Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 6/20 1. The nurse is teaching a class on biological warfare.
Which information should the nurse include in the presentation? a. Contaminated water is the only source of transmission of biological agents. b. Vaccines are available and being prepared to counteract biological agents. c. Biological weapons are less of a threat than chemical agents. d. Biological weapons are easily obtained and result in significant mortality. 2. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse assess in the client who has been exposed to the anthrax bacillus via the skin? a. A scabby, clear fluid±filled vesicle. b. Edema, pruritus, and a 2-mm ulcerated vesicle. c. Irregular brownish-pink spots around the hairline. d. Tiny purple spots flush with the surface of the skin. 3. The client has expired secondary to smallpox. Which information about funeral arrangements is most important for the nurse to provide to the client¶s family? a. The client must be cremated. b. Suggest an open casket funeral. c. Bury the client within 24 hours. d. Notify the public health department. 4. A chemical exposure has just occurred at an airport. An off-duty nurse, knowledgeable about biochemical agents, is giving directions to the travelers. Which direction should the nurse provide to the travelers? a. Hold their breath as much as possible. b. Stand up to avoid heavy exposure. c. Lie down to stay under the exposure. d. Attempt to breathe through their clothing. 5. The nurse is caring for a client in the prodromal phase of radiation exposure. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse assess in the client? a. Anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. b. Sudden fever, chills, and enlarged lymph nodes. c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. d. Flaccid paralysis, diplopia, and dysphagia. 6. The off-duty nurse hears on the television of a bioterrorism act in the community. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Immediately report to the hospital emergency room. b. Call the American Red Cross to find out where to go. c. Pack a bag and prepare to stay at the hospital. d. Follow the nurse¶s hospital policy for responding.
10. The 45-year-old male who is diaphoretic and clutching his chest.
. 4. c. A visitor slipped and fell on the floor that had just been mopped. and lethality of the agents. The nurse was stuck with a contaminated needle in the client¶s room. b. Which client should be assessed first? a. and plague. The 58-year-old female complaining of a headache and seeing spots.7. The nurse may be assigned as a first assistant in the operating room. Injuries are life threatening but survivable with minimal interventions. c. Injuries are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely. d. Which statement best describes the role of the medical-surgical nurse during a disaster? a. forming a 1-3 mm vesicle. which falls off in one (1) to 2 weeks. The triage nurse is working in the emergency department. b. Answer: B Rationale: Exposure to anthrax bacilli via the skin results in skin lesions. c. The nurse may be assigned to crowd control. Answer: D Rationale: Because of the variety of agents. c. Injuries are significant but can wait hours without threat to life or limb. Answer: A Rationale: Cremation is recommended because the virus can stay alive in the scabs of the body for 13 years. smallpox. 9. d. b. which cause edema with pruritus and the formation of macules or papules that ulcerate. is especially dangerous. biological weapons. Answer: B Rationale: Standing up will avoid heavy exposure the chemical will sink toward the floor or ground. A bottle of antineoplastic agent broke on the client¶s floor. The custodian spilled a chemical solvent in the hallway. b. Injuries are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. 2. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 6/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. including anthrax. The nurse may be assigned to ride in the ambulance. which situation would be considered a level red (Priority 1)? a. The nurse may be assigned to the emergency department. the means of transmission. 3. d. The 10-year-old child whose dad thinks the child¶s leg is broken. Which situation would warrant the nurse obtaining information from a material safety data sheet (MSDS)? a. The 25-year-old male who cut his hand with a hunting knife. d. 8. Then a painless eschar develops. According to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) triage system.
Perform the jaw thrust maneuver to open the airway. Answer: D Rationale: The nurse should follow the hospital¶s policy. c. Answer: A Rationale: The MSDS provides chemical information regarding specific agents. Cardiac death is the time that the physician officially declares the client dead. c. The death is caused by myocardial ischemia resulting from coronary artery disease. 10. Use the mouth to cover the client¶s mouth and nose. 9. Answer: B Rationale: The triage nurse should see this client first because these are symptoms of a myocardial infarction. d. d. Individuals in this group can progress rapidly to expectant if treatment is delayed. It is required for every chemical that is found in the hospital. respiratory distress. anorexia. 6. and fatigue.
Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 5/20 1. which potentially life is threatening. Insert an oral airway prior to performing mouth to mouth. 2. 7. b. b. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement when performing mouthto-mouth resuscitation on a client who has pulseless ventricular fibrillation? a. and spill information for a variety of chemicals. Which statement best explains the definition of sudden cardiac death? a. The nurse is teaching CPR to a class. medicalsurgical nurses can provide first aid and be required to work in unfamiliar settings. Answer: D Rationale: This is called the immediate category. 8. diarrhea. Cardiac death occurs after being removed from a mechanical ventilator. Answer: D Rationale: New settings and atypical roles for nurses may be required during disasters. Higher exposures of radiation signs/symptoms include fever. Answer: C Rationale: The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs 48±72 hours after exposure and the signs/symptoms are nausea.
. health information.5. Many times nurses will stay at home until decisions are made as to where the employees should report. vomiting. and excitability. Use a pocket mouth shield to cover client¶s mouth. Cardiac death occurs within one (1) hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms.
³Where were you immediately before you got sick?´ c. Gastric distention can occur as a result of ventilation. c. ³Do you work or live near any large power lines?´ b. b. 4. b. A person is ventilating with an ambu bag. Which category of personal protective equipment (PPE) would the response team wear? a. c. Level C d. A person is keeping an accurate record of the code. ³Can you write down everything you ate today?´ d. ³What other health problems do you have?´ 7. d. Health-care facilities should keep masks at entry doors. Level A b. d. c. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask each client to determine if there is a bioterrorism threat? a. It keeps the vomitus away from the health-care provider. 5. When assessing the situation. A person is performing chest compressions correctly. d. c. Which statement explains the scientific rationale for having emergency suction equipment available during resuscitation efforts? a. The health-care facility has been notified that an alleged inhalation anthrax exposure has occurred at the local post office.3. Which equipment must be immediately brought to the client¶s bedside when a code is called for a client who has experienced a cardiac arrest? a. The EPA has divided PPE into four levels of protection
. Level D 8. Which statement is the most important fact that must be shared with the participants? a. The nursing administrator responds to a code situation. 6. which role must the administrator ensure is performed for legal purposes and continuity of care of the client? a. A crash cart. A person is administering medications as ordered. A ventilator. It is needed to assist when intubating the client. A gurney. Portable oxygen. The nurse is teaching a class on bioterrorism and is discussing personal protective equipment (PPE). The respondent should be trained in the proper use of PPE. The nurse in the emergency department has admitted five (5) clients in the last two (2) hours with complaints of fever and gastrointestinal distress. This equipment will ensure a patent airway. No single combination of PPE protects against all hazards. b. Level B c. d. b.
Answer: A Rationale: Gastric distention occurs from overventilating clients. d. Assume the clients have been decontaminated at the plant. and
. Answer: D Rationale: Nurses should protect themselves against possible communicable disease. 3. Triage the clients and send them to the appropriate areas. Answer: B Rationale: The nurse should take note of any unusual illness for the time of year or clusters of clients coming from a single geographical location who all exhibit signs/symptoms of possible biological terrorism. What is the scientific rationale for designating a specific area for decontamination? a. 10. d. b. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 5/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. 5. c. The nurse is teaching a class on bioterrorism. 2. b. c. It provides a centralized area for stocking the needed supplies. the pressure will cause vomiting that could be aspirated into the lungs.9. Answer: D Rationale: The chart is a legal document and the code must be documented in the chart and provide information that may be needed in the intensive care unit. Showers and privacy can be provided to the client in this area. Which action should the nurse implement first when the clients arrive at the emergency department? a. 7. 4. eye. 6. The triage nurse in a large trauma center has been notified of an explosion in a major chemical manufacturing plant. hepatitis. This area isolates the clients who have been exposed to the agent. Answer: A Rationale: Level A protection is worn when the highest level of respiratory. When compressions are performed. Remove the clients¶ clothing and have them shower. Thoroughly wash the clients with soap and water and then rinse. skin. Answer: B Rationale: The crash cart is the mobile unit that has the defibrillator and all the medications and supplies needed to conduct a code. or any types of sexually transmitted disease. Answer: C Rationale: Unexpected death occurring within1 hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms is the definition of sudden cardiac death. such as HIV. It prevents secondary contamination to the health-care providers.
