43.

A 22-year-old woman presents to her physician with amenorrhea, weight loss, anxiety, tremor, heat intolerance, and palpitations. Laboratory examination is consistent with hyperthyroidism, and the physician prescribes propylthiouracil. The patient's response to propylthiouracil is disappointing, and the symptoms recur, then worsen. Subtotal thyroidectomy is successfully performed, but following the surgery, the woman is extremely hoarse, and can barely speak above a whisper. This hoarseness is most probably related to damage to a branch which of the following cranial nerves? (A) Facial (B) Glossopharyngeal (C) Hypoglossal (D) Trigeminal (E) Vagus

45. A 67-year-old man is evaluated for persistent shooting pains, lower limb ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. Physical examination demonstrates small irregular pupils that constrict with accommodation but not in response to light. A VDRL test is positive. A CT scan of the spinal cord would most likely demonstrate atrophy of which of the following structures?

(A) Dorsal column (B) Dorsal horn (C) Lateral column (D) Ventral column (E) Ventral horn 49. During a fight, a 32-year-old man is hit on the back of the neck with a chair. A CT scan reveals a bony fragment that penetrated the lateral portion of the dorsal columns. Which of the following functions would most likely be affected by a lesion at this site?

(A) Fine motor control of the ipsilateral fingers (B) Motor control of the contralateral foot (C) Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg (D) Sweating of the ipsilateral face

Foster-Kennedy syndrome 3.(E) Vibratory sense from the ipsilateral arm Correlated letters and numbers: A=1+2+3. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Gradenigo's syndrome: 1. Westphal-Edinger nucleus 2. cerebellar infarct of neoplasm 4. myasthenia gravis 4. Horner syndrome 2. medial lemniscus 4. vestibular nuclei 3. Ptosis or proptosis is a common sign of: 1. Hearing loss may be associated with: 1. the underlying disorder is generally otitis media . pontine and mesencaphalic subcortical gaze centres ABCDE 4. inner ear concussion 2. nucleus commissurae posterioris ABCDE 3. sinus cavernous thrombosis 3. tegmental lesion of the midbrain ABCDE 7. visual pathway 2. frontobasal neoplasms ABCDE 5. Inputs to the thalamus include: 1. nuclei of the ocular muscles 2. central pontine myelinolysis ABCDE 2. Vertigo is a sign of: 1. C=2+4. Vertical gaze paralysis results from a damage to the: 1. nucleus interstitialis Cajal 3. The medial longitudinal fasciculus is an association tract linking the: 1. nucleus ambiguus 4. Méniere syndrome 2. olfactory pathway ABCDE 6. long term furosemide therapy 3. E=all Solution: 1. spinothalamic tract 3. cervical spinal cord 4. D=4. acustics neurinoma 4. B=1+3.

leukodystrophy 3. L4-L5 2. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the pupillary light reflex: 1. it occurs due to abscess formation in petrous apex 3. L5-S1 4. stiff-man syndrome 4. the fibers run through the brachium of the superior colliculus to synapse in the pretectal region ABCDE 12. meningitis tuberculosa 2. one of the characteristic sign is: ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy 4. pericallosal artery ABCDE 13. olfactory groove meningioma 4. malignant hyperthermia 2. The nuclei of the trigeminal nerve can be found in the: 1. the fibers bypass the lateral geniculate body 3. herpes zoster ABCDE 14. C5-C6 3. Anosmia may associate with: 1. multiple sclerosis 3. The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between: 1.2. Guillain-Barré syndrome ABCDE 11. parasagittal meningoma ABCDE 10. one of the characteristic sign is: ipsilateral facial pain ABCDE 8. head trauma 2. the fibers does not reach the posterior commissure 4. posterior cerebral artery 4. Wernicke encephalopathy 4. anterior choroidal artery 2. The most common causes of aquired diplopia include: 1. The visual system receives its blood supply from the: 1. pons . C6-C7 ABCDE 9. middle cerebral artery 3. Parkinson disease 3. the pretectal area projects to the contralateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus 2. Muscular rigidity is a common sign of: 1.

