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sophistication of threats. Which of the following is not true with respect to technology and security? a) Technology may improve security, but it requires more manpower to operate.
b) Technology handled properly can augment human capabilities.
c) Technology implemented poorly can actually reduce the level of security at a facility.
d) A successful. security concept will emphasize integration of security system with human resources.
The physical security survey will normally include a risk analysis which helps determine the levels of protection required at the facility, and deficiencies in:
a) architectural, security systems, and operational aspects.
b) geographical, technological, and guard services. c) access control, intrusion detection and lighting. d) procedures, manpower, and training.
There are many benefits of a physical security survey. Which of the following is not a benefit? a) Categorize critical assets and drive the risk management process. b) Promote action by identifying vulnerabilities and make recommendations to executives, identify key players, and establish organizational groups that can convert those recommendations into action. c) Serve as an excellent opportunity to build security skills and expertise within an organization.
d) Build and broaden awareness among all employees.
When evaluating the probability of the occurrence of a loss event we note that the I more ways that a particular event can occur in given circumstances: a) Has no effect on the probability that it will occur b) The greater the probability that it will occur c) The lesser the probability that it will occur d) Renders it impossible to determine the probability that it will occur
A list of the kinds of threats affecting the assets to be safeguarded is known as: a) A loss event profile b) The loss event criticality list c) The insurance rate calculation table d) A law enforcement watch list .
Non-criminal threats are generally classified as? a) Overt or covert b) Criminal or terrorist c) Human or natural d) Insider or outsider .
The process of determining asset value. their likelihood of occurring. threats. then determining vulnerability is termed the: a) Probability analysis b) Risk analysis c) Potential loss analysis d) Physical Security survey . and impact on the assets.
Annual Loss Expectancy is the product of: a) Value and likelihood of occurrence b) Impact and likelihood of occurrence c) Risk and impact of loss d) Threat and consequence of occurrence .
When in the first phase of balancing cost versus benefit (to determine the cost/benefit ratio) we consider: a) Efficiency versus cost b) Life cycle versus effectiveness c) Cost versus Impact or potential loss d) Efficiency versus effectiveness .
vulnerability to attack. and value to a specific threat group. b) Criticality to the user. and existing in-place physical security measures.What are three key elements in determining an assets value? a) Some measure of relative value. publicity value to a specific threat group. difficulty or time for replacement. and difficulty or time for I replacement. criticality to the user. . and some measure of relative value. d) The asset cost for replacement. c) The cost of the asset.
Risk can be defined as: a) Potential occurrence and effectiveness of countermeasures in place b) Cost of risk insurance and capacity for potential loss c) Capacity for potential loss and ability to respond d) The potential for a loss or damage to an asset .
A technique for prioritizing loss potential is the use of a "decision matrix" which uses adjectives such as high. medium and low as factors in measuring: a) Level of threat versus frequency of loss b) Cost of countermeasures versus frequency of loss c) Consequences of loss versus probability of loss d) Level of threat versus consequence .
When considering risk issues. c) The ratio of solved cases to the total number of reported cases d) The ratio of local cases to the total national cases of the same event . "probability" is defined as: a) The ratio of past incidents to potential of future incidents b) The ratio of the number of outcomes in an exhaustive set of equally likely outcomes that produce a given event to the total number of possible outcomes.
Risk management is: a) Determining measures and safeguards to mitigate the threats and reduce vulnerabilities b) Buying insurance to cover expected losses c) Identifying the impact of various threats on assets d) Quantifying the cost of loss events .
qualitative d) Mathematical vs. Frequency c) Quantitative vs.There are basically two approaches to risk analysis: a) Human vs. historical . natural b) Cost vs.
intangible d) Organic vs.Assets are either: a) Human vs. qualitative c) Tangible vs. inorganic . natural b) Quantitative vs.
in general terms: a) Threats are associated with buildings and hazards are associated with humans b) Threats are associated with humans and hazards are associated with buildings c) Threats are associated with nature and hazards are associated with humans d) Threats are generally associated with humans and hazards are associated with nature.When describing threats and hazards. .
Vulnerability is defined as: a) The quantification of the threats against assets b) The cost to recover the assets c) Any weakness that can be exploited by an aggressor d) The likelihood of a loss occurring .
d) procedures. and operational aspects. and guard services. technological. and training. manpower.The physical security survey will normally include a risk analysis which helps determine the levels of protection required at the facility. b) geographical. and deficiencies in: a) architectural. c) access control. . security systems. intrusion detection and lighting.
There are many benefits of a physical security survey. c) Serve as an excellent opportunity to build security skills and expertise within an organization. d) Build and broaden awareness among all employees. . and establish organizational groups that can convert those recommendations into action. identify key players. b) Promote action by identifying vulnerabilities and make recommendations to executives. Which of the following is not a benefit? a) Categorize critical assets and drive the risk management process.
is called a) Inside-Out. where the practitioner starts at the perimeter of the facility and moves to the interior looking for various protective measures that must be defeated to gain access to the critical assets. c) Concentric layers d) Circles of protection . b) Outside-In.An approach to the physical security survey. where the practitioner starts with the critical asset and works his way out to the perimeter. often used by law enforcement.
questionnaires. a) equipment inventory. . risk analysis. and lighting studies.Practitioners use which of the following basic methods to collect data. time and motion studies. c) interviews. statistical sampling. performance tests. and knowledge tests d) interviews. job analysis. drawing analysis. and focus groups. oral-written tests. observations. b) training. perimeter barriers. document reviews. site surveys. impact analysis. and schematic analysis. performance evaluations.
Which of the following does not describe the criteria the practitioner uses in selecting mitigation measures: a) The technical and cultural difficulty associated with implementation of the recommendation b) Likelihood of preventing an aggressor attempt before and after the recommendation is implemented.. c) The cultural background of the employees d) Changes the dependency on other infrastructures .
In conducting security surveys. access control elements. policy and procedures elements. organization. security staff. and post orders d) security systems. and security systems elements b) architectural elements. staffing. and site layout . the interrelationships of three basic elements of the security program will be examined to determine the effectiveness of the program a) architectural security elements. management commitment. and lighting elements c) organization.
In this litigation. the plaintiff must prove that the landlord/property manager breached their duty of care by failing to provide reasonable security measures. Which of the following is not an example? a) insufficient security measures have been implemented compared to other like facilities b) door or window locks were defective and not repaired c) methods used for hiring and training of personnel and security officers were adequate d) lights were not functioning for weeks prior to the assault .Premises liability is a civil action where a plaintiff will attempt to hold a landlord or property manager liable for injuries inflicted during a criminal attack committed on their premises.
