Test No: 01 Date: Registration No: Duration :2 hr M aximum Marks : 200 Roll No

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INSTRUCTION TO THE CANDIDATES

1. This question paper contains 200 questions in all comprising the following parts: a. Part A. General English : (40 Questions) b. Part B. General Knowledge : ( 40 Questions) c. Part C. Numerical Aptitude: (40 Questions) d. Part D. Reasoning Ability: (40 Questions) e. Part E. Computer Knowledge: (40 Questions) 2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 3. There will be negative markings for wrong answers marked by you. Each wrong answer will entitle you to lose 0.25 marks you obtained by right answers marked by you. 4. You will be supplied the Answer-Sheet separately. You must complete the details of Name, Roll number etc. 5. You must fill all the details asked, failing which, you Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ZERO marks. 6. Answers must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles of the Answer-Sheet against relevant question number by HB pencil only. 7. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough work has been provided.

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GENERAL ENGLISH Directions: (Q1-10 ) Read the following passage carefully and answer for the questions given below it. Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so he was well-fed and well-treate(4) There was also a Dog who lived near the Elephant’s she(4) He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by the smell of the rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant. One day, the dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow managed to sneak into the elephant’s she(4) He ate the grains of sweet rice that fell from the elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge elephant didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious foo(4) Gradually, the dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich foo(4) Finally, the elephant noticed him and allowed access to the foo(4) The elephant enjoyed the company of the dog and started sharing his food with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became good friends. They ate together, slept together and played together. While playing, the elephant would hold the dog in his trunk and swing him back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other. Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to buy this Dog. What price do you want for it?” The Elephant-keeper didn’t own the Dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the Dog to his home village, which was quite far away. The King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing. Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t mention anything about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was known for his keen understanding of animals. The King ordered the minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find out the reason for the Elephant's condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant shed and found the Elephant very sa(4) He examined the Elephant and asked the Elephant-keeper. “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then why does he look so sad? I think this Elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss of a dear frien(4) Do you know if this Elephant shared a close friendship with anyone?” The Elephant-keeper said, “There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and play with the Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The minister went back to the King and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion, the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome without his dear friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is?’ The Minister replied, “Elephant-keeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How can we bring back my Elephant’s friend and make him happy again?” The Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal Elephant’s shed will be penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation. 2

As soon as he was freed, the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the Elephant’s she(4) The Elephant was so delighted to see the Dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The Dog wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The King was content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the minister for his wise judgement. 1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition? (1) The Elephant hated his keeper (2) The Elephant was lonely (3) The Elephant was starving (4) The Elephant had hurt his leg and was in pain (5) None of these 2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog? (1) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished (2) To keep a bowl of rice for the Dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he could be lured back to the palace (3) To command the Elephant keeper to look for the Dog in the village (4) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog (5) None of these 3. Why had the Elephant become very sad? (1) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice (2) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog (3) He missed his friend the Dog (4) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper (5) None of these 4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog? (1) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price (2) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephant’s food (3) He killed the Dog (4) He complained to the King about the Dog (5) None of these 5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage? (1) Friends and Enemies (2) The Playful Dog (3) The King and the Minister (4) The Elephant-keeper (5) The Bond of Friendship 6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ? (1) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs (2) He was a very loyal Elephant (3) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom (4) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him (5) None of these 7. Why did the dog start going to the elephant’s shed every day? 3

(1) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him (2) He was being fed by the King everyday (3) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed (4) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant (5) None of these 8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ? (1) He ate rice to his heart’s content (2) He thanked the King for his kindness (3) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place far away (4) He ran back to his friend the Elephant (5) None of these 9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephant-keeper? (1) He was greedy (2) He was insensitive (3) He was brave (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only A and B (4) Only B and C (5) All A, B and C 10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King? (A) He was compassionate. (B) He was deceitful. (C) He loved animals. (1) Only A (2) Only A and C (3) Only A and B (4) Only B (5) All the three A, B, and C Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 11. EXTRACTED (1) pulled 12. DECLARATION (1) pact 13. KEEN (1) shallow (2) inserted (2) praise (2) urgent (3) wring (4) dug out (4) writ (4) deep (5) received (5) resolve (5) eager

