Module 06. Materials & Hardware 01a. Aircraft Materials - Ferrous. Question Number. 1. When drilling stainless steel, use a.

Option A. drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed. Option B. drill ground to 90 °, fast cutting speed. Option C. drill ground to 90 °, slow cutting speed. Correct Answer is. drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 2. How is a material galvanised?. Option A. Sprayed with nickel solution. Option B. Packed in a drum containing zinc dust and heated. Option C. Dipped in a bath of molten zinc. Correct Answer is. Dipped in a bath of molten zinc. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 3. What temperature would steel be tempered at?. Option A. At the annealing temperature. Option B. Above the annealing temperature. Option C. Below the annealing temperature. Correct Answer is. Below the annealing temperature. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 4. Tempering steel gives.

Option A. greater brittleness. Option B. greater hardness. Option C. relief of internal stress after hardening. Correct Answer is. relief of internal stress after hardening. Explanation. Tempering is done to relieve internal stresses. Question Number. 5. The addition of chromium to steel will produce. Option A. toughness. Option B. hardness. Option C. ductility. Correct Answer is. hardness. Explanation. Chromium is alloyed with steel to make it harder. Question Number. 6. Chromium added to plain carbon steel. Option A. increases it's resistance to corrosion. Option B. turns it into a non-ferrous alloy. Option C. makes the metal softer. Correct Answer is. increases it's resistance to corrosion. Explanation. Chromium, when added to steel increases its hardness and corrosion resistance (hence CRS). Question Number. 7. The purpose of case hardening is to. Option A. produce a hard case over a tough core. Option B. reduce the carbon in the steel. Option C. introduce carbon into the steel. Correct Answer is. produce a hard case over a tough core. Explanation. Case hardening hardens the surface only.

Question Number. 8. At normal temperatures HC steel is harder because. Option A. it has more austenite. Option B. of the % of carbon in the granules. Option C. it has less austenite. Correct Answer is. of the % of carbon in the granules. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 9. Nitriding is. Option A. tempering. Option B. anodising. Option C. case hardening. Correct Answer is. case hardening. Explanation. Nitriding is a form of case hardening. Question Number. 10. Medium carbon steels have a carbon content of. Option A. 0.3 - 0.5 %. Option B. 0.5 - 0.8 %. Option C. 0.8 - 1.05 %. Correct Answer is. 0.3 - 0.5 %. Explanation. Medium carbon steel is 0.3 - 0.6% (approx). FAA AC43 4-1. Question Number. 11. A ferrous metal contains. Option A. aluminium. Option B. iron. Option C. magnesium. Correct Answer is. iron. Explanation. Ferrous' is from the Latin for iron.

Question Number. 12. With respect to ferrous metals which of the following is true?. Option A. Iron is not any element of ferrous metals. Option B. Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are magnetic. Option C. Iron is a main element and ferrous metals are not magnetic. Correct Answer is. Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are magnetic. Explanation. The Latin for iron is 'Ferrum' Ferrous metals are named thus, and most are paramagnetic with the exception of some stainless steels. Question Number. 13. The annealing process on steel is required sometimes as it. Option A. provides a corrosion resistant layer that prevents oxidation. Option B. allows the material a greater stress per unit area. Option C. relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes. Correct Answer is. relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes. Explanation. Annealing is to relieve internal stresses. Question Number. 14. Cobalt steel tested on the Brinell test would have a BHN number between. Option A. 100 to 175. Option B. 300 to 400. Option C. 600 to 700. Correct Answer is. 600 to 700. Explanation. Cobalt steel (used in cobalt drills) has a very high hardness (600-700 BHN or 60-65 Rockwell C). BL/10-3. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. 15. If a material is found to be in the tertiary phase of creep the following procedure should be implemented:.

The component should under go dye penetrant process and condition monitored. The crack should be stop drill, condition monitoring should be applied. The component should be replaced immediately.

Option C. Explanation. Workshop Technology Part 1 Pg 209. Option B. Phosphating of steels is carried out by immersing the steel in to a solution of. .11.3. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. heating under the UCP and slow cooling. Copper sulphate is used for marking steel.1. Correct Answer is. Option A. 16. non-magnetic. metal phosphates and sulphuric acid. Austenitic stainless steels are. Option A. Option C. magnetic. nitric acid and sulphur. The tertiary phase of creep occurs just before complete failure of the component. Option B. What is used for marking out steels?. Option A. CAIPs BL/7-4 1. Tempering entails. Explanation. Correct Answer is. phosphoric acid and metal phosphates. heat to BELOW the Lower Critical Temperature (LCT) and cool either slowly or quench in water. Engineers blue. heating over the UCP and fast cooling. 17. 18. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. heating under the UCP and slow cooling. To temper steel. Option A. Copper sulphate. heating over the UCP and slow cooling. Explanation. Copper sulphate. Wax crayon. Option C. The component should be replaced immediately. 19. BL/10-3 3. Question Number. Question Number. phosphoric acid and metal phosphates.

formation of cementite. Option B. Question Number. 21. Degaussing is another name for demagnetising. The hardness of steel depends upon. Option C. 23. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the formation of austenite into pearlite. The difference between annealing and normalizing is. 20. the iron austenite grain structure. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 22. EMI. Option C. How is residual magnetism removed after an NDT examination?. Option B. hardened by heat treatment. the presence of pearlite in the structure. Option A. Option B. Degaussing. . Austenite exists above the LCT and turns into pearlite as the steel cools.Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. formation of pearlite into austenite. non-magnetic. the formation of austenite into pearlite. EMC. Cementite (iron carbide) is the hard grain structure that precipitates from the austenite as high carbon steel cools from above the UCT. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Austenitic stainless steel is non-magnetic. Option A. Degaussing. the formation of pearlite into austenite. The formation of steel depends upon. formation of cementite. Option C. Explanation. Question Number.

Cast iron is. cool in air to normalize. the material is. but the only difference is. cool in air to anneal. Explanation. Question Number. cooled slowly. Question Number. Option A. both are heated below the UCT. Correct Answer is. both are heated above the UCT. Option A. Correct Answer is. Cool in air when normalising. very malleable. cool in air to anneal. 26. cool slowly to anneal. Normalizing of steel is done to. heavy and brittle. make steel softer. Explanation. Explanation. When normalising. Option A. Option C. NIL. 25. cool slowly (in the furnace) to anneal.Option A. NIL. cool in air to normalize. Correct Answer is. heavy and brittle. remove residual stress of the manufacturing process. Explanation. left to cool in room temperature. Option C. remove residual stress of the manufacturing process. tough. 24. restore the fatigue life of steel. both are heated above the UCT. Option B. Option B. quenched immediately. both are heated above the UCT. Option C. cool in air to normalize. . cool slowly to anneal. left to cool in room temperature. Option B. cool slowly to normalize. Option B. Both are heated above the UCT. Question Number. cool slowly to normalize. Option C. Correct Answer is.

after hardening. Explanation. 30. Option C. Option A. Question Number. filiform corrosion. any ferrous metal. Option C. Option A. hardness. Steel is tempered. Question Number. Correct Answer is.Question Number. surface corrosion. Option C. Option A. Option B. before hardening. Correct Answer is. intergranular corrosion. Option A. both of the above. any ferrous metal. Correct Answer is. to increase hardening. NIL. 27. both of the above. When metal is first heated slightly above its critical temperature and then cooled rapidly it is common that the metal will increase in. duralumin. Option B. brittleness. intergranular corrosion. Exhaust systems are usually made from stainless steel which is susceptible to. Question Number. 28. Option B. 29. titanium. . Case hardening can be carried out on. Correct Answer is. Explanation. after hardening. NIL. Option B. Option C. This is the process of hardening (ferrous) metals. Explanation.

htm Question Number. Annealing steels. After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment has been carried out the stress remaining if any is termed as. infinite. Option A. pack or gas carburising. Option C. A low carbon steel would normally be case hardened using. residual stress. . Option A.com/library/bldef-Fatigue-Limit. 33. Option B. Correct Answer is. infinite. Option A.about. Explanation.php Question Number.com/residual_stress. the nitriding process. Explanation. http://www. Option C. 34. NIL. toughens the metal. applied stress. Correct Answer is. residual stress. NIL.com/processes/heat_treat/hardening/diffusion. Explanation. NIL. http://www. 31.Explanation.physiqueindustrie. Option B. working stress. 32. Option A. Tempering is to reduce the brittleness caused by hardening. The fatigue life is. Option B. depend on its proof stress. finite. Question Number. Correct Answer is. makes the metal malleable. flame or induction hardening.efunda. pack or gas carburising.cfm Question Number. http://metals. If a steel component is operated below the fatigue limit. Option C. Option B.

Explanation. High speed steel relies heavily on the following metallic element for its ability to cut other metals. NIL. become more ductile. 1% Nickel. even when it is heated to a dull red colour. but soften the surface. Tungsten. Option C. steel is widely used for.Option C. Option B. 37. retain core hardness. Vanadium. Tungsten. Option B. NIL. Nickel. Explanation. deform permanently. 1% Carbon. Question Number. Option C. makes the metal brittle. retain surface hardness. When a low carbon steel bolt is stretched beyond its elastic limit without breaking. significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering a major drop in its strength. 36. deform permanently. Explanation. it will. Option C. significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering a major drop in its strength. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. but soften the core. Correct Answer is. Option A. . Correct Answer is. NIL. Tempering of hardened steel is carried out to. Correct Answer is. 38. A&P Technician General Textbook Chap 7 page 3. 35. deform temporarily. makes the metal malleable.

Option C. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. increases toughness. Normalising steels. NIL. tough. Question Number. 40. failure caused by stress in excess of the material U. ball and roller bearings. relieves the stresses. relieves the stresses. Option C. . Fatigue failure may be defined as. NIL. heavy and brittle. Option A. Option C. Option B. Explanation. reduction in strength due to alternating loads. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Option A. exhaust valves. 39. failure due to impact. reduction in strength due to alternating loads. Option B.S. increases the hardness. Option B. very malleable. Correct Answer is. Option C. high tensile steel bolts. heavy and brittle. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. ball and roller bearings. Cast iron is. Question Number.T. 41. Option A. Explanation.

NIL. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. http://www. what dimension is measured?.edu/web/acmaassel/steel. The alloy has been modified. The depth of the indent. Air is to 'decarburise' the pig iron. 43. above the Upper Critical Point. Correct Answer is. 44. Explanation. The depth of the indent. Option B.co.htm Question Number. Explanation.html Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is.bsu. Steel is produced by refining pig iron where air/oxygen is blown through the molten material to remove.uk/training/training-rockwell. Explanation. The diameter of the indent. Option C. The alloy has not been modified. above the Upper Critical Point. carbon. Option A. 42. Option B. NIL. sulphur. oxides.Question Number. What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean?.html#6 . Option B.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds. During a Rockwell Hardness test. Option C. NIL. The alloy has not been modified. http://www. The percentage of impurities in the alloy. Option A. Option A. Option C. http://www. Austenitic steel is produced when the material is heated to. carbon. Option A.jjjtrain. 45. below the Upper Critical Point. above the Lower Critical Point. The diameter and depth of the indent.qcplus.

46. Explanation. The material is tested to full destructions. material ductility. . Correct Answer is. Explanation.Ferrous. the flaring operation prior to assembly. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process. material hardness. Option A. the material is pulled to until it breaks. Correct Answer is. two-piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required. 3. Impact resistance measures the. the material is pulled until it reaches its UTS. The use of this type of connector eliminates. material toughness. the material is pulled to limit of elasticity. Option B. In most aircraft hydraulic systems. 2. Option A. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process. Option C. Option C. With the two-piece fitting (AN818) there is no relative motion between the fitting and the flare when the nut is being tightened. Toughness' is resistance to impact. Option C. Option B. Option A. Question Number. the material is pulled to until it breaks. 01b. 1. Question Number. material toughness. Explanation. Specified time of contact between the indentor and test piece in a vickers or brinell hardness test is. In the tensile strength test.Question Number. Aircraft Materials . Option B. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process.

Option C. impact energy.T. Question Number. 15 seconds.htm .2. Correct Answer is. CAIPs BL/10-3 5. Option C. NIL. http://www. The 'Fatigue limit' for steel is generally in the region of. impact energy. 15 seconds. Option C. 20%-40%. 10 seconds. Option A. 20%-40%. Question Number. compared to the static U. Option C. 40%-60%. Correct Answer is. 163 J. Explanation. Option A.S.8. Option B. 6. Young's modulus. Option B. 5. Explanation.com/Articles/Art137. Correct Answer is. Explanation. The Charpy test measures. NIL. Option B.2. 300 J. Option B. 60%-80%. 163 J. 20 seconds.Option A. strain. Option A. CAIPs BL/10-3 6. 150 J. In an Izod impact test the striking energy of the striker is approximately. 4.key-to-steel. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is.

http://www-materials. http://www. Question Number. strain hardening. Correct Answer is. Fatigue Testing.htm Question Number. Option A. Explanation. What is a Rockwell tester used for?.qcplus. Hardness Test.cam. Impact Resistance Test. .ac. Rockwell. Option C. 9. plasticisation. strain hardening. Option B. Brinell and Vickers. What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture?. Option A. NIL. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Rockwell. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Option B.eng. NIL. Vickers and Izod. Brinell and Izod. 8. Option A. Tensile Testing. Impact Resistance Test. Hardness Testing. Brinell and Vickers. Rockwell. Option C. Explanation.html Question Number. Hardness Testing. necking. The ability of mild steel to accept more load after the yield point is reached is due to. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 4-11. Fatigue Testing.Question Number. Which of the folllowing are all hardness testing machines?. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B.uk/training/training-rockwell.uk/mpsite/properties/non-IE/toughness. Correct Answer is. Rockwell. 10. 7.co.

High stress.02a. Question Number. Option C. Option B. For a particular metal material. high temperature. Option B. Option A. low temperature. Option C.Non-Ferrous. Option A. 4. what conditions are best to minimise creep?. Explanation. 1. Aircraft Materials . 2. Option C. 20% nitrate of soda and 80% sodium nitrate. it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment. NIL. The symbol 'W' on a material indicates. Low stress. Option B. it is for workshop use only. BL/9-1 12. 3 times. Question Number. 90% nitrate of soda and 10% sodium nitrate. Once only. Explanation. The most suitable mixture for a salt bath operation is. 3 times. Correct Answer is. Option B. low temperature. 70% sodium chlorate and 30% sodium nitrate. Explanation. NIL. Option A. 3. Option A. 90% nitrate of soda and 10% sodium nitrate. it is for use on aircraft mainplanes only. Low stress. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment. Option C. as many times as required. . Question Number. How many times can clad alloy be heat treated?. Question Number.

low temperature. oxidise and become weaker. Option B. . 7. Question Number. Do not scratch or make nicks in it. Option C. 8. It delays the age hardening process. 5. Option A. oxidise and become electrically insulated. Correct Answer is. Do not remove the surface of the sheet metal. oxidise and become stronger. Question Number. Option C. What care should you take with 2024-T3?. Option B. It speeds up age hardening process. Aluminium exposed to air will. Do not scratch or make nicks in it. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. lead and silver. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. Option A. Oxides of all metals are insulators. Explanation. Option A. Composition of silver solder is. What is the effect of precipitation heat treatment on aluminium?. Option B. 6. Do not bend at sharp angles. Option A. It speeds up age hardening process. NIL. It softens the material to allow it to be worked. NIL. Question Number. Low stress. 2024-T3 has a low fatigue resistance. tin and lead. Option B. Option C. oxidise and become electrically insulated. Question Number. tin.

alloy black. subject to corrosion. Makes the surface alkaline. BL/6-1 Table 3. . Correct Answer is. malleable. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Explanation. 11. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to.Option C. silver and antimony. Seals the surface from moisture. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Caustic soda turns al. What chemical is used to identify aluminium alloys?. Anodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?. alloy is not quenched. tin. lead. 12. 10. Option C. 9. Option B. Option B. Option C. If caustic soda turns a material black what is it?. tin. If aluminium alloy is not quenched within the minimum time allowed after heat treatment is it will be. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. If al. Alclad. Aluminium alloy. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. Option C. the copper precipitates and it remains hard and brittle. brittle. and pure aluminium white. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. lead. Aluminium. Option A. silver and antimony. Aluminium alloy. brittle. Explanation.

Question Number. highly resistant to corrosion. Option A. Option B. 15. highly resistant to corrosion. Explanation. Explanation. harder. Option C. 14. Option A. Correct Answer is. stronger and less ductile. Option B.Option A. NIL. Which part of the code indicates the percentage of the alloying 20. Copper sulphate. Pure aluminium is. 13. Explanation. harder. stronger and less ductile. Precipitation treating makes the metal.alloy black. H. less strong and hard. Caustic soda turns al. Pure aluminium is highly resistant to corrosion. 6. Explanation. A material has the code 2024-TH6 on it. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Precipitation treating makes the metal. Option C. and pure aluminium white. Option C. Correct Answer is. element?. Question Number. Nitric acid. not resistant to corrosion. Correct Answer is. Caustic soda. NIL. Caustic soda. Correct Answer is. 20. Option A. . reasonably resistant to corrosion.

BL/9-1 16. 2025. Option C. Explanation.Question Number. Aluminium alloyed primarily with magnesium is numbered. Correct Answer is. 17. can be hardened by strain hardening or cold working. Question Number. number code.2. can be hardened by strain hardening or cold working. Explanation. 5025. Which of the following metals is an aluminium silicon alloy used mainly for casting?. Aldrey. letter code Explanation. Option C. Option B. 19. Alpax. Option B. Option B. Non heat treatable materials. Option A. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. 18. NIL. Alpax. Option C. Option B. Option A. 1025. Heat treatment is shown on a British aluminium alloy by a. can be hardened by annealing. Option C. Question Number. Alclad. 16. All materials but a few (eg lead) can be hardened by cold working. cannot be hardened. 5025. letter and number code. Question Number. . letter code Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.

Explanation. Trade name for material used mainly for castings. Low density and corrosion resistance. 87 % Aluminium 13 % Silicon. http://www.glue-it.com/model-engineering/general-information/glossary/a_summ.htm Question Number. 20. Aircraft skin is joggled to. Option A. provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces. Option B. make a frame lighter but stronger. Option C. conform to the aircraft contour. Correct Answer is. provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces. Explanation. A joggle makes a flush surface at a join. Question Number. 21. The British system of heat treatment codes is. Option A. a series of letters. Option B. numbers and letters. Option C. a series of numbers. Correct Answer is. a series of letters. Explanation. CAIP BL/9-1. Question Number. 22. In a sheet metal store the following is marked on a sheet of aluminium alloy: L162 (sheet 1). , On a different sheet the following marking is found: L172 (sheet 2). The following is true: Option A. Sheet one has a shinier surface than sheet 2. Option B. Sheet one is more ductile than sheet 2. Option C. Sheet two is of a thicker gauge than sheet 1. Correct Answer is. Sheet one is more ductile than sheet 2. Explanation. The L numbers are the British al. alloy specs. Question Number. 23. Cold working of a material is used to reduce. Option A. material hardness.

Option B. fatigue. Option C. wear of manufacturing tools. Correct Answer is. wear of manufacturing tools. Explanation. Cold working increases strength and hardness (therefore reduces wear). Question Number. 24. Sheet metal should be stored. Option A. above 25 degrees centigrade. Option B. on its edge in racks to prevent scratching. Option C. stacked flat to prevent bending of sheets. Correct Answer is. on its edge in racks to prevent scratching. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 1-8. Question Number. 25. Clad aluminium alloy (alclad) has a pure aluminium coating of. Option A. 0.002. Option B. 1% of alloy thickness. Option C. 5% of alloy thickness. Correct Answer is. 5% of alloy thickness. Explanation. The cladding is 5% each side.

Question Number. 26. The main metal in monel is. Option A. aluminium. Option B. nickel. Option C. stainless steel. Correct Answer is. nickel. Explanation. Monel is a nickel alloy.

Question Number. 27. A tube complying to BS T51 is. Option A. tungum. Option B. HTS tube. Option C. high pressure seamless copper tube. Correct Answer is. high pressure seamless copper tube. Explanation. BL/6-15 3.2.1 or download External document... page 28.

http://www.dstan.mod.uk/data/05/069/00000300.pdf

Question Number. 28. Why is nickel chromium used in many exhaust systems?. Option A. Corrosion resistant and high heat conductivity. Option B. Lightweight and flexible. Option C. Corrosion resistant and low expansion coefficient. Correct Answer is. Corrosion resistant and low expansion coefficient. Explanation. Nickel and chromium are the alloying elements in Stainless Steel. Question Number. 29. Titanium alloys. Option A. are cheap to manufacture. Option B. have a high strength to weight ratio. Option C. are corrosion resistant but heavy. Correct Answer is. have a high strength to weight ratio. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. manufacture?. Option A. 20. Option B. 2. Option C. 17. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. 30. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminium alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its

2.

Question Number. 31. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft because they. Option A. are harder wearing than unclad aluminium alloys. Option B. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminium alloys. Option C. are stronger than unclad aluminium alloys. Correct Answer is. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminium alloys. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. Non heat treatable aluminium alloys. Option A. can be hardened by strain hardening. Option B. cannot be softened. Option C. cannot be hardened. Correct Answer is. can be hardened by strain hardening. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 33. Solution treatment after manufacturers have performed it once can be carried out a further. Option A. 1 time. Option B. 2 times. Option C. 3 times. Correct Answer is. 2 times. Explanation. Solution treatment to Alclad can be carried out only 3 times in total. CAIPs BL/9-1. Rivets can be re-heat treated 3 times (so 4 times in total) BL/6-27 6.3. Question Number. 34. Following solution treatment aluminium alloy can be placed into service. Option A. after 5 days. Option B. straight away. Option C. after 24 hours.

