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Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection Multiple Choice

4. If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____. a. valid

1. Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered _____. a. improper hiring b. negligent hiring c. appropriate depending upon the job d. negligent intent e. unwise, but not illegal (b; moderate) 2. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test? a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion c. one that yields the same score from two different people taking the test on the same occasion d. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions e. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way (a; difficult) 3. If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____. a. valid b. invalid c. reliable d. unreliable e. inconsistent (d; moderate)

b. invalid c. reliable d. unreliable e. inconsistent (c; moderate) 5. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1. a. Equivalent form estimate b. Retest estimate c. Internal consistency d. Internal comparison estimate e. Criterion validity (b; moderate) 6. Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability? a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well (a; difficult) 7. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests.

a. Equivalent form estimate b. Retest estimate c. Internal consistency d. Internal comparison estimate e. Criterion validity (a; moderate) 8. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together. a. Equivalent form estimate b. Retest estimate

b. internal consistency c. equivalent form d. test validity e. criterion validity (b; moderate) 11. Which of the following describes using an equivalent form estimate to assess reliability? a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together c. administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare

c. Internal consistency participants test scores for test one and test two d. Internal comparison estimate e. Criterion validity (c; moderate) 9. Which of the following describes using an internal consistency as an assessment of reliability? a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well (b; difficult) 10. When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured? a. retest estimate d. different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well (c; difficult) 12. Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability? a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well (b; difficult) 1

3. Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable? a. questions may not represent material b. tests used to estimate equivalence may not have been equivalent c. testing conditions could vary d. the test may not predict actual performance e. all are reasons for unreliable tests (d; difficult) 1 4. The first step in the validation process is to _____. a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job b. analyze the job c. administer tests d. relate test scores and job criteria e. cross-validate (b; easy; p. 197) 1 5. The second step in the validation process is to _____. a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job b. analyze the job c. administer tests d. relate test scores and job criteria e. cross-validate (a; easy) 1 6. The final step in the validation process is to _____. a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job b. analyze the job c. administer tests d. relate test scores and job criteria e. cross-validate (e; easy)

17. Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity? a. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test are represent the tasks performed on the job b. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the job c. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation d. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance e. all of the above are part of demonstrating content validity (d; difficult) 1 8. A(n) _____ aims to measure an array of possible predictors for job performanc e. a. test validity b. test criterion c. test battery d. job analysis e. assessment rating (c; moderate) 1 9. To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on the job and then compares their test scores with current performanc e. a. concurrent validation b. predictive validation c. correlation analysis d. expectancy assessment e. test batteries (a; moderate) 20. To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they are hire

d. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development. a. concurrent validation b. predictive validation c. correlation analysis d. expectancy assessment e. test batteries (b; moderate) 21. Which method of test validation is considered more dependable? a. content validation b. criterion validation c. predictive validation d. concurrent validation e. face validation (c; difficult) 22. Which statistical tool is used to determine if a significant relationship exists between the predictor scores and the performance criterion? a. regression analysis b. discriminant analysis c. correlation analysis d. canonical correlational analysis e. confirmatory factor analysis (c; moderate) 23. The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following except _____. a. using a new sample of employees b. administering more tests c. evaluating the relationship between scores and performance d. assessing predictive validation

e. analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance (e; moderate) 24. Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a validation tool? a. criterion validation b. predictive validation c. content validation d. concurrent validation e. all of the above (c; moderate) 25. All of the following are considered pink collar jobs except a. waitress b. secretary c. nursing d. teaching e. psychologist (e; easy) 2 26. Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs. a. purple collar b. white collar c. pink collar d. blue collar e. none of the above (c; easy) 2 27. _____ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. a. Motor ability b. Personality c. Achievement d. Cognitive

e. Physical ability (d; easy) 28. Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called _____. a. aptitude tests

c. Achievement d. Cognitive e. Physical ability (b; easy) 32. Most people are fired due to _____.

