IBPS PO Study Kit Brochure PDF

Contents of IBPS PO Study Kit
REASONING
Alphabet Test
Logical Sequence of Words
Classification Test
Analogy
Series Completion
Coding-decoding
Blood Relation
Direction Sense Test
Alpha-numeric Sequence Test
Number, Ranking and Time Sequence Test
Mathematical Operations
Puzzle Test
Logical Venn Diagram
Syllogism
Input Output
True and False
Statement and Arguments
(Non- Verbal)
Series
Analogy
Coding-decoding
MATHEMATICAL APTITUDE
Number System
Decimal Fractions
HCF and LCM
Average
Ratio and Proportion
Problem on Ages
Percentage
Profit and Loss
Ratio
Time and Work
Time and Distance
Alligation or Mixture
Probability
Simple and compound interest
Area
Data Interpretation
GENERAL AWARENESS
English Language
Comprehension
Common Error
One-Word Substitution
Synonyms and Antonyms
Idioms and Phrases
Sentence Correction
Sentence Arrangements
Fill in the Blanks
Analogy
Computer & Marketing
Computer Knowledge
Marketing Aptitude
SAMPLE
MATERIAL
OF OUR
STUDY KIT

COMPREHENSION
Comprehension
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Comprehension is the act of understanding.
If you do not understand a thing, it is no use
wasting time upon it. At times you may come
across a man immaculately dressed, properly
bespectacled, and seriously reading a book
considered to be a classic; but ask him what he
got in the book and he hardly has an answer.
Such a man has understood nothing of what he
has read. For him, the hook is merely a status
symbol. It may serve as a momentary illusion
to others that he is an educated man. But the
moment he comes to conversation, the balloon
of hypocrisy is pinpricked. Reason: he has
understood nothing of wiat he has read.
In other words, reading without
understanding is even worse than tasting
without digesting. Whenever an edible or a
beverage comes in contact with the tongue, at
least the taste-buds are gratified. You feel happy
when sugar tastes sweet. It is only later that
indigestion causes stomach troubles. In reading
without understanding you do not get even this
momentary gratification. At best, you create an
impression which is no more than an illusion,
as we saw in the first paragraph.
All this I have written to drive home the
fact that reading without understanding is a
complete waste of time. Understanding is what
one should aim at. It is a habit which should be
formed early in life. The earlier, the better. Once
this becomes a habit, life becomes easy at every
step.
Why is comprehension judged in
competitions?
Wherever you go, a person with a better
comprehension is always valued. Once apprised
with a situation, his decisions will be based on
a clear picture. On the other hand, one who
cannot comprehend well, in spite of his or her
decision-making ability, can never take the right
decision.
Most of the selectors are also looking for
candidates who are unbiased. When you are
given a passage, you are not supposed to answer
the questions based on preconceived notions. The
answers have to he based on what is given in
the passage. Success at comprehension shows
an un-preoccupied mind.
When you go to an interview, your
comprehension may be judged by narrating an
incident and then asking you what you make
out of certain aspects of the incident. At the
written level, the same thing is done by giving
a passage before your eyes. There is another
aspect of the personality which comprehension
Comprehension
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English Grammar and Comprehension
pas sages take care of - the ability to understand
the things in a given time. Time limit plays an
important role in answering questions based on
the comprchen sion passages.
How to tackle the comprehension test
If the student has developed an approach
of his own to answering the comprehension
questions and the approach is effective, he or
she should stick to that approach. However, this
method of one s own should be thoroughly
checked bearing in mind the time duration.
But for those of you who feel uneasy the
moment a comprehension passage comes into
sight, here are some tips which may also be
called speed enhancing techniques.
1. It is a good idea to take a cursory glance
at the questions given. In an age of cut-
throat competition, you cannot afford the
copybook style of reading and re-reading
the passage until you have thoroughly
understood it and then come down to
questions. No, be pragmatic. It you take a
look at the questions before reading the
passage, you know what aspects of the
passage to concentrate on.
Caution: Avoid reading the answer-
choices before you have read the passage.
Doing so will only serve in generating
confusion in your mind. This is so because
the answer-choices are meant to confuse
you.
2. Now read the passage carefully. While
reading find out the i ain point and the
arguments that have been given in its
favour. If you have got these correct, you
have well begun and it is more than half
done.
3. Examine the attitude of the writer. This
is one of the pet questions of those setting
comprehension tests.
4. Often the questions pertain to synonym
or antonym of a word as used in the
passage. The important point here is as
used in the passage. You should not go
for the meaning blindly.
5. Here is in a nutshell what is generally
looked for in the questions:
(i) main idea of the passage:
Whenever a passage is written, it is
to propagate an idea. This idea forms
the nucleus around which words and
sentences are constructed. Get to the
root of this idea.
(ii) attitude of the writer: This is again
important because the same sentence
may carry a different meaning if
looked at in isolation. But when used
i n a gi ven context, it takes the
meaning dependent on the attitude of
the writer, which is nothing but the
overall feeling that you get after
having read the passage.
(iii) what the writer says and what he
does not: It is very important to
categorically see what the writer says
and what he does not. This will be
possible if we do not operate with
unnecessary assumptions.
(iv) implied meaning of the passage :
Often you may come across passages
which carry meaning beyond the
literal one. You should have an insight
sharp enough to penetrate the literal
layer.
(v) title of the passage: If you arc
familiar with the main idea and the
Comprehension
way it has been put in, thi s is
something not difficult.
If you bear in mind the above points,
you may comprehend the passage
even in one reading. But if you are not
sure of the answers after the first
reading and time allows, you should
not hesitate in going for a second
reading.
6. This suggestion is of course a homework
and has to do with cultivation in due
process. But if you cultivate it, it is going
to be of immense help in the examination
hall. The suggestion is: develop your
vocabulary and sentence
construction. Then you do not have to
grope in the dark or loiter while reading
the passage.
The trend of the day is short sentences. But
we still encounter sentences which prove to be
discomfitingly long. Fortunately, however, these
sentences are not as long as you would find in
earlier authors - George Eliot s sentences often
ran for almost one long paragraph. Still, the
sentences today are long at times. And the
longer they are, the more baffling they become
for the begin ners. The editorials of certain
newspapers and articles by certain academics
put off a not-too-well-versed reader.
This chapter is an attempt to make you
master long sentences. For, after all, long
sentences are nothing but a combination of short
ones. All you need know is how to split them. In
the beginning, the exorcise (done preferably
with a pencil) might appear cumbersome. But
once you have practised this with about a
hundred passages, your mind will automatically
begin to split sentences. As soon as you reach
this stage, put the pencil in your drawer. And
speed won t be a problem thereafter.
Key splitters
How do we split a sentence? Here are some
major clues:
(i) The structure of the sentence: We
must first divide the sentence into its main
parts: Subject + verb + object (if the verb is
transitive) + comple ment. For example: (1) The
students of each class in the school in which I
studied /(2) elected /(3) the naughtiest boy of
their class 1(4) the monitor. The sentence above
has been split into its major parts: (1) - subject,
(2) - verb, (3) - object, and (4) - complement. The
parts may be sub-divided if the meaning is still
not clear.
Note: The verb is the most important part
of the sentence. If you identify the verb, splitting
the rest of the sentence becomes very easy.
At times, you may have a long sentence
connected by one small word is (or any other
form of be or any other verb of incomplete
predication). In such sentences of the form A
is B , identify the parts A and B, understand
each of them separately by sub-dividing these
parts, and then try to connect the whole in your
mind.
For example: What transpired at the
meeting amidst such uproarious scenes / is / not
a matter of such significance as to be included
in the history text-books.
(ii) Punctuation marks: A punctuation
mark (or ; or: or) denotes a pause. Such pauses
are very helpful in splitting a sentence.
For example: There was a prediction from
above: /Ayodhya, / the son of Raja,/ will be
banished.
(iii) Conjunctions: Words such as and,
but, that, while, yet etc. should be looked for. If
the words form a conjunction pair (such as not
only... but also ..., either... or...), we should try
to find out their connection.
(iv) Prepositions: We have seen that
prepositions show relationships. If you split the
sentence at these points, the relationship
between different parts of the sentence will thus
become clear. So look for words such as from,
to, of, on, in, for, by etc.
(v) Adjective (or participle) after a
noun: It is convenient to split a sentence where
you find an adjective following a noun.
For example: (1) This question has a
solution / (2) difficult to be arrived at. Part (2)
here tells us what kind of solution. The key
adjective is difficult which follows noun solution.
Since present and past participles also
function as adjectives, you may apply it to them
as well.
For example: We were taken aback by the
notice / issued by the Principal.
A man crosses a train / running in the
opposite direction.
(vi) Infinitive: We have seen how verbs
are the key splitters. Now, an infinitive also is
much the same as a verb. So it is a convenient
splitting point.
For example: School education helps us /
to come to terms with the social aspects of life.
(vii) Relative words: Words such as
relative pronouns and relative adverbs also
perform the function of joining sentences or
parts of a sentence.
And the basic rule is : We split where we
join. So look for words such as who, which,
where that etc.
For example: This book has been written
for readers / who find English difficult and
therefore lag behind / where others come out
with flying colours.
(viii) Phrases: Phrases are words that
form a group. We must be able to identify such
a group as a whole. For example: with a view to,
by and large etc. The situation at the KSCA
stadium was / by and large / the same as that at
Wankhede.
Comprehension questions on an unseen
passage are meant to test the student s grasp of
a passage given to him. He is required to read a
passage and answer a few questions based on
it. The following points should be carefully noted
while attempting this question:
1. Read the passage carefully and try to get
a general idea of the subject it deals with.
2. Read the passage again, this time more
thoroughly, taking a mental note of the
various points discussed.
3. Now take each question in turn and make
sure of its import. Read the passage again
and make out the answer.
4. Having answered all the questions, re-
read the passage and make sure that you
have answered the questions correctly
and that your answers are brief and to the
point and they do not overlap.
5. Your answers should be, as far as possible,
in your own words.
6. Don t give your comments on the opinions
expressed in the passage unless commeins
arc asked for. Remember that your job is
simply to comprehend the passage and not
to quarrel with the ideas it contains.
7. Don t explain or elaborate any point with
illustrations of your own. Keep yourself
quite close to the passage.
Passage 1
At the time Jane Austen s novels were
published - between 1811 and 1818 -English
literature was not part of any academic
curriculum. In addition, fiction was under
strenuous attack. Certain religious and political
groups felt novels had the power to make so-
called immoral characters so interesting that
young readers would identify with them; these
groups also considered novels to be of little
practical use. Even Coleridge, certainly no
literary reactionary, spoke for many when he
asserted that novel-reading occasions the
destructi in of the mind s powers.
These. attitudes towards novels help
explain why Austen received the attention from
early nineteenth-century literary critics. (In any
case, a novelist published anonymously, as
Austen was, would not be likely to receive much
Solved Examples
Practice Exercises Multiple Choice
Direction for Questions: Each of the passages given below is followed by a set of questions
choose the best answer to each question.
critical attention.) The literary response that
was accorded to her, however, was often as
incisive as twentieth-century criticism. In his
attack in 1816 on novelistic portrayals outside
of ordinary experience, for example, Scott made
an insightful remark about the merits of
Austen s fiction. Her novels, wrote Scott,
present to the reader an accurate and exact
picture of ordinary everyday people and places,
reminiscent of seventeenth-century Flemish
painting. Scott did not use the word realism,
but he undoubtedly used a standard of realistic
probability in judging novels. The critic Whately
did not use the word realism either, but he
expressed agreement with Scott s evaluation,
and went on to suggest the possibilities for moral
instruction in what we have called Austen s
realistic method. Her characters, wrote
Whately, are persuasive agents for moral truth
since they are ordinary persons so clearly
Comprehension
evoked that we feel an interest in their fate as
if it were our own. Moral instruction, explained
Whately, is more likely to be effective when
conveyed through recognisably human and
interesting characters than when imparted by
a sermonising nar rator. Whately especially
praised Austen s ability to create characters who
mingle goodness and villainy, weakness and
virtue, as in life they are always mingled.
Whately concluded his remarks by comparing
Austen s art of char acterisation to Dickens ,
stating his preference for Austens.
Yet the response of nineteenth-century
literary critics to Austen was not always so
laudatory, and often anticipated the
reservations of twentieth century critics. An
example of such a response was Lewes
complaint in 1859 that Austen s range of
subjects and characters was too narrow.
Praising her verisimilitude, Lewes added that
nonetheless her focus was too often upon only
the unlofty and the commonplace. (Twentieth-
century Marxists, on the other hand, were to
complain about what they saw as her exclusive
emphasis on a lofty upper-middle class.) In any
case, having been rescued by some literary
critics from neglect and indeed gradually
lionised by them, Austen steadily reached, by
the mid-nineteenth century, the enviable
pinnacle of being con sidered controversial.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) demonstrate the nineteenth-century
preference for realistic novels rather
than romantic ones.
(b) explain why Jane Austen s novels were
not included i n any academic
curriculum in the early nineteenth
century.
(c) urge a reassessment of Jane Austens
novels by twentieth-century literary
critics.
(d) describe some of the responses of
nineteenth-century critics to Jane
Austens novels as well as to fiction in
general.
(e) argue that realistic character
portrayal is the novelist s most
difficult task as well as the aspect of a
novel most likely to elicit critical
response.
2. The passage supplies information for
answering whi ch of the following
questions?
(a) Was Whately aware of Scott s remarks
about Jane Austens novels?
(b) Who is an example of a twentieth-
century Marxist critic?
(c) Who is an example of a twentieth-
century critic who admired Jane
Austens novels?
(d) What is the author s judgement of
Dickens?
(e) Did Jane Austen express her opinion
of those nineteenth-century critics
who admired her novels?
3. The author menti ons that English
literature was not part of any academic
curriculum in the early nineteenth
century in order to
(a) emphasise the need for Jane Austen
to create ordinary, everyday
characters in her novels.
(b) give support to those religious and
political groups that had attacked
fiction.
(c) give one reason why Jane Austen s
novels received little critical attention
in the early nineteenth century.
(d) suggest the superiority of an informal
and unsystematised approach to the
study of literature.
(e) contrast nineteenth-century attitudes
towards English literature with those
towards classical literature.
4. The passage supplies information to
suggest that the religious and political
groups (mentioned in the third sentence)
and What ly might have agreed that a
novel
(a) has little practical use.
(b) has the ability to influence the moral
values of its readers.
(c) is of most interest to readers when
representing ordinary human
characters.
(d) should not he read by young readers.
(e) needs the sermonising of a narrator in
order to impart moral truths.
5. The author quotes Coleridge in order to
(a) refute the literary opinions of certain
religious and political groups.
(b) make a case for the inferiority of novels
to poetry.
(c) give an example of a writer who was
not a literary reactionary.
(d) illustrate the early nineteenth-century
belief that fiction was especially
appealing to young readers.
(e) indicate how widespread was the
attack on novels in the early
nineteenth century.
6. The passage suggests that twentieth-
century Marxists would have admired
Jane Austen s novels more if the novels,
as the Marxists understood them, had
(a) described the values of upper-middle
class society.
(b) avoided moral instruction and
sermonising.
(c) depicted ordinary society in a more
flattering light.
(d) portrayed characters from more than
one class of society.
(e) anticipated some of the controversial
social problems of the twentieth
century.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that
Whately found Dickens characters to be
(a) especially interesting to young
readers.
(b) ordinary persons in recognisably
human situations.
(c) less liabl e than Jane Austen s
characters to have a realistic mixture
of moral qualities.
(d) more often villainous and weak than
virtuous and good.
(e) less susceptible than Jane Austen s
characters to the moral judgments of
a sermonising narrator.
8. According to the passage, the lack of
critical attention paid to Jane Austen can
be explained by all of the following
nineteenth-century attitudes towards the
novel EXCEPT the
(a) assurance felt by many people that
novels weakened the mind
(b) certainty shared by many political
commentators that the range of novels
was too narrow
(c) lack of interest shown by some critics
in novels that were published
anonymously
(d) fear exhibited by some religious and
political groups that novels had the
Comprehension
power to portray immoral characters
attractively
(e) belief held by some religious and
political groups that novels had no
practical value
9. The author would most likely agree that
which of the following is the best measure
of a writer s literary success?
(a) Inclusion of the writer s work in an
academic curriculum
(b) Publication of the writer s work in the
writer s own name
(c) Existence of debate among critics
about the writer s work
(d) Praise of the writer s work by religious
and political groups
(e) Ability of the writer s work to appeal
to ordinary people
Passage 2
(This passage was written in 1978.)
Recent years have brought minority-owned
businesses in the United States unprecedented
opportunities-as well as new and significant
risks. Civil rights activists have long argued
that one of the principal reasons why Blacks,
Hispanics, and other minority groups have
difficulty establishing themselves in business
is that they lack access to the sizable orders and
subcontracts that are generated by large
companies. Now Congress, in apparent
agreement, has required by law that businesses
awarded federal contracts of more than $
500,000 do their best to find minority
subcontractors and record their efforts to do so
on forms filed with the government. Indeed,
some federal and local agencies have gone so
far as to set specific percentage goals for
apportioning parts of public workers contracts
to minority enterprises. Corporate response
appears to have been substantial. According to
figures collected in 1977, the total of corporate
contracts with minority busi nesses rose from
$ 77 million in 1972 to $ 1.1 billion in 1977. The
projected total of corporate contracts with
minority businesses for the early 1980s is
estimated to he over $ 3 billion per year with no
letup anticipated in the next decade.
Promising as it is for minority businesses,
this increased patronage poses dangers for
them, too. First, minority firms risk expanding
too fast and overextending themselves
financially, since most are small concerns and,
unlike large businesses, they often need to make
substantial investments in new plants, staff,
equipment, and the like in order to perform work
subcontracted to them. If, thereafter, their
subcontracts are for some reason reduced, such
firms can face potentially crippling fixed
expenses. The world of corporate purchas ing
can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who
get requests for elaborate formal estimates and
bids. Both consume valuable time and resources,
and a small company s efforts must soon result
in orders, or both the morale and the financial
health of the business will suffer.
A second risk is that Whi te-owned
companies may seek to cash in on the increasing
apportionments through formation of joint
ventures with minority-owned concerns. Of
course, in many instances there arc legitimate
reasons for joint ventures; clearly, White and
minority enterprises can team up to acquire
business that neither could acquire alone. But
civil rights groups and minority business owners
have complained to Congress about minorities
being set up as fronts with White backing,
rather than being accepted as full partners in
legitimate joint ventures. Third, a minority
enterprise that secures the business of one large
corporate customer often runs the danger of
becoming - and remaining - dependent. Even in
the best of circumstances, fierce competition
from larger, more established companies makes
it difficult for small concerns to broaden their
customer bases; when such firms have nearly
guaranteed orders from a single corporate
benefactor, they may truly have to struggle
against complacen cy arising from their current
success.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) present a commonplace idea and its
inaccuracies.
(b) describe a situation and its potential
drawbacks.
(c) propose a temporary solution to a
problem.
(d) analyse a frequent source of
disagreement.
(e) explore the implications of a finding.
2. The passage supplies information that
would answer which of the following
questions?
(a) What federal agencies have set
percentage goals for the use of
minority owned businesses in public
works contracts?
(b) To which government agencies must
businesses awarded federal con tracts
report their efforts to find minority
subcontractors?
(c) How widespread is the use of minority-
owned concerns as fronts by White
backers seeking to obtain
subcontracts ?
(d) How many more mi nority-owned
businesses were there in 1977 than in
1972?
(e) What is one set of conditions under
which a small business might find
itself financially overextended?
3. According to the passage, civil rights
activists maintain that one disadvantage
under which minority-owned businesses
have traditionally had to labour is that
they have
(a) been especially vulnerable to
governmental mismanagement of the
economy.
(b) been denied bank loans at rates
comparable to those afforded by larger
competitors.
(c) not had sufficient opportunity to
secure business created by large
cor porations.
(d) not been able to advertise in those
media that reach large numbers of
potential customers.
(e) not had adequate representation in the
centres of government power.
4. The passage suggests that the failure of a
large business to have its bids for
subcontracts result quickly in orders
might cause it to
(a) experience frustration but not serious
financial harm.
(b) face potentiall y crippling fixed
expenses.
(c) have to record its efforts on forms filed
with the government.
(d) increase its spending with minority
subcontractors.
(e) revise its procedure for making bids
for federal contracts andsubcontracts.
Comprehension
5. The author implies that a minority-owned
concern that does the greater part of its
business with one l arge corporate
customer should
(a) avoid competition with larger, more
established concerns by not expanding.
(b) concentrate on securing even more
business from that corporation.
(c) try to expand its customer base to
avoid becoming dependent on the
corporation.
(d) pass on some of the work to be done
for the corporation to other minority-
owned concerns.
(e) use its influence with the corporation
to promote subcontracting with other
minority concerns.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that,
compared with the requirements of law,
the percentage goals set by some federal
and local agencies (last sentence of para
1) are
(a) more popular with large corporations.
(b) more specific.
(c) less controversial.
(d) less expensive to enforce.
(e) easier to comply with.
7. Which of the following, if true, would most
weaken the author s assertion that, in the
1970s corporate response to federal
requirements (para2) was substantial?
(a) Corporate contracts with minority-
owned businesses totalled $ 2 billion
in 1979.
(b) Between 1970 and 1972, corporate
contracts with minority-owned
busi nesses declined by 25 per cent.
(c) The figures collected in 1977 under-
represented the extent of corporate
contracts with minority-owned
businesses.
(d) The estimate of corporate spending
with minority-owned businesses in
1980 is approximately $ 10 million too
high.
(e) The $ 1.1billion represented the same
percentage of total corporate spending in
1977 as did $ 77 million in 1972.
8. The passage most likely appeared in
(a) a business magazine
(b) an encyclopaedia of Black history upto
1945
(c) a dictionary of financial terms
(d) a yearbook of business statistics
(e) an accounting textbook
9. The author would most likely agree with
which of the following statements about
corporate response to working with
minority subcontractors?
(a) Annoyed by the proliferation of front
organisations, corporations are likely
to reduce their efforts to work with
minority-owned subcontrac tors in the
near future.
(b) Although corporations showed
considerable interest in working with
minority businesses in the 1970s, their
aversion to government paper work
made them reluctant to pursue many
government contracts.
(c) The signi ficant response of
corporations in the 1970s is likely to
be sustained and conceivably be
increased throughout the 1980s.
(d) Although corporations are eager to
cooperate with minority owned
businesses, a shortage of capital in the
1970s made substantial response
impossible.
(e) The enormous corporate response has
all but eliminated the dangers of
overexpansion that used to plague
small minority-owned businesses.
Comprehension
Answers and explanations
Passage 1
1. (d); The passage, in fact, traces the history
of Jane Austen criticism, though it is
confined mainl y to the ni neteenth
century. In this course, criticism of fiction
in general is also talked about.
2. (a); Whately was aware of Scott s remarks,
otherwise how coul d he express
agreement with Scott s evaluation ?
Beware of (4)! The judgement about
Dickens is Whately s, not the author s.
3. (c); The first sentence of the passage
describes one of the attitudes towards
novels which help explain why Austen
received little attention ....
4. (b); Both Whately as well as the groups
shared the opinion stated in (2): that
novels can influence moral behaviour.
However, they disagree about the values
of such influence.
5. (e); When Coleridge, who was not a
reactionary, could thus attack novels, we
can well imagine how others, who were
reactionaries or who were influenced by
them, might have attacked novels.
6. (d); The Marxists were against her
exclusive emphasis on a lofty upper-
middle class. (3) is rejected because being
against exclusive emphasis on one does
not mean pampering the other.
7. (c); See the last two sentences of the
second paragraph.
8. (b); (1), (4) and (5) are mentioned in the
first paragraph as factors resulting in
lack of critical attention . (3) is also stated
as such a factor: see the sentence within
brackets in the second paragraph. (2) is,
in fact, the result of critical attention.
9. (c); The last sentence of the passage says
that being considered controversial (that
is, existence of debate) is the enviable
pinnacle (highest point everyone wishes
to reach).
Passage 2
1. (b); The first two paragraphs describe a
situation: increased patronage for
minority businesses. The next three
paragraphs describe its potential
drawbacks.
2. (e) ; See the fi rst part of the third
paragraph.
3. (c); See the second sentence of the first
paragraph.
4. (a); The substantial investments that
small concems have to make is unlike
large businesses . So while small concerns
can face potentially crippling fixed
expenses , large firms will be spared such
financial harm.
5. (c); See the last paragraph. The danger:
is of becoming dependention the
corporation because it becomes difficult
for the minority-owned concerns to
broaden their customer bases So the
author s suggestion is to counter this
drawback: struggle agai nst
complacency .
6. (b); The law is vague: it talks in terms of
do their best . Some federal and local
agencies , on the other hand, have set
specific percentage goals .
7. (e); That the response was substantial
rests on the fact that contracts rose from
$ 77 million in 1972 to $11 billion in 1977.
(5) suggests that the two amounts
represented the same percentage of total
corporate spending in their respective
years. So, in actual terms there was no
growth; there was no proportional gain.
8. (a); (3) can be easily ruled out. (2) is
rejected because of time lag (1978 and
1945). (1) is preferred to (4) and (5)
because there is not too much emphasis
on statistics; the passage rather makes
interesting reading.
9. (c); The last line of the second paragraph
tells us that no letup is anticipated in
the next decade (that is, the 1980s, since
the passage was written in 1978).
SAMPLE
MATERIAL
OF OUR
STUDY KIT

