# Energy Conservation (Bernoulli’s Equation

)
Integration of

Euler’s equation

2

1

2 dp 2 + ∫ VdV + ∫ gdz = 0 1 ρ 1

Bernoulli’s equation

p1 V1 p2 V22 + + gz1 = + + gz 2 ρ 2 ρ 2

2

Flow work + kinetic energy + potential energy = constant p ∆x Under the action of the pressure, the fluid element moves a distance ∆ x within time ∆ t A The work done per unit time ∆ W/∆ t (flow power) is

P ∆W pA∆x  p  ∆x = =   ρA  ρ  ∆t = ρAV  ρ ,   ∆t ∆t     p  1  ∆W  =  ρAV  ∆t  = work done per unit mass flow rate  ρ   

Energy Conservation (cont.)
p1 V1 p2 V22 + + z1 = + + z 2 , where γ = ρg (energy per unit weight) γ 2g γ 2g
It is valid for incompressible fluids, steady flow along a streamline, no energy loss due to friction, no heat transfer. Examples: 1 H Determine the velocity and mass flow rate of efflux from the circular hole (0.1 m dia.) at the bottom of the water tank (at this instant). The tank is open to the atmosphere and H=4 m p1 = p2, V1=0
2

V2 = 2 g ( z1 − z 2 ) = 2 gH
2

= 2 * 9.8 * 4 = 8.85 (m / s ) π  m = ρAV = 1000 * (0.1) 2 (8.85) 4 = 69.5 (kg / s )

Energy Equation(cont.)
Example: If the tank has a cross-sectional area of 1 m2, estimate the time required to drain the tank to level 2.
1 h(t) First, choose the control volume as enclosed by the dotted line. Specify h=h(t) as the water level as a function of time.
From Bernoulli' s equation, V = 2gh

2
4 4 3 h( t ) 2 1 0

water height (m)

dm = − ρAhole V dt Ahole dh (0.1)2 since m = ρAtan k h, =− V=− 2 2 gh dt Atan k 1 From mass conservation, dh = −0.0443 h , dt dh = −0.0443dt, integrate h

2.5e-007

0 0

20

40

60

80

100 100

h(t) = H − 0.0215t, h = 0, tdrain = 93 sec.

t time (sec.)

Energy conservation (cont.)
Generalized energy concept: Energy added, hA (ex. pump, compressor)

p1 V1 + + z1 γ 2g
hL loss through valves

2

p2 V2 + + z2 γ 2g
Energy extracted, hE (ex. turbine, windmill) Energy loss, hL (ex. friction, valve, expansion) hE turbine
hL loss through elbows

2

hA

heat exchanger

pump hL, friction loss through pipes condenser

Energy conservation(cont.)
p1 V1 p2 V22 Extended Bernoulli's equation, + + z1 + hA − hE − hL = + + z2 γ 2g γ 2g
Examples: Determine the efficiency of the pump if the power input of the motor is measured to be 1.5 hp. It is known that the pump delivers 300 gal/min of water. 6-in dia. pipe 4-in dia.pipe hE=hL=0, z1=z2 2 1 Q=300 gal/min=0.667 ft3/s=AV pump V1=Q/A1=3.33 ft/s zo V2=Q/A2=7.54 ft/s Z=15 in kinetic energy head gain
2

Mercury (γ m=844.9 lb/ft3) water (γ w=62.4 lb/ft3) 1 hp=550 lb-ft/s

V22 − V12 (7.54)2 − (3.33)2 = = 0.71 ft, 2g 2 * 32.2

p1 + γ w zo + γ m z = p2 + γ w zo + γ w z p2 − p1 = (γ m − γ w )z = (844.9 − 62.4) * 1.25 = 978.13 lb / ft 2

Energy conservation (cont.)
Example (cont.)

