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Final review

Which functional classification of joints are slightly movable?
A. B. C. D. Diarthrosis Synarthrosis Ampiarthrosis Synovial joint

Answer: C

Which of the following is not considered a synovial joint?
a.) Elbow joint b.) Metacarpalphalangeal joint c.) Symphyses d.) Radioulnar joint

Answer: C

3. Which of the following does not include in a standard arthrogram tray?
A. B. C. D. E. Sterile drape Gauze pads Contrast media Needles All of the above are included

Answer : C

C. D. 25% 30% 50% 75% Answer : B .4. Concentration of nonionic. water-soluble contrast medium should not exceed: A. B.

The contrast agent used when performing magnetic resonance arthrography is? A. C.5. B. D. Isovue Gastrografin Gadolinium Cystografin Answer : C .

Anaphylactic response Skin rash Hypotension Vasovagal response Answer : D . B. D. The most common type of reaction to arthrographic procedure is: A. C.6.

D. How should the foot be positioned during a hip arthrogram using the anterior approach? A. C.7. B. 5 degrees laterally 15 degrees medially 45 degrees medially No rotation of the foot Answer : B .

Painful distention of the joint C.8. Large amounts of negative contrast agents are usually necessary B. Low diagnostic accuracy Answer : C . Cost D. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of pneumoarthrography: A.

B. E. Gliding joint Pivot joint Condylar joint Hinge joint Ball and socket joint Answer : D . D.The knee joint is classified as which of the following type of synovial joint? A. C.

Arthritic deformities Rupture of the articular ligaments Cartilaginous defects Hypersensitivity to iodine All the above are indications for arthrography Answer : D . C.10. B. D. E. Which of the following is not an indication for arthrography? A.

1. D. When using the sacral hiatus puncture method for myelography the contrast material is injected into the: A. B. C.402) . Left ventricle Extradural space Subarachnoid space Cisterna magna Answer: B (p.

2. The injection site for lumbar myelography is usually between:
A. B. C. D. L1-L2 L2-L3 L4-L5 T12-L1

Answer: B (p. 401)

3. The leptomeninges are composed of the :
A. B. C. D. Arachnoid and pia mater Pia mater and dura mater Dura mater and arachnoid Spinal cord and dura mater

Answer: A (p. 395)

4. The movement of certain contrast agents by gravity is because the agents are:
A. B. C. D. Hyperbaric Hypobaric Equal to the consistency of cerebrospinal fluid Less viscous than cerebrospinal fluid

Answer: A (p. 400)

C. A. Left lateral decubitus position Anteroposterior view Right internal oblique view Swimmer’s view Answer: D (p. B. When the lower cervical and upper thoracic regions are not well demonstrated the __________ should be used. 408) .5. D.

6. B. The patient is extremely obese The lower extremities cannot be flexed The lumbar puncture approach is impossible Contrast agent is required to flow into the ventricles Answer: C (p. C. D. 401) . The cisternal puncture method is used when: A.

B. Pons Medulla oblongata Filum terminale Mesencephalon Answer: C (p. 395) . Which of the following is not considered to be part of the brain? A. D.7. C.

The largest and uppermost portion of the brain is called the: A.8. D. 395) . Pons Hindbrain Cerebrum Filum terminale Answer: C (p. B. C.

D.9. C. B. Footrest Fluoroscope Shoulder harness Catheter Answer: D (p. 404) . Which of the following pieces of equipment is not necessary for myelography? A.

10. 400) . A disadvantage to the use of oily contrast agents is: • Their higher cost • That they are absorbed slowly and must be removed from the patient • That they do not provide sufficient contrast • That patients tend to have more reactions to the substance • Answer: B (p.

All are indications of bone densitometry except: a) Postmenopausal woman b) Diet low in calcium c) Family history d) Presence of barium D .

2) For a scanner with a fan array beam. c) 9 ft. b) 6 ft. how far should the tachnologist be from the tube? a) 3 ft. d) 12 ft. C .

1.3) Bone densitometry is used to: 1 predict future fracture risk 2 diagnose osteoporosis 3 diagnose osteopenia A. 2 only C. 2. and 3 D . 2 and 3 only D. 1 only B.

D. B. C. A Pregnancy Secondhand Smoke Woman over 55 All of these are contraindications .4) Which answer is a contraindication of bone densitometry? A.

D. C DEXA Ultrasonography of the calcaneus QCT SPA . B.5) The scanning method that produces the highest patient dose is: A. C.

D it’s reliable It’s widely available Its measurements are precise All of the above . D. C. B.6) DEXA is the ‘gold standard’ of bone densitometry scanning methods because: A.

