Pgcet 2012 Brochure

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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS RELATED TO POST GRADUATE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST 2012 AND
SEAT ALLOTMENT PROCESS.
PRECEDING TO ENTRANCE TEST
1. The information / particulars furnished by the candidates in their PGCET-2012 online
application form are FINAL for admissions to MBA, MCA, ME/ M.Tech / M.Arch courses for the
year 2012-13.
2. Before claiming eligibility for Government seats, make sure that you satisfy any one of the
eligibility clauses detailed in Item 6 of Chapter I of the brochure. The candidates who do not
satisfy any one of the eligibility clauses will not be eligible for admission to Government seats.
3. If the information submitted by the candidates in the online application form or any other
document submitted by the candidate / parents are found to be false / incorrect, such
candidates seat will be cancelled at any point of time during his / her course of study and
criminal proceedings will be initiated by the Government against such candidate.
DURING THE ENTRANCE TEST
1. The Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for admissions to MBA, MCA, M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch
courses will be held as per the schedule given ate page 06.
2. The candidates must appear for Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for admission to MBA,
MCA, M.E. / M. Tech / M. Arch courses as per the schedule given at page 06 conducted by the
Karnataka Examinations Authority.
3. The candidates should read the instructions printed on the OMR answer sheet before
answering. The candidates have to mark the correct answers on the OMR answer sheet using
BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN ONLY.
4. After completion of the test, the candidates must affix their LEFT HAND THUMB IMPRESSION in
the space provided on the bottom portion of OMR answer sheet before handing over the same
to the room invigilator.
5. After completion of the test, the candidates will be allowed to carry replica of the filled OMR
answer sheet. Such replicas should be preserved for a period of one year.
6. THERE WILL BE NO NEGATIVE MARKING IN RESPECT OF WRONG ANSWERS BUT MARKS WILL
NOT BE AWARDED IN RESPECT OF MORE THAN ONE ANSWER INDICATED AGAINST A QUESTION
BY A CANDIDATE ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.
AFTER ENTRANCE TEST
1. The ANSWER KEY will be published within three days after the completion of the entrance test
on the KEA website. The candidates / parents / lecturers, can file their objections, if any, within
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three days in respect of any of the published answer key, along with all the supporting
documents & justification. Objections filed by the candidates without justification shall not be
considered. Objections received after the last date fixed shall not be considered. Objections
received by the KEA will be placed before an Expert Committee, whose decision will be final in
this regard.
2. The merit list will be prepared separately for MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M.Arch solely on the
basis of the marks obtained in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test without taking the
marks obtained by the candidates in the qualifying examination. The qualifying examination
marks is considered only for eligibility. Therefore, the candidates are advised to attend the
counseling only if they have the requisite percentage of marks in the qualifying examination.
(i.e., should have obtained 50% of aggregate minimum marks taken together in all the subjects
for all the years of the Degree examination. 45% of aggregate marks in all the subjects for all the
years in the Degree examination in case of candidates belonging to SC, ST and Category-I).
Therefore, mere assignment of merit / a rank to a candidate does not confer any right to select a
seat.
3. All the candidates (GM, SC, ST Category I and OBC category candidates) must compulsorily
produce the STUDY CERTIFICATE obtained from the heads of the institutions where the
candidates have passed the 10th standard / SSLC examination / PUC / Degree Examination, by
mentioning the Standards, Academic years as per the admission register of the institution.
(Refer Appendix III for study certificate proforma)
5. Candidates belonging to reserved categories should submit caste / income certificate as the case
may be, issued by the Tahasildar in Form D for SC, ST, in Form E for Category-I and in Form F
for 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B categories.
6. Please read the refund and forfeiture conditions detailed in this brochure carefully.
7. KEA will publish on its website all the details of candidates who have selected seats under
reserved category for MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M.Arch courses, such as candidates name,
fathers name, category under which seat selected, annual income of the parent etc., after the
casual vacancy round.
8. If a candidate does not surrender the seat to KEA during casual vacancy seat selection round on
or before his / her turn comes, he / she deemed to have got admitted to the seat selected by
him / her.
9. If a candidate decides to surrender his / her seat, he / she has to surrender the seat only to KEA.
Merely not reporting to the selected college should not be presumed by the candidate that he /
she has surrendered the seat to KEA.

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CALENDAR OF EVENTS
1. Date of Notification: .................................................................................... 05-06-2012
2. Commencement of Entry of Application Online ............................ 07-06-2012
3. Last Date for Entry of application ......................... 28-06-2012
4. Last date to pay the fees in the bank .................................... 30-06-2012
5. Last date to upload the Challan Journal details for having paid the fees... 03-07-2012
5. Downloading of Admission Tickets on or after ....................................... 20-07-2012
9. DATE OF PGCET-2012 (Please see Page 06 for time table): .......... 28-07-2012 &
29-07-2012
10. Date of publication of 'PGCET 2012' Answer Key: .............................. 31-07-2012
11. Last date for submission of objections, if any, regarding answer key: ... 04-08-2012
12. Date of publication of PGCET 2012 Results along with
applied answer key: .......................................................................... 14-08-2012
13. Commencement of Admission Round Seat Selection Process . 22-08-2012

In all your future correspondence with the KEA do not forget to mention either your PGCET
number or the application serial number along with complete postal address and contact
telephone / mobile number.
The Government of Karnataka established Common Entrance Test Cell in the year 1994 for
conducting of Entrance Test and to determine the merits of the candidates for admission to
Professional courses such as Medical, Dental, Indian Systems of Medicine & Homoeopathy,
Engineering / Technology & Architecture courses.
To expand the activities of the CET Cell, the Government by order no. ED. 212 TEC 2006 dated
20-12-2006 has converted the Common Entrance Test Cell in to an autonomous body
Registered under Societies Registration Act 1960 called Karnataka Examinations Authority
(KEA).
Conduct of Post Graduate Entrance Test for Admission to MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech MBA
(Infrastructure Management) courses through Karnataka Examinations Authority Government
by its Notification No. ED 205 TEC 2011 dated 20-04-2011 has authorized Karnataka
Examinations Authority to conduct Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for admission to first
year / first semester MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech courses from the year 2011-12.

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CHAPTER I
1. INTRODUCTION
The Karnataka Post Graduate Common Entrance Test-2012 is being conducted for the purpose
of determining the eligibility / merit, for admission of Karnataka and non-Karnataka candidates
to the First year or First semester of full time and part time courses in MBA / MCA and M.E. /
M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) in Government / University / Private Aided
/ Private Un-Aided professional educational institutions in the state of Karnataka for the
academic year 2012-13.
Admissions to the Government seats shall be made in accordance with the Karnataka Selection
of Candidates for Admission to Master of Business Administration and Master of Computer
Application Courses Rules, 2005 and Karnataka Selection of Candidates for Admission to
Master of Technology (M.Tech) Courses Rules, 2005 as the case may be (in short Rules ) and
as amended from time to time and therefore the details and instructions contained in this
Brochure are subject to the said Rules. In case of any discrepancy, the Rules shall prevail.
2. MODE OF CONDUCTING THE TEST
In order to obtain admission to MBA or MCA or M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure
Management) courses through KEA (No Part Time course is there in MCA), a candidate must
appear for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test - 2012, which will be conducted by the
Karnataka Examinations Authority, Bangalore (Herein after referred to as KEA). The Post
Graduate Common Entrance Test - 2012 will be conducted in specified places, spread over
Karnataka. The details of the written test are as follows:
Date and
Day
Course For Timings Marks
28-07-2012
Saturday
M.E. /
M. Tech /
M. Arch
Courses offered by VTU, UVCE,
UBDTCE.
10.30 am to 12.30 pm 100
Courses offered by Department of
Post Graduate Studies and
Research in Mathematics and
Computer Science, Kuvempu
University and Department of
Studies in Computer Science,
University of Mysore.
02.30 pm to 04.30 pm 100
29-07-2012
Sunday
MBA - 10.30 am to 12.30 pm 100
MCA - 02.30 pm to 04.30 pm 100

Based on the performance of the candidates in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test the
merit / rank list will be prepared and published. All the eligible candidates who have got the
requisite percentage of marks as the case may be will be allowed to participate during the seat
selection process in the order of their merit / rank for selecting the available seats, as per the
time schedule which will be notified later.
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3. WHO CAN APPLY?
a) For MBA:
(i) For Full Time MBA courses: A candidate who has passed any under graduate examination
or equivalent examination and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken
together in all the subjects including languages in all the years of the Degree Examination is
eligible for admission to MBA courses. 45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and
Category-I of Karnataka candidates.
(ii) For Part Time MBA courses: A candidate who has passed any under graduate
examination or equivalent examination and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks
taken together in all the subjects including languages in all the years of the Degree
Examination is eligible for admission to MBA courses. 45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC,
ST and Category-I candidates. In addition to this a candidate after obtaining the degree,
must have worked for not less than three years before the issue of notification for the
relevant year, in an establishment and must be working in an organization situated within a
radial distance of 40 km from the institution in which the candidate seeks admission.
b) For MCA; A candidate who has passed any under graduate examination or equivalent examination
with Mathematics or Statistics or Computer Science or Computer Applications or Computer
Programming or Business Mathematics or Business Statistics as one of the optional subjects or
elective and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects in all
the years of the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to MCA courses. 45% of marks in both
Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.
Provided that in respect of candidate who has studied and passed one of the subjects specified
above in Pre-University Course with fifty percent of marks in that subject shall also be considered for
admission. 45% of marks in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.
No Part Time course are offered for MCA.
c) (i) For Full Time M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) Course
v A candidate with valid GATE score as defined in item 18 of the application form.
v A candidate who has passed prescribed qualifying examination or equivalent examination as
specified in the Annexure 00 and obtained an aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken
together in all the subjects of all the years / semesters of the Degree Examination is eligible
for admission to M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses.
45% of marks in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.
(ii) For Part Time M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch courses: A candidate who has passed prescribed
qualifying examination or equivalent examination as specified in the Annexure 00 and obtained an
aggregate minimum of 50% marks taken together in all the subjects of all the years / semesters of
the Degree Examination is eligible for admission to M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch courses. 45% of marks
in Q. E. in case of SC, ST and Category-I candidates.
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In addition to this candidate after obtaining the complete degree, must have worked for not less than
three years before the issue of notification for the relevant year, in an establishment and must be
working in an organization situated within a radial distance of 40 km from the institution in which the
candidate seeks admission. However, the employer has to fill up the NOC duly signed by the
competent authority.
Not only a candidate who has passed the qualifying examination with requisite marks but
also a candidate who is appearing for the Q. E. and expecting the results is eligible to apply for
the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test 2012.
NOTE: The aggregate percentage of marks of the course of the qualifying examination
shall be calculated as follows.
Sum of the marks scored by the candidate in all the subjects of all the
examinations / semesters X 100
Aggregate Percentage of Marks =
Sum of all the maximum marks of all the subjects of all the years / semesters
Based on the performance of the candidates in the Post Graduate Common Entrance
Test, the rank list will be prepared and published for admission to MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech /
M. Arch courses. Therefore, the candidates are advised to attend the counseling only if they
have the requisite percentage of marks in the qualifying examination. (i.e., should have obtained
50% of aggregate marks of all the years of the Degree examination. 45% of aggregate marks of
all the years in the Degree Examination in case of candidates belonging to SC, ST and
Category-I)
NOTE: Candidates who do not pass in all the subjects in the qualifying examination and
candidates who do not possess the academic eligibility will not be eligible for selection of seats
in the respective courses.
The SC / ST/Category-I / OBC eligibility criteria is applicable to persons of Karnataka
origin who are claiming eligibility for Government seats under clauses (a), (b), (c), (d) and (h)
Item - 6 of Chapter I as the case may be and the same is not applicable to non-Karnataka
candidates.
NOTE: Post Graduate M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) Courses in
Engineering and Technology will be of the following categories:
a) Full-Time M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch (Two academic years consisting of four semesters)
b) Part-Time M.Tech (Three academic years consisting of six semesters)
c) Full-Time M.Tech (Three academic years consisting of Six semesters) only in the
Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and Computer
Sciences, Kuvempu University, Shimoga. Department of Post Graduate Studies in
Computer Science, University of Mysore, Mysore.
d) Full-Time MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Two academic years consisting of four
semesters)
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A candidate can opt for M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch course either under (i) Full-Time or (ii)
Part-Time category. One cannot apply for both the programs.
Candidates with valid GATE score are given first preference for admission to all M.E. / M.Tech /
M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses. Such candidates need not appear for
PGCET-2012. However, they have to apply for admission in the prescribed form. When GATE
qualified candidates are not available, seat allotment will be made to non-GATE candidates
based on the merit list of PGCET-2012. Candidates have to make sure that they have valid
qualifying marks in GATE in their respective subjects under the category to which they belong
(GM/OBC/SC/ST/PD). If they do not have the qualifying marks, they have to appear for PGCET-
2012 examination. (Refer page 13 or 19 for details about valid score in GATE).
a. VTU, UBDT and UVCE are offering all together 73 M.E. / M.Tech programs in different
disciplines with 04 M.Arch programs and one MBA (Infrastructure Management).
Candidates with B.E. / B. Tech / B.Arch. Degree or its equivalent from a recognized
University are eligible to apply to these courses. A non-GATE candidate seeking
admission to any of these courses should appear for PGCET-2012 Test as per the
schedule under appropriate Board corresponding to their basic (qualifying / qualified)
degree, irrespective of M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)
courses for which the candidate is eligible.
b. Candidate with B.Sc. degree from recognized University with Mathematics as one of the
subjects or B.E. / B. Tech / B.Sc. (Engineering) are eligible of M.Tech Programs offered
by Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and Computer
Science of Kuvempu University.
Candidates with BE / B. Tech. MCA, MBA and M.Sc. degree, with conditions specified
under detailed eligibility criteria (Appendix- V) from recognized Universities are eligible for
Department of Studies in Computer Science, University of Mysore, Mysore. A non-GATE
candidate seeking admission to the M.Tech program should appear for PGCET-2012 as per the
schedule. Separate applications should be submitted, if the candidate is seeking admission to
both (a) and (b) of the above.
c. Sponsored candidates claiming seat under sponsored quota are not entitled for claiming
seat under any other quota.
d. M.Tech part time program shall be conducted only if number of candidates admitted is
eight or more.
e. Sponsored Candidate: A candidate having served as a full time employee for a minimum
period of Three Years either continuously or in broken periods. Experience in the
relevant field from registered firm / company / industry / educational institution / research
institution / Government Department / Autonomous department or autonomous
organization is considered, after the qualifying examination, up to the date of notification.
However, candidate has to submit an undertaking from the employer, saying that the
candidate is a full time employee and will not be withdrawn from the course till the
completion of the course. Part Time / Trainee / Guest faculty will not be considered as
sponsored candidate.
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GATE Scholarship:
a. For receiving GATE Scholarship, a candidate must have a valid GATE Score. (Refer
page 13 or 19)
b. Candidates with valid GATE score, opting seats under Sponsored Quota, are not entitled
for GATE stipend.
c. SC/ST/OBC candidates with valid GATE Score claiming any other scholarship from
Government of Karnataka / India are not entitled for GATE Scholarship.
d. Candidates with valid GATE score opting for seat under Part-Time M.E. / M.Tech
Program are not entitled for GATE stipend.
e. Applications for GATE scholarship from AICTE will be processed by the respective
colleges where the candidates take admission and KEA has no responsibility in getting
GATE scholarship to them.
4. HOW TO SUBMIT APPLICATION FORM ONLINE?
The candidates have to enter the application details online by browsing the URL on web
http://kea.kar.nic.in . The detailed instructions are appended in the same website. Candidates
have to visit the website and read instructions carefully to follow the same.
The application form is common for Post Graduate all courses like MBA, MCA, M.E. /
M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management). Before entering the application
form online make sure that you are having all the necessary documents for
reference.