b. intelligence tests a. lack of qualifications c. achievement tests b. lack of aptitude d. personality tests c. nonperformance e. comprehensive tests (b; easy) 2 d. lack of necessary motor abilities 29. John is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination and stamina during the selection period at a goods delivery company. The company is using _____ tests. a. aptitude b. personality a. attitude c. motor and physical abilities b. motivation d. achievement c. temperament e. comprehensive (c; moderate) 30. _____ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction tim e. a. Motor ability b. Personality a. Make a Picture Story c. Achievement b. House-Tree-Person d. Cognitive c. Thematic Apperception Test e. Interest (a; easy) d. Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test 31. _____ tests measure a person s level of introversion, stability, and motivation. a. Motor ability e. All of the above are projective (c; moderate) 3 b. Personality 5. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following except d. all of the above e. none of the above (d; moderate; p. 206) 3 4. Which of the following is not a type of projective technique for measuring aspects of an applicant s personality? e. cognitive abilities (c; moderate) 33. Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is important to measure motivation and interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.

a. neuroticism b. optimism c. extraversion d. conscientiousness

d. agreeableness e. openness to experience (b; moderate) 39. Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional? a. neuroticism

e. agreeableness (b; moderate) 3 b. extraversion 6. _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility. a. Neuroticism b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Agreeableness a. neuroticism e. Openness to experience (a; easy) b. extraversion 37. _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and to experience positive effects such as energy and zeal. a. Neuroticism b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Agreeableness a. neuroticism e. Openness to experience (b; easy) b. extraversion 38. Mak has recently applied for a position in pharmaceutical sales. Which c. conscientiousness personality characteristic is most predictive of Mak s likelihood of success in d. agreeableness a sales position? e. openness to experience (c; difficult) a. neuroticism b. extraversion c. conscientiousness 42. While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which one characteristic tends to be associated with job performance across types? a. neuroticism c. conscientiousness d. agreeableness e. openness to experience (d; difficult) 41. Which personality characteristic captures a combination of achievement and dependability? c. conscientiousness d. agreeableness e. openness to experience (e; moderate) 40. Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle?

b. extraversion c. conscientiousness d. agreeableness e. openness to experience (c; difficult)

d. interviews e. management games (c; moderate) 4 6. Which of the following is an advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? a. cost of development

43. Which of the following best describes how the work sampling technique is executed? a. applicants submit work samples from previous jobs b. applicants are tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest c. applicants are tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a company d. applicants are asked to respond to questions about how they would perform various tasks e. applicants are given video-based situational interviews (b; moderate) 44. A _____ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate s potential. a. work sampling event b. video-based situational testing c. management assessment center d. personality test e. retreat (c; moderate) 4 5. Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except _____. a. the in basket b. leaderless group discussion c. tests of motor abilities

b. time required to administer and assess results c. use of managers as assessors d. peer evaluations of candidates e. use psychologists as performance assessors (d; difficult) 4 7. Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection process? a. intelligence tests b. miniature job training and evaluation c. management assessment center d. work sampling technique e. video-based simulation technique (a; moderate) 48. Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job performance during the selection process? a. intelligence tests b. motor abilities tests c. personality tests d. work sampling technique e. interests inventories (d; moderate) 4 9. An employer s selection process is likely to include any of the following methods except a. testing

b. reference checks c. honesty testing d. substance abuse screening e. all of the above may be included in an employer s selection process (e; easy) 50. Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate s _____. a. age b. marital status c. identification d. ethnic background e. all of the above (c; moderate) 51. In most Asian countries, which of the following is not usually verified by an employer before hiring a job candidate? a. legal eligibility for employment

e. all are possible motivations (d; difficult) 53. Which selection tool is considered the least useful by HR managers? a. interview b. reference letters c. application form d. academic record e. psychological tests (b; moderate) 54. One of the most useful features of an applicant tracking system is its ability to report metrics including _____. a. applicant EEO data b. applicant source statistics c. time taken to fill d. cost to hire e. all of the above (e; easy) 55. Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called _____.