Which statement is not correct? a) Comply with overall company policies and procedures b) Conform to local laws and regulations only c) Reflect known industry best practices demonstrating the exercise of due care d) Protect your staff from lawsuits .Incident response policies should be periodically reviewed by legal counsel and the legal review should ensure that your procedures include several issues.
particularly trying to identify trends. and the recommended security countermeasures. Which of the following is not included in the Executive Summary? a) This section does not address the results by area. b) It provides a balanced discussion of positive and negative program attributes and how they affect overall program performance. . what the recommended standard or best practice is. but attempts to combine the results of all areas. c) It provides brief descriptions of the vulnerabilities.The Executive Summary of the security survey provides a summary assessment of the results of the study. d) This section is a synopsis of the major strengths and weaknesses regarding program status.
parking lots. fire department. which depicts areas within the facility. access points. Which of the following is not applicable for the practitioner to obtain? a) type of construction of the buildings at the facility b) law enforcement agency. including response time c) names and addresses of all management officials d) the determined value of assets or sensitive or unique equipment . warehouses.When conducting a survey the practitioner should start by obtaining a layout of the facility. and other organizations responsible for emergency response. and any adjacent areas belonging to the facility.
and escorting visitors improve the security posture without significant cost. and the cost associated with protecting assets. potential threats to these assets. . guard force.The appropriate level of physical security for a company is contingent upon the of company assets. d) Locking doors. Which statement is not correct? a) Low cost security elements. c) Recommending implementation of expensive security elements could result in improvement of the overall security posture. wearing ID badges. b) Recommending that a company eliminate a security element because of high cost may put critical assets at unwarranted risk. alarms. should be in place for critical assets. such as cameras.
a) the facility's critical assets that require protection b) brief descriptions of the vulnerability. what the recommended standard is. and recommended security countermeasures c) a cover memo summarizing the process d) a timeline for the security budget .The physical security survey report should not include which of the following.
and the recommended security countermeasures. . Which of is not correct? a) Security program design which is the selection of countermeasures to mitigate risks. b) Risk analysis which is a perfunctory examination including maintenance. c) It provides brief descriptions of the vulnerabilities. what the recommended standard practice is. d) Maintenance which includes an ongoing process to ensure effectiveness of solutions.A security plan should be developed by following four distinct phases.
threats.The end result of a physical security survey is to: a) recommend a raise for the security manager b) obtain funding for new security systems c) recommend physical security measures needed to safeguard personnel. damage and theft d) validate the assets. prevent unauthorized access to material and equipment. and to protect against sabotage. and vulnerabilities .
The most important and generally the most expensive type of countermeasure is: a) security hardware b) computer software c) personnel d) intelligence .
positive. c) A physical security survey for each facility in the company to identify the assets. consultants. and visitors. and orderly action to safeguard life and property during an emergency. .Which of the following elements are not included in a physical security program? a) An appropriate set of the following elements to address changing threat conditions: architectural. threats. contractors. vulnerabilities. and threat mitigation measures that should be implemented. operational. d) An established response force and procedures to take immediate. and personnel b) A comprehensive and continuing security education and awareness effort to gain the interest and support of employees.
There are feature-based and performance design criteria for intrusion detection systems. Which of the following is not a feature criterion? a) Line of sight b) Volumetric pattern c) Linear detection pattern d) Recording frame rate .
b) Barriers can be designed for all situations. c) Mitigating a vehicle bomb would rarely be more important than minimizing the restricted area to the extent necessary for operational efficiency. d) Barriers have an indirect impact on the number of security posts needed and on the frequency of use for each post. .Which of the following statements is true? a) Barriers create a psychological deterrent for anyone thinking of unauthorized entry.
creeks c) Dense vegetation. Which of the following are examples of natural barriers? a) Jersey barriers. hedges . rivers. large boulders. and streams d) Fixed bollards. canyons. hydraulic bollards b) Cliffs.Natural barriers are often more of a deterrent to vehicles. concertina. fences.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning chain link fences? a) Must be 9 gauge or heavier wire b) Galvanized mesh with openings of 2 in. c) Must be minimum of 6 ft. of fabric .including top guard d) Twisted and barbed selvages on top and bottom of fence line .
Perimeter fence gates minimize entrances and exits to maintain control. Which of the following features should gates not incorporate? a) An overhang of barbed wire or barbed tape b) Adequate lighting c) Security officers when open d) Secure locks when closed .
Which of the following is not a feature of barbed tape/razor wire when used as a barrier? a) Retracts into closed coil b) Extends without distortion c) Requires a maximum of 3 rolls d) Laid between poles .
By adding chemicals and through processing during manufacture. security. Which of the following is not a type of flat glass? a) Laminated glass b) Armor glass c) Wired glass d) Tempered glass . and float. safety. plate.There are three basic varieties of flat glass: sheet. these basic glass types can be changed to meet modern requirements for comfort. and architectural needs.
Which of the following is not a general principle of protective lighting? a) Point glaring lights toward eyes of intruder b) Adequate. even light on boundaries and approaches c) Maximum light on patrol routes d) High brightness contrast for intruder and background .
.the higher the efficacy number.76 lux (often approximated to a ratio of 1:10). c) The concentration of light over a particular area measured in lux. One foot-candle is equal to 10. the number of lumens per square foot. d) Ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object. b) The ratio of the lumens of light out to power in . the more efficient the lamp. the number of lumens per square meter or foot-candles (fc).What is the definition of illuminance? a) A measure of the warmth or coolness of a light.
and photocells. b) Electrical power operates the lamp. its holder and reflectors. . is used to fix the lamp at the correct height and location. all of which are important to the effectiveness of a lighting application. Below is a list of the major components and their function. its glass casing. Which should not be included in the list? a) Mounting hardware. ballasts. and its electrical connectors.A lighting system consists of a number of components. d) Luminaire (aka fixture) is the complete lighting unit consisting of the lamp. c) Lamp (aka light bulb) is the manufactured light source that includes the filament or an arc tube. and diffusers used to distribute and focus the light. such as a wall bracket or light pole.