(3) announcement (3) concentrated

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 14. RESIST (1) give in (2) please (3) struggle 4 (4) try out (5) defy

15. SEPARATED (1) stuck

(2) united

(3) estranged

(4) bound

(5) joined

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer. 16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s ending. (1) her wit’s end (2) the wit ends (3) her witty end (4) the wit end (5) No correction required 17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving grace is that the air conditioning is goo(4) (1) grace to save (2) gracing save (3) saver grace (4) save to grace (5) No correction required 18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was hardly pressed for time. (1) hard pressed for timely (2) hard pressed for time (3) hardly press to time (4) hard pressing to timely (5) No correction required 19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his boss. (1) lies for his teeth (2) lie to his teeth (3) lied through his teeth (4) lied from his tooth (5) No correction required 20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams starting the next day. (1) widen awakening (2) widely awake (3) wide and awake (4) wide awake (5) No correction required Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer. 5

21. People went crazy (1) when the musician along with his friend, (2) took to the staging (3) and belted out popular (4) tracks. All correct (5) 22. For a growing number of coupals, (1) adoption is not a helpless compulsion (2) but a deliberate, (3) vand often noble, (4) choice. All correct (5) 23. On two consecutive (1) nights the two greatest icones (2) of show-business were honoured with unprecedented (3) affection. (4) All correct(5) 24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (1) that when a truly outstanding achievement (2) stares us in the face we resort (3) to the same terms of praise. (4) All correct (5) 25. The unlikely migration (1) was officially (2) explained as a move to meet expanding (3) business oportunities. (4) All correct (5) Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his home for dinner. (2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for repair. (3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that it was shiny. (4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look new. (5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an apprentice in a bicycle shop. (6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary work. 26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 6 27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 29. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6 30. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6 Directions—(Q. 31–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 31. In about five minutes, they would (1) / cover the distance from the road to the point (2) / where the waves would (3)/ begin lick their feet.(4) No error (5) 6

32. The former superstar recently (1) / visit an orphanage (2) / fuelling speculation that (3) / she is planning to adopt a chil(4) (4) No error (5) 33. A day after he was diagnosed with (1) / swine flu, preventive measures were put in place (2) / to ensure that others were not (3)/ affected by the dreaded virus(4). No error (5) 34. The administration has conclusive (1) / that it is retailers who are (2) / responsible for upsetting (3) / the city’s household budget. (4) No error (5) 35. Sediment deposit along the coast (1) / may be the primary reason for (2) / the change in conditions, (3) / but a lot more remains to be understan(4) (4) No error (5) Directions --- (Q.36-40): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, then mark (5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer. 36. The organization preferred (1)/ to hire locale(2)/ population as they understood the language (3)/ and customer preferences.(4)/ All correct. (5) 37. In our opinion the exiciting (1)/ assessment (2)/ system required immediate (3)/ revision. (4)/ All correct. (5) 38. In responds (1) / to our advertisement a sizeable (2) / numbers of candidates have submitted (3) / their applications. (4)/ All correct. (5) 39. There is no guarantee (1) / that if this model is adopted (2) / the entire (3) / sector will prosper. (4)/ All correct. (5) 40. With this unique (1) / initiative (2) / the company hopes to sustain (3) / its currant growth rate. (4)/ All correct. (5) GENERAL AWARENESS 41. Which is the second highest award in India? (1) Bharat Ratna (2) Padma Vibhushan

(3) Padma Bhushan

(4) Padma Shri (5) None of these 42. The term ‘Free Style’ is used in which of the following games? (1) Boxing (2) Golf (3) Swimming (4) Hockey (5)Badminton 43. Recently, the actor Shah Rukh Khan was banned from entering into this stadium, what is it? (1) Wankhede Stadium (2) Eden Gardens (3) Shivaji Stadium (4) Ranji Stadium (5) Nehru Stadium 44. Which is the Head Quarters of World Bank? (1) New York (2) Paris (3) Geneva (4) Washington (4)C (5) Rome 7