b. education a. numerology c. age b. astrology d. credit c. handwriting analysis e. citizenship (d; moderate) d. reasoning analysis 52. Which of the following is not a possible motivation for a current employer to give a fair reference to an employee who is applying for a different position with another company? a. fear of legal consequences b. desire to improve employee s chances for a new job c. desire to remove employee from company d. respect for employee privacy e. polygraph output assessment (c; moderate) 5 6. What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? a. physical examinations b. personality tests c. handwriting analysis

d. drug testing e. all of the above (a; moderate) True/ False 57. Under equal employment opportunity laws, employers must use nondiscriminatory selection procedures. (T; easy) 5 8. Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not reliability. (F; moderate) 5 9. A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. (T; easy) 60. An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency. (T; easy) 61. Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalenc e. (F; moderate) 62. Test validity answers the question, Does this test measure what it s supposed to measure? (T; easy) 63. Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measur

9. If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically. (T; moderate) 70. Criterion validity emphasizes judgment. (F; moderate) 71. Developing, validating, and using selection standards including selection tests generally require a qualified psychologist. (T; easy) 72. Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations. (F; moderate) 7 3. Selection tests are used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background checks. (T; moderate) 7 4. EEO guidelines and laws apply to application forms and selection tests but not to interviews. (F; easy) 75. A selection test may be used as long as it does not discriminat e. (T; difficult) 7 6. The American Psychological Association s standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable worldwid e. (F; easy) 7 7. Cognitive tests are the most difficult tests to evaluate and us

e. (F; moderate) 6 e. (F; moderate) 7 4. Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently. (F; moderate) 6 5. There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyze the job and concluding with revalidation. (F; easy) 6 6. A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors. (T; easy) 6 7. Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test. (F; moderate) 6 8. To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hire d. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development. (T; moderate) 6 8. Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations. (T; moderate) 79. In the US, rejected applicants who receive bad references could sue the source of a reference for defamation of character. (T; easy) 80. Most employers favor written references to telephone references because written letters provide a permanent record for the employer s files. (F; moderate) 81. Most prospective employees prove their eligibility for employment in the United States by showing a U.S. passport. (F; moderate)

Chapter 8: Training and Developing Employees Multiple Choice 1. _____ provides new employees with the basic background information required to perform their jobs satisfactorily. a. Employee recruitment

c. management by objectives program d. rewards program e. just-in-time system (a; moderate) 5. Which of the following has the highest influence on organizational effectiveness? a. appraisal

b. Employee selection b. feedback c. Employee orientation c. training d. Employee development d. goal-setting e. Training (c; easy) e. technology (d; moderate) 2. Orientation typically includes information on _____. 6. The first step in a training program is to _____. a. employee benefits a. assess the program s successes or failures b. personnel policies b. present the program to a small test audience c. daily routine c. design the program content d. safety measures d. conduct a needs analysis e. all of the above (e; easy) e. train the targeted group of employees (d; moderate) 3. The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called _____. a. orientation b. training c. development d. appraisal e. management (b; easy) 4. Employers use a(n) _____ to ensure that employees are working toward organizational goals. a. performance management process b. employee orientation program 7. What is the second step in the training process? a. assess the program s successes or failures b. present the program to a small test audience c. design the program content d. conduct a needs analysis e. train the targeted group of employees (c; moderate) 8. The third step in the training process is to _____. a. assess the program s successes or failures b. present the program to a small test audience

c. design the program content d. conduct a needs analysis e. train the targeted group of employees (b; moderate) 9. The fourth step in the training process is to _____. a. assess the program s successes or failures b. present the program to a small test audience c. design the program content

a. provide the opportunity to apply the material b. provide prompt feedback c. utilize a half or three-fourths day schedule d. pay the trainees for the time spent in training e. allow trainees to set their own pace (d; moderate) 13. Which of the following is recommended for training sessions to maximize learning? a. a full day