. there are some additional considerations to be taken in the selection and application of lighting to ensure that camera scenes are most useful.Where CCTV cameras are used. c) Color Rendering Index should be high for accurate reproduction and identification of colors. Which of the following statements are incorrect? a) Illuminance relates to the amount of light needed by a CCTV camera to perceive a scene and is the amount of light shining over the area of the lens. b) Reflectance defines only what the human eye sees. d) Directionality refers to the direction of the reflected lighting (ideally reflected light should be in the direction that the camera is aimed).
c) Site topography. weather. d) Size and shape of the facility. Which of the following best describes the design considerations? a) Number of security posts and security officers. .When employing exterior IDS at a particular facility there are several considerations that the practitioner must consider at the site. b) Presence of CCTV cameras and lighting. vegetation and animals.
or covert. c) Active.What are four characteristics of intrusion detectors? a) Line. overt. visible. terrain following. d) Linear. volumetric. taut wire. . passive. and electrostatic. b) Line of site. fence. and leaky coax. microwave and infrared beams.
and object d) Continuous. and free standing. virtual. and immediate c) Perimeter. b) Inclusive. exclusive. volumetric. area. and logical .Intrusion detectors can generally be grouped into what following three classes: a) Line.
the site is not level)? a) Line b) Covert c) Terrain following d) Volumetric .What type of intrusion detection system should be installed on a site that has a varying topography (i.e..
What type of intrusion detection system would be installed to detect an intruder climbing a fence? a) Buried sensor b) Free standing sensor c) Fence mounted sensor d) Covert sensor .
What type of intrusion detection system would be installed that would provide a volumetric pattern and be covert? a) Fence system b) Microwave c) Buried cable d) Electric field .
must identify the location and type of alarm. . but are rarely layered for both interior and exterior applications. b) Intrusion detection sub-systems generally consist of both an alarm and an assessment capability. and to ensure an appropriate and timely response. and the operator interface must allow for alarm recognition by the operator. d) Alarm devices require continuous supervision to preclude any covert attempt to bypass the alarm system.system? a) The main purpose of an intrusion detection sub-system is to alert the protective force to intrusion.Which of the following statements is not true concerning an intrusion detection sub. c) Alarm displays must be clearly visible.
electronic sensors c) Capacitance. general area. What are they? a) Perimeter or point of entry. system operators. intrusion detectors can be divided into three general classes.Designed to report persons attempting to enter or move about in protected areas. sensors d) Access control sub-systems. object b) Interior. security guards . perimeter. exterior.
In addition.Implementation of a closed circuit television (CCTV) system will offer the capability of maintaining visual surveillance of the site from a remote source such as a monitoring company or a customer operated monitoring site. d) CCTV will allow the camera images to be recorded and retrieved to help reconstruct what occurred at the facility and to identify the culprits involved in the incident. which of the following is correct? a) Most critical facilities use multi-position CCTV camera coverage for timely assessment of alarms generated around the perimeter of the facility . assess its cause. b) Alarms normally annunciate in the remote area where the alarm console operators can acknowledge the alarm. c) Video capture systems provides post -alarm video images exclusively of the alarmed area that are very useful in determining the cause of alarms and tracking intruders. and direct a response as necessary. .
radio. passive c) Boundary penetration. covert or visible b) Active. telephone equipment . Which of the following is not a classification/feature of sensors? a) Volumetric or line. building interior. object or proximity d) Intercom.Interior sensors are classified by their application to the protection strategy.
Which of the following is not an objective of Access Control Systems? a) Detects and prevents entry/exit of contraband b) Provides information to security personnel c) Used to arm and disarm intrusion detection system via keypad and/ or card d) Permits only authorized persons to enter or exit .
When utilizing key control and re-keying. which of the following is correct? a) Do not issue to tenants of office building b) Re-key interior first c) Issue to long term janitorial personnel d) Move old locks to exterior .
d) Utilize single entry devices.Which of the following is not a key element in establishing an electronic access control system? a) Issue secure identification/ assess cards that are not easily counterfeited. such as turnstiles or revolving doors to eliminate tailgating. and collect the ID card key when an employee or contractor is no longer associated with the company. c) Change ID / access card keys annually. . b) Restrict access so staff can only enter those areas necessary for their job functions and only during appropriate work hours.
low throughput .very effective . Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effectiveness of portal controls? a) Turnstiles .high throughput .high throughput .relatively effective .very accurate b) Optical turnstiles .accurate .A portal is any point or place of entry such as a door. gate.very effective .rarely effective . or other type of entranceway.medium throughput .moderately accurate c) Revolving doors .very accurate d) Vestibules .
all of the following should be considered except for which of the following? a) Protected assets are located some distance apart b) Assets require monitoring and protection c) One area requires extensive monitoring d) There is a need for real time assessment of activities and alarm conditions .When assessing a need for CCTV.
There are three theoretical identity views of a CCTV system. Which of the following is incorrect? a) personal identification b) scene identification c) reproduction identification d) action identification .
Technology is the driving force behind modern physical protection systems that have evolved to meet the increasing sophistication of threats. . d) A successful security concept will emphasize integration of security system with human resources. but it requires more manpower to operate. b) Technology handled properly can augment human capabilities. c) Technology implemented poorly can actually reduce the level of security at a facility. Which of the following is not true with respect to technology and security? a) Technology may improve security.
contractors and visitors. c) To prepare reports of security incidents. . a) To provide assistance to employees. and other hostile acts that may affect the organization.Which of the following best describes the mission of Security Officers. sabotage. b) To monitor security systems. d) To protect company assets from theft.
Which of the following is not a major duty for security officers. . c) Conduct personnel. package. a) Arrest intruders. standards and procedures. and vehicle inspections. d) Monitor alarms and dispatch response to incidents. b) Report violations of company policies.
and a display and assessment sub-system. sensors. hardware and software. policies. communications. and procedures. d) Computers. cameras. . b) Training.What are the key components of an integrated physical protection system? a) Intrusion detection sensors and human operators. c) Card readers.
b) Central station monitoring. c) Intrinsic monitoring. d) Proprietary monitoring.Which of the following does not describe a method of monitoring security systems. . a) Local monitoring.
. b) Proprietary and direct connection. c) Law enforcement and fire department. These are: a) Local facility display and assessment systems and centralized display and assessment systems. there are two common types of systems.In implementing proprietary display and assessment sub-systems. d) Security systems and Security Officers.
c) Eliminates the need for a response force to respond to alarms. . d) Enhances the effectiveness of the security force by allow them to see what caused an alarm at a site.CCTV cameras are often used in the assessment of alarms at a facility. Which of the following is not an advantage of using CCTV? a) Reduces the need for expensive fixed security posts at a site. b) Reduces the need for periodic security patrols at a site.