45. Who won the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2011? (1) Vikas Gowda (2) Jwala Gutta (3) Tejeswini Bai (4) Gagan Narang (5) Ravinder Singh 46. Where will Summer Olympics game be held in 2016? (1) Brazil (2) Greece (3) China (4) Great Britain (5) None of these 47. What is the full form of ADR? (1) American Depository Receipts (2) African Depository Receipts (3) Asian Depository Receipts (4) All Depository Receipts (5) None of these 48. Which is the plan period for the Twelfth Five Year Plan? (1) 2011 – 2016 (2) 2013 – 2017 (3) 2012-2017 (4) 2010 – 2015 (5) 2014 – 2019 49. Who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India? (1) (4)Subbarao (2) K.(3)Chakrabarthy (3) Subir Gokran (4) Anand Sinha (5) K.R. Khan 50. How is the currency of Korea called? (1) Yen (2) Cedi (3) Rial (4) Koruna (5) Won 51. As per the Cencus of India 2011, what is the sex ratio? (1) 940 (2) 941 (3) 942 (4) 943 (5) 944 52. Which is the least populous Union Territory in India? (1) Delhi (2) Lakshadweep (3) Chandigarh (4) Pondicherry (5) Goa 53. Who among the following received the Padma Vibhushan Award posthumously for 2011? (1) K.G.Subramanyan (2) Bhupan Hazarika (3) K.H.Sancheti (4) T.V.Rajeswar (5) None of these 54. Who was conferred with Bharath Ratna in the year 2008? (1) Bismillah Khan (2) Lata Mangeshkar (3) Bhimsen Joshi (4) M.S.Subbulakshmi (5) Jayaprakash Narayan 55. Which is the India’s first nuclear powered submarine? (1) INS Shalki (2) INS Arihant (3) INS Chakra (4) INS Vikrant (5) None 56. Which is the latest version of the missile Agni launched by India, recently? (1) Agni II (2) Agni III (3) Agni IV (4) Agni V (5) Agni VI 57. Where is India Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research located? (1) Chennai (2) Mumbai (3) Hyderabad (4) Kolkatta (5) Indore 58. Where is Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station established in Tamilnadu? (1) Tuticorin (2) Tirunelveli (3) Kanyakumari (4) Cuddalore (5) Chennai 59. Which of the following is the award related to the medicine in India? (1) Dhyanchand Award (2) Ashok Chakra Award (3) (2)(3)Roy Award (4) Saraswati Samman (5) None of these 60. Where is Kaziranga Tiger reserve in India? 8