d. conduct a needs analysis b. a half-day e. train the targeted group of employees (e; moderate) c. one hour 10. What is the final step in the training process? d. three hours a. assess the program s successes or failures e. two hours (b; moderate) 1 b. present the program to a small test audience c. design the program content d. conduct a needs analysis e. train the targeted group of employees (a; moderate) 11. Joh is currently identifying the specific job performance skills needed, analyzing the skills of prospective trainees, and developing knowledge and performance objectives based on the deficiencies he finds. James is working on the _____ step in the training and development process. a. first b. second c. third a. confirm employee claims of skill and experience d. fourth b. provide extensive training e. fifth (a; moderate) c. evaluate the degree to which training lowers risks associated with job 12. Which of the following is not a consideration when designing a training program that motivates the trainees? d. pay employees for time spent in training 14. If an employer fails to train an employee adequately and an employee subsequently does harm to a third party, the court could find the employer liable for ____. a. negligent hiring b. discrimination c. negligent training d. occupational fraud e. adverse action (c; moderate) 1 15. Which of the following steps will not help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training?

e. all of the above will help employers protect themselves (d; difficult) 1 16. Under which situation below, should an employer pay an employee for time spent in training? a. the training program is voluntary

c. quality of performance d. employee name e. performance conditions (d; moderate) 20. Employers can identify training needs for new employees by _____.

b. the training program is directly related to the trainee s job a. reviewing job descriptions c. the trainee does not perform any productive work during the program b. reviewing performance standards d. the training program is conducted outside working hours c. performing the job e. the training provides no immediate benefit to the employer (b; difficult) d. questioning current job holders 17. _____ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. a. Needs analysis b. Task analysis c. Performance analysis d. Training strategy e. Development planning (b; easy) 1 18. Employers can supplement the job description and specification with a _____ that consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format that is helpful for determining training requirements. a. performance record form b. training assessment form c. task analysis record form d. skill sheet e. work function analysis (c; moderate) 1 19. A task analysis record form contains all of the following information except a. task list b. required skill set a. training e. all of the above (e; easy) 21. The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called _____. a. needs analysis b. task analysis c. performance analysis d. training strategy e. development planning (c; moderate) 22. The first step in a performance analysis is to _____. a. compare the person s performance to ideal performance b. evaluate productivity per employee c. assess number of employee-related customer complaints d. evaluate supervisor performance reviews e. conduct tests of job knowledge (a; moderate) 2 23. Sources of performance deficiencies in an employee may develop from a lack of _____.

b. supplies c. support systems d. rewards e. all of the above (e; moderate) 2 24. _____ means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. a. Practice b. On-the-job training c. Socialization d. Social learning e. Modeling (b; easy) 2 25. Which of the following training methods is the most popular? a. on-the-job training b. apprenticeship training c. informal learning d. job instruction training e. lectures (a; moderate) 2 26. On-the-job training can be accomplished through the use of all of the following techniques except a. coaching b. programmed learning c. understudy d. job rotation e. special assignments (b; moderate) 27. Ros was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is using the _____ form of training.

a. job rotation b. understudy c. coaching d. special assignments e. informal learning (a; moderate) 28. Jak hopes to be promoted to head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been assigned to spend a year as assistant to the current department head. This is an example of the _____ form of training. a. job rotation b. job instruction c. coaching d. special assignments e. informal learning (c; moderate) 2 29. Which of the following guidelines is intended to Prepare the Learner for success using on-the-job training? a. explain performance quality requirements b. go through the job at the normal work pace c. designate to whom the learner should go for help d. familiarize the worker with equipment, materials, and tools e. compliment good work (d; moderate) 30. Which of the following guidelines is intended to Present the Operation when taking the steps for success using on-the-job training? a. put the learner at ease b. have the learner explain the steps as the trainer goes through the job at a slow pace c. explain the whole job d. create interest in the job