PLEASE NOTE: The details entered on the online application form will directly be updated
on to the KEA server. Therefore, the candidates are advised not to enter any fields wrongly
or should not be left blank. If any field is not applicable then enter all such field as NA (Not
Applicable).
IMPORTANT: IF ANY OF THE INFORMATION FURNISHED BY THE CANDIDATES IN
THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM IS FOUND TO BE FALSE / INCORRECT, SUCH
APPLICATION IS LIABLE TO BE REJECTED AT ANY POINT OF TIME and the seat
selected / allotted to the candidate, if any, is also liable to be cancelled at any stage and the
entire fee amount paid by such candidate shall be forfeited.
1. Course / courses applied for PGCET-2012: Candidate has to select the course to
which he is interested to apply for PGCET-2012 for admission to MBA, MCA, ME /
M.Tech / M.Arch./ MBA (Infrastructure Management). Application is common for all the
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courses. One can apply only for MBA or for both MBA and MCA or for all three courses
i.e., MBA, MCA and ME / M.Tech courses.
(a) Only MBA
(b) Only MCA
(c) Only ME/ M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)
(d) MBA and MCA
(e) MCA and ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)
(f) MBA and ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/MBA (Infrastructure Management)
(g) MBA and MCA and ME/M.Tech/M.Arch/MBA (Infrastructure Management)
2. Part Time / Full Time: Only for MBA and ME / M.Tech Courses. (There is no Part Time
course for MCA) Select the appropriate circle against the course.
3. Name of the Candidate: Enter your name as it is in the 2
nd
PUC or 12
th
Standard
records. There should be no variation in the form or spelling.
For Example: If the name is SARTHAK RAJU then enter the name as shown below:
S A R T H A K R A J U
4. Date of Birth: Select your date of birth from the drop down menu. It should be as it is
in the SSLC / 10th standard marks card.
For Example: If the date of birth is 15-10-1993, then the same should be selected as:
1 5 1 0 1 9 9 3

5. SEX: ENTER M IF MALE; F IF FEMALE.
6. Quota: If you satisfy any one of the eligibility clauses mentioned in the eligibility
conditions then enter the field with correct letter against Karnataka quota.
If you do not satisfy the eligibility conditions then you have to enter Y against
non-Karnataka.
7. TOTAL NUMBER OF YEARS OF STUDY in the State of Karnataka from 1
st
standard
to qualifying examination should be selected from the dropdown menu.
8. ENTER THE Name of the place where you wish to write PGCET 2012:
(Refer DETAILS FROM DROP DOWN MENU and select name of the place where
you wish to write PGCET 2012.)
For Example: If you like to write in DAVANGERE , then select DAVANGERE from
drop down menu.
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9. Telephone details: enter your residence telephone number and the mobile phone
number invariably, along with the STD codes in the space provided. If the residence
and mobile phone numbers are not available, then mention any available contact
number.
10. Full Postal Address: Candidates should carefully write their complete postal address
within the space provided in BLOCK LETTERS to which all correspondence can be
reached speedily.
11. Reserved Category CODE: Select the Reserved category CODE from the dropdown
menu that you belong to from among the reserved category CODES.
NAME OF THE
CATEGORY
CODE NAME OF THE CATEGORY CODE
Category 1 01 Category 3B 3B
Category 2A 2A Scheduled Castes SC
Category 2B 2B Scheduled Tribes ST
Category 3A 3A General Merit GM

And Name of the Caste: Enter name of the caste within the space provided.
12. Annual Income: Enter the Annual Income of parents from all sources, in the space
provided.
NOTE: All the candidates claiming reservation benefits should produce original Caste /
Caste Income certificate at the time of Verification of Documents. The Caste /
Category and the income in the caste certificate should be the same as Caste /
Category and Income mentioned in the application form. Otherwise, such candidates
will not be considered for allotment of seats under the reserved categories and will be
treated on par with a General Merit candidate, if they fulfill the General Merit eligibility
criteria.
13. Enter CODE of the Native State as per the State Codes given in APPENDIX II
instruction sheet. If your Native State is KARNATAKA, then enter CODE of the
Native District and the CODE of Native Taluk , as per APPENDIX - II.
14. Qualifying Degree: Enter (or select from Dropdown Menu) the name of the Degree
which you have passed or appeared.
15. Branch of Degree / Specialization: Enter the name of the branch or specialization which
you have selected in the qualifying degree.
16. Qualification Details: Write all the details with regard to year of passing, maximum
marks, marks obtained and total maximum marks and total obtained in all the subjects.
If the results are awaited for a particular semester / year then indicate RA in the
remarks column.
17. Study Details: All the candidates should write enter academic study details between
1
st
and qualifying examination in the space provided. They are required to write full
name and address of the institutions studied and the respective telephone numbers
with STD codes, the academic years of study and the year of passing.
(Item no. 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22 to be filled by M.E. / M.Tech candidates only)
Page 13 of 57

18. If you have appeared for GATE during 2011 or 2012 then write the GATE code, then write the
marks obtained in the GATE exam and the GATE stream.
WHAT IS VALID GATE SCORE: GATE score are usually valid for two years, for example if you
have appeared for GATE in 2011 and your marks are above qualifying marks, you are eligible to
apply in 2012 for M.E. courses. But in 2013 your score is considered as invalid.
The next condition is about qualifying marks. Mere getting score does not show that its valid
GATE score. Your score is ONLY VALID when it is above or equal to the score of qualifying
marks. For example, if you have scored 20 marks and the qualifying marks for that year are
mentioned as 25, then your GATE score is NOT VALID. Then you have to appear for PGCET-
2012 examination.
Another question may arise, for this year I got 20 marks and qualifying score was 25, if next
year qualifying marks decreased to 22, does it make my score valid? The simple answer is NO.
The results for the same years will be considered as valid and invalid scores.
19. Details of Type A and Type-B.: If you are appearing for VTU, UVCE and UBDTCE courses,
detailed in Appendix 1 from 1 to 00 then select the circle against Type-A, OR if you are
appearing for the courses i.e., Department of PG studies and research in Mathematics and
Computer Science, Kuvempu University and Department of Studies in Computer Science,
Mysore University then select shade the circle against Type-B.
20. If you are appearing for VTU, UVCE and UBDTCE courses i.e., Type-A, then write the course
code that you are appearing for PGCET as per the Course CODES given below: It is the
responsibility of the candidate to enter the correct course code. KEA will not take the
responsibility of changing the course code at a later date. The candidates must be careful while
entering the course codes. There will be a separate question paper for each course. If a
candidate enters the wrong course code then he / she will be provided the question paper of
that course only.
The respective courses and codes are as follows:
Course Code and Course Name

Course Code and Course Name
01 Civil Engineering 05 Textile Technology
02 Computer Science Engineering 06- Mechanical Science
03 Chemical Engineering 07- Electrical Science
04 Environmental Engineering 08- Polymer Science
09- Architecture

Mechanical Science includes the following branches. The candidates who have studied the following
branches in the qualifying examination should select the course code as Mechanical Sciences.
a. Mechanical Engineering
b. Industrial and Production Engineering
c. Industrial and Engineering Management
d. Automobile Engineering
e. Manufacturing Science and Engineering
f. Allied Branches of Mechanical Science.
Page 14 of 57

Electrical Science includes the following branches. The candidates who have studied following
branches in the qualifying examination should select the course code as Electrical Science.

a. Electrical and Electronics Engineering
b. Electronics and Communication Engineering
c. Telecommunication Engineering
d. Instrumentation Technology
e. Bio-Medical Engineering
f. Medical Electronics
g. Allied Branches of Electrical Science

21. USN: Enter the University Seat Number assigned by the concerned University in the space provided.

22. Sponsored: If you are appearing under sponsored scheme then enter Y.

Sponsored Candidate: A candidate having served as a full time employee for a minimum
period of Three Years either continuously or in broken periods. Experience in the relevant
field from registered firm / company / industry / educational institution / research institution /
Government Department / Autonomous department or autonomous organization is
considered, after the qualifying examination, up to the date of notification. However,
candidate has to submit an undertaking from the employer, saying that the candidate is full
time employee and will not be withdrawn from the course till the completion of the course.
Part Time / Trainee / Guest faculty will not be considered as sponsored candidate.

CANDIDATES PHOTOGRAPH: UPLOAD A RECENT PASSPORT SIZE PHOTOGRAPH.
(CHECK THE SIZE DETAILS BEFORE UPLOADING)
IMPORTANT: If the photograph uploaded does not match with the actual candidate present
during examination, he / she will not be allowed to write the test. Also, if the photograph
does not tally with the actual candidate present during seat selection, he / she will not be
permitted to select the seat.
ASSIGNMENT OF EXAM CENTRES
Based on the information furnished by the candidate in the application, the examination centre
will be assigned by KEA.
ELIGIBILITY FOR GOVERNMENT SEATS
Candidates who satisfy one of the following Clauses / Eligibility Criteria ONLY will be treated as
Karnataka Candidates. Each condition is specified as a clause and is individually referred by a
code. The documents to be produced during seat selection process in support of the claim for
each of the Clauses are also detailed below the respective clauses.
Page 15 of 57

The candidates who do not satisfy any of the Clauses / Eligibility Criteria detailed below will be
treated as non-Karnataka candidates and such candidates are eligible to select ONLY the seats
surrendered by the management if any.
The candidates who do not produce the prescribed documents in original will not be eligible for
admission to Postgraduate Courses under Government seats through KEA.
For MBA
ELIGIBILITY CLAUSES CODES
The candidate should have studied and passed in one or more Government or
Government recognised educational institutions located in the State of Karnataka for a
minimum period of SEVEN academic years commencing from 1
st
standard to Qualifying
Examination either continuously or in broken period as on 1
st
July of the year in which the
Entrance Test is held and must have appeared and passed either SSLC / 10
th
standard or
2
nd
PUC / 12
th
standard examination in a Government recognized institutions located in
Karnataka State. In case of the candidate who had taken more than one year to pass a
class or standard, the years of academic study is counted as one year only.
a
Documents to be produced:
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
standard Marks Card and
3. QE marks card of the candidate
4. Candidates Study Certificate; If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by
Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F.
The candidate should have studied and passed the qualifying examination within the State
of Karnataka from an Educational Institution run or recognized by the State Government
and that either of the parents should have studied in Government recognized institutions in
Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years.
b
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
3. QE marks card of the candidate;
4. If claiming reservation benefits:- Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-
D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F., along with
5. (a) a certificate for either of the parent having studied for at least 7 years in Karnataka from the Head of the
educational institution where he / she had studied.
(b) the candidates study certificate for having studied Qualifying Examination in Karnataka issued by the
head of the educational institution.
Son or daughter of an ex-servicemen who at the time of joining the defence service had
declared a place in Karnataka as his home town, proof of such domicile should be
obtained and produced from the Deputy Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and
Resettlement . Further, the candidate should have passed the Q. E. from a University or
Board or any other institution located anywhere in India.
h
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card.
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
standard Marks Card of the candidate;
3. QE marks card of the candidate.
D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F, along with the
Page 16 of 57

5. Parents home town declaration certificate while joining the service issued by the Joint Director / Deputy
Director of the concerned district and countersigned by the Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and
Resettlement, Bangalore.