(1) Maharashtra (2) Bihar (3) West Bengal (4) Tamilnadu (5) Assam 61.Which film won the most number of awards at the 84th Academy Awards held in 2011? (1) The Help (2) Hugo (3) The Iron Lady (4) The Descendants (5) The Artist 62. Where was the fourth summit of BRICS held in March, 201? (1) Sanya, China (2) New Delhi, India (3) Brasilia, Brazil (4) Yekaterinburg, Russia (5) None of these 63. Recently, where was the Nuclear Security Summit held? (1) Seoul (2) New Delhi (3) Yangpong (4) Beijing (5) Moscow 64. The production of which of the following is called Grey Revolution? (1) Egg (2) Jute (3) Fertilizer (4) Meat (5) Fish 65. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner? (1) V.S.Sampath (2) H.S.Brahma (3) S.Y.Qureshi (4) Aluhwaliah (5) None of these 66. Which of the following is NOT the permanent member of United Nations? (1) China (2) France (3) Russia (4) India (5) UK 67. Who presented the first Union Budget for Independent India? (1) R.K.Shanmugam Chetty (2) Shanmugam Nair (3) Sardar Vallabhai Patel (4) Rajaji (5) None of these 68. What is the estimated GDP growth of India in 2011-12? (1) 7.9 % (2) 5.9% (3) 6.9% (4) 8% (5) 6.3% 69. What is the full form of DTC? (1) Direct To Code (2) Dish To Call (3) Direction of Tax Codes (4) Direct Tax Code (5) None of these 70. Recently, which state government launched ‘Indira Jala Prabha’, an ambitious scheme to provide irrigation facility to the lands distributed to the poor from SC and ST communities? (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Odisha (3) Chhattisgarh (4) Goa (5) UP 71. The prestigious Nobel Prize is NOT awarded in the field of which of the following? (1) Physics (2) Chemistry (3) Peace (4) Physiology (5) Social Service 72. . Which of the following is NOT a food crop? (1) Wheat (2) Barley (3) Maize (4) Gram (5) Cotton 73.Union Budget always presented first in which of the following? (1) The Loksabha (2) The Rajyasabha (3) Joint session of Parliament (4) Meeting of the Union cabinet (5) The State Assemblies 74. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ? (1) 1st May (2) 10th May (3) 21st May (4) 31st May (5) 1st June 75. Many times we hear in the news about the GM crops. What is the full form of GM? (1) Genetically Marketed (2) Genetically Modified (3) Green & Moisturious (4) Globally Marketed (5) None of these 76.Where is the head office of the Stae Bank Of India located? (1) Kolkatta (2) New Delhi (3) Pune (4) Ahmedabad (5) None of these 77.Many times we read the term 'ECB' in financial newspapers. What is the full form of 'ECB'? 9

(1) Essential Commercial Borrowing (2) Essential Credit & Borrowing (3) External Credit & Business (4) External Commercial Borrowing (5) None of these 78. Who is the current Chief Justice of India? (1) S.H.Kapadia (2) Bimal Jalan (3) Subbarao (4) Ahluwaliah (5) None of these 79. Who is the recently elected youngest Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh? (1) Vibha Yadav (2) Akhilesh Yadav (3) Mayawati (4) Brinda Karat (5) None of these 80. Who is the current speaker of Lok Sabha? (1) Pratibha Patel (2) Manmohan Singh (3) Meira Kumar (4) Sushma Swraj (5) None of these

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions: 81. 5/8 of 4/9 of 3/5 of 222 = ? (1) 42 (2) 43 (3) 39 (4) 37 (5) None of these 82. 56% of 450 + ? = 300 (1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 42 (4) 56 (5) None of these 83.271.5 x 273.5 = 27? (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) None of these 84. 27.06 x 25 - ? = 600 (1) 76.3 (2) 76.7 (3) 76.5 (4) 76.2 (5) None of these 7 4 85.4 /8 x 2 /13 = ? (1) 11 1/3 (2) 11 1/13 (3) 11 4/13 (4) 11 3/8 (5) None of these Directions (Q.86-90): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 86. 3 10 32 100 ? (1) 345 (2) 460 (3) 308 (4) 440 (5) None of these 87. 5 3 4 ? 38 (1) 8.5 (2) 6 (3) 7.5 (4) 8 (5) None of these 88. 5 6 ? 57 244 (1) 21 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 15 (5) None of these 89. 3 10 21 ? 51 (1) 34 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 37 (5) None of these 90. 5 11 ? 55 117 (1) 21 (2) 27 (3) 23 (4) 25 (5) None of 10

these 91. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and its denominator is by25%, then the fraction so obtained is 3/4. What is the original fraction? (1) 3/5 (2) 3/8 (3) 5/8 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 92. Ganesh bought 40 kgs of wheat at Rs.12.50 per kg and 25 kgs of it at Rs.15.10 per kg. He mixed them together. At what rate should he sell the mixture to earn 10% profit? (1) Rs.13.50 (2) Rs.13.25 (3) Rs.14.75 (4) Rs.14.85 (5) None of these 93. In how many ways the letters in the word COMPUTER can arranged with or without meaning? (1) 40320 (2) 45230 (3) 5040 (4) 36280 (5) None of these 94. Suresh invested a sum of Rs.15000 at 9% pa simple interest and Rs.12000 at 8% pa compound interest for a period of 2 years. What amount of interest did Suresh earn in 2 years? (1) Rs.4096.60 (2) 4696.80 (3) 4896.60 (4) 4698.60 (5) None of these 95. If 71975*1 is exactly divisible by 11, what should come in place of *? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 9 (5) None of these Directions(Q.96-100: Study the following pie-diagrams carefully to answer these questions: Number of Students studying in different Faculties in the years 2001 and 2002 from state X Year – 2001 Total Students – 35000