e. compliment good work (b; moderate) 31. The Do a Tryout step for success when using on-the-job training entails all of the following except _____. a. finding out what the learner already knows about this job b. having the learner go through the job several times while explaining each step c. running the job at the normal pace d. having the learner do the job while gradually building up skill and speed e. correcting mistakes as the learner goes through the job (a; moderate) 32. Which of the following is not part of the Follow Up step in ensuring success from on-the-job training? a. decrease supervision b. correct faulty work patterns c. explain quantity and quality requirements d. designate to whom the learner should go for help e. compliment good work (c; moderate) 33. The first step to ensuring success for on-the-job training programs is to _____. a. present the operation b. follow up

c. what you ask for is what you get effect d. expectancy risk e. trainer bias (a; moderate) 3 35. A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called _____. a. job instruction training b. understudy training c. programmed learning d. apprenticeship training e. coaching (d; easy) 3 36. Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson? a. job instruction training b. understudy training c. programmed learning d. apprenticeship training e. coaching (d; easy) 3 37. All of the following occupations except _____ use apprenticeship training to prepare trainees. a. cook

c. do a tryout b. electrician d. prepare the learner c. millwright e. evaluate the program (d; easy) d. operating engineer 34. When low expectations on the trainer s part translate into poor trainee performance, this is called the _____. a. golem effect b. expectations fallacy e. teacher (e; moderate) 38. When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-bystep, the appropriate training method to use is _____.

a. job instruction training b. informal learning c. job rotation d. programmed learning e. apprenticeship training (a; moderate) 3 39. The first step in using a job instruction training program is to _____. a. prepare the worker b. list all necessary steps in the job c. order the steps in the job d. list key points or guidelines for each step e. present the operation (b; moderate) 40. A disadvantage of lecturing as a method of training is that it is _____. a. fast b. appropriate for large groups c. allow questions from the audience d. boring e. less expensive than written materials (d; easy) 41. _____ is a step-by-step self-learning method. a. Job instruction training

a. reduction in training time b. facilitation of learning c. reduced feeling of risk on the part of the learner d. learning similar to that with textbook e. immediate feedback provided (d; moderate) 4 43. Functional illiteracy is defined as _____. a. reading below high school level b. the inability to handle basic reading, writing, and arithmetic c. the inability to understand standard industry terminology d. proficiency in math and reading skills at the high school level and above e. all of the above (b; moderate) 44. Employers are responding to the problem of functional illiteracy by _____. a. testing the basic skills of job candidates b. instituting literacy programs at work c. conducting literacy audits d. holding formal classes on math and reading e. all of the above (e; easy; p. 279) 4 45. Because illiterate employees will usually try to hide their problem, supervisors can try to identify illiteracy problems by looking for employees who _____. a. do not follow written instructions

b. Programmed learning b. take forms home to complete c. Apprenticeship training c. are multilingual d. Lecturing d. both a and b e. Job rotation (b; easy) e. all of the above (d; moderate) 4 42. Which of the following is not an advantage of programmed learning? 46. Which of the following goals is the focus of diversity training?

a. to create cross-cultural sensitivity b. to foster harmonious working relationships c. to improve interpersonal skills a. apprenticeship training d. to socialize employees into the corporate culture b. on-the-job training e. all of the above (e; moderate) c. simulated training 47. An advantage of conventional lecturing over the use of audiovisual-based training is that _____. a. audiovisuals are more boring b. audiovisuals are more expensive c. audiovisuals allow for instant replay and stop-action d. audiovisuals can show events that are not easily demonstrated in live lectures e. audiovisuals can be easily sent to all locations (b; moderate) 4 48. Another term for vestibule training is _____. a. apprenticeship training b. computer-based training c. cubicle training d. simulated training e. job instruction training (d; moderate) 4 49. _____ is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job. a. Vestibule training b. Apprenticeship training c. Retreat training d. Cubicle training e. Job instruction training (a; moderate) d. coaching e. programmed learning (c; easy) 51. _____ are computer-based training systems that learn what the trainee did right and wrong and then adjusts the instructional sequence to the trainee s unique needs. a. Programmed learning b. Multi-media training c. DVD training programs d. Intelligent tutoring systems e. Programmed instruction (d; moderate) 52. All of the following are advanced types of computer-based training except _____. a. interactive gaming systems b. intelligent tutoring systems c. interactive multimedia training d. virtual reality training e. all of the above are advanced types of computer-based training systems (a; moderate) 53. A(n) _____ is a set of instruction, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker. a. instruction sheet 50. Pilots train on flight simulators for safety, learning efficiency, and cost savings. This is an example of _____.