COMPUTER
KNOWLEDGE
1. Assembly language is
1. Low-level programming language
2. High level programming language
3. Machine language
4. All of the above 5. None of these
2. In Assembly language
1. Mnemonics are used to code operations
2. Alphanumeric symbols are used for addresses
3. Language lies between high-level language
and machine
4. All of the above
5. None of these
3. The foll owi ng comput er s memory is
characterized by low cost per bit stored
1. Primary 2. Secondary
3. Hard disk 4. All of the above
5. None of these
4. The following is true for Auxiliary Storage
1. It has an operating speed far slower than that
of the primary storage.
2. It has an operating speed faster than that of
the primary storage.
3. It has an operating speed equivalent than that
of the primary storage.
5. Following is true for Bandwidth
1. The narrow the bandwidth of a
communications system the less data it can
transmit in a given period of time.
2. The narrow then bandwidt h of a
communications system the more data it can
3. The wider the bandwidth of a
communications system the less data it can
4. All of the above 5. None is true
6. Acknowledgement from a computer that a packet
of data has been received and verified is known
as
1. ACK 2. BCK
3. ECK 4. All of the above
5. None of these
7. The following is a communications device
(modem) which allows an ordinary telephone to
be used with a computer device for data
transmission
1. Keyboard 2. Acoustic coupler
3. Mobile phone 4. All of the above
5. None of these
8. ALGOL is the
1. High-level language
2. Low level language
3. Machine language 4. All of the above
5. None of these
9. A high level programming language named after
Ada Augusta, coworker with Charles Babbage
1. Augustan 2. Babbage
3. Ada 4. Charlie
5. All of the above
10. Following is a logic circuit capable of forming
the sum of two or more quantities
1. Adder 2. Multiplier
3. Address 4. Access
5. None of these
17
Computer Knowledge
Computer Knowledge
11. To identification particular location in storage
area one have a
1. Address 2. Password
3. Logic 4. Mouse
5. None of these
12. A local storage register in the CPU which
contains the address of the next instruction to
be executed is referred as
1. Key register 2. Address register
3. Password 4. All of the above
5. None of these
13. A sequence of precise and unambiguous
instructions for solving a problem in a finite
number of operations is referred as
1. Address 2. Algorithm
3. Advice 4. All of the above
5. None of these
14. A character set that contains letters, digits, and
other special characters such as $, @, + % etc.
is referred as
1. Numeric 2. Alphanumeric
3. Alphabetic 4. All of the above
5. None of these
15. One of the components of central Processing
Unit (CPU) of the computer that performs
mathematical and logical operations is
1. ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit)
2. Address register 3. Analog
16. A standard intended to connect relatively
low speed devices such as keyboards, mouse,
modems and printers is
1. Access bus 2. Access time
3. Connector 4. All of the above
5. None of these
17. The concept that one can disconnect peripherals
and plug them in without letting computer shut
down or reconfigure the system is referred as
1. Hot plugging 2. Cold plugging
3. Access bus 4. All of the above
5. None of these
18. The time interval between the instant at which
data is called from a storage device and the rust
delivery begins in
1. Access time 2. Delivery time
3. Service time 4. All of the above
5. None of these
19. The automatic execution of lower-priority
(background) comput er programs when
higher priority (foreground) programs are not
using the system resources is referred as
1. Background processing
2. Foreground processing
3. Null processing
20. A form of access to a computer or network with
specified user name and password is referred as
1. Account 2. Address
3. Algorithm 4. All of the above
5. None of these
ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1)
SAMPLE
MATERIAL
OF OUR
STUDY KIT

MARKETING
APTUTUDE
Computer Knowledge
1. Bancassurance is a relationship between Bank
and
1. Education 2. Insurance Company
3. Employee 4. Customer
5. All of these
2. BIM stands for
1. Bank Insurance Model
2. Book In Management
3. Bank In Money
4. Bank Investment Model
5. All of these
3. Effective Communication is
1. Good Vocabulary
2. A sine qua non for marketing
3. Not required of demand exceeds supply
4. All of these
5. None of these
4. Which is not a part of 7 ps of marketing?
1. Price 2. Policy
3. Product 4. People
5. Process
5. Market Plan can be for
1. A brand 2. A product
3. Product line 4. All of these
5. None of these
6. Solid marketing strategy is the fundation of a
1. Sales 2. Budget
3. Well written marketing plan
4. Market 5. All of these
7. Which is/are promotional content?
1. SalesPromotion
2. Branding 3. Direct Marketing
4 Advertising 5 All of these
8. Marketing strategy means
1. To introduce in sales promotion scheme
2. Population 3. Perseverance
4. Demands 5. Networth
9. Customisation means
1. Making Few change according to client
requirement to an already existing product
2. Test 3. Production
4. Costing 5. All of these
10. Marketing should be resorted
1. Only among rich person
2. Depends on income
3. Only in crowded areas
4. Depends on the product
5. Only among the poor
11. Marketing is
1. A one off affair
2. A day to day function
3. A collective process
4. A one man show 5. None of these
12. Marketing Strategies means
1. Plan for effective marketing
2. Report 3. Loss
4. Risk 5. Profit
13. Qualities needed by a good marketing staff are
1. Politeness 2. Perseverance
3. Pushy 4. Aggressiveness
5. Only 1. and 2.
14. Marketing is required in banks due to
1. Globalisation
2. Government dictates
3. Increase in population
4 Computerisation 5 None of these
17
Marketing Aptutude
Computer Knowledge
ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (5) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (2)
15. HNI means
1. Honest Neutral Individual
2. Honest Marketing Staff
3. High Networth Individual
4. High Income Individual
5. None of these
16. Which is/are conventional media that are I6
reaching the rural audience effectively?
1. Bullock Cart 2. Television
3. Horse Cart 4. Radio
5. All of these
17. Rural markets and rural marketing involve a
number of strategies, which iclude
1. Client and location specific promotion
2. Partnership for sustainability
3. Bundling of inputs
4. Joint or cooperative promotion
5. All of these
18. Which is/are Features of Rural Market ?
1. Irregular income 2. Low income
3. Population is Predominantly, illiterate
4. Lack of monthly income
5. All of these
19. Which is/are reasons for improvement of
business in rural area?
1. Infrastructure Facilities
2. Literacy level
3. Socio-economic changes
4. Increase in Income
5. All of these
20. Who is the target of Rural Marketing ?
1. Doctors 2. Rural Consumers
3. Students
4. Chartered Accountant
5. All of these
SAMPLE
MATERIAL
OF OUR
STUDY KIT

DATA
INTERPRETATION
&
DATA SUFFICIENCY
Quantities can be compared by the height or length of a bar in a bar graph. A bar graph can have either
vertical or horizontal bars. You can compare different quantities or the same quantity at different times.
DISABILITY BENEFICIARIES REPORTED AS REHABILITATED
(Number, as percent of all rehabilitated clients of state
vocational rehabilitation agencie, years 1985-2001)
20
15
10
5
0
Year 1985-95 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
Q. Between 1997 and 2001, the lowest number of disability beneficiaries were reported as rehabilitated in the
year
(a) 1997 (b) 1998
(c) 1999 (d) 2000
The answer is (A) since the lowest bar is the bar for 1997.
Example
Directions: Given here is a multiple bar diagram depicting the changes in the students strength of a
college in four faculties from 1990 91 to 1992 93. Study the diagram and answer the questions.
1. In which faculty was there a regular decrease in students strength?
(a) Arts (b) Science
(c) Commerce (d) Law
Bar Charts
2. The percentage of students in Science faculty in 1990 91 was
(a) 26.9 (b) 27.8
(c) 29.6 (d) 30.2
3. The total students strength in 1991 92 was how many times that of Commerce students in the same year?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
4. What was the percent increase in Science students from the year 1990 91 to 1992 93?
(1) 50 (b)
2
66
3
(3) 75 (d) 150
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
1990-91 1991-92 1992-93
Year
Arts
Science
Commerce
Law
Solution:
1. (a)
2. (c) Number of students in all faculties taken together in 1990 91
= 600 + 400 + 200 + 150 = 1350
Number of students in science faculty = 400
\ Required percentage
400
100 29.6%
1350
= =
3. (d) Total students strength in 1991 92
= 550 + 500 + 250 + 200 = 1500
Students strength in commerce in 1991 92 = 250
\ Required solution
= =
1500
6 times
250
4. (a) Students strength in Science in 1990 91 = 400
Students strength in Science in 1992 93 = 600
Increase = 600 400 = 200
Percent Increase
= =
200
100 50%
400
Directions: The bar graph given here shows the
number of job-seekers of a state in various years
at different stages of education.
Study the graph carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
4000
3000
2000
1000
Matriculates
Senior Secondary
Graduates
1400
850
325
1625
1850
2300
1000
375
1050
525
1250
700
1800
725
2200
800
3300
4000
1. In which year was the number of Graduate job-
seekers the same as that of Senior Secondary job-
seekers?
(a) 1973 (b) 1974 (c) 1975 (d) 1976
2. In comparison to the year 1973, how many more
job-seekers in all, were there in the year 1977?
(a) 700 (b) 1700 (c) 2375 (d) 2150
3. In which year, was the number of Matriculate job-
seekers maximum?
(a) 1973 (b) 1975 (c) 1972 (d) 1977
4. The number of job-seekers, having their
qualification as Senior Secondary, in the year 1974
was :
(a) 525 (b) 800 (c) 1050 (d) 1875
EXERCISE
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Number of Graduate job-seekers in 1974 = 525
Number of Senior secondary job-seekers in 1974
= 1050 525 = 525
2. Number of job-seekers:
In Year 1973 = 1625
In Year 1977 = 4000
Difference = 4000 1625 = 2375
3. Number of Matriculate job-seekers:
In Year 1976 = 3300 1800 = 1500
In Year 1977 = 4000 2200 = 1800
4. Required number of job-seekers having their
qualification as Senior Secondary
= 1850 1050 = 800
Line graphs are used to show how a quantity changes continuously. Very often the quantity is measured as
time changes. If the line goes up, the quantity is increasing; if the line goes down, the quantity is decreasing; if
the line is horizontal, the quantity is not changing. To measure the height of a point on the graph, use your note
board as a straight edge.
TRENDS IN INDUSTRIAL INVESTMENT, LABOUR PRODUCTIVITY,
EMPLOYMENT AND OUTPUT, 1980 TO 2007
(Index numbers, 1980 = 100)
1700
1600
1500
1400
1300
1200
1100
1000
900
800
700
600
300
200
100
0
400
300
200
100
0
1980 1985 1987 1989 1991 1993 1995 1997 1999 2001 2003 2005 2007
Note: The lefthand scale in roubles only to the
constant- price value of i ndustrial investment
Million roubles
Investment
Output
Productivity
Employment
Q. The ratio of productivity in 2007 to productivity in 1980 was about
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
In 2007 productivity had an index number of 400, and the index numbers are based on 1980 = 100. So the
ratio is 400 : 100 = 4 : 1. Therefore, the answer is (d).
Line Graphs
Directions: Study the following graphs carefully
and answer the questions given below:
Number of candidates appeared (In thousands) and
Percentage of candidates qualified in a Competitive
examination over the years
No. of Candidates appeared (In Thousands)
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Years
Percentage of Candidates Qualified
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Years
1. What was the ratio between the number of
candidates appeared in 1997 and the number of
candidates qualified in 2004?
(a) 14 : 5 (b) 5 : 14
(c) 3 : 7 (d) Data inadequate
2. In which of the following years was the number
of candidates qualified the lowest among the given
years?
(a) 1997 (b) 2002 (c) 2001 (d) 1998
3. What was the percentage drop in the number of
candidates appeared from the year 2002 to 2003?
(a)
2
66
3
(b) 30
(c) 70 (d) None of these
4. How many candidates qualified in the year 2002?
(a) 6750 (b) 13500
(c) 9900
(d) Cannot be determined
5. The number of candidates qualified in 1999 was
what percentage of the number of candidates
appeared in 1998?
(a) 685 (b) 70
(c) 32.5 (d) 67.5
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
EXERCISE
You can compare several categories by a graph of the cumulative type. These are usually bar or line graphs
where the height of the bar or line is divided up proportionately among different quantities.
Q. In 1986, roughly what percent of the federal prisoners received from the courts were guilty in other offenses?
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 25 (d) 30
The total number of prisoners in 1986 was about 20,000, and guilty in other offences was about 5,000.
Since = =
5, 000 1
25%,
20, 000 4
the correct answer is (c).
In DI section of the question paper, the intention should be to attempt all questions as skipping them would
amount to losing precious scoring opportunities. There are two approaches to arrive at the solution. One is to work
on the data to arrive at the correct answer. The other one is the Elimination method which requires working
backwards by eliminating the wrong choices. Though the elimation method is more time consuming, it may still be
preferred where direct solution involves enormous calculation of data.
At times, examiners pose rather difficult data sets at the beginning of the sections. These are intended to be
SPEED BRAKERS which take away much of precious time. Therefore, as a rule, scan the whole section quickly
before actually attempting the questions and start with easier part of the section.
In some exams, data are presented in more than one table or graph. The objective is to test not only quantitative
skills but also relational and analytical ability. Recently, in some exams the questions in this section are being
Mix Diagrams
framed in caselet (paragraph) form, beginning with probability and reasoning questions. It is left to the reader to
study the case, call out requisite data and arrange it in a suitable form for meaningful interpretation. It is best to
arrange data with rough sketch to hasten comprehension.
EXERCISE
Directions: Study the pie-chart given to answer
these questions.
Composition of Exports and Imports (per cent)
Exports (1998 1999)
A Agriculture and Allied Products
B Ores and Minerals
C Manufactured Goods
D Crude and Petroleum Products
E Capital Goods
Imports (1998 1999)
A Food and Allied Products
B Fuel
C Fertilisers
D Paper Board Manuf.and Newsprint
E Others
F Other Bulk Items
G Others
1. India s trade balance during the year 1998 99
was:
(a) favourable (b) unfavourable
(c) neutral (d) none of these
2. Maximum export contribution has been due to :
(a) agriculture and allied products
(b) ores and minerals
(c) crude and petroleum products
(d) manufactured goods.
3. The import of capital goods and other bulk items
incurred more than of total import expenditure
(a) 50% (b) 60%
(c) 35% (d) 70%
4. The imports exceeded by about millions.
(a) US$ 8000 (b) US$ 8200
(c) US$ 8199.4 (d) US$ 8400
5. The export of agriculture and allied products was
to the tune of US$ :
(a) 5700 millions (b) 6700 millions
(c) 4700 millions (d) 1730 millions
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
SAMPLE
MATERIAL
OF OUR
STUDY KIT

MATHEMATICAL
APTITUDE
Introduction
It is the rule that is used to determine the mean value of the mixture when the prices of the individual items
being mixed together and the proportion in which they are being mixed are given. Here, the value of the mixture
is always higher than the lowest value and lower than the higher value of the items being mixed.
According to the Rule of Alligation
Quantity of cheaper
Quantity of dearer
=
Price of dearer Mean price
Mean price Price of cheaper
-
-
It can be also expressed as,
Cost price of 1 unit
quantity of cheaper (x)
Mean price (m)
Cost price of 1 unit
quantity of cheaper (x)
(y m) (m x)
\ (Cheaper quantity : Dearer quantity) = (y m) : (m x)
Where, mean price (m) is the cost price of a unit quantity of the mixture.
Also, if a container contains x units of liquid from which y units are taken out and replaced by water. After n
operations, the quantity of pure liquid is
1
n
y
x
x

-

unit.
Example 1: How many kilograms of rice costing ` 18 per kg must be mixed with 30 kg of rice costing ` 14 per
kg, so that the resultant mixture cost ` 15 per kg.
Solution. Applying the rule of alligation, we have
( 14) ` ( 18) `
18 - 15 = 3 15 - 14 = 1
Mean price
( 15) `
Alligation or Mixure
\
Quantity of cheaper rice
Quantity of dearer rice
=
3
1
If cheaper rice is 3 kg, dearer rice is 1 kg.
If cheaper rice is 30 kg, dearer rice =
30 1
3

kg = 10 kg
EXERCISE
1. How many kg of tea worth ` 29 per kg must be
blended with 25 kg of tea worth ` 32 per kg so
that by selling the blended variety at ` 33 per kg
there should be 10% gain?
(a) 45 kg (b) 33 kg
(c) 25 kg (d) 50 kg
2. Two groups of students, whose average ages are
20 yr and 30 yr, combine to form a third group
whose average age is 23 yr. What is the ratio of
the number the first group to the number of
students in the second group?
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 2 : 5
(c) 7 : 3 (d) None of these
3. John stole some whisky from a bottle his father
had kept away in the cupboard. This bottle of
whisky contained 50% alcohol. John replaced
what he had drunk by another brand of whisky
which contained only 25% alcohol. The whisky in
the bottle now has only 35% alcohol. How much
of the bottle did John steal?
(a) 3/5 (b) 2/5
(c) 4/5 (d) 2/3
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (*)
EXPLANATIONS
1. SP of blended variety = ` 33 per kg
CP of blended variety =
100
33
110
= ` 30 per kg
By the rule of alligation,
29 32
30
2
1
So, tea worth ` 29 per kg and tea worth ` 32 per
kg should be priced in 2 : 1.
\ If there is 25 kg of tea worth ` 32 per kg.
Then, there must be 50 kg of tea worth ` 29 per
kg.
2. By the rule of alligation,
20 30
23
7
3
\ Required ratio = 7 : 3.
3. By the alligation rule,
Whisky containing Whisky containing
50% alcohol
50% alcohol
Whisky containing
25% alcohol
Whisky
containing
36% alcohol
10
15
Whisky with 50% alcohol
Whisky with 25% alcohol
=
10 2
15 3
=
Wo rk
Work to be done is generally considered as one unit. It may be digging a trench constructing or painting a
wall, filling up or emptying a tank, reservoir or a cistern.
General rules to be followed in the problems on Time and Work
1. If Acan do a piece of work in n days, then work done by Ain 1 day is 1/n. ie,if a person can do some work in
12 days, he does 1/ 12th of the work in one day.
2. If A s 1 day s work = 1/n, then A can finish the whole work in n days. ie, if a person s one day work is 1/10,
then he can finish the whole work in 10 days.
3. If A is thrice as good a workman as B, then ratio of work done by A and B = 3 : 1. ie, if a man works three
times as fast as a woman does, then when the work is complete, 3 parts of the work has been done by the
man and 1 part by the woman.
4. If A is thrice as good a workman as B, then ratio of time taken by A and B = 1 : 3. ie, if the woman
takes 15 days to complete the work, then the man takes 5 days to complete the same work.
5. If two persons A and B can individually do some work in a and b days respectively, then A and B together
can complete the same work in ab (a + b) days.
6. The fundamental rules on variation also apply in Time and Work.
(i) Work and men are directly proportional to each other ie, if the work increases, the no. of men required
to do it, also increases, if the work is to be completed in the same number of days.
(ii) Men and days are inversely proportional, ie, if the number of men increases, the number of days
required to complete the same work decreases and vice versa.
(iii) Work and days are directly proportional, ie, if the work increases, the number of days required also
increases, if the work is to be completed with the same number of men and vice versa.
Example 1: Ravi can do a job 10 days. Determine his one day job.
Solution. Ravi s 10 days work = 1
Ravi s 1 day work =
1
10
Time and Work
EXERCISE
65. A tap can fill a cistern in 12 h. After half the tank
is filled, 2 more similar taps are opened. What is
the total time taken to fill the tank complete by?
(a) 9 h (b) 6 h (c) 8 h (d) 4 h
66. An electric pump can fill a reservoir in 36 h.
Because of a leak in the reservoir it took 45 h to
fill the reservoir. When the reservoir is full, how
much time will the leak take to empty it?
(a) 180 h (b) 175 h
(c) 185 h (d) 170 h
67. A cistern has three pipes A, B and C. The pipes A
and B can fill it in 5 h and 6 h respectively and C
can empty it in 3 h. If the pipes are opened in
order at 3 pm, 4 pm and 5 pin respectively at what
time will the tank be filled?
(a) 6 am (b) 5 am
(c) 4 am (d) 7 am
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
1
2
of the tank can be filled by the tap in 5 h.
Part filled by one tap in 1 h =
1
12
Part filled by three taps in 1 h =
1
4
\
1
2
tank can be filled by the three pipe =
1
2
4
= 2 h
Total time taken to fill the tank completely = 6 + 2
= 8 h
2. Work done by the leak in 1 h =
1 1
36 45

-

=
1
180
\ Leak will empty the reservoir in 180 h.
3. By 5 pm, the water filled by two pipes = 2 h work
done by pipe A + 1 h work done by pipe B
=
1 1
2 1
5 6
+
=
2 1
5 6
+
=
17
30
After 5 pm all the three pipes are working and
the work done by all the three pipes in 1 h =
1 1 1
5 6 3
+ -
=
1
30
After 5 pm only
13
30
of the tank is to be filled time
taken in filling
13
30
of the tank =
13
30
30
= 13 h
\ 13 h after 5 pm= 6 am
Relation between Time, Speed and Distance
Distance covered, time and speed are related by
Time =
Distance
Speed
...(i)
Speed =
Distance
Time
...(ii)
Distance = Speed Time ...(iii)
Distance is measured in metres, kilometres and miles.
Time in hours, minutes and seconds.
Speed in km/h, miles/h and m/s.
1. To convert speed of an object from km/h to m/s multiply the speed by
5
18
.
2. To convert speed of an object from m/s to km/h, multiply the speed by
18
5
.
Average Speed
It is the ratio of total distance covered to total time of journey.
\ Average speed =
Total distance covered
Total time of journey
General Rules for Solving Time & Distance Problems
Rule 1
If a certain distance is covered with a speed of x km/h and another equal distance with a speed of y km/h,
then the average speed for the whole journey is the harmonic mean of the two speeds.
Average speed =
2
km/h
1 1
x y

+

=
2
km/h
xy
x y

+

Time and Distance
EXERCISE
1. A passenger train running at the speed of 80 km/
h leaves the railway station 6 h after a goods train
leaves and overtakes it in 4 h. The speed of the
goods train is
(a) 32 km/h (b) 40 km/h
(c) 50 km/h (d) 60 km/h
2. Two persons A and B are at two places P and Q
respectively. A walks at v km/h and B is 2 km/h
faster than A, starting simultaneously from where
they stand. If they walk towards each other, they
meet in 72 min. If they walk in the same direction,
the faster overtakes the slower in 6 h. Find their
respective speeds (in km/h).
(a) 3 and 5
(b) 4 and 6
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 5
ANSWERS
1. (a) 3. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let the speed of the goods trains = x km/h
Distance travelled by the goods train in 6 h = 6x
Now, Time =
Distance
Relative Speed
\ 4 =
6
80
x
x -
320 4x = 6x
10x = 320
x = 32 km/h
2. Let d kilometre be the distance between A and B.
When A and B walk toward each other, then
( 2)
d
v v + +
=
72
60
and if they walk in the same direction
( 2)
d
v v + -
= 6
2
d
= 6 d = 12 km
\
2 2
d
v +
=
72
60
\ v = 4 km/h
Hence, the speed are 4 km/h and (4 + 2) = 6 km/h
Interest
It is the sum which is paid by the borrower to the lender for using the money for a specific time period. The
money borrowed is called the Principal. The rate at which the interest is calculated on the principal is called
Rate of Interest. The time for which the money is borrowed is Time and the total sum of principal and interest
is called the Amount.
Simple Interest
If P = Principal, R = Rate per cent per annum T = Number of years, SI = Simple Interest and A = Amount.
Then,
(i) SI =
100
P T R
(ii) P =
100 SI
R T
(iii) R =
100 SI
P T
(iv) T =
100 SI
P R
(v) A = P + SI = P +
100
P T R
=
1
100
RT
P

+

Here, the interest is calculated on the original principal ie, the principal to calculate the interest remains
constant throughout the time period. The interest earned on the principal is not taken into account for the purpose
of calculating interest for later years.
Example 1: Find the SI on ` 7200 at 8% per annum for 10 months.
Solution. Here, P = ` 7200, R = 8% per annum and T =
10
yr
12
=
5
yr
6
.
SI =
100
P T R

= `
5 1
7200 8
6 100

= ` 480
Example 2: A sum is lent at 10% per annum. Simple interest will get doubled in how many years?
Solution. Sum will be doubled when SI = P
Therefore, SI = P =
100
PRT
RT = 100 T =
100
R
=
100
10
= 10 year
Simple Interest
EXERCISE
1. The least number of years in which the simple
interest on ` 2200 at
1
6 %
3
simple interest will be
a whole number of rupees, is
(a) 4 yr (b) 3 yr
(c) 6 yr (d) 5 yr
2. ` 2000 is invested at 10% per annum simple
interest. If the interest is added to the principal
every 10 yr, the amount will become ` 4600 after
(a) 12 yr (b) 11 yr
(c) 12 yr (d) 11 yr
3. A bicycle is sold for ` 2200 cash or ` 1500 cash
down payment and ` 770 to be paid after 4
months. What is the rate of interest charged in
the instalment scheme?
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
Money invested is in the ratio
= 5000 : (8000 5000) = 5000 : 3000 = 5 : 3
1. SI =
19 1
2200
3 100
n

, where n is the number
of years =
418
3
n
For SI to be a whole number the least value of n
should be 3.
Hence, the least number of years is 3 year.
2. SI for 10 year = `
2000 10 10
100

= ` 2000
Principal after 10 year becomes
= ` (2000 + 2000) = ` 4000
SI on it = ` (4600 4000) = ` 600
Time =
100 600
4000 10
=
3
2
year
=
1
1
2
year
Total time =
1
10 1
2

