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1.

A mango leaf is at which level in the


hierarchical organization of life?
a. tissue
b. organ
c. organelle
d. population
The leaves perform three main functions such
as manufacture of food, interchange of gases
between the atmosphere and the plant body
and evaporation of water.
2. In taxonomy which classification is arranged
from largest related groups to the smallest?
a. species, genus, order, family, class, phylum,
kingdom
b. kingdom, genus, order, family, class, phylum,
species
c. species, genus, order, family, class, kingdom,
species
d. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus,
species
King Philip Come Over For
Good Spaghetti
3.Which planet is closest to the Earth with
a distance of 42 million kilometers?
a. Mars
b. Venus
c. Mercury
d. Jupiter
When Venus lies between Earth and the Sun,
it experiences what is known as an inferior
conjunction. It is at this point that it makes its
closest approach to Earth (and that of any
planet) with an average distance of 41 million
km (25,476,219 mi). On average, Venus
achieves an inferior conjunction with Earth
every 584 days.
4. Halo-halo; heterogeneous as _____
homogenous
a. mayonnaise
b. marshmallow
c. vinegar
d. Fog
To identify the nature of a mixture, consider its
sample size. If you can see more than one phase
of matter or different regions in the sample, it
is heterogeneous. If the composition of the
mixture appears uniform no matter where you
sample it, the mixture is homogeneous.

Acetic acid +water


5. Foams, emulsions and sols are
heterogeneous mixtures. To what type do
they belong?
a. pure solutions
b. colloidal dispersions
c. solutions
d. suspensions
Sol is a colloidal suspension with solid
particles in a liquid.
Emulsion is between two liquids.
Foam is formed when many gas particles
are trapped in a liquid or solid.
Aerosol contains small particles of liquid
or solid dispersed in a gas.
6. In biology, parts of the flower were
analyzed. It is done to_____.
a. enable scientist proper identification of
organisms
b. give biologists something to do
c. widen the field of biological science
d. enable the location of organism’s habitat
7. Iron is what type of magnetic material?
a. non-magnetic
b. ferromagnetic
c. paramagnetic
d. diamagnetic
A ferromagnetic material is one that
has magnetic properties similar to those ofiron. In other
words, you can make a magnet out of it. Some other
ferromagneticmaterials are nickel, cobalt, and alnico, an
aluminum-nickel-cobalt alloy.
Paramagnetic materials. The materials which are not
strongly attracted to a magnet are known as
paramagnetic material. Paramagnetic materials include
magnesium, molybdenum, lithium, and tantalum. ...
Diamagnetic materials. The materials which are repelled
by a magnet such as zinc. ...
8. Which of the ff. is a heterotroph?
a. moss
b. grasshopper
c. algae
d. fern
A heterotroph is an organism that cannot
manufacture its own food by carbon fixation and
therefore derives its intake of nutrition from other
sources of organic carbon, mainly plant or animal
matter. In the food chain, heterotrophs are
secondary and tertiary consumers. Herbivores,
omnivores, and carnivores: All are
examples of heterotroph because they eat other
organisms to get proteins and energy. They cannot
produce their own food or energy.
9. If an object has kinetic energy, then it also
must have _____.
a. momentum
b. force
c. acceleration
d. impulse
An object with no momentum means that it
has a velocity of 0 m/s. The formula for
kinetic energy is ke=0.5mv^2. A velocity of 0
m/s would result in no kinetic energy.
10. Besides solid, liquid and gas, what is the
fourth form of matter?
a. plasma
b. gel
c. foam
d. colloid
11. Which of the ff. processes involves
chloroplast?
a. conversion of light to chemical energy
b. formulation of reproductive cells
c. cell division
d. protein synthesis
Chloroplasts absorb sunlight and use it in
conjunction with water and carbon dioxide
gas to produce food for the plant.
Chloroplasts capture light energy from the
sun to produce the free energy stored in ATP
and NADPH through a process
calledphotosynthesis.
12. Which element has Ca as its symbol?
a. Cadmium
b. Californium
c. Carbon
d. Calcium
13. What do you call on the first stage of
decomposition where in muscles become
rigid?
a. livor mortis
b. rigor mortis
c. autolysis
d. algor mortis
Livor mortis, also known as lividity, is the settling
of blood after death in gravity-dependent portions
of the body, including in the organs.

the destruction of cells or tissues by their own


enzymes, especially those released by lysosomes.