Communications is a prerequisite for implementing a modern integrated physical protection system. . d) Wireless. Which of the following is not a communications option? a) Point to point. b) Point to connector. c) Fiber optics.
b) Read only memory and communications software. d) Device controller and workstation controller. c) Operating system and application software. .An integrated physical protection system has two types of software components. Which of the following are the components? a) Machine level language and compiler.
Which of the following is not a type of data you would find in the database? a) Alarm point descriptions b) Equipment power requirements c) Cardholder identifying information d) Audit trail of operator actions .The integrated system requires a database.
a record is one complete set of fields: and a file is a collection of records. and files. records. b) A field is a single piece of information. Which of the following is not true of the database? a) Database is a collection of records stored in a computer in a systematic way. d) Databases are organized by fields. c) The database never stores activity that is used to prepare reports.The integrated system requires a database. .
Implementing a new physical protection system includes: a) Preparing facilities. and training b) Sole source procurement c) Request for proposals d) Proprietary specifications . installing systems. testing.
drawings. system specifications. and maintenance instructions d) Contract information and bidders' instructions. functional specifications.At a minimum. and schedules . the PPS procurement package consists of: a) Boiler plate and specifications b) Contractor reference requirements. and as-built drawings c) Training requirements. instruction manuals.
A functional design specification is normally used with what type of procurement method? a) Request for proposals b) Request for quote c) Sole source d) Invitation to bid .
and testing of systems d) Explains the terms of the warranty . the preparation of the site the delivery of the PPS. training of personnel. installation requirements for hardware and software.The statement of work (SOW) is very important document because it: a) Provides a schedule for the contractor to follow b) Describes how the contractor should interface with other contractors on site c) Details the work involved for the removal of any old equipment.
Which of the following is not an example of a design criterion? a) The response time of the system to an alarm b) The number of ID cards that can be maintained in the database c) The installation schedule d) The culture of the company .
much like plumbing. or electrical. the PPS is often considered one of the building's sub-systems. In this case. air conditioning. the PPS specification is: a) Prepared as a section of the CSI “Masterformat" b) Prepared as a separate document c) Not prepared d) Developed according to the standards set by AIA .When a new building is being constructed.
hardware. and installation b) Engineering and design costs. hardware and software cost. and installation c) Engineering and design cost. hardware and software cost. hardware.Which of the following best describes the components of the PPS life cycle cost? a) Engineering and design costs. maintenance cost. taxes. installation cost. software. and other costs . operating cost. and other costs d) Engineering and design cost.
view any possible installation problems.The bidder's conference enables contractors to see the facility. Which of the following is not a good practice for the bidder's conference? a) Require all prospective bidders to attend the conference b) Respond to questions by each contractor directly without copying the other bidders c) Conduct a walkthrough of the installation and show where the PPS will be installed d) Prepare minutes of the bidders conference and issue to all attendees . and ask questions about the design and installation requirements.
the contractor should visit the site and verify that conditions agree with the design specification. In addition.Prior to beginning installation. the company should require that the contractor: a) Prepare a written report of all changes to the site or conditions that will affect performance of the system and to take necessary corrective action b) Disconnect all signal lines or equipment and create equipment downtime without prior written approval of the company c) Not disconnect any signal lines or equipment or create any equipment downtime without prior written approval of the company d) Not be held responsible for repair costs due to negligence or abuse of the company's equipment .
Through well-conceived. well-executed security training programs. fire department. and contribute to recovery efforts more effectively. and other organizations will have to be responsible for incident response c) Personnel are more likely to accidentally contribute to security risks d) Management will depend more on technology . personnel can be better prepared to prevent incidents from happening. respond properly to incidents that do arise. Without proper training: a) Personnel will be equally effective b) Law enforcement agencies.
No security project will be successful without: a) Upper management support b) Project management software c) Unspent resources d) At least one change order .
equipment and supplies that only come from inside the company d) A project has a primary sponsor. It occurs only once and then it is finished c) A project requires resources such as money. people. The sponsor provides the direction and funding for the project . Which of the following is not true? a) A project has a unique purpose and it has an explicit goal to be completed within specifications of time and budget b) A project is temporary and it has a definite beginning and definite end.A project differs from regular work in a number of ways.
time. and cost d) Procedures. and operational aspects b) Geographical. technological. security systems. and guard services c) Project scope. and training .What three goals must the project manager balance? a) Architectural. manpower.
a clear statement of objectives and requirements. and was completed on time and on budget b) The project has top management on the project team c) The project uses project management software d) The project has not had any scope changes . upper management support.What are some of the common elements of successful projects? a) The project has consistent involvement of the stakeholders.
Which best describes the type of stakeholders you would encounter in a security project? a) External customers of the company b) IT equipment manufacturers c) Project sponsor and members of the project team d) The board of directors .Stakeholders are the people involved in or affected by project activities.
Which of the following are not some of the most important? a) Putting project goals and expectations on paper encourages open communications and provides a commitment and focal point for the project team throughout the process b) The structured project process produces comprehensive training and documentation c) Project controls provide early warnings of time and cost overruns d) Productivity of each project team member is reduced due to reporting requirements .Project management can deliver many benefits. some are evident and some are hidden.
development. examination. and closeout d) Feasibility. and closeout c) Feasibility. and completion . What are they? a) Feasibility.Projects have four stages. development. and closeout b) Feasibility. execution. design. execution. execution. development.
manpower. In addition to deliverables.It is very important to be clear about what things the project will accomplish and what things the project could accomplish. This will make it much easier to manage scope change throughout the project. business processes affected. and equipment purchased b) Data worked with. transactions considered. but will not. and training required . and new procedures created d) Procedures. and other projects impacted c) People affected. external processes affected. systems modified. organizations changed. your should further describe scope in more specific terms such as: a) Data modified. organizations affected.
A well-worded objective will be a) Time related. realistic. technological. and superficial c) Objective. high level. un-measureable. and specialized b) Geographical. The objective should be written at a level so that it can be evaluated at the conclusion of a project to see whether it was achieved or not. and time bound . attainable/ achievable. measurable.Objectives are concrete statements describing what the project is trying to achieve. detailed. and detailed d) Specific.