Depending on the type of exposure. Remove the client¶s clothing from the action first? time.´ Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. such protection is required. Monitor for elevated blood glucose at random intervals. d. the safer the community and area. 10. Instruct the client with hyperglycemia about insulin injections.
. 9. Inspect the skin and sclera of the eyes for a yellow tint.´ c. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the collaborative problem of ³altered nutrition. Refer to the dietitian. Which should the nurse take a. ³I am sure that this is not going to be a serious problem for me to deal with. Answer: C Rationale: This is the first step. 8. The nurse should take note of any unusual illness for the time of year or clusters of clients coming from a single geographical location who all exhibit signs/symptoms of possible biological terrorism. Which statement made by the client indicates the client understands the discharge instructions? a. In this situation of possible inhalation of anthrax. d. 4. The client is taken to the emergency department with an injury to the left arm. ³I will have to see the HCP every day for six (6) weeks for my treatments. even with all the training and protective equipment. Which self-care activity should the nurse teach that is an example of primary nursing care? a. Assess for food preferences.´ b. ³I should write down all my questions so I can ask them when I see the HCP. c. Limit meat in the diet and eat a diet that is low in fats. b. Continuous feedings via PEG tube.ion. The nurse is planning a program for clients at a health fair regarding the prevention and early detection of cancer of the pancreas.´ 3. Assess the nail beds for capillary refill b. this step alone can remove a large portion of exposure. arm. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 4/20 1. c.mucous membrane protection is required.´ d. Answer: D Rationale: Avoiding cross contamination is a priority for personnel and equipment²the fewer number of people exposed. The client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas is being discharged to start chemotherapy in the HCP¶s office. Have the family bring in foods from home. ³The nurse will give me an injection in my leg and I will get to go home. Answer: C Rationale: The health-care providers are not guaranteed absolute protects. 2. b.
9. The 60-year-old client exhibiting asymptomatic sinus bradycardia.c. The social worker. Requests to be relieved from performing compressions because of exhaustion. Which is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement when participating in a code? a. c. d. The respiratory therapist. Prepare the client for the application of a cast. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. b. d. d. The AED will perform cardiac compressions on the client. Has one hand on the lower half of the sternum above the xiphoid process. c. b. The director of nurses. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. b. It analyzes the rhythm and shocks the client in ventricular fibrillation. The 53-year-old client exhibiting ventricular fibrillation. The nurse finds the client unresponsive on the floor of the bathroom. The 84-year-old client exhibiting uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. The hospital chaplain. c. Elevate the arm after administering medication.
extremity. Which behavior by the unlicensed assistive personnel who is performing cardiac compressions on an adult client during a code warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? a. b. Depresses the sternum 0. b. 6. do not watch the monitor.
5. Which statement best describes an AED? a. Shake the client and shout. c. Which health-care team member referral should be made when a code is being conducted on a client in a community hospital? a. 8. Maintain sterile technique throughout the code. The 65-year-old client exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia. d. Call radiology for a STAT d. Which client is most likely to experience sudden cardiac death? a. Be sure to provide accurate documentation of what happened in the code. It will keep the health-care provider informed of the client¶s oxygen level. b. Performs cardiac compressions and allows for rescue breathing. c. 10. The CPR instructor is explaining what an automated external defibrillator (AED) does to students in a CPR class.
. Call a code via the bathroom call light. Check the client for breathing.5 to one (1) inch during compressions. The client will be able to have synchronized cardioversion with the AED. d. Treat the client¶s signs/symptoms. d. c. 7.