Algor mortis, the second stage of death, is the


change in body temperature post mortem, until
the ambient temperature is matched.
14. Which element ha Te as its symbol?
a. Terbium
b. Titanium
c. Tellurium
d. Technetium
15. Of the ff. organism, which are included
under Kingdom Plantae?
a. fungi
b. magnoliidae
c. prokaryotes
d. protozoa
a plant, fungus, or microorganism that lives on
dead or decaying organic matter.

Archaea and Bacteria.

is an informal term for single-celled eukaryotes,


either free-living or parasitic, which feed on
organic matter such as other microorganisms or
organic tissues and debris.
16. What is the classification for
polysaccharides, triglycerides, polypeptides
and nucleic acids?
a. acids and bases
b. macromolecules
c. phospholipids
d. carbohydrates
Phospholipids consist of a hydrophilic (or 'water loving') head and a hydrophobic (or
'water fearing') tail. Phospholipids like to line up and arrange themselves into two
parallel layers, called a phospholipid bilayer. This layer makes up your cell
membranes and is critical to a cell's ability to function.

Carbohydrates are the sugars, starches and fibers found in fruits, grains, vegetables
and milk products. Though often maligned in trendy diets, carbohydrates — one of
the basic food groups — are important to a healthy diet.

A measure of acidity or alkalinity of water soluble substances (pH stands for


'potential of Hydrogen'). A pH value is a number from 1 to 14, with 7 as the middle
(neutral) point. Values below 7 indicate acidity which increases as the number
decreases, 1 being the most acidic.
17. Alcohol is a class of organic compound
characterized by a____.
a. halogen attached to an alkyl group
b. carbonyl group bounded to two carbon
atoms
c. hydroxyl bonded to an alkyl group
d. carbonyl attached to an ether linkage
A hydroxy or hydroxyl group is the entity with the
formula OH. It contains oxygen bonded to
hydrogen.

The alkyl group is a type of functional group that


has a carbon and hydrogen atom present in its
structure.

C2H5OH
18. The protein shell of a virus is called____.
a. nucleolus
b. nucleic acid
c. nucleus
d. capsid
Nucleic acids include DNA and RNA. ... DNA is composed of a phosphate-
deoxyribose sugar backbone and the nitrogenous bases adenine (A), guanine (G),
cytosine (C), and thymine (T). RNA has ribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases A,
G, C, and uracil (U).

A nucleotide is one of the structural components, or building blocks, of DNA and


RNA. A nucleotide consists of a base (one of four chemicals: adenine, thymine,
guanine, and cytosine) plus a molecule of sugar and one of phosphoric acid.

The cell nucleus​ (plural: cell nuclei) is a membrane bound structure that contains
the cell's genes and controls the cell's growth and reproduction. It is usually the
most prominent organelle in a cell. ... The human body contains billions of cells,
most of which have a nucleus. The nucleus is an organelle found in eukaryotic
cells. Inside its fully enclosed nuclear membrane, it contains the majority of the
cell's genetic material. This material is organized as DNA molecules, along with a
variety of proteins, to form chromosomes.
19. Which type of reaction does the general
equation (AB+energy->A+B) show?
a. Endothermic synthesis
b. Exothermic synthesis
c. exothermic synthesis
d. endothermic decomposition
20. Very hot gas of nuclei and electrons.
a. solid
b. plasma
c. tokamak
d. vendetta
21. An atom of silicon has a mass number of
28 and an atomic number of 14. How many
protons are there in this atom?
a. 14
b. 12
c. 28
d. 7
For any element:
Number of Protons = Atomic Number
Number of Electrons = Number of Protons = Atomic
Number
Number of Neutrons = Mass Number - Atomic Number
For krypton:
Number of Protons = Atomic Number = 36
Number of Electrons = Number of Protons = Atomic
Number = 36
Number of Neutrons = Mass Number - Atomic Number
= 84 - 36 = 48
22. Which 2 chemical factors cause
decomposition?
a. putrefaction development
b. death and cellular respiration
c. autolysis and photosynthesis
d. autolysis and putrefaction
the process of decay or rotting in a body or
other organic matter.

