Developed by Joenny_king at ebay.com (Will not show when printing) assess whether telling the patient will negatively affect his health. If not; tell him. The tone of the interview must be professional. If you feel your actions may be misinterpreted; have a chaperone in the room.
Developed by Joenny_king at ebay.com (Will not show when printing) assess whether telling the patient will negatively affect his health. If not; tell him. The tone of the interview must be professional. If you feel your actions may be misinterpreted; have a chaperone in the room.
Developed by Joenny_king at ebay.com (Will not show when printing) assess whether telling the patient will negatively affect his health. If not; tell him. The tone of the interview must be professional. If you feel your actions may be misinterpreted; have a chaperone in the room.
Q0001:Woman with anxiety about a gynecological exam is
told to relax and imagine going through the steps of the
exam;What process does this exemplify? Systematic desensitization. Q0002:65-year old man is diagnosed with incurable metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma. His family asks you; the doctor; not to tell the patient;What do you do? Assess whether telling the patient will negatively affect his health. If not; tell him. Q0003:Man admitted for chest pain is medicated for ventricular tachycardia. The next day he jumps out of bed and does 50 pushups to show the nurses he has not had a heart attack;What defense mechanism is he using? Denial. Q0004:You find yourself attracted to your 26-year-old patient;What do you say? Nothing! The tone of the interview must be professional ; if you feel your actions may be misinterpreted; have a chaperone in the room. Q0005:Large group of people is followed over 10 years. Every 2 years; it is determined who develops heart disease and who does not;What type of study is this? Cohort study. Q0006:Girl can groom herself; can hop on 1 foot; and has an imaginary friend;How old is she? 4 years old. Q0007:Man has flashbacks about his girlfriend's death 2 months ago following a hit-and-run accident. He often cries and wishes for the death of the culprit;What is the diagnosis? Normal bereavement. Q0008:36-year old woman with a strong family history of breast cancer refuses mammogram because she heard it hurts;What do you do? Discuss the risks and benefits of not having a mammogram. Each patient must give her own informed consent to each procedure. If the patient refuses; you must abide by her wishes. Q0009:During a particular stage of sleep; man has variable blood pressure; penile tumescence; and variable EEG;What stage of sleep is he in? REM sleep. Q0010:15 year old girl of normal height and weight for her age has enlarged parotid glands but not other complaints. The mother confides that she found laxitives in the daughter's closet;What is the diagnosis? Bulimia. Q0011:11-year old girl exhibits Tanner stage 4 sexual development (almost full breats and pubic hair);What is the diagnosis? Advanced stage; early development. Q0012:4 year old girl complains of a burning feeling in her genitalia; otherwise she behaves and sleeps normally. Smear of discharge shows N. gonorrhoeae;How was she infected? Sexual abuse. Q0013:72 year old man insists on stopping treatment for his heart condition because it makes him feel "funny";What do you do? Although you want to encourage the pt to take his meds; the pt has the final say in his own rx regimen. you should investigate the "funny" feeling and determine if there are drugs available that won't elicit this particular side effect. Q0014:Person demands only the best and most famous doctor in town;What is the personality disorder? Narcissism. Q0015:Nurse has episodes of hypoglycemia; blood analysis reveals no elevation in C-protein;What is the diagnosis? Factitious disorder; self scripted insulin. Q0016:55 year old businessman complains of lack of successful sexual contacts with women and an inability to reach a full erection. Two years ago he had a heart attack;What might be the cause of his problem? Fear of sudden death during intercourse. Q0017:Observational Study. Sample chosen on presence of absence of disease. Information collected about exposure. Case-control Study. Q0018:Observational study. sample chosen based on presence of absence of risk factors. Subjects followed over time for development of disease. Cohort Study. Q0019:Pooling data from several studies (often via a literature searach) to acheive greater statistical power. Meta-analysis. Q0020:Experimental study. compares therapeutic benefit of 2 or more treatments; or treatment and placebo. clinical trial. Q0021:List 4 ways to reduce bias in a study. 