+

year
=
1
11
2
year
3. Cash price = ` 2200
Cash down payment = ` 1500
Balance = ` 2200 ` 1500 = ` 700
Interest = ` 770 ` 700 = ` 70
Here P = ` 700, SI = ` 70, T =
4
12
=
1
3
year
\ R =
100 SI
P T
=
100 70
1
700
3
= 10 3 = 30%
A Civil Servant should be well-versed in basics of Algebra. In the Civil Services Aptitude Test Paper 2, in
Basic Numeracy, certainly there will be asked some questions based on equations and their roots.
PO L YN OM I AL S
Polynomial
An expression in term of some variable(s) is called a polynomial.
For example
f(x) = 2x 5 is a polynomial in variable x
g(y) = 5y
2
3y + 4 is a polynomial in variable y
Note that the expressions like
2 3
2
1 4
3 , ,5 ,
7 6
x x x
x
x x
- -
- +
etc. are not polynomials. Thus, a rational x integral
function of x is said to be a polynomial, if the powers of x in the terms of the polynomial are neither fractions nor
negative. Thus, an expression of the form
f(x) = a
n
x
n
+ a
n 1
x
n 1
+ + a
l
x + a
0
is called a polynomial in variable x where n be a positive integer and a
0
, a
l
,
...,a
n
be constants (real numbers).
Degree of a Polynomial
The exponent of the highest degree term in a polynomial is known as its degree.
For example
f(x) =
3
4
2
x -
is a polynomial in the variable x of degree 1.
p(u) = 3u
3
+ u
2
+ 5
u
6 is a polynomial in the variable u of degree 3.
q(t) = 5 is a polynomial of degree zero and is called a constant polynomial.
Linear Polynomial
A polynomial of degree one is called a linear polynomials. In general f(x) = ax + b, where a 0 is a linear
polynomial.
Basic Algebra
EXERCISE
1. For what range of values of a will the inequality
2
15 1? a
a
- >
(a)
1 15
0.4,
3 2
a a < < >
(b)
1 2
and
3 5
a a < - >
(c)
1 2
0,
3 5
a a - < < >
(d)
1
3
x <
2. If one of the roots of the quadratic equation a
2
+
ba + 24 = 0 is 1.5, then what is the value of b?
(a) 17.5 (b) 12.7
(c) 15.25 (d) 14.5
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
2
15a
a
-
> 1
15a
2
2 > a
15a
2
a 2 > 0
15a
2
6a + 5a 2 > 0
3a (5a 2) + 1 (5a 2) > 0
(5a 2) (3a + 1) > 0
\ a >
2
5
and a <
1
3
-
2. 1.5 is the root of quadratic equation
a
2
+ ba + 24 = 0
\ (1.5)
2
+ 1.5 b + 24 = 0
2.25 + 1.5 b + 24 = 0
1.56 = 26.25
b = 17.5
Sets
A set is a collection of well defined objects.
The objects of the sets are called elements.
(i) Sets are usually denoted by capital letters A, B, C,..., X, Y, Z.
(ii) The elements of the sets are denoted by small letters like a, b, c,..., x, y, z etc.
Representation of Sets
Sets are usually described into two ways.
(i) Tabular form or roster form, in this form, all the elements of the set are separated by commas and enclosed
between the bracket { }.
For example
(a) The set of vowels of English Alphabet as
A = {a, e, i, o, u)
(b) The set of numbers on a clock face is written as
B = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12}
(ii) Set builder from: We define a set by stating properties which its elements must satisfy. For example the
set of all even integers. Then, we use the letters usually x, and we write
A = {x | x is an even integer}
This is to be read as A is a set of numbers x such that x is an even integer. The vertical line | to be read as
such that some times we use x in place of vertical line.
A = {x : x is an even integer}
eg, C = {1,w, w
2
} = {x | x
3
1 = 0}
If an object x is an element of a set A, we write x A which is read as x belong to A and if an object x is not
a member of A we write x A and read as x does not belong to A .
Some Important Terms
(i) Empty or Null set The set which contains no elements is called the empty set or the null set. The empty
set is written as f.
Thus, f = { } as there is no element in the empty set.
For example; the set of odd numbers divisible by 2 is the null set.
Set Theory,
Venn Diagrams,
Functions & Relations
EXERCISE
1. Given the following Venn diagram, determine
(P Q) (P R).
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
P
R
Q
(a) {1, 2, 3} (b) {4, 5, 6, 7}
(c) {1, 2, 3, 4} (d) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
2. In a class of 40 students, 12 enrolled for both
Economics and Industrial Psychology. 22 enrolled
for Industrial Psychology. If the students of the
class enrolled for at least one of the two subjects,
then how many students enrolled for only
Economics and not Industrial Psychology ?
(a) 12 (b) 18
(c) 22 (d) 20
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. It is clear from the given Venn diagram
P Q = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
and P R = {4, 5, 6}
\ (P Q) (P R)= {1, 2, 3}
2. Economics Industrial 12 Psychology
Economics
18
12
Industrial
Psychology
10
Students enrolled in only economics = 18.
Statistics
The branch of Mathematics which deals with collection, classification and interpretation of data is called
statistics.
When used in the singular sense, statistics refers to the subject as a whole of science of statistical methods
embodying the theory and techniques. When it is used in the plural sense, statistics refers to the data itself (ie,
numerical facts collected in a systematic manner with some definite purpose in view, in any field of enquiry).
The Frequency Table or the Frequency Distribution
If the data is classified in a convenient way and presented in a table it is called frequency table or frequency
distribution.
Frequency: When the data is presented in a frequency table, the number of observations that fall in any
particular class is called the frequency of that class.
Class Limit: The starting and end values of each class are called lower limit and upper limit of that class
respectively.
Class-interval: The difference between the upper and lower boundary of a class is called the class-interval
or size of the class . It can also be defined as the difference between the lower or upper limits or boundaries of two
consecutive classes.
Class Boundaries: The average of the upper limit of a class and the lower limit of the succeeding class is
called the upper boundary of that class. The upper boundary of a class becomes the lower boundary of the next
class.
Range: The difference between the highest and the lowest observation of a data is called its range.
Histogram: Pertaining to a frequency distribution, if the true limits of the classes are taken on the x-axis
and the corresponding frequencies on the y-axis and adjacent rectangles are drawn, the diagram is called
histogram.
Frequency Polygon and Frequency Curve: If the points pertaining to the mid values of the classes of a
frequency distribution and the corresponding frequencies are plotted on a graph sheet and these points are joined
by straight lines, the figure formed is called frequency polygon. If these points are joined by a smooth curve the
figure formed is called frequency curve.
Cumulative Frequency Curves: If the points pertaining to the boundaries of the classes of a frequency
distribution and the corresponding cumulative frequencies are plotted on a graph sheet and they are joined by a
smooth curve, the figure formed is called cumulative frequency curve.
Statistics
CSAT SMART PRACTICE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Consider the table given
below
Class-interval Number of Cumulative
(Age in years) employees frequency frequency
25-29 5 5
30-34 15 20
35-39 22 42
40-44 19 61
45-49 9 70
From the above table find the following.
1. Class size is
(a) 4.5 (b) 5
2. Mid value of class 40-44 is
(a) 42.5 (b) 42
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Class size of 25-29 ie, 24.5- 29.5 is = (29.5 24.5)
= 5
2. Mid value of the class interval 40-44 means mid
value of the class interval 39.5- 44.5 ie,
39.5 44.5
42
2
+
=

Arithmetic Progression (AP)
An arithmetic progression is a sequence in which terms increase or decrease by a constant number called the
common difference.
(i) The sequence 2, 6, 10, 14, 18, 22 is an arithmetic progression whose first term is 2 and common difference
4.
(ii) The sequence
5 7
2, ,3, ,4
2 2
is an arithmetic progression whose first term is 2 and common
difference .
An arithmetic progression is represented by a,(a + d), (a + 2d), (a + 3d) a + (n 1)d
Here, a = first term
d = common difference
n = number of terms in the progression
The general term of an arithmetic progression is given by T
n
= a + (n - 1) d.
The sum of n terms of an arithmetic progression is given by S, =
2
n
[2a + (n 1) d] or S
n
= 2 [a + l]
where l is the last term of arithmetic progression.
If three numbers are in arithmetic progression, the middle number is called the arithmetic mean of the
other two terms.
If a, b, c are in arithmetic progression, then b =
2
a c +
where b is the arithmetic mean.
Similarly, if n terms a
l
, a
2
, a
3
a
n
are in AP, then the arithmetic mean of these n terms is given by
AM =
1 2 3
.
n
a a a a
n
+ + ++
If the same quantity is added or multiplied to each term of an AP, then the resulting series is also an AP.
If three terms are in AP, then they can be taken as (a d), a, (a + d).
If four terms are in AP, then they can be taken as (a 3d), (a d), (a + d), (a + 3d).
If five terms are in AP, then they can be taken as (a 2d), (a d), a, (a + d), (a + 2d).
Sequences & Series
EXERCISE
60. If 4, 6, a are in AP. 4, 6, b are in GP and 4, 6, c
are in HP, determine the value of 3a + 2b c.
(a) 35 (b) 30
(c) 12 (d) 27.6
61. In a geometric progression, the sum of the first
and the last term is 66 and the product of the
second and the last second term is 128. Determine
the first term of the series.
(a) 64 (b) 64 or 2
(c) 2 or 32 (d) 32
62. Ashok is employed in a firm which promises to
pay him a salary of ` 3000 per month for the first
year and an increment of `1000 in his monthly
salary every succeeding year. How much does he
earn from the firm in 20 yr?
(a) ` 2500000 (b) ` 3000000
(c) ` 3200000 (d) ` 4400000
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. 4, 6 a in AP
12 = 4 + a or a = 8
4, 6, b are in GP
36 = 4b or b = 9
4, 6, c are in HP ie, 1/4, 1/6, 1/c are in AP
2/6 = (1/4) + (1/c)
c = 12
3a + 2b c = 3 8 + 2 9 12 = 30
2. Let a be the first term and r be the common ratio
of the GP.
From the given problem
a + ar
n 1
= 66 ...(i)
Also, ar ar
n 2
= 128
a
2
r
n 1
= 128 ...(ii)
From Eq. (ii), again, a . ar
n 1
= 128
ar
n 1
= 128/a
Substituting this in Eq. (i),
a + 128/a = 66
a
2
66a + 128 = 0
a =
2
[( 4 ] / 2 b b ac a - -
ACivil Servant should be well-versed in basics of Number System. In the Civil Services Aptitude Test Paper
2, in Basic Numeracy, certainly there will be asked some questions based on types of, and operations on numbers.
In Indian system, numbers are expressed by means of symbols 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, called digits. Here, 0
is called insignificant digit whereas 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 are called significant digits. We can express a number in
two ways.
Notation: Representing a number in figures is known as notation as 350.
Numeration: Representing a number in words is known as numeration as Five hundred and forty five .
Place Value (Indian)
Crore Lakh Thousand Unit
Ten Crore Crore Ten Lakhs Lakh Ten Thousands Thousand Hundred Tens One
100000000 10000000 1000000 100000 10000 1000 100 10 1
10
8
10
7
10
6
10
5
10
4
10
3
10
2
10
1
10
0
Place Value (International)
Million Thousand Unit
Hundred Ten Millions One Million Hundred Ten Thousand Hundred Tens One
Millions Thousands Thousands
100000000 10000000 1000000 100000 10000 1000 100 10 1
10
8
10
2
10
6
10
5
10
4
10
3
10
2
10
1
10
0
EXERCISE
Number System
1. Which of the following is a multiple of 88 ?
(a) 1392578 (b) 138204
(c) 1436280 (d) 143616
2. Which of the following fractions is less than 7/8
and greater than 1/3 ?
(a) 1/4 (b) 23/24
(c) 11/12 (d) 17/24
3. If the numbers : 169 248 416 974 612 325 and
517 are arranged in descending order based on
the sum of the digits of each of these numbers,
the middle number will be
(a) 248 (b) 517
(c) 612 (d) 974
4. Which of the following is true, if a = 3/4, b = 4/5
and c = 5/6?
(a) a < c < b (b) a < b < c
(c) c < a < b (d) b < a < c
5. In the array 48392874362754869364, the
number of instances where an even number is
followed by two odd numbers is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
6. How many integers from 1 to 100 exist such that
each is divisible by 5 and also has 5 as a digit ?
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 20
7. If x is an even integer, which of the following is
an odd integer ?
(a) 3x + 2 (b) 7x
(c) 8x + 5 (d) x
3
8. When the integer n is divided by 6, the remainder
is 3. Which of the following is not a multiple of 6?
(a) n 3 (b) n + 3
(c) 2n (d) 3n.
ANSWER
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Only 143616 is a multiple of both 11 and 8 so it is
a multiple of 88.
2.
7
8
= 0.875, 3 = 0.333, 1 = 0.25,
23
24
= 0.958
7 1
0.875, 0.333,
8 3
= =
1 23
0.25, 0.958
4 24
= =
11 17
0.916, 0.708
12 24
= =
Clearly, 0.708 lies between 0.333 and 0.875.
\ Required fraction is 17/24.
3. 1 + 6 + 9 = 16 ... (ii)
2 + 4 + 8 = 14 ...(iii)
4 + 1 + 6 = 11 ...(v)
9 + 7 + 4 = 20 ...(vi)
6 + 1 + 2 = 9 ...(vii)
3 + 2 + 5 = 10 ...(vi)
5 + 1 + 7 = 13 ...(iv)
\ The middle number will be 517.
4. a =
3
0.75
4
=
b =
4
0.800
5
=
c =
5
0.833
6
=
\ a < b < c
5. In the array 48392874362754869364; 8, 2 and 6
ie, three number of required instances.
6. These numbers are following
5, 15, 25, 35, 45, 50, 55, 65, 75, 85, 95
So, total 11 such type of numbers.
7. If x is an even integer, then clearly 8x will also be
an even integer.
So, 8x + 5 will be an odd integer.
8. If n is divided by 6 and the remainder is 3, then n
3 and n + 3 are divisible by 6.
2n is also divisible by 6.
But, 3n is not divisible by 6.
A fraction is a part of the whole (object, thing, region). It forms the part of basic aptitude of a person to have
and idea of the parts of a population, group or territory. Civil servants must have a feel of fractional thinking. eg,
5
12
, here 12 is the number of equal part into which the whole has been divided, is called denominator and 5 is
the number of equal parts which have been taken out, is called numerator.
Example1: Name the numerator of
3
7
and denominator of
5
.
13
Solution: Numerator of
3
7
is 3.
Denominator of
5
13
is 13.
Lowest Term of a Fraction
Dividing the numerator and denominator by the highest common element (or number) in them, we get the
fraction in its lowest form.
eg, To find the fraction
6
14
in lowest form Since 2 is highest common element in numerator 6 and denominator
14 so dividing them by 2, we get
3
.
7
Which is the lowest form of
6
.
14
Equivalent Fractions
If numerator and denominator of any fraction are multiplied by the same number then all resulting fractions
are called equivalent fractions.
eg,
1 2 3 4
, , ,
2 4 6 8
all are equivalent fractions but
1
2
is the lowest form.
Fractions
Example 2: Find the equivalent fractions of
2
5
having numerator 6.
Solution: We know that 2 3 = 6. This means we need to multiply both the numerator and denominator by
3 to get the equivalent fraction.
Hence, required equivalent fraction
= = =
2 2 3 6
5 5 3 15
EXERCISE
1.
1.4
is equal to which of the following?
(a)
14
10
(b)
14
9
(c)
14
90
(d)
13
9
2. HCF of 3, 2.7 and 0.09 is
(a) 3 (b) 0.03
(c) 9 (d) 0.09
3. LCM of 0.54, 1.8 and 7.2 is
(a) 21.6 (b) 2.16
(c) 216 (d) 0.216
4. 0.009 ? = 0.01
(a) 9 (b) 0.9
(c) 0.09 (d) 0.0009
5.
1
0.04
= ?
(a) 0.025 (b) 0.25
(c) 2.5 (d) 25
6. HCF of 0.4, 0.9, 0.5 is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.01
7. LCM of 0.25, 0.5, 0.3 is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.15
(c) 1.5 (d) 10
8. Ascending order of
10 12 5 11
, , and
13 17 6 21
, is
(a)
10 12 5 11
, , ,
13 17 6 21
(b)
11 12 10 5
, , ,
21 17 13 6
(c)
5 10 11 12
, , ,
6 13 21 17
(d)
5 10 12 11
, , ,
6 13 17 21
9. Descending order of
15 11 13 1
, , ,
16 20 25 3
, is
(a)
15 11 13 1
, , ,
16 20 25 3
(b)
1 13 11 15
, , ,
3 25 20 16
(c)
1 11 13 15
, , ,
3 20 25 16
(d)
15 13 11 1
, , ,
16 25 20 3
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
1.4
= 1 +
0.4
=
+
4
1
9
=
13
9
2. HCF of 3, 2.7 and 0.09
or 3.00, 2.70 and 0.09
First we find the HCF of 300, 270 and 9 which is
3
\ HCF of 3, 2.7 and 0.09 is = 0.3
3. Given numbers are 0.54, 1.8 and 7.2 or 0.54, 1.80
and 7.20
Without the decimal points, numbers are 54, 180
and 720
LCM of 54, 180 and 720 = 2160
\ LCM of given numbers = 21.60 or 21.6
4. Let
0.009
x
= 0.1
0.009
0.01
=
0.9
1
= 0.9
5.
1
0.04
=
1 100
0.04 100
=
100
4
= 25
6.
Q
HCF of 4, 9 and 5 = 1
\ HCF of 0.4, 0.9 and 0.5 = 0.1
7. Given numbers are 0.25, 0.5 are and 0.3 or 0.25,
0.50 and 0.30
Now, LCM of 25, 50 and 30 = 150
\ LCM of 0.25, 50 and 30 = 1.50 = 1.5
8.
10
13
= 0.76,
12
17
= 0.70,
5
6
= 0.82,
11
21
= 0.52
\ ascending order is
11 12 10 5
, , ,
21 17 13 6
9.
15
16
= 0.93,
11
20
= 0.55,
13
25
= 0.52,
1
3
= 0.34
\ descending order is
15 11 13 1
, , ,
16 20 25 3
In our day-to-day life, we get plenty of data in form of powers of numbers. To have a feeling of what they
measure we need to have an exact idea of indices and surds. There may be some kit items in CSAT, specifically
designed to test proficiency of candidates in indices and surds.
Indices
In the expression x
n
, n is called the exponent or index and x is called the base and x
n
is read as x to the power
of n or x raised to the power n .
eg,
1. 3
6
= 3 3 3 3 3 3 = 729
4
3
= 4 4 4 = 64
The expression (x
m
)
n
is read as x raised to the power m whole raised to the power n .
2. (2
4
)
3
= (16)
3
= 2
12
The expression
n
m
x
is read as x raised to the power m power n .
3.
3
4
2
= 2
64
Hence, (x
m
)
n

n
m
x
Laws of Indices
1. a
m
a
n
= a
m + n
2.
m
n
a
a
= a
m n
(a 0)
3. (a
m
)
n
= a
mn
4. (ab)
m
= a
m
b
m
5.

m
a
b
=
m
m
a
b
(b 0) 6. a
0
= 1 if (a 0)
7. a
n
=
1
n
a
if (a 0) 8.
1
n
a
=
n
a
is called the n
th
root of a.
9.
m
n
a
=
n m
a
is called the n
th
root of a
m
.
Indices and Surds
10. When the bases of two numbers are equal, then their powers are also equal.
eg, If 3
n
= 3
2
, then, n = 2.
11. When the powers of two numbers are equal, then their bases are equal.
eg, If a
3
= 43, then a = 4.
Where a is a positive real number and n is a rational number.
EXERCISE
1. Which of the following is the greatest?
(a) 3333
33
(b) 333
333
(c) 33
3333
(d) 3
33333
2. If
2
2
2 2
x

=

, then x is equal to
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d)
2
3.
3 23 8
3 7
5 5
?
5
=
(a) 5 (b) 25 (c)
3
5
(d) 1
4.
2 1)
2
5 (2 ) 10 (2
?
10
k k
k
- -
+
+
=
(a)
1
8 (5 )
k
(b)
1
16 (5 )
k
(c)
1
32 (5 )
k
(d)
1
4 (5 )
k
5.
4
4
4
?
ab b
a ab
-

-
=

-

(a)
2
2
a
b
(b)
a
b
-
(c)
a
b
(d)
a
b
6. If 3
x+1
+ 3
2x+1
= 270, then x is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 0 (d) 4
7. Determine a possible value of x from the equation
5
x 2
2
3x/x+1
= 4.
(a) 0 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 3
8. The least value of 3
x
+ 3
x
is
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) 2/3
9. Given t =
3 3
2 4 2 + +
, determine the value of t
3

6t
2
+ 6t 2.
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c)
2
(d) 2
0. If a = 5 and b = 6, find the value of (a b)
b a
+
(b a)
a b
.
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) 2
11. In Republic Day Parade, 6440 NCC cadets were
asked to stand in rows to form a perfect square. It
was fond that 40 NCC cadets were left out. What
was the number of NCC cadets in each row?
(a) 40 (b) 80
(c) 64 (d) 60
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. 3
33333
is the greatest number.
2.
2
2
2

= 2
x

2 2
2

= 2
x
2
2
= 2
x
2 = 2
x
x = 1
3.
3 23 8
3 7
5 5
5
=
23 8/3
7/3
5 5
5
=
2 8 7
3 3 3
5
+ -
= 5
4.
2 1
2
5 (2 ) 10 (2 )
10
k k
k
- -
+
+
=
5 2 1
2 2
2 [5 2 10 2 ]
2 5
k k
- -
+ +
+
=
2
25/ 4
4 5
k+
=
1
16 5
k

5.
4
4
4
ab b
a ab
-

-

-

=
4
1/4 1/4 1/4
1/4 1/4 1/4
[
[ ]
b a b
a a b
-

-

-

=
4
1/4
1/4
b
a
-

=
a
b
6.
1 2 1
3 3
x x + +
+
= 270
Let 3
x
= t
3t + 3t
2
= 270
t
2
+ 10t 90 = 0
(t + 10) (t 9) = 0
t = 9 = 3x
3
2
= 3
x
x = 2
7. 5
x 2
2
3x/(x + 1)
= 4
5
x 2
2
3x/(x + 1)
= 5
0
2
2
Equation the indicates of equal bases,
x 2 = 0 and 3x/(x + 1) = 2
From both these questions
x = 2
8. Let 3
x
+ 3
x
= a
Let 3x = K
Then, a = K + 1/K = (K
2
+1)/K
ie, K
2
Ka + 1 = 0
For this to have real roots, the discriminant should
be greater than or equal to 0.
ie, a
2
4 0
or a /2/2a 2
or a < 2
(not possible)
Least value = 2.
9. t =
3 3
2 4 2 + +
t 2 =
3 3
4 2 +
= 2
2/3
+ 2
1/3
= 2
1/3
(1 + 2
1/3
)
(t 2)
3
= [2
1/3
(1 + 2
1/3
)]
3
= 2(1 + 2
1/3
)
3
= 2[1 + 2 + 3 2
1/3
(1 + 2
1/3
)]
0. a = 5 and b = 6
(a b)
b a
+ (b a)
a b
= ( 5 + 6)
6 + 5
+ ( 6 + 5)
5 + 6
= (1)
1
+ ( 1)
1
= 1 1 = 0
11. Remaining NCC cadets = 6440 40 = 6400
So, NCC cadets in each row =
6400
= 80
In compound interest, the interest is added to the principal at the end of each period and the amount thus
obtained becomes the principal for the next period. The process is repeated till the end of the specified time.
If P = Principal
R = Rate per cent per unit time
Time = n years
A = Amount; CI = Compound Interest
When the interest is compounded annually
Amount after n years = A =
1
100
n
R
P

+

Compound Interest =
1
100
n
R
P P

+ -

=
1 1
100
n
R
P

+ -

Important Formulae
1. If the rate of interest differs from year to year ie, R
1
in the first year, R
2
in the second year, R
3
in the third
year. Then, A =
3 1 2
1 1 1
100 100 100
R R R
P

+ + +

2. When the principa changes every year, we say that the interest is compounded annually. Then,
A =
1
100
n
R
P

+

3. When the principal changes as per every six months, we say that the interest is compounded half yearly or
semi-annually. Then,
A =
2
2
1
100
n
R
P

+

Compound Interest
EXERCISE
1. What annual payment (in rupees) will be
discharge a debt of ` 7620 due in 3 yr at
2
16 %
3
per annum compound interest?
(a) ` 2540 (b) ` 3260
(c) ` 3380 (d) ` 3430
2. A man borrows ` 12500 from a bank at 20%
compound interest. At the end of every year he
pays ` 2000 as part repayment. How much (in
rupees) does he still owe to the bank after three
such instalments?
(a) 15600 (b) 12864
(c) 13780 (d) 14320
3. A sum of ` 390200 is to be paid back in three
equal annual instalments. How much is each
instalment, if the rate of interest charged is 4%
per annum compounded annually?
(a) ` 140608 (b) ` 120560
(c) ` 10000 (d) ` 18000
4. A sum of ` 2400 deposited at CI, doubled after 5
yr. After 20 yr it will become
(a) ` 24000 (b) ` 38400
(c) ` 19200 (d) Can t be determined
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let that annual payment be x.
7620 =
2 3
100 100 100
2 2 2
100 16 100 16 100 16
3 3 3
x

+ +

+ + +

7620 =
6 36 216
7 49 343
x

+ +

7620 =
294 252 216
343
x
+ +

x =
7620 343
762
= ` 3430
2. Remaining amount after 1 year
=
120
12500 2000
100
-
= ` 13000
Remaining amount after 2 year
=
120
13000 2000
100
-
= ` 13600
Remaining amount after 3 year
=
120
13600 2000
100
-
= ` 14320
3. Let each instalment be ` x
The amount to be paid in instalments = ` 390200
The total value of all the three instalments is
2 3
25 25 25
26 26 26
x x

+ +

and this must be equal to ` 390200
\
25 25 625
1
26 26 676
x

+ +

= 390200
x = ` 140608
4. 2P =
5
1
100
R
P

+

2
4
P =
20
1
100
R
P

+

The amount becomes 2
4
times = 16 times and
required amount = ` 2400 16 = ` 38400
Area
The area of a plane figure is the measure of the surface enclosed by its boundary. The area of a triangle or a
polygon is the measure of the surface enclosed by its sides.
1. Triangle
Area of the triangle =
1
Base Height
2