the destruction of cells or tissues by their


own enzymes, especially those released by
lysosomes.
23. This is TRUE of recessive genes.
a. will only have phenotypic expression if present
as a homozygous genotype
b. should be paired with a dominant gene for it to
be expressed
c. will prevent a dominant gene from expressing
its phenotype
d. have more superior phenotypic traits
24. If carbohydrates are hydrophilic-organic
compounds, lipids are _____organic
compounds
a. biomolecules
b. hydrophobic
c. polypeptide
d. simple
25. Which of the ff. is the lowest rank of coal
and is otherwise called brown coals?
a. charcoal
b. lignite
c. anthracite
d. bituminous
The ranks of coal (from most to least carbon
content) are as follows: anthracite,
bituminous coal, subbituminous coal, and
lignite. The coal with the highest carbon
content is the best and cleanest type
of coal to use.
26. This is TRUE about dominant genes.
a. should be paired with a recessive gene in
order to be expressed
b. it prevents the expression of another gene
in the same locus
c. are aggressive and expresses the more
beneficial traits
d. will not be expressed if heterozygous
27. Which of the following statement is TRUE
about a textbook laid on the table? The
textbook______.
a. undergoes deceleration
b. undergoes acceleration
c. no force is acting on it
d. the sum of the forces acting upon it is zero
Newton's First Law[edit]
When the resultant force on an object is zero,
it will remain at rest if it is at rest, or continue
to move in a straight line at a constant
velocity if it is in motion. There is no change
in either the magnitude or direction of its
velocity. That is, there is zeroacceleration
28. What is the maximum number of
electrons that can occupy f orbital?
a. 6
b. 10
c. 18
d. 14
29. What is the possible consequence of
eutrophication?
a. water that is colorless and odor-free
b. significantly diminished sea harvest by
fishermen
c. decreased toxicity of bodies of water
d. less turbidity of water
30. Who is considered the Father of modern
taxonomy and is responsible for coining the
term Homo sapiens for human?
a. Chatton
b. Aristotle
c. H. Copeland
d. Linnaeus
31. The bond in sodium fluoride is which of
the ff. types of chemical bond?
a. covalent
b. ionic
c. metallic
d. hydrogen
Covalent bonding takes place between non-
metals.

Ionic bonds form between metals and non-metals.

Hydrogen bond is formed only by the three highly


electronegative elements- fluorine, oxygen and
nitrogen. So, hydrogen bonding is possible only in
those compounds in which the hydrogen atom is
directly bonded to fluorine, oxygen or nitrogen.
32. What causes night and day?
a. Earth revolves around the sun
b. moon rotates
c. moon revolves around the earth
d. earth rotates
33. The feeding connections between all life
forms are referred to as _____.
a. nutrition cycle
b. food web
c. biochemical pathways
d. fossil cycle
34. What are the small hair-like structures that
serve a sensory function in eukaryotic cells?
a. plasma membrane
b. centromere
c. actin filaments
d. cilia
The cell membrane (also known as the plasma membrane (PM)
or cytoplasmic membrane, and historically referred to as the
plasmalemma) is a biologicalmembrane that separates the interior of all
cells from the outside environment (the extracellular space) which
protects the cell from its environment.

A chromosome is made up of two chromatids which are joined by the


centromere. The chromatids separate from each other during mitosis to
form two newchromosomes. The DNA making up a chromosome is
dispersed as chromatin. ... Each copy is called a chromatid.

The cytoskeleton provides structure and shape to cells. In this lesson,


learn aboutactin filaments, a kind of cytoskeletal filament that is
important for cell shape, muscle contraction, and cell adhesion.
35. In the Pacific area, a storm is
called___.
a. hurricane
b. el nino
c. typhoon
d. La Nina
36. What are the thin structures essential for
cytokinesis, amoeboid movement and
changes in cell shape?
a. nanofilaments
c. myosin filaments
c. microfilaments
d. pseudo filaments
A line of unicellular organisms held together by a gelatinous sheath.

The Function Of Microfilaments. Microfilaments, or actin filaments, are the thinnest


filaments of the cytoskeleton and are found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. The
polymers of these linear filaments are flexible but still strong, resisting crushing and
buckling while providing support to the cell.