Option C. instead of pure aluminium?. 3 seconds. Less brittle. pure al. 35. Polishing al. 38. Explanation. or Alclad. Correct Answer is. you would be removing the oxide layer. Explanation. Alloy. Question Number. The important factor is that clad aluminium alloy is 90% aluminium alloy. Option A. 36. Option A. Option C. When buffing surface of Aluminium Alloy. Tougher. The time between removal from heat treatment furnace and quenching must be not more than. Option B. Option B. Option B. The fact that it is clad is irrelevant. 7 seconds. Correct Answer is. Why is clad alloy preferred to pure Aluminium?. 37. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 2-9. Question Number. after 5 days. CAIPs BL/9-1 Para 7. Stronger. . Oxide layer. 10 seconds. Oxide layer. 10 seconds. Option B. Question Number. Corrosion resistant. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. what material are you removing?. Full hardness is achieved after 4-5 days. Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft. Option C. Aluminium.alloy. Option A. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Option A. Tougher. More ductile.

42. duralumin with magnesium cladding. Explanation. Option B. Option B. NIL. aluminium with duralumin cladding. not necessary. Stronger. 40. 41. Option A. silver surface due to protective coating. 39. yellowish surface due to protective treatment. Question Number. The oxide film on the surface of aluminium is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. duralumin with aluminium coating. yellowish surface due to protective treatment. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. The magnesium alloys used in aircraft can be recognized by. never carried out. Question Number. Aluminium will not age harden like aluminium alloys such as dural as there ars no alloying elements such as copper that will come out of solution over time.Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. a gradual hardening over a period of time. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. shiny surface due to chromium plated on the surface. duralumin with aluminium coating. Age hardening of aluminium is. Option C. Lighter. . Correct Answer is. Option C. Alclad is. Option C. never carried out.

Correct Answer is. 43. temperature. temperature. Question Number. method of heating and cooling. NIL. Option C. Option A. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. method of heating only. Option B. non porous. non porous. Explanation. hard and porous. Yellow Sparks. The critical process of heat treatment is. 45. NIL. Explanation. White Sparks. Option C. cladding. The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is. NIL. Red Sparks. temperature and method of heating only. Option B. cladding. electroplating. Option C.Option A. Correct Answer is. porous. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. White Sparks. . Correct Answer is. 44. Titanium can be identified by placing it on a grinding wheel and looking for. method of heating and cooling. Explanation. metalizing.

Correct Answer is. easy to forge. NIL. 47. Option B. ductility. NIL. Explanation.Question Number. Question Number. brushing on phosphate treatment followed by paint. Option C.com/pganio/materials. Malleable materials are. alocrom treatment. Correct Answer is. Option B.geocities. Correct Answer is. Option C. 48. Option B. Re-treatment of aluminium alloys can be performed by. Option A. Option B. It is stronger than the aluminium. alocrom treatment. Explanation. Option C. highly ductile. Option A. 49. It is stronger than the aluminium. Correct Answer is. easy to forge. Option A. If a material has to undergo deep cold forming operation. Option C. malleability. http://www.html Question Number. elasticity. Question Number. easy to cast. malleability. Option A. It has lower density than magnesium. 46. What is generally true for titanium alloy?. Malleability does not necessarily mean ductility. Explanation. It is stronger than the steel. The essential property would be. Explanation. selenious acid treatment. NIL. .

an alloy. Fuse means 'to melt'. Option C. only the specification of the material. Correct Answer is. duralumin. Option A. magnesium alloy. Option A.Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option B. NIL. Option C. . the spec and gauge of the material. Option A. Option C. Malleable materials are normally. Explanation. 52. also highly ductile. NIL. NIL. rivets made of alclad. an alloy. a thermosetting compound. magnesium alloy. 50. Option C. OR only the specification of the material. that the material is from an approved source. easily forged. Correct Answer is. Option B. a composite material. Explanation. Correct Answer is. When two or more metallic materials are fused together. Question Number. Option A. The colour code on sheet metal indicates. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. easily forged. Question Number. the combination is known as. 51. easy to cast. The metal which must not be heated in a salt bath is. that the material is from an approved source. 53. Correct Answer is.

Cobalt is used to bond tungsten carbide to cutting tools. Option C. Option B. Option C. 54. Correct Answer is. Large grain size is attributed to slow cooling rates and will give less tensile strength. creep. Question Number. Question Number. NIL. Option A. The cracking of structural members under repeated stress lower than the ultimate tensile load is known as. Option C. Cobalt. 55. Option A. Explanation. Invar. Correct Answer is. 57. . fatigue failure. Small grain size is normally attributed to rapid cooling rates and will give less tensile strength. Option A. The common bonding material for Tungsten Carbide is. Large grain size is attributed to slow cooling rates and will give less tensile strength. fitted to the aircraft within 24 hours. Silicon. Explanation. A piece of duralumin has been annealed and bent into shape prior to fitting to an aircraft. fatigue failure. Which of the following is true?.Question Number. 56. Materials with large grain size are more prone to creep. Question Number. stress reversal. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Option B. Option B. Cobalt. Which of the following is correct? It must be. Grain size will effect the mechanical properties of metal.

Option B. solution treated, precipitation treated and fitted to the aircraft within 2 hours. Option C. solution treated prior to fitting to an aircraft. Correct Answer is. solution treated, precipitation treated and fitted to the aircraft within 2 hours. OR solution treated prior to fitting to an aircraft. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 58. A sheet of metal is designated 2024-T4. The code tells us that the material is a copper based aluminium alloy. Option A. annealed and Naturally aged. Option B. solution treated and naturally aged. Option C. solution treated and artificially aged. Correct Answer is. solution treated and naturally aged. Explanation. NIL. http://www.jjjtrain.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds.html Question Number. 59. A metal is coded 1285 using the IADS coding method. This means the metal is. Option A. 85% pure aluminium. Option B. 99.85% pure aluminium. Option C. a copper based aluminium alloy i.e. duralumin. Correct Answer is. 99.85% pure aluminium. Explanation. NIL. http://www.jjjtrain.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds.html Question Number. 60. A material containing approximately 66% nickel and 33% copper is known as. Option A. Nimonic. Option B. Monel metal. Option C. Invar Correct Answer is. Monel metal. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 61. Monel metal consists of approximately. Option A. 66% Chromium and 33% Copper. Option B. 66% Copper and 33% Nickel. Option C. 66% Nickel and 33% Copper. Correct Answer is. 66% Chromium and 33% Copper. Explanation. NIL. http://www.lenntech.com/Monel.htm Question Number. 62. Silver solder is composed of the materials. Option A. Copper, Tin and Silver. Option B. Zinc, Lead and Silver. Option C. Copper, Zinc and Silver. Correct Answer is. Copper, Zinc and Silver. Explanation. NIL. http://ajh-knives.com/soldering.html Question Number. 63. The ease with which a material can be forged, rolled and extruded without fracture is an indication of a material's. Option A. malleability. Option B. ductility. Option C. brittleness. Correct Answer is. malleability. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 64. What is fatigue?. Option A. Cyclic stressing of a part. Option B. Failure of a component due to corrosion. Option C. Constant stressing of a part. Correct Answer is. Cyclic stressing of a part.

Explanation.

NIL.

Question Number. 65. Why is stop drilling carried out at the end of a crack?. Option A. To change the direction of the crack. Option B. To stop the crack from propagating. Option C. To increase the stress concentration at the crack end. Correct Answer is. To stop the crack from propagating. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 66. Annealing of aluminium. Option A. increases the tensile strength. Option B. makes the material brittle. Option C. removes stresses caused by forming. Correct Answer is. removes stresses caused by forming. Explanation. NIL. 02b. Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous. Question Number. 1. In the Brinell hardness test, you would measure the indentation's. Option A. depth. Option B. area. Option C. diameter. Correct Answer is. diameter. Explanation. In a Brinell hardness test, the diameter of the indent is used to indicate the hardness. Question Number. 2. Option A. hardness. The impact testing technique is used on a material to test for.

Option B. toughness. Option C. shear strain. Correct Answer is. toughness. Explanation. The impact test machine measures resistance to impact (i.e. toughness). BL/10-3. Question Number. 3. An S-N curve is useful in the design evaluation process for testing. Option A. fatigue life. Option B. shear force. Option C. tension. Correct Answer is. fatigue life. Explanation. An SN curve is to evaluate a material for fatigue. S=stress level N=number cycles to failure. Question Number. 4. What is a fusible material?. Option A. The ability of two dissimilar metals to melt together. Option B. The ability of a metal to melt. Option C. The ability of a metal to be welded. Correct Answer is. The ability of a metal to melt. Explanation. Fuse' simply means to melt. Question Number. 5. Brittleness is. Option A. the property to resist wear. Option B. the property to not deform before cracking. Option C. the property to resist deformation. Correct Answer is. the property to not deform before cracking. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 6. The proof stress of a material is the stress at which.

strain. . Option B. Explanation. directly proportional to stress. NIL. Option C. The S. Explanation. Option C. no units. Explanation. P. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. elastic strain is. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. directly proportional to stress. Option C. unit for strain is. Option A. NIL. small amount of permanent set takes place. Young's Modulus is a measure of. Hooke's law states that. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. stiffness. directly opposite to stress. 9. indirectly proportional to stress.I. Question Number. the material yields. within the elastic region. no units. Nmm. small amount of permanent set takes place.Option A.S. necking of the material begins. 8.I. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. stress. 7. NIL. stiffness. Option B.

Tensile Testing. withstand a crushing force. Explanation. Option C.Question Number. A material's yield strength is the ability to. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. requires. NIL. Aircraft Materials . room temperature. Load * Cross sectional area.ac. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The value of stress for a given material can be derived by. Explanation. Option C. Option A. 10. resist side loads. http://www-materials. Option A. NIL. Question Number.cam. resist deformation. high temperature. Explanation.Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and fabric. Cross sectional area / Load. Load / Cross sectional area. Option B. Tensile Testing. Option C. to cure. Load / Cross sectional area. Correct Answer is. Fatigue Testing. low temperature.html 03. high temperature. What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks?. Option B. Question Number. Option B.uk/mpsite/properties/non-IE/strength. Hardness Testing.1a. Adhesives containing phenol-formaldehyde. 1. . 12. resist deformation. 11.eng. Option B.

Explanation. Over extended honeycomb can bend in which direction?. spreading and setting. Correct Answer is. mechanical and specific. 2. 5. Option C. 4. Option B. Option A. wetting and setting. 3. What material would be used where a high temperature application is required. Two parts of the adhesive process are. NIL. wetting and gripping. Types of adhesive joints are. mechanical and specific. Along the ribbon. . Option B. Ceramic fibres. e. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Option A. a firewall?. mechanical and cemented. Across the ribbon. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Aramid (Kevlar) fibres. cemented and specific. Question Number. Option C.Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Ceramic composites retain their strength at high temperatures. Carbon/graphite fibres. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. In all directions. wetting and setting. Option A. Option B.g. Ceramic fibres. Option A. NIL.

warp. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. . Option A. A ceramic oxide of aluminium.Correct Answer is. warp. A radome. 8.a ceramic. Explanation. Option C. 6. Option B. Aluminium ore. Fibre weave strength is greatest in the direction of the. Which of these core materials will be used in the making of a composite material flat panel?. Rectangular core. Option A. Flexible core. NIL. NIL. An alloy of aluminium. weft. Question Number. 7. Option A. Option B. Along the ribbon. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. A ceramic oxide of aluminium. Option C. Hexagonal core. Correct Answer is. What is Alumina?. Correct Answer is. Alumina ia aluminium oxide . Option B. Option B. Hexagonal core. Explanation. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. bias. Explanation. A passenger window. 9. Option A. Which of the following could best be manufactured from Perspex panel?.

Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. across the fibre. Explanation. 13. glass fibre composite. 11. Sound is best absorbed by a material which is. Option A. Kevlar and Nomex are Aramid materials. Option B. Question Number. Kevlar and Nomex are types of. dense. 10. Option B. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Coin tap test. advanced composite. Correct Answer is. NIL. NIL. advanced composite. Coin tap test. What NDT method will you use to detect?. . Strength of fibreglass is. Question Number. High voltage x-ray. A composite flap panel has structural damage. along the fibre. A passenger window. A cockpit windscreen. Option C. Question Number. Option C. NIL. either direction. 12. Option C. Low voltage x-ray. Option B.Option C. Question Number. aluminium alloy. Explanation. Explanation. along the fibre. Option A.

PVC. Option A. Sound is unaffected by density. Question Number. can be reheated and reformed more than once. . Question Number. An impact adhesive is part of the. unidirectional fibres. heated and formed only once. Cellular' materials make good sound insulation. Option B. nor hardness. NIL. becomes. 14. PTFE. soft and porous. 17. Correct Answer is. A thermoplastic can be. soft and porous. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. Option C. GRP. Option B.Option B. Correct Answer is. hard. Correct Answer is. fibres uniformly distributed at 45 degrees to each other. Option A. 15. chopped strand mat. Question Number. unidirectional fibres. Correct Answer is. NIL. The maximum tensile strength of fibre reinforced plastic is achieved using. GRP. can be reheated and reformed more than once. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Option C. Question Number. 16. is not affected by even low temperatures. Polyester resin and glass fibre cloth. Option C.

The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft structures is. thermoplastic. Explanation. G-glass. Option B. S-glass. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Option C. thermoset. Option A. thermoplastic. 20. Option C. Correct Answer is. 18. Explanation. Explanation.Option A. Option C. thermoplastic group. S-glass. thermocure. Explanation. 19. NIL. E-glass. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant. Option A. Option A. Anaerobic resin group. thermoset group. thermoplastic group. Option B. NIL. Question Number. NIL. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction. Option B. Option B. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a. has a high strength to weight ratio. Correct Answer is. may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin. Correct Answer is. Question Number. .

Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. High tensile strength and flexibility. Bias. Weft. Option A. S-glass. NIL. Option C. NIL. Acetone will soften the plastic. Option B. 23. G-glass. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option B. 21. Warp. 22. Correct Answer is. Zinc chloride will have no effect. but will not change its colour. NIL. Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?. Zinc chloride will have no effect. Warp. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fibre (Kevlar) composites?. E-glass. stiffness and ability to conduct electricity. E-glass. Option C. Option B. . High tensile strength. stiffness and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium. Option C. The classification for fibreglass reinforcement material that is high resistivity and the most common is. Option C. 24. Flexibility. Which is the identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?. Has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge.

Question Number. Stiffness. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Flexibility. Option B. Explanation. Kevlar. stiffness and ability to conduct electricity. Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fibre composites?.Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and fabric. Explanation. NIL. Glass fibre. Once moulded into shape they become set and cannot subsequently be softened by reheating. 26. Option C. Option A. 03. Correct Answer is. High compressive strength and ability to conduct electricity. Option A. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Flexibility and high compressive strength. Which of the following is susceptible to the ingress of moisture?. Explanation. What tests are done on adhesive joints?. NIL. Option C. 2. Which of the following statements is true about thermosetting plastics?.Correct Answer is. high compressive strength and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium. Kevlar. 1. High tensile strength. OR High tensile strength and flexibility. NIL. Question Number. Carbon fibre. Aircraft Materials . . high compressive strength and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium. Option B. They become plastic when heat is applied.1b. Once moulded into shape they become set and cannot subsequently be softened by reheating. Correct Answer is. 25. They are also known as Teflon. Stiffness. Option B.

What is the effect of heat on a cold cure resin?. Correct Answer is. No effect on pot life. Decrease pot life.3 inches. NIL. Option A. Explanation. Shear and peel. 3 . 1 . Shear and peel. Option C.2 inches. Correct Answer is. When using a hot bonder to effect a composite repair. 1 . Impact and peel. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. synthetic resin adhesives. Option C. synthetic resin adhesives. Decrease pot life.2 inches. Question Number. how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below it?. In a composite repair lay-up. Option B. FAA AC43 Page 3-5. inorganic resin adhesives. Explanation. 5. Increase pot life. Option B. 3. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Explanation.4 inches. 4. Option C. . Option B. you use. 2 . NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. organic resin adhesives.Option A. Impact and shear.

the material will become stronger. Correct Answer is. 6. No effect. 9. The resin will not harden. Option A. Option C.Question Number. Correct Answer is. the pot life will be decreased. Option A. 8. Explanation. What two components of a three part polyester resin are dangerous to mix together directly?. Option C. What is the effect of adding too much hardener to a resin?. What is the largest hole in honeycomb repairable with microballoons?. Option C. .54 inches. Accelerator and free catalyst. the material will become weaker. Answer is 1 inch. Makes the repair more brittle. Option B. Option A.54 cm. Makes the repair more brittle.. Explanation. Accelerator and resin. Question Number. the pot life will be decreased. Explanation. Question Number. CAIP AL/7-6 page 2 para 4. Option B. Correct Answer is.54 mm. NIL. NIL. Option B. If you increase the amount of catalyst in a resin mixture. 2. Question Number. Explanation. Catalyst and resin. 2. 2.54 cm. Option A. Option C. 7. Correct Answer is. 2. Accelerator and free catalyst. Option B.

to stainless steel honeycomb only. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. when one outer skin is damaged. To indicate temperature when a repaired composite item is cured with heat lamps. 10. Option A. An air driven router is used to remove honeycomb material for repairs. Where would you use a Templestick?. To indicate temperature when a repaired composite item is cured with heat lamps. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. top layer of glass fabric directly. Option C. What do you do if you forget to add hardener to a composite repair?. breather mat. 11. Question Number. Option B. NIL. Option B. . Explanation. breather mat. Remove all resin and start again. NIL. The breather mat allows the air to flow from the repair. Explanation. Remove all resin and start again. when one outer skin is damaged. Option C. It will cure eventually anyway. Option B. For the boundary marking of a composite repair. 13. Explanation. The vacuum connections on a fibreglass repair must be placed onto the. Option C. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. when both outer skins are damaged. Option C.Question Number. 12. Question Number. peel ply. Correct Answer is. Add hardener at the edges and it will cure. As a temporary repair in a glass fibre internal. Option A.

a vacuum bag. 2 inches. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. 14. Explanation. It cross-links with the panel. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. It is the lightest filler material. breather cloth. etching. 6 inches. Question Number. Explanation. corona method. 4 inches. Option C. It is the lightest filler material. Explanation. Option A. 16. cellophane. Correct Answer is.Question Number. A thermoplastic fibre reinforced composite is prepared by. 15. Option C. Microballoons is the lightest filler material. corona method. Correct Answer is. Option B. . Why would you use microballoons as a filler?. a solvent wipe. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. Option B. When using a backing former on a composite repair you need to use. 17. 2 inches. Option B. Question Number. Heater mats should overlap the repair by. Option A. cellophane. Option B. It is the cheapest filler material. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number.

Option A. 10mm. http://www. Although the vacuum gauge can be placed anywhere. Maximum repair with microballoons is approximately 3/8 inch . Option C.Explanation. 30mm. 21. 2 or more arrest points. Correct Answer is. Explanation.4. Opposite side to the vacuum port. Over the repair. Correct Answer is. Option A. 1 arrest point. 20mm. During vacuum bag lay-up the vacuum gauge is placed where?. Corona method is used to prepare a thermoplastic material. no arrest point. Option C. the easiest being on the same side as the vacuum nozzle. In an autoclave what pressure would the vacuum alarm be set at?. Or A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. Opposite side to the vacuum port. Explanation. .closest here is 10 mm. Stepped curing has. AL/7-6 7. Question Number. Option A. 18.com/surfacePrep. Correct Answer is. Maximum repair dimensions for use of microballoons is. Next to the vacuum port.asp Question Number. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites shows a diagram with it opposite side (fig 7-4) and one showing it combined with the vacuum nozzle (fig 7-6). Option A. 20. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites (dwell time = soak time = arrest point). 10mm. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Operating pressure. 19. 2 or more arrest points. the most logical answer (and probably the one the CAA want) is opposite side of the repair to the nozzle. Question Number.bondmaster. Explanation. Option B. Option B.

When mixing resin it is dangerous to add. Polypropelene. High temp nylon. clamps are used. High temp nylon.Option B. Option A. Lower than operating pressure. Question Number. Explanation. Lower than operating pressure. Correct Answer is. Option B. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. What does MSDS stand for?. a vacuum bag is used. weights are used. Option A. to apply pressure. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. Option C. Option B. so the alarm must sound if the pressure drops below normal. Question Number. accelerator and catalyst before resin. Option B. a vacuum bag is used. Higher than operating pressure. Question Number. accelerator and catalyst before resin. Explanation. 23. Option A. 24. catalyst and resin before accelerator. Correct Answer is. 25. Polythene. AL/7-6 4. resin and accelerator before catalyst. In an autoclave what would you cover the repair in?. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. 22. Explanation. An autoclave uses pressure. In an autoclave.

Metal Surface Dimension Sector. Option A. Option A. a router. Thermosetting adhesive. Correct Answer is. is not reliant upon temperature fluctuations. decreases with an increase in temperature. carbon monoxide. static radiation. Material Safety Data Sheet. Honeycomb for repair can be removed with. a router. Option C. Maximum Structural Design System. Option A. decreases with an increase in temperature.Option A. Question Number. MSDS .Material Safety Data Sheet. The heat can be applied externally (endothermic) or created internally by a catalyst or hardener (exothermic). Correct Answer is. during their curing cycle give off. a drill. Question Number. heat. 27. Explanation. 26. Material Safety Data Sheet. increases with increase of temperature. Option C. heat. Option C. locally manufactured concave knife. CAIPs AL/7-6. Correct Answer is. The latter gives off heat. The pot life of a cold cured resin. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option B. 28. Explanation. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/7-6. Option C. Option B. Option B. plastics (or adhesives) require heat to make them cure. .