=
1
2
bh
Area of the triangle, D = ( )( )( ) s s a s b s c - - -
Where s =
1
( )
2
a b c + +
Perimeter of the triangle = a + b + c or 2s
Radius of incircle of a triangle = D/s
2. Right-Angles Triangle
Area =
1
2
bh
Hypotenuse, d =
2 2
b h +
(Pythagoras theorem)
Perimeter = b + d + h
3. Isosceles Right-Angled Triangle
Area =
1
( )
2
a a
=
2
2
a
Hypotenuse, d =
2 2
a a +
=
2a
Perimeter = 2a +
2a
A
B C
a
b
c
h
A
B C
h d
b
Area of Plane Figures
EXERCISE
1. What is the area of the region enclosed by the
area below?
12
10
20
(a) 116 (b) 144
(c) 176 (d) 179
2. The length and breadth of a rectangular hall are
40 m and 30 m respectively. What is the distance
between two opposite corners of the hall?
(a) 20 m (b) 35 m
(c) 50 m (d) 40 m
3. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio
1 1 1
: :
2 3 4
and its perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the
longest side (in cm) is
(a) 26 (b) 32
(c) 48 (d) 52
4. A rectangular field has dimensions 25 m by 15
m. Two mutually perpendicular passage, 2 m
width have been left in its central part and grass
has been grown in rest of the field. The areas (in
sq metres) under the grass is
(a) 295 (b) 299
(c) 300 (d) 375
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Area of ABCD + Area of CEFG
12 m
A
D
C
E
F
G
10
8
B
12
8
= 12 10 + 7 8 = 176
2. Distance between two corners of hall
=
2 2
(Length) (Breadth) +
=
2 2
(40) (30) +
=
1600 900 +
= 50 m
3. Let the sides of triangle are
1 1 1
, and
2 3 4
x x x
\
1 1 1
2 3 4
x x x + +
= 104
6 4 3
12
x x x + +
= 104 \ x =
104 12
13
= 96
\Longest side =
2
x
=
96
2
= 48 cm
4. Area under the grass
15 m
25 m
= 25 15 (25 2 + 15 2 2 2)
= 375 (50 + 30 4) = 299 sq m
Point
A point is defined by its position. It has no length, width or thickness. A straight line joining two points is the
shortest distance between them. Three or more points are said to be collinear, if there is a line which contains all
of them.
Line
A line is defined by its length and has no breadth. It has length units. (metre, foot, centimetre kilometre, etc.).
A line contains infinite points. Through a given point, there pass infinite lines. One and only one straight line
passes through two distinct points. Three or more lines are said to be concurrent, if they pass, through one point
and that point is called the point of concurrence. Two lines are said to be intersecting lines, if they have a
common point.
Angle
When two straight lines meet at a point, they are said to form an angle. Angles generally are measured in
degrees. There are 180 in a straight line and a full circle constitutes 360 .
1. Two angles are said to be complementary, if their sum is 90 . Complement of x is (90 x).
A
B
C
O
In the adjoining figure, AOC + BOC = 90 .
\ AOC and BOC are complementary to each other.
2. Two angles are said to be supplementary, if their sum is 180 . Supplement of x is (180 x).
A B
C
O
180
O
q
AOC + BOC = 180 .
\ AOC and BOC are supplementary to each other.
Concepts of Geometry
EXERCISE
1. How many sides has a regular polygon whose
interior angle is 11 times its exterior angle ?
(a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 18 (d) 26
2. Two angles of a regular polygon are 100 each
and each of the remaining angles is 130 . Find
the number of sides of the polygon.
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 7
3. The ratio of the measure of an interior angle of a
regular nonagon to the measure of each of its
exterior angles is :
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 2 : 7
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 7
4. In the given figure, find x
A B
C
D E
F
2x
3x
x+20 x
3x
x
(a) 72 (b) 76
(c) 70 (d) 74
5. ABCD is a rhombus, C = 80 . Find ABC
(a) 90 (b) 120
(c) 100 (d) 70
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Measure of each interior angle of n sides
=
(2 4)90 n
n
-
Measure of each exterior angle of n sides =
360
n

\
(2 4)90 n
n
-
=
360
11
n

2n 4 =
11 360
90

= 44
2n = 48 n = 24
2. Let the number of sides of a polygon be n.
Sum of interior angles = (2n 4) 90
130(n 2) + 100 + 100 = (2n 4) 90
130n 260 + 200 = 180n 360
50n = 300
n = 6
Hence, the number of sides of the polygon is 6.
3. Each exterior angle of a regular nonagon
=
360
9

= 40
Each interior angle of a regular nonagon
=
(2 9 4) 90
9
-
= 140
Required ratio = 40 : 140 = 2 : 7
4. ABCDEF is a hexagon. Sum of the interior angles
of a hexagon = (2 6 4) 90 = 720
(x + 20) + x + 3x + 2x + 2x + x = 720
10x + 20 = 720
10x = 700
x = 70
5. As ABCD is a rhombus.
A = C = 80
[In a rhombus opposite angles are equal]
A D
B C
80
o
A + B+ C + D = 360
[Sum of the angles in a quadrilateral is 360 ]
(A + C) + (B + D) = 360
(80 + 80) + 2 B = 360
[B = D opposite angles in a rhombus are equal]
2B = 360 160 = 200
B = 100
Coordinate Geometry is also called Analytical Geometry. It is that branch of geometry in which we use two
numbers called coordinates to indicate the position of a point in a plane.
Cartesian Coordinate System
The horizontal line x is called the x-axis and the vertical line y oy is called the y-axis and together they are
called the coordinate axes. The point of intersection of these two axes is called the origin. Let P be any point in a
plane. From P draw perpendiculars to the coordinate axes meeting the x-axis in M and y-axis in N. Here, OM(x)
is the x-coordinate or absicssa of a point P. Similarly, ON(y) is the y-coordinate or ordinate of point P.
y
x
y
x
3N
P(2,3)
1 2M O
2
1
y
x
This position of the point P in the plane with respect to the coordinate axes is represented by the ordered pair
(x, y) and this system is called the cartesian coordinate system.
The coordinates of the origin Oare (0, 0). Also, x ox and y oy divide the plane into four regions calledquadrants.
1. xoy is quadrant I. Here, x-coordinate is positive and y-coordinate is positive. (+,+)
2. x oy is quadrant II. Here, x-coordinate is negative and y-coordinate is positive. ( , +)
3. x oy is quadrant III. Here, x-coordinate is negative and y-coordinate is negative. ( , )
4. xoy is quadrant IV. Here, x-coordinate is positive and y-coordinate is negative. (+, )
eg,
(1,5) lies in first quadrant
( 2,3) lies in second quadrant
( 2, 4) lies in third quadrant
(4, 2) lies in fourth quadrant
The coordinate of origin is (0, 0).
The ordinate of every point on x-axis is 0.
The ordinate of every point on y-axis is 0.
y
x
x
y
II
( ,+)
I
(+, +)
O
III
( , )
IV
(+, )
Coordinate Geometry
EXERCISE
1. The image of the origin with respect of the straight
line 4x + 3y 25 = 0 is
(a) (2, 3) (b) (8, 6)
(c) ( 8,6) (d) (6, 8)
2. If x + y + =0 and lx 5y 5 = 0 represent the
same line, then l + is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 4 (d) 1
3. If the points (x, 2), ( 3, 4) and (7, 1) are collinear,
then the value of x is
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) 2
4. When the graph of a linear equation is plotted, it
always comes to be
(a) curve (b) straight line
(c) circle (d) parabola
5. Look at the following figure. What is the area of
square ABCD?
y
3 B(1,5)
4
C(5,2)
O
D(2,-2)
X
A(-2,1)
y
(a) 20 (b) 25
(c) 30 (d) 35
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
EXPLANATION
1. Let equation of perpendicul ar line AC is
3x 4y + l = 0
It passes through (0, 0)
\ l = 0
it 3x 4y = 0
The point of intersections of AC and DE is
B (4, 3).
Let C(x
1
, y
1
) be the image point of A. Then, B is
the mid point of AC.
\ 4 =
1
0
,
2
x +
3 =
1
0
2
y +
x
1
= 8, y
1
= 6
Hence, required point is (8, 6).
2. Since, lines x + y + m = 0 and l x 5y 5 = 0
represents the same line.
\
1
l
=
1
5 -
=
5
m
-
m = 1 l + m = 5 + 1 = 4
3. Since, the given points are collinear.
\
2 1
3 4 1
7 1 1
x
-
-
= 0
x (4 + 1) 2( 3 7) + 1 (3 28) = 0
5x + 20 25 = 0
5x = 5
x = 1
4. When the graph of linear equation is plotted, it
always a straight line.
5. Now, BD =
2 2
(2 1) ( 2 5) - + - -
=
50
and AC =
2 2
(5 2) (2 1) + + -
=
50
\ Area of square ABCD =
1
50 50
2

= 25
Fundamental Principles of Counting
Fundamental Principle of Multiplication: If there are two jobs such that one of them can be completed
in n ways and second job can be completed in n ways, then the two jobs in succession can be completed in m n
ways.
Fundamental Principle of Addition: If there are two jobs such that they can be performed independently
in m and n ways respectively, then either of the two jobs its can be performed in (m + n) ways.
Example 1: Find the number of ways in which n different prizes can be distributed among m (< n) persons,
if each is entitled to receive at most n 1 prizes.
Solution. Total number of ways = m m ... to n times = m
n
The number of ways in which one gets all the prizes = m
The required number of ways = m
n
m
Example 2: There are 4 candidates for the post of a lecturer in Mathematics and one is to be selected by votes
of 5 men. Find the number of ways in which the votes can be given.
Solution. Each man can vote for one of the 4 candidates and this can be done in 4 ways.
Similar is the case with every other man. (\Repetition is
allowed)
Hence, 5 men can vote in 4
5
ie, 1024 ways.
Permutations
Each of the arrangements which can be made by taking some or all number of things is called a permutation.
Thus, the permutations which can be made by taking the letters a, b, c two at a time are 6. ie, ab, bc, ac, ba,
cb and ca. Each of these presenting a different arrangement of two letters. These six arrangements are called
permutations of three things taken two at a time.
Permutation &
Combination
EXERCISE
1. Ten coins are tossed simultaneously. In how many
of the outcomes will the third coin turn up a head?
(a) 3 2
8
(b) 3 2
9
(c) 2
10
(d) 2
9
2. If 10 persons meet at a meeting and shake hands
exactly once with each other, what is the total
number of hand shakes?
(a) 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
(b) 10 10
(c) 10 9
(d) 45
3. N persons stand on the circumference of a circle
at distinct points. Each possible pair of persons,
not standing next to each other, sings a two-
minute song one pair after the other. If the total
time taken for singing is 28 minutes, what is N?
(a) 5 (b) 7
4. In a chess competition involving some boys and
girls of a school, every student had to play exactly
one game with every other student. It was found
that in 45 games both the players were girls and
in 190 games both were boys. The number of
games in which one player was a boy and the
other was a girl is
(a) 200 (b) 216
(c) 235 (d) 256
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Total number of ways
=2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 = 2
9
2. Required number of ways =
10
C
2
=
10 9
2
= 45
3. 2 (
N
C
2
N) = 28
N
C
2
N =14
( ) 1
2
N N
N
-
- = 14
N
2

N 2N = 28
(N 7)(N + 4) = 0
\ N = 7 as N 4
4. Let there were g girls and b boys. Number of
games between two girls =
g
C
2
Number of games
between two boys =
b
C
2
\
( ) 1
2
g g -
= 45
g
2
g 90 = 0
(g 10)(g + 9) = 0 \ g = 10 as g
9
Also,
( ) 1
2
b b -
= 190
b
2
b 380 = 0
(b 20)(b + 190) = 0 b = 20 as b 19
\ The total of games=
(g + b)
C
2
=
30
C
2
=
30 29
2 1
= 435
\ Number of games in which one player is a boy
and the other is a girl = 435 45 190 = 200
Probability
Probability is used to indicate a possibility of an event to occur. It is often used synonymously with chance.
(i) In any experiment if the result of an experiment is unique or certain, then the experiment is said to be
deterministic in nature.
(ii) If the result of the experiment is not unique and can be one of the several possible outcomes then the
experiment is said to be probabilistic in nature.
Various Terms Used in Defining Probability
(i) Random Experiment: Whenever an experiment is conducted any number of times under identical
conditions and if the result is not certain and is any one of the several possible outcomes, the experiment is
called a trial or a random experiment, the outcomes are known as events.
eg, When a die is thrown is a trial, getting a number 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 is an event.
(ii) Equally Likely Events: Events are said to be equally likely when there is no reason to expect any one of
them rather than any one of the others.
eg, When a die is thrown any number 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 may occur. In this trial, the six events are
equally likely.
(iii) Exhaustive Events: All the possible events in any trial are known as exhaustive events. eg, When a die
is thrown, there are six exhaustive events.
(iv) Mutually Exclusive Events: If the occurrence of any one of the events in a trial prevents the occurrence
of any one of the others, then the events are said to be mutually exclusive events. eg, When a die is thrown
the event of getting faces numbered 1 to 6 are mutually exclusive.
Classical Definition of Probability
If in a random experiment, there are n mutually exclusive and equally likely elementary events in which n
elementary events are favourable to a particular event E, then the probability of the event E is defined as P (E)
P(E) =
Favourabel Events
Total number of Events
=
( )
( )
n E
m
n S n
=
Probability
EXERCISE
1. A box of electronic diode contains 120 standard
and 80 sub-standard ones. Two diodes are taken
at random. What is the probability that one is
standard and the other is sub- standard ?
(a)
96
199
(b)
16
33
(c)
24
100
(d)
8
33
2. A box contains 20 white, 30 black, 40 blue and
30 red balls. Compute the probability that one of
the balls extracted at random from the box turns
out to be white, black or red.
(a)
3
4
(b)
3
5
(c)
1
3
(d)
2
3
3. If seven coins are tossed, what is the probability
of obtaining at least 2 heads ?
(a)
12
16
(b)
15
16
(c)
15
18
(d)
15
20
4. If one rolls a fair-sided die twice, what is the
probability that the die will land on the same
number on both the occasions ?
(a)
1
12
(b)
1
6
(c)
1
24
(d)
1
8
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Total number of diodes are 200.
\Probability of getting one standard diode and
one sub-standard diode
=
120 80
1 1
200
2
C C
C
=
120 80
200 199
2
=
96
199
2. Probability that the extracted ball is blue
=
40
120
=
1
3
\ Probability that the extracted ball is not blue
=
1
1
3
-
=
2
3
.
3. Probability of getting no head =
7
0
7
2
C
=
1
128
Probability of getting one head =
7
1
7
2
C
=
7
128
Probability of getting at least 2 heads
=
1 7
1
128 128
- -
=
120
128
=
15
16
4. Let E = Event of getting same number on both
occassions
= (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4),
(5, 5), (6, 6)
\ n(E) = 6
\Required probability =
2
6
6
=
1
6
Percentage
Per cent means per hundred . It is given by % symbol. Here x% means x per hundred or
.
100
x
Thus, any
percentage can be converted into an equivalent fraction by dividing it by 100.
eg 20% =
20 1
;
100 5
=
150% =
150 3
100 2
=
Also, any fraction or decimal can be converted into its equivalent percentage by multiplying with 100.
eg
1 1
100
5 5
=
= 20%;
3 3
100
2 2
=
= 150%.
Important Formulae
1. Percentage increase =
Increase
100
Original value
2. Percentage decrease =
Decrease
100
Original value

3. If the price of the commodity increases by r% then the reduction in consumption so as not to increase the
expenditure is
100 %
100
r
r

+

4. If the price of the commodity decreases by r% then the reduction in consumption so as not to increase the
expenditure is
100 %
100
r
r

-

5. If As income is r% more than Bs income then Bs income is less than A s income by
100 %
100
r
r

+

.
6. If As income is r% less than Bs income then Bs income is more than As income by
100 %
100
r
r

.
Percentage
7. Let the population of a town be P and it increases at the rate of r% per annum, then
(a) Population after n years =
1
100
n
r
P

+

(b) Population n years ago =
1
100
n
P
r
+

8. Let the present value of the machine be P and if it depreciates at the rate of r% per annum.
(a) Value of machine after n years =
1
100
n
r
P

-

(b) Value of machine n years ago =
1
100
n
n
r
P

-

EXERCISE
1. If the number of a fraction is increased by 150%
and the denominator is increased by 300%, the
resultant fraction is
5
.
12
What was the original
fraction?
(a)
2
3
(b)
1
3
(c)
3
5
(d)
2
5
2. The boys and girls in a college are in the ratio of
3 : 2. If 25% of the boys and 20% girls are adults,
percentage of students who are minor is
(a) 75% (b) 77%
(c) 80% (d) None
3. The radius of a circle is increased by 2%. The
percentage increase in the area is
(a) 2.02% (b) 4.04%
(c) 3% (d) 4%
4. If P is a % more than Q and Q is b% less than P,
then
(a) 1/a 1/b = 100 (b) 1/a 1/b = 1/100
(c) 1/a + 1/b = 100 (d) 1/b 1/a = 1/100
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let the original fraction =
x
y
New fraction =
250
100
400
100
x
y
=
5
12

250
400
x
y
=
5
12

5
8
x
y
=
5
12
x
y
=
8
12
=
2
3
2. Suppose boys = 3x and girls = 2x
Number of minors= (75% of 3x) + (80% of 2x)
=
75 80
3 2
100 100
x x

+

=
9 8
4 5
x x
+
=
77
20
x
Required percentage =
77 1
100
20 5
x
x

= 77%
3. Initially let the radius be 100 m.
Increase radius = 102 m
Original area = {p (100)
2
} m
2
New area = [p (102)
2
] m
2
Increase %=
2 2
2
(102) (100)
%
(100)

p - p

p

=
(102 100)(102 100)
%
100
+ -
=
202 2
%
100
= 4.04%
4. P is a% more than Q.
P = Q + Q a/100
= Q (1 + a/100)
= (Q/100) (100 + a) ...(i)
Q is b% less than P.
Q = P P b/100
= (P/100) (100 b) ...(ii)
Multiplying (i) and (ii), we get
PQ = (PQ/100)
2
(100 + a)(100 b)
(100 + a) (100 b) = 100
2
100
2
+ 100(a b) ab = 100
2
100(a b) = ab
(a b)/ab = 1/100
ie, 1/b 1/a = 1/100
Cost Price
The price at which an article is purchased is called the cost price or CP.
Selling Price
The price at which an article is sold is called the selling price or SP.
Formulae
Gain or Profit = SP CP
Gain per cent or Profit per cent =
Gain Profit
100 or 100
CP CP

SP =
100 Profit %
CP
100
+

Similarly, Loss = CP SP
Loss per cent =
Loss
100
CP

; SP =
(100 Loss%)
CP
100
-
The Profit and Loss per cent is always calculated on the cost price.
If a trader professes to sell his goods at CP but uses false weight, then Gain per cent or Profit per cent
=
Error
100 %
True Value Error

-

Marked Price or List Price
Price that is indicated or marked on the article is called marked price or MP.
Discount
It is reduction given on the Marked Price or List Price of an article.
d per cent =
100 discount
;
MP
Selling Price =
(100 %)
100
d
MP
-
Profit and Loss

SP = 90% of ` 500 = `
90
500
100

= ` 450
Sale price = ` 423
Additional discount =
27
100
450

= 6%
EXERCISE
1. A shopkeeper marks his goods at such a price that
he can deduct 20% for cash and yet make 20%
profit. The marked price of an item which cost
him ` 180 is
(a) ` 270 (b) ` 240
(c) ` 245 (d) ` 260
2. A dealer buys an article marked at ` 40000 with
20% and 10%off. He spends ` 1200 on its repairs
and sells it for ` 30000. What is his gain or loss
per cent?
(a) 10% gain (b) 10% loss
(c) no profit no loss (d) None of the above
3. Successi ve discount of 10% and 10% are
equivalent to a single discount of.
(a) 19% (b) 20%
(c) 21% (d) 18%
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. CP = ` 180,
Gain = 20%
\ SP = `
120
180
100

= ` 216
Let the MP be ` x.
Then, 80% of x = 216
80
100
x
= 216
x =
216 100
80
= 270
Thus, MP is ` 270.
2. CP = (80% of 90% of ` 40000) + ` (1200)
= `
80 90
40000 1200
100 100

+

= ` (28800 + 1200) = ` 30000
\ CP = ` 30000 and SP = ` 30000
So, no gain no loss in the transaction.
3. Let the CP be ` 100. Then,
SP = 90% of 90% of ` 100
= `
90 90
100
100 100

= ` 81
\ Single discount = (100 81)% = 19%
Ratio
The ratio of two quantities a and b is the fraction
a
b
and is expressed as a : b. Here a is the first term or
antecedent and b is the second term or consequent. Since the ratio expresses the number of times one quantity
contains the other, it is an abstract (without units) quantity.
A ratio remains unaltered if its numerator and denominator are multiplied or divided by the same number.
eg, 4 : 3 is the same as (4 10) : (3 10) ie, 40 : 30.
20 : 15 is the same as
20 15
:
5 5

ie, 4 : 3.
A ratio is said to be a ratio of greater or less inequality or of equality according as antecedent is greater than,
less than or equal to consequent .
If a > b, then a : b is called a ratio of greater inequality (eg, 4 : 3, 5 : 2, 11 : 3, ...)
If a < b, then a : b is called a ratio of less inequality (eg, 3 : 4, 2 : 5, 3 : 11, ...)
If a = b, then a : b is called a ratio of equality (eg, 1 : 1, 3 : 3, 5 : 5, ...)
From this we find that
(i) If a > b and some positive number is added to each term of a : b, then the ratio is diminished.
If a > b, then (a + x) : (b + x) < a: b.
(ii) If a < b and some positive number is added to each termof a : b, then the ratio is increased.
If a < b, then (a + x) : (b + x) < a : b.
(iii) If a = b and some positive number is added to each term of a : b, then the ratio is unaltered. If a = b, then
(a + x) : (b + x) = a : b
Kinds of Ratios
Duplicate Ratio: a
2
: b
2
is called duplicate ratio of a : b.
Triplicate Ratio: a
3
: b
3
is called triplicate ratio of a : b.
Sub-Duplicate Ratio: : a b is called sub-duplicate ratio of a : b.
Sub-triplicate Ratio :
3 3
: a b is called sub-triplicate ratio of a : b.
Ratio & Proportion
EXERCISE
1. The ratio of expenditure and savings of a person
is 26: 3. If his monthly income is ` 7250, then
what is his monthly savings.
(a) ` 290 (b) ` 350
(c) ` 750 (d) ` 780
2. ` 750 is distributed in A, B and C such that A : B
= 5 : 2, B : C = 7: 13 then what is As part ?
(a) ` 140 (b) ` 250
(c) ` 260 (d) ` 350
3. 60m of a uniform wire weight 80 kg. What will
141 m of the same wire weight ?
(a) 144 kg (b) 188 kg
(c) 288 kg (d) 282 kg
4. Ratio between two numbers is 5 : 6 and sum of
their squares is 549. The numbers are
(a) 10, 12 (b) 15, 18
(c) 20, 24 (d) 30, 36
5. Ratio between three numbers is 1 : 2 : 3 and sum
of their squares is 504. The numbers are
(a) 6, 12, 18 (b) 3, 6, 12
(c) 4, 8, 24 (d) 2, 4, 8
ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let monthly expenditure = 26x and monthly
savings = 3x
Then, monthly income = 26x + 3x = 29x
\ 29x = 7250
x = 250
\ Monthly savings = ` 3 250 = ` 750
2. A : B = 5 : 2 =
5
: 1
2
B : C = 7 : 13 =
13
1 :
7
A : B : C =
5 13
: 1:
2 7
= 35 : 14 : 26
\ As part =
35
750
75
= ` 350
3.
60
80
=
141
x
x = 188 kg
4. Let the two numbers be 5x and 6x respectively.
(5x)
2
+ (6x)
2
= 549
25x
2
+ 36x
2
= 549
61x
2
= 549
x
2
= 9
x = 3
So, the two numbers are 5x and 6x ie, 15 and 18
respectively.
5. Let the three number be x, 2x and 3x respectively
(x)
2
+ (2x)
2
+ (3x)
2
= 504
14x
2
= 504
x
2
= 36
x = 6
So, the three numbers are x, 2x and 3x ie, 6, 12
and 18 respectively.
Partnership
When two or more than two persons run a business jointly, they are called partners in the business and the
deal between them is known as partnership.
Partnership is of two types
1. Simple Partnership
2. Compound Partnership
1. Simple Partnership: When investments of all the partners are for the same period of time, the profit or
loss is distributed among the partners in the ratio of their original investments.
Suppose A and B invest ` p and ` q respectively for a year in a business, then at the end of the year. Share
of As profit (loss) : Share of Bs profit (loss) = p : q.
2. Compound Partnership: When investments of all the partners are for different period of time, then
equivalent capitals are calculated for a unit of time and the profit or loss is divided in the ratio of the product of
time and investment.
Suppose A and B invest ` p and ` q for x months and y months respectively, then Share of As profit (loss):
Share of B s profit (loss) = px : qy.
Partners are of two types
(i) Working Partner, and
(ii) Sleeping Partner
(i) Working Partner: A partner who manages the business is called a working partner.
(ii) Sleeping Partner: A partner who only invests the money is called a sleeping partner.
Example 1: A and B started a business with capitals of ` 25000 and ` 40000 respectively. Find the share of
A and B out of an annual profit of ` 6500.
Solution. Ratio of shares of A and B = Ratio of their investments = 25000 : 40000 = 5 : 8
As share = `
5
6500
13

= ` 2500
and Bs share = `
8
6500
13
= ` 4000
Partnership
EXERCISE
1. A, B and C start a business with ` 12000. As share
is half the sum of the shares of B and C. The share
of B is 2/3 of the sum of the shares of A and C.
Then, the share of C is
(a) ` 3200 (b) ` 4800
(c) ` 4000 (d) ` 3000
2. A started a business with an investment of
` 84000. After x months B joins A with a capital
of ` 42000. If the ratio of profit at the end of the
year is 3 : 1, then x is
(a) 6 months (b) 2 months
(c) 4 months (d) 3 months
3. A, B and C started a business with ` 45000. If
their profits are ` 2400, ` 4000 and ` 5600. Find
the investment of A.
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 15000
(c) ` 21000 (d) ` 8000
4. A, B and C rented a pasture by paying ` 2160 per
month. They put 60, 40 and 20 sheep respectively.
A sells 1/3 of his sheep to B after 6 months and
after 3 months more C sells of his sheep to A. Find
the rent paid by C at the 2/5 end of the year.
(a) ` 4355 (b) ` 3888
(c) ` 2464 (d) ` 6224
ANSWER
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. A + B + C = 12000 ...(i)
A =
1
( )
2
B C +
B + C = 2A
By substituting the value of B + C = 2A in Eq. (i),
we get
3A = 12000
A = ` 4000
Also, B =
2
( )
3
A C +
A + C =
3
2
B
By substituting the value of A + C =
3
2
B
in Eq.
(i), we get
3
2
B
B +
= 12000
5
2
B
= 12000
B =
12000 2
5