1. Blind studies;2. Placebo responses;3. Case-crossover design;4. Randomization Q0022:When the subjects choose the groups it may lead to what type of bias? Selection bias. Q0023:When knowledge of the presence of the disease alters recall by the subjects what type of bias is likely? Recall bias. Q0024:When subjects are not representative of the population and results are not generalizable; what type of bias is this? Sampling bias. Q0025:When information gathered on subjects is done so at an inappropriate time; what bias is likely? Late-look bias. Q0026:The total proportion of cases in a population at a given time. Prevalence. Q0027:The rate of new cases in a population in a given time. Incidence. Q0028:Incidence x Disease Duration Prevalence Q0029:For chronic diseases; which is larger - prevalence or incidence? Prevalence > Incidence for Chronic Disease Q0030:When does prevalence = incidence? For acute disease (ie the common cold) Q0031:What is sensitivity? TP/(TP+FN) x 100 = Sensitivity Q0032:When is high sensitivity desirable? In a screening test. Q0033:What is 1-sensitivity? False negative ratio. Q0034:What is specificity? TN/(TN+FP) x 100 = specificity Q0035:What is 1-specificity? False positive ratio. Q0036:When is high specificity desirable? In a confirmatory test. Q0037:What is the PPV? The probability of having a condition given a positive test;TP/(TP+FP) = PPV Q0038:What is NPV? The probability of not having the condition given a negative test;TN/(TN+FN) = NPV Q0039:Unlike sensitivity and specificity; the predictive values are ; dependent on the prevalence of disease. The higher the prevalence of disease; the higher the predictive value of the test. Q0040:a/(a+c) sensitivity Q0041:d/(b+d) specificity Q0042:a/(a+b) PPV Q0043:d/(c+d) NPV Q0044:(a/b)/(c/d) OR - approximates RR if prevalence of disease is not too high. Q0045:[a/(a+b)]/[c/(c+d)] RR - relative risk Q0046:Attributable risk formula? [a/(a+b)]-[c/(c+d)] Q0047:The consistency and reproducibility of a test is the ; Precision. Q0048:Absence of random variation in a test ; Precision. Q0049:The trueness of the test measurements is the ; Accuracy Q0050:Reduced precision means increase in random error Q0051:Reduced accuracy means increase in systematic error Q0052:Number needed to treat NNT = 1/(Ic-Ie);The number of pts that need to be treated to prevent 1 additional bad outcome. Q0053:Reliability is ; the reproducibility of a test. a Test is reliable if repeat measurements are the same. Q0054:Validity is ; whether the test truly measures what it purports to measure. A test is valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure. Q0055:Gaussian distribution is ; a normal distribution (bell curve) (mean=median=mode) Q0056:A bimodal distribution ; has 2 humps Q0057:A positive skew distribution ; is asymmetry with the tail to the right; hump on the left (mean>median>mode) Q0058:a Negative skew distribution ; is asymmetry with the tail to the left; hump on the right (mean<median<mode) Q0059:A null hypothesis is ; There is no association (ie between the risk factor and the disease in the popuation.) Q0060:The alternative hypothesis is ; There is some difference (ie between the disease and the risk factor in the population) Q0061:Type 1 error (alpha) Stating there IS an effect or difference where none really exists. Q0062:Type II error (beta) Stating there IS NOT an effect or difference when one really exists. Q0063:Power the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false. Q0064:Power in a study depends on what two things ; 1. total number of endpoints experienced by the population;2. difference in compliance between treatment groups Q0065:How do you increase study power increase the sample size. Q0066:Confidence interval mean +/- 1.96 (SEM);If the CI includes 0; H0 is accepted. Q0067:Normal (Gaussian) distribution has what percentage of the population in each standard deviation? 