b. job aid c. task analysis record form

57. Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called _____. a. diversity training

d. skill sheet b. on-the-job training e. work function analysis (b; easy) c. performance improvement programs 54. Apac Airlines uses a checklist of things that pilots should do before take-off and landing. This checklist is an example of a(n) _____. a. job aid b. instruction sheet c. task analysis form a. management development d. work function analysis b. management skills inventory e. skill sheet (a; moderate) c. succession planning 55. Travel agents at Apac Travel Services follow a computer program that displays question prompts and dialogue boxes with travel policies as the agent enters information about the consumer s travel plans. This is an example of a(n) _____. a. job aid b. electronic performance support system c. intelligent tutoring system d. computer-managed instruction e. computer-based training (b; moderate) 5 56. With _____, a trainer in a central location teaches groups of employees at remote locations via television hookups. a. lecturing 60. Which on-the-job training method is used for managerial positions? b. audiovisual-based instruction a. job rotation c. teletraining b. coaching d. teleteaching c. action learning e. distance learning (c; easy) 5 d. outside seminars 9. The _____ process consists of 1) anticipating management needs, 2) reviewing the firm s management skills inventory, and 3) creating replacement charts. a. management development b. management skills inventory c. succession planning d. action planning e. performance support (c; moderate) d. action planning e. performance support (a; moderate) 5 d. management development e. coaching (d; easy) 5 58. The _____ process consists of 1) assessing the company s strategic needs, 2) appraising the current performance of managers, and 3) developing the managers.

e. all of the above (e; easy) 61. In a(n) _____, carefully selected teams tackle real world business programs that extend beyond their usual areas of expertise and receive coaching and feedback on their work. a. management development program b. action learning program c. role playing program d. job instruction program e. understudy program (b; moderate) 62. The transparent barrier that women face when trying to move to top management is called the _____. a. glass ceiling b. glass wall c. invisible corner office d. iron wall e. Mount Everest (a; easy) 63. _____ is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees formulate the change that s required and implement it. a. Managerial development b. Action research c. Succession planning d. Organizational development e. Participative management (d; moderate) 64. Which of the following is not an application of organizational development? a. human process b. techno-structural

c. human resource management d. strategic e. interventions (e; moderate) 65. The basic aim of _____ is to increase the participants insight into their own behavior and the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group. a. sensitivity training b. action research c. group therapy d. diversity training e. coaching (a; moderate) 66. Which of the following organizational development techniques focuses on techno-structural applications? a. t-groups b. process consultation c. quality circles d. team building e. goal setting (c; moderate) 6 7. Which organizational development application involves examples like goal setting, performance appraisal, and employee wellness? a. human process b. strategic c. techno-structural d. human resource management e. process consultation (d; easy)