5 to 2 inches during compressions to ensure adequate circulation of blood to the body. 2. Answer: Rationale: A collaborative intervention would be to refer to the nutrition expert. ventricular fibrillation is responsible for 65% to 85% of sudden cardiac deaths. A
9. 10. The nurse should always treat the client based on the nurse¶s assessment and data from the monitors. the nurse needs to correct the assistant. By changing these behaviors the client could possibly prevent the development of cancer of the pancreas. Answer: B Rationale: The most important person in the treatment of the cancer is the client. Other risk factors include genetic predisposition and exposure to industrial chemicals.Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 4/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Answer: C Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is the most common dysrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac death. an intervention should not be based on data from the monitors without the nurse¶s assessment. D
4. Answer: A Rationale: The chaplain should be called to help address the client¶s family or significant others. Research has proved that the more involved a client becomes in his or her care. Answer: A Rationale: The nurse should assess the nail beds for the capillary refill time. 7. A small community hospital would not have a 24-hour on-duty pastoral service. Risk factors for the development of cancer of the pancreas are cigarette smoking and eating a high-fat diet that is high in animal protein. Answer: C Rationale: This is the most important intervention. Answer: Rationale: This is the correct statement explaining what an AED does when used in a code. 5. Answer: C Rationale: Limiting the intake of meat and fats in the diet would be an example of primary interventions. the better the prognosis. A prolonged time (greater than three seconds) indicates impaired circulation to the extremity. 3.
. Answer: C Rationale: The sternum should be depressed 1. 6. the dietitian. therefore. Answer: C Rationale: This is the first intervention the nurse should implement after finding the client unresponsive on the floor. 8. Clients should have a chance to ask all the questions that they have.
CT is admitted in the area due to a fractured skull from a motor accident.Nursing Board Sample Review Questions in Emergency
22 Jul. In starting fluid replacement therapy. Presence of abdominal drains for several days after surgery 2. Required d. Do inspection and palpation to check extent of his injuries
. Talk to the physician for an order of valium d. In determining the adequacy of fluid resuscitation. Expectation of postoperative bleeding c. He begins to complain of increased abdominal pain in the left upper quadrant. Emergency Questions Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 3/20 1. you noticed anxious he looks. cardiac output 3. Lucky was in a vehicular acccident where he sustained injury to his left ankle. you initially: a. You scheduled him for surgery under which classification? a. Urgent b. the total volume and rate of IV fluid repalcement are gauged by the patient¶s response and by the patient¶s response and by the resuscitation formula. Risk of the procedure with his other injuries d. blood pressure c. 2010 | Written by Nursingbuzz_editor | under Emergency Nursing Review Questions. Complete safety of the procedure b. A ruptured spleen is diagnosed and he is scheduled for emergency splenectomy. intracranial pressure d. A client with multiple injury following a vehicular accident is transferred to the critical care unit. it is essential for you to monitor the: a. In preparing the client for surgery. Identify yourself and state your purpose in being with the client b. Take him to the radiology section for x-ray of affected extremity c. urine output b. You are a nurse in the emergency department and it is during the shift that Mr. In the Emergency room. You establish rapport with him and to reduce his anxiety. your next goal is to prevent this you have to replace the lost fluid and electrolytes. Emergent c. the nurse should emphasize in his teaching plan the: a. After you managed to stabilize the respiratory function of your burn patient. Elective 4.
The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the nursing diagnosis of ³risk for altered skin integrity related to pruritus. Night sweats and fever.
. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client¶s significant other? a. Left lower abdominal cramps and tenesmus. Perform a complete head-to-toe assessment. The client admitted to rule out pancreatic islet tumors complains of feeling weak. Apply antifungal creams. The client diagnosed with a mild concussion is being discharged from the emergency department. b. and sweaty. which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find? a. Notify the health-care provider. Acute incisional pain. Clay-colored stools and dark urine.5. Which intervention should be the emergency department nurse¶s first action? a. Observe frequently for hypervigilance. Anticipatory grieving.´ Which interventions should the nurse implement? a. c. b. Fluid volume imbalance. Awaken the client every two hours. The client diagnosed with Addison¶s disease is admitted to the emergency department after a day at the lake. The client is lethargic. Offer the client food every three to four hours. Collect urinalysis and blood samples for a CBC and calcium level. b. 9. c. Which should be the first intervention implemented by the nurse? a. forgetful. Which nursing problem has the highest priority? a. d. c. When assessing the patient. 6. b. d. d. d. d. 8. Have the client wait in the waiting room until a bed is available. The client diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas is two (2) days postpancreatoduodenectomy (Whipple¶s procedure). c. Perform a bedside glucose check. c. and weak. Give the client some orange juice. c. Have the client keep the fingernails short. b. d. The client is diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas. 7. b. Monitor for increased intracranial pressure. Nausea and coffee-ground emesis. Monitor bony prominences for breakdown. Start an IV with D5W. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle and infuse NS rapidly. 10. Altered nutrition. shaky. Assess tissue turgor.
