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1 molar solution of the acid
HQ is 3. The value of the ionization
constant, Ka of this acid is :
(1) 1 × 10
–5
(2) 1 × 10
–7
(3) 3 × 10
–1
(4) 1 × 10
–3
Ans. [1]
Sol. pH = 3 ¬ [H
+
] = 10
– 3
M = o C
o =
C
10
3 ÷
=
1 . 0
10
3 ÷
= 0.01 << 1
Ka = o
2
C = (0.01)
2
× 0.1 = 1 × 10
–5
Q.2 Which among the following will be named
as dibromidobis (ethylene diamine)
chromium (III) bromide ?
(1) [Cr (en) Br
4
]
–
(2) [Cr (en) Br
2
]
–
(3) [Cr (en)
3
] Br
3
(4) [Cr (en)
2
Br
2
] Br
Ans. [4]
Sol. dibromidobis(ethylene diamine) chromium (III) bromide
2Br en Cr
+3
Br
–
[Cr(en)
2
Br
2
]Br
Q.3 Which method of purification is represented
by the following equation :
Ti(s) + 2I
2
(g)
÷ ÷ ÷ ÷
K 523
TiI
4
(g)
÷ ÷ ÷ ÷
K 1700
Ti(s) + 2I
2
(g)
(1) Poling (2) Van Arkel
(3) Zone refining (4) Cupellation
Ans. [2]
Sol. Van Arkel Method
Q.4 The compressibility factor for a real gas at
high pressure is
(1) 1 + pb/RT (2) 1 – pb/RT
(3) 1 + RT/pb (4) 1
Ans. [1]
Sol. At high pressure :
P
V
a
P
2
~

.

\

+
RT ) b V (
V
a
P
2
= ÷ 
.

\

+
Reduce to P(V –b) = RT
or PV = RT + bP
Z =
RT
PV
= 1+
RT
bP
Q.5 The increasing order of the ionic radii of
the given isoelectronic species is
(1) Ca
2+
, K
+
, Cl
–
, S
2–
(2) K
+
, S
2–
, Ca
2+
, Cl
–
(3) Cl
–
, Ca
2+
, K
+
, S
2–
(4) S
2–
, Cl
–
, Ca
2+
, K
+
Ans. [1]
Sol. Ca
2+
, K
+
, Cl
–
, S
2–
isoelectronic series
Q.6 The species which can best serve as an
initiator for the cationic polymerization is
(1) AlCl
3
(2) BuLi
(3) LiAlH4 (4) HNO
3
Ans. [1]
Sol. For cationic polymerization the best reagent
will be AlCl
3
Q.7 The molecule having smallest bond angle
is
(1) SbCl
3
(2) PCl
3
(3) NCl
3
(4) AsCl
3
Ans. [1]
Sol. NCl
3
Same group bond angle
PCl
3
+
decrease on moving top
AsCl
3
to bottom.
SbCl
3
Q.8 The equilibrium constant (K
C
) for the
reaction N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) ÷ 2NO(g) at
temperature T is 4 × 10
–4
. The value of K
C
for the reaction, NO(g) ÷ 1/2N
2
(g) + 1/2
O
2
(g) at the same temperature is
(1) 4 × 10
–4
(2) 50.0
(3) 0.02 (4) 2.5 × 10
2
Ans. [2]
Sol. N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) ÷ 2NO(g) ; k
1
= 4 × 10
–4
NO(g) ÷ 1/2N
2
(g) + 1/2 O
2
(g); k
2
= ?
k
2
=
1
k
1
= 50 Ans.
Q.9 Iron exhibit + 2 and + 3 oxidation states.
Which of the following statements about
iron is incorrect?
(1) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than
the corresponding ferric compounds.
(2) Ferrous compounds are more easily
hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric
compounds.
(3) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature
than the ferric oxide.
(4) Ferrous compounds are relatively more
ionic than the corresponding ferric
compounds.
Ans. [2]
Sol. Based on Facts
Q.10 The electrons identified by quantum
numbers n and l:
(a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0
(c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 3 = l = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy
as
(1) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(2) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
(3) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(4) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
Ans. [4]
Sol. Value of (n + l)
(a) n = 4, l = 1 4p 4 + 1 = 5
(b) n = 4, l = 0 4s 4 + 0 = 4
(c) n = 3, l = 2 3d 3 + 2 = 5
(d) n = 3, l = 1 3p 3 + 1 = 4
orbital having more (n + l) value has more
energy if value of (n+l) is same then orbital
having lower value of n has less energy.
3p < 4s < 3d < 4p
Q.11 Which branched chain isomer of the
hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives
only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl
halide?
(1) Isohexane
(2) Neohexane
(3) Tertiary butyl chloride
(4) Neopentane.
Ans. [4]
Sol.
C
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
X /h
2
v
C
CH
3
CH
3
CH X
2
CH
3
Mol.wt=72
Neo pentane
Only one mono
substituted alkyl halide
Q.12 Which one of the following statement is
correct?
(1) All amino acids except glycine are
optically active.
(2) All amino acids except glutamic acid are
optically active.
(3) All amino acids except lysine are
optically active.
(4) All amino acids are optically active.
Ans. [1]
Sol. Glycine CH –COOH
2
NH
2
Optically inactive.
Except this
R – CH–COOH
NH
2
*
Optically inactive.
Q.13 2–Hexyne gives trans2Hexene on
treatment with :
(1) Pd/BaSO
4
(2) LiAlH
4
(3) Pt/H
2
(4) Li/NH
3
Ans. [4]
Sol. CH
3
–C÷C–CH
2
–CH
2
–CH
3
duction Re Birch
NH / Li
3
÷ ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷
CH
3
H
C=C
CH –CH –CH
3 2 3
H
Trans 2hexene
Q.14 Iodoform can be prepared from all except :
(1) 3Methyl2butanone
(2) Isobutyl alcohol
(3) Ethyl methyl ketone
(4) Isopropyl alcohol
Ans. [2]
Sol. 3  methyl  2 butanone
H C–C–C– CH
3 3
O
CH
3
it will give iodoform
Isobutyl alcohol
CH –CH–CH – OH
3 2
CH
3
this will not give iodoform
Ethyl methyl ketone
CH –C–CH – CH
3 2 3
O
It will give
CH –CH–OH
3
CH
3
iso propyl alcohol it will give
iodoform
Q.15 The incorrect expression among the
following is
(1) lnK =
RT
S T H ° A ÷ ° A
(2)
RT / G
e K
° A ÷
=
(3)
total
system
S
G
A
A
= –T
(4) In isothermal process, w
reversible
= –nRT
ln
i
f
V
V
Ans. [1]
Sol. AG° = AH° – TAS° = – RT ln K
ln K =
RT
H S T ° A ÷ ° A
Q.16 The standard reduction potentials for Zn
2+
/
Zn, Ni
2+
/ Ni, and Fe
2+
/ Fe are –0.76, –0.23
and 0.44 V respectively. The reaction X +
Y
2+
÷ X
2+
+ Y will be spontaneous when :
(1) X = Fe, Y = Zn
(2) X = Zn, Y = Ni
(3) X = Ni, Y = Fe
(4) X = Ni, Y = Zn
Ans. [2]
Sol. E°
Y
> E°
X
Hence, Y = Ni and X = Zn
Q.17 Lithium forms body centred cubic structure.
The length of the side of its unit cell is 351
pm. Atomic radius of the lithium will be :
(1) 240 pm (2) 152 pm
(3) 75 pm (4) 300 pm
Ans. [2]
Sol. For BCC :
3
a = 4r
r = 351
4
3
× = 152 pm Ans.
Q.18 How many chiral compounds are possible
on monochlorination of 2methyl butane ?
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 2
Ans. [1]
Sol.
CH –CH–CH –CH
3 2 3
CH
3
Cl /h
2
v
CH –CH–CH–CH
3 3
CH
3
*
Cl
+ CH –C–CH –CH
3 2 3
CH –Cl
2
*
H
2 form
(Enantiomer)
2 form
(Enantiomer)
Total 4 Chiral molecules
Q.19 K
f
for water is 1.86 K kg mol
–1
. If you
automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg of water,
how many grams of ethylene glycol
(C
2
H
6
O
2
) must you add to get the freezing
point of the solution lowered to –2.8°C ?
(1) 39 g (2) 27 g
(3) 72 g (4) 93 g
Ans. [4]
Sol. AT
f
= K
f
× m
or 2.8 = 1.86 ×
1
62 / W
W = 93
Q.20 In which of the followng pairs the two
species are not isostructural ?
(1) PF
5
and BrF
5
(2) AlF
6
3–
and SF
6
(3) CO
3
2–
and NO
3
–
(4) PCl
4
+
and SiCl
4
Ans. [1]
Sol.
F
P
F
F
F
F
PF
sp d–T.B.P
5
3
F
Br
F
F
F
F
Square pyramidal
sp d
3 2
Q.21 For a first order reaction, (A) ÷ products,
the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M
to 0.025 M in 40 minutes. The rate of
reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01
M, is
(1) 3.47 × 10
–5
M/min
(2) 1.73 × 10
–4
M/min
(3) 1.73 × 10
–5
M/min
(4) 3.47 × 10
–4
M/min
Ans. [4]
Sol. 0.1 M
÷÷ ÷
2 / 1
t
0.05 M
÷÷ ÷
2 / 1
t
0.025 M
t
1/2
= 40/2 = 20 min
Now, r = K [A] =
min 20
693 . 0
× 0.01
= 3.47 × 10
–4
M/ min Ans.
Q.22 OrthoNitrophenol is less soluble in water
than p and mNitrophenols because :
(1) oNitrophenol shows intermolecular H
bonding
(2) Melting point of oNitrophenol is lower
than those of mand pisomers.
(3) oNitrophenol is more volatile in steam
than those of mand pisomers.
(4) oNitrophenol shows intramolecular H
bonding
Ans. [4]
Sol.
OH
NO
2
Due to intramolecular Hbond
ing its Hbonding with H
2
O decreases.
Solubility became less.
Q.23 In the given transformation, which of the
following is the most appropriate reagent ?
HO
CH = CHCOCH
3
÷ ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷
agent Re
HO
CH = CHCH CH
2 3
(1) Na, Liq. NH
3
(2) NaBH
4
(3) NH
2
NH
2
,
OH
–
(4) Zn – Hg/HCl
Ans. [3]
Sol.
HO
CH=CH–C–CH
3
O
Reagnet
HO
CH=CH–CH –CH
2 3
Reagent should not effect – OH and C=C
Alkaline medium is best suited
Wolf  Khischner NH
2
NH
2
/
OH
is most appropriate.
Q.24 According to Freundlich adsorption
isotherm, which fo the following is correct
?
(1)
n / 1
p
m
x
·
(2)
0
p
m
x
·
(3)
1
p
m
x
·
(4) All the above the correct for different
ranges of pressure.
Ans. [1]
Sol. According to Freundlich ,
n / 1
P
m
x
×
Note : value of n is constant for a particular
system from Freundlich isotherm.
Q.25 The density of a solution prepared by
dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u)
in 1000 g of water is 1.15 g/mL. The
molarity of this solution is :
(1) 1.02 M (2) 2.05 M
(3) 0.50 M (4) 1.78 M
Ans. [2]
Sol. Molarity
=
1000
15 . 1 / ) 120 1000 (
60 / 120
V
n
solution
solute
×
+
=
~
2.05 M Ans.
Q.26 Which of the following on thermal
decomposition yields a basic as well as an
acidic oxide ?
(1) CaCO
3
(2) NH
4
NO
3
(3) NaNO
3
(4) KClO
3
Ans. [1]
Sol. CaCO
3
÷ CaO + CO
2
Basic Acidic
Q.27 Aspirin is known as :
(1) Acetyl salicylate
(2) Methyl salicylic acid
(3) Acetyl salicylic acid
(4) Phenyl salicylate
Ans. [3]
Sol.
O–C–CH
3
O
COOH
Aspirin
Acetyl Salicylic Acid
Q.28 Which of the following compounds can be
detected by Molisch's test ?
(1) Amines
(2) Primary alcohols
(3) Nitro compounds
(4) Sugars
Ans. [4]
Sol. Molisch Test is for Carbohydrates
Sugar can be detected by Molisch Test.
Q.29 What is DDT among the following :
(1) Biodegradable pollutant
(2) Nonbiodegradable pollutant
(3) Greenhouse gas
(4) A fertilizer
Ans. [2]
Sol. DDT is Nonbiodegradable pollutant
Q.30 Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made
by which of the following processes ?
(1) Electrolysis of water
(2) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
(3) Reaction of methane with steam
(4) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high
molecular weight
Ans. [2]
Sol. MH + H
2
O ÷ MOH + H
2