68% within 1 SD; 95% within 2 SDs; 99.7% within 3 SDs. Q0068:what does a t-test measure the difference between the means of two groups Q0069:What does ANOVA measure the difference between means of 3 or more groups Q0070:What does a Chi square measure? the difference between 2 or more proportions of categorial outcomes (NOT mean values) Q0071:Correlation coefficient indicates the strength of the correlation between two variables. The sign indicates a positive or negative. Q0072:What is Primary Disease Prevention? Prevent the disease from occuring. Q0073:What is Secondary Disease Prevention? Early detection of the disease. Q0074:What is Tertiary Disease prevention? Reduce mobidity from the disease. Q0075:What are important preventative measure for patients with DM? Eye exams; foot exams; urine tests. Q0076:What are important preventive measures for pts with drug abuse problems? HIV test; TB test; Hep immunizations. Q0077:What are important prevetive measures for pts with alcoholism? influenza; pneumococcal immunizations and TB testing Q0078:What is an important preventive measure to offer obese pts? Blood sugar testing for diabetes. Q0079:What is an important preventive measure to offer homeless pts or recent immigrants? TB tests Q0080:What tests are important for pts engaging in high risk sexual behavior? HIV; Hep B; Syphilis; gonorrhea; chlamydia tests. Q0081:List the Reportable Diseases 1. Hep B;2. Hep A;3. Salmonella;4. Shigella;5. Syphilis;6. Measles;7. Mumps;8. AIDS;9. Rubella;10. TB;11. Chickenpox;12. Gonorrhea Q0082:Is HIV reportable? While AIDS is reportable in all states; HIV reporting laws are state dependent. Q0083:What are the leading causes of death for infants in the US? 1. Congenital anomalies;2. Short gestation/LBW;3. SIDS;4. Maternal complications of pregnancy;5. RDS Q0084:What are the leading causes of death for children age 1- 14 in the US? 1. Injuries;2. Cancer;3. Congenital anomalies;4. Homicide;5. Heart disease Q0085:What are the leading causes of death for people 15-24 years of age in the US? 1. Injuries;2. Homicide;3. Suicide;4. Cancer;5. Heart disease Q0086:What are the leading causes of death for adults 25-64 yo in the US? 1. Cancer;2. Heart disease;3. Injuries;4. Suicide;5. Stroke Q0087:What are the leading causes of death for adults over the age of 65 in the US? 1. Heart disease;2. Cancer;3. Stroke;4. COPD;5. Pneumonia;6. Influenza Q0088:Define autonomy The obligation to respect patients as individuals and to honor their preferences in medical care. Q0089:Informed consent implies pts must understand the risks; benefits; and alternatives which include no intervention;What is legally required for IC? 1. discussion of pertinent information;2. patient's agreement to the plan of care;3. freedom from coercion Q0090:In what circumstances is there an exception to the mandates of informed consent? 1. Patient lacks decision making capacity;2. Implied consent is an emergency;3. Therapeutic privledge;4. Waiver - pt waives the right to informed consent Q0091:What is Therapeuic Privledge Withholding information when disclosure would severely harm the patietn or undermine informed decision making capacity. Q0092:True or False: A patients family cannot require that a doctor withhold information from the patient. True Q0093:What are some variables in determining a patients decision making capacity? 1. pt makes and communicates a choice;2. pt is informed;3. decision remains stable in time;4. decision is consistent with pt values and goals;5. decision is not a result of hallucinations or delusions Q0094:Define Transference. When the patient projects feelings stemming from their personal life onto their physician. Q0095:Define Countertransference. When the doctor projects feelings stemming from their personal life onto the pt. Q0096:Define classical conditioning. Leaning where a natural response is elicited by a contitioned stimulus that was previously presented in conjuction with an unconditional natural stimulus. Q0097:Define operant conditioning. learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward. Q0098:Define positive reinforcement. desired reward produces action Q0099:Define negative reinforcement. removal of averse stimuli incresases the behavior. Q0100:True or False: reinforcement schedules determine how quickly a behavior is learned or extinguished. True Q0101:Describe a continuous reinforcement schedule. reward received after every response. rapidly extinguished. Q0102:Define a variable ratio reinforcement schedule. reward received after random number of responses. slowly extinguished. Q0103:What are Stanfornd-Binet and Wechsler? Intelligence tests. Q0104:How does the Stanford Binet test calculate intelligence? IQ as (mental age/chronological age) x 100 Q0105:How does Wechsler (WAIS) measure intelligence? 