For MCA
The candidate should have studied and passed in one or more Government or
Government recognised educational institutions located in the State of Karnataka for a
minimum period of SEVEN academic years commencing from 1
st
standard to Qualifying
Examination either continuously or in broken period as on 1
st
July of the year in which the
Entrance Test is held and must have appeared and passed either SSLC / 10
th
standard or
2
nd
PUC / 12
th
standard examination from Karnataka State. In case of the candidate who
had taken more than one year to pass a class or standard, the years of academic study is
counted as one year only.
a
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card,
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
3. QE marks card of the candidate,
4. Candidates Study Certificate;
5. If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-
D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F.
The candidate should have studied and passed Qualifying Examination within the State of
Karnataka from an Educational Institution run or recognized by the State Government and
that either of the parents should have studied in Government recognized institutions in
Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years.
b
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
3. QE Marks Card of the Candidate
D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F., along with
5. (a) a certificate for either of the parent having studied for at least 7 years in Karnataka from the Head of the
educational institution where he / she had studied.
(b) the candidates study certificate for having Qualifying Examination in Karnataka issued by the head of
the educational institution.
Son or daughter of an ex-servicemen who at the time of joining the defence service had
declared a place in Karnataka as his home town, proof of such domicile should be
obtained and produced from the Deputy Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and
Resettlement . Further, the candidate should have passed the Q. E. from a University or
Board or any other institution located anywhere in India.
h
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
3. QE Marks Card of the candidate
4. If claiming reservation benefits :- Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-
D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F, along with the
Page 17 of 57

5. Parents home town declaration certificate while joining the service issued by the Joint Director / Deputy
Director of the concerned district and countersigned by the Director, Department of Sainik Welfare and
Resettlement, Bangalore.

For ME / M.Tech
The candidate should have studied and passed in one or more Government or Government
recognized educational institutions located in the State of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN
academic years commencing from 1st standard to qualifying examination either continuously or in
broken period as on 1
st
July of the year in which the Entrance Test is held in a Government
recognized institutions located in Karnataka State. In case of the candidate who had taken more than
one year to pass a class or standard, the years of academic study is counted as one year only.
a
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
standard Marks Card of the candidate,
3. QE Marks Card of the candidate
4. Candidates Study Certificate;
5. If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in
Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F.
The candidate should have studied and passed the qualifying examination within the State of Karnataka from
an Educational Institution run or recognized by the State Government
b
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
4. Candidates Study Certificate; If claiming reservation benefits: Caste / Caste Income Certificate issued
by Tahsildar- For SC / ST in Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F along
with the
5. Candidates study certificate for having studied and passed the Qualifying Examination in Karnataka
issued by the head of the educational institution.
Candidates either of the parents should have studied in Government recognized institutions in Karnataka for a
minimum period of SEVEN Years.
c
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
3. QE marks card of the candidate
Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F along with
5. Study certificate for either of the parent having studied for at least 7 years in Karnataka from the Head
of the educational institution where he / she had studied.
A candidate or a parent of the candidate has been resided in Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years.
d
1. SSLC / 10
th
standard Marks Card
2. 2
nd
PUC / 12
th
Page 18 of 57

Form-D, Category-I in form E and 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in Form F along with the
5. Candidates / parents residential in the state of Karnataka for a minimum period of SEVEN years
issued by the competent authority.

NOTE: In case, if any of the documents produced in respect of the Clause claimed by the
candidate is found to be false / incorrect, the seat selected by the candidate will be cancelled at
any stage and the entire fee amount paid by such candidate will be forfeited.

7. RESERVATION OF SEATS IN FAVOUR OF CERTAIN CATEGORIES CODES
Reservation for Ex-Defence Special category :- Son or daughter of Ex-Servicemen
falling under Item 6(h) of Chapter - I of the Brochure should obtain and produce a
certificate showing the home address of the parent issued by the Joint Director /
Deputy Director of the concerned district and countersigned by the Director,
Department of Sainik Welfare and Resettlement, Bangalore failing which they will not
be allowed for verification of certificates and also for later seat selection under Ex-
Defence. Ex-Servicemen for the purpose of this clause includes personnel
belonging to the Civil GT COYS ASC who were Civilian Class III or Class IV
Government Servants, who became permanently disabled or were killed during
hostilities.
Note: This ex-defence reservation benefit is not applicable to ME / M.Tech / M.Arch
courses.
U
Reservation for Physically Disabled Special category:- The candidates claiming
reservation under this category will be required to appear for Medical examination on
the specified date before a Committee comprising of the Executive Director, KEA as
Chairman and three specialists from the Department of Orthopedics, Ophthalmology
and ENT, nominated by the Government. Candidates with physical disability ranging
above 40% should produce a Medical certificate issued by competent Doctor of any
Government Hospital located in the State of Karnataka in the field of concerned
disability, on the day of Medical examination only. Candidates suffering from hearing
disability should compulsorily obtain and produce a BSER (Brain Stem Evoked
Response) Audiometry report from NIMHANS / Manipal Hospital / Government
Speech and Hearing Institute, Lingarajapuram, Bangalore. The Medical Board will
examine the candidate and certificate and certify regarding the percentage of disability
and the decision of the Medical Board is final. For the purpose of this proviso, persons
with disability shall have the same meaning assigned to it as in the Persons with
Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Participation) Act 1995
(Central Act 1 / 1995). The candidates with disability less than 40% will not be eligible
for claiming a seat under Physically Disabled category.
v
NOTE: 1. The Physically Disabled candidates, who fail to appear before the Committee for
Medical examination on specified date will not be eligible for selection of a seat
under Physically Disabled category.
2. As per rule 39 of the Persons with Disabilities (equal opportunities protection of
rights and full participation) act, 1995, 3% of seats only in Government and
Government Aided colleges are reserved.

Page 19 of 57

(2) RESERVATION FOR RESERVED CATEGORY CANDIDATES
(ONLY FOR KARNATAKA CANDIDATES)
Reservation is made in favour of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
Tribes and Other Backward Classes of citizens under categories 1, 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in
accordance with Government Order No. SWL 251 BCA 94 dated 31st January 1995, as
amended from time to time.
Production of a Caste Certificate / Caste Income Certificate issued by the concerned
Jurisdictional Tahasildar in accordance with the Government order No. Sa Ka E 225 BCA 2002
dated 30th March 2002, as amended from time to time, in Form D in case of Scheduled Castes
& Scheduled Tribes; in Form E in case of Category-I; in Form F in case of Other Backward
Classes like 2A, 2B, 3A and 3B in support of the claim is mandatory for selecting a seat under
reserved category.
Provided that candidates belonging to SC, ST & Category - I should produce an Income
certificate issued by Jurisdictional Tahasildar in the prescribed format. (This is for the purpose of
processing eligibility of candidates to claim Government of India scholarship).
Provided further that only candidates of Karnataka origin and who are claiming eligibility for
Government seats in accordance with clause (a), (b), (c) (d) and (h) of Item - 6 of Chapter I for
the respective courses shall be eligible to claim the benefit of reservation under this sub-rule.
The non-Karnataka candidates are not eligible to claim benefit of reservation.
The interse merit determined under Rule - 6 (Please see Item - 4 of Chapter - II) will remain the
same for the purpose of eligibility and benefit of reservation under Item - 8 of Chapter - I. If any
seat reserved in favour of candidates belonging to any of the categories referred to from (1) to
(4) above is not filled up due to non-availability of eligible candidates belonging to such
categories, the reservation to that extent will stand reduced and will be transferred to the
General Merit category during Casual vacancy round seat selection.

WHAT IS VALID GATE SCORE?
GATE score are usually valid for two years, for example if you have appeared for GATE
in 2011 and your marks are above qualifying marks, you are eligible to apply in 2012 for M.E.
courses. But in 2013 your score is considered as invalid.
The next condition is about qualifying marks. Mere getting score does not show that its
valid GATE score. Your score is ONLY VALID when it is above or equal to the score of
qualifying marks. For example, if you have scored 20 marks and the qualifying marks for that
year are mentioned as 25, then your GATE score is NOT VALID. Then you have to appear for
PGCET-2012 examination.
Another question may arise, for this year I got 20 marks and qualifying score was 25, if
next year qualifying marks decreased to 22, does it make my score valid? The simple answer is
NO. The results for the same years will be considered as valid and invalid scores.

Page 20 of 57

In all your future correspondence with the KEA do not forget to mention either your PGCET
number or the computer generated application serial number along with complete postal
address and contact telephone / mobile number.

KARNATAKA EXAMINATIONS AUTHORITY
Sampige Road, 18th Cross, Malleshwaram, Bangalore - 560 012.
Phone : 080 - 23461575, 23462758, 23462599 Fax : 080 - 23461576
e-mail : keauthority-ka@nic.in Website : http://kea.kar.nic.in

Page 21 of 57

CHAPTER II
MORE ABOUT THE WRITTEN TEST
1. SYLLABUS For MBA
MBA: The broad outline syllabus for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for MBA PG
Courses is detailed below:

1.Proficiency in English Language:
(Section A)
a. Synonyms
b. Antonyms
c. One word Substitution
d. Idioms and phrases
e. Pairs expressing relationships
f. Grammar
g. Famous Books in English Literature
h. Sentence Correction

2. General Knowledge : (Section - B)
a. Indian Business Environment
b. Global Environment
c. Social Events
d. Cultural Events
e. Economics
f. Management
g. Political Events
h. Historical Events
I. Current Affairs
j. Sports
k. Awards
l. Personalities and Achievements
m. Science and Technology
n. Humanities

3. Test of Reasoning and General
Intelligence (Section C)
a. Puzzles
b. Diagrams
c. Analogy
d. Logic
e. Verbal Ability
f. Analytical Ability
g. Related Aspects

4. Quantitative Analysis (Section D)
a. Arithmetic
b. Data Analysis and Interpretation
c. Statistics
d. Related Quantitative Aspects

SYLLABUS For MCA
MCA: The question papers of the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for MCA PG Courses
are detailed below: The syllabus shall comprise of the following broad areas.
1. Mathematics.
Algebra : Fundamental operations in Algebra, Expansion, Factorization, Simultaneous Linear /
Quadratic equations, Indices, Logarithms, Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions,
Binomial Theorem, Permutations and Combinations, Surds, Determinants, Matrices and
application to solution of simultaneous linear equations.
Page 22 of 57

Co-Ordinate Geometry: Rectangular Cartesian co-ordinates, Equations of Line, Mid-point,
Intersections etc, Equations of a Circle, Distance formulae, Pair of straight lines, Parabola,
Ellipse and Hyperbola, Simple Geometric transformations such as Translation, Rotation,
Scaling.
Vector: Position vector, addition and subtraction of Vectors, Scalar and Vector products.
Trigonometry: Simple identities, Trigonometric equations, Properties of Triangles, Inverse
function.
Probability and Statistics: Basic concept of Probability theory, Averages, Dependent and
Independent events, Frequency distributions and measures of dispersions, Skewness and
Kurtosis, Random variable and Distribution functions, Mathematical Expectations, Binomial,
Poisson, Normal distributions, Curve fitting and Principle of Least Squares, Correlation and
Regression.
2. Computer Awareness:
Computer Basics : Organization of a computer, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Input / Output
devices, Computer Memory, Back-up devices, Computer Languages, Operating Systems.
Data Representation: Representation of Characters, Integers and Fractions, Binary and
Hexadecimal representations, Binary Arithmetic: Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division,
Two s complement arithmetic, Floating-point representation of numbers, Normalized Floating-
point representation.
3. Analytical Ability and Logical Reasoning:
The question in this section will cover Logical Reasoning, Quantitative reasoning and
Visuo-spatial reasoning.
4. General Awareness:
This section shall carry questions to test the general awareness about Business,
Finance, Industry, Transportation, Scientific inventions, Governance, Healthcare and Cultural
dimensions etc.
5. General English:
Questions on Grammar and Vocabulary.