Option B. remain unchanged. Plywood. increase. Correct Answer is. .5.Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Option C. When laying up a glass fibre repair. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. will cause the curing time to. AL/7-6 4.5. decrease. Option B. A colder temperature will cause a resin to take longer to cure. Most correct answer for a repair to a honeycomb sandwhich structure. AL/7-6 7. Option A. a sacrificial layer for sanding. Glass cloth or thin aluminium sheet. a tungsten drill with a pointed tip. a tungsten carbide drill. Option A. Correct Answer is.3. for extra strength. for extra strength. Thick aluminium sheet. What is used as the base covering on a honeycomb repair?. Option C. increase. the extra layer of fibre is. Option B. a tungsten carbide drill. Option B. Explanation. 29. Option C. When drilling a carbon fibre reinforced plastic use. a steel drill and carbarundum powder.states Carbide or Carbide tipped drill for composite materials. for shrinkage. 30. The effect of a lower temperature than ambient during the curing period of a resin. Question Number. Glass cloth or thin aluminium sheet. Option A. 31. Option C. 32. Airbus A340 SRM .

a less stiff joint. Question Number. arrest point. AC43 3-3(3) page 3-4. Option B. application of vacuum. Explanation. When the heating is paused it is called 'hold' or 'soak' at the 'arrest point'. Option A. Too much hardener will greatly reduce pot life as well as make the polyester brittle. Use of excessive hardener in polyester resin leads to. use of a roller. Option B. ramping up. Bubbles are removed from a wet composite lay-up by. Option A. reduced pot life. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Slight waviness on a fibre composite structure. use of a roller. Option C. 35. When the temperature increases on a hot bond repair is paused it is known as. Bubbles (large ones anyway) are removed with a roller. Ramp-up' and 'ramp-down' refer to the heating and cooling rates (in °C per minute). Option C. 36. Correct Answer is. may cause fatigue crack eventually. Option B. . reduced pot life. 33. Question Number. arrest point. Option B. Question Number. 34.Explanation. stiffer joint. may be tolerable if lightly loaded. Option C. ramping down. Question Number. application of pressure. Correct Answer is. Option A.

pressure.Option C. Option C. life can be extended by 12 months if stored above 40 °C. Option B. Question Number. On a pre-preg composite. Explanation. When it reaches the ribbon it will. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. have no effect on its direction. could be reinforce with additional plies over the weakened area. package life. stop. Hot bond composite pane has a crack. no life extension is allowed. storage life. . life can be extended by 12 months if stored below 10 °C. Question Number. NIL. The maximum length of time a component is held in stores is known as the. In an autoclave the air is removed by. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. 39. stop. Correct Answer is. Explanation. shelf life. 38. shelf life. 40. NIL. it must be used immediately. Option B. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. 37. Option C. life can be extended by 12 months if stored above 40 °C. Option B. NIL. may be tolerable if lightly loaded. carry on along the ribbon. Option C. Correct Answer is.

Option B. 42. Option A. . NIL. Tap testing a sandwich panel construction. Option A. vacuum. Delamination. Question Number. Explanation. 44. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. roller. Option C. Glass fibre. Air is removed by vacuum whether an autoclave is used or not. Aircraft transparent plastics are cleaned using. Asbestos. is crude.Option B. Which product is a serious health hazard when handling?. Correct Answer is. is crude. 41. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Asbestos. What is the separation of an aramid panel layers described as?. Delamination. Option B. Question Number. Ceramic. Explanation. Debonding. Option C. Correct Answer is. Detachment. but works remarkably well. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. vacuum. NIL. Question Number. 43. Option A. will not give very reliable results. is not an approved method of testing. but works remarkably well.

AL/7-4 6. Which methods can be used to inspect fibreglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?. Option B. must be made of materials such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. 46. Option A. Explanation.Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is.1. Correct Answer is. A thermosetting adhesive. Option A. X-ray and back-lighting. Option C. Option A. Option B. warm soapy water. 45. Acoustic emission will detect corrosion only. must be made of materials such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. paraffin and soft cotton pad. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Acoustic emission and X-ray. Correct Answer is. Option C. may be made of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners. NIL. Question Number. can be re-formed when hot. Question Number. will be resistant to heat. Question Number. undergoes a chemical transformation and creates an insoluble substance. Acoustic emission and back-lighting. rinsed and dried. Explanation. clean dry soft leather. warm soapy water. rinsed and dried. X-ray and back-lighting. . 47. Option B. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures. Option B. undergoes a chemical transformation and creates an insoluble substance. Explanation. must be made of high strength aluminium alloy.

Option A. Option A. NIL. NIL. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected. Explanation. Option B. 100 times the thickness of the metal. the grain is parallel to the skin. have mixed enough for a test sample. Question Number. Option C. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel. Option C. 50. it is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be applied. have mixed enough for a test sample. the grain is perpendicular to the skin. 49. 100 times the thickness of the metal.Question Number. . perform a chemical composition analysis. Explanation. whatever is desired for a neat clean appearance. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration taking place. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. 51. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core. the edges of the doubler should be tapered to. Option B. Correct Answer is. the plug should be cut so that. test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing. two times the thickness of the metal. the grain is perpendicular to the skin. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Composite inspections by means of acoustic emissions monitoring. 48. Option A. analyse ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts being inspected. Option B. Option C.

use dye-penetrant inspection procedures. Option C. Option B. 53. The length and time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the. Correct Answer is. less density. Correct Answer is. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. NIL. . One method of inspecting a laminated fibreglass structure that has been subjected to damage is. Correct Answer is. lower stress concentrations. improved strength to weight ratio. Option C. Option B.Correct Answer is. Less density. OR pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration Question Number. use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area.2. service life. Improved strength to weight ratio. taking place. shelf life. pot life. Explanation. lower stress. exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution. Option A. less density. NIL. NIL. 54. Which of the following are advantages of using microballoons in repairs to laminate honeycomb sandwich panels?. Option A. CAIP AL/7-6 para 4. Option C. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners. Explanation. 52. Explanation. lower stress concentrations. Question Number. Option A. lower stress concentrations. Less density. pot life. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure.

56. surface abrasion. Question Number.Question Number. 58. Option C. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. one or more coats of suitable resin (room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface. or rain erosion on fibreglass laminates can generally be repaired by applying. Option A. CAIP AL/7-6 para 7. 1 inch in diameter. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Option C. 55. Bias clock. Correct Answer is. Superficial scars. Question Number. OR one or more coats of suitable resin (room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface. separation of the laminates. 57. Option A. a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps. Option A. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than. Option C. a piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric facing. What reference tool is used to determine how the fibre is to be oriented for a particular ply or fabric?. 4 inches in diameter. scratches. a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps. Option B. 2 inches in diameter. Weft clock.2 a-d. less than full strength curing of the matrix. Correct Answer is. Explanation. separation of the laminates. Option B. NIL. Option B. Option A. an area of too much matrix between the fibres. a dull thud may indicate. Explanation. 1 inch in diameter.

Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. 60. Option C. Question Number. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?. the orientation of the plies to the load direction. Correct Answer is. Option A. the orientation of the plies to the load direction. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. a 60% matrix to 40% fibre ratio. Which fibre to resin (%) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best?. Release. Bleeder. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Option B.Option C. the ability of the fibres to transfer stress to the matrix. 59. Option A. 40:60. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. 61. Bleeder. . Warp clock. NIL. Warp clock. 50:50. Explanation. 60:40. Correct Answer is. Option B. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite lay-up depends primarily on. Breather. 40:60.

Option C. Option C. AC43 . requires replacement of the damaged core and facing. requires replacement of the damaged core and facing. may be filled with putty which is compatible with the resin. Explanation.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. sanding the damaged are until aerodynamically smooth. Fibreglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by. Water displacing oil. what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?. cannot be repaired. Correct Answer is. Option C. short glass fibres. may be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous stress concentrations. Option A. Explanation. Water only. Question Number. Option A. Option B. filling with putty consisting of compatible resin and clean. Water only. Water soluble oil. short glass fibres. Question Number. Explanation. must be repaired. Option A. . trimming the rough adges and sealing with paint. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Option B. sanding the damaged are until aerodynamically smooth. Fibreglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core. can be repaired by using a typical facing patch. NIL.must be repaired using a stepped-joint or scarfed repair. must be repaired. 62. Option A. 64. OR filling with putty consisting of compatible resin and clean. Correct Answer is. Option B. When necessary. Question Number. Fibreglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure. 65. 63.

69. Option C. Correct Answer is. 68. Explanation. Microballoons and chopped fibres. one should. Question Number. cotton flock and chopped fibres. Cotton flock and chopped fibres. 67. OR The period after which the surface of the compound no longer exhibits adhesive properties. ribbon direction. Option B. . In order to prevent dermatitis caused due to contact with polymer resin. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. The time required for the mixed compound to reach an initial rubbery state. Option A.Explanation. NIL. when added to wet resins. NIL. cell side. Which of the following is the definition of cure time?. Explanation. 66. cell edge. Option A. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the. Option B. ribbon direction. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Cotton flock and chopped fibres. Which of the following. Option A. The time required for the mixed compound to reach an initial rubbery state. The period after which the surface of the compound no longer exhibits adhesive properties. AC43. avoid inhaling fumes. Option C. The time taken for the mixed compound to reach a final rubbery state. microballoons. Option B. provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in composite panels?. Question Number.

use disposable gloves or barrier cream. The time between the adhesive being applied to the joint surfaces and their assembly. Question Number. A screwdriver. Question Number. The time elapsing between the application of the adhesive and the assembly of the joint components. CAIP AL/7-6 para 4. shakes and splits. Correct Answer is.. Option C. OR use disposable gloves or barrier cream. What is an open assembly time?.CAAIPs Leaflet 6-1 Figure 3. OR The time elapsing between the application of the adhesive and the assembly of the joint components.Wooden Structures. Correct Answer is. The time elapsed from the adhesive being applied to the joint surfaces to them being clamped. A feeler gauge. Explanation. A plastic strip. checks. remember to close the autoclave door during curing. . remember to close the autoclave door during curing. Aircraft Materials . With what would you check the bonded joints of a wooden aircraft structure?. Option B. pitch pockets. Correct Answer is. shakes and splits. The defects not allowed at all on wooden structures are. 03. checks. mineral streaks. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-4 Page 7. AC43 Chapter 1 Section 3 Para 1-29. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. 2. A feeler gauge. Question Number. Explanation.2. Option B. The time between the adhesive being applied to the joint surfaces and their assembly.Option B. Option B. Option C. Option A. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 3-5. Option C. 1. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. 3.

Remove all the fabric/cloth prior to inspection. 10-12%. monocoque. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Option B. 6. The normal moisture content in the wood of a wooden aircraft structure is. non-monocoque. AC43 Para 1-28 a. semi-monocoque. Correct Answer is. When a full inspection for corosion is to be carried out on a wooden aircraft you would. 20%. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 85%. Option C. Jack and trestle the aircraft to the rigging position. Remove all the fabric/cloth prior to inspection. Option C. Option A. Question Number. The basic structure of an aircraft made of wood can be. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. monocoque. For fungus to cause wood decay in a wood structure. 7. semi-monocoque. Option B. Option A. non-monocoque. Bring the aircraft into the hangar for 2 to 3 days prior to the inspection. non-monocoque. Option B. 4. 20%. monocoque. Correct Answer is. 5. 0-2%.Question Number. Option C. AC43 Para 1-29. Option B. . 20-30%. 5%. the moisture content in the wood must be at least.

. Option B. a major repair. you. 1-29 g. 1-29 g. 10-12%. at no point. at any point except under the wing attachment fittings. Option C. might be able to repair the spar. A crack is found in a wooden spar. How is the moisture content within the wood of a wood aircraft structure determined?. By measuring the size of the water stains at joints. at any point. Replacement of a wooden spar is. AC43 Para. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. 8. 9. Option C. a wooden spar may be spliced. Option B. Explanation.Correct Answer is. 1-41. By weighing the wood structure before and after drying it. AC43 Para. Correct Answer is. only permitted by the manufacturer. 10. By inserting the probe of a moisture meter. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. By inserting the probe of a moisture meter. Option B. Except where specified by the manufacturer. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para 1-40. at any point except under the wing attachment fittings. Option B. AC43 Para. Question Number. Explanation. a major repair. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. a minor repair. must replace the spar section. 11. Option A.

Option B.1-49 b. 150 °C. must replace the entire spar. Question Number. To determine whether an aircraft wooden structure surface is compound curvature. 1-44. a sheet of paper. Correct Answer is. you would use. 15. might be able to repair the spar. improving aerodynamic efficiency. A splayed patch repair may be used on plywood damage which does not exceed. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. AC43 Para. Explanation. Explanation. reducing the requirement for sanding. 300 °C. Option B. 100 °C. AC43 Para. 13. 150 °C. Option A. . 12. Wood sealants used on wooden aircraft structures are for. helping to prevent wood cracking. Explanation. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para. Option A. 1-44 c. Explanation. a heated bending former must be heated to a temperature of. 14. Correct Answer is. 1-48. Option C. Question Number. To assist the bending of plywood. a sheet of paper. a trammel. Question Number. helping to prevent wood cracking. Option C.Option C. 20 times the skin thickness. a curvature gauge. Option A. AC43 Para. Question Number.

Option B. Explanation. The maximum size damage to plywood skin that may be repaired with a fabric patch is. 1 in 12.1-51 c. 50 sq. Option A. Explanation. 18. A surface patch to a plywood structure may be a large as.0 inch diameter. 50 inch diameter. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . 10 times the skin thickness. AC43 Para. 1. 1 in 12. The steepest slope permitted on the scarf of a scarfed plywood repair is. 50 inch perimeter. AC43 Para. Option B. 15 times the skin thickness. Question Number.5 inch diameter. Option C. Question Number. Option C. AC43 Para 1-52. Explanation. 50 inch perimeter. 0. 1 in 4.0 inch diameter. 17. Option C.inch area. Correct Answer is.1-51 a. 15 times the skin thickness. 16. 1 in 20. 1. Question Number. AC43 Para. Option C. Explanation. 3. Option B.1-51 b. Correct Answer is.Option B.0 inch diameter. Option A.

Pine wood has a strength. on the outer surfaces only. compared to that of spruce. exceeding. Explanation. 19. on the inner surfaces only. pine. Option B. on both the outer and inner surfaces. An aircraft wooden structure must be surface finished and sealed. on both the outer and inner surfaces. less than. douglas fir. Option A. Question Number.Question Number. AC43 Table 1-1. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. 21. 1/4 inch thick. The doubler used to support a scarfed patch plywood repair should be made from plywood of a minimum.1-51 d and Figure 1-16. 22. Explanation. Question Number. AC43 Para 1-64. AC43 Para. Correct Answer is. Option C. 20. Option A. Option B. the same as. spruce. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. 1/8 inch thick. Explanation. spruce. Option C. Option C. . AC43 Table 1-1. less than. 1/4 inch thick. Option A. The standard wood type for aircraft wood structures is. 3/8 inch thick.

Option B. Compression wood. shakes or splits. A 'shake' in a piece of wood is a crack. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. between two annual rings. Option B. AC43 Para 1-2. should be rejected. is a hard-wood. Question Number. induced by artificial stress. is preferred because of its superior strength qualities. Option C. Explanation. 25. Explanation. Option C. 26. Option A. can be used for certain secondary structure. . AC43 Para. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para 1-2. 24. Option B. must be rejected. never. in certain locations. Question Number. Option A. should be rejected. Hard knots in wood are acceptable. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Question Number. must be rejected. between two annual rings. up to 3/8 inch diameter in any location. in certain locations. across annual rings.1-2. 23. Wood with checks. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. can be used providing the damage is repaired by gluing and clamping.

Correct Answer is. Option C. Shrinkage of wood is. Option B. . 30. 27. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. equal along and across the fibres. Radial. negligible in the longitudinal direction. greatest in the longitudinal direction. Option B. The greatest amount of shrinkage in wood is in which direction?. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option C. least across the fibres. Tangential. The shrinkage is equal in tangential and radial directions. Shrinkage of wood is. Red heart and purple heart. AC43 Para 1-2. AC43 Para 1-2. Option C. 28. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. are types of hard-wood. 29. AC43 Para 1-2.Explanation. Option A. least along the fibres. are forms of decay in wood. Question Number. Option C. negligible in the radial direction. are harmless natural defects in wood. AC43 Para 1-2. Option B. are forms of decay in wood. least along the fibres. Tangential. Option B.

Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option C. in the middle 1/3 portion. 25 mm apart. 1:20. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. If metal fasteners are removed from an aircraft's wood structure. 33. AC43 Para 1-1. Correct Answer is. 25 mm apart. The maximum permissible grain deviation in wood is. 50 mm apart. Explanation. Option A. AC43 Para 1-11 c. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. 1:15. Nails used on wood structures should be. Question Number. in the middle 1/3 portion. 31. AC43 Para 1-2. and are found to have corrosion on them. 1:15. Question Number. Option A. negligible in the longitudinal direction. Option C. Explanation. nowhere. this can indicate. AC43 Para 1-1. . Option A. 34. 1:8. acidity of the adjoining wood structure. 32.Correct Answer is. 12 mm apart. Option B. in the outer 1/3 portions. Small (up-to 3/8 inch diameter) hard-knots are allowed in a wooden spar. Correct Answer is.

Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. AC43 1-69. deterioration of the fastener. Wood end-grain. has the same susceptibility to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. sealed. AC43 1-71. Option A. a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar entirely replaced. decay of the adjoining wood structure. Correct Answer is. 35. AC43 1-28 j. 38. decay of the adjoining wood structure. Question Number. is more susceptible to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of the boltholes. Option B. plug with hardwood and re-drill. Correct Answer is. 36. Option B. a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar entirely replaced.Option B. Option C. is more susceptible to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. Question Number. 37. it is permissible to ream the hole. is less susceptible to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. and the sealant allowed to dry before fitting the bolt. Correct Answer is. AC43. Option C. Option A. sealed with varnish and wet-assembled with the bolt before the varnish has dried. Option C. Bolt holes through wooden structures should be. Option B. Question Number. . left unsealed and unvarnished inside the hole. Question Number. Option C. sealed. Explanation. Option A. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates. the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates. Explanation. and the sealant allowed to dry before fitting the bolt.

obtain uniform strength. at right angles to the grain. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Option B. decrease weight. decay. Correct Answer is. increase strength. decrease weight. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided. Question Number. they produce a small effect of grain direction. 41. they produce a small effect of grain direction. Correct Answer is. compression failure. AC43. at right-angles to the growth rings. shear failure. Option B. Option C. they have no mineral streaks. Option C. Correct Answer is. at right angles to the grain. . NIL. compression failure. 40. Question Number. Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterised by buckling of the fibres that appear as streaks on the surface. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option A.Option A. 39. AC43. Correct Answer is. parallel to the grain. Explanation. Option B. no pitch pockets are within 12 inches. Option C. Option A. The I-beam wooden spar is routed to.

03.3. Aircraft Materials - Fabric Covering. Question Number. 1. Fabrics may be fitted to airframe structures by. Option A. always riveting. Option B. wood nails. Option C. tying on with string. Correct Answer is. tying on with string. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 2. Aircraft fabric covering is made from. Option A. silk. Option B. polyester. Option C. nylon. Correct Answer is. polyester. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-3 a. Question Number. 3. At manufacture, aircraft fabric is. Option A. shrunk. Option B. doped. Option C. stretched. Correct Answer is. stretched. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-3 b. Question Number. 4. Recovering or repairing of an aircraft with a fabric other than the original fabric type is. Option A. a major modification and requires approval. Option B. prohibited. Option C. a minor modification, providing the fabric is the same strength as the original.

Correct Answer is. a major modification and requires approval. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-5 NOTE. Question Number. 5. Reinforcing tape used on aircraft fabric covering must have a minimum strength of. Option A. 80 lb. Option B. 40 lb. Option C. 120 lb. Correct Answer is. 40 lb. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-5 a. Question Number. 6. Lacing cord used on aircraft fabric covering must have a minimum breaking strength of. Option A. 120 lb. Option B. 80 lb. Option C. 40 lb. Correct Answer is. 40 lb. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-5 c. Question Number. 7. Fabric seams are preferable. Option A. parallel to the line of flight. Option B. spanwise to the line of flight. Option C. oblique to the line of flight. Correct Answer is. parallel to the line of flight. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7. Question Number. 8. Single stitched machine sewn seams are permissible. Option A. at all locations on the aircraft. Option B. never.

Option C. only when positioned over a structure. Correct Answer is. only when positioned over a structure. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 1. Question Number. 9. The minimum pitch of hand-sewn stitch is. Option A. 1/4 inch. Option B. equal to 10 times the thread thickness. Option C. 4 inches. Correct Answer is. 1/4 inch. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 2. Question Number. 10. Hand sewn stitch must be locked at a minimum of. Option A. the end of the stitch only. Option B. 20 stitch intervals. Option C. 10 stitch intervals. Correct Answer is. 10 stitch intervals. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 2. Question Number. 11. Fabric to be hand sewn must be doubled under at the edge to a minimum distance of. Option A. 1/2 inch. Option B. 3/8 inch. Option C. 1/4 inch. Correct Answer is. 3/8 inch. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 2. Question Number. 12. Holes are cut in fabric for inspection panels, spar fittings, drain grommets etc. Option A. after doping.