= ` 4800
Share of C = ` [12000 ( 4000 +
4800)]
= ` [12000 8800]
= ` 3200
2. Ratio of profits of A and B
= (84000 12) : 42000 (12 x)
84000 12
42000 (12 ) x
-
=
3
1
42000 (12 x) 3 = 84000 12
(12 x) =
84000 12
42000 3
= 8
x = 4
Hence, B joined after 4 months
3. The ratio of the profit of three persons
= 2400 : 4000 : 56000 = 3 : 5 : 7
A s investment = `
3
45000
15

= ` 9000
4. A : B: C = [(60 6) + (40 3) + (48 3)] : [(40 6)
+ (60 6)] : [(20 9) + (12 3)]
= (360 + 120 + 144) : (240 + 360) : (180 + 36)
= 624 : 600 : 216 = 26 : 25 : 9
Total rent to be paid at the end of the year
= ` (2160 12) = ` 25920
Rent paid by C at the end of the year
A Civil Servant should be well-versed in concepts of Square Root & Cube Root. In the Civil Services Aptitude
Test Paper 2, in Basic Numeracy, certainly there will be asked some questions from square roots and cube roots of
number to test fast calculation skills of a candidate.
Square Root
The square root of a number is that number the product of which itself gives the given number, ie, the square
root of 400 is 20, the square root of 625 is 25.
The process of finding the square root is called evaluation. The square root of a number is denoted by the
symbol called the radical sign. The expression
9
is read as root time , radical nine or the square root of
nine .
How to Find the Square Root of an Integer?
(i) By the method of Prime Factors: When a given number is a perfect square, we resolve it into prime
factors and take the product of prime factors, choosing one out of every two.
Example 1: Find the square root of 4356.
Solution.
2 4356
2 2178
3 1089
3 363
11 121
11
4356 = 2 2 3 3 11 11 = 2
2
3
2
11
2
4356
= 2 3 11 = 66
Thus from the above example it is clear that in order to find the complete square root of a given number every prime
factor of that number should be repeated twice. Thus, we can make a number which is not a perfect square, a perfect
square by multiplying or dividing the number by those factors of it which are not contained in pairs.
Square Root & Cube Root
EXERCISE
1. Find
3
0.027
0.125
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.3
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.2
2. The largest three digit number which is a perfect
cube is
(a) 986 (b) 729
(c) 981 (d) 864
3. Simplify
3
729.
(a) 9 (b) 3
(c) 8 (d) 6
4. What is the smallest number by which 1400 be
divided to make it a perfect cube?
(a) 130 (b) 145
(c) 160 (d) 175
5. Evaluate
3
0.000729
(a) 0.09 (b) 0.9
(c) 9.0 (d) 0.009
6. The cube root of 5.832 is
(a) 0.18 (b) 0.28 (c) 2.8 (d) 1.8
7. Find the least number by which 175760 be
multiplied to make it a perfect cube.
(a) 100 (b) 160
(c) 80 (d) 27
8. Find the least number by which 234375 be divided
to make it a perfect cube.
(a) 20 (b) 8
(c) 15 (d) 10
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
3
0.027
0.125
=
3
27 1000
1000 125
=
3
3
27
125
=
3 3
3 3
3
5
=
3
5
= 0.6
2. 9
4
= 729 and 10
3
= 1000
So the required number = 729
3.
729
=
2
27
= 27
\
3
27
=
3 3
3
= 3
4. 1400 = 2
3
5
2
7
To make it a perfect cube, it must be divided by
5
2
7 = 175
5.
3
6
729
10
=
3
3 6
729
10
=
3 3
3 6
9
10
=
9
100
= 0.09
6.
3
5.832
=
3
5832
1000
=
3
3
5832
1000
=
18
10
=1.8
7. 175760 = 2
4
5 13
3
To make it a perfect cube it must be multiplied by
2
2
5
2
= 100.
8. 234375 = 5
7
3
To make it a perfect cube it must be divided by
5 3 = 15.
In simplification of an expression there are certain laws which should be strictly adhered to. These laws are
as follows:
VBODMAS Rule
This rule gives the correct sequence in which the mathematical operation are to be executed so as to find out
the value of a given expression.
Here, V stands for Vicnaculum (or Bar), B stands for Brcket , O stands for Of , D stands for Division , M
stands for Multiplication, A stands for Addition and S stand for Subtraction .
(a) Here, VBODMAS gives the order of simplification. Thus, the order of performing the mathematical
operations in a given expression are
First : Virnaculum or line bracket or bar
Second: Bracket
Third: Of
Fourth: Division
Fifth: Multiplication
Sixth: Addition &
Seventh: Subtraction
The above order should strictly be followed.
(b) There are four types of brackets.
(i) Square brackets [ ]
(ii) Curly brackets { }
(iii) Circular brackets ( )
(iv) Bar or Virnaculum
Thus, in simplifying an expression all the brackets must be removed in the order , ( ) , { } and [ ] .
Simplification
EXERCISE
1. If x and y are positive integers and
( )
3.5
x y -
=
4
7
,
then
(a) y < x (b) y > x
(c) y = x (d) y > = x
2. In a fraction, if 2 i s subtracted from the
denominator, the faction becomes 1. If 1 is
subtracted from both the numerator and the
denominator, the fraction becomes 3/4. What is
the denominator of the fraction?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
3. If x + y z = m and if, x y + z = n, then x is equal
to
(a) (m + n)/2 (b) m n
(c) 2m + n (d) m + n
4. It is required to change a rupee coin into 2 paise
and 5 paise coins with the total number of coins
equal to 26. Find the number of each type of coins.
(a) 10 and 16 (b) 12 and 14
(c) 10 and 20 (d) 14 and 14
5. Given that 9/2x + 3y = 21 and 1/2x 8y = 4. Find
the value of 12x 12y.
(a) 12 (b) 30
(c) 25 (d) 60
6. Let A = (x + 1)/(x 1) and B = (x 1)/(x + 1).
Determine the value of A B.
(a) 0 (b) x/(x
2
1)
(c) 4x/(x
2
1) (d) None of these
7. If the numerator of a fraction is double and the
denominator is increased by 3, the new fraction
is 3/5. What is the original fraction, if its
denominator is more than twice the numerator
by 1?
(a) 3/7 (b) 6/13
(c) 1/3 (d) 5/11
8. For what value of x, 8 + (x 3)
2
have the least
value?
(a) 3 (b) 0
(c) 3 (d) 5
9. 3.7 (10)
7
is equal to
(a) 370000 (b) 3700000
(c) 37000000 (d) 370000000
10.
2
( 5 5) +
is equal to
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 20
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
3.5
x y -
=
4
7
\ x y = 2
As x and y are positive integers
So, x > y.
2. Suppose the fraction is
x
y
.
So,
2
x
y -
= 1
x = y 2 ...(i)
1
1
x
y
-
-
=
3
4
4x 4 = 3y 3
4x = 3y + 1 ...(ii)
4(y 2) = 3y + 1
y = 9
3. x + y z = m and x y + z = n
Adding the above two we have,
2x = m + n or, x = (m + n)/2.
4. Let x be the number of 5 paise coins, then (26 x)
will be the number of 2 paise coins.
So, x
5
+ (26 x)
2
= 100
5x + 52 2x = 100
3x = 48
x = 16
Number of 5 paise coins = 16
Number of 2 paise coins = 26 16 = 10
5. 9/2x + 3y = 21 ...(i)
1/2x 8y = 4 ...(ii)
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii),
10/2x 5y = 25
5x 5y = 25
x y = 5
12x 12y = 12 5 = 60.
6. A B =
1 1
1 1
x x
x x
+ -
-
- +
=
2 2
2
( 1) ( 1)
1
x x
x
+ - -
-
2 2
2
1 2 1 2
1
x x x x
x
+ + - - +
-
=
2
4
1
x
x -
7. Let the fraction be
2 1
x
x +
Then,
2
2 1 3
x
x + +
=
3
5
10x = 6x + 12
10x 6x = 12 x = 3
So, the fraction is
3
7
.
8. Clearly for x = 3, given expression has least value.
9. 3.7(107) = 37000000
10.
2
( 5 5) +
2
(2 5)
4 5 = 20
Highest Common Factor
The highest common factor of two or more given numbers is the largest of their common factors. It is known
as GCD also.
eg, Factors of 20 are 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20
Factors of 36 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36
Here greatest and common factor of 20 and 36 is 4.
\ HCF of 20 and 36 is 4.
Least Common Multiple
The least common multiple of two or more given numbers is the least of their common multiples.
eg, Multiple of 25 are 25, 50, 75, 100, 125, 150, 175, ....
Multiple of 30 are 30, 60, 90, 120, 150, 180, 210, ....
Here 150 is least common multiple of 25 and 30
\ LCM of 25 and 30 is 150.
Using Division Method
Example 1: Determine the HCF and LCM of 36, 48, 64 and 72.
Solution. To find HCF
36 ) 48 ( 1
36
12 ) 36 ( 3
36

12 ) 64 ( 5
60
4 ) 12 ( 3
12

4 ) 72 (18
4
32
32
\ HCF of 36, 48, 64 and 72 is 4.
HCF & LCM
To find LCM
2 36, 48, 64, 72
2 18, 24, 32, 36
2 9, 12, 16, 18
2 9, 3, 4, 9
3 3, 1, 4, 3
4 1, 1, 4, 1
1, 1, 1, 1
LCM = 2 2 2 2 3 4 = 576
EXERCISE
1. The HCF of 168, 189 and 231 reduced by 8, gives
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 17 (d) 21
2. Among the surds
3 3
2, 4, 2 and
4
6
the largest
one is
(a)
2
(b)
3
4
(c)
3
2
(d)
4
6
3. The GCD and LCM of two numbers are 66 and
384 respectively. If the first number is divided by
2, the resulting answer is 66. The second number
is
(a) 192 (b) 196
(c) 384 (d) 576
4. The LCM and GCD of two numbers are 240 and
16 respectively. If the two numbers are in the ratio
3 : 5, the numbers are
(a) 24,40 (b) 21,35
(c) 36,60 (d) 48,80
5. The LCM of two numbers is 280 and the ratio of
the numbers of 7 : 8. Find the numbers.
(a) 70 and 48 (b) 42 and 48
(c) 35 and 40 (d) 28 and 32
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. HCF of 168, 189, 231 is 21
Required number = 21 8 = 13
2.
2
= (64)
1/12
3
4
= (256)
1/12
3
2
= (16)
1/12
3
6
= (216)
1/12
\
3
4
is largest.
83. First number= 66 2 = 132
\ 132 second number = GCD LCM
132 x = 66 384
x = 192
84. Suppose two numbers are 3x and 5x.
Then, 3x 5x = GCD LCM
15x
2
= 16 240
x
2
= 256
\ x = 16
85. Let the two numbers are 7x and 8x and LCM is
56x.
It is given that LCM = 280
ie, 56x = 280 and x = 5
ie, numbers are 35 and 40.
According to the syllabus of Civil Services Preliminary Exam CSAT Paper II, some questions may be asked
from orders of magnitude . So, the deep study of this chapter is necessary. In this chapter, we study the increasing
or decreasing order related to distance, time, area etc.
Example 1: Ajay, Akshay and Saroj cover a distance of
1
33 km
2
, 33500 mand 290 hactometre respectively
in an hour. Who has the maximum speed?
Solution. Distance covered by Ajay =
1
33 km
2
= 67 1000 m = 33500 m
Distance covered by Akshay = 33500 m
Distance covered by Saroj = 290 hactometre
= 290 100 m = 29000 m
Since, distance covered by Ajay and Akshay are maximum and equal. Hence, Ajay and Akshay have maximum
speed.
EXERCISE
1. In the women cricket team of 11 players, each of
four players Mithali Raj, Anjum, Jhulan and
Sharda are replaced by a new player of 28 yr,
then the following respective changes occur.
(i) Average age of team decreases by 0.5 yr
(ii) Average age of team decreases by 1 yr
(iii) Average age of team increases by 0.5 yr
(iv) Average age of team decreases by 0.75 yr
Which of the following players has maximum
age?
(a) Mithali Raj (b) Anjum
(c) Jhulan (d) Sharda
2. HCF of 105, 150 and 210 is x, HCF of 126, 396,
1080 is y and HCF of 440, 180 and 280 is z. Which
of the following is greatest?
(a) x (b) y
(c) z (d) All are equal
3. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days, B and
C can do it in 120 days, A. and C can do it in 90
days. Who is more efficient?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) Can t be determined
4. Which is smallest among
3 1 2
, ,
4 3 7
and
3
?
5
Orders of Magnitude
(a)
3
4
(b)
1
3
(c)
2
7
(d)
3
5
5. There are two rooms of size 1m x 1m x 1m and 95
cm x 90 cm x 115 cm. Which one is more
vacuumed?
(a) First room (b) Second room
(c) Both are equal vacuumed
(d) Can t be determined
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Age of Mithali Raj = 28 + 11 0.5 = 33.5 year
Age of Anjum = 28 + 11 1 = 39 year
Age of Jhulan = 28 11 0.5 = 22.5 year
Age of Sharda = 28 + 11 0.75 = 36.25
year
Hence, Anjum is oldest.
2. HCF of 105, 150, 210
105 = 3 5 7
150 = 2 3 5
2
210 = 2 3 5 7
\ x = 3 5 = 15
HCF of 126, 396, 1080
126 = 2 3 3 7
396 = 2 2 3 11
1080 = 2 2 2 3 3 3 5
y = 2 3 3 = 18
HCF of 440, 180, 280
440 = 2 2 2 5 11
180 = 2 2 5 3 3
280 = 2 2 2 5 7
\ z = 2 2 5 = 20
Hence, z is maximum.
3. Combined efficiency of A and B =
1
72
...(i)
Combined efficiency of B and C =
1
120
...(ii)
Combined efficiency of A and C =
1
90
...(iii)
Adding Eqs (i), (ii) and (iii),
2 (A + B + C) =
1 1 1
72 120 90
+ +
=
5 3 4
360
+ +
=
12
360
=
1
30
A + B + C =
1
60
\ Combined efficiency of A, B and C
=
1
60
. ..(iv)
\ Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (iv), we get
Cs efficiency =
1 1
60 72
-
=
1
360
Subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (iv), we get
As efficiency =
1 1
60 120
-
=
1
120
Subtracting Eq. (iii) from (iv), we get
Bs efficiency =
1 1
60 90
-
=
1
180
Cearly, A is most efficient.
4.
3
0.75
4
=
,
1
0.33
3
=
,
2
0.28
7
=
,
3
0.60
5
=
Clearly, 0.28 ie,
2
7
is smallest.
5. The room which has more volume is more
vacuumed.
Volume of first room = 1m 1m 1m
= 1m
3
= (100)
3
cm
3
= 1000000 cm
3
Volume of second room = 95 cm 90 cm 115 cm
= 983250 cm
3
Clearly, first room is more vacuumed.
Unitary method is the basic area of arithmetic. In the CSAT paper this portion of Basic numeracy will help
you to solve myriad problems.
Direct Proportion
Two quantities are said to be directly proportional, if on the increase in one the other increases proportionally
or on the decrease in one the other decreases proportionally.
eg, More the numbers of articles, More is the cost.
More the number of workers, More is the work done.
Less the number of articles, Less is the cost.
Less the number of workers, Less is the work done.
Indirect Proportion
Two quantities are said to be indirectly proportional, if on the increase in one the other decreases proportionally
or on the decrease in one the other increases proportionally.
eg, More the number of workers, less is the number of days required to finish a work. More the speed, less is
the time taken to cover a certain distance.
Less the number of workers, more is the number of days required to finish a work. Less the speed, more is the
time taken to cover a certain distance.
Chain Rule
When a series of variables are connected with one another, that we know how much of the first kind is
equivalent to a given quantity of second, how much of the second is equivalent to a given quantity of the third
and so on. The rule by which we can find how much of the last kind is equivalent to a given quantity of the first
kind is called the Chain Rule.
Example 1: If 12 apples cost ` 216, what is the cost of 3 dozen apples ?
Solution. Let the required cost be ` x. Also, 3 dozen apples = 35 apples more apples, more cost (Direct
Proportion);
Apples Cost in `
12 216
36 x
12 x = 36 216 x =
36 216
12
= ` 648
Unitary Method
EXERCISE
1. If 24 men working 9 h a day can do a piece of
work in 36 days, in how many days will 18 men
working 6 h a day do double the work?
(a) 144 days (b) 120 days
(c) 136 days (d) 152 days
2. A camel can walk a certain distance in a desert in
48 days when it rests at an Oasis 6 h each day.
How long will the camel take to walk half the
distance, if it walks at half the speed and rests
twice as long each day?
3. 5 men can complete a work in 12 days and 9
women take 20 days to complete the same work.
How many days will 6 men and 12 women take
to complete the work?
4. 6 men and 10 children can do a piece of work in
24 days. A child takes double the time to do a
work than the man. In how many days 8 men
can complete the work?
ANSWERS
35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a)
EXPLANAIONS
1. Let the required number of days be x.
Less men, More days (Indirect Proportion)
Less working hours, More days (Indi rect
Proportion)
More work, More days (Direct Proportion)
Men Hours Work Days
24 9 1 36
18 6 2 x
x =
24 9 2
36
18 6 1

= 144 days
2. In the first case the camel wlks (24 6) h
= 18 h with a speed s covering a distance d .
In the second case the camel works (24 12) h
= 12 h with a speed
2
s
covering a distance
2
d
.
Less distance, Less days (Direct Proportion)
Less speed, More days (Indirect Proportion)
Less hours, More days (Indirect Proportion)
Distance Speed Hours Days
d s 18 48
2
d
2
s
12 x
x =
2 18
48
2 12
x s
d s
= 72 days
3. 1 man can complete the work in (5 12) days =
60 days
1 women can complete the work in (9 20) days
= 180 days
1 man 1 days work =
1
, 1
60
woman s 1 days work
=
1
180
(6 men + 12 women) 1 days work
=
1 1
6 12
60 180

+

=
1 1
10 15

+

=
5
30
=
1
6
\ 6 men and 12 women will finish the work in 6
days.
4. 2 children = 1 man (6 men + 10 children) = 11
men
Let the required number of days be x.
Less men, More days (Indirect Proportion)
Men Days
11 24
8 x
x =
11 24
8
= 33 days
Average
The average of a given number of quantities of the same kind is expressed as
Average =
Sum of the quantities
Number of the quantities
Average is also called the Arithmetic Mean.
Also, Sum of the quantities = Average Number of the quantities
Number of quantities =
Sumof the quantities
Average
If all the given quantities have the same value, then the number itself is the average.
If all the given quantities are not all the same, then the average of the given quantities is always
greater, then the smallest number and always less than the largest number. Equivalently, atleast one
of the numbers is less than the average and atleast one is greater then the average.
If each of the given quantities is increased by a constant p, then their average is also increased by p.
If each of the given quantities is decreased by a constant p, then their average is also decreased by p.
If each of the given quantities is multiplied by a constant p, then their average is also multiplied by p.
Whenever the given quantities forman arithmetic sequence and if the given quantities has oddterms,
then the average is the middle term in the sequence and if the given quantities has even terms, then
the average of the sequence is the average of the middle two terms.
In order to calculate the weighted average of a set of numbers, multiply each number in the set by the
number of times it appears, add all the products and divide by the total number of numbers in the set.
If the speed of an object from Ato Bis x km/h and from B to A is y km/h,then the average speed during
the whole journey is
2
km/h
xy
x y +
.
If the average of N
1
quantities is x and N
2
quantities is y then the average of total (N
1
+ N
2
) quantities
is given by
1 2
1 2
( ) N x N y
N N
+
+
Average
EXERCISE
1. Five years ago the average age of four men is 48
yr. Now, a new man joins and the average age
increases by 2 yr. What is the age of the newman?
(a) 36 yr (b) 42 yr
(c) 41 yr (d) 38 yr
2. The mean yearly salary of an employee of a
company was ` 20000. The mean yearly salaries
of male and female employees were ` 20800 and
` 16800 respectively. Find the ratio of males to
females employed by the company
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 5 : 3
3. Average of two numbers is 14.5 and square root
of their product is 10. What are the numbers ?
(a) 16 and 9 (b) 25 and 4
(c) 4 and 16 (d) 25 and 9
4. The average age of a group of four men whose
ages are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 : 5 is 42 yr, what is
the age of the eldest person in this group ?
(a) 60 yr (b) 48 yr
(c) 36 yr (d) 24 yr
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Sum of the ages of the four men five year ago
= (48 4) year = 192 year
Present sum of the ages of the four men
= (192 + 5 4) year = 212 year
Now, 50 =
212 Age of the new man
5
+
\ Age of the new man = (50 5 212) year
= 38 year
2. Let the number of males be x and the number of
females be y.
Sum of the salaries of the men = 20800x
Sum of the salaries of the females = 16800y
Now, 20000 =
20800 16800 x
x y
+
+
20000 (x + y) = 20800x + 16800y
800x = 3200y
x
y
=
4
1
x : y = 4 :
1
3. Let the number be a and b. Then,
2
a b +
= 14.5
a + b = 29
ab
= 10
ab = 100
(a b)
2
= (a + b)
2
4ab
=(29)
2
(4 100)= 441
(a b) = 21
On solving a + b = 29 and a b = 21, we get a =
25 and b = 4.
4. Let the ages of the four men be 2x, 3x, 4x and 5x
year respectively.
Then, 42 =
2 3 4 5
4
x x x x + + +
14x = 42 4
x =
42 4
14
= 12
Hence, the age of the eldest person = 5x = (5 12)
year = 60 year
Solid
Anything that occupies space is called a Solid. In addition to area, a solid figure has volume also. It has three
dimensions namely, length, breadth and height. For solid two different types of areas namely, lateral surface
area or curved surface area and total surface area are defined.
1. Prism
A solid having two congruent and parallel faces, called bases and whose other faces, the lateral faces are
parallelograms, formed by joining corresponding vertices of the bases is called a Prism.
2. Right Prism
A prism in which bases are perpendicular to the lateral edges is called a Right Prism. The base of the prism
can be a polygon.
In a right prism
(i) Number of lateral surfaces = Number of sides of the base of the prism
(ii) Total number of surfaces of a prism = Number of lateral surfaces + 2
(iii) Lateral surface area = Perimeter of base Height
(iv) Total surface area = Lateral surface area + 2 (Area of base)
(v) Volume = Area of base Height
3. Cuboid
A right prism in which the base is a rectangle is called a Cuboid. If l is the length and b the breadth of the
base and h the height, then
h
I
b
Lateral surface area = 2 (l + b)h sq unit
Total surface area = 2(l + b)h + 2lb = 2 (lb + bh + lh) sq unit
Volume = lbh cu unit
The longest diagonal of the cuboid =
2 2 2
l b h + +
unit
Volume and Surface
Area of Solid Figures
EXERCISE
1. The area of the base of a rectangular tank is 6500
cm
2
and volume of water contained in it is 2.6
m3. The depth of water (in metres) in the tank is
(a) 2.5 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5.5
2. A pyramid on a square base has four equilateral
triangles on its four other faces, each edge being
10 m. Find its volume.
(a) 200 m
3
(b) 230.7 m
3
(c) 235.7 m
3
(d) 253.7 m
3
3. Find the slant surface of a pyramid 21 cm high,
standing on a square base of 40 cm side
(a) 2320 cm
2
(b) 2230 cm
2
(c) 2330 cm
2
(d) 2220 cm
2
4. A bucket of the shape of the frustum of a cone is
of height 45 cm. If the radii of its edges are 28 cm
and 7 cm then determine the capacity of the bucket
(a) 48510 cm
3
(b) 48550 cm
3
(c) 45800 cm
3
(d) 45830 cm
3
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let the depth of water be x m.
Then
6500
10000
x
= 2.6
x =
2.6 10000
6500
= 4 m
2. Let OABCD be the given pyramid which has a
square base. The four faces of the pyramid are
equilateral triangles.
A
D
B
C
X
Z
O
\ each edge of the pyramid is 10 m
Volume =
1
area of base height
3

where area of base = (10)
2
= 100
and height =
2 2
OZ XZ -
=
2 2
(5 3) 5 -
=
5 2
\ Volume =
1
100 5 2
3

= 235.7 m
3
3. Let OABCD be the pyramid standing on a square
base ABCD.
Here OX = 21 cm, AB = BC = 40 cm
XY =
1
2
AB
= 20 cm
In DOXY,
A
D
B
C
X
Z
O
OY =
2 2
OX XY +
2 2
21 28 +
= 29
\ Area of DOBC =
1
2
BC OY
=
1
40 29
2

= 580 cm
2
\ Slant surface of pyramid
= 4 (D OBC)
(Q base is a square)
= 4 580 = 2320 cm
2
4. R = 28 cm, r = 7 cm, h = 45 cm
\ l =
2 2
( ) h R r + -
=
2 2
(45) (21) +
Clock
A clock has 2 hands, the smaller one is called the hour hand or short hand while the larger one is called the
minute hand or long hand.
The face of a clock is a circle which subtends an angle of 360 at the centre.
Some Important Points
In every hour
1. (a) Both the I ands coincide once. At this point the angle between them is 0 ..
(b) The hands are straight (point in opposite directions) once. At this point the angles between them are
180 .
(c) The hands are twice perpendicular to each other. At this point the angle between them is 90 .
2. (a) In 60 min the minute hand covers 360 .
Thus, in 1 min the minute hand covers
360
6
60

=

(b) In 12 h the hour hand covers 360 .
Thus, in 1 min the hour hand covers
360 1
12 60 2