SYLLABUS For ME / M.Tech / M.Arch
The broad outline syllabus for the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test for M.E. / M.Tech. /
M.Arch. / MBA (Infrastructure Management) PG Courses and model question paper is updated
on the KEA website http://kea.kar.nic.in.
Page 23 of 57

2. DURATION, QUESTION PAPER AND OMR ANSWER SHEETS
Model Question Paper: It is provided in APPENDIX V.
The PGCET-2012 will be held in one session separately for MBA, conducted for 100 marks
each with 150 minutes duration. Each question paper will be of (Objective) Multiple Choice type.
The question paper will be in four different versions. Each question will have four different
options. Each question will carry ONE mark.
The PGCET-2012 will be held in one session separately for MCA courses conducted for 100
marks with 150 minutes duration. Each question paper will be of (Objective) Multiple Choice
type. The question paper will be in four different versions. Each question will have four different
options. 60 questions in Part - A carry one mark each. 20 questions in Part - B carry two marks
each. Thus there will be 80 questions and a total mark is 100.
The PGCET-2012 will be held in two sessions separately for ME / M.Tech / M.Arch conducted
100 marks with 150 minutes duration. Each question paper will be of (Objective) Multiple Choice
type. The question paper will be in four different versions. Each question will have four different
options. The different types of question paper pattern for ME / M.Tech / M.Arch courses are as
follows:
Question Paper Pattern:
A) M.Tech of Department of Post Graduate Studies and Research in Mathematics and
Computer Science of Kuvempu University and Department of Studies in Computer
Science, University of Mysore, is as follows:

Total Number of Questions : 75 Multiple Choice Questions
Total Marks : 100
50 Questions 1 Mark each : 50 X 1 = 50
Total : 100 Marks
B) M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) programs of VTU / UBDTCE
and UVCE

(I) Written Test will be conducted in NINE disciplines
i) Civil Engineering
ii) Chemical Engineering
iii) Computer Science Engineering
iv) Environmental Engineering
v) Textile Engineering
vi) Polymer Science
vii) Architecture

Page 24 of 57

Total Number of Questions : 75 Multiple Choice Questions
Total Marks : 100
Total : 100 Marks

(II) viii) Electrical Science, this includes
a) Electrical and Electronics Engineering (E & E)
b) Electronics and Communication Engineering (E & C)
c) Telecommunication Engineering (TC)
d) Instrumentation Technology (IT)
e) Bio-Medical Engineering (BME)
f) Medical Electronics (ME)
g) Allied branches of Electrical Science (ABE)

Question paper will consist of part-A and part-B.
Part-A is common to
h) Electrical and Electronics Engineering (E & E)
i) Electronics and Communication Engineering (E & C)
j) Telecommunication Engineering (TC)
k) Instrumentation Technology (IT)
l) Bio-Medical Engineering (BME)
m) Medical Electronics (ME)
n) Allied branches of Electrical Science (ABE)
Total Number of Questions : 45 Marks: 60
30 Questions Carrying 1 mark each : 30 X 1 = 30
15 Questions carrying 2 mark each : 15 X 2 = 30
Part-B is specific to candidates belonging to respective branch of specialization of
engineering and consists of total number of questions: 30 Marks: 40

Page 25 of 57

Marks = 40
Grand Total Part A + Part-B = 75 Questions = 100 marks
ix) Mechanical Science, this includes
a) Mechanical Engineering (MC)
b) Industrial and Production Engineering (IPE)
c) Industrial and Engineering Management (IEM)
d) Automobile Engineering (AE)
e) Manufacturing Science and Engineering (MSE)
f) Allied Branches of Mechanical Science (ABM)
Question paper will consist of Part-A and Part-B.
Part-A is common to (a) M.E. (b) IPE (c) IEM (d) AE (e) MSE (f) ABM
Total number of questions : 45 Marks: 60
30 questions carrying 1 mark each : 30 X 1 = 30
15 questions carrying 2 mark each : 15 X 2 = 30
Total: 60 Marks
Part-B is specific to candidates belonging to respective branch of specialization of
engineering and consists of
Total number of questions: 30 Marks: 40
20 Questions carrying 1 Mark each : 20 X 1 = 20
Total: 40 Marks
Grand Total: Part-A + Part-B = 75 questions Marks = 100
Books / Tables / Mechanical Charts / Programmable Electronic aids / Cell Phones are
not permitted in the examination hall Possession of these items in the examination hall is
considered as malpractice and disciplinary action will be taken by the concerned examination
conducting authorities.
Page 26 of 57

All questions are compulsory. In other words, there is no choice among questions. Candidate is
expected to attempt all the questions, in order to obtain maximum marks.
All questions are compulsory. In other words, there is no choice among questions. Candidate is
expected to attempt all the questions, in order to obtain maximum marks. THERE WILL BE NO
NEGATIVE EVALUATION WITH REGARD TO WRONG ANSWERS BUT MARKS WILL NOT
BE AWARDED IN RESPECT OF MULTIPLE ANSWERS. The version code of the question
paper will be boldly printed on facing sheet of the question paper. The version codes used in
each paper will be from A - 1 to A - 4.
COMPULSORY: Initial TEN minutes will be given for the candidates to write / shade the
particulars such as Name, PG CET Number, Version Code and Serial number of the question
booklet on the OMR answer sheet in the boxes provided. The candidates who do not write /
shade the correct PGCET Number and Version Code on the OMR answer sheets, the OMR
answer sheets of such candidates will not be scanned and will not be assigned any rank.
The candidates will have to mark correct options on the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer
sheet, which will be supplied at the beginning of the test.
Among the four options provided against a question, only one answer will be correct. The
candidate should mark the correct answer by completely shading only one circle against a
question number, using BLUE or BLACK ink ball point pen. More details about precautions to be
taken while filling the particulars on OMR answer sheet is given below. The OMR answer sheet
comprises of two sheets. The top sheet will be used for the purpose of marking correct answers
and later scanning & evaluation and the bottom sheet will be returned to the candidates after
completion of the test. The bottom sheet is coated with a special kind of chemical which acts as
Carbon. When the candidate fills the circles on the top sheet, the pressure on the bottom sheet
will automatically create a replica of the top sheet.
The candidates are required to COMPULSORILY AFFIX THEIR LEFT HAND THUMB
IMPRESSION in the space provided on the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet (top sheet)
with the ink-pad provided by the room Invigilator, after completion of the test. However, they
need not affix their thumb impression on the replica (bottom sheet) of the OMR answer sheet.
Thereafter, the invigilators will detach the bottom sheet from the top sheet at the perforations
and hand over the bottom sheet replica to the candidates and they are allowed to carry the
same with them. The top sheet will be retained by the invigilator for returning the same to the
Deputy Chief Superintendent of the examination center and in turn to KEA.
NOTE: The OMR answer sheets in respect of all the candidates who have affixed their left hand
thumb impression will only be scanned and the results in respect of such candidates will be
published. The OMR answer sheets in respect of candidates who have not affixed their left hand
thumb impression, for any reason, will not be scanned. Also, the results in respect of such
candidates will not be published.

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Optical Mark Reader sheets as Answer Sheets
The need for the replica has compelled us to design OMR sheet in such a way that all the
information and the answers are marked only on one side. The top portion of the sheet is meant
for furnishing the particulars about the candidates such as the Name, PGCET Number, Version
code and serial number of the question booklet. The bottom portion is meant for marking the
answers, affixing the signature of the room Invigilator & candidates and also for affixing the Left
Hand Thumb Impression of the candidate. The space meant for the subject would have been
pre-marked. The square blocks in each item should be filled by the candidate in capital letters
and numbers. The circles corresponding to the letters or numbers are meant to be completely
shaded using blue or black ink ballpoint pen only.

Why Ball Point Pen?
Remember, we are allowing the candidates to carry home a replica or facsimile of the OMR
answer sheet and the OMR answer paper comes in a set of two sheets. When you shade the
top sheet, the pressure will create a dark mark on the bottom sheet on the corresponding circle.
If a pen with a nib is used, the pressure on the top sheet will not be sufficient to activate the
chemical on the bottom sheet. On the other hand, a ballpoint pen exerts sufficient pressure to
convert the bottom sheet chemical into a dark spot. That is why we want you to use a blue /
black ink ballpoint pen only.
Important precautions to be taken while writing / shading Top portion of
OMR Answer Sheet
The initial TEN minutes will be given to a candidate, for writing / shading the particulars on the
top portion of the OMR answer sheet, wherein the candidates are required to write their Name
within the boxes, write their PGCET Number in the boxes and shade the respective circles, write
the Question booklet version code in the boxes and shade the respective circle in the required
manner. The candidates are also required to write the Question booklet serial number. Of the
five items, entries pertaining to Name , PGCET Number and Question booklet Version code
are very crucial ones. Therefore, candidates are advised to take extra precaution while writing
and shading these three items accurately on the top portion of the OMR answer sheet.
Important precautions to be taken while shading answers on bottom portion of OMR Answer
sheet.
After the initial TEN minutes 120 minutes will be given to a candidate for shading the answers
on the bottom portion of the OMR answer sheet. Against each question number, four circles will
be provided corresponding to four options of the question paper. The candidates are required to
shade only one circle corresponding to the correct answer.
The scanner is so sensitive to black and blue ink shades that even a slight residual ink mark or
an unintended ink dot within a circle on the OMR answer sheet will be taken by it, as filled /
shaded, at the time of scanning. Consequently, the candidate may lose marks. Therefore,
please do not make any stray pen marks on the OMR answer sheets. As the scoring done by
the scanner and the computer in tandem is final, a plea for erasing or neglecting the ink mark on
a circle cannot be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to take extra precaution while
shading the circles on the bottom portion.
Page 28 of 57

THINK BEFORE YOU INK!
Once you darken a circle, there is no way to erase or to remove it. That way, your decision
about a correct answer will be final. The invigilator will not permit you to use marker, white fluid
or any other device to hide the shading already done and you will not be supplied with one more
set of OMR sheet. If you spoil a sheet in your attempt to rub off the shading done on a circle,
you may ruin your opportunities. If two circles are shaded in a row and even if one of the circles
is partially rubbed off, the scanner will take it as a multiple attempt. Therefore, think twice before
you shade a circle with ink. Darken only one circle for each question as shown against the
CORRECT METHOD.
CORRECT METHOD OF SHADING
WRONG METHOD OF SHADING

The candidates should invariably preserve their PGCET 2012 OMR answer sheet replica
for a minimum period of one year from the date of obtaining the admission order.

3. DETERMINATION OF MERIT AND PUBLICATION OF MERIT LISTS
(A) DETERMINATION OF MERIT:
The merit of the candidate, who appears for Post Graduate Common Entrance Test
2012 for MBA and MCA Courses, will be determined separately for each course only on the
basis of marks obtained by candidates in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test 2012.
Provided that where the merit of two or more candidates is the same, the interse merit
shall be determined with reference to the total aggregate marks obtained in the Qualifying
examination and where marks obtained are equal again, the interse merit shall be determined
on the basis of the age of the candidate, wherein the elder candidate will be considered before
the younger.