The amnesic syndrome results from lesion in: 1. medial thalamus ABCDE 17. flattening of the lens ABCDE 20. dysarthria ABCDE 18. hippocampus 3. Trismus ("lockjaw"= spasms of the masseter muscle) may associate with: 1. double vision 2. the ocular sympathetic innervation is a three-neuron pathway 2.2. frontal lobe 3. medulla oblongata ABCDE 15. Which of the following statements are true regarding the sympathetic innervation of ocular muscles: 1. nucleus hypoglossus 2. it supplies the pupillary dilator and the superior tarsal muscles 4. Which of the following allows accomodation of near vision: 1. inferior and superior salivatory nuclei 4. nucleus of Perlia 3. Which nuclei are located in the medulla oblongata: 1. the ciliospinal center is located in the intermediolateral column of the spinal cord at the levels of C8 and Th1-2 3. midbrain 4. relaxation of the ciliary muscles 3. tetanus . prefrontal area 2. Which of the following structures play(s) a role in the initiation of the optokinetic nystagmus: 1. inferior colliculus ABCDE 16. myoclonus 4. dysphagia 3. superior colliculus 4. occipital lobe 2. its lesion results in Horner triad ABCDE 21. spinal cord 3. A lesion involving the nucleus ambiguous could produce: 1. red nucleus 4. thickening of the lens 4. Westphal-Edinger nucleus ABCDE 19. contraction of ciliary muscles 2.

anterior inferior cerebellar artery 3. superior cerebellar artery 2. Brodman 38 2. ganglion spirale ABCDE 24.2. nucleus descendes spinalis Roller ABCDE 25. Brodman 41 ABCDE 26. ganglion oticum 2. ganglion inferius (extracraniale) ABCDE 28. ganglion nodosum (inferius) 4. nervus vagus 3. ganglion stellatum 4. nucleus lateralis Deiters 2. ganglion geniculi 3. Brodman 40 4. ganglion jugulare (superius) 2. tectum . nervus glossopharyngeus 2. Brodman 39 3. nervus accessorius 4. pontine encephalitis 3. Branches from the basilar artery are the: 1. Vestibular nuclei include: 1. Which of the following ganglions belong(s) to the vagal nerve: 1. pontine branches 4. nucleus medialis Schwalbe 3. hypertensive encephalopathy ABCDE 22. ganglion superius (intracraniale) 3. Nucleus ambiguus belongs to the: 1. nervus hypoglossus ABCDE 27. peritonsillar abscess 4. The fibers of the superior cerebellar peduncles decussate in the: 1. nucleus superior Bechterew 4. labyrinthine artery ABCDE 23. Which of the following corresponds to the primary auditory cortex: 1. Which is a part of the auditory system the: 1.

Horner triad 2. nucleus tractus solitarii 4. rami interpedunculares 4. Medulla oblongata is/are supplied by the: 1. Which if the following statements are true concerning the Parinaud syndrome: 1. anterior spinal artery 3. nucleus vestibularis inferior 2. superior cerebellar artery 2. Which of the following nuclei are affected in Wallenberg syndrome: 1. Pons is/are supplied by the: 1. it may associate with refractory nystagmus on convergence . anterior spinal artery 4. posterior cerebral artery ABCDE 33. tractus spinocerebellaris anterior 2. tractus tegmentalis centralis 3. tractus spinothalamicus 4. posterior cerebral artery 3. anterior inferior cerebellar artery 3. nucelus ambiguus ABCDE 30. nucleus dorsalis vagi 3. pedunculus cerebellaris inferior ABCDE 31. pontine tegmentum 4. posterior cerebral artery 2.2. tegmentum of the midbrain ABCDE 29. ipsilateral ataxia 4. base of pons 3. Signs of Wallenberg syndrome include: 1. Midbrain is/are supplied by the: 1. basilar artery ABCDE 34. posterior choroidal artery ABCDE 35. ipsilateral nystagmus 3. posterior choroidal artery 4. Which of the following tracts/structures are involved in Wallenberg syndrome: 1. posterior inferior cerebellar artery 2. contralateral sensory disturbance ABCDE 32.