Myosins are a large super-family of motor proteins that move along actin filaments,
while hydrolyzing ATP to forms of mechanical energy that can be used for a variety
offunctions such as muscle movement and contraction.
37. Volcanic eruptions are also accompanied by
earthquakes. What causes the earthquakes?
a. Movement of magma through vents
b. melting and boiling of rocks inside the volcano
c. Movement of rocks layers along faults
d. throwing out of huge amount of volcano ash
38. Which is the building blocks of life?
a. system
b. organ
c. cell
d. tissue
39. The molecules that contain an organism’s
genetic make-up is called__.
a. genetic membrane
b. nucleic acid
c. nucleolus
d. cytosol
Membranes organize proteins and other molecules enabling the cell to
run much more efficiently than if everything were floating freely.
Nucleic acids are important because they make up genetic information
in living things. There are two types of nucleic acid and they are DNA
and RNA. DNA is the basic instructions for living things. It is passed
down from parent to offspring and is found in the nucleus of the cell.

The nucleolus makes ribosomal subunits from proteins and ribosomal


RNA, also known as rRNA. It then sends the subunits out to the rest of
the cell where they combine into complete ribosomes. Ribosomes make
proteins; therefore, thenucleolus plays a vital role in making proteins in
the cell.
40. Predation is a relationship exemplified by
a/an_____.
a. orchid attached to the trunk of a narra tree.
b. hunter shooting a deer in the forest and having
it for dinner
c. tapeworm living in the gastrointestinal tract of a
toddler.
d. clownfish living within a sea anemone.
41. Sound travels fastest in ____.
a. solid
b. air
c. vacuum
d. liquid
42. The asexual reproduction which occurs
when a new organism develops from an
outgrowth is called____.
a. fission
b. fusion
c. fertilization
d. budding
Budding is a type of asexual reproduction in which anew organism
develops from an outgrowth or bud due to cell division at one particular
site. The small bulb like projection coming out from the yeast cell
iscalled a bud. ... Organisms such as hydra use regenerative cells
for reproduction in the process of budding.
Binary fission ("division in half") is a kind of asexual reproduction. It is
the most common form of reproduction in prokaryotes such as bacteria.
It occurs in some single-celled Eukaryotes like the Amoeba and the
Paramoecium. In binary fissionDNA replication and segregation occur
simultaneously.
43. Which of the ff. is an organism that feeds
on necrotic and decaying matter?
a. vulture
b. parakeet
c. algae
d. yeast
44. A human arm, a bat’s wing and a seal’s
flipper are examples of a/an___.
a. analogous organs
b. homologous organs
c. embryonic organs
d. vestigial organs
45. What is the molecule that allows plants to
capture energy from sunlight?
a. oxygen
b. carbohydrates
c. ATP
d. chlorophyll
ATP is used to supply the "dark" reactions with the ability to
carry out the process of creating energy molecules. ATP is vital
in the formation of glucose and is among the first products of
photosynthesis. ATP is used in the calvin cycle(dark reaction) of
photosynthesis tho incorporate energy at various points

Green substance in producers that traps light energy from the


sun, which is then used to combine carbon dioxide and water
into sugars in the process of photosynthesis Chlorophyll is vital
for photosynthesis, which helps plants get energy from light.
46. The waste product of photosynthesis is
_____.
a. carbon monoxide
b. nitrogen
c. carbon dioxide
d. oxygen
Besides making up 78% of the Earth's atmosphere, nitrogen has a number
of uses. Since it is an inert gas, it can be used to replace air and reduce or
eliminate oxidation of materials. The most important use is in creating ammonia,
which in turn is used to make fertilizer, explosives and other materials..

Packaged carbon monoxide is used in a variety of industries for a wide


range ofapplications including: Metal Fabrication: Used in fuel gas
mixtures with hydrogen and other gases for industrial and domestic
heating. Chemicals: In the manufacture of a variety of chemicals such as
acids, esters and alcohols.
47. Which organism is classified under
Kingdom Fungi?
a. red algae
b. microsporidia
c. diatoms
d. streptococcus
Diatoms are the most common organism in plankton and come in an
incredible array of shapes and sizes. Diatoms have cell walls made of
silica, Each species has a distinct pattern of tiny holes in the cell wall
(frustule) through which they absorb nutrients and get rid of waste.

Domain: Prokaryotes. Kingdom: Bacteria.