(Pure)
Q.31 Let b
ˆ
and aˆ be two unit vectors. If the
vectors b
ˆ
2 aˆ c + =
and b
ˆ
4 aˆ 5 d ÷ =
are
perpendicular to each other, then the angle
between b
ˆ
and aˆ
(1*)
3
t
(2)
4
t
(3)
6
t
(4)
2
t
Ans. [1]
Sol. d · c
= 0
) b 4 a 5 ( · ) b 2 a (
÷ + = 0
2 2
 b  8 b a 6  a  5
÷ + = 0
5 + 6 · 1 · 1 cos u – 8 = 0
cos u =
6
3
=
2
1
¬ u =
3
t
.
Q.32 If the integral
}
÷
dx
2 x tan
x tan 5
= x + a ln  sin x – 2cos x  + k
then a is equal to
(1) 1 (2*) 2
(3) –1 (4) – 2
Ans. [2]
Sol. Differentiating both sides,
2 x tan
x tan 5
÷
= 1+
x cos 2 x sin
a
÷
(cos x + 2sinx)
x cos 2 x sin
) x sin 2 x (cos a
x cos 2 x sin
x sin 5
÷
+
÷
÷
= 1
5sin x – a (cos x + 2sin x) = sin x – 2cos x
4sin x + 2cos x = a (cos x + 2sin x)
a =
x sin 2 x cos
) x cos x sin 2 ( 2
+
+
¬ a = 2.
Q.33 Consider the function
f(x) =  x – 2  +  x – 5 , x e R.
Statement 1 : f '(4) = 0
Statement 2 : f is continuous in [2, 5],
differentiable in (2, 5) and f(2) = f(5).
(1*) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 2.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
Ans. [1]
Sol. f(x) =  x – 2  +  x – 5  , x e R
f(x) =
¦
¹
¦
´
¦
> ÷
s s
< + ÷
5 x , 7 x 2
5 x 2 , 3
2 x , 7 x 2
x
y
3
7
2 5
O
It is clear that f(x) is continuous in R and
differentiable in (– ·, 2) (2, 5) (5, ·)
Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1 is also correct but Statement 2 is
not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
Q.34 If the line 2x + y = k passes through the point
which divides the line segment joining the points
(1, 1) and (2, 4) in the ratio 3 : 2, then k equals
(1*) 6 (2)
5
11
(3)
5
29
(4) 5
Ans. [1]
Sol. Since, M divides A & B in the ratio 3 : 2.
Coordinates of M are

.

\
 + +
5
2 12
,
5
2 6
÷

.

\

5
14
,
5
8
M
A
(1, 1)
B
(2, 4)
2 3
÷ 2x + y = k
M lies on the line 2x + y = k
k = 2 ·
5
14
5
8
+
= 6.
Q.35 Statement 1 : An equation of a common
tangent to the parabola y
2
= 16 3 x and the
ellipse 2x
2
+ y
2
= 4 is y = 2x + 2 3 .
Statement 2 : If the line y = mx +
m
3 4
,
(m = 0) is a common tangent to the parabola
y
2
= 16 3 x and the ellipse 2x
2
+ y
2
= 4, then
m satisfies m
4
+ 2m
2
= 24.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 2.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4*) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
Ans. [4]
Sol. Equation of tangent to parabola y
2
= 16 3 x
is y = mx +
m
3 4
. A line y = mx + C is tangent
to ellipse
2
2
2
2
b
y
a
x
+ = 1. When c
2
= a
2
m
2
+ b
2
.
2
m
3 6× 1
= 2m
2
+ 4
m
4
+ 2m
2
= 24
On solving, m
2
= 4 or
m
2
= – 6 (not possible)]
m = ± 2
T : y = 2x + 2 3 & y = – 2x – 2 3 .
Q.36 Three numbers are chosen at random without
replacement from {1, 2, 3, ........, 8}. The
probability that their minimum is 3, given that
their maximum is 6, is
(1)
4
1
(2)
5
2
(3)
8
3
(4*)
5
1
Ans. [4]
Sol. S : {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
P(E) =
3
6
3
4
C
C
=
5
1
.
Q.37 Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that
q AB
= , p AD
= and ZBAD be an acute
angle. If r
is the vector that coincides with the
altitude directed from the vertex B to the side
AD, then r
is given by
(1) p
p · p
q · p
q r


.

\

÷ =
(2)
( )
( )
p
p · p
q · p 3
q 3 r
+ ÷ =
(3)
( )
( )
p
p · p
q · p 3
q 3 r
÷ =
(4*) p
p · p
q · p
q r


.

\

+ ÷ =
Ans. [4]
Sol. q p r
÷ ì =
( ) p · q p p · r
÷ ì =
0 = q · p p · p
÷ ì
r
q
p
A B
C D
ì =
p · p
q · p
p
p · p
q · p
q r


.

\

+ ÷ = .
Q.38 An equation of a plane parallel to the plane
x – 2y + 2z – 5 = 0 and at a unit distance from
the origin is
(1) x – 2y + 2z – 1 = 0
(2) x – 2y + 2z + 5 = 0
(3*) x – 2y + 2z – 3 = 0
(4) x – 2y + 2z + 1 = 0
Ans. [3]
Sol. Equation of plane parallel to x – 2y + 2z – 5 = 0
is x – 2y + 2z = ì.
Distance from origin is 1.
2 2 2
2 2 1
 0 0 0 
+ +
ì ÷ + +
= 1
ì = ± 3
P : x – 2y + 2z = ± 3.
Q.39 In a APQR, if 3 sin P + 4 cos Q = 6 and
4sin Q + 3cos P = 1, then the angle R is equal
to
(1)
4
t
(2)
4
3t
(3)
6
5t
(4*)
6
t
Ans. [4]
Sol. 3sin P + 4cos Q = 6 ......(1)
4sin Q + 3cos P = 1 ......(2)
Square and add (1) & (2)
24 sin (P + Q) = 12
sin (P + Q) =
2
1
P + Q =
6
t
or
6
5t
P
Q R
But when P + Q =
6
t
then (1) & (2) not
satisfied
P + Q =
6
5t
¬ R =
6
t
.
Q.40 If f : R ÷ R is a function defined by
f(x) = [x] 
.

\
 ÷
2
1 x 2
cos t, where [x] denotes
the greatest integer function, then f is
(1) discontinuous only at nonzero integral
values of x.
(2) continuous only at x = 0.
(3*) continuous for every real x.
(4) discontinuous only at x = 0.
Ans. [3]
Sol. f : R ÷ R
f(x) = [x] t

.

\
 ÷
2
1 x 2
cos ,
[ ] ÷ greatest integer function
When x e I, then f(x) = 0
[ t

.

\
 ÷
2
1 x 2
cos = 0 for n e I]
For x e I then f(x) is product of two continuous
function therefore it is continuous.
f(x) is continuous for every real x.
Q.41 Statement 1 : The sum of the series
1 + (1 + 2 + 4) + (4 + 6 + 9) + (9 +12 + 16)
+ ...... + (361 + 380 + 400) is 8000.
Statement 2 :
( )
¿
=
÷ ÷
n
1 k
3 3
) 1 k ( k
= n
3
, for any
natural number n.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 2.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4*) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
Ans. [4]
Sol. S1: 1 + (1 + 2 + 4) + (4 + 6 + 9) + (9 +12 +
16) + ...... + (361 + 380 + 400)
Clearly number of terms in sequence are 20.
S2 :
( )
¿
=
÷ ÷
n
1 k
3 3
) 1 k ( k
= n
3
is true.
The sum of given series for 20 terms is
(20)
3
= 8000.
Q.42 The length of the diameter of the circle which
touches the xaxis at the point (1, 0) and passes
through the point (2, 3) is
(1)
5
6
` (2)
3
5
(3*)
3
10
(4)
5
3
Ans. [3]
Sol. (x – h)
2
+ (y – k)
2
= k
2
Centre (h, k), Radius = k
(1 – h)
2
+ k
2
= k
2
} ÷ h = 1 ; k =
3
5
Radius =
3
5
. Diameter =
3
10
.
Q.43 Let A =



.

\

1 2 3
0 1 2
0 0 1
. If u
1
and u
2
are column
matrices such that Au
1
=



.

\

0
0
1
and Au
2
=



.

\

0
1
0
,
then u
1
+ u
2
is equal to
(1)



.

\

÷
÷
0
1
1
(2*)



.

\

÷
÷
1
1
1
(3)



.

\
 ÷
0
1
1
(4)



.

