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a finite integral domain is a field

A finite integral domain is a field. Proof: Let R be a finite integral domain. Let a be nonzero element of R . Define a function :R R by (r)=ar . =0

Suppose (r)= (s) for some r s R . Then ar=as , which implies a(r−s)=0 . Since a and R is a cancellation ring, we have r−s=0 . So r=s , and hence is injective. Since R is finite and is injective, by the pigeonhole principle we see that is also surjective. Thus there exists some b R such that (b)=ab=1R , and thus a is a unit. Thus R is a finite division ring. Since it is commutative, it is also a field.
2. Prove that “If S is any subset of a vector space V, then L(S) is a subspace of V”

A non-empty set V is said to be a vector space over a field F if it satisfying the conditions: (V, +) is an abelian group; V is closed under scalar multiplication (i.e., for every   F, v  V we have v  V) and also the scalar multiplication satisfies the following axioms: i) (v + w) = v + w, ii) ( + ) v = v + v, iii) (v) = ()v and iv)  F  V 1.v = and v for v, all ,  w

(here 1 is the identity of F with respect to multiplication). We use F for field, also the elements of F are called scalars and the elements of V are called vectors.

P ⋁ ~P = t. (p⋁q) ⋁(~p⋀~q) = P⋁~P is a tautology. by De Morgan's Laws.e. i.. ~P = ~p⋀~q. then. _____________________________ If P = p⋁q. ______________________________ Hence. .Show that [p (p q)] ~p is a tautology Any statement in disjunction with its own negation is a tautology.