Year – 2002 Total Students – 40000

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96. In which year faculty there was decrease in the number of students from 2001 to 2002? (1) Arts (2) Agriculture (3) Pharmacy (4) Commerce (5) None of these 97. What is the ratio between the number of students studying pharmacy in the years 2001 and 2002 respectively? (1) 4: 3 (2) 3:2 (3) 2:3 (4) 7:12 (5) None 98. What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of students of Engineering from the year 2001 to 2002? (1) 17 (2) 15 (3) 25 (4) 23 (5) 20 99. In the year 2001, the number of students studying Arts and Commerce together is what percent of the number of students studying these subjects together in 2002? (1) 76 (2) 85 (3) 82 (4) 79 (5) None of these 100. In which of the following faculties the percent increase in the number of students was minimum from 2001 to 2002? (1) Arts (2) Science (3) Commerce (4) Medicine (5) Engineering 101. Which of the following fractions are in ascending order? (1) 7/3, 8/13, 9/14, 11/15 (2) 7/11, 9/14, 8/13, 11/15 (3) 7/11, 8/13, 5/15, 9/14 (4) 8/13, 7/11, 9/14, 11/15 (5) None of these 102. The ratio of the present ages of Sita and her son is 5:2 respectively. Seven years hence, the ratio will be 2:1. What was the age of Sita when her son was born? (1) 28 years (2) 35 years (3) 21 years (4) Cannot be determined (5) None 103. The value of a flat increases at 10% every year. Its present market value is Rs. 1996500, what as its value three years ago? (1)Rs.1525000 (2) Rs.1565500 (3) Rs.1525600 (4) Rs.1565000 (5) None 104. The area of a rectangle is twice the area of a triangle. The perimeter of the rectangle is 58 cm. What is the area of the triangle? (1) 106 sq.cm (2) 108 sq.cm (3) 104 sq.cm (4) None (5) Cannot be determined 12

105. The average speed of a bus is 8 times the average speed o fa bike. The bike covers a distance of 186 km in 3 hours. How much distance will the bus cover in 10 hours? (1) 4069 km (2) 4096 km (3) 4960 km (4) 4692 km (5) None 106. Find the value of x? (x1.2 / 98) = (28/x1.8) (1) 18 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 14 (5) None 107. What is the unit digit in 7105? (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9 (5) 6 108. 888÷8÷4=? (1) 4494 (2) 561.75 (3) 2247 (4) 280.875 (5) None 109. How many prime numbers are less than 50? (1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 18 (5) 20 110. The product of the two numbers is 1320 and their HCF is 6. Find their LCM. (1)220 (2) 1314 (3) 1326 (4) 7920 (5) 550 111. (0.009/?) = 0.01 (1)0.0009 (2) 0.09 (3) 0.9 (4) 9 (5) 9.09 48 112. Simplify: 99 /49 x 245 (1) 24495 (2) 24595 (3) 24650 (4) 28950 (5) 27500 113. The average age of 36 students in a group is 14 years. When teacher’s age is included to it., the average increases by one. What is the teacher’s age in years? (1) 31 (2) 36 (3) 51 (4) 65 (5) None 114. If the loss is 1/3 of selling price, then the loss percentage is what? (1) 16 2/3% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 33 1/3% (5) 70% 115. If 7 spiders make7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many days? (1) 1 (2)2 (3) 7 (4) 49 (5) 1/7 116. A can finish a job in 10 days and B can do the same job in 15 days. If they both work together, how many days will they take to finish the job? (1) 30 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 10 (5) 15 117. A train moves at a speed of 50 kmph. If the distance is 1000 km, then how long will the train take to cover this distance, if the train stops for 2 hours in between? (1) 20 hours (2) 25 hours (3) 21 hours (4) 24 hours (5) None 118. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘BANKING’ be arranged so that the vowels always come together? (1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 360 (4) 540 (5) 720 119. How many perfect squares lie between 120 and 300? (1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 9 120. 12 +22 + 32 +……………………………………. + 102 = ? a. 385 (2) 380 (3) 390 (4) 392 (5) 395 REASONING ABILITY a, h, c, i, e, j, g, k , ___, ___ (1) il (2) li (3) lm (4) im (5) mn PJQ, QLP, _________, SPN, TRM (1) RON (2) RQN (3) RNO (4) RNQ (5) None 36, 28, 24, 22, ____________ (1) 18 (2) 21 (3) 19 (4) 22 (5) None 13

