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Infinite Series Involving Pi
Date: 12/16/97 at 01:00:59 From: Eric Tak Subject: Infinite series involving pi Sorry, I am just totally confused on this problem. it is: Here

1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + 1/5^2 + . . . . . = pi^2/6 Please, I need a clear, easy-to-understand reason or proof for WHY this is correct. If a simple solution is unavailable, a hard solution will also be greatly appreciated. Also, what does: 1 - 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 - 1/4^2 + 1/5^2 - . . . equal? Thank you!

Date: 12/16/97 at 19:30:24 From: Doctor Anthony Subject: Re: Infinite series involving pi This can be proved by advanced trig. manipulations, but a more elegant method is with the aid of Fourier series. A brief note on Fourier series is necessary if you are to understand the method. For a great many functions within the range -pi < x < pi we can express f(x) as an infinite series of the form: f(x) = a(0)/2 + SUM(n=1 to inf.)[a(n)cos(nx) + b(n)sin (nx)] where the a(i), b(i) are constants. So

5.5.2012 9:06:46 PM

org/library/drmath/view/56916. INT(-pi to pi)[f(x)cos(nx)dx] = pi.pi and the convention is to take the interval -pi < x < pi.5.dx] = INT[a(0)/2)dx] + = a(0). Also all terms in sin(mx)cos (nx) whether or not m=n disappear on integration between -pi and pi. INT[f(x). There are a to multiply both sides by cos(nx) and then integrate between -pi and pi..html 5.. Math f(x) = a(0)/2 + a(1)cos(x) + a(2)cos(2x) + a(3)cos(3x) + .. b(i) and express f(x) as an infinite series in sines and cosines of multiples of x. INT(-pi to pi)[cos(mx)cos(nx)dx] m not equal n between -pi and = (1/2)INT[cos(m+n)x + cos(m-n)x]dx pi = 0 but since sin(any multiple of pi) = 0 INT(-pi to pi)[cos^2(nx)]dx = pi (m not equal to n) So all the terms cos(mx)cos(nx) disappear and we get only the term in cos^2(nx) This gives the result INT[f(x)cos(nx)dx] = a(n). + b(1)sin(x) + b(2)sin(2x) + b(3)sin(3x) + .cos(nx)... Page 2 This series is periodic with period 2.2012 9:06:46 PM .pi and so a(n) = (1/pi)INT[f(x). The way to evaluate the constants a(i).dx] b(n) = (1/pi)INT[f(x)sin(nx)dx] Similarly since all terms in sin(mx)sin(nx) (m not equal to n) disappear leaving only the term in sin^2(nx).pi So a(0) = (1/pi)INT[f(x).Math Forum .dx] Proof of above results..dx] In the case n=0 we get 0 + 0+ .a(n) below) (proof given So a(n) = (1/pi)INT(-pi to pi)[f(x)cos(nx)dx] Similarly b(n) = (1/pi)INT(-pi to pi)[f(x)sin(nx)dx] and a(0) = (1/pi)INT(-pi to pi)[f(x).Ask Dr. This means that we can evaluate all the a(i)..

cos(nx) Page 3 n = 0 this gives a(0) = (2/3)pi^2 When n greater than 0 integration by parts in 3 steps gives a(n) = 4(-1)^n/n^2 The Fourier series is n^2 cos(nx) With x=pi.SUM(1 to infinity)(-1)^n/ 4.a(n) = INT(-pi to pi)[x^2.. We can now turn our attention to finding the sum of the series 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + .html 5... Math great many functions that can be expressed in this way in the interval -pi to pi.. to pi^2/6 = infinity. We need only look at the a(i) (-1)^n term 2. For all a(n) dx] When we get pi.2012 9:06:46 PM . first note that: 1 ..cos(nx)dx] When n = 0 this gives a(0) = (2/3)pi^2 When n greater than 0 integration by parts in 3 steps gives: a(n) = 4(-1)^n/n^2 The Fourier series is n^2 cos(nx) With x=0. We need only look at the a(i) terms...SUM(-1)^n/n^2 cos(n.pi^2/3 infinity] = this produces +'s for each pi^2/3 + 4..1/16 + 1/25 .a(n) = INT(-pi to pi)[x^2..1/4 + 1/9 . Let f(x) = x^2 This is an even function of x so we know that NONE of the sine terms of the Fourier series can be present.5.pi) and since cos(n.. to As for the other series. 1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + .....SUM[1 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + .Math Forum .SUM(-1)^n/n^2 cos(0) pi^2/3 + 4. This is an even function of x so we know that NONE of the sine terms of the Fourier series can be present..SUM(1 to infinity)(-1)^n/ http://mathforum.Ask Dr. For all a(n) we get pi. we get: 0 = pi^2/3 + 4.. we get pi^2 = pi^2/3 + 4. = pi^2/12 Then let f(x) = x^2.

to infinity (Well you did ask for a 'hard' solution.1/3^2 + .] all keywords.1/16 + .1/4 + 1/9 .SUM[-1 + 1/2^2 ..math/ Associated Topics: High School Sequences.. pi^2/12 = -1 + 1/2^2 . Math Page 4 and since cos(0) = 1 this produces alternate + and .html 5. Series Search the Dr. Math [Privacy Policy] [Terms of Use] Math Forum Home || Math Library || Quick Reference || Math Forum Search Ask Dr. The Math Forum Check out our web site! http://mathforum.math/ http://mathforum.. Math Library: Find items containing (put spaces between keywords): Click only once for faster results: SEARCH [ Choose "whole words" when searching for a word like age..for the terms.) -Doctor Anthony. that exact phrase parts of words whole words Submit your own question to Dr.1/3^2 + 1/4^2 + .org/dr.2012 9:06:46 PM .Math Forum .Ask -pi^2/3 infinity] = 4. in any order at least to -pi^2/12 = infinity. to 1 . MathTM © 1994-2011 The Math Forum http://mathforum.5.

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