Which of the following statements are true regarding inferior olive: 1. vagus 4. n. it is the gateway to the cortex 2. it lies in the ventral medulla 2. n. n. appart from olfaction sensory stimuli pass through the thalamus and are relayed to the cortex for conscious processi 4.2. coordinated movement patterns 4. it receives afferent fibers from red nucleus ABCDE 38. nucleus globosus 3. Cerebellum is important for: 1. hypoglossus ABCDE 42. corpus mamillare ABCDE 41. precise. regulating muscle power ABCDE 39. arousal and attention ABCDE 40. performing rapid. maintaining balance 2. gyrus cinguli 2. Cerebellar nuclei include: 1. fornix 4. n. nucleus emboliformis 2. it is usually caused by a tumor of the pineal gland 4. it integrates outflow from cerebellum and basal nuclei and transmit this information to the motor cortex 3. amygdala 3. it receives its afferentation via central tegmental tract 3. it regulates consciousness. Nucleus solitarius receives impulses from taste receptors of the tongue through the sensory ganglia of which crania 1. nucleus dentatus 4. its cells project to the contralateral cerebellar cortex via the inferior cerebellar peduncle 4. glossopharyngeus 3. Components of vestibular system are: . The limbic system consist of the: 1. it is characterized by a paralyis of upward gaze 3. intermedius 2. regulating muscle tone 3. it is usually caused by hypophyseal tumor ABCDE 36. nucleus fastigii ABCDE 37. Which of the following statements are true of thalamus: 1.

Millard-Gubler 4. contraction of skeletal muscle 4. Effects of acetylcholin receptor activation may include: 1. organ of Corti ABCDE 43. cranial nerves is associated with: 1. Millard-Gubler syndrome 4. Melkersson -Rosenthal 2. Combined unilateral lesion of the III. increased sweating 2. utricle 2. zoster oticus 2. Foville syndrome ABCDE 47. neuronitis vestibularis ABCDE 44.1. Benedikt syndrome 3. What deficit would occur if thalamus were destroyed: . Weber syndrome ABCDE 45... The sixth nerve palsy is a part of the: 1. Weber syndrome 4. Nothnagel syndrome 2. Foville syndrome 2. release of nitric oxide ABCDE 49. rapid depolarization. Foville syndrome 4. and VI. semicircular canals 4. Dizziness may be associated with: 1. saccule 3. miosis 3. Parinaud ABCDE 48. Oculomotor palsy is the common sign of: 1. In which syndrome is the facial nerve affected: 1. Gradenigo syndrome 2. IV. drug intoxication 4. panic attacks 3. Tolosa-Hunt syndrome ABCDE 46. Benedikt syndrome 3. Avellis 3. superior orbital fissure syndrome 3.

Ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid) ABCDE 54. progressive muscular dystrophy 2. Pyrazinamide 4. dizziness 2. Pramipexole (Mirapex) 3. Which of the following is a low motoneuron disease: . Rifampin 3. Which of the following structures are affected in poliomyelitis: 1. drop attacks 4. unsteadiness ABCDE 52. posterior horns of the spinal cord 2. mild pleocytosis 2. contralateral pain 3.1. myotonia congenita 4. motoneurons of the ventral horns in the spinal cord 3. Glatiramer Acetate (Copaxone) 4. The signs and symptoms of vertebrobasilar stroke may include: 1. Characteristic CSF findings in meningitis basilaris: 1. cell count about 20000/3 ABCDE 51. Which of the following diseases are muscular in origin: 1. contralateral hemianesthesia 2. disorders of the emotions 4. movement disorder ABCDE 50. numbness around the mouth 3. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease 3. Which of the following drugs are use for treatment of tuberculosis: 1. Ethambutol ABCDE 53. high glucose level 3. Which of the following drugs are used for treatment of multiple sclerotis: 1. low glucose level 4. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ABCDE 55. pontine tegmentum 4. nuclei of the caudal cranial nerves ABCDE 56. Interferon Beta-1b (Betaseron) 2. Isoniazid 2.

Which of the following is/are the sign(s) of an injury to the common peroneal nerve: 1. pseudobulbar paresis ABCDE 57. inability to evert foot 2.1. the galactocerebrosidase enzyme activity is very low ABCDE 60. abducent ABCDE 61. it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner 3. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease 4. spinothalamic tract 4. the galactocerebrosidase enzyme activity is elevated 4. Epileptic seizure often associates with: 1. central tegmental tract 2. intracranial tumors 2. What lies below the inferior olive: 1. it is characterized by subacute bilateral visual loss 3. MRI is often normal ABCDE 63. loss of plantar flexion 3. bulbar paresis 2. fhead injury 4. facial 3. pyramidal tract ABCDE 59. chronic alcoholism 3. multiple sclerosis ABCDE 62. Heine-Medin disease 3. Which of the following can be found in the cytoplasm of the neurons: .olfactory 2. loss of sensation on sole of foot ABCDE 58. loss of sensation on dorsum of foot and lateral aspect of leg 4. Which of the following statements are true reagarding Leber hereditary optic neuropathy: 1. visual evoked potentials may confirm the diagnosis 4. optic 4. Which of the following statements are true regarding Krabbe disease: 1. Which of the following nerves may be involved in Möbius syndrome: 1. spinocerebellar tract 3. males are more commonly affected than females 2. it is an X-linked disorder 2.