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NOTE: If everything as specified in the sub-clause referred to above are equal, then the interse
merit will be determined by draw of lots. The determination of interse merit as detailed above for
selection of Government seats will be the basis for the merit list of candidates claiming benefit of
reservation under Admission Rules.
In case of ME/ M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time) Course merit
will be determined for different classes of candidates as indicated below:
(a) M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time) course
1. GATE candidates: Merit in respect of GATE candidates shall be determined on
the basis of valid GATE score.
2. SPONSORED Candidates: Merit in respect of Sponsored candidates shall be
determined in the following order of preference namely.
i. Candidates employed in State Government Institutions / Organisations.
ii. Candidates employed in Public Sector / Aided Institutions.
iii. Candidates employed in Private Institutions / Private Sector Organisations.
No age limit is prescribed for sponsored candidates. However, while allotting seats
persons below 45 years of age will be preferred. In the event of his / her quitting service from
sponsoring institutions, a candidate automatically loses seats allotted under sponsored
category.
3. In case of all non-GATE candidates belonging to different categories merit shall
be determined on the basis of marks secured by them in the PGCET-2012.
(b) M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch. (Part-Time) Course:
1. GATE Candidates: Merit in respect of GATE candidates shall be determined on
the basis of valid GATE score.
2. Merit in respect of all other candidates, shall be determined on the basis of marks
secured by them in the PGCET-2012.
Where the merit of two or more candidate is same, the inter-se merit shall be determined with
reference to the aggregate marks obtained in the qualifying examination and the candidate
securing higher marks will be placed above the candidate securing lower marks.
Where the merit of two or more candidates is equal after determining the merit under clause
above, the interse merit shall be determined on the basis of the age of the candidate, with the
elder candidate placed above the younger.
(B) PREPARATION OF RANK LIST:
For VTU, UBDTCE and UVCE.
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1. For admission to M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time)
Course, there shall be two merit lists prepared as mentioned below:
a) The list of GATE candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering the valid
GATE score, is called GATE Rank List (FT)
b) The list of PGCET-2012 candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering
the PGCET-2012 marks is called PGCET Rank List (FT) .
2. For admission to M.Tech (Part Time) course, there shall be two merit lists prepared as
mentioned below:
a) The list of GATE candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering the valid
GATE score is called GATE Rank List (PT) .
b) The list of PGCET-2012 candidates, arranged in the order of merit considering
the PGCET-2012 score, is called PGCET-Rank list (PT) .
For Kuvempu and Mysore University; Separate rank list will be prepared for
these two Universities and procedure is similar as mentioned above.
(B) PUBLICATION OF MERIT LISTS:
After completion of the entrance test, the ANSWER KEY will be published on the KEA
Website: http://kea.kar.nic.in The candidates / parents / lecturers can file their objections, if any,
addressed to the Executive Director, Karnataka Examinations Authority, Bangalore either in
person, or through e-mail, or by SPEED POST, with regard to any of the published Answer Key,
along with all supporting documents / justification. Objections received from the candidates
without justification shall not be considered. The objections received by KEA will be placed
before an Expert Committee, whose decision will be final for determination of the right answer
key. The answer key approved by the Expert Committee will be applied during evaluation for
determination of merit order.
As per the merit determined by the KEA, ranks will be assigned separately for MBA,
MCA, ME / M. Tech / M. Arch courses as per the norms and procedure to the eligible
candidates. Result sheets will be published on KEA Website http://kea.kar.nic.in The correct
Answer Keys will also be published along with the results.
Request for re-totaling or revaluation of the OMR answer sheets will not be entertained,
as the valuation and the subsequent scoring will be error free.
Result sheets will not be displayed in the KEA premises.

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CHAPTER III
1. DOCUMENTS TO BE PRODUCED DURING SEAT SELECTION PROCESS
The original documents to be produced during seat selection process have been detailed
separately for MBA, MCA, ME / M.Tech / M.Arch in respect of Government seats in Item 6 of
Chapter I below each of the Eligibility Clauses.
Government seats: Candidates who seek admission to Government seats should compulsorily
produce the required documents in ORIGINAL with ONE set of attested photocopies of all the
original documents and two passport size photographs along with the Demand Draft for the
notified fees, for verification at the KEA at the time of registration for seat selection. After
verification, only ONE set of attested photocopies of all the documents will be retained by the
KEA and all original documents will be returned to the candidates. The documents to be
produced for claiming Government seats are detailed clause wise, below the respective
CLAUSES in Item 6 of Chapter I of this brochure.
Explanation for some of the prominent documents is as follows:
SSLC Marks Card SSLC or 10th standard or equivalent examination marks card.
2
nd
PUC Marks Card 2nd PUC or 12th standard or equivalent examination marks card.
Study Certificate Study Certificate to show that the candidate has studied in Karnataka for
a minimum period of SEVEN years from 1st standard to 12th standard or
qualifying examination issued by Head of the institution. Further, School
study certificates should be got countersigned by the concerned Block
Educational Officer (BEO)/Deputy Director of Public Instructions (DDPI)
COMPULSORILY in the proforma prescribed at APPENDIX III.
PLEASE CONTACT CONCERNED SCHOOL FOR BEO / DDPI OFFICE
ADDRESS. (The counter signature for PUC / 12th Std / Degree study
certificate is not required)
Qualifying Exam Degree Marks Card of all the Years / Semester applicable to PG Course
Marks Card which you have applied.

Caste / Caste
Income Certificate Candidates seeking reservation benefit should produce a Caste
Certificate in Form D in case of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes; in Form E Income in case of Category -1; a Caste Income
Certificate in Form F for Other Backward Classes such as 2A, 2B, 3A
and 3B, issued by the concerned Jurisdictional Tahasildar, in accordance
with the Government order No. Sa Ka E 225 BCA 2000 dated 30th March
2002, as amended from time to time. The candidates belonging to SC, ST
and Category 1 of the other backward classes should also produce a
separate Income Certificate. (This is for the purpose of processing
eligibility of candidates to claim Government of India scholarship).
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The school study certificates of the candidates should be got countersigned invariably by the
BEO / DDPI along with full Address, Seal & Telephone Number of the concerned office.
HOWEVER, COUNTERSIGNATURE FOR PUC / 11TH & 12TH STANDARD / QE STUDY
CERTIFICATE IS NOT REQUIRED.
NOTE: 1.Where the eligibility of the candidate is based on the study of the parent,
relevant documents to establish the relationship of candidate with the parent has
to be produced.
2. The contents of the documents submitted by the candidates should be either
in Kannada or English languages only. If the documents are in any other
language, the same should be got translated to Kannada or English language
through the concerned authorities with signature and seal and should be
produced during seat selection. Otherwise the KEA reserves the right to reject
the same.
THE FOLLOWING ATTESTED PHOTOCOPIES OF DOCUMENTS SHOULD BE SUBMITTED
DURING DOCUMENT VERIFICATION PROCESS.
SSLC / 10th Standard / Equivalent Examination Marks Card
2nd PUC / 12th Standard/ Equivalent Examination Marks Card
Degree Marks Card of all the Years / Semesters.
Study Certificate (Only for Karnataka Candidates)
TWO recent passport size photographs
The following documents should be produced, ONLY if applicable:
Minimum 3 years work Experience Certificate (for Part time candidates) (work
experience certificate should include name of the organisation, date of joining,
designation, working period, no objection condition etc.,).
Caste Certificate / Caste Income Certificate / Income Certificate obtained from the
concerned Tahasildar, for the candidates claiming Reservation benefits. (Only for
Karnataka Candidates)
Parent s study certificate / Parent s Hometown certificate / (Parent s Domicile certificate /
Parent s Employment certificate / Parent s Cumulative Record / Parent s Marks Card,
etc.,) for the candidates claiming eligibility for Government seats based on the (domicile)
/ study / (employment) of the parent.
GATE Score Card. (Result Sheet)
Sponsorship Certificate (For Full Time Program)

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2. ADMISSION FEE
The admission fee for MBA / MCA / M.E. / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)
courses for the year 2012-13 will be notified later on the KEA website.
The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes candidates need not to pay any fees.
The fee amount should be paid by the candidates when they come for seat selection
process in the form of a Demand Draft obtained from any Nationalized Banks.
Demand Draft should be drawn in favour of The Executive Director, Karnataka
Examinations Authority , payable at Bangalore.
The candidates should come prepared with the Demand Drafts for the fee before
registering themselves for selection of a seat, failing which they will not be allowed to
register and select any seat. The Bank counter functioning at the seat selection
premises will not issue the demand drafts, the candidates and parents are also advised
not to bring the prescribed fee in the form of CASH / CHEQUE.
3. GOVERNMENT SEATS (SEAT MATRIX)
The KEA will receive the seat matrix from the Government before the commencement of
Admission round seat selection process. Hence, an accurate number of seats to be offered for
allotment as Government seats, college wise, category wise and course wise, cannot be made
known at this stage. The seat matrix (Government seats) in respect of MBA / MCA / M.E. /
M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) courses, as notified by the Government
will be published on the notice boards of the KEA and also on the KEA website
http://kea.kar.nic.in before the commencement of seat selection. For the benefit of candidates,
full postal address and telephone / fax numbers of Professional colleges and the total number of
Government share of seats offered in these colleges for the academic year 2011-12 are given in
APPENDIX IV and no inference shall be drawn either for number of seats or to the college for
the academic year 2012- 13. The allotment of seats will be done as per the Seat Matrix
published by the Government of Karnataka.
4. PROCEDURES FOLLOWED DURING THE SEAT SELECTION PROCESS
The candidates who have been assigned ranks in the Post Graduate Common Entrance
Test2012 will be allowed to select a seat of their choice in the order of merit. The details of the
seat selection schedule will be notified separately in the newspaper and also on the KEA
website http://kea.kar.nic.in
Seat selection process will be conducted in accordance with the schedule which will be notified
later. The candidates should visit KEA Website http://kea.kar.nic.in and should confirm the rank
ranges, date and time of seat selection process before coming to the seat selection center. No
individual intimation will be sent to the eligible rank holders regarding the date and time of seat
selection process.
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Before coming for seat selection process, all eligible rank holders should make sure that they
have kept the required original documents with one set of attested photocopies of all the
documents and two photographs along with the Demand Draft for the fee prescribed by the
Government for various courses.
The entire seat selection activities in the KEA are handled through software right from the stage
of registration till the stage of printing of admission orders. The highly sophisticated software
used in the system has the ability on one side to control the initial registration, provide data for
verification of the original documents and on the other side to take care of selection of seats by
the candidates in the order of merit, online display of availability of seats, payment of fees and
finally printing of admission orders. Once the candidate comes to the seat selection hall by
registering and verifying the documents, the software will not allow any jump in the order of
merit. Even if one has registered himself / herself before another candidate with higher merit, he
/ she will have to wait for his / her turn at the admission terminals. Unless a candidate who has a
higher rank and whose PGCET number is registered gets the opportunity to select a seat, a
candidate who has a rank next to him will not by-pass him.
Selection of seat by a candidate and admission thereafter at the KEA shall comprise of the
following stages, wherein all the candidates will be allowed to select a seat of their choice
strictly in the order of merit:
(a) Registration of the candidate; (b) Verification of the original documents; (c) Selection of
seats in accordance with merit order; (d) Remittance of Fees in the form of Demand Draft; (e)
Issue of Admission Order.
The candidates will be allowed to participate in accordance with the notified time schedule and
as per the stipulated rank ranges only. The candidates are required to register their PGCET
number in the computer system. From there, the candidates are sent to the Verification Counter
where the entries of original documents are checked against the computer data that has been
furnished by them in their application forms. After verification, KEA will retain one set of the
attested photocopies and the original documents will be returned to the candidates. Before
leaving the verification counter, an acknowledgment card and a verification slip will be issued to
the candidates. Thereafter, the candidates will proceed to the seat selection hall, wherein the
candidates will have the assistance of a huge on-line projector screen, which will show
category-wise, course-wise and college-wise availability of seats at that moment. In the seat
selection hall, all the candidates who have registered and verified their original documents will
be called for seat selection as per the MERIT QUEUE. At this point, the candidate should
produce the verification slip issued at the verification counter and the Demand Draft for the
prescribed fee amount, failing which he will not be allowed to select a seat. The moment he /
she selects a seat, the computer display and the on-line projector screen will show one seat
less against the course / college from which the candidate has selected the seat. The details
pertaining to the candidates who select seat at the allotment terminals such as Name, PGCET
Number, Rank, Category, College / Course selected and Photograph of the candidate will also
be displayed on the screens, for the information of all the candidates and parents who are
waiting seat selection within and outside the premises of the KEA.
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After seat selection, candidate will have to go to the Bank counter and deposit the Demand
Draft for the prescribed fee. The Bank Officer can enter the amount only if the candidate has
selected a seat. Otherwise the computer at the Bank counter will not allow him to do so. After
entering Demand Draft particulars against name of the candidate, a receipt will be issued to
candidates in the Bank counter. Thereafter, the candidates are required to submit their
verification slip in the Admission order issue counter located opposite to Bank counter. The
admission order for the seat selected by candidates will be printed and the Admission Order will
be issued ONLY to the candidates after obtaining candidate s signature in the register and also
after ascertaining that he has submitted all the required documents and has paid the prescribed
fees.
5. SELECTION OF SEATS BY THE CANDIDATES AND ADMISSION
The candidates who have been assigned ranks in the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test
2012 will be allowed to select a seat of their choice in the order of merit. The details of the seat
selection schedule will be notified separately in the newspaper and also on the KEA website
http://kea.kar.nic.in
In accordance with Admission rules, the seat selection process comprises of an Admission
Round followed by a Casual Vacancy Round for casual vacancies, if any. The seats will be
offered to all eligible rank holders as per the seat matrix issued by the Government.
During the admission round, if the seat of their choice is not available or all the seats are
exhausted before their turn comes, then for such candidates it is not compulsory to attend the
admission round, they can directly attend the casual vacancy round in the order of merit with all
the necessary original documents and the requisite fee. There is no rule that only the
candidates who have attended the admission round will have the opportunity to select seat in
the casual vacancy round . All the eligible candidates will have an opportunity to participate in
the casual vacancy round in the order of merit. i.e., the candidates;
(I) Whether attended or not attended the admission round.
(ii) Whether holding an acknowledgment card issued by this office, or not (An
acknowledgment card will be issued to the candidates after verifying the original
documents)
(iii) Whether selected a seat in the admission round or not,
(iv) Selected and reported to the concerned colleges,
(v) Selected but not reported to the concerned colleges.
Provided that the candidate should report to the college selected by him within 3 days from the
date of issue of admission of order in casual vacancy round, if he has selected seat in the
casual vacancy round, failing which he shall intimate to KEA within 3 days, otherwise he shall
be deemed to be admitted to the college.

