Which one of the following ECG components varies with heart rate a. PR interval b. QRS duration c. ST segment d.

QT interval e. QRS voltage
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Which of the following cardiac parameters decreases during pregnancy a. Cardiac output b. Stroke volume c. Heart rate d. Blood volume e. Systemic vascular resistance
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Which of the following occurs during systole a. Blood passes from atria into the ventricles b. The atrioventricular (AV) valves are open c. Rapid ventricular filling occurs d. The ventricles contract e. Atrial contraction propels final proportion of blood into ventricles
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Cardiac output, the volume of blood ejected from the ventricles in 1 minute, is equal to which of the following a. The product of heart rate and stroke volume b. The product of contractility and preload c. The difference between preload and afterload d. The product of heart rate and preload e. The difference between contractility and afterload
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Which of the following would represent left or right atrial enlargement on a surface electrocardiogram a. Wide or tall P wave b. Wide or tall T wave c. A prominent U wave d. An elevated J point e. A large QRS voltage
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Which of the following is often noted during hypokalemia a. Prominent P wave b. Prominent QRS complex c. Long Q–T interval d. Prominent U wave e. J point elevation
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Which of the following represent repolarization of the ventricles a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. J point e. U wave
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Which of the following would widen if a bundle branch block were present a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. J point e. U wave
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Which of the following associations is correct a. Hypokalemia: shortened Q–T interval b. Hypercalcemia: long Q–T interval c. Hypercalcemia: flattened T waves d. Hypocalcemia: U waves e. Hyperkalemia: peaked T waves
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Which of the following arterial pulse waveforms is consistent with severe left ventricular impairment a. Parvus et tardus pulse b. Bisferiens pulse c. Pulsus alternans d. Hyperkinetic pulse e. Dicrotic pulse
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Which of the following arteriole pulse waveforms is consistent with aortic stenosis a. Pulsus alternans b. Pulsus tardus c. Bisferiens pulse d. Dicrotic pulse e. Parvus et tardus pulse
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Which of the following conditions is consistent with a hypokinetic arterial pulse a. Left ventricular failure b. Hypovolemia c. Restrictive pericardial disease d. Mitral stenosis e. All of these
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Which of the following statements is true of reversed splitting of the first heart sound a. The mitral component follows the tricuspid component b. It may be present in severe mitral stenosis c. It may be present with a left atrial myxoma d. It may be present with a left bundle branch block e. All of these
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Which of the following heart sounds is produced by closure of the AV valves a. S3 b. Opening snap c. S1 d. S2 e. S4
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Which of the following heart sounds is produced by closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonic) valves a. S3 b. Opening snap c. S1 d. S2 e. S4
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Which of the following heart sounds is low pitched and produced in the ventricle at the termination of rapid filling, heard in normal children and in patients with increased cardiac output a. S3 b. Opening snap c. S1 d. S2 e. S4
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Which of the following heart sounds is low pitched, presystolic sound of ventricular filling produced by atrial contraction a. S1 b. Opening snap c. Midsystolic click d. S3 e. S4
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Which of the following heart sounds is high pitched, early diastolic sound, usually due to mitral stenosis a. S1 b. Opening snap c. Midsystolic click d. S3 e. S4
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Which of the following heart sounds is often caused by mitral or tricuspid valve prolapse a. S1 b. Opening snap c. Midsystolic click d. S3 e. S4
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The onset of the QRS complex on surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV e. Phase 0
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The isoelectric ST segment on surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV e. Phase 0
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The T wave on the surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III d. Phase IV e. Phase 0
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Which of the following is represented by a prolonged PR interval and is due to delayed AV conduction a. Asystole b. Third-degree AV block type c. Second-degree AV block type I d. First-degree AV block e. Second-degree AV block type II
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Which of the following AV blocks is characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to loss of AV conduction a. First-degree AV block b. Second-degree AV block type I c. Second-degree AV block type II d. Third-degree AV block
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Which of the following is the correct sequence for myocardial depolarization a. AV node → bundle of His → atria b. Bundle of His → AV node → left ventricle → c. Sinoatrial (SA node) → AV node → bundle of His → right and left ventricles d. SA node → left ventricle →bundle of His
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Which ECG leads represent the inferior cardiac wall a. V1, V2 b. V3, V4 c. aVR d. I, aVL e. II, III, aVF
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Which of the following produces a diastolic murmur a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Supravalvular aortic stenosis e. Tricuspid regurgitation
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Loss of P waves on surface ECG is consistent with a. First-degree AV block b. Atrial flutter c. Atrial fibrillation d. Sinus bradycardia e. Second-degree AV block type I
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Cardiac output is the product of a. Preload × stroke volume b. Afterload × heart rate c. Heart rate × stroke volume d. Contractility × preload e. Preload × heart rate
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Which of the following is true regarding right ventricular hypertrophy a. The hypertrophy may result from aortic valve stenosis b. The hypertrophy is characterized by poor R wave progression in leads V1 to V3 c. The hypertrophy is usually associated with left axis deviation d. There are no associated ST-T wave changes e. The hypertrophy is secondary to an atrial septal defect

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