Thus, in of to minute, the minute hand gains
1 1
6 5 ,
2 2

- =

than the hour hand.
3. (a) When the two hands are at right angles, they are 15min spaces apart.
(b) When the two hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 min spaces apart.
(c) In 60 min the minute hand gains 55 min on the hour hand.
(d) The minute hand moves 12 times as fast as the hour hand.
4. (a) Too Fast: If a clock indicates 7 : 1.5, when the correct time is 7, it is said to be 15 min too fast.
(b) Too Slow: If a clock indicates 7 : 30, when the correct time is 7 45 , it is said to be 15 min too slow.
Example 6: What was the day of the week on 26th June 1816 ?
Clocks and Calendar
EXERCISE
1. The last day of February, 2006 was a
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
2. The time on the watch is 9 : 15 and the hour hand
points towards West. The direction of the minutes
hand is
(a) North (b) South
(c) East (d) West
3. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands
coincide every 64 min ?
(a) 96 min (b) 90 min
(c)
10
34
11
min (d)
8
32
11
min
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The last day of February 2006 was Tuesday.
2. So, when hour hand is pointing towards West,
then minute hand will be pointing towards East
at 9 : 15.
3. Normally, hands of a watch coincide after
5
65
11
min.
So, lose per hour =
5
1 min
11
\ Lose per day =
5
24 1 min
11
=
120
24 min
11
=
10
34 min
11
SAMPLE
MATERIAL
OF OUR
STUDY KIT