Option B. before doping. Option C. before attaching the fabric to the structure. Correct Answer is. after doping. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-9 a. Question Number. 13. Aircraft fabric lacing cord is reinforced with. Option A. epoxy. Option B. wax. Option C. lanolin. Correct Answer is. wax. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-10 d 2. Question Number. 14. The dope applied to an aircraft's fabric covering causes shrinkage. Option A. on the last coat only. Option B. on the first coat only. Option C. on all coats. Correct Answer is. on all coats. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-20. Question Number. 15. The two preferred types of dope used on aircraft fabric covering is. Option A. cellulose and polyester. Option B. cellulose and butyrate. Option C. nitrate and butyrate. Correct Answer is. nitrate and butyrate. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-20. Question Number. 16. Aircraft dope, during storage in adverse conditions in a store-room, will become.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. What type of dope is preferred for use on natural fiber aircraft covering?. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Leather soled. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-3. Either type of dope may be applied over the top of any type of dope. Option B. 18. Any type of dope is suitable. Explanation. Which of the following is true regarding aircraft dope type?. Correct Answer is. discoloured. Option A. Nitrate dope may be applied over the top of butyrate dope. Butyrate dope may be applied over the top of nitrate dope. 19. Nitrate. Option C. Leather soled. Plastic uppers. Option B. AC43 Para 2-20 c. Question Number. Butyrate dope may be applied over the top of nitrate dope.Option A. AC43 Para 2-20 c. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . Rubber soled. Correct Answer is. What type of shoes should be worn by the technician applying a dope finish to a fabric covered aircraft?. Nitrate. Option A. AC43 Para 2-20 b. Option A. Butyrate. 17. Option C. acidic. Option B. Option C. alkaline. acidic.

temperature range 65 ° to 75 °F. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. Applying dope to a fabric covered aircraft should be done by. What are the limits of the environmental conditions for applying dope to a fabric covered aircraft?. Option C. Relative humidity 50 .70%. Explanation. to extend the shelf life. brushing all coats to ensure it is absorbed into the fabric. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. to retard the application time. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4 and 2-20 c NOTE. Option A. 20.60%. Explanation. spraying all coats to avoid brush marks. Question Number. Relative humidity 50 .75%. Option A. 21.60%. Regarding the thinning of aircraft dope. Option B. overthinning is preferred to underthinning. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Explanation. produce a smoother finish. Relative humidity 20 . underthinning is preferred to overthinning. spray all coats except the first three.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. temperature range 65 ° to 75 °F. 22. . Explanation. overthinning is preferred to underthinning. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. Relative humidity 20 . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Option C. spray all coats except the first three. 23. temperature range 65 ° to 75 °F. temperature range 40 ° to 60 °F. Option C. A retarder is added to aircraft dope to. dope should be thinned with automotive thinners. produce a smoother finish.

AC43 Para 2-21 6. 65%. laying the fabric out on the floor and cutting it to size prior to fitting to the aircraft. inspection ports etc. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Option B. AC43 Para 2-21 d. 27. Option B. Question Number. before coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. Dressing out' of a fabric covering refers to. Explanation. 50%. Correct Answer is. applying finishing tapes. Coats of clear dope are applied to an aircraft's fabric. Option A. Correct Answer is. is not to be treated after application. Explanation. . after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. Option A. Option B. Option A. 25. Option B. 26. is treated with varnish. the trimming of excess fabric after fitting. is treated with wax compound. Correct Answer is. is treated with wax compound. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. Explanation. applying finishing tapes. before or after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. before or after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. Option C. inspection ports etc. reinforcing patches. 85%. it does not matter. Question Number. Dope should be applied to an aircraft's fabric coating in a relative humidity not exceeding.Question Number. it does not matter. 24. 65%. reinforcing patches. Doped fabric.

Explanation. Option B. 29. To block UV radiation. Option B. Correct Answer is.Explanation. sealed and varnished or painted. oil contamination of the doped fabric. Option C. Correct Answer is. To block UV radiation. . 28. Option A. To provide an aluminium colour to the aircraft. Option C. dope viscosity too high. To provide strength. Option B. Blushing' of a doped fabric surface is an indication of. moisture condensing on the surface during drying of the dope. Option A. moisture enterring into the wood/fabric structure during service. Option A. Question Number. Option B. 30. Option A. Explanation. Aircraft sheet plywood skins are. Orange peeling of a doped surface may be caused by. AC43 Para 2-21. moisture condensing on the surface during drying of the dope. dope viscosity too low. Question Number. AC43 Para 2-22. AC43 Para 2-21. Explanation. sealed and doped. covered in fabric. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. covered in fabric. What is the reason for using aluminium-pigmented dope on a fabric covered aircraft?. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para 2-23. air temperature too low. 31.

slower than nitrate dope. Explanation. Option A. the fabric can be treated with a rejuvenator. Correct Answer is. Orange peeling of a doped surface may be caused by. air temperature too low.Correct Answer is. Butyrate dope burns. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Fabric coated with nitrate dope can be differentiated from fabric coated in butyrate dope by. Explanation. Option B. AC43 Para 2-23 c. 34. AC43 Para 2-32. smelling the fabric. Option A. Option B. 35. . the fabric can be treated with additional coats of the approved type of dope. Option C. carrying out a burn test. AC43 Para 2-32. slower than nitrate dope. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Orange peeling of a doped surface may be caused by. Correct Answer is. spray gun pressure too low. Option C. Question Number. spray gun pressure too low. 32. observing the colour. faster than nitrate dope. Option B. dope viscosity too high. Option A. AC43 Para 2-23 c. Question Number. 33. carrying out a burn test. Option C. the same rate as nitrate dope. Correct Answer is. If the fabric on a wood/fabric aircraft has lost its strength.

Question Number. Explanation. Option B. all the dope must be removed from the parent fabric faying surface before the patch is applied. 37. When the repair extends over three adjacent wing ribs. be extended 3 inches past the structural member. Option A. OR all the aluminium-pigmented dope layers must be removed from the parent fabric faying surface before the patch is applied. Option C. Option A. the patch can be applied to the parent fabric without preparation. Option C. all the aluminium-pigmented dope layers must be removed from the parent fabric faying surface before the patch is applied. AC43 Para 2-42 b. be extended to meet the structural member. Question Number. the patch can be applied to the parent fabric without preparation. Option B. Option B. AC43 Para 2-42 d. AC43 Para 2-42 f. Explanation. When repairing a section of aircraft fabric with a new fabric patch. 36. the new fabric section should. Correct Answer is. be designated a major repair. When the repair extends over two adjacent wing ribs. Explanation. 38. the fabric can be treated with additional coats of the approved type of dope. the fabric must be replaced. be extended 3 inches past the structural member. . Where the edge of a new fabric section will be located within 1 inch of a structural member to which the fabric is attached by rib lacing or other methods. When the repair extends over a wing rib. When does an aircraft fabric covering repair become a major repair?. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. When the repair extends over three adjacent wing ribs. OR the fabric must be replaced.Option C. Question Number. AC43 Para 2-35. Correct Answer is. OR When the repair extends over two adjacent wing ribs Explanation. Option A.

40. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A.Question Number. permitted only if they are temporary due to damp/wet weather conditions. not permitted. a hitch knot. Explanation. 6 inches. What width of finishing tape should be used on a tear in a fabric cover which is 20 inches long?. Correct Answer is. Wrinkles in a fabric covering of a wood/fabric aircraft are. AC43 2-44 a. AC43 2-44 c. Option C. a double half hitch knot. Option A. Option A. 2 inches. Option B. 4 inches. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Option A. a minor aerodynamic detriment. . 2 inches. Explanation. Question Number. AC43 2-43 Figure 2-13. AC43 2-30 b (3) NOTE. 39. Lines of stitching of a fabric repair is locked at the end with. 6 inches. What width of finishing tape should be used on a tear in a fabric cover which is 10 inches long?. a double half hitch knot. 41. permitted only if they are temporary due to damp/wet weather conditions. 6 inches. 42. Option B. Option B. 4 inches. Explanation. Question Number. 4 inches. a half hitch knot. Explanation.

Option C. speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading. Explanation. 43. speed of the aircraft. Option A. maximum wing loading. 44. How many fabric thicknesses will be found in a French-fell seam?. Option B. 46. speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading. Option A. 80-84. Question Number. AC43. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Three. Option C. Option A. Five. Explanation. The determining factor in the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the. Doped on immediately prior to the finish coat. AC43. Doped on after the first or second coat of dope. . Sewed or laced on before dope is applied. Option A. The threads per inch of Grade 'A' aircraft fabric is. Option B. AC43 2-6 Table 2-1. Option C. Correct Answer is. When and how is finishing tape applied on fabric covered aircraft?. Option B. 80-84. Four.Question Number. 45. Doped on after the first or second coat of dope. 60-64. 110-115.

Moisture. Correct Answer is. penetrates the fabric and restores fungicidal resistance. Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?. mildew. Explanation. Correct Answer is. linen fabric. Question Number. Option C. shear strength. Correct Answer is. Four. Option B. Option A. Fabric rejuvenator. Dacron fabric. AC43. Option C. Option A. The edges of the fabric are folded over each other. 49. To prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric. Question Number. 50.htm Question Number.Correct Answer is. Question Number. . To provide additional anti-tear resistance under reinforcement tape. AC43 page 2-35 paragraph (1). bearing strength. To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures. Explanation. Option C.ultralightnews. To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures.com/pilotslounge/cleaning_dacron. http://www. Explanation. glass fabric. tensile strength. 47. Option A. so the threads of a double row of stitches passes through four thicknesses of fabric. chemicals and acids have no effect on. Dacron fabric. 48. Option B. Explanation. NIL. The strength classification of fabric used in aircraft covering is based upon. Option A. Option B. tensile strength.

exclude sunlight from the fabric. restores the condition of the dope coatings. Correct Answer is. Retarder. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Option B. provide a silver colour. Question Number. Retarder. 52. 53. Explanation. 70% of its original strength. 70% of the original strength for intermediate fabric. Rejuvenator. 51. NIL. OR restores the condition of the dope coatings. exclude sunlight from the fabric. NIL. the minimum acceptable strength the fabric must have is. Reducer. aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric. What is used to slow the drying time of some dope finishes to prevent blush?.Option B. Option C. When testing the strength of Grade A cotton fabric covering an aircraft that requires only intermediate grade. restores fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level. . restores fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level. Aluminium-pigment in dope is used primarily to. 70% of the original strength for intermediate fabric. Correct Answer is. 56 pounds per inch warp and weft. Option C.

Explanation. Option B. contact between two unlike metals. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Stainless steel. Corrosion. NIL. NIL. Option A. NIL. electrochemical action. Option B. Option C. electromechanical action. Option C. 1. 4. contact between two unlike metals. . Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option C. improper heat treatment. dissimilar metal contact. which is most cathodic?. From the following list of metals. improper heat treatment. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is.04a. Magnesium. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by. Correct Answer is. improperly assembled components. Stainless steel. hydroelectric action. 2. Explanation. the wrong quenching agent. Intergrannular corrosion is caused by. Correct Answer is. Option A. Nickel. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of. 3. Option C. excessive anodization.

Question Number. Which will suffer from corrosion?. In corrosion. The anode loses electrons. Water in fuel. either the cathode or the anode depending upon the electrolyte. 7. Explanation. 6. Option A. Which of these is a common cause of corrosion?. . Option C. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. either the cathode or the anode depending upon the electrolyte. Correct Answer is. the cathode. Question Number. one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. layer corrosion. NIL. sub-surface corrosion. Question Number. the electrode that loses electrons is. Correct Answer is. Option B. or the same metal in different states. the anode. 5. Both will corrode equally. The anode. Option A. 8. Option B. Question Number. When dissimilar metals are brought together. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as. Explanation.Correct Answer is. The cathode. electrochemical action. The anode. Explanation. Option C. filiform corrosion. layer corrosion. Corrosion is electrochemicqal action. Option C. Option A. The anode always corrodes. BL/4-1 2.

Option C. A&P Mechanics General Handbook Page 171. Spilled battery acid. Option A.1. Stress corrosion is caused by a stressed area being anodic to a non-stressed area. Option C. Spilled battery acid is sure to cause corrosion. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option B. moisture on the surface of the metal. Explanation. Do not confuse with corrosion-fatigue. Spilled battery acid. Correct Answer is. Electrochemical reaction is caused by the contact of. Chemical attack is a direct result of. Correct Answer is. but pure metal in contact with water causes electro-chemical corrosion.6. BL/4-1 3. Explanation. Corrosion in an area under continuous loading. Option C. cathodic & anodic changes in the material. 10. . 11. Question Number. Option A. Option B. cathodic & anodic changes in the material. Explanation. intergranular corrosion. filiform corrosion. Option B. Correct Answer is. dissimilar metals. Correct Answer is. bonding. 9. Question Number. Dissimilar metals causes galvanic corrosion. What is stress corrosion?. Corrosion in an area under continuous loading. Corrosion in an area under cyclic loading.Option B. Explanation. moisture on the surface of the metal. Untreated metal. Corrosion due to fretting.

high temperatures. Option B. the joining of 2 dissimilar metals. allow the less noble metal to corrode first. 12. 14. . Question Number. 13. NIL. a corrosion pit in a member under a compressive load. high temperatures. Option C. corrode before the less noble metal. Explanation. Explanation. cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross sectional area. always be at the top of the table. Option C. Option A.html Question Number. NIL.Question Number. Galvanic corrosion is caused by. Correct Answer is. In the galvanic series. Option B. Option A. the joining of 2 dissimilar metals. a corrosion pit in a member under stress. Question Number. Option B. Option C. dry climates.com/Charts/galvanic-series. http://www. Explanation. the most noble metal will. cyclic loading and a corrosion pit. NIL. Stress corrosion is associated with. cold climates. Explanation. allow the less noble metal to corrode first. NIL. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. a corrosion pit in a member under stress. Option B.mcnallyinstitute. incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. 15. if joined to another metal. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to.

The oxide film formed on the surface of aluminium is. Explanation. Question Number. Along the edges of repair. Option B. Radiate from the corner or sharp edges. Selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloys. Question Number. NIL. non-porous. OR All corrosion is a chemical action. 17. Which is the following correct statement?. Question Number. porous. They strongly resist corrosion. Option A. Radiate from the corner or sharp edges. where would stress corrosion start?. 16. Option A. Option C. 19. Explanation. NIL. What does this suggest?. 18. They try to revert to their natural state. . Option B. They strongly resist corrosion. Option B. All corrosion is a chemical action. Correct Answer is. The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate. Option A. They are highly prone to corrosion. Correct Answer is. Option C.Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Some metals are inherently stable. Correct Answer is. Option C. hard and porous. Form internally to produce surface corrosion. non-porous. Option C. Option B. NIL. In a poorly produced repair to skin structure. The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate.

NIL. Cathode. Option B. 20. Option A. not resistant to corrosion. . 23. manufacturing stage. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option B. reasonably resistant to corrosion. which part corrodes?. Anode. Option A. Option C. production stage. Option C. Anode. Question Number. highly resistant to corrosion. Correct Answer is. excessive etching. design stage. Correct Answer is. Option C.Explanation. highly resistant to corrosion. Option B. That is why aluminium does not corrode. Explanation. Question Number. Corrosion control begins at the. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of. Explanation. NIL. excessive anodization. 21. When galvanic corrosion takes place. Question Number. Option A. contact between two unlike metals. Aluminium is. Oxide film coating. Explanation. 22. design stage.

8. Correct Answer is. fretting. Explanation. Option A. Option C.1. Question Number. fretting. Explanation. None. What sort of corrosion would a magneto be likely to encounter if completely enclosed?. BL/4-1 3. . Direct chemical attack. NIL. Corrosion. CAIP BL/4-1 para 3. Option B.5. Question Number. intergrannular corrosion. 2. Option A. Direct chemical attack. Intergranular cracking. 3. 1. Pitting. Fretting corrosion is identified by black / grey streaks.1. Correct Answer is.5. galvanic corrosion. 04b. Correct Answer is. Flaking. Option A.1. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. BL/4-1 3. Black streaks back from a rivet hole signify. contact between two unlike metals. Option C. Option C. Black powder or cocoa staining. Option B. Black powder or cocoa staining.Correct Answer is. providing the magneto is completely enclosed. What are the signs of fretting corrosion?. Explanation.

Question Number. may have no visual surface indication. Explanation. it is affected by spatter. 4. Option A. Both cleans and protects. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Intergranular corrosion. Protects. Option C. may have no visual surface indication. Cleans. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Cleans. Jointing compound is used to prevent dissimilar metal contact. Question Number. Option B. Option A. To prevent dissimilar metal corrosion. To bond the components together. Correct Answer is. the strip has become anodic. When a steel part is welded. NIL. paint has been removed. . BL/4-1 3. Jointing compound is used for what reason?. 6.2. BL/4-1 2. Explanation. can be recognized by a grey powder deposit.4. Option A. can be recognized by its flaking and lifting of the material layers. Option C. corrosion occurs because. Option C. Active flux does what?. the strip has become anodic. Option B. 5.1. To make the components easier to disassemble. 7. Option C.3. To prevent dissimilar metal corrosion.Question Number. Option B. Option A. Question Number.

Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is. Option C. 10. Explanation. applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces. 11. . Option C. electroplating. electrolysis. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be prevented by.1 & BL/4-1. transgranulation. stainless steel is susceptible to a corrosion known as. BL/6-16 4. Question Number.5. Option B. electrolysis. Question Number. Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded. Option A. Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded. 9. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. 8. anodizing. weld deterioration. Option C. galvanizing. Option B. exfoliation. weld rot. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. priming both the surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer.Question Number. The electrolytic process that forms an oxide film on the surface of aluminium alloys is known as. Option A. After welding. Jointing compound is a non-porous dielectric. Explanation. Corrosion after welding is called 'weld decay'. weld decay. Correct Answer is. weld decay. Option A. OR applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces.

13.Correct Answer is. The artificial production of a film of oxide on the surface of aluminium or any of its alloys is commonly . Option B. NIL. Option A. anodizing. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminium alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated?. Question Number. Option B. Brown powder. Intergranular corrosion. 14. Question Number. NIL. Question Number. White powder. 15. Explanation. 12. Black powder. A biocidal additive is used in the fuel. Explanation. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminium alloy?. Black powder. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Stress corrosion. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Rubber liners are installed in the tank. Option C. Fretting corrosion is identified by a black / grey powder streak. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Intergranular corrosion. What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to micro-biological growth?. A biocidal additive is used in the fuel. Option C. Surface corrosion. Option A. called.

Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option B. NIL. high temperatures. Option B. OR cannot always be detected by surface indications. a painted process. Higher temperatures always accelerate corrosion. a chemical process. Option B. a chemical process. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. anodizing. may be detected by the white. Intergrannular corrosion in structural aluminium alloy parts. Question Number. an electro process. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to. Anodizing is an artificially produced layer of oxide on the surface of aluminium (or titanium). 17. Explanation. are not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminium. dry climates. 18. may be detected by the white. Explanation. Option C. cold climates. 16. AC43 6-3. NIL. parco lubrizing. Question Number. high temperatures. cannot always be detected by surface indications. powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal. Option A. Correct Answer is. powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal. Option C. Option A. alodizing. . anodizing. Magnesium alloy components are protected by.Option A.

Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. 21. a solution of 10% by volume of chromic acid in distilled water with 1% phosphoric acid. Option B. aluminium wool. phosphate process. mechanically using a pneumatic vibrator. Corrosion products should be removed from magnesium alloys by the use of. Explanation. 20. Question Number. 19. Option B. chromating process. nitric acid. Heavy corrosion deposits on clad aluminium alloys should be removed.1% by volume of sulphuric acid. Explanation. Option C. a solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with 0. Option A.1% by volume of sulphuric acid. chemically by use of trichloroethylene. NIL. A type of protection which is applicable to magnesium alloys is the. Option A. chemically by use of phosphoric acid. Option B. chromic acid. 22. Correct Answer is. OR a solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with 0. Correct Answer is.Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. a solution of 10% by volume of chromic acid in distilled water with 1% phosphoric acid. Option B. Explanation. phosphoric acid. phosphoric acid. Option A. Option C. Option A. the base of a suitable solution for this purpose is. chromating process. NIL. If it is necessary to remove corrosion from a steel component in-situ. coslettising process. .

Option A. Option C. a deep scratch increases to become fretting corrosion. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Corrosion at the grain boundaries is called. Explanation. Correct Answer is. a purple finish.3(ii). Replace complete component part. 24. Option A. chemically by use of phosphoric acid. Renew corroded area by patching. 25. Option C. Explanation. What action should be taken on finding intergrannular corrosion?. Option A.Correct Answer is. intergrannular. a shorter life due to hardening. Anodic treatment of aluminium alloy gives. NIL. Explanation. filiform. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Fretting corrosion occurs where. .4. Question Number. a pure coating of aluminium oxide on the surface. Option C. a pure coating of aluminium oxide on the surface. 26. Replace complete component part. NIL. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. intergrannular. fretting. BL/4-2 2. Option A. De-corrode and reprotect. Correct Answer is. two material are subject to very slight movement between the two. 23.