68. Which of the following is not measured to evaluate a training program? a. organizational productivity b. participants reactions to the program c. what trainees learned from the program d. changes in on-the-job behavior e. training objectives achieved (a; moderate) 6 69. In a _____, measures are taken before and after the training program so they can be compared to assess the effectiveness of the program. a. Soloman four-factor design b. time series design c. controlled experiment d. post-test only design e. factorial design (b; moderate) 70. When _____ are measured to assess the effectiveness of a training program, variables such as liking of the program, satisfaction with the program, and attitude toward the program are assessed. a. learning outcomes b. behavioral outcomes c. results d. reactions e. productivity levels (d; moderate) True/ False 71. Employee orientation programs range from brief, informal introductions to lengthy, formal courses. (T; easy) 72. Orientation refers to the methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs. (F; easy) 7 3. Most employers do not develop their own training materials. (T; easy) 7

4. Training sessions should be half-day or three-fourths day in length rather than a full day, because the learning curve goes down late in the day. (T; easy) 7 5. Employers face the same consequences for discriminating against protected individuals when selecting candidates for training programs as they would in selecting candidates for jobs. (T; moderate) 7 6. Employers must always pay employees for attending training programs. (F; moderate) 7 7. The main task in analyzing current employees training needs is to determin e what the job entails, break the job down into subtasks, and then teach each subtask to the employe e. (F; moderate) 7 8. Performance analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine what specific skills the job requires. (F; easy) 7 9. A disadvantage of on-the-job training is its expens e. (F; easy; p. 275) 80. Job instruction training is a step-by-step self-learning method which uses a textbook, computer, or the Internet. (F; moderate) 81. Literacy training is sometimes a part of a diversity training program. (T; moderate) 82. Succession planning is a type of management development program. (T; easy) 8 3. Lewin s change process consists of unfreezing, moving, and refreezing. (T; easy) 84. Management development is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it. (F; moderate) 8 5. Organizational development usually involves action research. (T; moderate) 8 6. Sensitivity training seeks to increase participants insight into their own behavior and the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer guided t-group. (T; moderate) 8 7. Survey research is a convenient way to unfreeze a company s management

and employees by providing comparative, graphic illustration of the fact that the organization does have problems to solve. (T; easy) 88. OD applications in human resource management involve changing firm structure, methods, and job design to improve efficiency and productivity. (F; moderate) 8 9. Survey research is a technostructural OD techniqu e. (F; moderate) 90. Human resource management OD applications use action research to enable employees to analyze and change their firm s personnel practices such as performance appraisal and reward systems. (T; easy) 91. Integrated strategic management is an OD method of developing and implementing a strategic change plan. (T; easy) 92. A survey of employee attitudes towards the training program is the most frequently used assessment method. (F; moderate) 9 3. When designing a training evaluation study, one can use a time series design or a controlled experiment. (T; moderate) 9 4. When a training program is evaluated by measuring the outcomes of a group who receives the training and another group that receives no training, it is called a time series design. (F; moderate) 9 5. The four categories of training outcomes are reactions, learning, behavior, and results. (T; easy) Essay/ Short Answer 96. What four things should a successful orientation program accomplish? (moderate) Answer: New employees should feel welcome and at ease. New employees should understand the organization in a broad sense including its past, present, culture, and vision for the future. They should be clear about what is expected in terms of work and behavior. They should have begun the socialization process into the firm s way of doing things. 97. Training is not useful if the trainee lacks the motivation to benefit from it. The more meaningful the material, the more motivated an employee should be to learn. How can a manager make training material more meaningful for employees? (easy) Answer: There are five suggestions for making training material more meaningful for employees. First, an overall picture of the training material that will be presented should be provided at the start of training. Second, familiar examples should be used. Third, the information should be logically organized and