\

÷
÷
1
1
1
Ans. [2]
Sol. u
1
=
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
z
y
x
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
z
y
x
1 2 3
0 1 2
0 0 1
=
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
0
0
1
u
1
=
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
÷
1
2
1
; u
2
=
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
÷ 2
1
0
u
1
+ u
2
=
(
(
(
¸
(
¸
÷
÷
1
1
1
.
Q.44 If n is a positive integer, then
( ) ( )
n 2 n 2
1 3 1 3 ÷ ÷ + is
(1) an even positive integer
(2) a rational number other than positive
integers
(3*) an irrational number
(4) an odd positive integer
Ans. [3]
Sol. If n = 1,
( ) ( )
2 2
1 3 1 3 ÷ ÷ + = 3 4 .
An irrational number.
Q.45 Assuming the balls to be identical except for
difference in colours, the number of ways in
which one or more balls can be selected from
10 white, 9 green and 7 black balls is
(1) 630 (2*) 879
(3) 880 (4) 629
Ans. [2]
Sol. (11) (10) (8) – 1 = 879.
Q.46 An ellipse is drawn by taking a diameter of the
circle (x – 1)
2
+ y
2
= 1 as its semiminor axis
and a diameter of the circle x
2
+ (y – 2)
2
= 4
as its semimajor axis. If the centre of the ellipse
is at the origin and its axes are the coordinate
axes, then the equation of the ellipse is
(1) 4x
2
+ y
2
= 8 (2*) x
2
+ 4y
2
= 16
(3) 4x
2
+ y
2
= 4 (4) x
2
+ 4y
2
= 8
Ans. [2]
Sol. a = 4, b = 2
Ellipse
4
y
16
x
2
+
2
= 1
x
2
+ 4y
2
= 16.
Q.47 If the line
4
1 z
3
1 y
2
1 x ÷
=
+
=
÷
and
1
z
2
k y
1
3 x
=
÷
=
÷
intersect, then k is equal to
(1*)
2
9
(2) 0
(3) – 1 (4)
9
2
Ans. [1]
Sol. If the line
4
1 z
3
1 y
2
1 x ÷
=
+
=
÷
and
1
z
2
k y
1
3 x
=
÷
=
÷
intersect, then
1 2 1
4 3 2
1 0 1 k 1 3 ÷ + ÷
= 0
¬
1 2 1
4 3 2
1 1 k 2 ÷ +
= 0
¬ 2 (3 – 8) – (k + 1) (2 – 4) – 1 (4 – 3) = 0
¬ – 10 + 2k + 2 – 1 = 0
¬ 2k = 9 ¬ k =
2
9
.
Q.48 Let a, b e R be such that the function f given
by f(x) = ln  x  + bx
2
+ ax, x = 0 has extreme
values at x = – 1 and x = 2.
Statement 1 : f has local maximum at x = – 1
and at x = 2.
Statement 2 : a =
2
1
and b =
4
1 ÷
.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 2.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4*) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
Ans. [4]
Sol. f(x) = ln  x  + bx
2
+ ax, x = 0
f '(x) =
x
1
+ 2bx + a
extreme values at x = – 1, 2
¬ – 1 – 2b + a = 0 ¬ a – 2b = 1 ...(1)
and
2
1
+ 4b + a = 0 ¬ a + 4b =
2
1 ÷
...(2)
From (1) and (2) a =
2
1
, b =
4
1 ÷
again f "(x) = 2b –
2
÷
x
1
=
2
÷
÷
x
1
2
1
¬ f "(–1) < 0 and f "(2) < 0
¬ f has local maximum at x = – 1 and x = 2.
Q.49 If z = 1and
1 z
z
÷
2
is real, then the point
represented by the complex number z lies
(1) either on the real axis or on a circle not
passing through the origin.
(2) on the imaginary axis.
(3*) either on the real axis or on a circle passing
through the origin.
(4) on a circle with centre at the origin.
Ans. [3]
Sol.
1 z
z
2
÷
is real
Let z = x + iy
¬
1 z
z
2
÷
=
y ) 1 x (
xy 2 y x
2 2
i
i
+ ÷
+ ÷
=
2 2
2 2
y ) 1 x (
) y 1 x ( ) xy 2 y x (
+ ÷
÷ ÷ + ÷ i i
Now, imaginary part of
1 z
z
2
÷
equal to zero.
¬ – y (x
2
– y
2
) + (x – 1) 2xy = 0
¬ y (x
2
+ y
2
– 2x) = 0
¬ y = 0 or x
2
+ y
2
– 2x = 0.
Q.50 The negation of the statement
"If become a teacher, then I will open a school",
is
(1) Neither I will become a teacher nor I will
open a school.
(2) I will not become a teacher or I will open a
school.
(3*) I will become a teacher and I will not open
a school.
(4) Either I will not become a teacher or I will
not open a school.
Ans. [3]
Sol. P = I be one a teacher.
Q = I will open a school.
~ (p ÷ q) = P ^ ~ q
¬ I become a teacher and I will not open a
school.
Q.51 If g(x) =
}
x
0
dt t 4 cos , then g(x + t) equals
(1*) g(x) – g(t) (2) g(x) · g(t)
(3)
) ( g
) x ( g
t
(4*) g(x) + g(t)
Ans. [1], [4]
Sol. Given g(x) =
}
x
0
dt t 4 cos
Now, g(x + t) =
}
t + x
0
dt t 4 cos
=
} }
t +
t
t
+
x
0
dt t 4 cos dt t 4 cos
=
} }
+
t x
0 0
dt t 4 cos dt t 4 cos
= g(t) + g(x)
¬ g(x + t) = g(x) + g(t)
but g(t) = 0
g (x + t) = g (x) + g (t) = g (x) – g(t)
Q.52 A spherical balloon is filled with 4500t cubic
meters of helium gas. If a leak in the balloon
causes the gas to escape at the rate of 72t
cubic meters per minute, then the rate (in meters
per minute) at which the radius of the balloon
decreases 49 minutes after the leakage began
is
(1*)
9
2
(2)
2
9
(3)
7
9
(4)
9
7
Ans. [1]
Sol. Given
dt
dV ÷
= 72t
t = 0
Volume of gas = 4500t
t = 49 minute,
Volume of gas = 72t × 49 = 3528t
After 49 minute volume of gas inside balloon
= (4500t – 3528t) = 972t
3
4
tr
3
= 972t r = 9m
Now, V =
3
4
tr
3
dt
dV
= 4tr
2
dt
dr
– 72t = 4t(9
2
)
dt
dr
¬
dt
dr
=
9
2 ÷
.
Q.53 The equation e
sinx
– e
–sin x
– 4 = 0 has
(1) exactly one real root.
(2) exactly four real root.
(3) infinite number of real roots.
(4*) no real roots.
Ans. [4]
Sol. Let e
sin x
= k
k –
k
1
– 4 = 0 ¬ k
2
– 4k – 1 = 0
k = e
sin x
= 2 + 5 = It is greater than e
¬ Not possible
and e
sin x
= 2 – 5
= negative i.e. not possible.
No solution.
Q.54 Let X = {1, 2, 3, 4 , 5}. The number of different
ordered pairs (Y, Z) that can be formed such
that Y _ X, Z _ X, and Y · Z is empty, is
(1) 2
5
(2) 5
3
(3) 5
2
(4*) 3
5
Ans. [4]
Sol. 1 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by
3 ways.
2 can be distributed in two set Y and Zby
3 ways.
3 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by
3 ways.
4 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by
3 ways.
5 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by
3 ways.
(The three ways are either only in Y or only in
Z or in none of Y and Z.)
Number of way of distributing each
element = 3
5
.
Q.55 The area bounded between the parabolas
x
2
=
4
y
and x
2
= 9y, and the straight line y = 2
is
(1*)
3
2 20
(2)
2 10
(3)
2 20
(4)
3
2 10
Ans. [1]
Sol.
Area =
}


.

\

÷
2
0
dy
4
y
y 9 2 =
3
2 20
.
y=4x
2
x
y
y = 2
B
9
x
2
A
y=
Q.56 Let P and Q be 3 × 3 matrices with P = Q. If
P
3
= Q
3
and P
2
Q = Q
2
P, then determinant of
(P
2
+ Q
2
) is equal to
(1*) 0 (2) – 1
(3) – 2 (4) 1
Ans. [1]
Sol. P
3
= Q
3
P
2
Q = Q
2
P
P
3
– P
2
Q = Q
3
– Q
2
P
P
2
(P – Q) = Q
2
(Q – P)
(P
2
+ Q
2
) (P – Q) = 0
 P
2
+ Q
2
  P – Q  = 0
 P
2
+ Q
2
 = 0 or  P – Q  = 0.
Q.57 Let x
1
, x
2
, ........., x
n
be n observations, and
let x be their arithmetic mean and o
2
be their
variance.
Statement 1: Variance of 2x
1
, 2x
2
, ...., 2x
n
is
4o
2
.
Statement 2: Arithmetic mean of
2x
1
, 2x
2
, ...., 2x
n
is 4 x .
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(2*) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
Ans. [2]
Sol. S2 :
Arithmetic Mean =
n
x 2 ........ x 2 x 2
n 2 1
+ + +
= 2

.

\
 + + +
n
x ....... x x
n 2 1
= 2 x
Statement2 is false
Statement1
We know variance of x
1
, x
2
, x
3
, ....... x
n
.
o =
2
2
n
x
n
x


.

\

÷
¿ ¿ i i
variance of 2x
1
; 2x
2
; ............ ; 2x
n
o
2
=


.

\

÷
¿ ¿
n
x
4
n
x 4
2
i i
= 4


.

\

÷
¿ ¿
n
x
n
x
2
i i
= 4o
2
.
Q.58 The population p(t) at time t of a certain mouse
species satisfies the differential equation
dt
) t ( dp
= 0.5 p(t) – 450. If p(0) = 850, then
the time at which the population becomes zero
is
(1)
18 n
2
1
l
(2) ln 18
(3*) 2 ln 18 (4) ln 9
Ans. [3]
Sol.
dt
) t ( dp
=
2
1
p(t) – 450
If
}
÷
dt
2
1
e
= e
–t/2
p(t) e
–t/2
= – 450
}
÷
dt e
2 t
+ k
p(t) = 900 + ke
t/2
.......(1)
When t = 0 ; P(0) = 850
k = – 50
Equation (1) becomes
p(t) = 900 – 50e
t/2
when p(t) = 0 then t = 2ln 18.
Q.59 A line is drawn through the point (1, 2) to meet
the coordinates axes at P and Q such that it
forms a triangle OPQ, where O is the origin. If
the area of the triangle OPQ is least, then the
slope of the line PQ, is
(1*) – 2 (2)
2
1 ÷
(3)
4
1 ÷
(4) – 4
Ans. [1]
Sol. Area =
) m 2 (
m
2
1
2
1
÷

.

\

÷
=
)
`
¹
¹
´
¦
+ ÷
m
4
4 m
2
1
O
(1, 2)
x
y
(0, 2 – m)

.