. What are the signs of fretting corrosion on steel?.Option C.1. Phosphate acid solution. Explanation. Question Number. What is used to remove corrosion from magnesium?. Option C. Hooks. Chromic acid solution. Surface corrosion on stainless steel is identified by. AC43 6-31. Option A. Option C. black pitting. pitting corrosion is allowed to become more pronounced.4. Option B. Chromic acid solution is used to remove corrosion from magnesium alloys. Correct Answer is. Sulphuric acid solution. AC43 6-5. Dark staining around area. two material are subject to very slight movement between the two. white film. aluminium or titanium. Correct Answer is. black pitting. Option A. Explanation. BL/7-1 4. 28. wires and other suspension devices used in an anodic bath should be made of. Explanation. Option B. Chromic acid solution. CAIPs BL/7-1 Para. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. aluminium or titanium. Surface corrosion on stainless steel is a black pitting. red rust. steel or copper. Question Number. 29. 27. brass or copper. Option B. Correct Answer is. 30. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Fretting is corrosion combined with small relative movement. Question Number.

Rust on surface. metal spraying. is the same as exfoliation corrosion. Option C. Surface cracking as corrosion breaks through to surface of component. BL/4-10 Para. Option A. always appears as small surface cracks. Question Number. cadmium plating. NIL. Explanation. OR causes rapid and severe corrosion in prolonged contact. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact. Correct Answer is. NIL. Spilled mercury on aluminium. causing a fine dark powdery paste of corrosion products.1. 31. Option C. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact. Intercrystalline corrosion. Option B. Option A. . Correct Answer is. Option C. causes rapid and severe corrosion in prolonged contact. 33. BL/4-1 Para. Option A. cadmium plating. Question Number. OR Dark staining around area. is detectable by x-rays. Explanation. The usual manufacturers anti-corrosion process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts is. is detectable by x-rays. Explanation. Fretting corrosion is caused when there is some relative movement between parts.Option B. increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement Option B. Surface cracking as corrosion breaks through to surface of component. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 32. Correct Answer is. Option B.2.5.3. Question Number. anodising.

Option B. Question Number. Option B. magnesium alloys. phosphating. Option A. Anti-corrosion treatment used on Magnesium is. 35. Option B. Chromate treatment is applied to. vibration in bolted parts. Option C. Option A. BL/4-1 2. 36.1. 37.5.3 '[exfoliation is] A less harmful form of intergranular attack'. Option A. Option A. water trapped between moving parts. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option B. Option C. Al alloys.1. Explanation.3. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Exfoliation. electro-plating. Galvanic. NIL. chromating. magnesium alloys. chromating. vibration in bolted parts. Explanation. Intergranular corrosion is also known as what?. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Fretting corrosion occurs with. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Exfoliation.3. Stress corrosion. Fe alloys. BL/4-1 3. 34. Explanation. Correct Answer is. BL/4-3 3. improper heat treatment.

Option A. Explanation. Option B. fretting corrosion. Correct Answer is. small surfaces. small surfaces. The Alocrom 1200 process was designed to treat.Question Number. Option A. Option C. artificial protection. metallic coating. dye penetrant testing should be used. 41. sharp internal corners and inaccessible places should be avoided to reduce. ultra sonic testing is necessary. Explanation. Option B. 38. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. Explanation. . During construction. artificial protection. crevice corrosion. Option B. chromium plating. filiform corrosion. Question Number. To check the interior of tubular members for corrosion attack. crevice corrosion. Option C. Anodising is a form of. sacrificial protection. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. ultra sonic testing is necessary. Option A. surfaces too large for dip treatment. 39. Correct Answer is. Option C. any form of test is acceptable. Question Number. 40. Option C. NIL.

anodizing. Explanation. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. . 43. NIL. alodizing. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. Option A. NIL. When cleaning aircraft faying surfaces. The artificial production of a film of oxide on the surface of aluminium or any of its alloys is commonly called. parco lubrizing. anodizing. 42. Option A. corrosion acting on the end faces of panels. leaks into the fuselage. Option B. Seals the surface from moisture. Question Number. Alodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?. Surface Corrosion. sharp corners etc trapping corrosive chemicals. Option A.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Option B. Option A. NIL. Fretting Corrosion. Option C. The form of corrosion most likely to cause stress concentration is. Option C. Makes the surface alkaline. NIL. 44. a cause for concern is. Question Number. Question Number. corrosion acting on the end faces of panels. 45. Option C. Correct Answer is.

What NDT method will you use to detect?. Pitting Corrosion. What colour is the corrosion found on the surface of aluminium alloys?. Option A.3. green discolouration.Option C. 47. A composite flap panel has corrosion. White/Grey. Option B. Sodium bicarbonate of soda. Sodium bicarbonate of soda. Option C. green discolouration. 49. 46. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Sulphur and Lime. Option A. CAIP BL/4-1 para 4. Green/Blue. red/brown rust. Black. Pitting Corrosion. Explanation. Corrosion on copper is identified by. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. White/Grey. Question Number. 48. black powder. Lead acid battery fluid has been found to be leaking on the surface of the aircraft structure. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Hot distilled water. NIL. Question Number. . Correct Answer is. What substance would you use to neutralise the acid?. Correct Answer is. NIL.1.

co. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Aluminium alloy parts are often protected by the. Low voltage x-ray.uk/page12.amberelect. the dye mark will not rub off. Correct Answer is. Alocrom 1200 process. Option B. Option B. Alocrom plating. Explanation. NIL. 50. http://www. Option B. the dye mark has no importance. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. chromium plating process.Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Alocrom 1200 process. Option C. Question Number. High voltage x-ray. if a good seal has been accomplished. Option A. Option C. 51. Leaflet 6-9 Appendix 1 Paragraph 4. When examining a piece of metal through a magnifying glass. Coin tap test. the dye mark will rub off. NIL. intergrannular corrosion. Explanation. NIL. 52. Question Number. the dye mark will not rub off. surface corrosion.htm . intergrannular corrosion. Option A. Low voltage x-ray. crevice corrosion. In the anodic film inspection and sealing test. Explanation. hair line cracks would indicate.

54. blue/green deposit. Explanation. Paint finish. to fit new parts. Explanation. Chromating. Option A. to permit the extent of damage to be assessed. Question Number. Option B. grey deposit. Which anti-corrosion chemical treatment is normally applied to aluminium alloys?. NIL. NIL. Question Number. Pure aluminium. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A.Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Anodising. to prevent further damage. Question Number. to permit the extent of damage to be assessed. Alclad is not considered a chemical treatment. Anodising. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Cadmium. blue/green deposit. Corrosion on a copper alloy can be recognised by. . white deposit. Sacrificial protection. 53. Option A. Option B. Chromating. Option A. 56. Correct Answer is. Option C. Which of the following is a temporary protective measure?. Corrosion is always completely removed. 55. Option C. Option B.

A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is. Explanation. alodizing. improper heat treatment. Steel wool. Option A. greyish powder. Option B. fuzzy deposit or whiskery growth. anodizing. fuzzy deposit or whiskery growth. Explanation. Correct Answer is. stainless steel wire brush. greyish powder. Option C. Alodizing is a (non-electrolytic) deposition of oxide film. Explanation. 59. fibre bristle brush. Question Number. Question Number. fibre bristle brush. 57. . 58. Correct Answer is. Option A. yellowish stains on surface of the metal. black pits going into brown rust. improper application of primer. alodizing.Question Number. Option C. fibre bristle brush. Option B. Aluminium wool. aluminium wool. Option A. A non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminium alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called. Option B. dissimilar metal contact. Option C. dichromating. Spilled mercury on aluminium causes. Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces?. Option C.3 (i). Correct Answer is. BL/4-10 2. improper heat treatment. Option A. 60. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Brass wire brush. NIL. Aluminium wool.

Zinc. 62. Option C.Screw Threads. 05. Cadmium. the surface area of the cathodic metal and the anodic material are approximately the same. the surface area of the cathodic metal and the anodic material are approximately the same. NIL. . Which of these materials is the most anodic?. Galvanic corrosion is most likely to be most rapid and severe when. Stainless steel. 61. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Magnesium. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic material. Option B. 1. Fasteners . Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. Magnesium. Option C. Question Number. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?. Option A. OR the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic material. Question Number. NIL. NIL. 7075-T6 aluminium alloy. NIL. Option A. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the anodic material.1. Option B. Stainless steel. 63.Explanation. 2024 aluminium alloy. The pitch of a screw thread is. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B.

Option A. crest to root. Option B. 2 * crest to root. Option C. crest to crest. Correct Answer is. crest to root. Explanation. Pitch is crest to crest. BL/3-2 3. Question Number. 2. A single start thread the lead is. Option A. 2 * pitch. Option B. 1 * pitch. Option C. ½ * pitch. Correct Answer is. 1 * pitch. Explanation. Lead = pitch * starts. Question Number. 3. A wire thread insert tap is. Option A. supplied in a fitting kit. Option B. slightly larger than the hole. Option C. slightly smaller than the hole. Correct Answer is. supplied in a fitting kit. Explanation. BL/2-3 2.2.2. Question Number. 4. Multi-start threads. Option A. increase the lead and decrease the pitch. Option B. increase the lead without increasing the pitch. Option C. increase the lead and the pitch. Correct Answer is. increase the lead without increasing the pitch. Explanation. Lead = pitch * starts.

Question Number. 5. Buttress threads are used. Option A. to transmit power in both directions. Option B. to transmit power on one direction. Option C. on nuts and bolts. Correct Answer is. to transmit power on one direction. Explanation. Buttress threads are used to transmit power in one direction (like some vice lead screws). Question Number. 6. The lead on a single start thread is. Option A. 1 * the pitch. Option B. 2 * the pitch. Option C. 1/2 the pitch. Correct Answer is. 1 * the pitch. Explanation. Lead = pitch * starts. Question Number. 7. Colour identification of an aluminium rivet is. Option A. black. Option B. violet. Option C. green. Correct Answer is. black. Explanation. A pure aluminium rivet is black anodized. BL/6-27 Table 1. Question Number. 8. For a wire insert thread repair, the hole is tapped using. Option A. the same size. Option B. a special tap supplied with the kit. Option C. the next size up. Correct Answer is. a special tap supplied with the kit. Explanation. BL/6-22 3.2.2.

Question Number. 9. Most commonly used thread form in aviation is. Option A. V thread. Option B. round thread. Option C. buttress. Correct Answer is. V thread. Explanation. V thread is the most commonly used thread form. Question Number. 10. Pitch of a screw thread is defined as. Option A. distance from the centre of one crest to the next. Option B. difference between major diameter and minor diameter. Option C. distance between the crest and the root of the thread. Correct Answer is. distance from the centre of one crest to the next. Explanation. Pitch is crest to crest. Question Number. 11. The angle of a screw thread is. Option A. half the inclusive angle of the thread sides. Option B. the inclusive angle of the thread sides. Option C. the distance the thread moves in one turn. Correct Answer is. the inclusive angle of the thread sides. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 12. The tang of a thread insert. Option A. may left it in the insert after installation. Option B. is removed with a hammer and a punch. Option C. must be removed. Correct Answer is. may left it in the insert after installation. Explanation. CAP 562 Leaflet 2-10 3.2.5.

Question Number. 13. A thread insert may be removed by. Option A. a blade removal tool. Option B. a hammer and punch. Option C. a pre-wind insertion tool. Correct Answer is. a blade removal tool. Explanation. CAAIPs leaflet 2-10, page 4, paragraph 3.3. Question Number. Option A. 7 °. Option B. 57 °. Option C. 60 °. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. 14. A metric screw thread angle is.

60 °.

Question Number. 15. Which thread type has the better vibration resistance?. Option A. A fine thread. Option B. A course thread. Option C. Courseness or fineness of thread has no bearing on the vibration resistance. Correct Answer is. A fine thread. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 16. Which of the following thread designations is most fatigue resistant?. Option A. UNF. Option B. UNC. Option C. UNJF. Correct Answer is. UNJF.

Option C. studs and screws.2. they should be lubricated. Which thread type has a 55 ° angle?. 17. Option C. Metric. Anodizing. Hiloks are pre-lubricated. Option A. When fitting a hyloks. Explanation. 2. UNF. Hole is drilled 0. Whitworth. Question Number. Correct Answer is.0015 inch interference. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. the hole should be drilled so it is an interference fit. the torque calculated for each time. NIL. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. .Explanation.Bolts. Option B. Question Number. the torque calculated for each time. Correct Answer is. Phosphating. 05. Option B. 1. each hylock should be torqued. each hylock should be torqued. OR the hole should be drilled so it is an interference fit. Hi-lok/Hi-tique installation guide can be download from Tutorial Support Section. NIL. What sort of surface treatment would you find on a magnesium casting?. Whitworth. Option A. Chromating. Fasteners . Chromating. Option B. Question Number.

Option C.Question Number. Option C. Under head to end of the threads. Option A. Correct Answer is. The overall length of a bolt (from under the head) and the overall length of a screw (including the head). Correct Answer is. Nominal length from head to thread. a raise ring on the head. Option C. Option B. The length of the threads. Question Number. Option B. What is the nominal length of a UNF bolt?. . Temperatures above 120 °C. Under head to screw threads (i. Question Number. The length of thread for a bolt. 4. an 'X' on the head.e. 5. Option B. Temperatures above 120 °C. Temperatures above 200 °C. 120 °C or 250 °F. 3. Question Number. Where should you not use a nyloc nut?. Option A. Explanation. A unified thread is identified by. The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion of a bolt.e. The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion of a bolt. overall length for a countersunk screw. Explanation. plain shank). Under head to screw threads (i. plain shank). Correct Answer is. Option A. 2 or 3 rings on the head. What is the nominal screw length?. Explanation. Option B. BL/2-3. Temperatures above 250 °C. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Contiguous rings. 6. 2 or 3 rings on the head.

a dropped collar under the head. BL/2-7 Fig 1. A blind fastener described as external sleeve and internally threaded would be. An 'x'. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called. Option C. Explanation. a jo bolt. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. plain studs. An AN steel bolt is identified by what marking on the head?. An AN steel bolt is identified with an 'x'. 10. Correct Answer is. shouldered studs. BL/6-28. 14E. Option B. 8. stepped studs. A British close tolerance bolt is identified by. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. A dash. Option B. Option C. a raised ring on the head. Option A. a jo bolt. Option B. An 'x'. Option A. A jo-bolt is externally sleeved and internally threaded. an 'X' on the head. 9. stepped studs. 7. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. A British close tolerance bolt is identified with a raised ring on the head. a raised ring on the head. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a rivnut.Question Number. a cherry lock. Stepped studs have a size larger at one end. Option C. . Option A.

quick release fasteners at inspection panels. quick release fasteners at inspection panels. Explanation. Correct Answer is. for easy hammering into position. NIL. Unified National Coarse. a close tolerance fit. 13. A dowel takes shear loads. Corrosion Resistant Steel. Option A. Unified National Centred. A bolt with a raised dash is. Option B. Explanation. Option C. The initials U. Option B. 11. Option A. Question Number. . Corrosion Resistant Steel. Option C. Correct Answer is. Dzuz Fasteners provide.N. Question Number. United National Countersunk. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Explanation. AN standard. 12. Option B. Option A. A dowel will take what loads?. tensile. torsion. shear. close tolerance. Dzus fasteners are quick release fasteners. 14. Correct Answer is. Option C. Unified National Coarse. shear. Option A. Option B.C when related to aircraft bolts stands for. Option C. Question Number.

a higher resistance to corrosion. Option C. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Capped nuts are used so. a higher resistance to corrosion. . 15 = length in 8ths (15/8 = 1 7/8 in. Explanation. The head marking on a close tolerance BSF bolt is.2. a raised disk on the head face. the part is not over torqued as the bolt touches the captive part first. 16. UNF = Unified National Fine. Explanation. Question Number. a higher pitch thread. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is.). UNC = Unified National Course. to prevent leaks from pipe ends. In the drawing. Correct Answer is. Question Number. to ensure that it is dry bolted. 15. C = Corrosion resistant steel. Option B.Explanation. BL/6-27 3.1.2. Option C. 18. 17. 2= clevis bolt. OR to ensure that it is dry bolted. a lowered ring under the hexagon. A bolt part number AN25C15 when compared to a bolt part number AN25-15 has. the part is not over torqued as the bolt touches the captive part first. a less expensive design and product costs. 5 = diameter in 16ths (5/16ths in). A close tolerance bolt has a raised disc on the head BL/2-3 Para. Correct Answer is. a series of dots on the head face.2. Question Number. what letter represents the nominal length of a BSF bolt?. a raised disk on the head face. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Capped nuts provide an air/fluid tight seal.

Option B.Option A.2. BL/2-3 Fig. its colour (dyed black). Correct Answer is. 20. B. A. G. Correct Answer is. BL/2-3 2. Option B. An aluminium alloy bolt may be identified by. Option A. Option A.2. Option C. its colour (dyed green). A. Question Number. A (British) 3/8 inch dia. Explanation. UNF bolt will have the diameter code letter. Question Number. the letter A stamped on the head. Be careful not to mark answer a) on your exam just because it is A on the drawing. Explanation. . Option B. C. its colour (dyed green). Option C. N. 19.

002 inch axial movement. Rivnuts were originally used for. plain bolt. Option A. Option C. bolt heads fitted upwards. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. An AN steel bolt is identified by. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. securing rubber de-icing boots. Option A. 24. Question Number. J. Correct Answer is. 22. X on head. BL/6-28 5. on head. BL/2-7. Explanation. securing rubber de-icing boots. 0. provides a good clamping force. Correct Answer is. BL/2-3 Table 2. Question Number. bolt heads fitted upwards. anti vibration compound.4. Fork end fittings on control rod ends should have. securing cabin floorings. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 23. J. X on head. Option C.Option C. Explanation. The AN526 truss-head screw. . securing structural parts. 21. Option A. Option A. Option B. Option B.

Option C. are pre-lubricated. Option C. Explanation. . UNF means. NIL. 26.Option B. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Capped nuts are used. is a pan-head screw. Option B. Torsion. do not require lubrication. Option B. Shear. prevent overtightening due to the threaded portion being restricted by the cap. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. is a widely used recesses head machine screw. 25. to stop leaks. Correct Answer is. to provide a dry torque joint.7-17. AC43 Para. NIL. Shear. are pre-lubricated. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Hylocks. is a pan-head screw. 28. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. require lubrication of the screw part only. Option B. to stop leaks. A pin in a fork end fitting is subjected to what loading?. 27. Explanation. Explanation. Tensile.

Question Number. Option C. shear lockbolt has two locking grooves. Question Number. both tension and shear. number of locking collar grooves. Option C. Option A. union national fine. Explanation. Option A.1. NIL.Option A. Explanation. united nations fine. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. to provide dry bolting of the joints.1. Option B. . NIL. A main difference between Lockbolt/Hucbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the. 30. Question Number. Capped nuts are used. Option C. Option B. number of locking collar grooves. tension. 29. and the tension lockbolt has five grooves. shear. unified fine. shear. Option B. Explanation. (ii). to stop leaks due to metal caps fitted on the heads. Option A. Option B. unified fine. Option C. Correct Answer is. method of installation. Explanation. to lock the nut to the bolt. A clevis bolt in a control cable fork end would be loaded in. 31. Correct Answer is. shape of the head. BL/3-2 Para 1. to stop leaks due to metal caps fitted on the heads.

hundredths of an inch. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear strength is desired. Explanation. sixteenths of an inch. body diameter. Correct Answer is. they can be installed with ordinary hand-tools. One of the main advantages of the Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud. 34. Question Number. Option B. manufacturer and type of material. Option A. 32. body type. tenths of an inch. Question Number. Option B. they can be installed with ordinary hand-tools. Explanation. Explanation. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the. . type of head and length of the fastener. A letter identifies type of head. NIL. 33. hundredths of an inch. Option A. Option B. NIL. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where bearing strength is desired. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. Option A.Question Number. Option C. Question Number. tighter fit. head diameter and type of material. grommet. type of head and length of the fastener. The stud length is measured in. 35. and receptacle. they can be removed and reused again. a number identifies body diameter in 1/16 inch increments and another number identifies stud length in 1/100ths inch. Option A. Option C. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to. body diameter. Correct Answer is. Option B. the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure.

Option B. Question Number. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. NAS standard aircraft bolt. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. NAS standard aircraft bolt. Option B. Option C. a standard steel bolts. 37. Explanation. 36. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt-head are. NIL. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a. Correct Answer is. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. close tolerance bolts. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-1. made of aluminium alloy. NIL. Option C. NAS close tolerance bolt. class 1 fit for the threads.Correct Answer is. 39. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. . Explanation. A bolt with an 'X' inside a triangle on the head is classified as an. NIL. class 2 fit for the threads. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. NAS close tolerance bolt. Question Number. a standard steel bolts. Question Number. Correct Answer is. A bolt with a single dash on the head is classified as an. 38. Option A. NAS close tolerance bolt.

Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-83. Explanation. brass. Correct Answer is. prevented from dropping behind the instrument panel by magnetism. class 3 fit for the threads. The speed nut of an Instrument Mounting nut is made from. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 42. The length of a clevis bolt. Option C.Option C. Correct Answer is. . includes the head and the thread. brass. steel. Option A. NIL. phosphor bronze. prevented from dropping behind the instrument panel by magnetism. Option B. Question Number. OR non-magnetic. brass. 43. steel. class 3 fit for the threads. Option B. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Instrument Mounting nuts are. NIL. phosphor bronze. Question Number. Explanation. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-83. soldered in place during manufacture. phosphor bronze. non-magnetic. 40. Option A. The cage of an Instrument Mounting nut is made from. Explanation. 41.

Option B.3. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Option C. 1 in 20. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. then discarded.Locking devices. Question Number. Question Number. 1. Option A. 2. . Correct Answer is. How many times can a locking plate be used?. 1 in 48. between head and spring. Explanation. 3 times. is the plain shank portion only. once. The taper of a standard taper pin is. The plain washer is to protect the surface of the part from the edge of the spring washer. 3. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. 1 in 36. 1 in 48. between spring and part. includes the threads but not the head. Option B. Option B. When using a spring washer. indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked. 1 in 48. then discarded. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-5 5. BL/6-13 3. indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked. Option A. Option A. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-4. Option C. between spring and part. includes the threads but not the head. 05. Option C. the plain washer would be fitted.1. Fasteners . under the nut.