48. Which of the ff. is an alkaloid?
a. nicotine
b. aspirin
c. eucalyptus
d. menthol
49. Which protest can cause dysentery?
a. Gorilla beringei
b. plasmodium vivax
c. streptococcus
d. entamoeba histolytica
50. Which of the ff. is an example of a useful
function of bacteria? A bacteria___.
a. can clean up an oil spill by digesting
hydrocarbons
b. may be used as vectors to introduce proteins
c. can synthesize new forms of heavy metals
d. may be pathogenic and cause human disease
51. Which of the ff. is a segmented worm that
can be used to facilitate anticoagulation?
a. maggots
b. leeches
c. bloodworms
d. earthworms
52. perfumes contain organic compounds
called_____.
a. alcohol
b. ethers
c. acids
d. esters
53. Which organism is an example of a
fungus?
a. algae
b. yeast
c. euglenoids
d. entamoeba
54. Of the ff., the lightiest element known in
earth is:
a. pitchblende
b. nitrogen
c. hydrogen
d. helium
55. The only safe blood transfusion would be:
a. Type B to Type A
b. Type AB to Type B
c. Type O to Type AB
d. Type A to Type O
56. Which of the ff. include all the others?
a. Ecosystem
b. Individual
c. Community
d. Population
57. WE classify air as ___.
a. compound
b. electrolyte
c. element
d. mixture
58. _______ is a region of space containing a
huge amount of mass compacted into an
extremely small volume with a gravitational
influence is so strong that nothing, not even light,
can escape its grasp.
a. Accretion disks
b. Black Hole
c. Alternate Universe
d. Parallel Universe
59. During which moon phase are solar
eclipses experienced?
a. full moon
b. new moon
c. first quarter
d. last quarter
60. Which of the following is NOT a minor
member of the Solar System?
a. comets
b. asteroids
c. moons
d. Sun
61. Venus is the hottest planet in the Solar
System because _______.
a. it is the nearest planet to the sun
b. it is covered by thick atmosphere of
carbon dioxide
c it rotates faster than the other planets
d. it is twice the size of the earth
62 . All of the following are renewable energy
sources except ________.
a. Tides
b. Sunlight
c. Geothermal Vents
d. Coal mines
63. What geologic feature under the water is
the foundation that supports much of the life
in the deep ocean?
a. Volcanoes
b. Earthquakes
c. Mountains
d. Sunlight
64. _______ shows the detailed shapes of the
Earth's surface, along with its natural and human
made features.
a. Time zone
b. Contour interval
c. Geologic map
d. Topographic map
65. All of the following conditions are believed to
be caused by acid rain except _______.
a. toxic material in the soil
b. the removal of protective covering from plant
leaves
c. the death of fish in many lakes
d. the reduction of coal to slush during washing
66. Which does NOT belong in the group?
a. Pluto
b. Ceres
c. Xena
d. Phobos
67. The Earth Hour was conceived to make
people be more conscious of _______.
a. carbon emissions
b. global warming
c. wildlife preservation
d. sustainable development
68. A “carbon footprint” is the _______.
a. amount of space you occupy
b. amount of carbon paper you use
c. the amount of greenhouse gases you emit
d. none of the above
69. The Moon exhibits different phases
because _______.
a. it revolves around the Earth
b. it rotates around its axis
c. the Earth revolves around the sun
d. the Earth’s axis is titled
70. The moon’s revolution causes the
following phenomena except _______.
a. the changing tides
b. the occurrences of eclipses
c. the changing of seasons
d. the different phases of the moon
71. Which of the following will be found on the
surface of the Earth?
a. Meteoroids
b. Asteroids
c. Meteors
d. Meteorites
72. Nicolas Copernicus proposed which
model of the solar system?
a. Tychonic Model
b. Ptolemaic Model
c. Geocentric Model
d. Heliocentric Model
73. When an area is exposed to the
penumbra of the shadow, the area will
experience a/an _______.
a. total eclipse
b. partial eclipse
c. solar eclipse
d. lunar eclipse
74. Gas pollutants in the atmosphere, when mixed with
water, form acid rain. Acid rain therefore _______.
I. is primarily a cause for the changes in the condition of
the air
II. pollutes bodies of water and large tracks of land
III. is a result of a combination of acids spewed into the air
IV. is preventable