Pressure head gain: p2 − p1 97813 . = = 15.67 ( ft ) γw 62.4 p2 − p1 V22 − V12 pump work hA = + = 16.38( ft ) γw 2g
Flow power delivered by pump P = γ w QhA = (62.4)(0.667)(16.38) = 681.7( ft − lb / s) 1hp = 550 ft − lb / s P = 1.24hp Efficiency η = P Pinput = 1.24 = 0.827 = 82.7% 1.5

Frictional losses in piping system
p1 V1 p2 V22 Extended Bernoulli' s equation, + + z1 + hA − hE − hL = + + z2 γ 2g γ 2g p1 − p2 ∆p = = hL = frictional head loss γ γ P1
P2 Consider a laminar, fully developed circular pipe flow τ p
2

R: radius, D: diameter L: pipe length τ w: wall shear stress

[ p − ( p + dp)](πR 2 ) = τ w (2πR)dx,
w

P+dp

Pressure force balances frictional force 2τ w − dp = dx, integrate from 1 to 2 R

∆p p1 − p2 4τ L L Darcy’s Equation: = = hL = w = f γ γ ρg D D

τw

f ρ F IFV I where f is defined as frictional factor characterizing = G HK 2 J pressure loss due to pipe wall shear stress 4 H K
2

V F I F IF I GK HK HK2g J H
2

When the pipe flow is laminar, it can be shown (not here) that f = 64 µ ρVD , by recognizing that Re = , as Reynolds number VDρ µ

64 , frictional factor is a function of the Reynolds number Re Similarly, for a turbulent flow, f = function of Reynolds number also Therefore, f = f = F(Re). Another parameter that influences the friction is the surface roughness as relativeto the pipe diameter Such that f = F Re,

F ε I: Pipe frictional factor is a function of pipe Reynolds H DK
ε F I. HK D

ε . D

number and the relative roughness of pipe. This relation is sketched in the Moody diagram as shown in the following page. The diagram shows f as a function of the Reynolds number (Re), with a series of parametric curves related to the relative roughness

Energy Conservation (cont.)
Energy: E=U(internal thermal energy)+Emech (mechanical energy) =U+KE(kinetic energy)+PE(potential energy) Work: W=Wext (external work)+Wflow (flow work) Heat: Q heat transfer via conduction, convection & radiation dE=dQ-dW, dQ>0 net heat transfer in dE>0 energy increase and vice versa dW>0, does positive work at the expense of decreasing energy, dE<0 U=mu, u(internal energy per unit mass), KE=(1/2)mV2, PE=mgz Wflow =m(p/ρ )

V2 p   Energy flow rate: m(u + + gz ) plus Flow work rate m 2 ρ

FI GJ HK

p V2 p V2   Flow energy in = min (u + + + gz )in , Energy out = mout (u + + + gz )out ρ 2 ρ 2
Their difference is due to external heat transfer and work done on flow

Energy Conservation (cont.)
p V  in (u + + m + gz )in ρ 2
2

Heat in q=dQ/dt

p V2  min (u + + + gz ) out ρ 2

Work out dW/dt

   From mass conservation: min = mout = m From the First law of Thermodynamics (Energy Conservation): dQ p V2 p V2 dW   + m(u + + + gz )in = m(u + + + gz )out + , or dt ρ 2 ρ 2 dt dQ V2 V2 dW  (h +  (h + +m + gz )in = m + gz )out + dt 2 2 dt p where h = u + is defined as "enthaply" ρ

Energy Conservation(cont.)
Example: Superheated water vapor is entering the steam turbine with a mass flow rate of 1 kg/s and exhausting as saturated steam as shown. Heat loss from the turbine is 10 kW under the following operating condition. Determine the power output of the turbine. From superheated vapor table: P=1.4 Mpa hin =3149.5 kJ/kg T=350° C V=80 m/s dQ V2 V2 dW z=10 m   + m( h + + gz ) = m(h + + gz ) + 10 kw

dt

2

in

2

out

dt

P=0.5 Mpa 100% saturated steam = 392.8( kW ) V=50 m/s z=5 m From saturated steam table: hout =2748.7 kJ/kg

dW = ( −10) + (1)[(3149.5 − 2748.7) dt 80 2 − 50 2 (9.8)(10 − 5) + + ] 2(1000) 1000 = −10 + 400.8 + 1.95 + 0.049