Arnold-Chiari malformation 2. Which of the following are characteristic of progressive muscular dystrophy: 1. EMG: polyphasic motor unit potentials with small amplitude 2.1. myasthenia gravis 2. Negri body 3. Foster-Kennedy syndrome ABCDE 66. its inheritance is autosomal dominant 3. Phakomatoses include: 1. polymyositis 3. the transaminase values are normal 3. Which of the following statements are true concerning Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy: 1. Lewy body 4. Plasmapheresis is accepted for the treatment of: 1. cataracts 4. serum CPK is markedly elevated 4. multiple sclerosis 2. transverse myelitis 3. its inheritance is X-linked 2. ankle and elbow contractures are common 4. Dandy-Walker syndrome 4. Spastic paraparesis may be associated with: 1. atrial arrhythmias may be noted on cardiac examination ABCDE 69. anterior spinal artery thrombosis 4. Guillain-Barré syndrome 4. muscle biopsy reveals angular atrophic fibers with fiber type grouping ABCDE 67. cercical myelopathy ABCDE 65. Common signs of myotonic dystrophy are: 1. Characteristic of Sturge-Weber syndrome are: . weakness and wasting in the distal limb muscles 3. Pick body ABCDE 64. testicular atrophy ABCDE 68. sclerosis tuberosa 3. neurofibromatosis generalisata ABCDE 70. neurofibrillary tangle 2. alopecia 2.

dystrophic neurites 4. glioblastoma multiforme 4. Werdnig-Hoffmann . leukodystrophy 3. adenoma sebaceum on the face ABCDE 71. The most common signs of encephalitis include: 1. paired helical filaments ABCDE 77. Most common signs of Jakob-Creutzfeldt's disease are: . Kugelberg-Welander . taste disturbance 3.juvenile. epileptic seizures 4. Characteristics of Hippel-Lindau disease include: 1. naevus flammeus on the face 4. proximal. ß-amyloid protein 2. severe form 2. retinal hemangioblastoma ABCDE 72. naevus flammeus on the face 2.adult.1. altered consciousness 2. mild form 4. multiple café au lait spots 2. Cerebral edema may be associated with: 1. late onset of symptoms 3. the firs symptom is generally urinary incontinence ABCDE 74. Types of spinal muscular atrophies are: 1.infantile. Vulpian-Bernhard . proximal. Senile plaques are composed of: 1. it is characterized by a demyelination affecting the dorsal columns 3. Which of the following statements are true regardin subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord: 1. Aran-Duchenne . peripheral paresis ABCDE 75. intranuclear inclusions 3. it is a disorder caused by vitamin B12 deficiency 2.adult. Huntington disease ABCDE 76. cerebellar hemangioblastoma 3. intermediate form 3. it often associated with pernicious anemia 4. proximal. distal ABCDE 73. brain abscess 2. epileptic seizures 4.

Which of the following statements ar true concerning " ischemic penumbra" : 1. dementia 3. the cells does not regain their functionality ABCDE 82. in the affected site. Neurological complications of AIDS include: 1. it occurs in the area surrounding the ischemic core 2. the have an external elastic lamina 2. the neurons regain rapidly their function ABCDE 83. myoclonus 3. it is generally caused by lactic acidosis 2. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the structure of the intracranial arteries: 1. in the affected site. in the area of penumbra. fever 4.1. peripheral neuropathy ABCDE 79. it is a term which refers to the reversible loss of neuronal cell function related to cerebral hypoperfusion 4. under normal conditions. papilledema ABCDE 78. functional neural tissue exists between the sinusoidal vessels ABCDE 84. it contains sinusoidal vascular spaces lined with endothelium and an adventitial layer 4. their tunica media is rich in elastic fibers 4. opportunistic infections 2. epileptic seizures 4. malignant intracranial tumors 4. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding cavernous hemangioma: 1. they have no vasa vasorum ABCDE 81. after restoration of circulations. Characteristics of malignant hyperthermia are: 1. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the fat embolism syndrome: . the angiography is the best imaging modality to make an accurate diagnosis 3. the metabolism is damaged 4. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning the so-called luxury perfusion: 1. triggers: inhalational anesthetic agents 3. it may be inherited in an autosomal dominant mode 2. the nerve cells undergo necrosis 3. vasoparalysis is present 3. they have an internal elastic lamina 3. muscle rigidity ABCDE 80. progressive dementia 2. myoglobinuria 2.