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. II and III
d. I and IV
75. Mangrove forests are important because
they ______.
a. help build islands
b. serve as fish hatcheries
c. prevent erosion
d. all of the above
76. All of the animals below can be found in
the Philippines. Which of them is on the
endangered species list?
a. Carabao
b. Whale Shark
c. Maya
d. Philippine Rooster
77. Which of the following is not found in the
air as a pollutant?
a. heavy metals
b. soot
c. excess ozone
d. silt
78. A land breeze occurs when _______.
a. bodies of water are cooler than bodies of
land
b. bodies of land are cooler than bodies water
c. bodies of water and land are the same
temperature
d. warm air moves faster than cool air
79. The proper use of resources to ensure
long-term utilization is called_______.
a. Sustainable Development
b. Ecological Awareness
c. Conservation
d. Segregation
80. Which gas would most likely decline in
quantity if all the green plants on Earth
suddenly died?
a. nitrogen
b. carbon dioxide
c. water vapor
d. oxygen
81. All of the following are agents of emission
except _______.
a. water
b. wind
c. dust particles
d. none of the above
82. Which cloud is considered to be an
indicator of a fair weather?
a. nimbus
b. cumulus
c. cirrus
d. stratus
83. According to this theory, the universe was
created (between 10 and 20 billion years ago)
from a cosmic explosion that threw matter in
all directions.
a. Eternal Inflation
b. Steady State Theory
c. General Theory of Relativity
d. The Big Bang Theory
84. _______ is the science that is devoted to the
study of the earth’s place in the universe, it’s
structure and the processes that occur that
contribute to its change.
a. Physics
b. Biological Science
c. Earth Science
d. General Science
85. Which of the following is a direct result of
the tilt of the Earth’s axis?
a. uneven periods of day and night
b. differences of the seasons between the
hemispheres
c. the occurrences of solstice
d. all of the above
86.Scientists, through experimentation,
believe that the earth possesses _______.
a. a liquid inner core and a solid outer core
b. a solid core and a liquid mantle
c. a liquid outer core and a solid inner core
d. has a solid crust and a liquid mantle
87. The continental drift theory can be explained
as ________.
a. the movement of the Earth’s tectonic plates
b. the gradual widening of the oceans
c. the movement of the large land masses on the
crust
d. the gradual shrinking of continents
88. When an earthquake occurs, the actual point
where an earthquake originates is called the
_______.
a. epicenter
b. focus
c. fault line
d. fissure
89. A fountain of hot water ejected out of the
ground at regular intervals is called a _______.
a. mud spring
b. hot spring
c. geyser
d. vent
90. When wind, water or the activity of animals
carry soil from one place to another, this process is
known as _______.
a. Weathering
b. Erosion
c. Sedimentation
d. Decantation
91. Which of the following is NOT an agent of
weathering?
a. Flowing Water
b. Transport of animals
c. Changing Air Temperature
d. Movement of wind
92. When rocks are subjected to intense heat and
pressure, the properties of the original materials
that make up that rock changes to form new kinds
of rock. This process is known as
a. Metamorphism
b. Cementation
c. Sedimentation
d. Liquefaction
93. Mike was asked to identify the rock samples by
the way they split into definite pieces. He does by
identifying the samples’ _______.
a. Hardness
b. Streak
c. Cleavage
d. Specific gravity
94. An unknown mineral was found to be lustrous,
ductile, and resistant to scratching. Most probably,
the mineral is _______.
a. a gem stone
b. siliceous
c. metallic
d. non-metallic
95. The energy one can harness from
underground hot springs through power
plants is known as _______.
a. OTEC
b. Geothermal energy
c. Tidal Power
d. Wind energy
96. All of the statements below about water
are TRUE except _______.
a. it can rise faster in thick tubes than in thin
tubes
b. it can exist in three phases
c. it exhibits surface tension
d. it expands when frozen
97. Sandy travels a lot and claimed to have sailed
on all oceans, which of the following should he
NOT include?
a. Baltic
b. Artic
c. Pacific
d. Indian
98. Rocks formed by the cooling of lava are
classified as_______.
a. Igneous
b. Metamorphic
c. Sedimentary
d. Porous
99. All of the following occur in the
Troposphere except _______.
a. storms
b. tornadoes
c. cloud formations
d. aurora
100. Which of the following are not true?
I. Land breezes occur in the daytime
II. Sea breezes occur when the land is warmer than the
body of water
III. Breezes are caused by convection in the atmosphere
IV. Mountain breezes occur in the evening