Which of the following is true of deliverables? a) Deliverables are defined during the feasibility stage of the project b) Deliverables are defined when the project is closed out c) Deliverables are identified for each phase of the PPS implementation d) Deliverables don't need to be developed for complex projects .Deliverables are the products or results of the work needed to accomplish project objectives.
Activities define the work necessary to produce the deliverables in each phase. Which of the following is a general rule? a) Activities are not necessary for small projects b) Activities should have durations between one week and four weeks long c) Activities should be longer than eight weeks d) Activities should be less than one week .
Which of the following is true of the work breakdown structure (WBS)? a) All activities must be sequenced while preparing the WBS b) The duration of activities should be broken down to a level no larger than the project work reporting cycle c) Activities durations are not related to the project reporting cycle d) Activities should take less than one week to complete .The objective of developing the work breakdown structure is to capture all the tasks that are necessary to create the deliverables for each phase.
most activities have what relationship? a) Start to Start b) Finish to Start c) Finish to Finish d) Start to Finish . In determining the sequence. second. After we have a rough sequence established. etc.To create the network diagram. we sequence the activities in a rough chronological order by determining which activities need to be completed first. we go through the activities again and look for the relationships and dependencies between the activities and finally arrive at a network diagram describing the sequence of all activities leading to completion of the project. third.
After building the WBS and the network diagram. you should look at the other potential obstacles and rank them according to their probability of occurrence. Then you should build in additional activities to mitigate the potential risks. This process is called a) Risk analysis b) Project management c) Contingency planning d) Dependency networking .
and the network diagram c) Conducting life cycle phase and deliverable reviews each week. providing frequent project reports to stakeholders and management. and revising activities and work breakdown structure to reflect changes d) Preparing the lessons learned report . the activities. utilizing a formal change control process that includes stakeholder approvals of all changes. selecting team members b) Preparing the deliverables.What tasks does the project manager accomplish during the execution stage of the project? a) Planning. the WBS. documenting requirements.
The contractor installs all new components. and documentations for all existing physical protection equipment and signal lines that will be incorporated into the new system b) System operation manuals. and systems according to manufacturers' requirements and in conformance with all applicable standards. sub-systems. tests. Conversely. the customer and the contractor prepare the following documentation except for: a) Inspections. and troubleshooting documents c) Response procedures describing what actions the response force is to take when responding to incidents d) Alarm assessment procedures providing instructions to system operators on how to assess various alarm conditions and how to dispatch assistance . maintenance.
A customer should look for many things when selecting the contractor or system integrator to install the Physical Protection System. Which of the following is the most important? a) The integrator has a PSP certification b) The integrator has experience with the brand of system you are installing c) The integrator has a college degree d) The integrator has been approved by the AHJ .
electrified locks may fail in two different conditions.In the event of a power failure. These conditions are: a) Fail Safe and Fail Secure b) Fail Open and Fail Closed c) Fail Outside and Fail Inside d) Fail Egress and Fail Ingress .
Connecting components such that there is a single line to which all components are connected is referred to as: a) Ring configuration b) Star configuration c) Bus configuration d) Tree configuration .
Circuitry that initiates an alarm in response to opening, closing, shorting, or grounding of the conductors is referred to as. a) Line management b) Circuit assessment c) Line supervision
d) End of the line resistance
A ground loop is: a) A current across a conductor, created by a difference in potential between two grounded points b) When three or more buildings have power connected in a loop configuration c) When buildings are connected by fiber optic cable
d) When conductors are installed in the ground
Which of the following is not an example of alarm assessment procedures? a) Access control systems should alarm if an unauthorized person tailgates an authorized person through a door or turnstile into a facility b) Intrusion detection systems should alarm if an intruder opens a door or window at the wrong time or without presenting a valid ID card or code c) A procedure must be developed for each type of alarm that is generated and for each type of scenario that might be encountered by the responding officer d) For each alarm point, security officers use detailed operating procedures describing what actions to take to assess the alarms
Which of the following is not correct concerning the reduction of nuisance alarms? a) Conduct frequent inspections of all components and replace faulty components b) Examine your janitorial program to ensure that cleaning is only done during the day c) Provide signage such as "Keep Doors Closed" in problem areas
d) Correct problems by adjusting guard patrol times so guards are most likely to intervene where employees pass through doors and leave them open
Your legal counsel should periodically review your incident response procedures. The legal review should ensure that your procedures include all but one of the following: a) Reflect known industry best practices demonstrating the exercise of due care b) Comply with overall company policies and procedures c) Conform with the National Electrical Code d) Protect your staff from lawsuits .
Several operational tests should be conducted periodically by the security staff after PPS implementation. Which of the following tests may require special test equipment? a) Safety tests b) Sub-system tests c) Performance tests d) Stress tests .
d) Formulate a protection plan based on the advice of the crime prevention specialist in the local law enforcement agency. c) Develop an assets protection plan based on the results of investigations and prosecutions of losses as the cases are closed. b) Formulate and implement a comprehensive prevention plan to include all types of hazards.The optimum approach to the formulation of an organizational assets protection plan is to: a) Respond to each loss or potential loss as the hazard occurs and build an overall plan over time. .
management approval and testing. c) Countermeasures choice.Implementing the systems approach in security involves: a) Vulnerability analysis. cost control and management approval. countermeasures choice and program test. d) Vulnerability analysis. . b) Vulnerability analysis. program test and cost control.
When evaluating the probability of the occurrence of a loss event we note that the number of ways that a particular event can occur in given circumstances: a) Has no effect on the probability that it will occur. b) The greater the probability that it will occur. c) The lesser the probability that it will occur. . d) Renders it impossible to determine the probability that it will occur.
d) Patrol the fence line at least twice on each security officer tour. and one that negates the effectiveness of the chain link fence is the failure to: a) Establish and maintain a clear zone along the fence.One of the most common errors made. b) Install and monitor a fence intrusion detection alarm system. c) Install warning signs on the fence at intervals not exceeding 50 feet. .
.The vehicle checkpoint is a location at which the: a) Identity and contents of inbound and outbound vehicles can be determined before they are allowed to proceed. c) Number and type of vehicles entering and departing from the facility are tabulated. b) Engine oil and fuel levels of outbound vehicles are checked prior to departure. d) Number of passengers in vehicles are counted to ascertain the effectiveness of the company carpooling policy.
c) Loss event profile. risk avoidance and insurance. d) Fidelity insurance. loss event probability and loss event criticality. .The three major activities in risk management are: a) Risk avoidance. b) Risk transfer. risk transfer and loss control or reduction. all perils coverage and mercantile insurance.
c) Delay an intruder until the security force can respond. d) Prevent unauthorized access by all persons but the skilled and determined intruder. b) Define the property line and channel people and vehicles through designated access points. .The physical controls at the outer protective layer are generally designed to: a) Provide a strong physical barricade against vehicular entry.