REASONING
Under this we deal with different types of questions based on English Alphabets, which could be asked in
CSAT.
Important Facts About Letters
1. Position number of letters in English alphabets.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
2. Position number of letters in English alphabets in reverse order
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
3. We know A, E , I, 0 and U are vowels of English alphabet and remaining letters are consonants of English
alphabets.
4. A 4 M (A to M) letters are called first half of English alphabets.
5. N 4 Z (N to Z) letters are called second half of English alphabets.
6. To the left means Z A (Z to A)
7. To the right means A Z (A to Z)
8. From A Z (A to Z) letters are called left to right of English alphabets.
9. From Z A (Z to A) letters are called right to left of English alphabets.
Types of Question Based on Alphabet Test
There are four types of questions based on Alphabet test:
Type I Arrangement According to Dictionary
Arranging words in alphabetical order implies to arrange them in the order as they appear in a dictionary .
For this arrangement, first we shall consider the first letter of each word. Arrange the words in the order in which
these letters comes in the English alphabets.
Alphabet Test
Directions (Q. No. 1-10): In each of the following
Questions, five words are given which of them will
come in the middle it all of them are arranged
alphabetically as in a distionary?
1. (a) Bishop (b) Bifocal
(c) Bicycle (d) Bitter
2. (a) Parasite (b) Party
(c) Petal (d) Paste
3. (a) Research (b) Rational
(c) Round (d) Rustic
4. (a) Nature (b) Native
(c) Narrate (d) Diastole
5. (a) Didactic (b) Dictum
(c) Dictionary (d) Diastole
6. (a) Outrage (b) Outcase
(c) Overture (d) Ovary
7. (a) Gradine (b) Gradient
(c) Graduate (d) Grading
8. (a) Nozzle (b) Nausea
(c) Nostril (d) Normal
9. (a) Prominent (b) Prohibit
(c) Promise (d) Prolong
10. (a) Descant (b) Descent
(c) Derive (d) Derrick
(a) 41I (b) 6 # W
EXERCISE
ANSWERS WITH SOLUTION
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Bicycle, Bifocal, Bishop, Bitter, Brink
2. Parasite, Party, Paste, Petal, Prick
3. Rational, Research, Round, Rural, Rustic
4. Narrate, Nascent, Native, Nature, Naughty
5. Diastole, Dictate, Dictionary, Dictum, Didactic
6. Outcast, Outrage, Ovary, Overtake, Overture
7. Gradient, Gradine, Grading, Gradual, Graduate
8. Nausea, Nomenclature, Normal, Nostril, Nozzle
9. Programme, Prohibit, Prolong, Prominent, Promise
10. Derive, Derogate, Derrick, Descant, Descent
Here, we deal with the questions having information regarding arrangement. We are giving some objects
and then we have to arrange them according to information provided. Objects are arranged either in row or in a
circle on the basis of such conditions. In some questions, we will also deal with other arrangements like square/
pentagon/ hexagonal.
Different Types of Sitting Arrangement
There are two types of questions which are asked in various competitions
Type 1 Arrangement around a Closed Path
In such questions, we are giving some clues regarding arrangement. We have apply these clues on a circle
and using these information, we have to find the solutions of questions associated with them. In this arrangement,
we also deal square/pentagon/ hexagon, questions.
Before solving type 1 questions, following facts are necessary to know.
For Circular Arrangement
In this arrangement some persons are sitting around a circle and they facing the centre.
Left Right
1. Left movement also called clockwise rotation.
2. Right movement also called anticlockwise rotation.
For Rectangular Arrangement
Right
Left A B
C
D
A B (Fornt with each other) C D (Front with wach other)
Sitting Arrangements
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 3) Read the following
information to answer the questions based on it.
Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows
(i) E and F have one latter between them.
(ii) G is to the right of A.
(iii) B is to the immediate left of F.
(iv) There is one letter between D and A.
(v) D is not Gs neighbour
(vi) G and F have two letters between them.
1. Which letter is second to the left of letter A?
(a) C (b) B
(c) D (d) E
2. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the
letter series so obtained?
(a) D (b) A
(c) E (d) None of these
3. Which pair of the letters is adjacent to the letter
B?
(a) A and C (b) G and E
(c) E and F (d) C and D
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
Explanation (Q. Nos. 60 to 62) The given figure
shows the arrangement of given seven letters :
D C A G E B F
60. Letter D is second to the left of letter A.
61. It is clear from the diagram that letter G is in the
middle of the letter arrangement.
62. Clearly, letters E and F are adjacent to B.
R
Q
S
P
V
T
U
The basic approach for the problems of this type is more or less similar to that of coding and decoding. One
has to study the symbols or the geometrical figures and their meanings carefully. Then, the meanings are to be
used in place of those symbols in answering the questions.
The questions can be categorised into two types
Symbols and Notations
Symbols for these types of questions stand for mathematical operations like +, , , , > , <, , , = and #. So,
the students must replace the symbols by mathematical operations and apply the BODMAS rule to find the value
of the given expression. Other symbols which can be used are D, *, @, $, etc, with proper definitions. Some
examples are given below
Example 1: If + means , means , means and means , and mean + then 15 3 15 + 5 2
= ?
(a) 0 (b) 10
(c) 20 (d) 6
Solution. (b) 15 3 = 15 + 5 2
after changing the signs = 15 = 3 + 15 5 2 = 5 + 15 10 =10
Example 2: If 2 * 3 = 12, 3 * 4 = 20 and 4 * 5 = 30, then 2 * 6 is
(a) 18 (b) 12
Solution. (c) The numbers on both sides of * are increased by one and then multiplied to get the answer.
2*6 = 3 7 = 21
Example 3: If x $ y = (x + y + xy 1) (x + y + xy + 1), then the value of (4 $ 10) is.
(a) 2915 (b) 2195
(c) 2951 (d) 2955
Solution. (a) As per the definition of $, (4$10) would be (4 + 10 + 4 10 - 1) (4 + 10 + 4 10 + 1) = 2915. So,
answer is (a)
Mathematical Operations
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) In the following
questions, symbols , f, , @, have the following
meanings
A B means A is not less than B .
A f B means A is not less than or equal to B.
A B means A is not less than or greater than to B
A @ B means A is not greater than or equal to B .
A B means A is not greater than B.
Based on the statements given in each of the questions
below, find out which of the conclusions follows.
Mark
(a) if only one I follows but not both
(b) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(c) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(d) if both conclusion I as well as conclusion II follow
91. Statements R C, C f T, T P
Conclusions I. R f P
II. R P
92. Statements R C, C T, T P
Conclusions I. R f P
II. R P
93. Statements R @ C, C T, T @ P
Conclusions I. C f P
II. R @ T
94. Statements R C, C T, T f P
Conclusions I. R @ T
II. P C
95. Statements R C , C @ T, T P
Conclusions I. R @ P
II. P C
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)
First we should know some mathematical operations. They are add (+), subtraction ( ), multiply ( ) and
division ( ), greater than (>), less than (<). This test is set up to test candidates skill in mathematical operations.
The questions involving these operations are set using artificial symbols. You are required to substitute the real
signs and solve the questions accordingly, to get the answer.
Different Type of Questions
There are three types of questions based on mathematical operations which are asked in various competitive
examinations. They are,
Problem-Solving by Substitution
In such type of questions you have some substitutes for various mathematical symbols or numerals followed
by a question involving calculation of an expression or choosing the correct/incorrect equation.
Rule BODMAS
Brackets
Of
Division
Multiplication
Addition
Subtraction
While solving a mathematical operations proceed according to the BODMAS formula.
Example 1: If + means minus means divided by means plus and means multiplied by then
which of the following will be the value of expression 7 3.5 2 4 + 5 ?
(a) 4 (b) 5
Solution. (b) Using the proper notations in the given expression, we have
= 7 3.5 2 4 + 5 = 7 + 3.5 + 2 4 5
= 2 + 2 4 5 = 2 + 8 5 = 10 5 = 5
Arithmetical Reasoning
EXERCISE
41. Which of the following operations will result in
22?
(a) 16 12 + 8 13 15
(b) 16 12 8 13 + 15
(c) 16 12 8 + 13 15
(d) 16 + 12 8 13 15
42. If 65 = 31, 78 = 57, 34 = 13, then 910 = ?
(a) 90 (b) 91
(c) 81 (d) 19
43. If 879 = 8, 625 = 1 and 586 = 9 then, 785 = ?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
44. If given, 12 (169) 5, 4 (20) 2 and 1 (26) 5 then 7
(?) 3
(a) 78 (b) 68 (c) 58 (d) 36
45. If 6 8 3 = 638, 9 0 2 = 920, then 5 7 4 =?
(a) 574 (b) 745
(c) 475 (d) 547
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. According to the question,
16 12 8 + 13 15
=
16 12
13
8
+ 15
= 24 + 13 15
= 37 15 = 22
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
2. As, 6 5 = 6 5 + 1 = 31
7 8 = 7 8 + 1 = 57
and 3 4 = 3 4 + 1 = 13
Similarly, 9 10 = 9 10 + 1 = 91
3. 879 (7 + 9) 8 = 8
625 (2 + 5) 6 = 1
and 586 = (8 + 6) 5 = 9
Similarly, 785 (8 + 5) 7 = 6
4. As, 12
2
+ 5
2
144 + 25 = 169
4
2
+ 2
2
16 + 4 = 20
and 1
2
+ 5
2
1 + 25 = 26
Similarly, 7
2
+ 3
2
= 49 + 9 = 58
5. As, 6 8 3 = 638
and 9 0 2 = 920
Similarly, 5 7 4 = 5 4 7
Meaning of Analogy
Analogy means Similar items . There is three types of Analogy
(a) Number Analogy
(b) Letter Analogy
(c) Word Analogy
In questions based on analogy, a pair of numbers/letters/words is given that have certain relationship between
them. This pair is followed by a third numbers/letters/words. The candidate is required to identify the relationship
between the pair of numbers/letters/words given and find out the FOURTH numbers/letters/wore such that the
relationship between the third and the fourth numbers/letters/words is similar to the relationship that exists
between the first and the second numbers/letters/words.
Number Analogy
Typical relationships between the numbers in a given pair can be any of the following :
One number is a multiple of the other.
One number is the square or square root of the other.
One number is the cube or cube root of the other.
The two numbers can be consecutive, even, odd or prime numbers.
Example 1: 3 : 81 : : 6 : ?
(a) 1296 (b) 1269
(c) 1692 (d) 1926
Solution. (a) n : n
4
relation here (3) and (3)
4
= (81)
Similarly, (6) and (6)
4
= 1296
Example 2: Find the missing term 10 : 100 : : ? : 121
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 13
Solution. (b) Square of first term is the second term.
10
2
= 100, so 11
2
= 121
Analogy
EXERCISE
130. Machine is to mechanic as baby is to
(a) mother (b) pediatrician
(c) ward (d) class Teacher
131. A mirror always
(a) distorts
(b) reflects
(c) reveals the truth
(d) retracts
132. The pair of words is given below. Words of this
pair have certain relationship of each other. This
pair is followed by four pairs of words. Select a
pair of words out of these four pairs of words whose
words have the same relationship to each other
as the words of the original pair.
Rectangle : Octagon
(a) Pentagon : Heptagon
(b) Cone : Sphere
(c) Triangle : Hexagon
(d) Angle : Quadrilateral
133. Three words which have something in common
among themselves are given below. Choose the
alternative which is most appropriate description
about the three words.
Species : Genera : Family
(a) These are biological terms
(b) These give information about living things for
classification
(c) These are trains of animal kingdom
(d) These are groups of animals
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
130. As machine is related to mechanic, similarly baby
is related to mother.
131. A mirror always reflects.
132. A rectangle has four sides while an octagon has
eight sides i.e., second has double side than first.
Similarly, triangle has three sides while a hexagon
has six sides.
133. Species, genera and family are biological terms.
Alphabet Classification
In this type of classification, a group of jumbled letters, typically consisting a single or two or three or four
letters are put together. The pattern or order in which they are grouped is to be identified and students need to
find out which groups have the same pattern or relationship between the letters. There will be only one choice,
which will have a different pattern from the rest and hence becomes the answer option.
Example 1: Find the odd one among the following.
(a) LY (b) GU
(c) DQ (d) JW
Solution. (b) Corresponding places in the first half and the second half of letters, except option (b).
Find the odd man out.
(a) AK (b) CM
(c) EP (d) DN
Solution. (c) Except EP {option (c)}, the rest has a gap of 10 letters between them.
Example 2: Find the odd man out.
(a) A (b) D
(c) Y (d) U
Solution. (d) Except option (d), the remaining letters represents the square number positions in English
alphabet.
Number Classification
In such questions, students need to choose the oddnumber fromthe given options. The numbers may belong
to a particular pattern, i.e., they may be odd, even, prime, rational, squares, cubes and they may also be coded
into binary digits (0 s and 1 s), etc. and only one of the choices will not follow the same pattern.
Example 3 : Find the odd man out.
(a) 35 (b) 55
(c) 45 (d) 65
Solution. (c) Except option (c), the remaining are prime products of 5.
(a) 10 (b) 17
(c) 26 (d) 38
Classification
Directions (Q. No. 1-10): Choose the word which
is look like the other words in the group
1. (a) House (b) Cottage
(c) School (d) Palace
2. (a) Tamato (b) Cucumber
(c) Brinjal (d) Carrot
3. (a) Brick (b) Heart
(c) Bridge (d) Spade
4. (a) Hostel (b) Hotel
(c) Inn (d) Club
5. (a) Kennel (b) House
(c) Stable (d) Aviary
6. (a) Cow (b) Deer
(c) Donkey (d) Rhinoceros
7. (a) Guava (b) Litchi
(c) Papaya (d) Watermelon
8. (a) Turtle (b) Lamb
(c) Colt (d) Bitch
9. (a) Rigveda (b) Yajurveda
(c) Atharvaveda (d) Ayurveda
10. (a) Producer (b) Director
(c) Investor (d) Financier
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. All except School are dwelling places.
2. Carrot is the only vegetable which grows
underground.
3. All except Brick are suits of cards.
4. All except Club are places where people can stay.
5. All except House are places to rear one or the other
animal.
6. All except Donkey have horns.
7. All except Watermelon grow on trees, while
watermelon grows on creepers.
8. All except Bitch are young ones of animals, while
watermelon grows on creepers.
9. AllExcept Ayurveda are names of holy scriptures,
the four Vedas. Ayurveda is a branch of medicine.
(a) Diamond (b) Bridge
(c) Heart (d) Spade
Solution. (b) Except option (b), rest are the suits of cards.
Example 13: Find the odd man out.
(a) Tailor (b) Barber
(c) Carpenter (d) Blacksmith
Solution: (b) Except option (b) rest all require raw material to work.
EXERCISE
NUMBER SERIES
Prime Number Series
Example 1. 4, 9, 25, 49, 121, 169,
(a) 324 (b) 289
(c) 225 (d) 196
Solution. (b) The given series is a consecutive square of prime number series. The next prime number is 289.
Example 2. 5, 7, 13, 23,
(a) 25 (b) 27
(c) 29 (d) 41
Solution. (d) The difference between prime numbers is increasing. 7 is next prime to 5; 13 is second to next
prime to 7; 23 is third to next to 13. Hence, next should be fourth to next prime to 23. Hence, required number is 41.
Multiplication Series
Example 3. 4, 8, 16, 32, 64 256
(a) 96 (b) 98
(c) 86 (d) 106
Solution. (a) The numbers are multiplied by 2 to get the next number.
64 2 = 128
Example 4. 5, 20, 80, 320, 1280
(a) 5120 (b) 5220
(c) 4860 (d) 3642
Solution. (a) The numbers are multiplied by 4 to get the next number.
1280 4 = 5120
Difference Series
Example 5. 3,6,9,12,15, . 21
(a) 16 (b) 17
(c) 20 (d) 18
Solution. (d) The difference between the numbers is 3.
15 + 3 = 18
Series
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 82) Find the missing tern
in each of the following series.
1. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 128
(a) 64 (b) 65
(c) 66 (d) 67
2. 35, 29, 24, 20
(a) 14 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 17
3. 4, 7, 5, 9, 11,7,13
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 3
4. 6,11,8,13, 15,12,17
(a) 9 (b) 14
(c) 11 (d) 10
5. 265, 295, 355, 385, . : ....
(a) 544 (b) 454
(c) 445 (d) 545
6. 5, 9, 17,33, 129
(a) 55 (b) 45
(c) 65 (d) 75
7. 11, 13, 17, 19, 29, 31
(a) 25 (b) 26
(c) 27 (d) 23
8. 2, 5, 3, 8, 5, 11, 6, 9
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 15
EXERCISE
9. 6, 5, 9, 10, 12, 15, 20, 18
(a) 14 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 17
10. 81, 86, 79, 84, 77,
(a) 82 (b) 28
(c) 83 (d) 38
SOLUTIONS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The series is + 2, + 4, + 8, + 16, and so on.
2. The series is 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and so on.
3. The sequence consists of two series 4, 5, 6, and
7, 9, 11
4. The sequence consists of two series 6, 8, 10, and
11, 13, 15, .
5. The sequence is + 30, + 60, + 30, + 60, and so
on.
6. The sequence is + 4, + 8, + 16, + 32, and so on.
7. The series is of prime number series.
8. 2 + 3 = 5, 3 + 5 = 8, 5 + 6 = 11, missing number =
6 + 9 = 15
9. Sequence consists of two series 6, 9, 12, and 5,
10, 15
10. The sequence is + 5, 7, + 5, 7, and so on.
What is Coding-Decoding ?
For transmitting secret messages from one place to another, especially in defense services, Coding is used.
Decoding is the ability to break the secret code. The codes are based on various principles or patterns. In CSAT,
questions based on coding-decoding could be given to judge the intelligence and mental ability of the candidates.
The coded word itself does not make any sense unless we know the coding principle. For coding-decoding,
following basic knowledge is required.
1. Forward Order of Letters
A B C D E F G H I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
J K L M N 0 P Q R
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
S T U V W X Y Z
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
2. Reverse Order of Letters
A B C D E F G H I
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18
J K L M N 0 P Q R
17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9
S T U V W X Y Z
8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
3. Opposite Letters
A-Z, H-S, B-Y, I-R, C-X, J-Q, D-W, K-P, E-V, L-0, F-U, M-N, G-T.
The questions based on coding-decoding are broadly categorised into following categories
Coding-Decoding
EXERCISE
Directions: The questions follows are based on
codes. Read the instructions carefully and answer.
117. In, certain code, 95789 is written as TGKPT and
2436 is written as ALUR. How is 24539 written in
that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGUT
(c) ALUGT (d) ALGRT
118. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is
called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called
black, black is called violet and violet is called
orange, then what would the colour of human
blood be ?
(a) Red (b) Green
(c) Yellow (d) Violet
119. In a certain language, MADRAS is coded as
NBESBT. How is BOMBAY coded in the same
language ?
(a) CPNCBX (b) CPNCBZ
(c) CPOCBZ (d) CQOCBZ
120. In a certain code dog is coded as 496 , monkey
is coded as 893210 and pig is coded as 576 .
Using this code how will you code the word
inkpen ?
(a) 468016 (b) 732513
(c) 735213 (d) 486108
ANSWER WITH SOLUTION
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
117. 95789 = TGKPT
2436 = ALUR
24539 = ALGUT
118. The colour of human blood is red and red is called
yellow. So, the colour of human blood is yellow.
119. B O M B A Y C P N C B Z
+1
+1
+1
+1
+1
+1
120. dog 496
monkey 893210
pig 576
inkpen 732513
What is Blood Relations ?
Blood relation logical problems mainly deal with the hierarchical structure of a family i.e., grand-parents,
parents and children etc. Different relationships between the family members of different generations will be
given. To solve the questions related to blood relations, the entire family tree has to be drawn by putting the
various relationships.
In such problems, the aptitude of candidate is shown by the knowledge of the various blood relations. The
typical relationships that are commonly used in blood relation problems are summarized as follows
v Father s or Mother s son = Brother
v Father s or Mother s daughter = Sister
v Father s or Mother s brother = Uncle
v Father s or Mother s sister = Aunt
v Father s or Mother s father = Grandfather
v Father s or Mother s mother = Grandmother
v Brother s or Sister s Son = Nephew
v Brother s or Sister s Daughter = Niece
v Uncle s or Aunt s son or daughter = Cousin
v Sister s Husband = Brother-in-law
v Brother s wife = Sister-in-law
v Son s wife = Daughter-in-law
v Daughter s Husband = Son-in-law
v Husbands or wife s sister = Sister-in-law
v Husbands or wife s Brother = Brother-in-law
To develop a blood relation tree, some standard symbols are used in this chapter to indicate the relationships
among the family members. It is not compulsory to follow them, You can design your own symbols to draw the
family tree quickly and accurately.
v P is male = P
v P is female = P
v Gender of P is not known = P
v P and Q are married to each other P Q
v P and Q are sibling = P Q
Blood Relations
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 4) Read the following
information carefully and answer the questions
given below. There are six children playing football
namely G, H, I, J, K and L. G and K are brothers. L
is the only sister of K. I is the only son of G s uncle.
H and J are the daughters of the brother of I s
father.
1. How is J related to G ?
(a) Sister (b) Niece
(c) Cousin (d) Uncle
2. How is I related to L ?
(a) Cousin (b) Son
(c) Uncle (d) Brother
3. How many male players are there ?
(a) One (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
4. Showing the man receiving the prize Suraj said
He is the brother of my uncle s daughter . Who
is the man to Suraj?
(a) Brother (b) Nephew
(c) Sister (d) Cousin
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
Solutions (1to 4)
H I J L
Sister
Brother Uncle
Only
sister
G
Brother
K
1. J is the cousin of G.
2. I is the cousin of L.
3. There are three male players, I, G and K.
4. Uncle s daughter means cousin sister.
Brother of cousin sister is cousin brother.
For Any Guidance Call ou
The problems in this chapter deal with the linear distance or displacement or direction between starting point
and the final point in X Y dimensions.
Example 1: One morning after sunrise, Sita and Gita were standing in a chowk in Mumbai with their back
towards each other. Sita s shadow fell exactly towards right hand side. Which direction was Gita facing ?
(a) East (b) West
(c) North (d) South
Solution: (c)
North
Gita
Sita
South
West East
Sun
So, the answer is North.
Example 2: A girl was going towards west, then she turned left, then turned 90 in clockwise direction. In
which direction was she going now ?
(a) East (b) West
(c) North (d) None of these
Solution: (b)
90
o
Clockwise
direction
Starting Point
N
W E
S
So, the answer is West.
Example 3: Amit walks 2 km Northward and takes a left turn, walks 5 km and then turns right, walks 3 km
and again turning right, walks 5 km. In which direction is he now from the starting point ?
Direction Sense Test
(a) East (b) North
(c) West (d) South
Solution: (b)
North
2 km
Starting Point
5 km
5 km
N
W E
S
So, answer is North.
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1to 3) Study the information
given below carefully to answer these questions.
On a playground, Dinesh, Kunal, Nitin, Atul and
Prashant are standing as described below, facing
the North.
I. Kunal is 40 m to the right of Atul.
II. Dinesh is 60 m to the South of Kunal.
III. Nitin is 25 m to the West of Atul.
IV. Prashant is 90 m to the North of Dinesh.
1. Who is the North-East of the person who is to the
left to Kunal ?
(a) Dinesh (b) Nitin
(c) Atul (d) None of these
2. If a boy walks from Nitin, meets Atual followed
by Kunal, Dinesh and Prashant, then how many
metres has he walked if he has travelled the
straight distance all through ?
(a) 155 m (b) 185 m
(c) 215 m (d) 245 m
3. The clinic of doctor faces the West. From the
backside of his clinic, he walks straight 100mthen
turns to the left and walks 100 m again. Finally,
he runs towards right and stops after walking 50
m. Now in which direction is the Doctor from the
starting point ?
(a) South-West (b) North-East
(c) South-East (d) North-West
4. Bhavika and Sunaina start simultaneously
towards each other from two places 100 m apart.
After walking 30 m Bhavika turns left and goes
10 m, then she turns right and goes 20 m and
then turns right again and comes back to the road
on which she had started walking. If both Bhavika
and Sunaina walk with the same speed, what is
the distance between them at this point of time ?
(a) 70 m (b) 10 m
(c) 40 m (d) 20 m
5. A is East of B and West of C, H is South-West
of C and B is South-East of X . Who is the
farthest West ?
(a) C (b) A
(c) X (d) B
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 3. (d) 5. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
Prashant
P
30 m
Nitin Atul Kunal
25 m A 40 m
60 m
K
Dinesh
N
N
S
W E
Left of Kunal is Atul, Prashant is in North-East
of Atul.
2. Required distance = NA + AK + KD + AP
(From above figure)
= 25 + 40 + 60 + 90 = 215 m
3.
50 m
100 m
Start
100 m
End
N
S
W E
So, doctor is North-East direction from starting
point.
4.
20
10
30
Bhavika Sunaina
100 m
10
The process of Example of thing/number through the diagramatic medium from the given group of elements
is called Venn diagram.
Generally two types of questions could be asked from this.
Type I
1. Find out the number/thing: The questions asked from this .type contain a compound diagram, in which
different places are denoted by different number/letters. Each diagram stands for different class. Candidates are
required to find out the number of thing in a special class through these diagrams or the numbers used in the
diagram.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Answer these questions based on the diagram given below.
1
2
3 4
5
7
8 9
10 11
12
Christians
Professionals
Females
Asians
Example 1: Asian Non-Christian Females who are Professional are represented by
(a) 3 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 11
Solution. (b) Asian, Non-Christian females who are professionals are represented by 10.
Example 2: Asian Females who are neither Professional nor Christians are denoted by
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 3
Solution. (a) Asian females who are neither professional nor Christians are denoted by 6 .
Example 3: Non-Asian Professional Christian males are represented by
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 9
Solution. (c) Non-Asian professional Christian males are represented by 12.
Example 4: Christian Females who are Non-Professional and Asian are represented by
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) None
Solution. (d) All Christians females of Asia are Professionals.
Logical Venn Diagrams
EXERCISE
1. What is the sum of the numbers which appear in
one figure only?
(a) 44 (b) 56
(c) 37 (d) 51
2. The difference between the sum of the numbers
which appear only in two figures and the sum of
the numbers which appear only in one figure is
(a) 27 (b) 28
(c) 9 (d) 17
3. If the sum of the numbers which fall within the
circle subtracted from the number which occurs
in all the three shapes the result is
(a) 11 (b) 16
(c) 25 (d) 27
4. Adding the sum of the numbers which appear in
the circle and only in one of the two rectangles
with the number which appears in both the
rectangles only the results is
(a) 26 (b) 24
(c) 45 (d) 34
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Sum of the numbers which appear in one figure
only = 7 + 8 + 11 + 13 + 12 = 51
2. Sum of the numbers which appear in only two
figures.
= 9 + 5 + 10 = 24
Sum of the numbers which appear in only one
figure = 51.
So, difference = 51 24 = 27
3. Sum of the numbers in the circle = 5 + 6 + 10 + 12
= 33 Number which is present in all the three
shape = 6 So, difference = 6 33 = 27
4. Sum of the numbers which appear in circle and
only one of the rectangle = 5 + 10 = 15 Sum of the
numbers which appear in both rectangles = 9 So,
the sum = 9 + 15 = 24
In this chapter questions contain a figure, a set of figures, an arrangement or a matrix, each of which bears
certain characters, be it numbers, letters or a group/combination of letters/numbers which follow a particular
pattern. You are required to identify and decipher this pattern and accordingly find the missing character in the
figure.
Example 1:
5
109
6
16 2
21 51
53 ?
15 13
22 17 19 48
(a) 7 (b) 25
(c) 49 (d) 129
Solution.(b) The pattern is
(16 6)
2
+ (5 2)
2
= 10
2
+ 3
2
= 109
(22 15)
2
+ (21 19)
2
= 7
2
+ 2
2
= 53
So, the missing number = (17 13)
2
+ (51 48)
2
= 4
2
+ 3
2
= 25
Example 2:
0 7
? 26
(a) 45 (b) 50
(c) 60 (d) 63
Solution. (d) Moving clockwise direction, the numbers are
1
3
1 = 0, 2
3
1 = 7, 3
3
1 = 26 and 4
3
1 = 63
Example 3:
3 7
6561 81
(a) 9 (b) 18
(c) 24 (d) 27
Solution. (a) Starting from 3 and moving clockwise, the number in each quadrant is the square of that in
the previous quadrant.
So, the missing number = 3
2
= 9
Inserting the
Missing Character
EXERCISE
Direction (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Find teh missing
character
66.
12
6
8
3
4 7
24
5 13 ?
5
(a) 14 (b) 10
(c) 48 (d) 24
67.
3
2
3
6
5 4
9
4 70 50
110
(a) 80 (b) 40
(c) 90 (d) 130
68.
11
9
8
12
8 16
15 18
9 ?
13 14
(a) 48 (b) 12
(c) 44 (d) 56
69.
7
10
8
8
7 4
10 12
9 ?
8 9
(a) 17 (b) 25
(c) 21 (d) 31
70.
1
6
6
6
9 9
9 27
18 ?
3
4
(a) 5 (b) 9
(c) 18 (d) 20
ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
2 2 2 2 2 2
3 4 5, 7 24 25 5 12 13 + = + = + =
So, missing number =
2 2
6 8 10 + =
2. (3 + 4) 10 = 70, (2 + 3) 10 = 50, (6 + 5) 10 =
110
So, missing number (9 + 4) 10 = 130
3.
9 12 11 15 13 8
8, 9
4 4
+ + + +
= =
So, missing =
18 14 16
12
4
+ +
=
4. (9 + 6) 5 = 10, (10 + 8) 7 = 11
So, missing number = (12 + 9) 4 = 17
5.
6 6 1 6, 9 4 9 18 = =
So, missing number =
27 3 9 27 =
In this chapter, we deal with questions which are followed with a sequence consisting numbers, ranking and
time. We have to find answers on the basis of given condition. The importance of such types of questions cannot
be over-emphasised as their presence in a test of reasoning is almost certain. Though no explanations are required
as how to attempt these questions in exams.
In this chapter, generally we will deal three types of questions. They are based on
Type 1 Number Test
In these types of questions, a number, a set of numbers, series of digit is given and the candidate is asked to
trace out digit following certain given conditions.
Example 1 How many 5s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately preceded by 7
and immediately followed by 6?
7 5 5 9 4 5 7 6 4 5 9 8 7 5 6 7 6 4 3 2 5 6 7 8
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Solution. (a) Here,7 5 5 9 4 5 7 6 4 5 9 8 7 5 6 7 6 4 3 2 5 6 7 8
Preceded by 7 and followed by 6
So, there is only one such 5.
Example 2: How many even numbers are there in the following series of numbers, each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd number, but not immediately followed by an even number?
5 3 4 8 9 7 1 6 5 3 2 9 8 7 3 5
(a) Nil (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
Solution. (d) There are three such even numbers 6, 2, 8 each of which is preceded by an odd number and not
followed by an even number.
5 3 4 8 9 7 1 6 3 2 9 8 7 3 5
Number, Ranking
and Time Sequence Test
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 70 to 74) Study the sets of numbers
given below and answer the question, which
follow
972 682 189 298 751
1. If one is added to the lowest number and two is
added to the highest number, what will be the
difference between the second digit of the smallest
number and third digit of the highest number?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 8
2. If in each number, first and the last digits are
interchanged, which of the following will be the
third highest number?
(a) 972 (b) 682 (c) 189 (d) 298
3. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged
in descending order, which of the following will
the third highest number?
(a) 972 (b) 682 (c) 189 (d) 298
4. If in each number, second and the third digits are
interchanged, what will be the sum of first digit
of the smallest number and last digit of highest
number?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 8
5. If one is added to the smallest odd number and
one is subtracted from the highest odd number,
which of the following will be obtained if the
second digit of the highest number is subtracted
from the second digit of the lowest number so
formed?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. 189 + 1 = 190; 972 + 2 = 974
Hence, required difference = 9 4 = 5
2. After interchanging first and last digit, numbers
are 279, 286, 981, 892, 157
Hence, third highest number = 286 682
3. 972, 862, 981, 982, 751
Hence, third highest number = 972
4. After interchanging second and third digit,
numbers are
927, 628, 198, 289, 715
Smallest number = 198
Highest number = 927
Hence, required sum = 1 + 7 = 8
5. (c) Smallest odd number = 189
Highest odd number = 751
Required number = (189 + 1) and (751 1)
= 190 and 750
Hence, required difference = 9 5 = 4
These questions contain the necessary qualifications required to be fulfilled by a candidate who is applying
for certain job/promotion/facility, along with the bio-data. You are supposed to assess the candidate s eligibility or
potential for the same and decide upon the further course of action to be taken from among the given alternatives.
Example 1: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below
The criteria for granting the admission to a MBA course is as follows.
A candidate must
(i) be at least a graduate with first class.
(ii) not be more than 25 yr as on August 15, 2010.
(iii) secure minimum 50% marks in the Entrance Test.
(iv) be fluent in Hindi and English.
However, If a candidate
(A) fulfils all other criteria except (ii) above but is less than 30 yr and also belongs to back ward class, should be
given admission.
(B) fulfills all other criteria except (i) above, but is a postgraduate with minimum 55% marks, should be referred
to chairman-Admissions.
Based on the above criteria and the information given in each of the following questions, you have to take
the decision in regard to each case. You are not to assume anything. These cases are given to you as on 15-8-2010.
Eligibility Test
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to Q. 10) Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions
given below
Following are the conditions for selecting Personnel
Manager an organization
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate with at least 50% marks.
(ii) have a postgraduate degree/diploma in Personnel
Management/HR with at least 60 per cent marks.
(iii) not be more than 35 yr as on 1.6.2009.
(iv) have post-qualification work experience of at least
five years in the Personnel/HR Division of an
organisation.
(v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the
selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all
the conditions except
(A) at (iii) above, but has post-qualification work
experience of at least ten years, the case is to be
referred to the Director-Personnel.
(B) at (iv) above, but has post-qualification work
experience as Deputy Personnel Manager of at
least three years, the case is to be referred to
President-Personnel.
In each questions below are given details of one
candidate. You have to take one of the following courses
of action bases on the information provided and the
conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark
the number of that course of action as your answer.
You are not to assume anything other than the
information provided in each question. All these cases
are given to you as on 1.6.2009.
Mark answer (a) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (b) if the candidate is not to be
selected.
Mark answer (c) if the information provides is
inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (d) if the case is to be referred to
the Director- Personnel.
1. Meena Srivastava was born on 6th March 1978.
She has been working as Deputy Personnel
Manager in an organization for the past five years
after completing her postgraduate diploma in HR
with 68% marks. She has secured 50% marks in
both graduation and selection process.
2. Ketan Desai was born on 5th January 1979. He
has been working for the past five years in the
personnel deptt of an organisation after completing
his postgraduate diploma in Personnel
Management with 64% marks. He has secured
40% marks in the selection process and 52% marks
in graduation.
3. Anant Joshi has been working in the personnel
department of an organisation for the past six
years. He was born on 7th November 1977. He
has secured 60% marks in postgraduate degree
in Personnel Management. He has also secured
55% marks in both graduation and selection
process.
4. Mohan Bajpai was born on 10th April 1975. He
has secured 55% marks in graduation and 65%
marks in postgraduate diploma in Personnel
Management. He has been working in the HR
Deptt, of an organisation for the past six years
after completing his postgraduate diploma.
5. Gopal Sharma has been working for the past five
years in the HR Deptt. of an organisation after
completing his postgraduate diploma in HR with
62% marks. He has secured 50% marks in both
graduation and selection process. He was born on
29th May 1974.
6. Arun Vohra has secured 55% marks in
graduation. He has been working in the personnel
deptt. of an organisation for the past eleven years
after completing his postgraduate degree in
Personnel Management with 65% marks. He has
secured 50% marks in the selection process. He
was born on 12th August 1972.
7. Asha Dhar has secured 52% marks in graduation
and 62% marks in postgraduate degree in
Personnel Management. She has also secured 48%
marks in the selection process. She has been
working for the past seven years in the personnel
deptt. of an organisation after completing her
postgraduate degree. She was born on 8th June
1974.
8. Sudha Ghosal was born on 20th October 1976.
She has been working as Deputy Personnel
Manager for the past six years in an organisation
after completing her post graduate degree in HR
with 67% marks. She has secured 60% marks in
graduation and 45% marks in the selection
process.
9. Amit Saxena was born on 25th July 1973. He has
been working in the personnel deptt. of an
organisation for the past eleven years after
completing his postgraduate diploma in HR with
70% marks. He has secured 60% marks in both
graduation and selection process.
10. Navin Das was born on 14th April 1978. He has
been working in the personnel deptt. of an
organisation for the past six years after completing
his postgraduate diploma in HR with 65% marks.
He has secured 45% marks in both graduation
and selection process.
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Meena Srivastava should be selected.
2. Ketan Desai should not be selected as he scored
40% marks in selection process.
3. Anant Joshi should be selected.
4. We do not know the marks in selection process for
Mohan Bajpai. So, data is in adequate.
5. Gopal Sharma exceeds the limit of 35 yr age, so,
the case should be referred to the Director
Personnel.
6. Arun Vohra also exceeds the limit of 35 yr age, so,
the case should be referred to the Director
Personnel.
7. Asha Dhar is more than 35 yr of age, so her case
should be referred to the Director Personnel.
8. Sudha Ghosal should be sellected.
9. Amit Saxena is more than 35 yr of age, so his case
should be referred to Director Personnel.
10. Navin Das scored less marks in graduation. So,
he should not be selected.
The word Syllogism is also referred to Logic . Syllogism is an important section of logical reasoning and
hence, a working knowledge of its rules is required on the part of the candidate. Hence, it can be expressed as the
Science of thought as expressed in language . The questions based on syllogism can be solved by using Venn
diagrams and some rules devised with the help of analytical ability.
With this unique characteristic, this test becomes an instrument of teaching the candidates to follow the rules
and work as per the instructions without an error. Here, only the basic concept and rules, which have a bearing
on reasoning faculty could alone help. There are some terminology which are used in syllogism.
Proposition
It is also referred to as Premises . It is a sentence which asserts that either a part of, or the whole of, one sets
of objects-the set identified by the subject term in the sentence expressing that sentence either is included in, or is
excluded from, another set-the set identified by the predicate term in that sentence.
Types of Proposition
Categorical Proposition There is relationship between the subject and the predicate without any condition.
Example : I. All beams are logs.
II. No rod is stick.
Hypothetical Proposition: There is relationship between subject and predicate which is asserted
conditionally.
Example : I. If it rains he will not come.
II. If he comes, I will accompany him.
Disjunctive Proposition In a disjunctive proposition the assertion is of alteration.
Example : I. Either he is brave or he is strong.
II. Either he is happy or he cannot take revenge.
Parts of Proposition
It consists of four parts.
1. Quantifier: In quantifier the words, all , no and some are used as they express quantity. All and no are
universal quantifiers because they refer to every object in a certain set. And quantifier some is a particular
quantifier because it refers to at least one existing object in a certain set.
2. Subject: It is the word about which something is said.
Syllogism
1. Statement: I. All pens are pencils.
II. Some pens are erasers.
III. Some erasers are clips.
Conclusions I. Some clips are pens.
II. No clip is a pen.
III. Some erasers are pencils.
IV. No eraser is a pencil.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) III and either I or II follow
(c) Only III follows
(d) Either I or II, and either III or IV
2. Statement: I. Some books are papers.
II. Some papers are plastic
III. No plastic is black.
Conclusions I. Some papers are not black.
II. All papers are not black.
III. Some papers are black.
IV. Some books are black.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Either II or III follows
(c) Only I and IV follow
(d) Only I, III and IV follow
3. Statement: I. Some doors are windows.
II. All windows are black.
III. Some black are brown.
Conclusions I. Some windows are brown.
II. All doors are black.
III. Some doors are black.
IV. No window is brown.
(a) Only III follows
(b) Either I or IV and III follow
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only IV follows
4. Statement: I. All teachers are doctors.
II. All doctors are engineers.
III. All engineers are typists.
Conclusions I. Some typists are teachers.
II. All doctors are typists.
III. Some engineers are teachers.
IV. All doctors are teachers.
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Either II or IV follows
(d) None of these
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1.
Pencils
Pens
Clips
Erasers
Hence, either I or II and either III or IV follows.
2.
Books Papers Plastic Black
Hence, either II or III follows.
3.
Doors Windows
Black
Brown
Hence, either I or IV and III follows.
4.
Typists
Engineers
Doctors
Teachers
Hence, only I, II and III follow.
EXERCISE
Such type of questions consist of a Statement followed by certain arguments in favour of or against the
Statement. Candidates would be required to distinguish between the strong and weak arguments.
Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments
are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to
a trivial aspect of the question. A weak argument is very simple, superfluous, ambiguous and long drawn one.
Following points should be taken into consideration while choosing a strong argument
1. A strong argument should give the realistic diagnosis of the situation described in the Statement.
2. A strong argument should give the deep analysis of the topic deal within the Statement.
3. A strong argument should relate with the Statement and be supported up by facts or established notions.
4. A strong argument should not be mere reiteration of the situation given in the Statement.
Following examples will help the students to have an understanding of the logic used to solve these questions.
Types of Questions that could be Asked in CSAT
There are two types of questions which may be asked.
Type 1 Two Arguments Based
In these questions a Statement is followed by two arguments. Candidates are required to distinguish between
the strong and weak arguments. Generally both the arguments are contrary to each other and refer to positive
and negative results.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 2) Study the instructions carefully and answer the questions that follows.
In making decisions about important question it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong and
weak argument so far as they relate to the questions. Weak arguments may not be directly related to the
question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspect of the question. Each question
below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a `strong
argument and which is a `weak argument. Give answer (a) if only argument I is strong, (b) if only argument II
is strong, (c) if neither I nor II is strong and (d) if both I and II are strong.
ExampleI Statement: Will the newly elected members fulfil their promises?
Arguments
I. Yes, otherwise their very existence will be in danger.
II. No, elected members never seemto remember their promises and commitments.
Solution. (d) Both the arguments are strong. Elected members have to face the electorates after each
Statement and Arguments
completion of their terms as their existence as members is decided by people. Secondly, at the time of elections, so
many commitments are made which are hardly fulfilled.
Example 2 Statement: Should parent play with their children?
Arguments
I. Yes, it helps in building up a healthy and much needed companionship between children and parents.
II. No, children treat their parent like equals and there is no distance left.
Solution. (a) Argument I is strong because a close companionship bridges the gap between parents and
children. Argument II is not supported by a positive logical aspect of the Statement: and hence, is a weak
argument.
EXERCISE
Directions: In making decisions about important
questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish
between strong arguments and weak
arguments. Strong arguments must be both
important and directly related to the question.
Weak arguments may not be directly related to
the question and may be of minor importance or
may be related to the trivial aspects of the
question.
Each question below is followed by three
arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to
decide which of the arguments is a strong
argument and which is a weak argument.
64. Should smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol
by the actors be completely banned in the movies
in India ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the trend
of smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol
among the youth in India.
II. No, there should be no such ban on the
creative pursuits of the film maker.
III. No, the films portray the society and hence
such scenes should be an integral part of the
movie if the storyline demands so.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only I and II are strong
(c) Only II and III are strong
(d) Only I and III are strong
65. Should sale of vital human organs be made legal
in India ?
Arguments
I. No, it goes against our culture.
II. No, this will lead to unhealthy practices.
III. Yes, this will bring an end to the illegal
trading of human organs.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only I and II are strong
(c) Only III is strong
(d) Only II and III are strong
66. Should the conscription of citizens for defiance
services be made compulsory in India ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to tackle the serous
shortage of manpower in defence services.
II. No, instead the compensation package be
made comparable to other job sectors to
attract people to join defiance services.
III. Yes, many other countries have made this
compulsory.
(a) Only I is strong
(b) Only II is strong
(c) Only I and II are strong
(d) Only either I or II is strong
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Only I and III are strong. A reduction in trends
will be a desirable consequence. Also a ban will
take away from the power of the portrayal. II is
weak.
2. None is strong.
I. Weak because talking of culture is irrelevant
in a case which would have made no sense
in the absence of modern medical
technology.
II. Weak as it is simplistic.
III. Superflous (unhealthy practices)
3. All are weak.
I. Weak (Not true argument)
II. Weak because instead of getting into the
reason it provides an alternative.
When we see clouds in the sky. We take preassumption that it may be rain. Each action has an assumption
one in positive and another in negative. Let us suppose a baby born it may be a boy or a girl. So, here we take two
assumptions.
The candidate will be required to assess the given statement and decide which of the given assumptions is
implicit in the Statement. To understand the pattern of these questions, it is very essential to know what the
terms Statement and Assumptions do stand for.
Hence, An assumption is something that can be supposed or assumed on the basis of a given statement.
Types of Questions Based on Assumption
Type 1 Two-Assumptions Based
In this type of questions a statement: is given, followed by two assumptions. The candidate is required to
assess the given statement: and then decide which of the given assumptions to implicit in the Statement: .
Directions: In each of the illustrations below is given a Statement: followed by Assumptions numbered
I and II. Consider the Statement: and decide which of the given Assumptions is implicit? Give answer
as
(a) if only assumption I is implicit
(b) if only assumption II is implicit
(c) if neither I nor II is implicit
(d) if both I and II are implicit
1. Statement: The Union Government has decided to withdraw existing tax relief on various small savings
schemes in a phased manner to augment its tax collection.
Assumptions:
I. People may still continue to keep money in small savings schemes and also pay taxes.
II. The total tax collection may increase substantially.
Solution. (d) Any measure is taken assuming that it would be accepted by the people. Therefore, both the
assumptions are implicit in the statement .
Statement and Assumptions
Directions: In each question below is given a
Statement followed by three Assumptions
numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the Statement and the following
Assumptions and decide which of the Assumptions
is implicit in the Statement, then decide which of
the answer (a), (b), (c) and (d) is correct answer
and indicated it on the answer sheet.
1. Statement: We must be prepared to face any
eventuality and all the assignments must be
completed as per their schedule-Director tells the
faculty members.
Assumptions:
I. There is possibility of any serious
eventuality.
II. Dates are fixed for all the assignments.
III. Faculty members are supposed to complete
the assignments.
(a) All are implicit
(b) Only II and III are implicit
(c) None is implicit
(d) Only III is implicit
2. Statement: Training must be given to all the
employees for increasing productivity and
profitability.
Assumptions:
I. Trai ning is an essential component of
productivity.
II. Employee can t function effectively without
proper training.
III. Profitability and Productivity are
supplementary to each other.
(a) None is implicit
(b) All are implicit
(c) Only III is implicit
(d) Either I or II is implicit
3. Statement: In the recently hel d All India
Commerce Conference, the sessi on on
Management of Service Sector in India
surprisingly attracted large number of participants
and also received a very good media coverage in
the leading newspapers.
Assumptions:
I. People were not expecting such an
encouraging response for service sector.
II. Service sector is not managed properly in
India.
III. Media is always very positive towards service
sector.
(a) Only I is implicit
(b) All are implicit
(c) None is implicit
(d) Either I or III is implicit
4. Statement: The situation of this area still
continues to be tense and out of control. People
are requested to be in their homes only.
Assumptions:
I. There had been some serious incidents.
II. People will not go to the office.
III. Normally will be restored shortly.
(a) All are implicit
(b) Only I is implicit
(c) Only I and III are implicit
(d) Only I and II are implicit
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d)
EXEPLANATIONS
1. According to the given Statement we can clarify
all the given Assumptions are implicit.
2. Either I or II is implicit as training has been
necessitated in the Statement , ie it is related to
the efficiency and effectiveness of an employee.
3. None is implicit as people always expect such
opportunities and media is positive to both service
and other sectors as well as service sector is also
managed in India.
4. Only Assumptions I and II follow as the situation
is tense, it means that some serious incident has
occurred. Secondly, it is given that situation still
continues to be tense, if means that people may
not go to their officer. However, we cannot say
when the normally will be restored.
EXERCISE
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In such types of questions a situation would be presented and some courses of action are suggested in the
context of those situations. These types of questions are designed to test candidate s decision making ability. In
other words a course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or
further action with regard to the problem on the basis of data provided .
To solve these questions, the candidates are advised to keep in mind the following important points:
1. Correct course of action should either lessen the problem or improve the situation created by the problem.
2. Simple problem must have simple course of action and not a complex one which may create more problems
than to solve or reduce it.
3. Course of action should be feasible and should relate with the practical aspect of life.
Type of Questions that could be Asked in CSAT
Type 1 Two Courses of Action Based
In these type of questions a Statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
The candidate is required to grasp the Statement, analyse the problem or policy it mentions and then decide as
to which of the courses of action logically follow(s).
Directions (Examples 1 to 2) In each of the questions given below is a Statement followed by two courses
of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of informations
given in the Statement you have to assume everything in the Statement to be true, then decide which of
the two given courses of action logically follow.
Give your answer as
(a) If only I follows (b) If only II follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows (d) If both I and II follow
Example 1: Statement: A large number of engineering graduates in our country are not in a position to
have gainful employment at present and the number of such engineers are likely to grow in future.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should launch attractive employment generating schemes and encourage these graduates
to opt for such schemes to effectively use their expertise and knowledge.
II. This happened due to poliferation of engineering colleges in the country and there by lowering the quality
of the engineering graduates. Those colleges, which are not equipped to impart quality education should be
closed down immediately.
Statement and
Courses of Action
Solution. (a) Only course of action I seems to be suitable for pursuing. The first line of course of action II is
not a course of action and second line does not properly address the problem.
Example 2: Statement: There have been many instances of dacoity and looting in many passenger trains
this years.
Courses of Action:
I. The railway authority should immediately deploy one policemen in each compartment in all the
passenger trains.
II. The passengers travelling by train should be given training on how to tackle the dacoits and looters.
Solution. (c) Considering the insufficient number of security personnel the course of action I seems to be
untenable. Similarly, course of action II is not practically feasible. Thus, neither course of action I nor II follows.
EXERCISE
1. Statement: Besides looks and appearances, it is
also important to develop on self from within.
Courses of Action:
I. One should not pay attention to fashion.
II. One should pay attention to fashion.
III. Looks on self development shoul d be
encouraged.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only III follows
2. Statement: Despite increasing BPO jobs in our
country, a large number of educated youth are
unemployed.
Courses of Action
I. Government should give unemployment
allowance to all unemployed youth.
II. Government should introduce various
schemes in different areas that will generate
employment opportunities.
III. Efforts should be made by the society and
the Government to encourage the youth for
vocational education.
(a) Only I and 11 follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only II follows
3. Statement: Cases of asthma sufferers have been
rising particularly in the big cities.
Courses of Action:
I. Civic authorities should ensure adequate
supply of medicines at normal rates.
II. Civic authorities need to control the air
pollution caused due to emission from
vehicles.
III. Act of tree-cutting without permission should
be severely punished.
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only II follows
4. Statement: Many students at School and Degree
level are not able to master the subjects even if
they have passed out with high scores.
Courses of Action:
I. Education Boards should examine and revise
the examination system to tap the real talent.
II. Examination system at all levels should be
so designed as to discourage rote learning.
III. Difficulty level of the examination papers
should be significantly increased.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only 11 follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Either I or II follows
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. The Statement stresses the need for all-round
personality development of an individual. So, only
III follows.
2. Only II and III follow as during various schemes
in different areas, it will reduce the
unemployment. If the government and society
introduce vocational education, it will also reduce
unemployment.
36. Only I and II follow as civic authorities should
ensure adequate supply of medicine at normal rate
as well as controlling pollution is necessary.
37. Onl y I and II follow as an examini ng the
examination system, the defects of the education
system may be removed, also the system of
education should be redesigned as to discourage
the rote learning.
Conclusion is a fact that can be truly inferred from the contents of a given sentence. There may be questions
in the CSAT that may consist of a statement or a set of statements, followed by certain inference(s) based on the
facts of statements. Here candidates are required to approach the questions for solution from a different angle.
This approach basically emphasises the need for being more systematic and logical in drawing inferences. Therefore,
consequent effect of a statement has to be analysed before reaching the correct conclusion(s).
Types of Questions: There may be two types of questions which may be asked in CSAT.
Type 1 Logical Conclusions
Here statement and conclusions are based on logical conclusions.
Example 1
Statement: These apples are too expensive to be bad.
Conclusions I. When apples are in short supply, the prices go up.
II. The higher the selling price, the superior is the quality of the commodity.
Solution. According to the statement quality is directly proportional to the price. Hence, higher the selling
price, the superior is the quality of the commodity.
Example 2
Statements: In a one day cricket match the total runs made by a team were 200, out of which 160 runs
were mode by spinners.
Conclusions I. 80 % of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsman were spinners.
Solution. Team may consists or the number of spinners more or less than given in conclusion 1. Hence,
conclusion I does not follow. Secondly, it is not known from the statement that opening batsman were spinners.
Hence, conclusions II does not follow.
Type 2 Mathematical Conclusions
Such type of questions are quite similar to mathematical operations.
Example (Q. Nos. 3 to 5) In the following questions, the symbols , .@ @ = are used as
follows.
A B means A > B A B means A = B
A = B means A = B A @ B means A < B
A @ B means A < B
Statement and Conclusions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 3) In the following
questions few symbols have been used and these
symbols convey the meaning as under.
P @ Q P > Q P @ Q P Q
P = Q P = Q
P Q P < Q P Q P < Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming
the three statements to be true, state which. of
the following conclusions I and II given below is
definitely true.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true; Give answer
(b) if only conclusion II is true; Give answer
(c) if conclusion I and II both are correct; Give
answer
(d) if either I and II are true; Give answer (e) if
neither I nor II is correct.
18. Statements M = C, L F, C @ I.
Conclusions I. = II. M @ L
19. S tatements II. = U @ V, V S
Conclusions I. V T
II. T = V
20. Statements B @ C
Conclusions I. C @ A
II. A D
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d)
EXPLANATIONS
Solutions (Q. Nos. 1 to 3)
Finally, @ >
@
= =
<