11 subtests (6 verbal; 5 performance); Mean is 100; SD - 15. Q0106:What is the IQ cuttoff for diagnosis of mental retardation? IQ < 70 or 2 SD below mean. Q0107:True or False: IQ tests are objective test. True ; but they are NOT projective tests. Q0108:Are IQ scores correlated with genetic factors or school achievement? Yes to both ; but more highly correlated to school achievement. Q0109:What is an oral advanced directive? In an incapacitated state; a pts prior oral statement is commonly used as a guide. Q0110:What is a written advanced directive? a living will. Q0111:What is a durable power of attorney? pt desingnates a surrogate to make a medical decision in the event that the patient loses decision making capacity. pt can specify decisions in certain clinical situations; and can revoke power. Q0112:What is nonmaleficence. "do no harm". However; if benfits of an intervention outweigh the risks; a patient may make an informed decision to proceed. Q0113:Define beneficence The physicians ethical responsibility to act in the patients best interest (as a fiduciary). Can conflict with autonomy. Q0114:What should guide the physicans decision to disclose information to family and friends? What the patient wants; or would want. Q0115:In what circumstances can a physician break confidentiality? 1. potential harm to others is serious;2. liklihood of harm to self is great;3. no alternative means exist to warn and protect those at risk Q0116:What steps may a physician take to prevent harm caused by a patients infectious disease? Physician may have a duty to warn public health officials (reportable diseases) and identify people at risk. Q0117:What is the Tarasoff decision? A law requiring physician to directly inform and protect a potential victim from harm; may involve a breach of confidentiality. Q0118:May a physician break confidentiality if they suspect child or elder abuse? Yes. Q0119:May a physician break confidentiality if in cases of an automobile accident? Only if they suspect that the driver was imparied. Q0120:How may a physician handle a suicidal or homicidal patient? The physician may hold the patient involuntarily for a period of time ; or until psychiatric evaluation is completed. Q0121:A civil suit under negligence requires what 3 things? 1. Physician breach of duty to patient (Dereliction);2. patient suffers harm (damage);3. Breach of duty causes harm (Direct) Q0122:What is the most common factor leading to litigation between the physician and pt? poor communication. Q0123:In a criminal suit the burden of proof is "beyond a reasonable doubt" ; in a malpractice suit the burden of proff is ; "more likely than not" Q0124:Define Anosognia unaware that one is ill Q0125:Define Autotopagnosia unable to locate ones own body parts Q0126:Define depersonalization body seems unreal or dissociated Q0127:What is involved in orienting the patient person; place; and time Q0128:What is the order of orientation loss in a disoriented patient? time goes first; then place; and last person Q0129:Define anterograde amnesia the inability to remember things that occred AFTER an CNS insult ; cannot make new memories Q0130:Define retrograde amnesia inability to remember things that occured before a CNS insult Q0131:What is Korsakoff's anmesia classic anterograde anmesia caused by a thymine deficiency. Q0132:A alcoholic patient presents with anterograde amnesia; and confabulations;What is the likely diagnosis? Korsakoffs amnesia Q0133:List some maladaptive patterns of substance use. 1. Tolerance;2. Withdrawal;3. Substance taken in larger than intended amounts;4. Persistent desire or attempts to cut down;5. lots of energy spent trying to obtain the substance;6. important social; occupational; or recreational activites reduced because of substance abuse;7. continued use in spite of knowing the problems it's causing Q0134:How many signs of maladaptive substance abuse must be present in a years time to diagnose substance dependance? 3 or more. Q0135:What is the difference between substance dependence and substance abuse? substance abuse is maladaptive patterns leading to clinicall or socially significant impairment or distress that have not met the criteria for substance dependence. Q0136:What are some indications of substance abuse? 