121. 122. 123.

124.

9, 16, 30, 58, _____ (1)116 (2) 112 (3) 114 (4) 118 (5) None 125. _a_aaaba_ _ba_ab_ (1)abaaba (2) abaaaa (3) aabbaa (4) ababab (5) None 126. If the day after tomorrow is Friday, what day was tomorrow’s day before yesterday? (1)Tuesday (2) Thursday (3) Monday (4) Wednesday (5) None 127. X is the brother of Y. S is the son-in-law of Z, who is the father of X. Who is the lady here? (1)X (2) Z (3) S (4) Y (5) None 128. In a queue of 15, boys and girls are asked to stand alternately. Assuming the queue starts with a boy standing, how many girls are there in the queue? (1)7 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 9 (5) None 129. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘BEAUTIFUL’ which has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet? (1)2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) More than 4 (5) None 130. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 9 (4) 15 (5) None Directions: (131-135) M and N are good at hockey and volleyball. O and M are good at Hockey and Baseball. P and N are good at Cricket and Volleyball. O, P and Q are good at football and Baseball. 131. Who among the following is good at four games? (1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None 132. Who is good at Cricket, Baseball and Volleyball? (1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None 133. Who is good at Baseball, Volleyball and Hockey? (1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) M (5) None 134. Who is good at Cricket, Hockey and Volleyball? (1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None 135. Who is good at the largest number of games? (1)Q (2) P (3) O (4) N (5) None 136. If red is called green; green is called pink; pink is called white; white is called black; then what is the color of the leaf? (1)Pink (2) Green (3) Red (4) White (5) None 137. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONGRATULATIONS’ as many letter between them as in the alphabets? (1)8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 6 (5) None 138. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, third, fourth and eighth letters of the word METAPORL, which of the following will the first letter of that word? If more than one such word 14