\

÷ 0 ,
m
2
1
dx
dA
= 0
Gi ves m
2
= 4 ¬ m = ± 2
Area m = – 2.
Q.60 If 100 times the 100
th
term of an AP with non
zero common difference equals the 50 times
its 50
th
term, then the 150
th
term of this AP is
(1) 150
(2*) zero
(3) – 150
(4) 150 times its 50
th
term
Ans. [2]
Sol. 100 (a + 99d) = 50 (a + 49d)
a + 149d = 0 .......(1)
and
T
150
= a + 149d = 0 [From (1)].
Q.61 This question has Statement1 and statement
2. Of the four choices given after the
Statements, choose the one that best describes
the two statements.
If two springs S
1
and S
2
of force constants
k
1
and k
2
, respectively, are stretched by the
same force, it is found that more work is
done on spring S
1
than on spring S
2
.
Statement1 : If stretched by the same
amount, work done on S
1
, will be more than
that on S
2
.
Statement 2 :k
1
< k
2
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true
and Statement2 is the correct explanation
of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
and Statement2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement1
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
Ans. [1]
Sol. Stretched by same force hence k
1
x
1
= k
2
x
2
More work is done on spring1 hence
2
1
k
1
x
1
2
>
2
1
k
2
x
2
2
¬ x
1
> x
2
¬ k
1
< k
2
Q.62 This question has Statement1 and statement
2. Of the four choices given after the
Statements, choose the one that best describes
the two statements.
An insulating solid sphere of radius R has
uni f orml y posi ti ve charge densi ty µ. As a
result of this uniform charge distribution
there is a finite value of electric potential at
the centre of the sphere, at the surface of
the sphere and also at a point out side the
sphere. The electric potential at infinity is
zero.
Statement1 : When a charge 'q' is taken
from the centre to the surface of the sphere,
its potential energy changes by
0
3
q
e
µ
.
Statement 2 :The electric field at a distance
r (r < R) from the centre of the sphere is
0
3
r
e
µ
.
(1) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true
and Statement2 is the correct explanation
of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
and Statement2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement1
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
Ans. [1]
Sol. Vanter =
R 2
kQ 3
, VV
surface
=
R
kQ
AU = qAV =
R 2
qkQ
=
0
2
6
q R
e
µ
Q.63 A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two
semicircular parts (see figure). The two parts
are held together by a ring made of a metal
strip of cross sectional area S and length L.
L is lightly less than 2tR. To fit the ring on
the wheel, it is heated so that its temperature
rises by AT and it just steps over the wheel.
As it cools down to surrounding
temperature, it presses the semicircular parts
together. If the coefficient of linear
expansion of the metal is o, and its Youngs'
modulus is Y, the force that one part of the
wheel applies on the other part is :
R
(1) tSYoAT (2) 2SYoAT
(3) 2tSYoAT (4) SYoAT
Ans. [2]
Sol. Thermal stress = YoAT
Force developed = YSoAT
T
T
force exerted by the part = 2YSoAT
Q.64 A diatomic molecule is made of two masses
m
1
and m
2
which are separated by a distance
r. If we calculate its rotational energy by
applying Bohr's rule of angular momentum
quantization, its energy will be given by :
(1)
2
2 1
2 2
r ) m m (
h n 2
+
(2)
2
2 1
2 2
2 1
r m m 2
h n ) m m ( +
(3)
2 2
2
2
1
2 2 2
2 1
r m m 2
h n ) m m ( +
(4)
2
2 1
2 2
r ) m m ( 2
h n
Ans. [2]
Sol.
n I = e
Rotational energy =
2
1
Ie
2
where I = µr
2
Putting we get E =
2
2 1
2 1
2
r m m 2
) m m ( n +
Q.65 Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state
to another state with principal quantum
number equal to 4. Then the number of
spectral lines in the emission spectra will
be
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 2 (4) 3
Ans. [2]
Sol. No. of spectral lines =
n
C
2
=
4
C
2
= 6
Q.66 A radar has a power of 1 kW and is operating
at a frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a
mountain top of height 500 m. The
maximum distance up to which it can detect
object located on the surface of the earth
(Radius of earth = 6.4 × 10
6
m)
(1) 40 km (2) 64 km
(3) 80 km (4) 16 km
Ans. [3]
Sol. d = Rh 2 = 5 . 0 10 4 . 6 2
3
× × × = 80 km
Q.67 Truth table for system of four NAND gates
as shown in figure is :
A
B
Y
(1)
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
Y
1
1
0
0
(2)
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
Y
1
0
0
1
(3)
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
Y
0
1
1
0
(4)
A
0
0
1
1
B
0
1
0
1
Y
0
0
1
1
Ans. [3]
Q.68 A spectrometer gives the following reading
when used to measure the angle of a prism.
Main scale reading : 58.5 degree
Vernier scale reading: 09 divisions
Given that 1 division on main scale corre
sponds to 0.5 degree. Total divisions on the
vernier scale is 30 and match with 29 divi
sions of the main scale. The angle of the
prism from the above data:
(1) 58.65 degree (2) 59 degree
(3) 58.59 degree (4) 58.77 degree
Ans. [1]
Sol. Least count (LC) =
30
ree deg 5 . 0
Reading = Main scale reading + vernier
scale reading
= 58.5 + 9 ×
30
5 . 0
= 58.65 degree
Q.69 This question has Statement1 and
statement2. Of the four choices given after
the Statements, choose the one that best
describes the two statements.
Statement1 : Davisson  Germer
experiment established the wave nature of
electrons.
Statement2 : If electrons have wave
nature, they can interfere and show
diffraction.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true
and Statement2 is the correct explanation
of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
and Statement2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement1
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
Ans. [1]
Q.70 In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge
Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted
as a function of distance from the centre.
The graph which would correspond to the
above will be :
(1)
R
E
r
(2)
R
E
r
(3)
R
E
r
(4)
R
E
r
Ans. [1]
Sol. E
inside
· r
E
outsides
·
2
r
1
Q.71 A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a
fundamental frequency, f, in air. The tube is
dipped vertically in water so that half of it
is in water. The fundamental frequency of
the aircolumn is now:
(1)
4
f 3
(2) 2f
(3) f (4)
2
f
Ans. [3]
Sol. f =
ì
v
; ì = 2L
f ' =
ì
v
;
4
ì
=
2
L
¬ ì = 2L
hence f ' = f
Q.72 If a simple pendulum has Significant amplitude
(up to a factor of 1/ e of original) only in the
period between t = 0s to t = ts, then t may be
called the average life of the pendulum. When
the spherical bob of the pendulum suffers a
retardation (due to viscous drag) proportional
to its velocity, with ‘b’ as the constant of
proportionality, the average life time of the
pendulum is (assuming damping is small) in
seconds:
(1)
b
1
(2)
b
2
(3)
b
693 . 0
(4) b
Ans. [1]
Sol. a = –bv
hence v = v
0
e
–bt
comparing with N = N
0
e
–ìt
Average life time =
ì
1
=
b
1
Q.73 A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic
field, with the plane of the coil parallel to
the magnetic lines of force. When a current
is passed through the coil it starts oscillating;
it is very difficult to stop. But if an
aluminium plate is placed near to the coil,
it stops. This is due to :
(1) shielding of magnetic lines of force as
aluminium is a paramagnetic material.
(2) electromagnetic induction in the alu
minium plate giving rise to electromagnetic
damping.
(3) development of air current when the
plate is placed.
(4) induction of electrical charge on the plate
Ans. [2]
Q.74
25
20
15
10
5
0 50 100 150 200 250 300
Time t in seconds
P
o
t
e
n
t
i
a
l
d
i
f
f
e
r
e
n
c
e
V
i
n
v
o
l
t
s
The figure shows an experimental plot for
discharging of a capacitor in an RC circuit.
The time constant t of this circuit lies
between:
(1) 50 sec and 100 sec
(2) 100 sec and 150 sec
(3) 150 sec and 200 sec
(4) 0 and 50 sec
Ans. [2]
Sol. V = Ve
–t/t
at t = 200 sec, V = 5, V
0
= 25
hence we get t = 124.2 sec
Q.75 A Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%,
takes in heat from a source maintained at a
temperature of 500 K. It is desired to have
an engine of efficiency 60%. Then, the
intake temperature for the same exhaust
(sink) temperature must be :
(1) 750 K
(2) 600 K
(3) efficiency of Carnot engine cannot be
made larger than 50%
(4) 1200 K
Ans. [1]
Sol. 0.4 = 1 –
500
T
k sin
¬ TT
sink
= 300 K
0.6 = 1 –
source
T
300
¬ TT
source
= 750 K
Q.76 Two electric bulbs marked 25W220V and
100W220V are connected in series to a
440V supply. Which of the bulbs will fuse?
(1) 25W (2) neither
(3) both (4) 100 W
Ans. [1]
Sol.
440V
R 4R
100W 25W
Q.77 An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the
electric and magnetic fields
E
and
B
,
which are always perpendicular to each
other. The direction of polarization is given
by
X
and that of wave propagation by
k
.
Then
(1)
B  X
and
B E  k
×
(2)
E  X
and
E B  k
×
(3)
B  X
and
E B  k
×
(4)
E  X
and
B E  k
×
Ans. [4]
Q.78 The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to
be launched from the earth's surface out into
free space. The value of 'g' and 'R' (radius
of earth) are 10 m/s
2
and 6400 km
respectively. The required energy for this
work will be :
(1) 6.4 × 10
9
Joules
(2) 6.4 × 10
10
Joules
(3) 6.4 × 10
11
Joules
(4) 6.4 × 10
8
Joules
Ans. [2]
Sol. On surface of earth U = –
Re
GmMe
mgRe
= –6.4 × 10
10
Joule
Q.79 In Young's double slit experiment, one of the
slit is wider than other, so that the amplitude of
the light from one slit is double of that from
other slit. If I
m
be the maximum intensity, the
resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase
difference  is given by :
(1)

.

\
 
+
2
cos 4 1
5
I
2 m
(2)

.

\
 
+
2
cos 8 1
9
I
2 m
(3)
( )  + cos 5 4
9
I
m
(4)

.

\
 
+
2
cos 2 1
3
I
2 m
Ans. [2]
Sol. I
0
and 4I
0
I
m
= 9I
0
I
res
= I
0
+ 4I
0
+ 2
2
0
I 4
cos 
= 5I
0
+ 4I
0
cos 
=
9
I
m

.

\
 
+
2
cos 8 1
2
Q.80 A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum
height of 10 m. The maximum horizontal
distance that the boy can throw the same
stone up to will be :
(1)
2 10
m (2) 20 m
(3)
2 20
m (4) 10 m
Ans. [2]
Sol.
g 2
u
2
= 10 m
R
max
=
g
u
2
= 20 m
Q.81 Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton
and an electron. The energy released during
this process is :
(Mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10
–27
kg
Mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10
–27
kg
Mass of electron = 9 × 10
–31
kg)
(1) 6.30 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
(3) 0.73 MeV (4) 7.10 MeV
Ans. NO ANSWER (WRONG DATA)
but correct answer is [3] with actual data.
Q.82 An object 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a
sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens.
A glass plate 1 cm thick, of refractive index
1.50 is interposed between lens and film
with its plane faces parallel to film. At what
distance (from lens) should object be shifted
to be in sharp focus on film ?
(1) 3.2 m (2) 5.6 m
(3) 7.2 m (4) 2.4 m
Ans. [2]
Sol.
12
1
+
240
1
=
f
1
¬
f
1
=
80
7
Ax due to slab = t


.