D. B High Low Depends on the brand of the scanner being used Nonexistent . C. B.7) The patient dose for DEXA is: A.

8) The best way for a DEXA technologist to protect themselves is: A. B. C. D. D To start the machine and leave the room To be at a predetermined # of feet from the tube To follow the cardinal principle B&C

9) Trabecular bone is found: A. B. C. D. D In the shaft of long bones Outlining the entire outside of every bone In the feet In the ends of long bones

10) Standard scores used to measure bone density are known as: A. B. C. D. A T & Z-scores T & Y-scores X & Y-scores W & Z-scores

Which of the following positions are used most frequently during hysterosalpingography? • • • • Right anterior oblique Prone Anteroposterior Lateral .1.

How long do you wait to take delayed films after using iodized oils? • • • • 6 hours 12 hours 24 hours 36 hours .2.

3. Which of the following is an oily contrast? • • • • Hexabrix Sinografin Omni 240 Hypaque .

What is the highlighted area of the uterus? • • • • Body Fundus Vagina Cervix .4.

• False. True or False: A Foley catheter is used for HSGs. . a 5 French catheter is used.5.

If there is specific pathology. what additional views are asked for by the radiologist? • • • • Oblique Prone Lateral All of the above .6.

What position is the patient in for the HSG? • • • • Supine Prone Lithotomy position Down-dog position .7.

8. What is the absolute contraindication of this exam? • • • • Pregnancy Uterine bleeding Fistulas None of the above .

9. Name the cassette size used for the normal HSG: • • • • 14x17” 10x12” 8x10” None because this is a fluoro exam .

The patient may be instructed to take what the day before the exam? • • • • A large amount of fluids Non-gas forming laxative Tylenol All of the above .10.

radiation therapist. dosimetrist. medical physicist. dosimetrist. oncology nurse B. radiation therapist • A . radiation therapist.1. radiation therapist. Radiation oncologist. Radiation oncologist. Medical physicist. medical physicist. Who is considered to be part of the oncology team? A. dosimetrist. oncology nurse D. dosimetrist. Radiation oncologist. oncology nurse C.

50% 60% 75% 90% • E . C. What percentage of cancer is treated with radiation? A. D.2. B.

January 1902 January 1896 January 1906 April 1909 • A . D. C. When was the first treatment of cancer using radiation reported? A.3. B.

1 only 1 and 3 1 and 4 4 only 3. Lympoproliferative tumors • C . C. B. D. Epithelial tumors A. Which of the following are very radiosensitive? 1. Gonadal germ cells 2. Mesenchymal tumors 4.4.

Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power? • True or False • False: Shorter wavelengths do .5.

B. D. 60Co CyberKnife Tomo Therapy Linacs • B . C. Which piece of equipment uses a robotic arm? A.6.

C. What are hot spots? A. Area that the sun is shining Area of the body that is warm to the touch Area of excessive radiation dose Where the radiation enters the body • C . B.7. D.

180 to 200 cGy 90 to 100 cGy 280 to 300 cGy 200 to 250 cGy • A . D. What is the average daily dose given during treatments? A. C. B.8.

C. Day of the first treatment During simulation During a visit to the oncologist Patient position is not important • B . B. D. When is the patient position acquired? A.9.

Multileaf collimators are a beam defining system B. All of the following are true except? A. 60Co was the first skin sparing machine D.10. Intensity modulated radiation therapy reduces the radiation dose to normal tissues and structures C. Intensity modulated radiation therapy cuts the treatment time in half • D .

Which of the following cannot be determined by ultrasound? A.1. B. D. Size of a fetus Appropriate amount of amniotic fluid cushioning a fetus Vertebral fracture Kidney stones . C.

What is an ultrasound of the heart called? A. C. Echogram Echocardiogram Cardiogram ECG .2. B. D.

Marie Curie Pierre & Jacques Curie Marie & Jacques Curie Roentgen . C. B.3. Who discovered piezoelectric effect? A. D.

D. B. Gallstones Kidney stones Blood Heart valve . C.4. Which of the following will ultrasound freely travel through? A.

5. If wanting to scan a mass on a patient’s wrist near the surface. . would you rather use a 3 MHz or a 5 MHz transducer? • 5 MHz because the sound waves will be more easily absorbed than from a 3 MHz and will provide better quality of a superficial structure.

1% . what is the reflection rate reduced to when using gel? A. From 100%. 50% 10% 1% 0. D. B. C.6.

• False. Gases reflect ultrasounds . True or False: Ultrasound can be used to diagnose diseases of the lungs.7.

True or False: Ultrasound can be used to determine the blood flow through arteries/veins. • True. .8.

C. B. Vector Linear Curved Normal . D.9. What type of transducer was this image most likely taken from? A.

The common carotid artery (CCA) branches off into what two main branches? A. D. B. C.10. ICA and MCA ICA and ECA The CCA does not branch None of the above .

1. C. Diagnostic angiographic catheter Micro catheter Contusion catheter Balloon catheter • Answer: • C . All are types of catheters except: A. D. B.

2. Atherectomy is: • • • • Removal of plaques Removal of veins Addition of pathways Addition of stents • Answer • A .

3. D. 1 2 3 4 • Answer • C . C. B. How many purposes for embolization are there? A.

4. D. 1953 1964 1986 2001 • Answer • B . B. The first Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA) was performed by Dotter and Judkins in : A. C.

