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Prof. Niknejad University of California, Berkeley

Last lecture we derived that the total magnetic energy in a circuit is given by

1 1 2 2 Em = L1 I1 + L2 I2 + M I1 I2 2 2 We would like to show that this implies that M L1 L2 . Lets re-write the above into the following positive denite form Em 1 M I2 = L1 I1 + 2 L1

2

1 + 2

M2 L2 L1

2 I2

An important observation is that regardless of the current I1 or I2 , the magnetic energy is non-negative, so Em 0

University of California, Berkeley

Consider the current I2 = term in Em

1 Em = 2

2 Since I2 0, we have L1 M I1 ,

M2 L2 L1

2 I2 0

M2 L2 0 L1

L1 L2 M 2

University of California, Berkeley

Coupling Coefcient

Usually we express this inequality as

M =k L1 L2

If two circuits are perfectly coupled (all ux from circuit one crosses circuit 2), k = 1 (ideal transformer) Note that M < 0 implies that k < 0, which is totally reasonable as long as k lies on the unit interval 1 k 1

Negative coupling just means that the ux gets inverted before crossing the second circuit. This is easily achieved by winding the circuits with opposite orientation.

University of California, Berkeley

B F

+ + + +

Consider moving a bar in a constant magnetic eld The conductors therefore feel a force

Fm = qv B

This causes charge separation and thus the generation of an internal electric eld that cancels the magnetic eld E=vB

Motion (cont)

++ ++ + +

Fe

2 2

Vind =

E d =

(v B) d

I RL

A B D

v0

z

C

Consider the following generator. A bar of length moves to the right with velocity v0 (always making contact with the rest of the circuit)

D

Vind =

C

(v B) d =

(v0 B0 ) ydy = v0 B0 x z

University of California, Berkeley

Energy Dissipated by R

This current ows through the resistor RL where the energy of motion of the bar is converted to heat The load will dissipate energy

(v0 B0 )2 PL = I 2 RL = RL

This power comes from the mechanical work in moving the bar. The force experienced by a current carrying wire dF = Id B

D D

Fm = I

C

d B = I

dy B0 = IB0 y z

University of California, Berkeley

(im)Practical Example

Lets say we do this experiment using the earths magnetic eld Use a bar with length = 1 m, B0 = 0.5 G To induce only 1 V, we have to move the bar at a speed of Vind = 2 104 m/s v0 = B0 The magnetic eld on the surface of a neutron star is about B0 1012 G, or about 108 T. Even moving at a speed of v0 = 1 m/s, we generate

Vind = 108 V

University of California, Berkeley

Note that this problem is just as easy to solve using Faradays Law The ux crossing the loop is increasing at a constant rate (t) = 0 + v0 tB0 Where 0 is the initial ux at t = 0 The induced voltage is simply

Vind d = = v0 B0 dt

An AC Generator

+ V B

sinusoidal motion

If we connect our metal bar to a piston, in turn connecting to a water-wheel or otherwise rotating wheel, we have a crude generator To generate substantial voltage, we need a strong magnetic eld Say we rotate the wheel at a rate of = 2 103 s1 , or 1000 RPS (revolutions per second)

An AC Generator (cont)

The ux is now

= 0 + B0 Am cos t

= Am B0 sin t = Vind

Plugging in some numbers, we see that with a relatively strong magnetic eld of 1 T, an amplitude Am = 1 m, = 1 m, the voltage generated is reasonable

Vind = 2 103 sin t

University of California, Berkeley

AC Motor/Generator

I

I B0 = xB0

A simple AC motor/generator consists of a rotating loop cutting through a constant magnetic eld. The slip rings maintain contact with the loop as it rotates.

University of California, Berkeley

AC Motor/Generator

If AC current is passed through the loop, it rotates at a rate determined by the frequency. If, on the other hand, the loop is rotated mechanically and the circuit is closed with a load, mechanical power is converted to electricity The ux in the loop of area A is simply

= AB0 cos

The phase = 0 t so

Vind = = AB0 0 sin 0 t

We have now studied the complete set of Maxwells Equations . In Integral form

d E d = dt C d H d = dt C

S

B dS J dS

D dS + dV

V

D dS =

S

B dS = 0

The elds are related by the following material parameters

D = E J = E For most materials we assume that these are scalar relations. B E= t P E + 0 (J + + M) B = 0 0 t t 1 E = ( P) 0 B=0

University of California, Berkeley

B = H

In source free regions = 0 and J = 0. Assume the material is uniform (no bound charges or currents)

B E= t E B = 0 0 t E=0 B=0

Wave Motion

B E E B E B

wave motion

We can see intuitively that wave motion is possible

E t

B t

E t

. . ., that

Under time-harmonic conditions (many important practical cases are time harmonic, or nearly so, or else Fourier analysis can handle non-harmonic cases)

E = jB H = J + jD E= B=0

These equations are not all independent. Take the divergence of the curl, for instance

( E) 0 = j B

University of California, Berkeley

In other words, the non-existence of magnetic charge is built-in to our curl equation. If magnetic charge is ever observed, wed have to modify our equations This is analogous to the displacement current that Maxwell introduced to make the curl of H equation self-consistent

( H) 0 = J + j D J= = j t This implies that D = , so Gauss law is built-in to our curl equations as well.

The boundary conditions on the E-eld at the interface of two media is

n (E1 E2 ) = 0

Or equivalently, E1t = E2t . If magnetic charges are ever found, then this condition will have to include the possibility of a surface magnetic current The boundary conditions on H are similar

n (H1 H2 ) = Js

For the interface of a perfect conductor, for example, a surface current ows so that (H2 = 0)

n H1 = Js

University of California, Berkeley

Applying the pillbox argument to the divergence of current

( J)dV = J dS = dV t

in the limit

s J1n J2n = t where s is the surface current. In the static case J1n = J2n

implies that 1 E1 = 2 E2 . This implies that s = 0 since 1 E1 = 2 E2 (unless the ratios of match the ratio of perfectly!)

University of California, Berkeley

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