. Once only. Correct Answer is. BL/6-13 5. 10 °. with a plain washer. Explanation.Question Number. As long as it remains serviceable. Option B. Wire locking approach angles should not be less than. because the legs are spread and bent. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. Split pins can only be used once. Option A. 7. Correct Answer is. with a plain washer. repeatedly provided they remain a good fit. 90 °. 4. 5. 6. Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used. Until all the tabs have been broken off. Option A. with a tab washer. Explanation. Explanation. How many times can you use a locking plate?. only once. only once. BL/6-13 7. Correct Answer is. Option B. 45 °. A spring washer must always be used with a plain washer. Option C. Question Number. A spring type washer when used on an aluminium component must be used. Option B. with a spring washer and a stiff nut. by itself. 45 °. As long as it remains serviceable. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. because the legs are spread and bent.

Explanation. A non metallic locknut is. never used over 250 °F. the inner ring is gripped. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the inner ring rotates. Option C. Both a and b. the hole to be expanded by heat. A press fit requires some form of driving force. Option B.Question Number. the outer ring is gripped. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. some sort of driving force. 10. Option C. Question Number. never used over 250 °F. the shaft to be shrunk by cooling. Explanation. The advantage of circlips is. 9. never torqued. Option C. some sort of driving force. it is cheap. Correct Answer is. Circlips are cheap and can be used for internal and external applications. Option B. A pre-load indicating washer is correctly loaded when. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. it can be used for both inner and external applications. AL/7-8. 8. Option A. A preload washer is correctly loaded when the outer ring is gripped. the outer ring is gripped. 11. Both a and b. Option A. Option B. . Option C. A press fit requires. Option A. never re-used.

5. Question Number. Taper pins can only take shear loads. Question Number. Correct Answer is. circlip. . Option B. re-used. 13. BL/6-13 3. Shear. Shear. Explanation. spring washer. Tab washer. AC43 7-101.3. used unless it is multi-tab and there are unused tabs . not re-used. locking plate. 12.3. Option A. Leaflet 2-5 3. Compressive. 15.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Locking plate. not re-used. circlip. Question Number. Option A. In the drawing. Option C.old tabs to be broken off. Shake proof washer. both bolts are correctly wire locked when. 14. Correct Answer is. Taper pins are subject to what loads?. Which can be re-used?. Explanation. the tab washer may be. 250 °F (120 °C) is the maximum temperature for nylon or fibre insert nuts. circlip. spring washer. A tab washer has been removed after fitment for a short time from a non essential system. re-used if a spare is not available. Locking plate. locking plate. Option C. Option B. Option B. spring washer. Tensile. Question Number. Explanation.

Question Number. Option B. NIL. Option C. Option B. both A and B are right hand threads. Explanation. Option C. . An internal circlip can be used to. 18. Option A. must not be used more than once. Correct Answer is. 16. Explanation. A turnbuckle locknut is a. maybe used more than once provided it continues to provide an efficient lock. Question Number. Question Number. both A and B are right hand threads. A is a right hand thread and B is a left hand thread. both A and B are left hand threads. Option A. stiff nut. A spring washer. slotted nut. Option B. retain a ball bearing in a housing. 17. Option A.Option A. Explanation. AC34. may be used a second time provided it is fitted the reverse way round. Correct Answer is. The wire locking is maintaining tightness clockwise in both A and B. maybe used more than once provided it continues to provide an efficient lock. stiff nut. Correct Answer is. NIL. castle nut. Option C.

Question Number. Option B. Explanation. retain a ball bearing on a shaft. Option C. 20. Correct Answer is. By the use of an unthreaded fibre locking insert. NIL. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-5. can be used more than once but depends on the material of the split pin. AN935 split-ring lock washer.5. Option A. Question Number. Option A.Option B. Option A. Split pins are made from. Question Number. How is the locking feature of the fibre-type locknut obtained?. Option B. may be used only once. AN936 shake-proof lock washer. Option C. 21. Explanation. 22. AN936 shake-proof lock washer. Split pins. AC43 Table 7-14. Explanation. By making the threads in the fibre insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section. Option C. to do both of the above. Correct Answer is. A washer having both twisted teeth and spring actions is. Option C. may be used only once. Correct Answer is. Explanation. By the use of an unthreaded fibre locking insert. Question Number. may be used more than once. . AN970 large-area flat washer. Option B. retain a ball bearing in a housing. By a fibre insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section. NIL. 2. 19.

Option C. Shear. Option C. Explanation. 2. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.cadmium plated.cadmium plated. can be re-heat treated once then discarded. Explanation. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-35. Option A. NIL. 05. NIL. Leave at room temperature for four hours. Explanation. Compression. 1. Precipitation treat the component when forming is complete. Option B. Explanation. Shear. Option B. If D or DD rivets are not formed in time . What gives it the other 25%?. or stainless steel. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is..4. Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-5. Leave at room temperature for four hours.cadmium plated. must be discarded. NIL. Forming a solution treated rivet gives it 75% of its hardness. brass or Low carbon steel . Option C. Fasteners . Bearing. must be re-heat treated before use. . A joggle in a removed rivet is indication of what type of partial failure?. brass or stainless steel. Put them in a refrigerator. Low carbon steel . Low carbon steel . Option A. Question Number. Option B. 2. Option C. 3. they.Aircraft rivets.Option A. or stainless steel. Correct Answer is. or removed from the freezer in time. Option A. must be re-heat treated before use.

Question Number. Option A. aluminium L36. Question Number. Option C. A BS rivet made from L36 would be what colour and marking?. al alloy. Natural anodic with no marking. 7. Explanation.Question Number. Green anodic with an 'X'. Correct Answer is. Option C. A natural finish aluminium alloy rivet with a D on it is. A British aluminium rivet is black anodised. duralumin L37. Violet anodic finish. Material and finish. Explanation. 5. Option A. Head shape. material and finish. material and finish. hiduminium L86. Explanation. duralumin L37. Option A. Option C. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Black anodic finish. Option B. BL/6-27 3. Black anodic with an 'A'. Correct Answer is. Example SP80 is snap head. What do the letters and numbers on a British rivet mean?. An L36 rivet is anodised black. Option A. violet finish. . Question Number. Black anodic finish. Black anodic with an 'A'. Option B. Natural anodised finish. 4. Head shape. How is a British aluminium rivet identified?. Correct Answer is. 6. Material specification only. Option B.

D embossed. 8. What metal is suitable for riveting magnesium alloy?. What metal is suitable for riveting alloy steel?. . Option C. 11. Monel metal. Option B. 10. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Explanation. Option A. An aluminium alloy L37 rivet identification is. Correct Answer is. Option A. black anodise with 'A' on it. 5% magnesium is green anodised with an 'X' or an '8'. Explanation. Option B. Aluminium alloy. Option B. 1100 aluminium alloy. 5056 aluminium alloy. green anodise with 'X' or an '8' on it. L37 is aluminium alloy with a D. Explanation.Explanation. 5056 aluminium alloy.1 and AC43 7-1 para. A 5% magnesium rivet is identified by.d.1. BL/6-27. violet anodise with 'S' on it. Monel metal. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. X embossed. O embossed. Option A. Monel metal. 9. Option C. Question Number. BL/6-27 5. Mild steel. BL/6-27 5. green anodise with 'X' or an '8' on it. Question Number. Option B.

retard age hardening. An aluminium alloy L37 (Duralumin) rivet is identified with an 'D'. 2117 aluminium alloy. retard age hardening.5 * diameter. 1.5d. Use immediately or refrigerate. Option A.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.5d plus the thickness of the material. Leave for a minimum of 2 hours before using. 1. 15. Option B. Option C. . Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Rivet allowance is 1. Option A. increase age hardening. What do you do to 2017 and 2024 rivets after heat treatment?. Option A. precipitation harden. Correct Answer is. 2124 aluminium alloy. Option C. Option B. Option B. Option A. Rivet allowance is. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. 13. 12. An American rivet with a cross on the head is. NIL. Explanation. 1. Question Number. Use immediately or refrigerate. refrigerate for a minimum of 2 hours before using. Correct Answer is. Refrigeration retards age hardening. D and DD rivets are refrigerated to. Option B. Explanation. 1d plus the thickness of the material. 14.5d. D embossed.

Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial. 90 °. AC43 4-16. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Option C. material and head type. Question Number. thickness of the material being riveted. Option B. 16. A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the. Question Number. The coding of a British rivet indicates.alloy. Option B. SP series rivets are 100 degree csk. 100 °. Rivet spacing (single row) is 4 * diameter. 20 °. 5056 aluminium alloy. Correct Answer is. Option C. A countersunk rivet of the ‘SP’ series has a head style of. Question Number.Option C. Explanation. length of the rivets being used. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. 17. Correct Answer is. diameter of the rivets being used.alloy and snap head. torsion failure. 5056 aluminium alloy. material and head type. Question Number. Option A.3. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Coding such as SP80 means al. 19. diameter of the rivets being used. A cross on the head of a rivet indicates it is 5056 al. head type and colour. BL/6-27 8. 100 °. length and diameter. Option A. 18. Option A. BL/6-27 3.

Explanation. Option A. Explanation. 22. Option C. Option C.Option B. shear failure. Correct Answer is. Pop rivets and blind rivets cannot be used in place of solid rivets. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Handbook Pg. 5% magnesium rivets are green anodized. A hylok. Option B. anodic green and has an X. Option B. Option B. a colour and number stamped on the head. Aluminium alloy rivets are colour coded with a number or letter on the head. Correct Answer is. what would you use to repair the structure?. a letter and number code. shear failure. anodic violet and has an X. NIL. a part number on the head. Option C. anodic green and has an X. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. a colour and number stamped on the head. bearing failure. A hylok. Question Number. If you can only gain limited access to both sides of a structure. Option A. natural and has an m. Explanation. A pop rivet. Identification of British aluminium alloy rivets is with. A rivet that has 5% magnesium is identified as.155. Correct Answer is. . Option A. A blind rivet. 20. BL/6-27 Table 1. 21. Explanation. Option C.

D. 23. CSK. Option B. Explanation. A rivet with no marking has the material code. Option A. Universal. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. CSK. A. Option C. cooling completed assembly. NIL. Question Number. solution treating. solution treating. leaving assembly for 4 days to age harden. CAIP BL/6-27 table 4. the other 25% comes from. Option C. heating the completed assembly. Option B. Option C.Alloy rivets are solution heat treated. Explanation. Round. leaving assembly for 4 days to age harden. AD. . Rivet MS20426 has what head type?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 25. Option A. 26. annealing. Question Number. Option B. Alloy rivets are heat treated by. Al. When a solid rivet is formed it only holds 75% of its shear strength. Option B. 24. Option C. A. NIL. Question Number. anodising.Question Number.

Option A. Correct Answer is. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material. 1/16 inch. What would the marking . Indicates close tolerance rivet. ½ inch dia. Explanation. ½ inch length. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets. Question Number. The rivet length in graduations of 1/8 inch.5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid rivet?. ½ inch length. Option C. 30. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option B. 1/16 inch. Option C. CAIP BL/6-29 (Rivet Pitch). 29. 27. What is meant by the term Pitch Ratio?. Correct Answer is. What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following markings are given. Question Number. 1/4 inch. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. ½ inch length. The distance between two holes. . 1/8 inch dia. 1/8 inch. 1 inch length. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch. 28. The distance between two holes. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of. 1/8 inch dia. Option A. ¼ inch dia. AS 162-408?. Option A. Explanation. CAIP BL/6-27. Option B.Question Number. Indicates close tolerance rivet. CAIP BL/6-27. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A.

Option C.064 inches. Correct Answer is. Option C. 0. Question Number. 60 to 80 psi.032 plus 2D. ½ inch. 33.096 plus 1.064 plus 1D. Option A.5 D. Option A. 32. Option C. Option B. Question Number. CAIP BL/6-27 para 3. Any situation calling for a pop rivet. 0.064 is to be joined together the rivet should be. 60 to 80 psi.032 + 0. 0.096 plus 1.5 D. Where would a pop rivet with a break stem mandrel be used?. . 1 inch.032 and 0. 0. In a closed structure. Where the head can be retrieved. Option A. Explanation. 20 to 60 psi. Question Number. Correct Answer is. ½ inch. Option B.5D. Option B. Option A. 40 to 60 psi. Explanation. If a sheet of aluminium alloy of 0. 7/8 inch. Sheet thickness is 0. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Rivet allowance is 1. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F?. 1/2 inch stroke. 31.Explanation. 34. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F?. 60 to 80 psi. Correct Answer is. Option B.

until the end has worn 0. 100 . squeezing. Countersunk rivets have two angles of countersink.115 degrees. Explanation. 37.Correct Answer is. 35.002 inch is the wear limit on a chobert rivet gun.2.115 degrees.1. 0. indefinately. Correct Answer is. after the riveting process the mandrel section or stem is. Option B. Explanation. until the end has worn 0. Option C. once only. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. 120) c is closest. Option C. 38. BL/6-27 3. a tapered mandrel. A chobert rivet gun may be used. Correct Answer is. these are. Question Number. Question Number.2. Option A. but since there are 3 countersink angles (90.135 degrees. is ground down flush to rivet head. Option B. BL/6-29 8. Question Number. broaching. A pop rivet is not a truly blind rivet because the tail falls away and has to be retrieved. 125 . 36.2. Explanation. . On a CHERRY MAX rivet. Correct Answer is. the break-stem pop rivet has a head which stays with the rivet after breaking. BL/6-29 8. Avdel rivets are closed by broaching.2. Avdel rivets are closed by. 100 -160 degrees.002 inch below nominal diameter. In a closed structure. 100 . Option A. Option B. Option A.002 inch below nominal diameter. None of these are correct. However. Option C. broaching. 100.

Pop rivet. Option C. A collar holds it in place AC43 4-57. 39. Monel. A 'HUCK' rivet is similar in design to a. The stem remains in the rivet after it is broken off. cherry rivet. Explanation. discarded. Option A. BL/6-27 5. By elimination. Option B. Question Number. Option C. what type of rivet would you use when the back side cannot be accessed?. no such thing as a hi-loc rivet. Copper. Option A. Monel.Option B. 40. Question Number. Hi-loc rivet. dome head rivet.e) but that is not an answer given. Explanation. But both are blind rivets. . Correct Answer is. On a structural repair. 4-24. 41. Question Number. BL/6-28 Para.2.1. Aluminium alloy. Blind rivet. The Huck rivet is similar in design to the cherry rivet. and pop rivets may cause a FOD problem due to the stem falling out. cherry rivet. Explanation. Option C. remains in the rivet sleeve to provide mechanical strength. Option C. Blind rivet. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. blind rivet. What material is suitable for riveting steel?. Really mild steel should be used (see AC43 7-1 para. AC43 4-24. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. remains in the rivet sleeve to provide mechanical strength.

Option A. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. 42. Correct Answer is. What rivets should be used with nickel alloy steel?. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque. Mild Steel. Correct Answer is. 250 °C. Option B. Monel. Bearing. Correct Answer is. Head. Head. Cadmium plated rivets should not be used where the temperature may exceed. 45. Monel. Explanation. AC43 Page 7-2 Para. Explanation. Option A. It is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque. Option A. Option C.g. What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminium tubing?.Question Number. Explanation. Option C.1. 200 °C. Option A. NIL. BL/6-27 5. 120 °C. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque. 43. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Aluminium Alloy. Ease of construction. Explanation. Shear. Option B. NIL. 44. 250 °C. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?.

anodised with 'x'. anodised with 's'. shear loads. The rivets are AN460AD4-6. A plate 10 inches by 5 inches is to be riveted with 3 rows of rivets. Correct Answer is. Option C. 49. 46. Explanation. If it is to be riveted along the 10 inch length. Option C. Option B. 48. Correct Answer is. Of the aluminium alloy rivets.Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. 52. Explanation. Annealing. Option C. Option B. 4D = 1/2 inch. 3 * 20 = 60. NIL. but L86 (hiduminium) is no longer made. tensile loads. Rivet diameter = 4/32 = 1/8 inch. Rivet's main strength quality is to resist. 47. Question Number. anodised with 'x'. Question Number. shear loads. subtract the edge distances (2 * 1/4 inch) = 9 and a 1/2 inches. 56. 60. . What type of heat treatment can be used on DD rivets?. How many rivets are required?. anodised with 'd'. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Question Number. 60. L86 is violet with an 's' and L58 is green with an 'x'. with the normal 4D rivet spacing and 2 D edge distance. A new rivet made of aluminium alloy is. You can fit 20 rivets in 9 1/2 inches. torsion. Precipitation. Option B.

three times the thickness of the thickest sheet. Question Number. possibility of causing delamination. difficulty in forming a proper shop head. Solution Treatment. utilize a pulling tool for installation. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivets are. Explanation. Option B. MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is. may be installed with ordinary hand tools. Solution Treatment. Correct Answer is. increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. and bucking bar for installation. OR three times the thickness of the thickest sheet. special rivet set. possibility of causing delamination. Option A. Option C. NIL. Hole filling fasteners (for example. Option C. NIL. Option A. Option B. and bucking bar for installation. NIL. Correct Answer is. special rivet set. two times the rivet length. utilize a rivet gun. Question Number. utilize a rivet gun. three times the thickness of the material to be joined. 50. Correct Answer is. 51. Question Number.Option C. three times the thickness of the material to be joined. 53. Option A. Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets. . 52. Explanation. Question Number.

Option B. Option A. a shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head). CAIP BL/6-27 para 4. Correct Answer is. Question Number. .Option A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. dimples. Option C. 56. Option C. Option B. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have. Explanation. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 rivets is indicated by the number.1. Most rivets are 2117. Option A. Question Number. an overall length of 5/16 inch. Correct Answer is. an overall length of 5/16 inch. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long.13-1B Chap 4 fig 4-4 on page 4-16. smooth heads without markings. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long. a shank length of 5/32 inch (excluding head). Explanation. Correct Answer is. 20. Question Number. 55. Option A. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has. dimples. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long. AC 43. 2. Option B. 24. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. 2. a raised dot. 54.

fluid tight fastner. Option B. fluid tight fastner. Correct Answer is. 2117-T3. fastener identity. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. head data. 2117-T3. Option B. . diameter and manufactured head location. The NE rivet quadrant gives information on. Option C. Correct Answer is. interference fit fastener. NE. Option A. diameter and manufactured head location. Option C. SE. 60. Option A. A square around the NW digit in the quadrant of a fastner would indicate. NIL. NAS-523. Question Number.Question Number. NAS-523. 2117 is an 'AD' rivet. 57. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. NW. 2024-T4. SE. 2017-T3. The information on rivet grip length is in which rivet code quadrant?. hi-lock to be used. Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?. Explanation. 58. Option B. Option C. 59. Explanation. Option A. Option A.

SE. Option B. NIL. E. What are the rigid pipes on gas turbine engines made from?. By diameter. 61. bottom-left. Maintenance schedule. where would you find the correct replacement part?. Stainless steel. By length. Copper. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. 3. top-right. Option C. W. Option B. When replacing a hydraulic pipe. top-left. SW. Option A. N. Pipes and Unions. Maintenance manual. Explanation. The four quadrants on a quadrant rivet code system are designated. Option A. Option C. SE. 06a. Option C. How are flexible hoses categorised?. 2. Question Number. Explanation. SW. NIL. S. Option B. Aluminium alloy. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NW. bottom-right. Parts catalogue. Parts catalogue.Question Number. NE. NW. Option C. NIL. . 1. By maximum pressure. By maximum pressure. Correct Answer is. NE. Option A.

compress and stretch them. A pipe carrying lubricant would be identified by the colour. Question Number. AC43 9-15. Option A. Option C. Option B. 7. Explanation. NIL. BL/6-15 3. AL/3-13 8. Option C. Question Number. Option A. white. To prevent damage to seals on fitment you would. length. Question Number. Flexible pipes are identified by.0 * working pressure. use a cardboard protector over the threaded portions. Pressure test 1. Stainless steel.Correct Answer is. Explanation. How would you test a hydraulic hose?. . Option A.5 * working pressure. Option B. Option B. Pressure test 1. Option B. material. Explanation. Use cardboard protection to prevent damage to seals when fitting them. use grease. Option A. Option C.0 * working pressure.1.5 * working pressure. Stainless steel has a high resistance to heat. Pressure test 2. material. Correct Answer is. diameter. 6. Explanation. Question Number. Pressure test 1. 4. Correct Answer is.3. Correct Answer is. 5. use a cardboard protector over the threaded portions.4. yellow.

9. Question Number. CAAIP Leaflet 5-5 paragraph 2. Option A. 1100 or 2020 H14. Correct Answer is. Option A. Teflon. Butyl. Hydraulic pipes are made from. The storage life of a flexible hose can be up to but not exceeding. Option B. Explanation.Option C. 11. Which material is a hydraulic fluid hose made from?. white and yellow. Question Number. Option B. The 'lay line' will indicate twist in the hose. Question Number. . annealed steel. Option B. will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose. yellow. Option C. Explanation. Teflon. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Rubber. Correct Answer is. The continuous coloured line on a hose assembly. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 10-16. identifies hose material. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 128/129. Correct Answer is.2. 5056 or 7075. A&P General Textbook Page 10-2.2. 8. 5 years. 10. Question Number. Option C. identifies fluid compatibility of hose. will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose. annealed steel. Explanation.