it generally follows long bone fractures 2. blockage to CSF circulation 3. Conditions which predispose to intracranial hemorrhage in neonates include: 1. Characteristic signs of Binswanger's disease: 1. diabetes 2. Diagnostic criteria for clinical diagnosis of brain death: 1. foramen jugulare ABCDE 87. The outlet(s) of the fourth ventricle is/are: 1. The most common complications of SAH are: 1. rebleeding 3. excessive secretion of CSF 2. Dandy Walker syndrome 4. Causes of hydrocephalus may include: 1. abscence of brainstem reflexes 3. posterior fossa tumors ABCDE 91. hypoxia ABCDE 86. immaturity 3. coma 2. exclusion of drug intoxication or poisoning ABCDE 89. petechial rashes appear on the upper anterior portion of the body 4. foramen of Monroe 3. altered level of consciousness is not uncommon ABCDE 85. hydrocephalus 4. negative apnea test 4. progressive dementia 3. urinary incontinence 4. an asymptomatic period of about 12-48 hours precedes the clinical manifestations 3. vasospasm 2. gait disturbances 2. foramen of Luschka 4. foramen of Magendie 2. hypotension 4.1. Which of the following are characteristic of Hallervorden-Spatz disease: . meningitis ABCDE 88. double vision ABCDE 90.

Baclofen 2. Which of the following is/are recommended for the tretament of the cholinergic crisis: 1. aminoglycosides 3. Diazepam 4. atropine ABCDE 98. pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) 3. athetosis 2. epilepsy 3.1. choreoathetosis ABCDE 92. essential tremor 4. autosomal recessive inheritance 3. muscle rigidity 2. use of zinc acetate 4. low-copper diet 3. Treatment of Wilson disease: 1. copper-rich diet ABCDE 93. Guillain-Barré syndrome ABCDE 95. Indications of beta blockers include: 1. use of D-Penicillinamin 2. The most widely used agent(s) for reduction of spasticity is/are: 1. Local injections of botulinum toxin are effective in the treatment of: 1. spasmodic torticollis ABCDE 94. Which of the followings are characteristic of the myasthenic crisis: . edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) 4. beta blockers 2. dopamine agonists ABCDE 97. neostigmine methylsulfate 2. dementia 4. blepharospasm 3. Madopar ABCDE 96. chorea 4. procainamide hydrochloride 4. Tizanidine 3. migrain prophylaxis 2. Drug(s) that may exacerbate weakness in myasthenia gravis is/are: 1.

63E. Paraneoplastic syndromes include: 1. 8B. 67E. (E) Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) . Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are exaggerated. diclofenac 2. 21A. 74B. 22E. 3E. 70B. 14A. 66B. indomethacin 4. 75B. (D) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) . 76B. 6E. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include: 1. 61A. Neurologic examination shows weakness of the extensor and flexor muscles of the lower extremities. 20E. 5A. 11C. 71C. (C) Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) . dermatomyositis ABCDE Solution: 1B. haloperidol 3. polyneuropathy 4. valium ABCDE 100. 7E. but the decrease is more prominent in the lower extremities than in the upper extremities. 24E.1. 18B. 73A. Sensation to vibration and position is decreased in all extremities. 17C. 2C. 58D. 12A. 79 A 73-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of diffuse weakness and tingling of her arms and legs. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy 3. 16C. miosis 2. 65A. 72E. This patient most likely has a deficiency of which of the following vitamins? . 62E. tachycardia ABCDE 99. (A) Niacin . cerebellar atrophy 2. 25 57B. 59C. 19B. 77A. 9B. 60C. 64E. 68E. 23D. 13E. 69C. bradycardia 4. 78E. 10A. mydriasis 3. 4A. (B) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) . 15B.

Which of the following labeled areas in the medulla is the most likely site of the causal lesion? . Which of the following labeled areas in the transverse sections of the brain stem is most likely damaged? . When she is asked to protrude her tongue. and the muscle in the left side of the tongue shows considerable atrophy. A 68-year-old woman has the sudden onset of weakness in her right arm and leg. it deviates to the left. Neurologic examination 6 weeks later shows an extensor plantar reflex on the right.. She can speak. A 48-year-old woman has loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left upper and lower limbs. but her words are not enunciated clearly.

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