can be formed, give “Y” as your answer and if no such word can be formed, give “X” as you answer. (1)E (2) L (3) Y (4) X (5) None 139. Sam said to Rita “Your mohter’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is Rita related to Sam? (1) Daughter (2) Niece (3) Sister (4) Mother (5) None 140. Judge : Justice : Censor: ? (1) Freedom (2) Morality (3) Entertainment (4) Halls (5) None Directions(Q.141-145) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts. Answer (1) if only the conclusion I is true. Answer (2) if only the conclusion II is true. Answer (3) if either the conclusion I or the conclusion II is true. Answer (4) if neither the conclusion I nor the conclusion II is true. Answer (5)if both the conclusions are true. 141. Statements: All lights are trucks. All trucks are jeeps. Conclusions: I. Some lights are jeeps. II. All jeeps are lights. 142. Statements: All doors are chains. All chairs are tables. Conclusions: I. All tables are doors. II. All doors are tables. 143. Statements: Some parrots are crows. No crow is green. Conclusions: I. Some parrots are not green. II. No crow is white. 144. Statements: Some goats are cows. Some cows are fowls. Conclusions: I. Some goats are fowls II. No goat is fowl. 145. Statements: Some books are pens . All pens are papers Conclusions: I. Some books are papers II. Some papers are books. Find the odd man out: 146. (1) YX (2) PQ (3) KJ (4) CB (5) UT 147. (1) Earth (2) Moon (3) Uranus (4) Pluto (5) Saturn 148. (1) 19 (2) 29 (3) 59 (4) 69 (5) 79 149. (1) DF (2) LN (3) RT (4) LJ (5) CA 150. (1) Society (2) Family (3) Church (4) Club (5) School 151. As ‘Fan’ is related to ‘Breeze’, in the same way ‘Electricity’ is related to what? (1)Darkness (2) Current (3) Light (4)Attraction (5)Repulsion 152. As “Television” is related to “News”, in the same way, “Telephone” is related to what? (1)Message (2) Serial number (3) Apparatus (4) Dialing (5) Wire 153. As ‘I’ is related to ‘My’, in the same way, ‘We’ is related to what? (1) Us (2) Our (3) His (4) His (5) Your What comes in place of the question mark(?): 15

154. CYD, FTH, TOL,LJP, ? (1) OFT (2)LET (3)OEK (4) OET (5) None 155. BXY, DVI, FTL,HRO, ? (1)JPH (2)KPL (3) JOL (4) KPM (5) None Directions(Q.156-160) P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members in a family, out of which there are three females and four males. There are two managers, two lawyers, one teacher, one engineer and one doctor. No lady is either teacher or engineer. R is a lawyer and is married to P, who is married to P, who is a teacher. V, the engineer, is married to S, who is neither lawyer nor doctor. No two ladies have the same profession. Q is the sister of W, who is a manager. 156. What is T’s profession? (1) Manager (2) Lawyer (3) Manager or Lawyer (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these 157. Which of the following is the group of males? (1) PQVW (2) TVSW (3) PRTV (4) PTVW (5) None of these 158. What is Q’s profession? (1) Doctor (2) Lawyer (3) Manager (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these 159. Who among them has the same profession as that of W? (1) R (2) T (3) S (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these 160. Which of the following pairs have the same profession? (1) PS (2) Rs. (3) TP (4) WT (5) None of these COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE 161. Instructions or programs for controlling the computer are called_____. (1) Software (2) Hardware (3) Humanware (4) Programmer (5) Analysists 162. A _____ typically identifies the type of file. (1) folder (2) path (3) file extension (4) file name (5) none 163. A device that copies or reproduces text and images is called a / an ___. (1) CPU (2) reader (3) memory (4) obtainer (5) Scanner 164. Which of the following should be used to mover a paragraph from one place to another place in a word document? (1) Copy and paste (2) cut and paste (3) delete and retype (4) find and replace (5) none 165. An Excel spread sheet has the extension _______. (1) .doc (2) .xls (3) .ppt (4). accts (5) .exe 166. A thin plate or board that contains electronic components is called __________. (1) Hard disk (2) Scanner (3) RAM (4) ROM (5) Circuit Board 167. The ____________ is the box that houses the mist important parts of a computer system. (1) Software (2)Hardware (3) Input Device (4) system unit (5) none 168. The device containing a circuit breaker that is used to separate the hardware from the power source and protect from voltage spikes is called a ________. (1) Voltage breaker (2) surge breaker (3) Surge protector (4) Voltage protector (5) None 169. Which menu should be selected to perform cut and paste in Word? 16