Option C. 4 years. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 14. Leaflet 5-5 4. Option C. Option B. yellow and white dot. Explanation. use the old one to apply the 'set'. always pressure test before fitting. 5 years. blue dot. The markings on a flexible hose must include the. internal bore size. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Question Number. Option A. yellow dot. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. When fitting a replacement flexible hose. Option B. Explanation. 15. What type of material would hydraulic pipes on an undercarriage leg or bay be made from?. Question Number. 13. Leaflet 5-5 3. ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure. Correct Answer is. Option A. 2 years. . blue dot. ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid O-rings are identified with a. Option C.Option B. Option A. date of manufacture.1. date of manufacture. Explanation. 12. manufacturers name.

AC43 9-30c. 7075. Stainless steel. Correct Answer is. The length of a straight hose assembly is measured. 17.4. 1100. Option A. Option C. NIL. Option A. Stainless steel. Option C. What are the limits?. A metal pipe has a small indentation. Explanation. Option B. 16. 2024. between the outer faces of the union nuts. Option A. No dent on a bend. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 5% internal diameter. 14H. Explanation. H14. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. serial number. aircraft system. Correct Answer is. along the coloured line. fluid it is carrying. NIL. between the extremities of the two nipples. Correct Answer is. Option C. 14H. . Option B.Option A. 10% of external diameter. in half hard state. It is the. Option B. 18. annealed. serial number. between the extremities of the two nipples. An aircraft pipe has a number stamped on it. annealed. Leaflet 5-5 2. Question Number. Option C. No dent on a bend. Question Number.

outside diameter and 1/32 inch increments. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. 20. inside diameter and 1/16 inch increments. outside diameter and 1/16 inch increments. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because. deep permanent impression left in a flexible hose by the pressure of hose clamps and supports. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Option C. of 5 . it. outside diameter and 1/16 inch increments. Option C. 19. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and. Explanation.8 % of the length. vaporizing fuel. Option A. Option A. welding and sheet metal. when under pressure. Question Number. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. Option B. contracts in length and expands in diameter.8 % of the length. Option B. Question Number. rubber hose. NIL. expands in length and contracts in diameter. Option B. of at least 10 . Explanation. Correct Answer is. to allow maximum flexing during operation. of 5 . The term 'cold flow' is generally associated with. 22. Option C. Flexible lines must be fitted with a slack. NIL. NIL. 21. expands in length and diameter. Option A.Question Number. Option B.12 % of the length. rubber hose. Correct Answer is.

OR providing bends in the tubing. 0. Question Number. Correct Answer is.688 inch. using short. The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from3/4 inch. AC65-9A Question Number. 0. Option C. Option B. 0.000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps?. not subjecting the aircraft to sudden changes in temperature. Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength. Explanation. Option A. 24. . Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the. Option A. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?. Option C. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by. inside diameter.606 inch. 23. Correct Answer is. 0. inside diameter. Option B. Correct Answer is. straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the structure of the aircraft.072 5052-0 aluminium alloy tubing. Subtract 2x wall thickness from the outside diameter. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Explanation. straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the structure of the aircraft. abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high pressure (3. wall thickness. using short. Option B.750 inch. 0. outside diameter. providing bends in the tubing. Explanation.606 inch. 25. 26.Question Number.

Put washer either side of the banjo. Corrosion resistant steel annealed 1/4H. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Question Number. have about the same OD. The letters mean Pressure High. Option B. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose compared to a 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will. have equivalent flow characteristics. Option A. Corrosion resistant steel annealed 1/4H. NIL. 28. Correct Answer is. is a high pressure line. 27.Option A. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy. Discharge at Nacelle. Put washer either side of the banjo. Explanation. Option C. is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel. How do you assemble a banjo hose?. PHDAN means PHysically DANgerous to personnel. . A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN. Option C. Option C. Explanation. 06b. is carrying a substance which cannot be made non-toxic. Option C. Option B. Put a washer on the outside of the banjo only. Put a washer on the inside of the banjo only. have equivalent flow characteristics. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Pipes and Unions. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy. 1. is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel. usually have interchangeable applications. Question Number.

AN8-8852-1. synthetic rubber mineral based. turn until torque is felt plus 2 flats. Question Number. natural rubber vegetable based. AN8-8852-8. turn until torque is felt plus 2 flats. BL/6-15 9. To install a flareless coupling. diameter pipe is to be joined using standard nuts and fittings.5 in. butyl rubber. Explanation. Correct Answer is. ethelene propylene or Teflon Phosphate Ester based. A Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of. Correct Answer is. 8/16 = 0. Option A. A 0. What coupling would you use?. NIL. hand tight plus 2 flats. Option C. Question Number. . Option B. 4. AN8-8852-2.Explanation. Option A. 5. i.5 inches. Pipes are graded in 1/16 inch steps. Option B. butyl rubber. Explanation. pipe to pipe coupling. Option A. Question Number. pipe to externally coned adapter. Option C. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21. Option C. Option A. The last dash number is the number of 16ths. turn until torque is felt plus 3 flats (half turn). 3. Option B.3. Adapter nipples are not required on. Option B. 2. AN8-8852-8. Correct Answer is. Question Number. ethelene propylene or Teflon Phosphate Ester based.e.

pipe to internally coned adapter. What is the colour of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?. Option A. Black. Explanation. rather than being torqued. A butyl rubber seal is made from. Explanation. silicon rubber. rather than being torqued. synthetic rubber. 8. Option C. MS flareless fittings should not be lubricated prior to assembly. Question Number. synthetic rubber. Red. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface have made contact. Correct Answer is. Option B. BL/6-15 Figure 1. Explanation. 7. During installation. Option A. 6. latex natural rubber. . Option C. Option A. Question Number. Option B. pipe to externally coned adapter. Blue. Explanation. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque. Which statement about Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings is correct?. Correct Answer is. Black. OR During installation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque. Steel AN fittings are black. Option B.Option C. MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface have made contact. aluminium AN fittings are blue.

Option B. Tension. . Question Number. Coil springs are made from. NIL. Option C. Compressive. 2. Option C. packing. carbon or high alloy steels with low working stress. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. packing. Explanation.Question Number. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. carbon or alloy steels with high working stress. compound. 9. Option A. Springs. Steel music wire is. carbon or high alloy steels with low working stress. Correct Answer is. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a. Spring hooks are under bending stress. Option B. What load are spring hooks subjected to?. 1. Option A. 3. low carbon steels with high working stress. Explanation. used for lower strength springs. 07. Correct Answer is. Bending. Bending. gasket. made of high carbon or nickel alloy. Option B. Spring steel is hardened (therefore high carbon) steel or alloy steel and work under low stress so they remain within the elastic region.

can accept a small amount of misalignment. a regular click indicates. A spring should be inspected for correct. 1. Option C. Correct Answer is. Needle roller bearings. Correct Answer is. are designed to carry axial loads. Question Number. 2. used for high strength springs and as progressive-rate springs. strength and squareness. Explanation. Option C. width. Option A.Option C. Correct Answer is. 4. NIL. Option B. When rotating a ball bearing by hand. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. length. NIL. Option B. a cracked ring. Option A. NIL. used for lower strength springs. Question Number. a cracked ring. Question Number. are susceptible to brinelling. length. strength and squareness. . strength and squareness. Option B. width. are susceptible to brinelling. 08. length and strength. Explanation. Bearings. Option A. intergranular corrosion in the outer ring. damage to the balls. Correct Answer is. NIL.

Needle roller bearing. Correct Answer is.Question Number. radial. Explanation. A journal load is. . Explanation. radial. 3. Option B. 4. Tapered roller bearing. 5. 'thrust' means axial. Large thrust and moderate radial. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Where there are space restrictions. High speed operations. Tapered roller bearing. Large radial and moderate thrust. Option B. NIL. Large radial but no thrust. Option A. Where are needle roller bearings used?. Needle roller bearings are used where there are space restrictions. BL/6-14 2. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Large radial and moderate thrust. Option A. Option C. Caged ball bearing. Correct Answer is. What kind of bearing is used in a landing system?. 6. Spherical roller bearings resist what loads?. Option C. axial. Explanation.3. Radial' means outward. Where is fluid damped bearing used. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Where there are space restrictions.3. Option C. NIL. compression. Option B. Option B.

Option A. A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings?. Option B. A self aligning bearing is a. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is.2. spherical roller bearing. Option C. Ball Bearings. Taper roller bearings can take radial and thrust loads. 7. radial bearing. BL/6-14 2. Plain bearings. taper roller bearing. Explanation. radial and thrust. Question Number. Correct Answer is. CAIP BL/5-2 para. thrust only. Option B. Option C. 2. Needle bearings. Option A. 10. radial and thrust. spherical roller bearing. Loads on tapered roller bearings are. A hardy splicer is a universal coupling as found on vehicle drive shafts and they are fitted with needle bearings. cylindrical roller bearing.2. Needle bearings. A crankshaft would be fitted with a. 8. Correct Answer is.3. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. angular bearing. Option A. Question Number. . A self aligning bearing is a radial bearing.3. 9. Option C. radial only. Explanation.Question Number. Correct Answer is. radial bearing. Option B. precision bearing. Option C.

radial loads only. running at operating speed and listening for signs of wear. Option B. sideloads. Question Number. dismantling and inspecting. Thrust bearings take. Option A. group 4 bearings are used. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 12. Explanation. Option C. Option A. 11. A feel test is the most likely inspection. group 4 bearings are used. Question Number. 14. Option C.Question Number. axial and radial Loads. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. journal loads. axial loads only. Explanation. radial loads. Explanation. Where heat is likely to be transmitted through a bearing. Option B. Option A. Group 4 bearings have the greatest clearance. A single row ball bearing is best suited to accepting. Option B. radial loads only. Shielded ball bearings are inspected by. rotating slowly by hand. . Question Number. Thrust bearings take side loads. group 2 bearings are used. rotating slowly by hand. 13. Correct Answer is. sideloads. group 3 bearings are used. Option C. The run test is not done at operating speed.

2. BL/6-14 5. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. 18. To transmit radial loads whilst resisting axial movement. Taper roller bearings are used for which of the following purposes?. no action. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. rejection of the bearing.1. . a push fit. Correct Answer is. an interference fit. 16. 17. in situ. Option C. Correct Answer is. in situ. Option C. when removed from an assembly. Explanation. when dismantled. Option C. Inspection of bearings is normally carried out. To transmit thrust loads with radial loads. A single row ball bearing carries radial loads only BL/6-14 2. Option A.Explanation.2. BL/6-14 6. Option B. To permit axial movement whilst resisting radial load. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. a spigoted fit. Option B. The stationary race of a journal bearing is normally. 15. Question Number. To transmit thrust loads with radial loads. replacement of the shield. Taper roller bearings transmit thrust and radial loads equally. Damage to the shield of a bearing should result in. an interference fit. Question Number.2. BL/6-14 Para. Option B.3.

19. Explanation. Option C. Option B. A thrust bearing is designed so that. white. Option C. Needle bearings resist. it transmits axial loads. intergranular corrosion. Option A. When silica gel has absorbed moisture the colour changes to. Correct Answer is. 20. NIL. . Explanation. Question Number. radial load only. axial load only. BL/6-14 6. Intergranular corrosion (on some stainless steels) looks like a thin line on the surface of the metal . Question Number. Option A. Option B. lack of lubrication. A watermark on a bearing indicates. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 1-8 Page 3. 22. Question Number. Option C. blue.2. Explanation. it transmits radial loads. therefore limiting radial movement. pink. 21. therefore limiting axial movement. pink. rejection of the bearing. intergranular corrosion. Option A. Option A. Question Number.known as water stain. Explanation. bearing running dry.1 (iii). radial load only. Option B. Option B. radial and axial load.Correct Answer is.

Option C. Explanation. therefore limiting axial movement. measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension. CAAIPS Leaflet 5-4 para 6. white. NIL. it transmits axial loads. Explanation. therefore limiting axial movement. 09. Option A. Correct Answer is. pink. Option B. measure chain and use 5% max formula to check extension.3. measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension. Question Number. it transmits axial loads. Option A. measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension. under pressure. when serviceable it is coloured. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. blue. 24. How do you check a chain for elongation?. Apply a load. Option B. Apply a load. Lubrication of roller bearings and needle bearings are. Option B. Question Number. blue. 1. Explanation. Option C. Hang the chain under its own weight. Correct Answer is. Option A. Apply a load. 23. But it depends what type of lubricant is used and the bearing application. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Silica gel is used for moisture control during storage. by hand. Option C. by hand.Option C. at low pressure via a tube. Transmissions. .

where a control chain goes around a sprocket?. 2. 4. 5. Explanation. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs leaflet 5-4 para 6. Worm drives operate in shafts which are. Option A. Question Number. . shafts rotating on axis 90 degrees from each other. 90 degrees to each other and in a differing plane. parallel to each other and in the same plane. Question Number. NIL. Hanged so they do not kink. Oiled and coiled in greaseproof paper. Prevents entry of foreign bodies. Explanation. Option C. shafts rotating on the same axis. How do you store a chain?. Protects personnel when carrying out maintenance. Explanation. Option C.Question Number. Lay uncoiled and flat in greaseproof paper. Option B. 3.7. NIL. Explanation. shafts rotating on offset axis. A turboprop reduction gearbox is a good example of an epicyclic gear system. Correct Answer is. Stops the chain coming off if it goes slack. 90 degrees to each other and in a differing plane. Stops the chain coming off if it goes slack. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. shafts rotating on the same axis. Option A. Epicyclic gears are used on. Option A. Option C. What is the purpose of the guard. Oiled and coiled in greaseproof paper. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. 90 degrees to each other and in the same plane.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. in two planes. Option A. The test involves painting the surface of a gear tooth then running the gear. profile of the gear teeth. Option A. . When not under load where should a pair of gears sit?. By use of a chain guard. How is a non-reversible chain different from a normal chain?. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B.Question Number. 6. Question Number. AL/3-2 Figure 4. Option B. mark it leaves on a mating gear. In the middle. Option C. By using a pulley. By using bi-planer blocks. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. By using spring clips. achieved?. The pattern of a gear is the. mark it leaves on a mating gear. Option A. the path they take when the gear is rotating. Explanation. On the toe. How is the change in direction of a control chain. Question Number. then inspecting the 'pattern' worn into the painted surface. 9. On the heel. 7. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Every second outer plate is extended in one direction. In the middle. AL/3-2. Option B. Option C. Every second outer plate is extended in one direction. By using bi-planer blocks. Option C. Different end fittings. Option C. 8.

13. See Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance. pattern and profile. Middle. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Bottom. Middle. See Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance. Option C. Option A. Bevel. For a pair of gears to operate properly. . What type of gear would be used on a propeller reduction gearbox?. toe. Question Number. Option B. foot. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option A. end play and thrust. Option B. lash and pattern.Explanation. heel. Explanation. Explanation. 11. Option B. The correct meshing of gears is found by observing the marks made during a gear mesh test. 12. 10. On what part of the tooth should the marks be?. they must have. toe. Split epicyclic. The teeth on the smaller wheel of a bevel gear are called the. lash and pattern. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Top. Correct Answer is. See Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance.

positive drive and axial movement. 14. Explanation. 17. Explanation. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits. Correct Answer is. A feather key allows axial movement. Correct Answer is. Time intervals are only in the Maintenance Schedule.Option C. Explanation. Maintenance schedule. . The teeth of a gear would normally be. Option B. a drive in 2 planes and transmits both directions. nitrided. a positive and strong drive for transmissions. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Where would you find the inspection interval for chains?. NIL. Maintenance manual. Question Number. Epicyclic. Question Number. Overhaul manual. 15. NIL. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option C. A worm drive creates. a drive in 2 planes but transmits 1 direction only. 16. Question Number. Explanation. Epicyclic. Option A. positive drive with the gear firmly locked. a drive in 1 plane but transmits both directions. Option A. Option C. Maintenance schedule. positive drive and axial movement. a drive in 2 planes but transmits 1 direction only. Option B. Option A. Option C.

Hardening right through the gear teeth would make them brittle and tend to break. NIL. Option B. the wear pattern should be. the wear pattern should be. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. tapering off to the heel. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. If a chain is removed for routine maintenance. Option C. greatest at the heel. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. the middle of the tooth most worn. Correct Answer is. it does not have to be proof checked. AL/3-2 6. Option A. Question Number. it must be proof checked to ½ max load. case hardened. it must be proof checked to full load. the middle of the tooth most worn. Option B. On gear teeth. Option B. at the centre of the tooth. 19. the top edge most worn.Option B. even from top to bottom. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. greatest at the toe. least at the toe. 20. Question Number. On bevel gear teeth.6. at the centre of the tooth. tempered. Option C. Option C. case hardened. 18. it does not have to be proof checked.

hanging by hand by measure and sight. It must be replaced. Option B. replace the particular segment and run components to check for serviceability. running the chain over a finger by 180 degrees. replace the whole chain. . Bevel gears are all over case hardened. Option C. toe is hardened. Option A. Leaflet 5-4. 23. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option C. all over case hardened. Option C. Correct Answer is. 24. replace 3 segment either side of the deficiency. Correct Answer is. heel is hardened. Option A. Correct Answer is. Bevel gears are. the solution to this is to. running the chain over a finger by 180 degrees. The chain cannot be repaired. case hardened. Explanation. 22. all over case hardened. case hardened. Option A. Option B. nitrided. A chain is checked for stiff links by. The teeth of a gear are normally case hardened by flame cooling and water spray quenching. Explanation. replace the whole chain. Question Number.Question Number. The teeth of a gear would normally be. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. tempered. Question Number. During an inspection interval one segment of a long chain is found to be defective. Explanation. Option B. stretching out and measuring. 21.4. AL/3-2 6.

28. the small diameter is the toe. Correct Answer is. at right angles to the plane. toe. Lay flat on a table. Option C. Question Number.3. at different angles to the plane. Correct Answer is. Option B. only be fitted in one direction. Hang chain up. around a common axis of the plane. Option B. only be moved in one direction. Explanation. check sight line and measure. Option B. Option A. Leaflet 5-4 4. Drive planes on an epicyclic gear are. The large diameter on a bevel gear is called the. Correct Answer is. Lay flat on a table. not be fitted through pressure bulkheads. around a common axis of the plane. 26. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. foot.Question Number. heel. apply tensile load and measure. The large diameter is the heel. Option A. Option C. apply tensile load and measure.3. Option A. Option A. Non-reversible chains can. Option C. .2. How do you check a chain for elongation?. heel. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-4 para 6. Option B. 27. only be fitted in one direction. Option C. 25. Adjust the end fittings.

Option B. freewheel clutches. Question Number. is made up of gears that are. Correct Answer is. NIL. 31. The clutch which can overrun the driving member. Option A. driver and idler. is known as. Option A. . Correct Answer is. NIL. more wear resistance. Explanation. Compared with the spur gears. 10. spiral gears have. NIL. less stress concentration on gears. 29. less stress concentration on gears. Question Number. Control Cables. Option A. Question Number. 30. overload clutches. Option C. no-slip clutches. Explanation. Option B. NIL. idler. driven. When is a turnbuckle not in safety?.Explanation. Explanation. A gear system. Option A. driver and idler. or gear train. Option B. 1. Question Number. driven. Correct Answer is. Option C. When a small diameter wire can be passed through the inspection hole. Option C. freewheel clutches. driven and driver. have mechanical advantages.

Option B. Use the inspection hole or count the threads showing. When you can see daylight through the hole. diameter and breaking load in Hundredweights. Cables are preferred to other control systems because. breaking loads in lbf. Ensure that the turnbuckle cannot be turned by hand. NIL. NIL. Cable control systems are strong and light. Correct Answer is. are locked by. 4. depending on type. NIL. 5. When a wire of the same diameter as the inspection hole can be passed through. where 1 lbf = 4. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Option A. they maintain slight mechanical advantage over push/pull systems. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Use the inspection hole or count the threads showing. 3. Turnbuckles. breaking load in hundredweights.Option B. Option C. When a wire of the same diameter as the inspection hole can be passed through. . Explanation. Option C. 2. Option C. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Handbook Pg.448N.143. single braid allows for 2 way directions. How do you check a turnbuckle is in safety?. Make sure no threads are showing at either end of the turnbuckle. breaking load in hundredweights. Explanation. British aircraft cables are classified by their. Option A. they are strong and light. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. they are strong and light.

British turnbuckles are checked for safety by. Explanation. To correctly tension cables it can help to. looking through the hole and checking for threads showing. AC43 7-43. castleated nuts and splitpins.Option A. Option B. Option C. Option B. 7. a fairlead. 6. attempting to pass locking wire through the hole. Explanation. attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole. use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet. A cable tension regulator maintains cable tension. Cable tension is maintained by. AL/3-7. Option C. Option B. have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. locknuts and wire. . Question Number. Explanation. a cable tension regulator. CAIPs AL/3-7. a cable tension regulator. Correct Answer is. 8. Option C. locknuts and wire. stiffnuts. Option A. have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. a grommet. attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole. Correct Answer is. take up initial slack by additional pulleys. Explanation. Correct Answer is.

12. 11. Question Number. NIL. BL/6-24 2. the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing. cable size 9/16 inch diameter. Correct Answer is. Option B. How is the diameter of a cable measured?. Diameter of one wire only. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. AC43 7-166. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. 9 strands of 16 wires. both rods are seen to touch in the inspection hole. the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing. Option A. Overall diameter. Option A. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. 10. Overall diameter. adjust major tension on the cable. 9 cables having 16 turns per inch.2. adjust minor tension on the cable. Diameter of one wire multiplied by the number of wires. Option C. Option A.Question Number. Option C. 9 strands of 16 wires. Explanation. 9. NIL. Question Number. Option C. 9 * 16 cable is. both rods enter the barrel by the same amount. Option B. Turnbuckles are used to. Turnbuckles are correctly fitted when. Correct Answer is. adjust minor tension on the cable. join the two ends of the cable.