In physical security planning. . d) Fail to find anything of value easily accessible. b) Be trapped in a maze of corridors and barriers. the location of inner protective layers. if properly planned would cause an intruder who had penetrated both the outer and middle protective layers to: a) Immediately activate an alarm condition that would result in a law enforcement response. c) Immediately activate an alarm condition which would result in a security response.
d) The decision area in financial management that establishes goals and criteria for investing in long-term projects.Cost accounting is described as: a) The overall method of recording transactions or events and classifying or systematically organizing them into categories. c) A method for isolating all of the elements of cost required to generate a unit of production or provide an amount of service. . b) A specialized form of accounting intended to conform general accounting processes and records to the requirements of tax laws that may require or permit special treatment of transactions not accurately reflected under standard accounting practices.
volumetric sensor would be used to detect a person crawling on the ground? a. Bistatic Microwave b. Seismic d.What active. Both a & b . LOS. Buried ported coaxial cable c.
Incandescent b.What type of light fixture has the poorest color discrimination: a. Metal Halide c. Mercury Vapor d. Low-pressure sodium .
Specifications . Bidders’ instructions b.A document that describes in sufficient detail the functions required of the system and what has to be done to install it is called: a. Notification d. Request for Proposal c.
Cloaking c.A technique used by an intruder that involves passing through the detection zone of a sensor without being noticed is called: a. Masking . Spoofing d. Bypassing b.
Use of dual-technology sensors d. That no matter how an adversary attempts to accomplish the goal. Use of multiple lines of detection b. effective elements of the PPS will be encountered c.Protection-in-depth means: a. Use of sensors with a high PD rating .
Class A fire speaks to the following: a. Fires of ordinary combustible materials, such as wastepaper, rags, drapes, furniture b. Fires fueled by gasoline, grease oil, or volatile fluids c. Most effectively extinguished by water or water fog d. Both a & c
A local high school is experiencing a recent problem with drugs and gang activity in the existing smoking area that’s located out back behind the school. The principle decided to make use of an under-utilized open court yard located in the middle of the school that is surrounded on all four sides by classrooms. By moving the smokers in here the thinking was the smokers would get the sense they were being watched all the time and therefore be on their best behavior, and it worked. What CPTED principle would best describe this? a. Improve scheduling of space b. Place safe activities in vulnerable areas c. Place vulnerable activities in safe areas d. Overcome distance and isolation
What is the best probability of detection (Pd) that a sensor can have? a. 1.0 b. 0.1 c. 100 d. None of the above
A procurement process that involves the customer completing his own design including selection of hardware and software is called: a. b. c. d. Request for Proposal Invitation to Bidders Sole Source None of the above
An access card that has an encoded magnetic stripe located along one edge of the card or badge is called? a. b. c. d. Proximity Bar Code Wiegand None of the above
c. d.Drawings of vertical surfaces to show how security devices are mounted on a wall are called: a. Plan Drawings Riser Drawings Elevation Drawings Detail Drawings . b.
d. c. b. Corrective Remedial Preventive Break & Fix .Maintenance that corrects faults and returns the system to operation in the event of hardware or software component failures is formally called: a.
c.Which sensor type would not be a good application where there is thin gypsum board walls encompassing the protected room with activity/motion on the other side of the walls? a. b. d. Passive Infrared Line detection Microwave Ultrasonic .
What is not an example of passive design? a. c. b. Bollards Fencing Alarm system None of the above . d.
Taking actions to lower the risk if possible to lower the severity of the loss is what risk management approach? a. b. Reduction Avoidance Transfer None of the above . c. d.
d. c. Proximity Smart card Wiegand None of the above .An access card technology that has a series of parallel wires embedded in the card is called: a. b.
c. d.A process used to search packages for metal objects is called: a. CT Scan ECD IMS Chemiluminescence . b.
Multitech d.A sensor that combines microwave with passive infrared is called: a. None of the above . Bistatic b. Dual Technology c.
c.Technology used for banks or high security facilities whereby a single dedicated phone line is supervised at the Central Station is called: a. Telephone Dialer Digital Communicators Direct Wire Systems None of the above . b. d.
A procurement tool used for making a bidder legally responsible for making good on payments and/or performance is called a: a. b. c. Bond Warranty Indemnity & Insurance Statement of Compliance . d.
d. Overcome distance and isolation Place vulnerable activities in safe areas Design space to increase the perception of natural surveillance Provide clearly marked transitional zones . What CPTED principle would best describe this? a.A long pathway separates a university campus from the main residence. c. A recent security concern. particularly for female students walking along the pathway late at night has been raised by Campus Police. A decision was made to make improvements that include the installation of improved lighting along the pathway as well as installing panic buttons every 50 feet on freestanding posts that ring through to campus Police. b.
the device will continue to communicate along an alternate path? Ring Star Point-to-Point Loop .Which network architecture provides for redundancy in that if the network becomes severed.
Dry powder is usually the most and in some cases the only effective extinguishing agent for what type of fire? a. b. Class A Class B Class C Class D . d. c.
Fiber-Optics supporting very high bandwidth d. Handling flow control. receipt/acknowledgement and routing . A modem b. Error Checking c.The physical layer may consist of twisted pair wires and another example would be: a.
AC&D uses the Open Source Interconnection (OSI) model of network layers utilizing only the lowest three layers that being: Link. Physical and Network . Application and Physical Link. Transport and Link Transport. Network and Physical Physical.
b.Which sensor is best used where you want the least amount of nuisance alarms? a. c. Active Passive Covert LOS . d.
b. d. Two-wire twisted pair Coaxial Cable Ethernet Fiber-optics . c.What technology is highly resistant to video tampering as it can be easily detected? a.
Using a wire to push the pins up and down inside the key way to read the pin codes or cuts b. Inserting a blank in the lock and twisting hard with pliers thus creating an image of the pins on the blank c.Impressioning is a lock defeat method that involves: a. None of the above . Following or entering behind a person who unlocks a secure door giving the impression you have rightful access d.