(1)Format (2) Tools (3) Edit (4) view (5) None 170. In a spread sheet, the point at which a column and a row intersect is called a ________. (1) Col-row (2) container (3) box (4) box (5) cell 171. An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of data is ________. (1) CPU (2 Memory (3) Secondary Storage (4) Mass Storage (5) Temporary Storage 172. Track ball is an example of a / an _________. (1) Programming device (2)Pointing device (3) output device (4) software device (5) printing device 173. ____________ of the worksheet appear vertically and are identified by letters at the top of the worksheet window. (1) Rows (2) Cells (3) Columns (4) Headings (5) Range 174. Which of the operation is NOT performed by computer? (1) Inputting (2) processing (3) controlling (4) understanding (5) outputting 175. BIT stands for what? (1) Built In Tasks (2) Binary Digit (3) Before Instructed Task (4) Before Interpreting Task (5) Before Initial Task 176. The keys on the keyboard which may be programmed to do special tasks are referred to as __________. (1) Function keys (2) Arrow keys (3) Page Up and Page Down keys (4) Shift and Alt keys (5) None 177. Short key to select all the text on a page of a word document is ______. (1) Ctlr + A (2) Ctrl + B (3) Ctrl + C (4) Ctrl + D (5) Ctrl +E 178. In a word document, if the typed text is incorrect in spelling it will be intimated by the computer to the user by underlining it in which colour? (1) Green (2) Blue (3) Red (4) Yellow (5) None 179. Which is valid ? (1)1 KB = 1024 bits (2) I MB = 2048 bits (3)1 MB = 1000 KB (4)1 KB = 1000 bytes (5) 1 MB = 1024 KB 180. Which of the following is NOT the term used in word? (1)Delete (2) Edit (3) Copy (4) Slide Show (5) None 181. Software turns data into ________ (1) Documents (2) information (3) pages (4) websites (5) None 182. Tally is ______________. (1) Utility Software(2) Programming Software (3) Operating Software (4) Applications Software (5) None 183. The term QWERTY is related to what ? (1) Keyboard (2) Mouse (3) Joystick (4) Printer (5) None 184. Flash drive is a / an ___________. (1) Internal storage device (2)External Storage device (3) Software (4) Computer type (5) None 185. The computer which can be easily carried anywhere you go is what? (1) PC (2) Desktop (3) Laptop (4) Super Computer (5) 17

186. (1) Ctlr 187. (1) 188. (1) Ctlr 189. (1)

None The short cut key for pasting the text or anything is _________. +A (2) Ctrl + B (3) Ctrl + C (4) Ctrl + V The ________ key is used to see the slides in a full screen view. F1 (2) F2 (3) F3 (4) F4 The short cut key to print a document is _______. +P (2) Ctrl + B (3) Ctrl + C (4) Ctrl + V Which of the following cannot have icon? MS Word (2) Tally (3) My Computer

(5) Ctrl + E (5) F5 (5) Ctrl + E (4) C++

(5) Start Menu in the Task bar 190. Mobile phones can be connected to the computer through __________. (1) Wire (2) Cable (3) Data Cable (4) Cannot be connected (5)None 191. There are ___________ enter keys in any key board. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 192. ______________ mouse helps the mouse to connect to the computer without any wire. (1) Infrared (2) Ultra rays (3) Blue tooth (4) Modem (5) None 193. Expand HTTP. (1) Hyper Text Transfer Point (2) Hyper Tension Terminal Point (2) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (4) Cannot be expanded (5) None 194. The extension for the webpage is _____________. (1) .exe (2) .doc (3).http (4).ftp (5).html 195. The web pages can only be viewed in _______________. (1) Web sites (2) Net Café (3) Web browsers (4) Word (5) None 196. CPU is _________________. (1) Control Power Unit (2) Central Power Unit (3) Central Processing Unit (3) Central Powering Utility (5) None 197. The keys for adjusting appearance of the monitor are found in ______________. (1) Keyboard (2) Monitor (3) Both Monitor and Keyboard (4) Cannot be adjusted (5) None 198. All the slides can be viewed in a single page through _____________. (1) Slide Show (2) Slide Create (3) Slide Sorter (5) Preview (5) None 199. To move to the bottom of a document, which of the following key(s) is used. (1)Ctrl + End (2) Down Arrow (3) End (4) Home (5) None 200. All the deleted files and folders move to _____________. (1) My Computer (2) My Documents (3) Recycle Bin (4) Control Panel (5) None

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