Correct Answer is. 15. 13. Correct Answer is. Option A. it is lockwired. What is the small hole on a swaged turnbuckle for?. NIL. NIL. Option C. Explanation.Question Number. Explanation. A turnbuckle is in safety when. NIL. the witness hole is covered or the amount of threads showing at the cable end is in accordance with the Maintenance Manual. the witness hole is covered or the amount of threads showing at the cable end is in accordance with the Maintenance Manual. 14. Option B. lock nuts and safety wirelocking. Option B. . Option C. Option A. A turnbuckle can be safetied by. 16. To check if correct amount of cable has been inserted before swaging. Spring locking clips for turnbuckles can be used on. Option B. lock nuts and safety wirelocking. all flying control cables. the colour on the threads is showing. only on trim control cables. Explanation. To check for moisture deposits. doesn't require to be safety locked. Correct Answer is. all flying control cables. Question Number. teflon lock nuts. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Option B. no flying control cables. To alloy the turnbuckle to be wire locked. Option C. Question Number. Option C.

17. Correct Answer is. figure 1-84. A 7x7 cable has seven strands each of. c. Wire smaller than inspection hole. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. seven wires. 18. the pulley is too large for the cable. Jepperson A&P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-45. Wire the same diameter as the inspection hole. To check if correct amount of cable has been inserted before swaging.s. the cable is too tightly tensed. fourteen wires. 19. When checking the safety of turnbuckles you should use what?. Wire the same diameter as the inspection hole. hundredweight for British. Option B. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is.s. Table 2 is American. Explanation. Option C.Correct Answer is. c. hundredweight for American. If a pulley shows signs of wear on one side. Option B. NIL. and pounds for American. and pounds for American. Question Number. hundredweight for British. Explanation. the cable is misaligned. the cable is misaligned. Option A. c. Option A. Question Number.a. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-12 Table 1 is British. NIL. Correct Answer is.a. 20.s. Visual check.a. Option C. . Cable minimum breakage strain for British and American is measured by. hundredweight for British. Option A. pounds for both. Option C.

Option C. stainless steel. multi strand steel wires and is used primarily as a single one way device operated from a control lever. Option A.Option C. 21. . Option A. Cable stops are manufactured from. a flexible seven or nineteen strand steel cable used for the operation of manual flying controls. NIL. Correct Answer is. The system can operate in two directions. a high tensile steel wire with a right or left hand helix wire wound on to it. Explanation. Explanation. 22. Question Number. 24. In a Teleflex flexible control system. Explanation. copper. Jepperson A&P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-41. tungum and high tensile steel. magnesium alloy. brass and phenolic resin. Phenolic resin also known as Micarta or Tufnol.7-33. The system can operate in two directions. Option B. AC43 7-148e P. Question Number. Correct Answer is. seven wires. copper. Option C. brass and phenolic resin. Question Number. stainless steel and nylon. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. 23. the Teleflex cable consists of. one wire. Option C. Option A. a high tensile steel wire with a right or left hand helix wire wound on to it. Pulleys are manufactured from. A cable tension regulator will be installed in a flying control system to. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number.

7 wires. Option B. Question Number. Option A. allow for variations in temperature which will vary the cable tension. maintain the necessary tension. Explanation. circumference of the cable and overall length. relax the tension in cold conditions. 25. 26. Option C. Tension is set up by adjustments of the turnbuckles and tension regulators keep tension the same over varying opperating temperatures. Option A. Option B. . Question Number. allow for variations in temperature which will vary the cable tension. 27.Option A. Aircraft flying control cables are normally classified by the. NIL. Option C. maintain the necessary tension. Correct Answer is. 7 Wires make 1 cable. British cables are classified by the minimum breaking load . 7 strands make 1 wire. number of strands it contains and the number of wires in each strand. Option B. compensate for rapid movement of the controls by taking up the slack. automatically compensate for low cable tension caused by worn cables. Option C. Option C. 7 * 7 cable has seven stranded wires each with. 14 wires. Correct Answer is.American cables by diameter (only). Correct Answer is. Explanation. set up the necessary tension. 7 wires. Option B. Correct Answer is. Tension regulators on aeroplanes with fully metal bodies are used to. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. 49 wires. Explanation. minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches. minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches.

Option A.Question Number. 30. 1/8 inch. AC43 7-149 g. 28. single wires are blended together. Pulleys. the same current rating. Explanation.689. Question Number. lower current rating. the protective fluid coating is missing. higher current rating. Option A. Option B. 1. NIL. Pulleys. Option C. Option B. How are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?. Option A. single wires are blended together. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 11. Option A. Option B. A 14 gauge cable when compared to an 18 gauge cable has. Option C. 5/16 inch. Correct Answer is. Option B. Electrical Cables and Connectors. 1/8 inch. 29. A flight control cable is replaced if. Explanation. Bellcranks. . Fairleads. Explanation. a wire is 20% worn. Option C. CFR 23. Correct Answer is. 1/4 inch. Option C.

same thickness as airframe cable. Explanation. Option B. released from the front and extracted from the rear. thicker than airframe cable. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option A. 4.Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. To reduce the chance of an accidental short. released from the front and extracted from the rear. Jepperson A&P Technician Airframe textbook Ch7-61.2. thinner than airframe cable. Maximum temperature of tin coated copper cable is. Explanation. 260 °C. Option A. 5. . Why is the ground side of an electrical power conductor usually connected to a male connector?. To make installation of the connector easier. 200 °C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-3 8. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Question Number. the pin will be. A 14 gauge cable is thicker than an 18 gauge cable. NIL. Option A. Option C.3. Correct Answer is. To reduce the chance of corrosion affecting the pins. thinner than airframe cable. released from rear and extracted from the front. In a front release connector. Question Number. To reduce the chance of an accidental short. An interconnect cable has what insulation?. Option B. higher current rating. 3. Option B. released from the front and extracted from the front. 2.

Circuit function. Correct Answer is. Explanation. This figure of 105 °C is for old obsolete cables. 8.clockwise. Option C. This should be challenged. Question Number. Option B. Equipment wire. Plug pins are numbered.1. is flexible and suitable for soldering. from the inside out . Normally 130 °C.anticlockwise. Option B. 105 °C. from the inside out . Explanation. In the wiring code shown.clockwise. Option A. 7. Explanation. . Option A. Option C. Option B. Cable size.clockwise. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Pg 91. from the inside out . 6. EEL/3-1 9. Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. 105 °C.Option C. from the outside in . can be used for interconnect wiring. has thicker insulation than interconnect wire. Question Number. Question Number. is flexible and suitable for soldering. Cable number. Option C. as there are many different types and many different numbering systems. Cable number. what does the number 6 (4th number from the left) represent? 1EF6B22 NMS V.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Hot stamping has been known to cause wet arc tracking. emergency power. Option B. Explanation. A coaxial cable is a single shielded cable. An aluminium oxide layer on a conductor will do what when the temperature is increased?. Peeling of the insulation. Become thicker. AC power. Option C. Correct Answer is. What is a coaxial cable?. Question Number. 12. Two or more conductors. Wet arc tracking. 11. Option C.2. Option C. A twisted pair of conductors. 10. Become thicker. A single conductor. Corrosion. Two or more conductors. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. Option A. Option A. . Explanation. X' indicates AC power. Option A. 'X' on an electrical cable indicates. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Become thinner.8. Correct Answer is. Wet arc tracking. 9. Option B. Option A. What must you be careful with a hot stamped cable?. Question Number. Oxides of metals always become thicker with elevated temperatures. control system. AC power.Question Number. Remain the same. Explanation. Sometimes the outer shielding is considered a conductor (and sometimes carries signal). Option B. But Palletts's Aircraft Electrical systems describes it as 'two or more separate conductors' Page 86.

Option A. Option B. Option A. weight for weight it can carry more signal. Option B. Option C. 18 swg is a 10 amp cable. Question Number. A co-axial cable is better than a normal cable because. Insulates. 15. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Insulates. What amperage is an 18 swg cable?. Explanation. Option B. Fire hazard. it has less resistance. What is the danger if a silver coated connector comes into contact with glycol de icing fluid. All metal oxides are insulators. Correct Answer is. Provides strength. Corrosion. Explanation. 10 amp. Question Number. Option A. 14. 16. What is the effect of aluminium oxide on aluminium electrical cable?. The shielding in a coaxial cable converts the electromagnetic field into electrical energy. 13. there is an electrostatic field around it which helps to reduce the electromagnetic field. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. 5 amp. Reduces resistance. Option C.Question Number. Correct Answer is. . Option C. Option A. 1 amp. Fire hazard. there is an electrostatic field around it which helps to reduce the electromagnetic field. Wet arc tracking. 10 amp.

corrosion can occur.Explanation. Option B. Option C. Explanation. The 22 represents the cross sectional area. The conductor in tersil cable is nickel plated copper. weight for weight. CSA with CSA. Correct Answer is. Option B. The conductor in Tersil cable is. Option A. current rating. nickel plated copper. Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminium when comparing. stainless steel. When silver coated connectors are used in unpressurised parts of the aircraft. tinned copper. Option B. 19. Option C. EEL/9-3 2. .7. Option A. corrosion can occur. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. wet track arcing can occur. Option A. current/weight ratio. Explanation.8. nickel plated copper. Red Plague. load for load. cross sectional area. 17. The 22 represents the. Option A. CAAIPs. Option C. Correct Answer is. separation of the coating can occur. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. 18. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option C. 20. cross sectional area. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 83. Correct Answer is. A cable is marked NYVIN 22. Silver coated connectors and glycol deicing fluid is a fire hazard.

an insulator. Correct Answer is. weight for weight. an insulator. Option B. Option B. 23.1. For an electrical cable to be fireproof it must be able to stand 1100 °C for. 15 mins. Option A. Leaflet 11-5. non corrosive. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 22. Option B. Option C. Option A. 21. Option C. Aluminium is better than copper when you compare weight to weight (CSA = cross sectional area). Leaflet 11-5 7. 300 °C. 15 mins. insert the pins from the front and extracted from the rear. Option C. Explanation.Correct Answer is. 24. 200 °C. Silver plated copper wire has a maximum working temp of. Option A. Correct Answer is. Any metal oxide is an insulator. 20 mins.5. Explanation. Option B. Question Number.2. Option A. On a rear insert plug the tool is used to. Question Number. fire resistant -5 minutes. 10 mins. Oxide on exposed silver plated wires is. 250 °C. 200 °C. Explanation. . Question Number. a conductor. Leaflet 11-5 5. insert the pins from the rear and extract from the front. Fireproof -15 minutes. Question Number.

Question Number. horizontally. Explanation. have no effect. vertically. Flexing aluminium wire will work harden it. 200 to 250 °C. Question Number.7. Option A. 150 to 200 °C. . Explanation. Aluminium wiring when flexed will. Question Number. A foot operated hydraulic swaging tools is checked for fluid level. insert the pins from the rear and extract from the rear. Option B. Correct Answer is. Nickel coated copper -260 °C. Correct Answer is. Nickel coated cables temperature range is. All electrical pins are inserted from the rear.Option C. only when operating pressure is reached.2. 25. 27. Correct Answer is. Question Number. work harden and embrittle. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Silver coated copper -200 °C. The difference is how they are removed. Tin coated copper -135 °C. Option C. Option A. Option B. Option A. the bypass valve closes and ram is neutrally loaded. the swage is formed when. On a hydraulic swaging tool. Option A. Correct Answer is. work harden and embrittle. 26. 200 to 250 °C. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. Option C. have a higher resistance. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-3. insert the pins from the rear and extract from the rear. Explanation. 28. horizontally. 100 to 150 °C.

single-core. Correct Answer is. multi-core. Decrease. what will happen to the voltage drop?. If the cross sectional area of a cable is increased. Option C. using alternate return wires so that the cable differences cancel each other out. single-core. Interference in ribbon cables can be prevented by. single-strand. screened. Option A. the bypass valve opens and ram is neutrally loaded. Option C. 29. grounding alternate wires so that signal wires are never adjacent. Option C. NIL. multi-strand. Explanation. Correct Answer is. leads are. screened. 32. An 80 wire ribbon cable.7. single-core. H. Correct Answer is. the use of a common earth return between signal wires in the cable. . Most HT leads are multi-strand single core. screened. Question Number.Option B. Explanation. Option B. Option C. grounding alternate wires so that signal wires are never adjacent. Explanation. The cross sectional area of a copper crimp barrel is. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. 40 of them will be grounded to the metal connector at each end.5. multi-strand. Question Number. Option B. swage pressure is reached on the gauge.T. 30. Correct Answer is. Decrease. the bypass valve opens and ram is neutrally loaded. Increase. 31.7 e (iii). Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 Para. The connector will be 40 pin. screened. Option A. multi-strand. Stay the same.

20. Option C. it does not oxidise. Electrical cable on aircraft is mainly made from copper because. it offers low resistance to current flow. 35. Option C. Correct Answer is.3. 24. it offers low resistance to current flow. Option C. employ thinner insulation than airframe types. Option B. Explanation. 20. Chapter 20 is 'Standard Practices'. Question Number. Option B. smaller than an aluminium one. employ thinner insulation than airframe types. Explanation. same as an aluminium one. Correct Answer is. Interconnect cables. . what chapter in the ATA system should you refer to?. it more malleable. 34. larger than an aluminium one. smaller than an aluminium one. 33. Option A. Question Number. Option B. NIL. 12. 4. Option A. Option B. Question Number.Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. are used for equipment wire in the unified system. Option A. are the cable through the MEC to the engine. When crimping. Option C. Correct Answer is. CAAIPS Leaflet 11-5.

Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 39. page 5. wires being pulled through too hard. When silver coated connectors are used in unpressurised parts of the aircraft. Option C.6). red plague can occur. Option A. too much flux. hot stamping of cables. Explanation. Chap 4 pg 87. http://www. Option A.co. Knuckling is a problem on earlier aircraft cables due to. Option B. External document…. Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd edition by EHJ Pallet. Explanation. use a tooling hold between the assembly and cable.8. separation of the coating can occur. Correct Answer is. Option B. wires being pulled through too hard. the outer covering is cut back to expose the braided outer conductors. 10 minutes. red plague can occur. 5 minutes. The first step for the coaxial cable to attach to the end fitting is. 38.PDF . Explanation. Option C. the outer covering is cut back to expose the braided outer conductors. Correct Answer is. 5 minutes. Option C. Question Number. paragraph 4. Option A. 36. 37.uk/docs/33/AIL0140. CAAIPs leaflet 11-5. Red Plague. A fire resistant cable must maintain adequate insulation in a fire for.Question Number. Question Number.7. Option B. Option C. Option B. 30 minutes.5 (note the difference from a 'Fireproof' cable para 4. back-off the insulator and connect with conductor. Option A. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para.caa. wet track arcing can occur.

Question Number. Option B. Option B. 40. multiplied by the 'K' factor. Question Number. Which of the following types of electrical wire is likely to be used for connection of thermo-couples around the jet-pipe of a turbine engine?. Option C. Correct Answer is. 41. there is no heat required. Cable current ratings are based on a conductor temperature rise of 40 °C and if the maximum design ambient temperature is continuously exceeded they should be. no flux is needed. NIL. Fepsil. Explanation. Option C. there is no heat required. The main reason why crimped joints are preferable to soldered joints is. that it is a Pneumatics system cable. divide by the 'K' factor. Explanation. the quality of crimped joints will be constant. Fepsil. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Option B. Option A. Tersil. Option B. which segment the cable is in. Question Number. In the cable identification '2 P 215 A 28 N' the position of the letter P indicates. 43. Option A. Correct Answer is. multiplied by the 'K' factor. . NIL. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 83/4. the circuit function. Nyvin. 42. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. halved.

. more current. 45. are fitted from the front but removed from the rear. Option A. as the fields due to current flow in the inner and outer cancel each other out. Question Number. Option B. Option C. The colour indicates. the circuit function. Explanation. A 14 SWG electrical cable when compared to a 18 SWG cable can carry. Explanation. Option B. Co-axial cables are used. Option A. as they are able to handle high current. Question Number. the type of crimping tool to be used only. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-3 para 9. Airframe handbook page 449. Crimping terminals are colour coded. AC65-15A A&P Mech. as the fields due to current flow in the inner and outer cancel each other out. as they produce an electrostatic field around them which prevents HIRF interference. Option A. Correct Answer is. the wire size to be used with that crimp only. less current. Option B. Option B. 14 SWG is a bigger cross sectional area than 18 SWG. 47. Direct removal connector pins are fitted from the rear. both the crimping tool and the size of the wire to be used. Aircraft Electrical System 3rd editin By EHJ Pallet. Option C. Correct Answer is. 44. Explanation.Correct Answer is. 46. Option A. Question Number. and removed from the rear. the same current. both the crimping tool and the size of the wire to be used. Option C. Explanation. last para on pg 86. more current. Correct Answer is. Question Number.

Mechanical strength. Option B. Option A. it should be secured along its entire length. type of load (continuous or intermittent). allowable power loss. Correct Answer is.Option C. Option B. permissible voltage drop. . How should splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?. 48. Explanation. When installing coaxial cable. Correct Answer is. Allowable power loss. current carrying capability of the conductor. 50. wherever the cable sags. allowable power loss. at 1-foot intervals. permissible voltage drop. Question Number. and removed from the front. Option C. NIL. NIL. current carrying capability of the conductor. type of load (continuous or intermittent). Grouped together to facilitate inspection. at 2-foot intervals. Which of the following factors must be taken into account when determining the wire size to use for an aircraft installation?. Mechanical strength. Explanation. Option C. at 2-foot intervals. and removed from the rear. resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. permissible voltage drop. Option A. Enclosed in a conduit. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. type of load (continuous or intermittent). Allowable power loss. Correct Answer is. Option B. resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. OR Allowable power loss. Question Number. permissible voltage drop. NIL. resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. 49. current carrying capability of the conductor.

Explanation. Option A. Option B. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is. one. one. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on.Option C. NIL. Question Number. 11-167 (c). the power supply side of the circuit. Correct Answer is. splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses of installed wiring. Option C. Staggered along the length of the cable. crimping and soldering. Explanation. soldering. the ground side of the circuit. AC 43 para. 52. NIL. Option A. When approved. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. three. crimping. crimping. 53. two. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Option C. either side of a circuit (makes no difference). Option B. 51. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the ground side of the circuit. Option A. Correct Answer is. . Option B. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by. Staggered along the length of the cable.

Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible. the power supply side of the circuit. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with stringers and ribs. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wires?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. the power supply side of the circuit. Option A. Option C. Option B. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. 54. the voltage and amperage of the load it must carry. NIL. cross sectional area. 57. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are. current-carrying capacity. NIL. the ground side of the circuit. combined resistance and current-carrying capacity. Question Number. cross sectional area. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible. either side of a circuit (makes no difference). Option B. the number assigned to a size is related to its. 55. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. . Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to stringers and ribs. 56. Explanation. the system voltage and cable length. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.Question Number. The socket section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on.

Correct Answer is. firewalls etc. Cementite or Iron Carbide. Option C. Option B. the metallurgical structure is called. Austenite. 58. Where electrical cables pass through holes in bulkheads. wrapping with electrical tape. NIL. formers. the result is called. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. . When one carbon atom chemically combines with 3 iron atoms. When carbon is fully dissolved in iron and therefore uniformly distributed in solid solution. 2. NIL. ribs. NIL. Option B. Question Number. Option A. wrapping with plastic.Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Austenite. Option C. Correct Answer is.. the wires should be protected from chafing by. Correct Answer is. 12. Question Number. using a suitable grommet. 1. Explanation. Ferrite. Pearlite. Option A. Martensite. using a suitable grommet. Cementite or Iron Carbide. NIL. Pearlite. Option B.

5. Correct Answer is. cementite and Martensite.83%. Question Number. ferrite and cementite. Option A. Explanation. soft and weak. Option C. Explanation. 4. The properties of ferritic metal are that it is both. 3. Question Number. 0. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. The amount of carbon necessary to produce a totally pearlitic structure is. Option B. Pearlite. Option A. Explanation. martensite and iron carbide. Option C. NIL. Ferrite/Iron. 6. ferrite and cementite. 1. Pearlite combines the properties of. Correct Answer is. 1. Explanation. Pearlite. NIL. Question Number. strong but too hard and brittle. . Option A.83%. NIL. soft and weak. Option C. strong without being brittle.Question Number.83%. Correct Answer is. Option B.0%. 0. Martensite. Option C. Cementite laminated with ferrite in alternate layers produces. Option A. Option B.

C. Lower Critical Point.P and L. strong without being brittle. Explanation. This hesitation is known as the. Option A. Option B. NIL. 10. strong but too and hard and brittle. 9. soft and weak. there is a hesitation (slight pause) in the temperature rise before it increases a further 200oC. Lower Critical Point. Referring to a iron/carbon phase diagram. Upper Critical Point. NIL.Question Number. 7. Question Number. hesitation point.C. NIL. the point where the two meet is known as the. strong without being brittle. strong but too hard and brittle. . Explanation. Option B. The properties of cementite metal are that it is both. soft and weak. strong but too hard and brittle. Correct Answer is. when talking about U. Option B. Option C. Eutectic Point. Option A. Option A. Question Number. When heating a straight carbon steel. 8. strong without being brittle. Explanation. eutectic point. Question Number. The properties of pearlitic metal are that it is both.P. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is.

. Explanation. point of no return.Option C. eutectic point. Correct Answer is. NIL.

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