\

µ
÷
1
1
=
3
1
CM
* New v should be = 12 –
3
1
=
3
35
CM
*
u
1
=
v
1
f
1
=
35
3
80
7
= –
500
1
u = –5.6 m
Q.83 A liquid in a beaker has temperature u(t) at
time t and u
0
is temperature of surroundings,
then according to Newton's law of cooling
the correct graph between log
e
(u – u
0
) and t
is:
(1)
t
l
o
g
(
–
)
e
0
u
u
(2)
t
l
o
g
(
–
)
e
0
u
u
(3)
t
l
o
g
(
–
)
e
0
u
u
0
(4)
t
l
o
g
(
–
)
e
0
u
u
0
Ans. [3]
Sol.
dt
dT
= –k(T – Ts)
ln
kt
T T
T T
s 0
s
÷ =
÷
÷
ln(T – T
s
) = ln(T
0
– T
s
) – kt
Q.84 Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA
(consisting of two isochoric and two
isobaric lines) as shown in figure. Efficiency
of this cycle is nearly: (Assume the gas to
be close to ideal gas)
2P
0
P
0
V
0
2V
0
B
C
D
A
(1) 10.5% (2) 12.5%
(3) 15.4% (4) 9.1%
Ans. [3]
Sol. Q
AB
= nCv
(
¸
(
¸
R
v p
0 0
, Q
BC
= nCp
(
¸
(
¸
R
v P 2
0 0
Q
CD
= nCv
(
¸
(
¸
R
v P 2
0 0
, Q
DA
= nCp
(
¸
(
\