Passive barrier b.Stabilized aqueous foam is considered to be a: a. Active barrier c. Formulation of food-grade glycol . Dispensable barrier d.
A forceful attack on a safe whereby a burglar uses tools to cut a hole through the walls or door is known as: a. b. Drilling Peeling Punching Ripping . c. d.
High-pressure sodium Low-pressure sodium Metal Halide Mercury vapor . c. d.What light fixture has the slowest re-strike time making it unfit for use in highsecurity applications? a. b.
The reliability of the PD value d. All of the above . How quickly and clearly it communicates alarm data to the operator c.The single most important measure of an AC&D system is: a. The ratio of how many times it provides correct detection of false to nuisance alarms b.
Rapping is an attack on a padlock that can be best described by: a. Breaking the combination dial off with a hammer and then defeating the internal barriers with a screwdriver . Lug pulling with a wrench or pliers b. Tapping the lock rapidly thus causing the pins to jump up inside the cylinder c. A process that involves both drilling and punching the lock to access the internal barrier d.
Determining PPS design objectives Determining threat definition Sabotage fault tree analysis None of the above . c. b.Knowing the capabilities. d. intentions and motivations of an adversary is a critical step in: a.
d. What CPTED principle would best describe this? a.A church has a day care center that looks after children while parents are attending the church service. c. This has resulted in caretakers knowing they are always being watched and therefore need to be on their best behaviour. Concerns of child safety when in the care of others is generally on the rise in society. b. Improve scheduling of space Place vulnerable activities in safe areas Design space to increase the perception of natural surveillance Re-designate the use of space to provide natural barriers . The church decides to be proactive and install large viewing windows in all the classrooms so that people walking by can see at all times what’s going on inside.
d. Hydraulic bollards Automatic gate Motorized sliding doors None of the above .Which is not an active barrier? a. c. b.
d. b. c.Assessment has 2 purposes. one is to determine if the alarm is false and the second to: a. Provide specific details of the alarm Tell how many people are possibly involved Tell why the person did it Both a & b .
b. Identifies specifics of the objects Detects presence of an object Identifies sufficient information about the object by class Provides more specifics than identification . d. c.Classification and Identification differ in that classification: a.
b. d.For camera lighting systems. c. Minimum intensity and evenness of light Maximum intensity and evenness of light Minimum intensity and colour of light Maximum intensity and foot candles of light . the most important parameters are: a.
d. c. b. Mercury vapor Metal halide Moveable High pressure sodium .The most efficient type of outdoor light but creates a yellowish colour which make them unusable with colour cameras is: a.
b. Continuous Standby Moveable Emergency . d.Lighting that is used only when an adversary is detected is called: a. c.
what and who Why.AC&D must communicate three things about an alarm: a. c. who and if When. When. d. what and who How. who and how . b.
What do all buried sensors have in common? a. Covert and terrain-following Freeze up in winter making them un-reliable Fail often and require frequent maintenance Utilize pressurized fluid inside a buried line . b. d. c.
Ported coaxial cable Seismic Fiber Optics None of the above . b. terrain-following sensor uses geophones for detection? a. d. c.What covert.
d.What sensor is not an interior type sensor? a. c. Microwave Volumetric LOS Active Infrared . b.
Doppler Electromechanical Radio Frequency PIR . b. d.Microwave & Ultrasonic sensors operate on what technology that is activated by a shifting amplitude effect? a. c.
b. c. what side(s) of the fire triangle need to be removed? a.Typically to extinguish a fire. d. Oxygen Heat Fuel Any one of the above .
c.An indoor type sensor that is passive. b. d. covert and detects a change in an electrostatic field when someone touches the protected object is called: a. Vibration Electromechanical Sonic None of the above .
delay and response People. c. b. balanced protection and: a. d. procedures and equipment Minimum consequence of component failure .A well engineered PPS will exhibit the following characteristics that being protection-in-depth. Sensors with a high Pd Detection.
delay and response Quantity of Nuisance Alarms or NAR over a given period of time Based on the amount of breaches in security actually reported Measured by the overall sensitivity or Pd of each sensor . c.Performance measures of a PPS are: a. Detection. b. d.
The single most important factor in proper lens selection as it determines the relative magnification of the object: a. d. c. Format F-Number Distance and Width Approximation Focal length and field of view . b.
grease oil. or volatile fluids are called: a. c. b.Fires fueled by gasoline. Class A Class B Class C Class D . d.
Backscatter X-Ray technology is used primarily for: a. IED detection d. Explosives vapour detection c. None of the above . Package and container search b.
Describes requirements for qualifications for bidders such as licenses they are required to have b. warranty and notification processes the bidder is to follow . Describes submittal format.Bidders’ instructions primarily: a. Specify door hardware and lock schedules to be followed d. Document security system requirements in sufficient detail c.
Preventive maintenance is best described as: a. Correcting faults and returning the system to operation in event of a hardware or software failure d. Taking appropriate action in advance to prevent breakdowns c. None of the above . Waiting until something breaks before you fix it b.
Performed after site acceptance testing is all complete. Performed to demonstrate both the hardware & software function properly prior to the consultant or owner giving final acceptance of the system c. Performed at the factory with the customer as a witness before the product is even shipped to or installed on site b. all training is complete and all deficiencies are resolved d.Reliability testing is: a. Performed throughout the system installation and then a final test is conducted upon acceptance of the system by the owner or consultant .
An RFP is used typically: [need to research this one] Where the customer issues functional requirements of the PPS When the customer has provided a detailed design of what he wants When the customer only wants one bidder to provide a price None of the above .
their devices.Riser Diagrams are drawings that: Give you an area view of where particular security devices need to be installed Show how devices are to be installed on vertical surfaces such as walls and columns Provide cable terminations or special mounting requirements Show complete security sub-systems. and how they are connected .
flame. incipient. flame & Incipient None of the above . d. smoldering. heat. heat Smoldering. Incipient.The stages of fire occur in the following order: a. smoldering. b. flame Heat. c.
Is the point on the path where the delay time remaining first exceeds the response force time d. c. The minimum amount of time required for detection of the adversary in order for the response force to have enough time to interrupt b.CDP (Critical Detection Point) can be defined as: a. All of the above . Is where the minimum delay along the remaining portion of the path just exceeds the guard response time.
Execution and: a. b. d.The four major project stages include Feasibility. Development. Sign-off Close-out Final Acceptance Evaluation & Lessons learned . c.