Answer: A Rationale: Awakening the client every 2 hours allows the identification of headache. 5. urine output totals an index of renal perfusion. Optional surgeries are done by preference only.Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 3/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. lethargy. irritability. Answer: A Rationale: Introducing self initiates the nurse-patient interaction. Maintaining the circulatory system without overloading it requires extremely close monitoring. immediately without delay to maintain life. Answer: A Rationale: to establish the sufficiency of fluid resuscitation. a pulse rate less than110 beats/min or both. Answer: B Rationale: Emergent surgery is performed. and anxiety²all signs of post-concussion syndrome²that would warrant the significant other¶s taking the client back to the emergency department. urine output totals of 30-50 ml/hour have been used as resuscitation goals. 8. 2. Answer: D Rationale: Keeping the fingernails short will reduce the chance of breaks in the skin from scratching. 7. thereby reducing anxiety. Urine output totals an index of renal perfusion. Elective surgery is scheduled and done at the convenience of client as failure to have surgery is not catastrophic. 6. Rapid IV fluid replacement is necessary. and there are massive fluid volume shifts that occur when this type of trauma is experienced by the body. 3.
. Answer: A Rationale: This client has been exposed to wind and sun at the lake during the hours prior to being admitted to the emergency department. Answer: D Rationale: Presence of abdominal drains for several days after surgery Drains are usually inserted into the splenic bed to facilitate removal of fluid in the area that could lead to abscess formation. Required surgery is done within a few weeks as surgery is important. Urgent surgery requires prompt attention and is done few hours but within 24 to 48 hours. Answer: B Rationale: This is a major abdominal surgery. Other indicators of adequate fluid replacement are systolic blood pressure exceeding 100 mmHg. limb or organ. This prevents confusion and let the client know what to expect. This predisposes the client to dehydration and an Addisonian crisis. remove damage and stop bleeding. relationship and the purpose of being with the client. 4. dizziness.
aspirating secretions from the pharynx if respirations are affected c. Pain. Speak to one parent at a time so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the
. Respiratory rate and blood pressure d. speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely c. It is feared his leg may have to be amputated. Monitoring the client with cardiac telemetry d. Intervention for a pt. who has swallowed a Muriatic Acid includes all of the following except a. neutralizing the chemical d. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 2/20 1 Which nursing intervention would be appropriate when caring for a client who has sustained an electrical burn? a. washing the esophagus with large volumes of water via gastric lavage 5. He has suffered multiple crushing wounds of the chest. When Eddie arrives in the emergency room. He is pronounced dead on arrival. An emergency treatment for an acute asthmatic attack is Adrenaline 1:1000 given hypodermically. 16 years old. Eddie. A bedside glucose check should be done. decrease mucosal swelling c. Applying ice to the burned area b. abdomen and legs. When his parents arrive at the hospital.9. 10. Quality of respirations and presence of pulses. Pancreatic islet tumors can produce hyperinsulinemia or hypoglycemia. Level of consciousness and pupil size b. ask them to stay in the waiting area until she can spend time alone with them b. increase BP b. is brought to the ER after a vehicular accident. Abdominal contusions and other wounds c. Answer: A Rationale: The client will have jaundice. is brought to the emergency room after the crash of his private plane. relax the bronchial smooth muscle d. Flushing the burn area with large amounts of water c. administering an irritant that will stimulate vomiting b. 40 years old. Answer: C Rationale: These are symptoms of an insulin reaction (hypoglycemia). Preparing to administer the chemical antidote 2. John. clay-colored stools. This is given to: a. the nurse should: a. decrease bronchial secretions 4. the assessment that assume the greatest priority are: a. and tea-colored urine resulting from blockage of the bile drainage. 3.