R
v p
0 0
Q
repected
= Q
0
+ Q
DA
Q
absorbed
= Q
AB
+ Q
BC
q = 1 –
ab
rej
Q
Q
= 0.154
Q.85 Proton, Deuteron and alpha particle of the
same kinetic energy are moving in circular
trajectories in a constant magnetic field. The
radii of proton, deuteron and alpha particle
are respectively r
p
, r
d
and r
o
. Which one of
the following relations is correct?
(1) r
o
> r
d
> r
p
(2) r
o
= r
d
> r
p
(3) r
o
= r
p
= r
d
(4) r
o
= r
p
< r
d
Ans. [4]
Sol. R =
qB
mv
=
qB
mk 2
R
P
: R
d
: R
o
=
e
m
:
e
m 2
:
e 2
m 4
= 1 :
2
: 1
Q.86 Resistance of a given wire is obtained by
measuring the current flowing in it and the
voltage difference applied across it. If the
percentage errors in the measurement of the
current and the voltage difference are 3%
each, then error in the value of resistance of
the wire is :
(1) 1% (2) 3%
(3) 6% (4) zero
Ans. [3]
Sol. R =
I
V
R
R A
=
V
V A
+
I
I A
= 6%
Q.87 A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at
time t = 0. It is subjected to a force
F (t) = F
0
e
–bt
in the x direction. Its speed
v(t) is depicted by which of the following
curves?
(1)
t
F
mb
0
v(t)
(2)
t
F
mb
0
v(t)
(3)
t
F
mb
0
v(t)
(4)
t
F b
m
0
v(t)
Ans. [1]
Sol. a =
m
e f
bt
0
÷
}
v
0
dv
= }
÷
t
0
bt 0
dt e
m
f
v =
) e 1 (
mb
f
bt 0 ÷
÷
Q.88 A thin liquid film formed between a
Ushaped wire and a light slider supports a
weight of 1.5 × 10
– 2
N (see figure). The
length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight
negligible. The surface tension of the liquid
film is:
w
FILM
(1) 0.05 Nm
–1
(2) 0.025 Nm
–1
(3) 0.0125 Nm
–1
(4) 0.1 Nm
–1
Ans. [2]
Sol. 2SL = weight
S = 0.025 N/m
Q.89 Two cars of masses m
1
and m
2
are moving
in circles of radii r
1
and r
2
, respectively.
Their speeds are such that they make
complete circles in the same time t. The ratio
of their centripetal acceleration is :
(1) r
1
: r
2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) m
1
r
1
: m
2
r
2
(4) m
1
: m
2
Ans. [1]
Sol.
2
1
a
a
=
2
1
2
1
r
r
e
e
=
2
1
r
r
Q.90 A charge Q is uniformly distributed over the
surface of nonconducting disc of radius R.
The disc rotates about an axis perpendicular
to its plane and passing through its centre
with a angular velocity e. As a result of this
rotation a magnetic field of induction B is
obtained at the centre of the disc. If we keep
both the amount of charge placed on the disc
and its angular velocity to be constant and
vary the radius of the disc then the variation
of the magnetic induction at the centre of
the disc will be represented by the figure. :
(1)
R
B
(2)
R
B
(3)
R
B
(4)
R
B
Ans. [3]
Sol. dB =
r 2
dI µ
0
dr
r
Integrating we get B·
R
1
dq = o (2t r dr) =
2
R
Qrdr 2
dI =
t
e
2
) dq (
=
2
R
rdr Q
t
e
Q.8
Ans. Sol.
Q.9
Ans. Sol. Q.10
The equilibrium constant (K C) for the reaction N 2 (g) + O 2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10–4. The value of KC for the reaction, NO(g) 1/2N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) at the same temperature is (1) 4 × 10–4 (2) 50.0 (3) 0.02 (4) 2.5 × 102 [2] N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) ; k1 = 4 × 10–4 NO(g) 1/2N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g); k2 = ? 1 k2 = k = 50 Ans. 1 Iron exhibit + 2 and + 3 oxidation states. Which of the following statements about iron is incorrect? (1) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the corresponding ferric compounds. (2) Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric compounds. (3) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric oxide. (4) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than the corresponding ferric compounds. [2] Based on Facts The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l: (a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0 (c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 3 = l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy as (1) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c) (2) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d) (3) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (4) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a) [4] Value of (n + l) (a) n = 4, l = 1 4p 4+1=5 (b) n = 4, l = 0 4s 4+0=4 (c) n = 3, l = 2 3d 3+2=5 (d) n = 3, l = 1 3p 3+1=4 orbital having more (n + l) value has more energy if value of (n+l) is same then orbital having lower value of n has less energy. 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p
Q.11
Ans. Sol.
Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of mono substituted alkyl halide? (1) Isohexane (2) Neohexane (3) Tertiary butyl chloride (4) Neopentane. [4]
CH3 CH3 C CH3
X2/hv
CH3 CH3 C CH2X CH3 Only one mono substituted alkyl halide
CH3 Mol.wt=72 Neo pentane
Q.12
Ans. Sol.
Which one of the following statement is correct? (1) All amino acids except glycine are optically active. (2) All amino acids except glutamic acid are optically active. (3) All amino acids except lysine are optically active. (4) All amino acids are optically active. [1] Glycine CH2–COOH
NH2 Optically inactive.
* Except this R – CH–COOH NH2 Optically inactive.
Q.13 2–Hexyne gives trans2Hexene on treatment with : (1) Pd/BaSO4 (2) LiAlH4 (3) Pt/H2 (4) Li/NH3 [4]
Ans. Sol.
Ans.
18 CH3–CH–OH iso propyl alcohol it will give CH3 iodoform Q.44 V respectively.14 Iodoform can be prepared from all except : (1) 3Methyl2butanone (2) Isobutyl alcohol (3) Ethyl methyl ketone (4) Isopropyl alcohol [2] 3 . Y = Fe (4) X = Ni.23 and 0. [1] G° = H° – TS° = – RT ln K ln K = TS H RT C=C H CH3–CH2–CH3 Trans 2hexene Q. 3 351 = 152 pm Ans. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2methyl butane ? (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 2 [1] CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 CH3 H * CH3–CH–CH–CH3 + CH3–C–CH2–CH3 * CH2–Cl CH3 2 form 2 form (Enantiomer) (Enantiomer) Cl Total 4 Chiral molecules Cl2/hv (4) In isothermal process. Sol.methyl . Sol. Y = Zn (2) X = Zn. wreversible = –nRT Vf ln V i . Sol. Ans. Y = Ni (3) X = Ni.16 Ans.butanone Q. The reaction X + Y2+ X2+ + Y will be spontaneous when : (1) X = Fe. Ni2+ / Ni. Y = Zn [2] E°Y > E°X Hence. Atomic radius of the lithium will be : (1) 240 pm (2) 152 pm (3) 75 pm (4) 300 pm [2] For BCC : r= 3 a = 4r Q. Sol.2. Y = Ni and X = Zn Lithium forms body centred cubic structure. O H3C–C–C– CH3 it will give iodoform CH3 Isobutyl alcohol CH3–CH–CH2– OH CH3 this will not give iodoform Ethyl methyl ketone O CH 3–C–CH 2– CH3 It will give The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+ / Zn. The length of the side of its unit cell is 351 pm. Sol. –0.17 Ans.15 The incorrect expression among the following is H TS (1) lnK = RT G / RT (2) K e (3) G system Stotal = –T Ans. 4 Q. 3 CH3–CC–CH2–CH2–CH3 Re duction Birch CH3 H Li / NH Ans.Sol.76. and Fe2+ / Fe are –0.
NH3 Q. Sol. In which of the followng pairs the two species are not isostructural ? (1) PF5 and BrF5 (2) AlF63– and SF6 (3) CO32– and NO3– (4) PCl4+ and SiCl4 [1] Sol.22 Ans.01 M.8°C ? (1) 39 g (2) 27 g (3) 72 g (4) 93 g [4] Tf = Kf × m or 2.1 M t 0. (3) oNitrophenol is more volatile in steam than those of mand pisomers.86 K kg mol–1. F F P F F F PF5 3 sp d–T.B. .0 kg of water. (3) NH2NH2.P F F F F Br Q. The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0. Sol.05 M t 0. Sol.20 Ans. OrthoNitrophenol is less soluble in water than p. (4) oNitrophenol shows intramolecular Hbonding [4] OH NO2 Q.86 × W = 93 W / 62 1 Q.21 For a first order reaction. r = K [A] = 20 min × 0.1 M to 0. is (1) 3. Liq.8 = 1. which of the following is the most appropriate reagent ? CH = CHCOCH3 F HO CH = CHCH 2CH 3 HO Re agent Square pyramidal 3 2 sp d (1) Na. OH [3] – O CH=CH–C–CH3 Reagnet HO HO CH=CH–CH2–CH3 Ans.23 In the given transformation.01 = 3.025 M in 40 minutes.47 × 10–5 M/min (2) 1. how many grams of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to get the freezing point of the solution lowered to –2.025 M t1/2 = 40/2 = 20 min (2) NaBH4 (4) Zn – Hg/HCl Ans.and mNitrophenols because : (1) oNitrophenol shows intermolecular Hbonding (2) Melting point of oNitrophenol is lower than those of mand pisomers.Khischner NH2NH2/ OH is most appropriate. If you automobile radiator holds 1.19 Ans.693 Now. Sol. Reagent should not effect – OH and C=C Alkaline medium is best suited Wolf . Solubility became less.Q. Due to intramolecular Hbonding its Hbonding with H2O decreases.47 × 10–4 M/min [4] 1/ 2 1/ 2 0.47 × 10–4 M/ min Ans.73 × 10–5 M/min (4) 3.73 × 10–4 M/min (3) 1. Kf for water is 1. the concentration of A changes from 0. (A) products. 0.
27 Ans. Sol. Sol.9%) can be made by which of the following processes ? (1) Electrolysis of water (2) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water (3) Reaction of methane with steam (4) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight [2] M H + H 2O MOH + H2 (Pure) Q. Sol. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well as an acidic oxide ? (1) CaCO3 (2) NH4NO3 (3) NaNO3 (4) KClO3 [1] CaCO3 CaO + CO2 Basic Acidic Ans. Q.30 Q.05 M Ans. Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molisch's test ? (1) Amines (2) Primary alcohols (3) Nitro compounds (4) Sugars [4] Molisch Test is for Carbohydrates Sugar can be detected by Molisch Test. The molarity of this solution is : (1) 1.29 Ans.26 Ans.28 Q. According to Freundlich . Ans.78 M [2] Molarity n solute 120 / 60 1000 = V (1000 120) / 1.15 solution 2. which fo the following is correct ? (1) x p1 / n m Q. Q.02 M (2) 2. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. [1] (3) Sol. Aspirin Acetyl Salicylic Acid Ans. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water is 1.24 According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm. Aspirin is known as : (1) Acetyl salicylate (2) Methyl salicylic acid (3) Acetyl salicylic acid (4) Phenyl salicylate [3] COOH O O–C–CH3 x p0 (2) m x p1 m (4) All the above the correct for different ranges of pressure. Sol. Sol.Q. What is DDT among the following : (1) Biodegradable pollutant (2) Nonbiodegradable pollutant (3) Greenhouse gas (4) A fertilizer [2] DDT is Nonbiodegradable pollutant Very pure hydrogen (99. x P1/ n m Note : value of n is constant for a particular system from Freundlich isotherm. Sol. .15 g/mL.05 M (3) 0.25 Ans.50 M (4) 1.
Coordinates of M are 6 2 12 2 8 .33 (1*) (3) Ans. Sol. If the ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ vectors c a 2b and d 5a 4b are perpendicular to each other. x R 2 x 7. Q. 6 2 3 Ans. Statement 1 is also correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1. then k equals (1*) 6 (3) Ans. 2) (2. ) Statement 2 is correct. then a is equal to (1) 1 (2*) 2 (3) –1 (4) – 2 [2] Differentiating both sides. (2) Statement 1 is true. 1) and (2. 3 (2) (4) 4 2 6 [1] c·d = 0 (a 2 b) · (5a 4b ) = 0 5  a  2 6a b 8  b  2 = 0 5 + 6 · 1 · 1 cos – 8 = 0 cos = 3 1 = = . 5) and f(2) = f(5). Statement 1 : f '(4) = 0 Statement 2 : f is continuous in [2. Statement 2 is true. (3) Statement 1 is false. Sol. 5 tan x a = 1+ (cos x + 2sinx) tan x 2 sin x 2 cos x 5 sin x a (cos x 2 sin x ) =1 sin x 2 cos x sin x 2 cos x 5sin x – a (cos x + 2sin x) = sin x – 2cos x 4sin x + 2cos x = a (cos x + 2sin x) It is clear that f(x) is continuous in R and differentiable in (– .31 ˆ ˆ Let a and b be two unit vectors. f(x) = 3. (1*) Statement 1 is true. 29 5 (2) a= 2 ( 2 sin x cos x ) a = 2. differentiable in (2. cos x 2 sin x 11 5 (4) 5 [1] Since. x R. y 7 x2 2x5 x5 Q. 5]. (4) Statement 1 is true.32 If the integral tan x 2 dx 5 tan x = x + a ln  sin x – 2cos x  + k 3 O x 2 5 Ans. 14 . then the angle ˆ ˆ between a and b Q. [1] f(x) =  x – 2  +  x – 5  . Statement 2 is false. 5 5 5 5 .Q. Sol. Consider the function f(x) =  x – 2  +  x – 5 . 5) (5. Statement 2 is true. 4) in the ratio 3 : 2. 2 x 7. Statement 2 is true.34 If the line 2x + y = k passes through the point which divides the line segment joining the points (1. Sol. Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 2. Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1. M divides A & B in the ratio 3 : 2.