Focused Open-tipped Metal-tipped Lens-tipped • Answer: • D . D. C. B. The most accurate laser tip is: A.5.

C. D. TIPS is an acronym for: A. Theraputic Instigational Portal System Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunting Transducing Investigational Pathway Schematic Transthoracic Intermediary Portal System • Answer • B . B.6.

C. B. Very Rare Somewhat Rare Somewhat Common Very Common • Answer: • A .7. D. Complications in the removal of foreign bodies are: A.

Maintain Bloodflow C.8. Reduce Bloodflow B. Increase Bloodflow • Answer: • C . Transmyocardial Revascularization is used to: A.

D. Ablasion Intravascular Thrombolysis (Fibrinolysis) Destructive Coalition Sectrolysis • Answer: • B . C. B.9. Chemically dissolving a clot is known as: A.

B. C. Tilted or malpositioned filter Filter dissolution Migration of filter Caval perforation • Answer: • B .10. D. Which is not a complication of vena cava filters: A.

BSE • B . “Egan Technique” D. Tomosynthesis exam B. FFDM C.A mammogram is also known as a (an) A.

True B.Women age 40 and older are recommended to have mammograms every 1-2 years A. False • A .

C. B. D.Mammograms use what type of radiation? A. • B High level Low level Depends on the patient size A and B .

B.Which of these should be documented of the patient? A. E. Lumps Scars Lesions Moles All of the above • E . C. D.

What type of exam is needed for a patient with no signs or symptoms? A. Biopsy • A . Screening Mammogram B. Diagnostic Mammogram C.

C. B. • C 16: 1 12: 1 or 10:1 3:1 or 5:1 No grids are used . D.What is the ratio of the specialized grids? A.

C. • E Perfume Lotion Deodorant A&B B&C .Artifacts can be made by A. D. E. B.

The software that aids the radiologist in reading images is ___ A. BRCA1 FFDM CAD DOT • C . D. C. B.

B. 5 years 10 years 2 years 3 months • C . D.Mammograms are capable of detecting cancer ____ before it is palpable. C. A.

4 3 2 1 C . 2.How many views of each breast are in a routine exam? 1. 4. 3.

Radon C. Hounsfield B. Who first discovered the principle of CT? A. House A . Roentgen D.1.

2. 1869 D. 1971 C. 1968 B. 1917 B . When was the first clinical CT taken? A.

58-90 cm C. 40-30 cm D. How wide is the aperture opening in a CT scanner? A.3. 25-50 cm A . 50-85 cm B.

4. Carbon graphite fiber D. Plastic C . What is the CT table made of? A. Aluminum B. Lead C.

30 mA D. 40 mA C .5. 50 mA B. 70 mA C. The stationary anode for CT uses what mA? A.

50-80 kVp D. 40-180 kVp A . 90-150 kVp C. 80-140 kVp B. The rotating anode permits what range of kVp? A.6.

40” SID B. 33” SID C. The detector is set at what SID? A. 44” SID D .7. 72” SID D.

100.000-1 C.8.000 to 1 C .000. 1. 100-1 B. 1.000 to 1 D. What is the dynamic range of a typical scanner? A.

Pelvis D. Spine exam C. Head D . Extremity work B. What is the most common exam performed in CT? A.9.

32 hrs C . For ARRT.10. 16 hrs D. how many hours of clinical training is needed for CT certification? A. 60 hrs C. 18 hrs B.

ALARA still applies d.Question 1 Radiation protection is important in MRI because: a. Reduces patient dose b. Reduces radiographer dose c. None of the above Answer : D .

1970’s Answer : A . 1920’s b. 1960’s d. 1940’s c.Question 2 Magnetic Resonance was first realized in the : a.

Compliant c.Question 3 Only MRI ___________ equipment is allowed in the exam room. Any equipment is allowed Answer : B . a. Coordinated d. Conditional b.

2016 c.Question 4 Certification requirements for MRI are changing in: a. Both d. Neither Answer : C . 2014 b.

T1 b. T2 d. Sequestration time Answer : A . Rest time c.Question 5 The spin-lattice relaxation process is also known as : a.

Question 6 The spin-spin relaxation process is also known as : a. T2 d. Rest time c. T1 b. Dizzy time Answer : C .

Question 7 Most diagnostic magnets have a strength of: a.5T Answer : B . 5T d. 1T b. 5.5T c. 1.

Additional variable c. Net magnetization vector b. Geometric factor d.Question 8 The sum of the magnitudes and directions of the magnetic spins is known as the : a. I give up factor Answer : A .

Open b. Fonar d.Question 9 All of the following are types of MRI units except a. Mobile c. Bloch Answer : D .

2 & 3 Answer : D . Permanent 2.Question 10 Which magnets are used in MRI: 1. 1. Rare Earth a. 2 c. Electromagnetic 3. 1 & 2 e. 1 b. 3 d.