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ADMISSION ROUND SEAT SELECTION PROCESS
The admission round seat selection process will be held in the following stages and all eligible
candidates will be allowed to participate in the same:
STAGE 1 : For Physically Disabled candidates. (MBA, MCA, M.E./M.Tech/M.Arch)
STAGE 2 : For MBA course.
STAGE 3 : For MCA course
STAGE 4 : For ME/M.Tech/M.Arch courses
In all the above stages of the admission round, the eligible rank holders will be allowed to select
the seats in the order of merit, as per the schedule which will be notified later.
The candidates, who select a seat in any of the above stages during the admission round,
should invariably pay the prescribed fee in the form of Demand Draft and should obtain the
admission order for the seat selected. The fee paid by the candidates during the Admission
Round for one discipline / course will be adjusted upon selection of a seat in the other discipline.
STAGE 1: FOR PHYSICALLY DISABLED CATEGORIES.
In the first instance, the seats reserved for Physically Disabled Special category candidates will
be offered.
The candidates claiming a seat under the persons with disability category should
COMPULSORILY appear before the Medical Board comprising of the Executive Director and
three specialists nominated by the Competent Authority. The Medical Board shall examine the
candidate and certify regarding the percentage of disability and the decision of the Medical
Board will be final. The candidates with less than 40% of disability and those who fail to appear
before the Committee on the notified date and time, will not be eligible for selection of a seat
under the Physically Disabled category. The list of eligible Physically Disabled candidates
prepared by the Medical Board will be final for the purpose of seat selection.
The eligible Physically Disabled candidates will be allowed to select the seats after they submit
all the required original documents and the prescribed fees.
STAGE 2 : ADMISSION ROUND FOR MBA COURSES.
The MBA seats pertaining to all reserved categories, Ex-Defence and General Merit students
will be offered in this stage at once. All eligible MBA rank holders including the candidates, who
have selected seats under the Physically Disabled, will be allowed to select MBA seats in
accordance with their ranks, after they submit all the required original documents and the
prescribed fees. Seat selected in the earlier STAGES of admission round, if any, shall stand
automatically cancelled, if a candidate selects a seat in this STAGE.

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STAGE 3 : ADMISSION ROUND FOR MCA COURSES.
The MCA seats pertaining to all reserved categories, Ex-Defence and General Merit students
will be offered in this stage at once. All eligible MCA rank holders including the candidates, who
have selected seats under the Physically Disabled, will be allowed to select MCA seats in
Allocation of Seats:
For MBA and MCA course:
There will be both General & Reserved Category seats under Government Seats and only
General Category Seats under Management Seats (surrendered by Private Unaided
Institutions, if any),
(1) The General Category and Reserved Category seats under Government Seats shall be
allotted to only those candidates who becomes eligible as Karnataka candidates as per item 6
of Chapter - 1 of the brochure.
(2) The General category seats under Management Seats shall be allotted to both Karnataka
and Non Karnataka candidates.
STAGE 4 : ADMISSION ROUND FOR ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure
Management) COURSES.
For M.Tech Course:
There will be both General & Reserved Category seats under Government Seats and only
General Category Seats under Management Seats (Surrendered by Private Unaided
Institutions, if any).
1. In the case of M.E. / M.Tech./ M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) (Full Time)
courses, first seat will be allotted to VALID GATE SCORE candidates irrespective of the
Karnataka or non-Karnataka. However, reservation is applicable only to those who
become eligible as Karnataka candidates as per item 6 of Chapter - 1 of the brochure
and the same is not applicable to Non-Karnataka GATE rank holders. Non-Karnataka
GATE rank holders have to select seats under Open / General category.
2. After allotment of seats to eligible GATE rank holders is over, the seat that remains
under General category, 90% of the seats are reserved for Karnataka Candidates and
the remaining 10% for Non-Karnataka Candidates to the eligible PGCET-2012 rank
holders.
3. The General Category and Reserved Category seats under Government Seats shall be
allotted to only those candidates who becomes eligible as Karnataka candidates as per
item 6 of Chapter - 1 of the brochure.
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4. The General category seats under Management Seats shall be allotted to both
Karnataka and Non Karnataka candidates.
The procedure followed for selection of seats shall be as follows:
1) Selection of seats for M.E. / M.Tech/ M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management)
Full Time Course:
a) Seat selection for GATE Candidates: As per the seat matrix issued by the Government,
selection of seat shall be held for all GATE candidates from GATE Rank List (FT).
b) Seat selection for PGCET-2012 Candidates: The seats remaining vacant after selection
of seats by the GATE candidates shall be offered to candidates who will become eligible
in PGCET-2012(FT).
2) Selection of seats for M.Tech (Part Time Course)
a) Seat selection for GATE Candidates: As per the seat matrix issued by the Government,
selection of seat shall be held for all GATE candidates from GATE Rank List (FT).
b) Seat selection for PGCET-2012 Candidates: The seats remaining vacant after selection
of seats by the GATE candidates shall be offered to candidates who will become eligible
in PGCET-2012(PT).
The ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / MBA (Infrastructure Management) seats pertaining to all reserved
categories, Ex-Defence and General Merit students will be offered in this stage at once. All
eligible ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / rank holders including the candidates, who have selected seats
under the Physically Disabled, will be allowed to select ME / M.Tech / M.Arch / seats in
NOTE : THE CANDIDATES BELONGING TO RESERVED CATEGORIES SUCH AS SC, ST,
CATEGORY 1, 2A, 2B, 3A, 3B, WILL HAVE THE OPPORTUNITY OF SELECTING A SEAT
UNDER GENERAL MERIT CATEGORY ALSO.
IMPORTANT: The candidate s who select a seat in the Admission Round, may report to the
respective colleges along with the original admission order issued by the KEA, well within the
last date prescribed in their admission orders.
PROCEDURE FOLLOWED FOR CONVERSION OF UNFILLED SEATS
After completion of the admission round, the seats that remain unfilled under all the reserved
categories will be converted to the General Merit category and offered to GM candidates along
with all other reserved category candidates in the General casual vacancy round.
IMPORTANT: 1. This procedure of conversion of seats will be adopted before the
commencement of Casual vacancy round in respect of all the disciplines. Further, if the
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reserved category candidates select a General Merit / respective reserved category seat during
the General casual vacancy round, then a reserved category seat becomes vacant. Such seats
are treated as CONSEQUENTIAL CASUAL VACANCIES . These consequential reserved
category vacancies that arise during the General casual vacancy round will remain under the
same categories and will be offered only to the candidates belonging to the same reserved
categories.
2. The reserved category seat cancelled by a candidate either before the commencement of
casual vacancy round or during the casual vacancy round at any stage, will not be converted to
General Merit category and such reserved category cancelled seats will be offered only to the
respective category candidates.
CASUAL VACANCY ROUND SEAT SELECTION PROCESS
After the completion of admission round seat selection, all the unfilled / surrendered / forfeited /
cancelled / newly added seats, if any, will be offered as CASUAL VACANCIES. All candidates
who have selected a seat and obtained admission orders in respect of the seat selected in the
admission round whether reported to the college or not, will be eligible to participate in the
Casual Vacancy round along with all those candidates who have not selected any seat in any of
the stages in the admission round. The candidates who participate in the Casual Vacancy
Round for the first time should invariably submit the required documents in Original along with
one set of attested photocopies and prescribed fees without fail.
The candidates who have selected seat in the admission round will have the following three
options when their turn comes in the casual vacancy round;
(i) if the candidate is satisfied with the seat selected during the admission round he / she
can continue in the same seat. The last date for reporting will be extended if the candidate has
not reported to the college and if he / she retains the same seat. OR
(ii) a candidate can select a seat afresh in the order of merit, the fee paid during the
admission round if any, will be adjusted for the seat selected and a fresh admission
order will be issued to the candidate. The seat selected in the admission round will get
automatically cancelled by the computer and immediately added to the seat matrix
(display board) to the same college, course / category, upon selection of a seat in this
round.
(iii) A candidate can cancel the seat when his / her turn comes in this round by forfeiting
50% of the fee amount paid.
IMPORTANT NOTE: (1) The candidates who select casual vacancy seats should invariably
report to the respective colleges along with all original documents and the admission order
issued by KEA, well within the last date prescribed in the admission order, for that discipline.
(2) If a candidate does not surrender the seat to KEA during casual vacancy seat selection
round before the turn comes, he / she deemed to have got admitted to the seat selected by him
/ her selected in either of the rounds.
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(3) If a candidate decides to surrender the seat, he / she has to surrender the seat only to KEA.
Merely not reporting to the selected college should not be presumed by the candidate that he /
she has surrendered the seat to KEA.
In the first instance Casual Vacancy Round will be held for Physically Disabled candidates.
Then the Casual Vacancy Round will be held for General Merit and for all the reserved category
candidates.
STAGE 1 : CASUAL VACANCY ROUND FOR MBA COURSES
The MBA Casual vacancies, if any, will be offered in the following two rounds:
(1) Special categories: In this round, the casual vacancies, if any, will be offered to
Physically Disabled candidates.
(2) General Merit and all reserved categories: In this round, the seats that remain unfilled
under all reserved and special categories after completion of the admission rounds will
be converted to General Merit category and will be offered to General Merit category
candidates along with all other reserved category candidates.
STAGE 2 : CASUAL VACANCY ROUND FOR MCA COURSES
(2) General Merit and all reserved categories : In this round, the seats that remain unfilled
STAGE 3 : CASUAL VACANCY ROUND FOR ME / M.Tech / M.Arch COURSES
(2) General Merit and all reserved categories: In this round, the seats that remain unfilled

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A NOTE ON REFUND AND FORFEITURE OF FEE
1. In the case of a candidate who cancels / surrenders the seat selected in the Admission round,
before the turn of such candidate in the Casual Vacancy round, the Executive Director, KEA
shall forfeit an amount of 50% from the fee paid by him / her and refund the remaining amount
to the candidate, in the form of Account Payee Cheque through Indian Bank, KEA Extension
Counter. (Account Payee Cheque will be issued only in the name of the candidate)
2. In the case of a candidate who cancels / surrenders the seat after such candidate s turn in the
Casual Vacancy round, the Executive Director, KEA shall forfeit 100% of the fee paid by the
candidate.
3. The fee paid in the Casual Vacancy round, will not be liable to be refunded, in case of
cancellation / surrender of the same by the candidate. A candidate who selects a casual
vacancy seat and does not join the college concerned shall not be entitled for refund of
deposited fees, which shall be forfeited by the Executive Director, KEA.
4. In the case of a candidate who does not surrender, cancel or fails to join the college / course
allotted, even after the completion of the Casual Vacancy round, then the Executive Director,
KEA shall forfeit the entire amount paid as fees by the concerned candidate.
5. In the case of a candidate who claims the refund with regard to the excess fee remitted by
him / her should claim such amount on or before 31-03-2013, failing which, the Executive
Director, KEA shall forfeit such excess fee amount paid by the concerned candidate.