3. . 8}. . 6. Sol. m (m 0) is a common tangent to the parabola (4*) Ans. 1) 2 B M (2.. (3) Statement 1 is false..36 2x + y = k M lies on the line 2x + y = k 8 14 k=2· = 6. Statement 2 is true. given that their maximum is 6. AD p and BAD be an acute angle. When c2 = a2m2 + b2. 5 5 Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from {1. [4] Equation of tangent to parabola y2 = 16 3 x is y = mx + to ellipse 4 3 .. A line y = mx + C is tangent m Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that AB q . (2) Statement 1 is true. Sol. 7. 5..35 Statement 1 : An equation of a common tangent to the parabola y2 = 16 3 x and the ellipse 2x2 + y2 = 4 is y = 2x + 2 3 . 4 3 . C r q B T : y = 2x + 2 3 & y = – 2x – 2 3 . Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 2. Statement 2 is true. then m satisfies m4 + 2m2 = 24. Statement 2 is false. m2 = 4 or m2 = – 6 (not possible)] m=±2 Ans. then r is given by p·q (1) r q p p·p 3 p · q (2) r 3q p p·p 3 p · q (3) r 3q p p·p p·q (4*) r q p p·p [4] r p q D r · p p q · p 0 = p·pp·q p A p·q = p·p p·q r q p . 5 C3 Q.... The probability that their minimum is 3. (4*) Statement 1 is true. 2.3 A (1. Sol. Statement 2 is true. 3. [4] S : {1.. is (1) (3) 1 4 3 8 (2) 2 5 1 5 Q. 4) Q. (1) Statement 1 is true. y2 = 16 3 x and the ellipse 2x2 + y2 = 4. 4. 8} 4 P(E) = 6 Statement 2 : If the line y = mx + 1 C3 = . p·p x 2 y2 = 1. Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1. If r is the vector that coincides with the altitude directed from the vertex B to the side AD. 2.37 Ans. a 2 b2 6 3 = 2m2 + 4 m2 m4 + 2m2 = 24 On solving.
.41 Ans.. =1 12 22 22 = ± 3 P : x – 2y + 2z = ± 3.Q. + (361 + 380 + 400) is 8000. (4) discontinuous only at x = 0. n Statement 2 : k k 1 3 (k 1)3 = n3... (3) Statement 1 is false.. . then f(x) = 0 Ans.(1) 4sin Q + 3cos P = 1 . An equation of a plane parallel to the plane x – 2y + 2z – 5 = 0 and at a unit distance from the origin is (1) x – 2y + 2z – 1 = 0 (2) x – 2y + 2z + 5 = 0 (3*) x – 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 (4) x – 2y + 2z + 1 = 0 [3] Equation of plane parallel to x – 2y + 2z – 5 = 0 is x – 2y + 2z = . Statement 2 is true. then the angle R is equal to (1) (3) 4 5 6 (2) 3 4 6 2x 1 [ cos = 0 for n I] 2 For x I then f(x) is product of two continuous function therefore it is continuous. (3*) continuous for every real x.38 Ans.... then f is (1) discontinuous only at nonzero integral values of x.40 If f : R R is a function defined by 2x 1 f(x) = [x] cos . (2) continuous only at x = 0. Statement 2 is true. (4*) Q.. [4] P+Q= 5 Q or 6 6 R But when P + Q = satisfied then (1) & (2) not 6 5 P+Q= R= . (2) Statement 1 is true. (4*) Statement 1 is true... Statement 2 is false.(2) Square and add (1) & (2) 24 sin (P + Q) = 12 1 sin (P + Q) = 2 P Statement 1 : The sum of the series 1 + (1 + 2 + 4) + (4 + 6 + 9) + (9 +12 + 16) + . Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1... Distance from origin is 1. (1) Statement 1 is true. Sol.. Sol. [4] 3sin P + 4cos Q = 6 . 2 [ ] greatest integer function When x I. Sol.. 000 Q. where [x] denotes 2 the greatest integer function. [3] f:RR 2x 1 f(x) = [x] cos .39 In a PQR. for any natural number n. 6 6 Ans. Q. if 3 sin P + 4 cos Q = 6 and 4sin Q + 3cos P = 1. Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 2. Statement 2 is true. f(x) is continuous for every real x.
x u1 = y z 1 0 0 x 1 2 1 0 y = 0 3 2 1 z 0 1 u1 = 2 . 0) and passes through the point (2.43 1 0 0 Let A = 2 1 0 .. + (361 + 380 + 400) Clearly number of terms in sequence are 20. Sol. Radius = k 5 (1 – h)2 + k2 = k2 } h = 1 . An irrational number..Sol. u2 = 1 1 u1 + u2 = 1 . k). 9 green and 7 black balls is (1) 630 (2*) 879 (3) 880 (4) 629 [2] (11) (10) (8) – 1 = 879. 2 2 Q. Sol.45 Ans. 0 0 then u1 + u2 is equal to 1 1 (1) 0 1 1 (3) 0 1 1 (2*) 1 1 1 (4) 1 Ans. [2] . 3) is (1) 6 5 10 3 ` (2) (4) 5 3 3 5 0 1 2 (3*) Ans. n Sol. S1: 1 + (1 + 2 + 4) + (4 + 6 + 9) + (9 +12 + 16) + . Assuming the balls to be identical except for difference in colours.42 The length of the diameter of the circle which touches the xaxis at the point (1. k = 3 Q. 3 3 Q. [3] (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = k2 Centre (h. Ans... Diameter = . Sol. 3 1 3 1 = 4 3 . 2n 2n Radius = 5 10 . 1 The sum of given series for 20 terms is (20)3 = 8000. If u1 and u2 are column 3 2 1 1 0 matrices such that Au1 = 0 and Au2 = 1 . the number of ways in which one or more balls can be selected from 10 white. then 3 1 3 1 is (1) an even positive integer (2) a rational number other than positive integers (3*) an irrational number (4) an odd positive integer [3] If n = 1.. S2 : k k 1 3 (k 1)3 = n3 is true.44 If n is a positive integer. Q.
Sol. b = 2 x y2 =1 16 4 x2 + 4y2 = 16. 2 Ans. If the centre of the ellipse is at the origin and its axes are the coordinate axes.48 Let a. Statement 1 : f has local maximum at x = – 1 and at x = 2.. then the equation of the ellipse is (1) 4x2 + y2 = 8 (2*) x2 + 4y2 = 16 2 + y2 = 4 (3) 4x (4) x2 + 4y2 = 8 [2] a = 4. x 0 has extreme values at x = – 1 and x = 2. [4] f(x) = ln  x  + bx2 + ax. Statement 2 is false. (3) Statement 1 is false.b= 2 4 x 3 yk z 1 2 1 intersect. x 0 Statement 2 : a = Q. then k is equal to 1 2 1 (1*) 9 2 (2) 0 2 (4) 9 x 1 y 1 z 1 2 3 4 1 + 2bx + a x extreme values at x = – 1.47 If the line and Ans. 1 1 and b = . Statement 2 is true. x 3 yk z intersect. An ellipse is drawn by taking a diameter of the circle (x – 1)2 + y2 = 1 as its semiminor axis and a diameter of the circle x2 + (y – 2)2 = 4 as its semimajor axis.(1) (3) – 1 Ans. Sol.. Statement 2 is true. 2 4 (1) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 2.. 2 – 1 – 2b + a = 0 a – 2b = 1 f '(x) = . [1] If the line and 1 1 + 4b + a = 0 a + 4b = . 3 1 k 1 0 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 =0 Q. 1 1 1 = 2 x x f "(–1) < 0 and f "(2) < 0 f has local maximum at x = – 1 and x = 2.. (2) Statement 1 is true. (4) on a circle with centre at the origin. Sol.(2) 2 2 From (1) and (2) a = and then again f "(x) = 2b – 1 1 .49 z is real.Q. (4*) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is true. Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1.46 Ans. (2) on the imaginary axis. Sol. (3*) either on the real axis or on a circle passing through the origin. Ellipse x 1 y 1 z 1 2 3 4 Q. b R be such that the function f given by f(x) = ln  x  + bx2 + ax. . [3] If z 1and z2 is real z 1 Let z = x + iy 2 k 1 1 3 4 =0 2 1 2 1 2 (3 – 8) – (k + 1) (2 – 4) – 1 (4 – 3) = 0 – 10 + 2k + 2 – 1 = 0 2k = 9 k = 9 . then the point z 1 represented by the complex number z lies (1) either on the real axis or on a circle not passing through the origin.
x Q. z 1 – y (x2 – y2) + (x – 1) 2xy = 0 y (x2 + y2 – 2x) = 0 y = 0 or x2 + y2 – 2x = 0. Sol. If a leak in the balloon causes the gas to escape at the rate of 72 cubic meters per minute. Volume of gas = 72 × 49 = 3528 After 49 minute volume of gas inside balloon = (4500 – 3528) = 972 4 3 r = 972 3 r = 9m (1*) g(x) – g() g( x ) (3) g () [1]. [1] Given Ans. then g(x + ) equals 0 t=0 Volume of gas = 4500 t = 49 minute. is (1) Neither I will become a teacher nor I will open a school.51 If g(x) = cos 4t dt .50 The negation of the statement "If become a teacher.x 2 y 2 2ixy z2 = ( x 1) iy z 1 = ( x 2 y 2 2ixy) ( x 1 iy) ( x 1) 2 y 2 2 x = cos 4 t dt 0 cos 4 t dt x = cos 4 t dt cos 4 t dt 0 0 z equal to zero. (4) Either I will not become a teacher or I will not open a school. (3*) I will become a teacher and I will not open a school. Sol. dV dr = 4r2 dt dt Given g(x) = cos 4t dt 0 x – 72 = 4(92) dr 2 = . [4] x (2) g(x) · g() (4*) g(x) + g() Now. then I will open a school". imaginary part of Q. Q. Sol.52 = g() + g(x) g(x + ) = g(x) + g() but g() = 0 g (x + ) = g (x) + g () = g (x) – g() A spherical balloon is filled with 4500 cubic meters of helium gas. [3] P = I be one a teacher. V = 4 3 r 3 Ans. g(x + ) = cos 4t dt 0 . dt 9 dr dt Now. Q = I will open a school. Now. then the rate (in meters per minute) at which the radius of the balloon decreases 49 minutes after the leakage began is (1*) (3) 9 7 dV = 72 dt 2 9 (2) (4) 9 2 7 9 Ans. (2) I will not become a teacher or I will open a school. ~ (p q) = P ^ ~ q I become a teacher and I will not open a school.
Z X. [2] Q. 2x2. (2*) Statement 1 is true.) Number of way of distributing each element = 35.56 Ans.54 Let X = {1. then determinant of (P2 + Q2) is equal to (1*) 0 (2) – 1 (3) – 2 (4) 1 [1] P3 = Q3 P2Q = Q2P P3 – P2Q = Q3 – Q2P P2 (P – Q) = Q2 (Q – P) (P2 + Q2) (P – Q) = 0  P 2 + Q2   P – Q  = 0  P2 + Q2  = 0 or  P – Q  = 0... The area bounded between the parabolas x2 = is (1*) 20 2 3 y and x2 = 9y. Statement 2 is true. .. 4 . (3) Statement 1 is false. If P3 = Q3 and P2Q = Q2P. Statement 2 is true. Sol. Q. No solution. The number of different ordered pairs (Y. 3 4 0 y A y=4x2 B y= x2 9 y=2 x k = esin x = 2 + 5 = It is greater than e Not possible and esin x = 2 – 5 = negative i. Sol. (1) Statement 1 is true. (4) Statement 1 is true.. Let x1. [1] 2 20 2 y dy = Area = 2 9 y . (3) 20 2 . xn be n observations.57 Q. (4*) no real roots.... x2.... Statement 2: Arithmetic mean of 2x1.. 2. 3. Statement 1: Variance of 2x1. not possible. [4] Let esin x = k k– 1 – 4 = 0 k2 – 4k – 1 = 0 k Ans. The equation esinx – e–sin x – 4 = 0 has (1) exactly one real root.. Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 2 is false. 4 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by 3 ways. . Z) that can be formed such that Y X. 5 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by 3 ways.55 (2) 10 2 (4) 10 2 3 Ans. 2x2. and the straight line y = 2 4 Q. Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. and let x be their arithmetic mean and 2 be their variance. 2xn is 42... (2) exactly four real root. Statement 2 is true.. is (1) 25 (2) 53 2 (3) 5 (4*) 35 [4] 1 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by 3 ways. Sol. 2 can be distributed in two set Y and Zby 3 ways.e. Let P and Q be 3 × 3 matrices with P Q. Sol. . Ans. 2xn is 4 x . 3 can be distributed in two set Y and Z by 3 ways.53 Ans. (The three ways are either only in Y or only in Z or in none of Y and Z... 5}.Q. (3) infinite number of real roots. and Y Z is empty.
. x3.. Sol.Sol.. dA =0 dx x Gives m 2 = 4 m = ± 2 Area m = – 2. 2 x n n Q. 2) to meet the coordinates axes at P and Q such that it forms a triangle OPQ... If the area of the triangle OPQ is least..... ... S2 : Arithmetic Mean = 2 x1 2 x 2 .. is (1*) – 2 (3) 1 4 (2) 1 2 (4) – 4 x i n n variance of 2x1 .. dp( t ) 1 = p(t) – 450 dt 2 If 100 times the 100th term of an AP with non zero common difference equals the 50 times its 50th term.. 2) O 2 1 . x2.. then the slope of the line PQ.60 (1) Ans. Sol..........(1) and T150 = a + 149d = 0 [From (1)].58 The population p(t) at time t of a certain mouse species satisfies the differential equation dp( t ) = 0. . P(0) = 850 k = – 50 Equation (1) becomes p(t) = 900 – 50et/2 when p(t) = 0 then t = 2ln 18.. 0 m = 1 4 m 4 2 m x i2 x i 2 =4 n n = 4 .. 2x2 .... [1] Area = 1 2 1 ( 2 m ) 2 m y (0..59 x1 x 2 . Q. x n = 2x = 2 n Statement2 is false Statement1 We know variance of x1.... 2 – m) (1...... If p(0) = 850. If e 1 dt 2 = e–t/2 p(t) e–t/2 = – 450 e t 2dt + k p(t) = 900 + ket/2 ..(1) When t = 0 .. xn.. where O is the origin. 2xn 2 = 4 x i2 n x 4 i n x = 2 i 2 Ans. then the 150th term of this AP is (1) 150 (2*) zero (3) – 150 (4) 150 times its 50th term [2] 100 (a + 99d) = 50 (a + 49d) a + 149d = 0 . then dt the time at which the population becomes zero is 1 ln 18 2 (3*) 2 ln 18 [3] Q. . A line is drawn through the point (1.5 p(t) – 450. .. (2) ln 18 (4) ln 9 Ans. Sol.
(1) Statement1 is false. Statement2 is true. choose the one that best describes the two statements. This question has Statement1 and statement2. choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement2 is true and Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1. at the surface of the sphere and also at a point out side the sphere. If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1 and k2. Sol. Statement2 is false [1] Vanter = 3kQ kQ . (4) Statement1 is true.Q. Of the four choices given after the Statements. Statement2 is true. work done on S1. As a result of this uniform charge distribution there is a finite value of electric potential at the centre of the sphere. will be more than that on S2.61 Ans. 0 Statement 2 :The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the centre of the sphere is r 3 0 . Statement1 : If stretched by the same amount. Statement2 is false and Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1 (3) Statement1 is false. Vsurface = 2R R R 2 q qkQ U = qV = = 6 0 2R . Sol. Statement 2 :k1 < k2 (1) Statement1 is true. q its potential energy changes by 3 . (3) Statement1 is true. it is found that more work is done on spring S1 than on spring S2. Statement2 is false [1] Stretched by same force hence k1x1 = k2x2 More work is done on spring1 hence 1 1 k1x12 > k2x22 2 2 x1 > x2 k1 < k2 Q. Of the four choices given after the Statements. Statement2 is true and Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1. respectively.62 This question has Statement1 and statement2. are stretched by the same force. The electric potential at infinity is zero. Ans. Statement1 : When a charge 'q' is taken from the centre to the surface of the sphere. (2) Statement1 is true. Statement2 is false and Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1 (4) Statement1 is true. An insulating solid sphere of radius R has uniformly positive charge density . (2) Statement1 is true.