a. I and IV
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III and IV
101. The cause of all changes in weather patterns
in a particular area is dependent on the _______.
a. amount of water vapor in the atmosphere
b. covalent bond
c. amount of people living in that area
d. amount of sunlight that area receives
102. Given Nitrogen (N), Oxygen (O) and Carbon
Dioxide (CO2), which item below shows the
correct order in terms of increasing abundance in
the atmosphere?
a. N, O, CO2
b. O, CO2, N
c. CO2, O, N
d. O, N, CO2
103. Factors that work together to cause changes
in atmospheric conditions include air pressure,
temperature, wind direction and
a. amount of precipitation
b. cloud cover
c. relative humidity
d. all of the above
104. The primary cause for the continuous
cycling of water in the earth is the _______.
a. wind
b. soil
c. sun
d. Earth’s rotation
105. Which statement describes both weather and
climate?
a. The ceremony was called off because of the
storm.
b. I went to the rainforest.
c. The skies are overcast today.
d. It is warm and sunny at our province.
106. From November to February, the
dominant monsoon in our country is the
_______.
a. Northwest
b. Southwest
c. Northeast
d. Southeast
107. Four students were discussing on the conditions where solar
eclipses occur. Who among them have the correct information?
I. Mark said that it occurs when the moon is between the sun and
earth
II. Melvin said that it occurs when the earth is between the sun and
moon
III. Justin said that it occurs when the sun is between the moon and the
earth
IV. Frank said that it occurs when the sun, moon and earth form 90
degree angles

a. Mark
b. Melvin
c. Justin
d. Frank
108. The base unit to measure mass is
_______.
a. Gram
b. Liter
c. Meter
d. Centimeter
109. The amount of matter in an object.
a. Mass
b. Volume
c. Matter
d. Density
110. What are the properties of matter?
a. No mass but occupies space.
b. Mass but occupies no space
c. Mass and occupies space.
d. No mass and occupies no space.
111. Which of the following does not belong
to the group?
a. Wood
b. Brick
c. Book
d. Milk
112. Why elements are the simplest form of
matter?
a. Because they are made up of atoms.
b. Because they cannot be exchanged.
c. Because they cannot be decomposed.
d. Because they are made up of substance
that are inseparable.
113. Which of the following does not belong
to the group?
a. Lemon juice
b. Beer
c. Milk shake
d. Ice cream
114. Which one is not a property of fluid?
a. It can flow.
b. It has mass.
c. It has a definite shape.
d. We can see it
115. _______ is the temperature at which a
substance changes from a liquid phase to a
gas phase.
a. Evaporation
b. Boiling point
c. Celsius
d. Fahrenheit
116. _______ contains two or more elements
chemically combined that cannot be
physically separated.
a. Compound
b. Chemical
c. Mass
d. Mixture
117. Which process is the opposite of
evaporation?
a. Melting
b. Freezing
c. Condensation
d. Boiling
118. Which of the following best describes
compounds?
a. They can be physically separated into their
constituent elements.
b. They are pure substances.
c. They have properties similar to those of their
constituent elements.
d. They have variable compositions.
119. _______ is a group of elements consists
of Flourine, Chlorine, Bromine, Iodine and
Astatine which occurs in a free state because
of their highly reactive nature.
a. noble gas
b. alkali metals
c. halogens
d. metalloids
120. Which of the following is not a metal?
a. sodium
b. lithium
c. carbon
d. mercury
121. The reaction between an acid and a base
which produces salt is known as _______.
a. neutralization
b. vaporization
c. fusion
d. bonding
122. Which of the following is an acid?
a. NACI
b. H2O
c. HCI
d. NaOH
123. A kind of mixture that is made up of a
solute and a solvent is called _______.
a. suspension
b. mixture
c. solution
d. emulsion
124. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of a gas under pressure?
a. random-moving molecules
b. liquification of gas
c. increased kinetic energy
d. collision between molecules
125. What is the resultant mixture when oil
and water are made to mix by adding soap?
a. a solution
b. an emulsion
c. a suspension
d. a tincture
126. Which of the following is the weakest
type of bond?
a. ionic or electrovalent bond
b. covalent bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. Vander Waal’s force
127. Which of the following is not an example
of organic compound?
a. Sugar
b. Acetone
c. Cyanides
d. Salt
128. Which of the following is commonly
used as indicator of acidity?
a. Litmus paper
b. Pen
c. Cartolina
d. Alcohol
129. The result when acid dissolved in water.
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. hydrogen ions
c. hydroxide ions
d. hydrogen
130. Which of the following is NOT an
example of matter?
a. heat
b. water
c. smoke
d. air
131. Vodka, rain and steel are some examples
of _______.
a. Homogeneous Mixtures
b. Heterogeneous Mixtures
c. Element
d. Compound
132. Rate of diffusion is _______.
a. increased if the temperature is increased
b. decreases if the kinetic energy decreases
c. decreases if the molecular mass is
increased
d. All of the above
133. The planets Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars
can be classified under which categories?
I. Terrestrial Planets
II. Gas Planets
III. Inner Planets
IV. Outer Planets