LEGAL JURISDICTION
Any dispute that may arise in respect of the test or the later seat selection process and
admission is subject to the jurisdiction of the Hon ble High court of Karnataka. The issue of
admission order by the KEA shall enable the candidate to join the concerned college, subject to
the academic eligibility, etc., being approved by the concerned University as per the
Regulations.
APPENDIX I
LIST OF PLACES AND RESPECTIVE CODES WHERE THE PGCET 2012
TEST CENTRES ARE LOCATED
EXAM PLACE
GULBARGA
MYSORE
SHIMOGA
TUMKUR
EXAMPLACE
MANGALORE
DHARWAD
BAGALKOT
DAVANGERE
EXAMPLACE
BANGALORE
BELGAUM
BELLARY
BIJAPUR

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APPENDIX II
STATE, DISTRICT AND TALUK CODES
1. STATE CODES
01 -
02 -
03 -
04 -
05 -
06 -
07 -
08 -
09 -
10 -
BANGALORE URBAN
BANGALORE RURAL
BAGALKOT
BELGAUM
BELLARY
BIDAR
BIJAPUR
CHAMARAJANAGAR
CHICKAMAGALUR
CHICKABALLAPUR
11 -
12 -
13 -
14 -
15 -
16 -
17 -
18 -
19 -
20 -
CHITRADURGA
DAKSHINA KANNADA
DHARWAD
DAVANGERE
GADAG
GULBARGA
HASSAN
HAVERI
KODAGU
KOLAR
21 -
22 -
23 -
24 -
25 -
26 -
27 -
28 -
29 -
30 -
KOPPAL
MANDYA
MYSORE
RAICHUR
RAMANAGARAM
SHIMOGA
TUMKUR
UDUPI
UTTARA KANNADA
YADGIR
01 -
02 -
03 -
04 -
05 -
06 -
07 -
08 -
09 -
10 -
11 -
12 -
KARNATAKA
ANDHRA PRADESH
ARUNACHAL PRADESH
ASSAM
BIHAR
CHANDIGARH
CHATTISGARH
DELHI
GOA
GUJARAT
HARYANA
HIMACHAL PRADESH
13 -
14 -
15 -
16 -
17 -
18 -
19 -
20 -
21 -
22 -
23 -
24 -
JAMMU & KASHMIR
JHARKHAND
KERALA
MADHYA PRADESH
MAHARASHTRA
MANIPUR
MEGHALAYA
MIZORAM
NAGALAND
ORISSA
PONDICHERRY
PUNJAB
25 -
26 -
27 -
28 -
29 -
30 -
31 -
32 -
33 -
34 -
RAJASTHAN
SIKKIM
TAMILNADU
TRIPURA
UTTARAKHAND
UTTAR PRADESH
WEST BENGAL
ANDAMAN NICOBAR
LAKSHA DWEEP
OTHERS
2. DISTRICT CODES

Page 43 of 57

001 -
002 -
003 -
004 -
005 -
006 -
007 -
008 -
009 -
010 -
011 -
012 -
013 -
014 -
015 -
016 -
017 -
018 -
019 -
020 -
021 -
022 -
023 -
024 -
025 -
026 -
027 -
028 -
029 -
030 -
031 -
032 -
033 -
034 -
035 -
036 -
037 -
038 -
039 -
040 -
041 -
042 -
043 -
044 -
045 -
046 -
047 -
048 -
049 -
050 -
051 -
052 -
053 -
054 -
055 -
056 -
057 -
058 -
059 -
AFZALPUR
ALANDA
ALUR
ANEKAL
ANKOLA
ARASIKERE
ARAKALAGUD
ATHANI
AURAD
BADAMI
BAGALKOT
BAGEPALLI
BAGEWADI
BAILAHONGALA
BANGALORE NORTH
BANGALORE SOUTH
BANGALORE EAST
BANGARPET
BANTWAL
BASAVAKALYAN
BELGAUM
BELLARY
BELTHANGADI
BELUR
BHADRAVATHI
BHALKI
BHATKAL
BIDAR
BIJAPUR
BILAGI
BYADAGI
CHIKKANAYAKANA HALLI
CHALLAKERE
CHAMARAJANAGAR
CHANNAGIRI
CHANNAPATNA
CHANNARAYAPATNA
CHICKAMAGALUR
CHICKABALLAPUR
CHIKKODI
CHINCHOLI
CHINTAMANI
CHITTAPUR
CHITRADURGA
DAVANGERE
DEVADURGA
DEVANAHALLI
DHARWAD
DODDABALLAPUR
GADAG
GANGAVATHI
GOKAK
GOWRIBIDANUR
GUBBI
GUDIBANDE
GULBARGA
GUNDLUPET
HAGARI BOMMANAHALLI
H. D. KOTE
060 -
061 -
062 -
063 -
064 -
065 -
066 -
067 -
068 -
069 -
070 -
071 -
072 -
073 -
074 -
075 -
076 -
077 -
078 -
079 -
080 -
081 -
082 -
083 -
084 -
085 -
086 -
087 -
088 -
089 -
090 -
091 -
092 -
093 -
094 -
095 -
096 -
097 -
098 -
099 -
100 -
101 -
102 -
103 -
104 -
105 -
106 -
107 -
108 -
109 -
110 -
111 -
112 -
113 -
114 -
115 -
116 -
117 -
118 -
HADAGALI
HALIYAL
HANGAL
HARAPANAHALLI
HARIHAR
HASSAN
HAVERI
HIREKERUR
HIRIYUR
HOLALKERE
HOLENARASIPURA
HONNALI
HONNAVARA
HOSADURGA
HOSAKOTE
HOSANAGAR
HOSPET
HUBLI
HUKKERI
HUMNABAD
HUNAGUND
HUNSUR
INDI
JAGALUR
JAMAKHANDI
JEWARGI
KADUR
KALGHATAGI
KANAKAPURA
KARKALA
KARWAR
KHANAPUR
KOLAR
KOLLEGALA
KOPPA
KOPPAL
KORATAGERE
KRISHNARAJANAGAR
KRISHNARAJA PET
KUDLIGI
KUMTA
KUNDAPUR
KUNDAGOL
KUNIGAL
KUSHTAGI
LINGASUGUR
MADDUR
MADHUGIRI
MADIKERI
MAGADI
MALAVALLI
MALUR
MANDYA
MANGALORE
MANVI
MOLAKALMURU
MUDDEBIHAL
MUDHOL
MUDIGERE
119 -
120 -
121 -
122 -
123 -
124 -
125 -
126 -
127 -
128 -
129 -
130 -
131 -
132 -
133 -
134 -
135 -
136 -
137 -
138 -
139 -
140 -
141 -
142 -
143 -
144 -
145 -
146 -
147 -
148 -
149 -
150 -
151 -
152 -
153 -
154 -
155 -
156 -
157 -
158 -
159 -
160 -
161 -
162 -
163 -
164 -
165 -
166 -
167 -
168 -
169 -
170 -
171 -
172 -
173 -
174 -
175 -
176 -
MULABAGAL
MUNDARGI
MUNDAGOD
MYSORE
N. R. PURA
NAGAMANGALA
NANJANAGUD
NARAGUND
NAVALAGUND
NELAMANGALA
PANDAVAPURA
PAVAGADA
PERIYAPATNA
PUTTUR
RAIBAG
RAICHUR
RAMANAGARAM
RAMADURG
RANEBENNUR
RON
SAGAR
SAKALESHPURA
SANDUR
SAVANUR
SEDUM
SHAHAPUR
SHIGGAON
SHIKARIPUR
SHIMOGA
SHIRAHATTI
SHORAPUR
SIDDAPUR
SHIDLAGHATTA
SINDAGI
SINDHANUR
SIRA
SIRAGUPPA
SIRSI
SOMWARPET
SORAB
SOUNDATTI
SRINGERI
SRINIVASAPURA
SRIRANGAPATNA
SULLIA
T. NARASIPURA
TARIKERE
THIRTHAHALLI
TIPTUR
TUMKUR
TURUVEKERE
UDUPI
VIRAJPET
YADGIR
YELANDUR
YELBURGA
YELLAPUR
ZOIDA
3. TALUK CODES

Page 44 of 57

APPENDIX III
SPECIMEN OF PRESCRIBED FORMATS

Working Experience Certificate
This is to certify that Sri / Smt _______________________________________________ working in this
organization as a permanent employee and presently holding the post as ______ _____________
He / she has joined this organization on _________ ______. He / She has
Further, this organization has no objection for
Sri / Smt. joining to MBA (Part Time) course.
Govt. Semi Govt. Public Sector Private.
___
____ ___________ years and
___________ Months of experience in this organization.
____________________________________________ for
Organisation:
Date :
Place :
Signature of the Head of the Institution / Organisation
With Seal
Phone No &
Complete Address of the Organisation

SPECIMEN OF STUDY CERTIFICATE

Page 45 of 57

PROFORMA FOR STUDY CERTIFICATE
Signature of
Head of the institution
(Name in Block letters.............................)
NAME, FULL POSTAL ADDRESS & TELEPHONE NUMBER OF THE INSTITUTION.
Date .....................
This is to certify that Sri. / Kum. ........................................................ S/o /
D/o .............................................. has studied from ........................... .... standard
to ............................................................................ standard in our i nstitution from
................................... to ........................ academic years.
The mother tongue of the candidate is .... .......................
as per the Admission register of the institution.
The above details are true and correct to the best of my knowledge.
Institution seal
COUNTER SIGNED BY ME
Address, Seal & Office Telephone Number
of the Block Educational Officer / DDPI.

APPENDIX IV
PROFESSIONAL COLLEGES INFORMATION

The total number of Government share of seats offered in the following colleges for the
Academic Year 2010-11 are given at pages 26 to 32 for the information of the candidates /
parents and no inference shall be drawn either for number of seats or to the college for the
Academic Year 2011- 12. The allotment of seats will be done as per the Seat Matrix published
by the Government of Karnataka.

Page 46 of 57

Part - I
Section A
Test of Proficiency in English Language
Direction: For each of the questions from 1 to 3, choose the Word or Phrase that is similar in
meaning to the numbered word.
1. HECTIC
a) Organised b) Clumsy c) Frantic d) Thrilling
2. DETER
a) Distract b) Suppress c) Discouraged d) Contaminate
3. JETTISON
a) Control b) Emit c) Stir d) Discard
Direction : For each of the questions from 4 to 6, choose the Word or Phrase that is similar in
meaning to the numbered word.
4. ABOMINATE
a) Loathe b) Despise c) Adore d) Abhor
5. INVECTIVE
a) Normality b) Restoration c) Fertility d) Praise
6. UNTOWARD
a) Experienced b) Inevitable c) Industrious d) Proper
Direction : Relate the Ologies & Ographies in the following numbered question from 7 to 9.
7. ICHTHYOLOGY
a) Study of hair b) Study of insects c) Study of fishes d) Study of dates
8. NEPHROLOGY
a) Study of kidney b) Study of clouds c) Study of snakes d) Study of liver
9. PHILOLOGY
a) Study of Historical language b) Study of people
c) Study of supernatural beings d) Study of rocks
Page 47 of 57

Direction : An idiom and four possible meanings are given in questions from 10 to 12. Identify
the closest meaning of the idiom from among the answer choices.
10. Child s play
a) To handle a situation calmly b) To dispute over petty points
c) An easy task d) To treat lightly
11. Cut no ice
a) Unable to perform b) Make no impression
c) Come to nothing d) To fail
12. Head to toe
a) Thoroughly b) Continuously c) Nothing d) Completely
Direction : Each question from 13 to 15 gives a sentence with a part of the sentence underlined
that may contain an error. Four alternative substitutes are given for the underlined portion.
Identify the choice that replaces the underlined part to form a logical and grammatically correct
statement.
13. He would not have failed if he had enough money.
a) if he had enough money b) if he would have enough money
c) if he would have had enough money d) if he had had enough money
14. The professor asked her when will you submit her thesis.
a) when will you submit her thesis b) when she would have submit her theses
c) when you will have submitted your thesis d) when she would submit her thesis.
15. He tried his best to be punctual, but he was occasionally behind time.
a) he was always lagging behind b) he was seldom on time
c) he was late on some occasion d) he would be punctual
Direction : In each of the following question 16 & 17, capitalised pair of words is given, followed
by four numbered pairs of words. Three of the numbered pairs exhibit the same relationship
between the words as the capitalised pair of words. Identify the numbered pair which does not
exhibit the same relationship as the capitalised pair.
16. MISTAKE : PRACTICE
a) draught : rain b) anger : resentment c) extinct : protect d) error : diligence
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17. SKETCH : DIAGRAM
a) design : plan b) draw : picture c) print : book d) paint : portrait
Direction : A sentence is written in four different formats in questions 18 & 19. Only one of them
is grammatically correct. Mark the correct choices as your answer.
18. a) I will meet you if you will come tomorrow.
b) I will meet you if you have come tomorrow.
c) I shall meet you if you come tomorrow.
d) Harsher punishment will increase the crime number.
19. a) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crime.
b) Harsher punishment will not reduce the number of crimes.
c) Harsher punishment will increase the number of crime.
d) Harsher punishment will increase the crime number.
Direction : Fill in the blanks in the given sentence so as to make it logically and grammatically
correct by choosing the correct word from the choices given, in questions 20 & 21.
20. ___________ about nine months ago, john was in excellent health.
a) Until b) In c) At d) As
21. Mental talents if buried and not used, ________to deteriorate.
a) lead b) get c) tend d) matter
DIRECTION : Each question 22 & 23 below gives a sentence followed by four answer choices.
From the choices provided, identify the one that best restates the given sentence and mark its
choice as your answer.
22. It might be truly said of him that he never sought honour.
a) It is true that he never sought honour.
b) The truth of him is that he never sought honour.
c) Honour was not truly sought by him.
d) He never truly sought honour.
23. I am afraid I did not make myself understood.
a) I am afraid of not making myself understood.
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b) I am afraid I have not made myself understood.
c) I am afraid I did not make myself understood.
d) I am afraid of not having made myself understood.
Direction : A word and four jumbled choices are given in questions 24 & 25. One of the choices,
when properly arranged given the meaning of the word. Identify the correct choice.
24. DEFEAT
a) UQAVNHSI b) CETAH c) COTUH d) TACSRCH
25. FANTASTIC
a) TIAIRLSIC b) BDCINREILE c) ALCER d) YNIMIAGAR