1. Here, M = C > L < F
Now, I. C = F C = F (False)
II. M @ L M > L (True)
2. Here, = > <
Now, I. V T V< T (True)
II. T = V T = V (False)
3. Here, A = B > C > D
Now, I. C @ A C > A
(False)
II. A D A < D
(False)
EXERCISE
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Under this, the questions may consist of a brief passage followed by certain inferences based on it. These
passages are based on social or economic conditions.
Candidates must note that it is very important for them to possess logical skills, comprehension capacity and
ability for interpretation. They must be skillful enough to comprehend the full implications of the passage and
arrive at the correct answer. It is expected of the students to acquire as much knowledge as possible of phrasal
verbs, vocabulary and nuances of the English language.
In this type of questions a passage is given on any topic followed by conclusions in the form of statements. A
candidate is required to mark out the answer in the following ways
(i) Mark (a) if the statement is definitely true.
(ii) Mark (b) if the statement is probably true, though not definitely true.
(iii) Mark (c) if the conclusions is neither true nor false because the data given in the passage are inadequate.
(v) Mark (d) if the conclusion is definitely false.
A candidate must note that all these conclusions are to be arrived at in the light of what has been discussed
in the passage.
In the following passage the methodology will be discussed as to how to opt for right option-{a, b, c, d) which
a candidate is expected to select for a given conclusion.
For the sake of the convenience of the candidate, each option mentioned above will be discussed andanalysed
in detail in the light of the passages given below.
Examples
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 4) Read the following passage and examine each inference given below it in the
context of this passage. Mark your answer as
(a) if the inference is definitely true (b) if the inference is probably true
(c) if the data provided is inadequate (d) if the inference is `definitely false
In the commodities business size does matter. This is common wisdom. The Indian sugar industry, the second
largest in the world after Brazil, has traditionally been fragmented, which led to widespread sickness and large
number of mills going bankrupt, a situation exacerbated by a slew of government controls - which are, meaningfully,
getting diluted since August 1998. Its now been more than seven-and-a-half years since the industry was delicensed.
No official permission is required either to build a new factory or for brownfield expansion plan, except that there
must not be any violation of command area norms. Even then, there aren t many who have the capacity to play
the volumes game at the cyclic sugar business.
Deriving Conclusion
1. India has not yet been able to consolidate its firm stand in the international sugar market.
2. At present the Indian sugar industry has been made considerably free fromGovernment controls.
3. Prior to 1998, Indian sugar industry was considerably lower in the world ranking of large nations.
4. Most of the bankrupt sugar mills in India are funded by the Govt to revive their units.
Solutions.
1. (a) If we go through the passage then we find it is the real concern of the passage. Hence, India has not yet
been able to consolidate its firm stand in the international sugar market.
2. (b) According to the passage since August 1998, government control on sugar mills is getting diluted. But we
do not know how much the government control has been diluted.
3. (c) There is no such information regarding the position of the Indian sugar industry (prior to August 1998)
in the world ranking of large nations.
4. (c) There is no such information that we can say most of the bankrupt sugar mills in India are funded by the
Govt to revive their units.
EXERCISE
Passage
The jeweller-next-door may have reasons to worry,
thanks to the organised retail and branded goods hitting
the right chord from Indian consumers. The recent
changes in lifestyle goods industry and the diamonds
industry threaten to impact the family jeweller segment,
which currently controls 97% of India s fragmented
jeweller retail market. A study , suggests that as Indias
jewellery market matures, it is expected to get more
organised and the share of family jeweller is expected
to come down. The family jeweller segment is the largest
segment of the market and hence most likely to be
impacted by these changes. Family jewellers will have
to bring in new practices and range of designs and
customisation of jewellery would differentiate the
players. Currently, organised retailers are enlarging the
pie but the traditional players are not feeling the impact
yet.
31. Share of business of the small-time jewellers will
reduce substantially in the near future.
32. Family jewellers have never customised their
designs in the past.
33. Big retail companies have the capability to bring
in more competition in the jewellery market.
34. Family jewellers at present control about two-
thirds share of the entire jewellery market.
35. There is a perceptible change in the choices of the
customers in recent times with regard to lifestyle
products.
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. According to the passage, big retail companies may
dominate the jewellery market in the coming days.
Hence, it is likely that the share of business of the
small-time jewellery will reduce substantially in
the near future.
2. It is clear from the passage that it seems that
family jewellers did not focus seriously on
customisation of their jewellery. But because of
the word never we cannot opt for probably true .
3. That is why the passage raises concerns about
family jewellers.
4. It is clear from passage that family jewellers at
present control about 97% share of the entire
jewellery market.
5. Given inference is definitely true.
According to the dictionary, Assertion refers to stating or claiming something forcefully and that of Reason
is fact. This test is meant to judge the candidate s knowledge and with it the aim is to determine his ability to
reason out correctly.
Under, we shall deal with the combination of Assertion and Reason and relate with each other in order to find
their correct coordination. Here, four alternative comments on these are given and the correct one is to be chosen.
This is again an important feature of logical reasoning. Following illustrations will fully illustrate the type of such
questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 3) In each of the illustrations questions, there are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as
(a) if both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is true but R is false
(d) if A is false but R is true
Example 1
Assertion (A): Most of ancient civilisations grew near the rivers.
Reason (R): The main occupation of man was agriculture.
Solution. The Assertion is correct because most of the ancient civilisations grew near the rivers as land over
there was fertile and water was easily available. But the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
Hence, option (b) is true.
Example 2
Assertion (A): Seeds should be treated with fungicide solution.
Reason (R): Seeds do not germinate, unless treated with fungicide solution.
Solution: Seeds are treated with fungicide before sowing to avoid seed borne disease. But, it is not a true
fact that unless seeds are treated with fungicide solution, they cannot germinate. Hence, option (c) is true.
Example 3
Assertion (A): Appendix is a vestigial organ in the human body.
Reason (R): It does not participate in digestion.
Assertion and Reason
Solution: We know that, appendix is a vestigial organ in the human body and does not participate in
digestion. Hence, both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason fully explains Assertion. Hence, option
as (a) is our answer.
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Choose the correct
alternative from the following options as given
below for the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given
in each of the questions.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
24. Assertion (A): Food materials should not be
soaked in water for a long time.
Reason (R): Washing leads to loss of vitamin-A
and vitamin-D from the food stuff.
25. Assertion (A): Water kept in earthen pots gets
cooled in summer.
Reason (R): Evaporation causes cooling.
26. Assertion (A): Bangladesh exports jute from
India.
Reason (R): Bangladesh has most of the jute
mills.
27. Assertion (A): We should avoid black clothes in
summer.
Reason (R): Black is good absorber of heat.
28. Assertion (A): Pressure cookers are fitted with
ebonite handles.
Reason (R): Ebonite is strong.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c).
EXPLANATIONS
1. Food materials should not be soaked in water for
a long time because it leads to loss of vitamins.
However, the Reason is false.
2. Earthen pots let the water evaporate through
their pores and hence keep the water cool.
3. India imports raw jute from Bangladesh. As after
Bangladesh was created, the areas of jute
production went to Bangladesh while the jute mills
left in India.
4. Both Assertion and Reasons are true and Reason
explain the Assertion as we avoid black cloth in
summer as they are good absorber of heat.
5. The handles of pressure cookers are made of
ebonite as it being a bad conductor of heat.
We make several statements in our day-to-day life and invariably come across statement, which are funny
and leads to a sudden twist to the conversion. Basically, punchlines are usually the last lines of a conversation/
story, etc, which provide it with humour and climax or we can say that it is the trial part of a joke or a comedy
sketch. A given statement would fit as a punchline if, it passes the following three tests.
I. It must be a climax.
II. It must be funny.
III. It must bring in sudden twist.
In these types of questions, an incident is described but the punchline is missing. Considering the incident,
you have to decide which of the two statements fits as a punchline.
As such, for all practical purposes, it can be said the reader should not bother about this test and may skip it.
Climax test may become relevant at a later date when the format of the questions changes.
A funny statement is defined as a statement which makes an average human being laugh or at least smile.
The third and final criterion for a suggested statement to fit as a punchline is that it must have a sudden
twist so that, it brings about something not expected. The keyword here, is twist into something not expected. So,
there must be an element of surprise in it.
Types of Questions Asked in Various Competitions
We will see punchlines after having a look at the format in which the questions are put.
Directions: We come across many funny incidents in different walks of life. One of the funny incidents
is the punchline or a climax which gives the incident a sudden transformation or twist, (into something
not expected).
It is this punchline which makes the incident funny.
In each of the following questions, an incident is described but the punchline is missing-indicated by a blank.
After the incident, two statements numbered I and II are given considering the incident, you have to decide
which of the two statements as a punching.
Give your answers as
(a) if you think only statement I fits
(b) if you think only statement II fits
(c) if you think both the statement I and II fit and the wavelengths of approach in both the statement are also
more less the same
(d) if you think both I and II fit but the ideas or wavelengths of approach in both the statements are different
and contrasting
Punchlines
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. No. 1 to 5) We come across many
funny incidents related to different walks of life.
One of the funny incidents is the punchline or a
climax-which gives the incidents a sudden
transformation or twist (into something not
expected). It is this punchline which makes the
incident funny. In each of the funny questions an
incident is described but the punchline is missing-
indicated by a blank. After the incident, two
statements numbered I and II are given.
Considering the incident, you have to decide which
of the two statements fits as a punchline.
36. The doctor asked, Do you permit your wife to have
her own way?
The man replied:_____
I. No Sir, she has it without my permission.
II. Yes, but only if, there is enough petrol in
the tank.
(a) Neither
(b) Only I (c) Only II
(d) Both with contrasting ideas
37. Our life became a picnic
I. Ever since, we started using paper plates.
II. Ever since, we started using the
psychiatrist s advice.
(a) Only I
(b) Neither
(c) Both with same idea
38. A worker says to his colleague: I am caught in a
power struggle with my boss. I
I. Have to supply candles to his house
whenever there is a power failure.
II. Have the struggle and he has the power.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Neither
39. I wish I were Adam. For then_______
I. If I cracked a joke, nobody would say, I ve
heard that before.
II. I wouldve seen the best of both the worlds.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
40. Judge: You have committed the most heinous
crime of murdering both your parents.
Convict: Yes Sir, But I hope
I. That the jury would look with pity into the
case of an orphan.
II. That the jury would not order the last
surviving member of my family to be killed.
(a) Only I (b) Only II
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Both sentences are funny so, they are punchline
with contrasting ideas.
2. Only sentence I is funny follow the sentence ever
since we started using paper plates .
3. I is funny as the struggle of the worker in
supplying candles to his boss in times of power
failures has been called power struggle . II is
funny as the word power struggle has been
dichotomised with the boss having the power and
the clerk having the struggle! The ideas are
contrasting.
4. Both are funny because in both of them, there
are funny reasons for wishing to be Adam.
5. Both are funny with same idea. The convict has
killed his parents and now seeks pity because he
is an orphan/he is the last survivor of his family.
This test is mainly to judge a candidate s ability to use his presence of mind to tackle a given situation, he may
come across anytime in life. For example, just think if you are going to appear in a test, and on the way you find
an injured person. In this situation, what will you do?
So, at anytime we can face such problems. The candidate is, thus, expected to choose the best response which
shall present him/her as a good person or a sincere professional.
Types of Questions
Example (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Such questions consists four probable answers as an alternatives. You have to
select most appropriate alternative as the answer.
Example 1
In a bus you realize that someone has left his/her wallet. You would
(a) give the money to the beggar
(b) hand it over to the bus conductor
(c) try to find his/her contact number and inform the owner
(d) leave the wallet as it is
Solution. If you are an honest man then, you will try to find his/her contact number and inform the owner
of the wallet. In this way, that wallet will be reached in right hands. So option (c) is our answer.
Example 2
Do you think that one should change his job often and face new situation?
(a) No, unless compelled one should not leave his old job
(b) Yes, every new job is challenging and one should accept the challenge
(c) No, as it takes time to get adjusted
(d) No, as the new situation may not suit you
Solution. Most appropriate answer will be option (b). Because every new job is challenging and one should
accept the challenge. Unless you accept the challenges you can not get different views of life.
Situation Reaction Tests
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5): In the following
questions consist four portable answers as an
alternatives. You have to select most appropriate
alternative as the answer.
29. You are in the parking area of a shopping
complex. And, suddenly the electricity fails and
there is total darkness. You will
(a) try and take help from someone around
(b) crawl towards your vehicle
(c) shout for help
(d) wait till the lights come
30. You have received a gift early, which your aunt
wants you to open on our birthday, which is two
weeks away. You
(a) really want to open it and keep thinking it,
but do not open it
(b) leave it for a while but eventually open it,
because you could not wait
(c) quickly open it, because she would not come
to know
(d) honour her wish, because you know that the
gift would not run away
31. The front office in the organization you work for,
has a very uncomfortable physical set-up to work
in. You will
(a) launch a campaign to set the things right
(b) complain to seniors about it
(c) ignore everything and concentrate on your job
(d) manage some how with reluctance
32. There has been a recent death in your family, and
you are still grieving. However, your quarterly
appraisal is round the corner, and for this you
have to catch up with a lot of work. What would
you do?
(a) Take the help of your organization counsellor
to get overcome your emotions
(b) Ignore the appraisal and continue grieving
since the appraisal happens every three
months, you feel you can make up the next
time
(c) You will just try your best to wriggle out of
the situation by asking your superior to just
postpone the appraisal for you this time
(d) You will get back to the work immediately
33. You are a sincere and dedicated manager in a
reputed five star hotel. You have been appointed
as the chief manager of the Guwahati branch
which needs to be developed. Your salary has been
hiked,
(a) you give it a shot for two months and see how
it goes
(b) you accept the challenge and go ahead with
this project
(c) you accept another offer and leave the job
(d) you crib for limited resources and try to
convince the superior to send somebody else
instead of you
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. As electricity fails and there is total darkness. You
will crawl towards your vehicle.
2. You honour her wish because you know that the
gift would not run away.
3. You will campaign to set the things right.
4. Death is one of the truth. But to lead your life you
will have to get back to the work immediately.
5. You should accept the challenge and go ahead with
this project.
When we examine things then we seek to explain why the things happened the way they did. We categorize
these questions as cause and effect reasoning. The strong points behind any reason are known as cause and the
impact of the cause is known as effect .
Usually in such questions the candidates are asked to determine whether a given event is the cause or the
effect of some other event. Clearly, the cause must occur before the effect and the effect happens at same point of
time after the cause. This test is step to test candidates ability to analyse a pair of given statements and to
correlate them of cause and effect. There may be several necessary conditions for the occurrence of an event and
that they must all be included in the sufficient condition. Further going on practise first we should learn some
rules. These are
Rule 1: The cause will always occur before the effect. Hence, if two events are given then the effect that
is chronologically antecedent to the other can only be regarded as a possible cause.
Rule 2: A necessary condition for the occurrence of a specified event is a circumstance in whose absence
the event cannot occur.
Rule 3: A sufficient condition for the occurrence of an event is a circumstance in whose presence the
event must occur.
Rule 4: Both the events express generalized results that may not be backed by any specific cause but
may influence certain other factors.
Rule 5: The effects in both the given statements may be caused or triggered by a third unmentioned
event which may thus be called the common cause of the given events.
Basic Question Format: In such questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be the
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same
cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship.
Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer accordingly. Give answer
(a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(c) If both the statements I and II are independent causes
(d) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
Cause and Effect
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 10): In each of the following
questions two statements numbered I and II are
given. There may be cause and effect relationship
between the two statements. These two statements
may be the effect of the same cause or independent
causes. These statements may be independent
causes without having any relationship. Read
both the statements in each question and mark
your answer as.
(a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its
effect
(b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its
effect
(c) If both the statements I and II are independent
causes
(d) If both the statements I and II are effects of
independent causes
1. I. There is sharp decline in the production of oil
seeds this year
II. The government has decided to increase the
import quantum of edible oil.
2. I. The life today is too fast, demanding and full
of variety in all aspects which at times leads
to stressful situations
II. Number of suicide cases among teenagers is
on increase
3. I. There is unprecedented increase in the number
of young unemployed in comparison to the
previous year.
II. A large number of candidates submitted
applications against an advertisement for the
post of manager issued by a bank.
4. I. All the schools in the area had to bee kept
closed for the most part of the week.
II. Many parents have withdrawn their children
from local schools.
5. I. There has been a high increase in the incidents
of atrocities against women in the city during
the past few months.
II. The police authority has been unable to nab
the culprits who committing crime against
women.
6. I. Majority of citizens in the locality belong to
higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are
comparatively much higher than in other
localities.
7. I. This year the cut-off percentages for admission
to junior colleges have increased over the last
year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final
exam was considerably higher than the
previous year.
8. I. The conditions of most of the national
highways are very bad.
II. Government has now sanctioned a huge
amount of money to maintain the national
highways.
9. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city
during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past
three days.
10. I. There has been a considerable increase in the
sale of fat-free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about
their health condition and food habits.
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. A sharp decline in oil seed production is bound to
reduce oil supply and import of oil is the only
means to restore the essential supply.
2. The main cause of frustration among the youth is
stressed occurred in day life. Frustration is bound
to lead them to take harsh steps as suicide.
3. An increase in the number of unemployed youth
is bound to draw in huge crowds for a single
vacancy.
4. Closing the schools for a week and the parents
with drawing their wards from the local schools
are independent issues, which must have been
triggered by different individual causes.
5. Clearly both the given statements are not co
related to each other as well as they are causes.
An increase in the cases of atrocities on women
and the police being unable to nab the culprits
involved in the same independent happening in
themselves.
6. The comparatively high, sales in a particular
locality are indicative of the high paying capality
of the residents of that locality.
7. Since class X results were higher, the cut off
percentages for junior colleges (Class X) are bound
to increase.
8. Clearly statement I is the cause and statement II
is the effect as the bad condition of the highway
has prompted the government to take the step.
9. Rain and thunder showers forced the people to
stay indoors. So, statement I is the principal cause
and statement II is its effects.
10. Health consciousness has led to the sale of fat free
food articles. So, statement II is the cause and
statement I is its effect.
What is Analytical Reasoning ?
Analytical reasoning involves puzzles in which the relationship among the groups of objects, people, cities
and activities etc. is given. In such questions, a bunch of information is given that creates a puzzle in candidate s
mind. The candidates are required to keep in mind these conditions, analyse the relationship and arrange them
in suitable form to answer the questions. Such questions may deal with sitting arrangement or scheduling the
activities etc.
(1) To solve these questions, candidates need to arrange the complicated set of information. So, read them
carefully.
(2) Rather using lengthy expressions, use initials and symbols to save time.
(3) While reading the set of information, highlight the key words.
(4) Now, arrange the set of information in list, table or diagram.
(5) Try to eliminate the answer choices, then work through the remaining choices to get the correct answer.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F are to be organised in a span of seven days from Sunday to Saturday, only
one lecture on each day in accordance with the following
(i) A should not be organised on Thursday.
(ii) C should be organised immediately after F.
(iii) There should be a gap of two days between E and D.
(iv) One day there will be no lecture (Friday is not that day), just before that day D will be organised.
(v) B should be organised on Tuesday and should not be followed by D.
Example 1: Which of the following is the last lecture in the series ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) Can t he determined
Example 2: Which of the following information is not required in finding the complete sequence of organisation
of lectures ?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only (d) All are required
Solutions.
Lectures D X B E F C A
Days Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a)
Analytical Reasoning
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) These questions are based on the arrow diagram of a travel network from
Delhi to Mumbai and middle stations are A to G. The figures along side the arrows indicate the time
consumed in hours to cover the distance between two stations.
A
D G
F C
B
E
Delhi
1h
5h
3h
2h
3h
Mumbai
2h
2h 3h
4h
1. Which is the shortest route one can take to travel
from Delhi to Mumbai ?
(a) Delhi BDG Mumbai
(b) Delhi BEFG Mumbai
(c) Delhi BCFG Mumbai.
(d) Delhi ADG Mumbai
2. If a critical route is defined as the route which
takes the longest time. then the critical route
between Delhi and Mumbai is
(a) Delhi ADG Mumbai
(b) Delhi BEFG Mumbai
(c) Delhi BCFG Mumbai
(d) None of these
3. If Mahesh starts from Delhi at 9.00 am in the
morning for Mumbai and if, his activities enroute
are as follows
(i) He spends 30 min at B for lunch.
(ii) At C, he takes 45 min for shopping.
(iii) At E, he takes a tea break for 15 min.
(iv) His car breaks down at G and it takes about
an hour to repair.
Find that at what time he will reach Mumbai ?
(a) Mid-night (b) 11 pm
(c) 1:30 am (d) None of these
4. How many routes are there to travel from Delhi
to Mumbai ?
(a) 2 (b) 4
5. A person travels to Mumbai via Delhi, B, C, E, F
and G and returns via G, D, A and back to Delhi.
How many hours has he travelled ?
(a) 29 h (b) 31 h
(c) 28 h (d) 32 h
A N S W E R S
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. By addition of travel times given along side the
arrows, the total time taken to travel along a route
can be calculated. The shortest path is Delhi ADG
Mumbai and it takes 14 H.
2. The root which takes the longest time between
Delhi and Mumbai is Delhi BEFG Mumbai.
3.
Delhi
D = 9 cm A = 12 Noon
D = 12:30 pm
A = 2:30 pm
D = 2:15 pm
B C
E F G
Mumbai
A = 2:30 pm
A = 8: 30 pm
D = 9:30 pm
A = D = 6:60 pm A = 4:14 pm
D = 2:15 pm
Mumbai G F
D = 9 am A = 0:30 Noon A = 2:30 pm A = 4:15 pm
D = 12:30 pm D = 3:15 pm D = 4:30 pm
Mumbai G F
A = 2:30 am A = 8:30 pm A = D = 6:60 pm D =
9:30pm
4. There are following routes to travel from Delhi
and Mumbai
(i) Delhi A D G Mumbai.
(ii) Delhi B E F G Mumbai.
(iii) Delhi B C F G Mumbai.
(iv) Delhi B C E F G Mumbai.
(v) Delhi G D G Mumbai
So, total of 5 routes.
5. Total hours = (3 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 5) + (5 + 3 + 5 +
1) = 29 h

Study Kit for Preliminary Examinations:

IAS (Pre) GS Paper 1
http://upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-pre/csat-paper-1
IAS (Pre) GS Paper 2
http://upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-pre/csat-paper-2
GS Foundation Course (PT+ MAINS) for 2014
http://upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-pre/general-studies-foundation-course

Study Kit for Mains Examinations:

Contemporary Issues
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/contemporary-issues-ias-mains
Public Administration
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-mains-public-adminstration
Essay Writing
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/essay-mains
English Grammar & Comprehension
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-mains-english-compulsory
History
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-mains-history
Philosophy
http://upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-mains-philosophy
Sociology
http://upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ias-mains-sociology
General Studies
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/gs-mains

Study Kit for UPSC Other Examinations:

Indian Police Service Limited Competitive Examination
http://www.upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/ips-lce
Armed Police Forces (CAPF)
http://upscportal.com/civilservices/study-kit/capf

Study Kit for Other Examinations:

SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier - I)
http://sscportal.in/community/study-kit/cgl
SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination (Tier - II)
http://sscportal.in/community/study-kit/cgl-tier-2
SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination
http://sscportal.in/community/study-kit/chsle
UPSCPORTAL Study Kits for IAS, Civil Services &
Other Exams

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