Concrete statements describing what the project is trying to achieve c.Objectives would best be described as: a. High level statements about what the project hopes to achieve b. The provision for as many details as possible to inform bidders about what you want them to do d. major risks and potential downtime . Statements pertaining to costs.
The bomb threat plan that deals with the prevention and access control to the building is the: a. Physical security plan Bomb incident plan Disaster Recovery Plan None of the above . c. d. b.
b. d. c. Infrared Ionization Photoelectric None of the above .The type of detector that detects the smoldering stage of a fire is called: a.
b.The best time to conduct a security survey is: a. After a crisis within the corporation After a breaking and entering or major larceny After a break-in All of the above . d. c.
d.Common factors that may affect loss frequency are: a. Access to vulnerable areas Likely hood of natural disasters Both a & b None of the above . c. b.
d.A bugging device that can be concealed in a wall plug is called a: a. High-gain audio amplifier Hook & Bypass Device Telephone Analyzer Carrier Current Transmitter . b. c.
A technique that transforms the telephone into a listening device is known as: a. d. c. Line Tapping Hook & Bypass Spoofing None of the above . b.
b. d.The type of detector that operates when exposed to invisible products of combustion is called: a. c. Smoke Infrared Photoelectric Ionization .
Telephone analyzer High-gain audio amplifier Non-linear junction detector Digital volt-ohm meter .A device used to determine if audio information is being transmitted over a pair of wires is called a: a. b. c. d.
What is the best response to a credible bomb threat? a. Ignore it Open all windows and evacuate immediately Search and evacuate if warranted Wait for Police to arrive and follow their instructions . c. b. d.
c. Touch it Use two-way radios Close all windows to contain blast All of the above . b. d.What should you not do if you find a device that you believe to be a bomb? a.
b. d. c. If lights or circuits are off then leave them off Bombs found in searches are typically near exits Only guard staff or Police should search Searches go on for 20-30 minutes .What is not true regarding a bomb threat search? a.
c.A PPS should be designed first and foremost to protect against: a. d. Loss of human life The maximum credible threat What Police say is likely good enough Only what the cost/benefit analysis can reasonably justify . b.
What type of fire extinguisher would be applied to a chemical fire? a. Dry Chemical d. Both b & c . Water b. CO2 c.
SMART is an abbreviated term associated with: a. Sensor selection c. Risk Management . CPTED design b. Project Management d.
A technique used to quantify & prioritize loss potential showing how the reasons for implementing security measures will provide a good ROI is called: a. Risk assessment c. Cost/benefit analysis d. Security analysis b. EASI .
A chain link security fence should be constructed as follows: a. 12 gauge or heavier & 4 sq. 7’ recommended height. 8’ recommended height. 10 gauge or heavier & 4 sq. in. or smaller openings b. 7’ recommended height. or smaller openings c. in. None of the above . 9 gauge or heavier & 4 sq. or smaller openings d. in.
On a 45 degree angle pointing away from the building b. Pointing either way as it really doesn’t matter d.Outriggers on a fence should be: a. On a 45 degree angle pointing toward the building c. None of the above .
Less than 16 feet from the ground b. Both b & c . Less than 18 feet from the ground c.Windows require protection if: a. Less than 14 feet from trees d.
Installation b.Three performance measurements of a sensor is Probability of Detection (Pd). Vulnerability to defeat d. FAR c. NAR and: a. None of the above .
An active exterior sensor that is both visible and line detection would be: a. Bistatic Microwave b. Ported co-axial cable c. Fence disturbance d. Active Infrared
What is not a tangible asset? a. Jewelery b. Vice-president of sales c. Computer disks d. None of the above
What statement is not true? a. Detection without assessment is not detection b. Detection before delay is not detection c. Detection should be as far from the target as possible and delays near the target d. Detection is best performed by equipment, not people
What statement is not true about insiders: a. Can be active non-violent b. Responsible for the majority of security breaches in both physical and computer security systems c. Security guards are typically trustable d. Have system knowledge that can be used to their advantage
Level 2 – low-level security c. Level 3 – medium security d. Level 1 – minimum security b.The level of security that would Impede and detect and assess most unauthorized external activities and some internal activities is known as: a. Level 4 – High-level security .
Use of lighting for observation capabilities Alarms that signal an intrusion Barriers that delay intrusion All of the above . c.The possibility of deterring crime or apprehending a criminal may be increased by: a. b. d.
Safety & security personnel working closely together to design systems that will be effective in all circumstances d.UL2000 is a standard that speaks to: a. None the above . Energy saving monitors & terminals for use in the security industry c. New CPTED approaches that must meet with all Building Codes and Standards b.
c. d. Troubleshoot an electrical circuit Determine root cause of a recent security breach Determine vital areas Both b & c . b.A logic diagram is used to: a.
The type of procurement process that involves only one bidder is called: a. b. c. Sole Source RFP Invitation to Bidders Single Bidding . d.
Dry Chemical d. CO2 c. Water b. Both b & c .What type of fire extinguisher would be applied to a chemical fire? a.
None of the above . Is a flowchart depicting response force effectiveness b.An Adversary Sequence Diagram: a. Shows the minimum amount of time required for an adversary to reach the target d. Shows the paths an adversary may take to accomplish sabotage or theft c.
c. b. Incandescent Metal Halide Mercury Vapor Low-pressure sodium . d.What type of light fixture that has excellent colour discrimination but would be the worst solution where you would want a fast re-strike time? a.
protective lighting should first of all discourage or deter attempts at entry and the second most important would be: a. c. Avoid casting annoying or dangerous light into neighboring areas Secure it against attack Make detection likely if entry is attempted Have back-up power supply in event of power failure . b.To be effective. d.
An analysis performed on a high-security facility to ensure the effectiveness of the PPS design is referred to as: a. b. Security Survey Qualitative Analysis Quantitative Analysis Both a & c . d. c.
350-1 d. 350-2 c.850 DegF has a UL classification of: a. 350-4 b.A record safe that can protect up to 1. 150-2 .
Detecting when the video sync signal amplitude has been reduced c. They do this by: a.Video presence detectors are used to detect covert tampering. Monitoring the video level and then produce an alarm if the signal increases or decreases in strength b. Both a & b . Monitoring the signal-to-noise ratio d.
The single most important factor in proper lens selection as it determines the relative magnification of the object is: a. Format b. Distance and Width Approximation d. Focal length and field of view . F-Number c.
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