Part - I
Section B
Test of General Knowledge
26. The tusks of male elephant are
a) premolar b) molar c) incisor d) canine
27. In which year was the RBI nationalized ?
a) 1948 b) 1950 c) 1947 d) 1949
28. The Mauryan dynasty ruled from 321 BC to 185 BC. The last Mauryan emperor was
defeated by Pushyamitra Sunga. Who among the following was the last Mauyuran emperor ?
a) Brihadratha b) Asoka c) Bindusara d) Samprati
29. Which of the following books is not written by Shashi Tharoor ?
a) Bookless in Baghdad b) The Great Indian Novel
c) Riot : A Novel d) India : The Siege Within
30. When bullet is fired upwards vertically it gains in
a) Potential energy b) Kinetic energy c) Speed d) inertia
31. How many players make up a team in a basketball game ?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
Page 50 of 57

32. Who among the following is the director of the film Corporate?
a) Shekar Kapoor b) Mahesh Bhatt
c) Nagesh Kukanoor d) Madhur Bhandarkar
33. The traditional new year celebrations of Bihu are associated with
a) West Bengal b) Orissa c) Assam d) Kerala
34. Who is the author of the book, Elizabeth Costello?
a) J.M.Coetzee b) Peter Carey c)Glunter Grass d) Hari Kunzru
35. Which is the solar systems fastest planet, which orbits the sun at nearly twice the speed
of the earth?
a) Venus b) Mercury c) Jupiter d) Pluto
36. US President Barack Obama served as Unites States Senator from January 4, 2005 to
November 16, 2008 from which of the following states?
a) Iowa b) California c) Illinois d) New York

37. Who among the follwoing owns The Taj hotel, Mumbai which was recently attacked by
militants?
a) Ratan Tata b) Arun Sarin c) KM Birla d) Vijay Mallya
38. Which among the following is the most common element on earth?
a) Hydrogen b) Carbon c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
39. Which of the following nations gave women, the right to vote, first?
a) West Indies b) United States of America c) India d) New Zealand
40. What is the meaning of Veni, Vidi, Vici?
a) I came, I fought, I won b) I came, I saw, I conquered
c) I saw, I planned, I achieved d) I saw, I fought, I won
41. The disease Swine Flu, is caused by which subtype of Influenza A virus?
a) H5N1 b) H5N c) H1M1 d) H1N1
42. What are the Primary Colours?
Page 51 of 57

a) Red, Blue and Yellow b) Red, Blue, Green
c) Blue Yellow, Brown d) Blue, Brown, Black
43. The Narmada Valley Project is spread across three states. Which of the following is not
a part of the project?
a) Maharashtra b) Jharkhand c) Gujarat d) Madhya Pradesh
44. The PGA championship is associated with
a) Bridge b) Polo c) Horse racing d) Golf
45. Jeep, an automobile brand, is registered and owned by
a) General Motors b) Ford Motors c) Daimler Chrysler d) Mahindra & Mahindra
46. What should be the minimum level of public shareholding in listed companies under the
new SEBI guidelines issued in April 2006?
a) 20% of total equity capital b) 15% of total equity capital
c) 25% of total equity capital d) 30% of total equity capital
47. Which company is associated with the campaign, Taste Bhi, Health Bhi?
a) GlaxoSmithKline b) Dabur c) Nestle d) Amul
48. The book, To Kill a Mocking Bird, is written by
a) Harper Lee b) Joseph Heller c) Ken Casey d) Ayn Rand
49. Spoil yourself is the punch line of
a) Tata Indigo b) Tata Indica c) Toyota Corolla d) Toyota Camry
50. Lawrence J Ellison, one of the world,s highest paid CEOs is heading _______
Company?
a) IBM b) Toshiba c) Oracle d) Wipro

Page 52 of 57

Part - II
SECTION C
Test of Reasoning and General Intelligence
DIRECTION (Question No.: 51 to 53): Answer these question based on the information given
below:
A visits Vizag where his brother P resides. A stays with his father Q and mother S. P s
Grandfather, R also stays with him. P has two children B and C. B s husband is X. C is married
to Y, who is a wrestler, Cs son T welcomed A on his visit.
51. How is T related to B
a) Niece b) Nephew c) Cousin d) son
52. How is S related to C?
a) Mother b) Grandmother c) Aunt d) Cannot be Determined
53. How is P related to X?
a) Mother-in-law b) Mother c) Father-in-law d) Cannot be determined
DIRECTION (Question No. 54 to 56): Answer these question based on the data given below:
In a class of 70 students, 30 failed in Mathematics and 35 failed in Statistics. Ten Students
passed in both the subjects.
54. How many failed in both the subjects?
a) 65 b) 60 c) 05 d) 15
55. How many students passed only in Mathematics?
a) 40 b) 30 c) 15 d) 20
56. How many students passed in exactly one of the two subjects?
a) 60 b) 55 c) 40 d) 35

DIRECTION (for Question No. 57 to 59): Answer the question based on the following data:
Puja, kajol, Raj, Sanju, Teena and Uday sit round a hexagonal table in such a way that neither
Puja nor Raj sits opposite to Kajol and neither Teena nor Uday sits opposite to Sanju, whereas
Raj sits to the immediate left of Sanju.
57. If Teena sits opposite to Raj, Then which of the following must be true?
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a) Puja is opposite to sanju b) kajal and Uday sit opposite to each other
c) puja and Uday sit opposite to each other d) None of these
58. If Teena sits opposite to Kajol, then with of the following is definitely false?
a) Uday and Puja sit next to each other b) Uday sits opposite to Raj
c) Puja sist opposite to Sanju d) Puja and Uday have only one person between
them.
59. If Puja sits to the immediate left of Raj, then
a) Kajol sits opposite to Raj b) Puja sits opposite to Sanju
c) Kajol sits opposite to Sanju d) Teen is opposite to Raj
Direction (Question No. 60-62): Select the alternative that logically follows the two given
statements :
60. All Books are pages. All pages are boxes.
a) All boxes are books b) All books are boxes
c) No books are boxes d) Both (a) and (b)
61. No monkeys are apes. Some apes are chimpanzees
a) Some chimpanzees are not monkeys b) Some monkeys are not chimpanzees
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
62. No men are good. Some good people are saints.
a) Some saints are not men b) Some men are not saints
c) All men are saints d) None of the above
63. a) Income Tax b) Sale Tax c) Commercial Tax d) Professional Tax
64. a) Vishakapatnam b) Bhilai c) Rourkela d) Vijaywad
65. a) 180 b) 120 c) 48 d) 28

66. A clock is so placed that at 2:00p.m. the minute hand points towards north-west. In
which direction does the hour hand point at 6 00p.m. ?
a) North-West b) West c) North-East d) South-East
Page 54 of 57

67. One evening, two friends Vikas and Viju were talking to each other with their backs
towards each other. If Vikas shadow was exactly to the right of him, which direction was Viju
facing?
a) South b) North c) East d) West
68. If 1cm on a map corresponds to an actual distance of 40 kms. And the distance on the
map between Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5 cms. the actual distance between them is :
a) 375 Kms b) 3750 Kms c) 1500 Kms d) 1375 Kms
69. Which of the following is the greatest ?
a) 40% of 30 b) 3/5 of 25 c) 6.5% of 200 d) -4
70. After walking 10 Km, Rajesh turned right and walked 5 Km, then turned left and walked 1
K.
Now he is moving towards south. From which direction did Rajesh start his journey ?
a) North b) South-West c) East d) West
71. Two identical taps fill 2/5 of a tank in 20 minutes. When one of the taps goes dry in how
many minutes will the remaining one tap fill the rest of the tank ?
a) 15 Minutes b) 5 Minutes c) 10 Minutes d) 20 Minutes
72. If Square = 87 and Rectangle =94, then what is the value of Rhombus ?
a) 96 b) 94 c) 89 d) None of these
73. On what day of the week did India celebrate its first Republic Day i.e. 26th January,
1950 ?
a) Sunday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) None of these
74. Padma walks 10 Kms from north to south and turns left again walks 5 Kms. Then she
turns left and walks 8 Kms. In which direction is she positioned now with reference to the
starting point ?
a) East b) South-East c) North d) North-East
75. Find the next number in the series:
3, 12, 48, 192, 768. ?
a) 2868 b) 2968 c) 3072 d) 3176

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Part - II
Section D
Test of Quantitative Analysis (Mathematical Skills)
76. If Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 2200 in two years under simple interest, what is the rate of
interest per annum ?
a) 5% b) 6% c) 10% d) 8%
77. Rahul borrowed Rs.1,00,000 @ 8% p.a. compound interest, interest being compounded
annually. How much should he repay at the end of the first year, so that by repaying Rs.
54,000 at the end of the second year he can clear the loan ?
a) Rs.46,000 b) Rs.54,000 c) Rs.58,000 d) Rs. 50,000
78. 6 litres of pure milk are added 10 litres of a mixture of water and milk, with 40% milk.
What is the percentage of milk in the new solution ?
a) 50% b) 62.5% c) 75% d) 87.5%
79. The price of the product is decreased by 10% and then increased by 10%. What is the
change in price ?
a) increased by 1% b) Decreased by 1%
c) No change int he price d) None of these
80. The worth of a car depreciates by 4% every year. If the present worth of a car is Rs.
6,00,000, what is its worth after four years (to the nearest thousands) ?
a) Rs. 5,04,000 b) Rs. 5,12,000 c) Rs. 5,10,000 d) Rs. 5,16,000
81. What is the area of the smallest square that can be formed with rectangles of
dimensions
3 x 2 ?
a) 6 b) 12 c) 72 d) 36
82. Number 85 is divided into two parts, such that thrice the first part and twice the second
part are in the ratio of 18 : 5. Find the first part ?
a) 60 b) 55 c) 45 d) 24
83. A party is attended by a total of 60 persons. If the ratio of men and women is 3 : 2, how
many more men must join the party such that the ratio becomes 7 : 3 ?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
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84. A group of five people can do a certain work in a certain number of days. If more people
join the group, they take 12 days less to do the same work. In how many days a group of three
people can do the work ?
a) 30 days b) 45 days c) 15 days d) 60 days
85. A man leaves P and reaches Q in three hours at an average speed of 60 Kmph. What is
the distance from P to Q ?
a) 180 Km b) 150 Km c) 300 Km d) 250 Km
86. The sum of the first and the 9th of an arithmetic progression is 24. What is the sum of
the first nine terms of the progression ?
87. The sum of 20 terms of the series 12 + 22, 32+ 42. 52+62 is:
88. If 3/p=6 and 3/p=15 then p-q = ?
a) 1/3 b)2/5 c) 3/10 5/6
89. In how many ways can 5 letters be posted in 3 post boxes, if any number of letters can
be posted in all of the three post boxes ?
a) 5C3 b) 5P3 c) 53 d) 35
90. John starts work at 8:45am and finishes at 5:15pm. He has 90 minutes of breaks. How
many hours does he work in 29 days ?
a) 180 b) 200 c) 220 d) 240
91. The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is 5 : 7 respectively. Four years hence
the ratio will become 3 : 4 respectively. What is the present age of Renu in years ?
a) 28 b) 24 c) 21 d) 20
92. A man bought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs. 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for
Rs. 18. What is the profit per cent ?
a) 50% b) 40% c) 60% d) 25%
93. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are supposed to do 7/11th of
the work. How much does C get ?
a) Rs. 270 b) Rs. 200 c) Rs. 310 d) Rs. 175.
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94. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8cm and 10cm respectively what will be the area of the
rhombus?
a) 35 sq.cm b) 40 sq.com c) 30 sq.cm d) 20 sq.cm
95. Brijesh was born on 17th August 1983 and the day was Friday. If Aryan was born on
27th March 1986, what was the day ?
a) Thursday b) Monday c) Friday d) Saturday
96. A person standing in a queue is 17th from the first and 13th from the last. How many
peoples are standing in the queue ?
a) 29 b) 33 c) 45 d) 26
97. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively. Both together can fill
it in:
a) 12.5 hours b) 17.5 hours c) 8.57 hours d) 15.57 hours
98. In a group of 15, 7 have studies Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied
either. How many of these studied both Latin and Greek ?
a) 6 b) 3 c) 9 d) 0
99. There is a safe with a 5 digit number as the key. The 4th digit is 4 greater than second
digit, while 3rd digit is 3 less than 2nd digit. The 1st digit is thrice the last digit. There are 3 pairs
whose sum is 11. Find the 3rd digit.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d) 3
100. If 4563 = 5437 and 6647 = 3353, then 546 is
a) 453 b) 454 c) 8445 d) 9454
* * * * *

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