The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust). upper half of the sternum b. for acute airway obstruction. upper third of the sternum c. attempts to: a. b. Applying ice is
. ask the MD to medicate the parents so they can stay calm to deal with their son¶s death. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 2/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Begin mouth to mouth resuscitation b. all clients experiencing electrical burns should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The appropriate initial action should be to a. speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely c. lower third of the sternum 10. Call for the emergency response team 7. Put pressure on the apex of the heart 9. A nurse is eating in the hospital cafeteria when a toddler at a nearby table chokes on a piece of food and appears slightly blue. Force air out of the lungs b. ask the MD to medicate the parents so they can stay calm to deal with their son¶s death. is brought to the ER after a vehicular accident. which action would have the highest priority? a. John. Give the child water to help in swallowing c. the nurse understands the correct hand placement is located over the a. When his parents arrive at the hospital.other d. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult patient. d. ask them to stay in the waiting area until she can spend time alone with them b. c. lower half of the sternum d. His diagnosis is gouty arthritis. Apply hot compresses to the affected joints. 6. Speak to one parent at a time so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the other d. 16 years old. Stress the importance of maintaining good posture to prevent deformities. When performing chest compressions. Answer: C Rationale: Because of the effects of the electrical current on the cardiovascular system. Increase systemic circulation c. He is pronounced dead on arrival. Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day. Perform 5 abdominal thrusts d. Administer salicylates to minimize the inflammatory reaction. When developing a plan of care. the nurse should: a. A client is admitted from the emergency department with severe-pain and edema in the right foot. Induce emptying of the stomach d. 8.
2. answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move on and be of support to one another. 7. This includes gastric lavage and the administration of activated charcoal to absorb the poison. 5. gastric emptying procedure is immediately instituted. 4. Basic life functions must be maintained or reestablished 3. Chemical antidotes may be used for chemical burns for which an antidote has been identified. Assisting them with information they need to know. Answer: D Rationale: Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day. 9. Answer: D Rationale: Respiratory and cardiovascular functions are essential for oxygenation. forces air out of the lungs and creates an artificial cough that expels the aspirated material. Answer: C Rationale: Acute asthmatic attack is characterized by severe bronchospasm which can be relieved by the immediate administration of bronchodilators. Measures are taken to immediately remove the toxin or reduce its absorption. The pressure from the thrusts lifts the diaphragm. Answer: A Rationale: The Heimlich maneuver is used to assist a person choking on a foreign object. Answer: A Rationale: Swallowing of corrosive substances causes severe irritation and tissue destruction of the mucous membrane of the GI tract. For corrosive poison ingestion. They go into a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Gouty arthritis is a metabolic disease marked by urate deposits that cause painful arthritic joints. 8. Vomiting is only indicated when non-corrosive poison is swallowed. The patient should be urged to increase his fluid intake to prevent the development of urinary uric acid stones. Only chemical burns should be flushed with large amounts of water. Answer: C Rationale: Perform 5 abdominal thrusts. the most effective way to clear the airway of food is to perform abdominal thrusts.inappropriate for any type of burn. such as in muriatic acid where burn or perforation of the mucosa may occur. Answer: B Rationale: Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. These are top priorities to trauma management. 6. At this age. Adrenaline or Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that causes bronchial dilation by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles. Answer: C Rationale: The exact and safe location to do cardiac compression is the lower half of the
. Administering an irritant with the concomitant vomiting to remove the swallowed poison will further cause irritation and damage to the mucosal lining of the digestive tract.
sternum. Answer: B Rationale: Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. They go into a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Doing it at the lower third of the sternum may cause gastric compression which can lead to a possible aspiration. 10. Assisting them with information they need to know. answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move on and be of support to one another.