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I and IV
d. II and III
134. All planets in the solar system _______.
a. revolve around the Sun
b. have solid surfaces
c. have natural satellites
d. rotate in parallel axes
135. Clouds that form as ice crystals, high in
the atmosphere are known as _______.
a. cirrus clouds
b. cumulous clouds
c. stratus clouds
d. nimbus clouds
136. The device usually used to measure air
pressure is called a _______.
a. barometer
b. thermometer
c. hygrometer
d. anemometer
137. Precipitation may NOT come in the form
of ________.
a. sleet
b. smog
c. hail
d. rain
138. Twice a year, the earth experiences a day
with equal hours of day and night. These
biannual occurrences are known as_______.
a. Equinoxes
b. Seasons
c. Solstices
d. Eclipses
139. The reason why seasons change is
_______.
a. the earth’s tilt
b. the sun’s distance from the earth
c. the earth’s rotation
d. the moon’s revolution
140. Seventy-five percent (75%) of all gases in
the atmosphere is found _______.
a. in the Troposphere
b. in the Thermosphere
c. dissolved in water
d. locked in glaciers
141. Airplanes travel within the _______.
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Ionesphere
142. Marf and Luis live in the same house. When
they washed their clothes, Marf hung his clothes
outside the window while Luis hung his inside his
windowless room. A few hours later, Marf’s
clothes were already dry but Luis’ were not. Why?
a. high temperature
b. lower atmospheric pressure
c. lower cloud coverage
d. higher relative humidity
143. Rene was hired to drop dry ice crystals on
clouds with high humidity. This process is known
as _______.
a. weathering
b. precipitation
c. cloud farming
d. cloud seeding
144. Planet Vee does not have an
atmosphere. Which process will NOT happen?
a. weather patterns
b. photosynthesis
c. transmission of radio waves
d. erosion
145. On the open sea, the greatest factor in
the formation of waves is the action of
_______.
a. the movement of continental plates
b. ships crossing the ocean
c. fish swimming
d. moving masses of air
146. The Banaue Rice Terraces is a man-made
wonder whose main purpose is to _______.
a. prevent weathering
b. accelerate harvest
c. prevent erosion
d. develop new breeds of rice
147. Stalactites may be found ________.
a. formed on the ceiling of the cave
b. formed on the floor of the cave
c. around the mouth of the cave
d. outside the cave
148. Mayon volcano’s graceful cone is a result
of alternate eruptions of ash and lava. This
type of cone is considered a/an _______.
a. dome
b. cinder
c. composite
d. shield
149. Of the minerals given below, the one
with the lowest Moh’s scale rating is _______.
a. Talc
b. Diamond
c. Calcite
d. Corundum
150. When a rock forms from magma deep
into the ground, the rock is considered to be
______.
a. intrusive igneous
b. extrusive igneous
c. sedimentary
d. metamorphic
151. Which of the following is not correctly
matched?
a. Biological Weathering – action of roots of
plants
b. Mechanical Weathering – action of frost
c. Chemical Weathering - oxidation
d. None of the above
152. What would you most likely find on
islands within the Pacific Ring of Fire?
a. volcanoes
b. beaches
c. tropical rain forests
d. O
153. Franco, a meteorologist wishes to measure
the amount of water vapor in the air and how fast
the wind is blowing. He should use which set of
instruments?
a. wind vane and barometer
b. hygrometer and anemometer
c. rain gauge and wind vane
d. wet and dry bulb thermometer
154. The Earth’s revolution is responsible for
all the occurrences below EXCEPT_______.
a. Seasons
b. Solstices
c. Day and Night
d. Equinoxes
155. When an earthquake is caused by the
movement of magma towards the surface of the
crust, it is known as _______.
a. diastrophism
b. tectonic forces
c. volcanism
d. gradational
157. Alfred Wagner believed that the continents of
the earth were joined up as a single landmass
before they separated into the arrangement we
know today. What do we call this single landmass?
a. Laurasia
b. Pangea
c. Eurasia
d. Asia
158. Global Positioning Systems or GPS can
find your exact location by using _______.
a. time zones
b. the International Date Line
c. The prime meridian
d. Longitude and Latitude

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