ed. databases. 2007.). ISBN 0324319169.. B. L. Boston: Houghton Mifflin Co. Boston: Bedford/St. ISBN 0393975150. Public Speaking.E. ISBN 1593373686. 2006. 9th ed. (Note change in title. Basic Psychology. and Weinberg. Boston: Houghton Mifflin Co.. New York : Financial Times Prentice Hall. Moorhead. 17th ed. S. New York: W. Griffin.D. Bow.H. and Griffin. G. Twomey.Economics and Public Policy Hall. G. 2006.: Thomson/Course Technology. 2007. 2006. Principles of Microeconomics. 1998.. L. 8th ed. D. ISBN 020541799X.W. ISBN: 0619267658. P. 2005.Y... and Papell. ISBN 0534644406. The Longman Guide to the Web. N. L. and Reisberg. R. 2006. Mankiw. S. M. eds. 8th ed.. Boston : Pearson/Allen and Bacon. 4th ed. Chicago: University of Chicago Press. Public Policy in the United States: At the Dawn of the Twenty-First Century. New York: W. 11th ed. Economic Policy Beyond the Headlines.: M.R. ISBN 0618611584. M. 2000. Fundamentals of Management: Core Concepts and Applications. 3rd ed. 2005. 2nd ed. J.J. 2002. The Dynamics of Mass Communication: Media in the Digital Age. D.P. Sharpe. Boston. K.W. B. or Shake Hands. 4th ed. Itule. Morrison.. 4th ed. Employment Discrimination Law: A Manager’s Guide : Text & Cases.. Mass. 2006. fluctuations. ISBN 039397359X (pbk).E. 40 . J.. Organizational Behavior: Managing People and Organizations. Management and Human Behavior Gerrig. R..W. Managing Across Cultures. and Anderson. 6th ed. D.. ISBN: 0226755991.G. and Osborn. 2006.

and results of any Super Critical Needs language tests) of candidates who passed the FSOT will be reviewed by a Qualifications Evaluation Panel. and effective in stressful or difficult situations. to make appropriate use of limited resources. Centers may also be established for limited periods in other major U. candidates should also contact the Department of State by e-mailing testneeds@state. and will be asked to complete an on-line security background form (SF-86) to submit electronically in the event of passing the Oral Assessment. to evaluate the importance. Oral Assessment exercises are based on a job analysis of the work of the Foreign Service and the skills. not a job interview.m. To recognize and assume responsibility for work that needs to be done. To prioritize and order tasks effectively. Candidates who ultimately receive a conditional offer of employment will be given additional required documents during the preemployment phase of their candidacy. The assessment measures the following 13 dimensions: Composure. Information Integration and Analysis. but candidates must take the Oral Assessment within 12 months of the date they took the FSOT. to weigh relative merits of competing demands. and realistic in a given situation. a series of exercises constituting the next stage of their candidacy. Planning and Organizing. To confirm these arrangements. To be fair and honest. cities. to think on one's feet. grammatically correct. and must be scheduled during a fourweek Oral Assessment window. Oral Assessments will begin within several weeks after candidates have been notified of their eligibility. to work without letting personal bias prejudice actions. for successful candidates. skills or other attributes gained from previous experience of relevance to the Foreign Service. to employ a systematic approach to achieving objectives. Cultural Adaptability. to recognize and respect differences in new and different cultural environments. Exceptions will be made on a case-by-case basis.m. Oral Communication. and usefulness of information. the files (including the registration application form.S. practical. Initiative and Leadership. Candidates with disabilities should notify the Assessment Center of any special needs in writing with supporting documentation when they return the confirmation form.C. D. To absorb and retain complex information drawn from a variety of sources. abilities. The assessment may end as late as 6:00 p. to persist in the completion of a task. The Oral Assessment is an examination. without injecting subjective bias. to avoid deceit. to influence significantly a group’s activity. To work and communicate effectively and harmoniously with persons of other cultures. FSOT scores. political beliefs. value systems. Those candidates selected will be invited to participate in the Oral Assessment. direction. personal narrative questionnaire. and persuasive manner. to convey nuances of meaning accurately.The Oral Assessment Following the FSOT. to present issues frankly and fully. Candidates must report to their assigned Assessment Center at 7:00 a. Objectivity and Integrity. precise. and discrimination. to articulate appropriate motivation for joining the Foreign Service. reliability. to remember details of a meeting or event without the benefit of notes. favoritism. Experience and Motivation. The principal Foreign Service Assessment Center is located in Washington. poised. to draw reasoned conclusions from analysis and synthesis of available information. to maintain self-control. To demonstrate knowledge. To stay To speak fluently in a concise. . 41 adjusting quickly to changing situations. and personal qualities deemed essential to the performance of that work. and economic circumstances. or opinion. organized. Candidates who are invited to the Oral Assessment must complete and bring to the Oral Assessment a Statement of Interest. on their scheduled day. to motivate others to participate in the activity one is leading. to use appropriate styles of communication to fit the audience and purpose. Judgment. To discern what is appropriate.

gov 42 . to recognize patterns or trends in numerical data. The oral examination is not an adversarial process. Working With Others. To formulate creative alternatives or solutions to resolve problems. to work effectively as a team player. to establish positive relationships and gain the confidence of others. For more information Candidates who wish to read more about the Oral Assessment process or see practice scenarios from the Oral Assessment may visit the State Department website at the following address: careers. to show flexibility in response to unanticipated circumstances. well organized. the examiners are able to evaluate candidates and provide professional judgments of their performance. compile. To interact in a constructive. analyze and draw correct conclusions from pertinent data. effective and persuasive English in a limited amount of time. Resourcefulness. and harmonious manner. grammatically correct. Candidates do not compete against one another.Quantitative Analysis. To write concise. Written Communication.state. to use humor as appropriate. cooperative. who observe the performance of candidates in a variety of situations designed to enable them to demonstrate the requisite skills. to perform simple mathematical operations. Candidates are evaluated against these criteria by a team of examiners. but instead are judged on their capacity to demonstrate the skills and abilities sought by the Foreign Service. To identify. As trained observers with years of actual Foreign Service experience.

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