5 = 80 km Ans.67 2Rh = 2 6.4 103 0.66 Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state with principal quantum number equal to 4. (1) SYT (2) 2SYT (3) 2SYT (4) SYT [2] Thermal stress = YT Force developed = YST force exerted by the part = 2YST T Sol. Sol. It is located on a mountain top of height 500 m. the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other part is : Q. As it cools down to surrounding temperature. The maximum distance up to which it can detect object located on the surface of the earth (Radius of earth = 6.65 Ans. it is heated so that its temperature rises by T and it just steps over the wheel. T Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is : A Y B Q. [3] (4) (3) Ans. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is . The two parts are held together by a ring made of a metal strip of cross sectional area S and length L. of spectral lines = nC2 = 4C2 = 6 A radar has a power of 1 kW and is operating at a frequency of 10 GHz.63 A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two semicircular parts (see figure). (m1 m 2 ) n h 2 2m1 m 2 r 2 2 2 2 2 (4) 2(m1 m 2 )r 2 [2] I n Rotational energy = 1 2 I where I = µr2 2 Putting we get E = n 2 (m1 m 2 ) 2m1m 2 r 2 . If we calculate its rotational energy by applying Bohr's rule of angular momentum quantization.4 × 106 m) (1) 40 km (2) 64 km (3) 80 km (4) 16 km [3] d= R Ans. Then the number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3 [2] No.64 A diatomic molecule is made of two masses m1 and m2 which are separated by a distance r.Q. To fit the ring on the wheel. L is lightly less than 2R. Sol. Q. Q. Sol. it presses the semicircular parts together. its energy will be given by : 2n 2 h 2 (1) A 0 0 1 1 A 0 0 1 1 B 0 1 0 1 B 0 1 0 1 Y 1 1 0 0 Y 0 1 1 0 (2) A 0 0 1 1 A 0 0 1 1 B 0 1 0 1 B 0 1 0 1 Y 1 0 0 1 Y 0 0 1 1 (1) (m1 m 2 )r 2 (2) (m1 m 2 )n 2 h 2 2m1m 2 r n h 2 2 2 (3) Ans. and its Youngs' modulus is Y.
Statement2 : If electrons have wave nature.5 degree. (4) Statement1 is true. Statement2 is false [1] Q. = 2L v L .5 + 9 × Q. Of the four choices given after the Statements. The angle of the prism from the above data: (1) 58.71 Ans.5 degree Vernier scale reading: 09 divisions Given that 1 division on main scale corresponds to 0. (2) Statement1 is true. (1) Statement1 is true. Statement2 is true. This question has Statement1 and statement2. The graph which would correspond to the above will be : E E (1) R E r (2) R E r Least count (LC) = (3) R r (4) R r 0 .Germer experiment established the wave nature of electrons. = = 2L 4 2 hence f ' = f . Sol.Q. f. Sol. choose the one that best describes the two statements.65 degree (2) 59 degree (3) 58.65 degree Ans.59 degree (4) 58. Statement2 is false and Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1 (3) Statement1 is false. Sol.70 In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R. A spectrometer gives the following reading when used to measure the angle of a prism. Main scale reading : 58.68 Ans. The tube is dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in water. [1] Einside r Eoutsides 1 r2 = 58. has a fundamental frequency.77 degree [1] 0. the electric field E is plotted as a function of distance from the centre. in air. A cylindrical tube.5 deg ree 30 Reading = Main scale reading + vernier scale reading Q.69 Ans. Statement2 is true and Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1. The fundamental frequency of the aircolumn is now: 3f (1) (2) 2f 4 f (3) f (4) 2 [3] f= f'= v . they can interfere and show diffraction. open at both ends. Total divisions on the vernier scale is 30 and match with 29 divisions of the main scale.5 30 = 58. Statement1 : Davisson .
2 sec Q. 300 0. it stops. (2) electromagnetic induction in the aluminium plate giving rise to electromagnetic damping. When the spherical bob of the pendulum suffers a retardation (due to viscous drag) proportional to its velocity. the average life time of the pendulum is (assuming damping is small) in seconds: (1) (3) 1 b 0. The figure shows an experimental plot for discharging of a capacitor in an RC circuit.6 = 1 – T Tsource = 750 K source . it is very difficult to stop. It is desired to have an engine of efficiency 60%. The time constant of this circuit lies between: (1) 50 sec and 100 sec (2) 100 sec and 150 sec (3) 150 sec and 200 sec (4) 0 and 50 sec [2] V = Ve–t/ at t = 200 sec.73 Ans. When a current is passed through the coil it starts oscillating.75 A Carnot engine. V = 5. (4) induction of electrical charge on the plate [2] Ans. with ‘b’ as the constant of proportionality.74 (2) 2 b (4) b Ans. (3) development of air current when the plate is placed. V0 = 25 hence we get = 124.693 b Potential difference V in volts 25 20 15 10 5 0 50 100 150 200 250 300 Time t in seconds Q.Q.72 If a simple pendulum has Significant amplitude (up to a factor of 1/ e of original) only in the period between t = 0s to t = s. Sol. [1] a = –bv hence v = v 0 e–bt comparing with N = N0e–t 1 1 Average life time = = b Ans. the intake temperature for the same exhaust (sink) temperature must be : (1) 750 K (2) 600 K (3) efficiency of Carnot engine cannot be made larger than 50% (4) 1200 K [1] 0. then may be called the average life of the pendulum. Sol. But if an aluminium plate is placed near to the coil. Then. takes in heat from a source maintained at a temperature of 500 K. with the plane of the coil parallel to the magnetic lines of force. This is due to : (1) shielding of magnetic lines of force as aluminium is a paramagnetic material. Sol. A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field. whose efficiency is 40%.4 = 1 – Tsin k Tsink = 300 K 500 Q.
76 Ans.78 An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the electric and magnetic fields E and B . so that the amplitude of the light from one slit is double of that from other slit. The required energy for this work will be : (1) 6. the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase difference is given by : (1) (2) (3) (4) Im 2 1 4 cos 5 2 Im 2 1 8 cos 9 2 Im 4 5 cos 9 Sol. Which of the bulbs will fuse? (1) 25W (2) neither (3) both (4) 100 W [1] R 100W 4R 25W 440V Q. If Im be the maximum intensity. Q. The value of 'g' and 'R' (radius of earth) are 10 m/s 2 and 6400 km respectively. The direction of polarization is given by X and that of wave propagation by k . Then (1) X  B and k  E B (2) X  E and k  B E (3) X  B and k  B E (4) X  E and k  E B [4] The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from the earth's surface out into free space. Sol. Q. which are always perpendicular to each other.4 × 1011 Joules (4) 6. The maximum horizontal distance that the boy can throw the same stone up to will be : (1) 10 2 m (2) 20 m (4) 10 m Ans. Two electric bulbs marked 25W220V and 100W220V are connected in series to a 440V supply. .4 × 108 Joules [2] GmMe On surface of earth U = – mgRe Re = –6. one of the slit is wider than other.4 × 1010 Joules (3) 6. Sol.4 × 109 Joules (2) 6. Sol.Q. [2] I0 and 4I0 Im = 9I0 2 Ires = I0 + 4I0 + 2 4I 0 cos = 5I0 + 4I0 cos = Q.80 Im 2 1 8 cos 2 9 A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 10 m.4 × 1010 Joule Im 2 1 2 cos 3 2 Ans. (3) 20 2 m [2] u2 = 10 m 2g u2 Rmax = = 20 m g Ans.77 Ans.79 In Young's double slit experiment.
4 m [2] 1 1 1 1 7 + = = 12 240 f f 80 (3) loge ( – 0) Ans.6725 × 10–27 kg Mass of proton = 1.6 m T Ts kt T0 Ts ln(T – Ts) = ln(T0 – Ts) – kt Q.2 m (4) 2.1% .4 MeV (3) 0.4% (2) 12.5% (3) 15.82 Ans. of refractive index 1.6725 × 10–27 kg Mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg) (1) 6. The energy released during this process is : (Mass of neutron = 1.73 MeV (4) 7.Q. Sol.50 is interposed between lens and film with its plane faces parallel to film. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. [3] dT = –k(T – Ts) dt ln 1 1 1 3 7 1 = = =– u v f 35 80 500 u = –5. then according to Newton's law of cooling the correct graph between loge( – 0) and t is: loge ( – 0) loge ( – 0) A V0 D (1) 2V0 t (1) 10. (2) loge ( – 0) t 0 t (4) 0 t 1 1 x due to slab = t 1 = CM 3 * New v should be = 12 – * 1 35 = CM 3 3 Ans.84 Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting of two isochoric and two isobaric lines) as shown in figure. An object 2.5% (4) 9. Efficiency of this cycle is nearly: (Assume the gas to be close to ideal gas) 2P0 P0 B C Q.30 MeV (2) 5. At what distance (from lens) should object be shifted to be in sharp focus on film ? (1) 3. Sol. A glass plate 1 cm thick.83 A liquid in a beaker has temperature (t) at time t and 0 is temperature of surroundings.2 m (2) 5.6 m (3) 7.10 MeV NO ANSWER (WRONG DATA) but correct answer is [3] with actual data.4 m in front of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens.81 Q.
deuteron and alpha particle are respectively rp.86 Ans. [1] f 0 e bt a= m v t 0 Q. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves? F0 mb (1) v(t) t F0 mb =1– Q. Sol. then error in the value of resistance of the wire is : (1) 1% (2) 3% (3) 6% (4) zero [3] R= V I Sol.Ans. QBC = nCp R R Q. Sol. If the percentage errors in the measurement of the current and the voltage difference are 3% each.85 Q rej Qab = 0.154 Ans. It is subjected to a force F (t) = F0e–bt in the x direction.87 2P0 v 0 p0 v0 QCD = nCv . rd and r. Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring the current flowing in it and the voltage difference applied across it. [3] p0 v0 2P0 v 0 QAB = nCv . Deuteron and alpha particle of the same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic field. dv = 0 0 me f bt dt v= f0 (1 e bt ) mb R V I = + = 6% R V I . Proton. Sol. The radii of proton. QDA = nCp R R Qrepected = Q0 + QDA Qabsorbed = QAB + QBC A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0. Which one of the following relations is correct? (1) r > rd > rp (2) r = rd > rp (3) r = rp = rd (4) r = rp < rd [4] mv R= = qB 2mk qB m : e 2m : e 4m 2e (2) v(t) t F0 mb (3) v(t) t F0b m RP : Rd : R = =1: (4) v(t) t 2 :1 Ans.
05 Nm–1 (3) 0.025 Nm–1 (4) 0.0125 Nm–1 [2] 2SL = weight S = 0. : dq = (2r dr) = dI = 2Qrdr R2 Qrdr (dq) = 2 R 2 .025 N/m (2) 0.Q. The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight negligible. [3] dB = µ 0 dI 2r 1 R dr r Integrating we get B A charge Q is uniformly distributed over the surface of nonconducting disc of radius R.5 × 10– 2N (see figure).88 A thin liquid film formed between a Ushaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1. Sol. Their speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same time t.89 Ans. If we keep both the amount of charge placed on the disc and its angular velocity to be constant and vary the radius of the disc then the variation of the magnetic induction at the centre of the disc will be represented by the figure.90 Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2. (1) 0. As a result of this rotation a magnetic field of induction B is obtained at the centre of the disc. The ratio of their centripetal acceleration is : (1) r1 : r2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) m1r1 : m2 r2 (4) m1 : m2 [1] a1 r1 r12 = = r a2 r12 2 (4) B R Ans. respectively.1 Nm–1 (3) B R Q. The surface tension of the liquid film is: (1) B R FILM (2) B R w Ans. The disc rotates about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre with a angular velocity . Sol. Sol. Q.
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