presented. Fourth, the vocabulary used during training should be familiar to the trainees. Fifth, many visual aids should be used. 98. There are several sources of information an employer can use to identify a current employee s training needs. List five of these sources of information. (moderate) Answer: The possible sources of information include performance reviews (supervisor, peer, self, and 360 degree); job-related performance data such as productivity, absenteeism and tardiness, accidents, short-term sickness, grievances, waste, late deliveries, product quality, downtime, repairs equipment utilization, and customer complaints; observation by supervisors or other specialists; interviews with the employee or the supervisor; skill tests; attitude surveys; employee task diaries; and assessment center results. 9 9. Trainers often try to solve employee performance deficiencies with training, but some deficiencies can t be overcome with training. What other causes might exist for performance deficiency from an employee? (easy) Answer: Training is appropriate if the problem is caused by the employee failing to understand how to do, what to do, or what the standards for performance are. However, if employees are not provided with the proper resources for doing a job well then training cannot solve this problem. Likewise, if employees have the necessary knowledge and resources, then the may not be motivated to improve performance. 100. There are several types of on-the-job training. Identify and describe three types. Which one is used most often? Why? (moderate) Answer: The types of onthe-job training include the coaching or understudy method, the job rotation method, and the special assignments method. Using the understudy method, an experienced worker or the trainee s supervisor trains the employee. At lower levels, the trainee might observe the supervisor, but it is also used at higher levels. Job rotation means that an employee moves from job to job at planned intervals. This is common in management training programs. Special assignments give employees firsthand experience in working on actual problems. The coaching or understudy method is used most often. It is the simplest to execute and still offers the advantages of OTJ training.

101. What advantages are associated with on-the-job training? (moderate Answer: OJT is relatively inexpensive. Trainees learn while producing and there is no need for expensive training facilities like classrooms or programmed learning devices. OJT also facilitates learning because trainees learn by doing and get prompt feedback on their performance.

102. On-the-job training can be enhanced if trainers know the four-step job instruction technique. What are the four steps in job instruction? Explain what happens in each step. (moderate) Answer: The four steps in job instruction are to 1) prepare the learner, 2) present the operation, 3) do a tryout, 4) follow up. In the first step, the trainer should try to put the learner at ease and relieve tension. The trainer should explain why the trainee is being taught. The trainer should create interest in the training by encouraging questions and finding out what the learner already knows. The job should be explained to the trainee along with making sure the trainee is familiar with the equipment, materials, tools, and terminology of the trade. In the second step, the trainer should explain the quantity and quality requirements of the job. The job should be gone through at a normal pace and then at a slower pace several times while explaining each step. After the steps have been covered, the learner should explain the steps to the trainer while the trainer goes through the job at a slow pace. In the third step, the learner should go through the job several times slowly while explaining each step. Mistakes should be corrected. Then the learner should do the job at a normal pace. This should continue while the learner builds up skill and speed. Once the learner has demonstrated ability to do the job, the work should begin, but the trainer should stay close by. In the final step, the trainer should designate a contact person the learner can reach for help. Supervision should be gradually decreased but work should still be checked periodically for quality and quantity standards. Any faulty work patterns should be corrected. Finally good work should be complimented and the worker encouraged until able to performance standards. 103. Describe the programmed learning training method and explain the three parts of this form of instruction. (moderate) Answer: Programmed learning is a step-by-step self-learning method using a medium such as a textbook, computer, or the Internet. The three parts of the method include presenting questions, facts, and problems to the learner, allowing the person to respond, and then providing feedback on the accuracy of answers. 104. What is the goal of succession planning? What steps are involved in the process? (moderate) Answer: Succession planning refers to the process through which a company plans for and fills senior-level openings. The typical succession planning process involves several steps. First, anticipate management needs based on factors like planned expansion. Next, review the firm s management skills inventory to assess current talent. Then, create replacement charts that summarize potential candidates and each person s development needs. 105. Changing employee attitudes, skills, and behaviors can be difficult. Explain how Lewin s Change Process proposes how change should be implemented. (moderate) Answer: To Lewin, all behavior in organizations is a product of two kinds of forces those striving to maintain the status quo and those pushing for change.

Implementing change means either weakening the status quo forces or building up the forces for change. Lewin s change process consists of three steps: 1) unfreezing the forces that seek to maintain the status quo, 2) moving to develop new behaviors and attitudes, 3) refreezing the organization into its new system to prevent it from reverting to its old ways