1. recurrent use resulting in failure to fulfill major obligations at work; school; or home;2. recurrent use in physically hazardous situations;3. recurrent substance related legal problem;4. continued use in spite of persistent problems cause by use. Q0137:What are Freud's three structures of the mind? Id; Ego; Superego Q0138:Define the Id. Primal urges; sex and aggression. Q0139:Define the Superego. Moral values and concience. Q0140:Define the Ego. Mediator between unconcious mind and external world. Q0141:The Topographic thoery of the mind deals with what three topographys? Concious; preconcious; and unconcious. Q0142:Define Concious. What you are aware of. Q0143:Define preconcious. What you are able to make consious with effort Q0144:Define unconcious what you are not aware of. Q0145:What is an Oedipus complex? repressed sexual feelings of a child for the opposite sex parent; accompanied by a rivalry with same sex parent. Q0146:hallucinations; delusions; strange behavior; and loose associations are positive symptoms of what disorder? Schizophrenia. Q0147:What are some negative symptoms of schizophrenia? flat affect; social withdrawal; thought blocking; lack of motivation Q0148:How long must a patient experience symptoms of schizophrenia for a diagnosis? Periods of psychosis or disturbed behavior lasting > 6 months. Q0149:What are the 5 types of schizophrenia? 1. Disorganized;2. Catatonic;3. paranoid;4. Undifferentiated;5. Residual Q0150:What are the 4 A's of schizophrenia described by Bleuler? 1. Ambiavlence;2. Autism;3. Affect (blunted);4. Associations (loose) Q0151:What is schizoaffective disorder? a combination of schizophrenia and a mood disorder. Q0152:What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia? 1.5% (males=females; blacks=whites) Q0153:Are genetic or envionmental factors stronger in the etiology of schizophrenia Genetic factors outweigh environmental factors Q0154:In one word; describe Clusters A; B; and C personality disorders. A = weird;B = wild;C = worried Q0155:Describe a pt with a Cluster A personality disorder. odd or eccentric; cannot develop meaningful social relationships;No psychosis; but genetic associations with schizophrenia. Q0156:What are 3 types of Cluster A personality disorders? 1. Paranoid;2. Schizoid;3. Schizotypal Q0157:What is a Paranoid personality disorder? distrust and suspiciousness; projection is main defense mechanism Q0158:What is a Schozoid peronality disorder? voluntary social withdrawal; limited emotional expression Q0159:What is a Schizotypal personality disorder interpersonal awkwardness; odd thought patterns and appearance Q0160:Personality disroders that lead pts to be erratic; emotional; or dramatic and have a genetic association with mood disorders are classified as ; Cluster B Q0161:What are the 4 types of Cluster B personality disorders 1. Antisocial;2. Borderline;3. Histrionic;4. Narcissistic Q0162:Describe an antisocial personality disorder. disregard for and violation of rights of others; crimilatiy; males more often affected than females. Q0163:Describe a borderline personality disorder unstable mood and behavior; impulsiveness; sense of emptiness. women more often affected than men. Q0164:Describe a Histrionic personality disorder. excessive emotionality; somatization; attention seeking; sexually provacative. Q0165:Describe a Narcissistic personality disorder. gradiosity; sense of entitlement; may demand "top" physician; or best health care Q0166:Pts with personality disorders that leave them anxious or fearful and have a genetic association with anxiety disorders are classified as ; Cluster C personality disorders Q0167:List 3 types of Cluster C personality disorders 1. Avoidant;2. Obsessive-Compulsive;3. Dependent Q0168:Describe an avoidant personality disorder. sensitive to rejection; socially inhibited; timid; feelings of inadequacy Q0169:Describe OCD preoccupation with order; perfectionism; and control Q0170:Describe a dependent personatliy disorder. submissive and clinging; excessive need to be taken care of; low self confidence Q0171:What are Medicare and Medicaid? federal health care programs that originated from ammendments to the Social Security Act. Q0172:Who does MedicarE provide for? The Elderly Q0173:Who does MedicaiD provide for? The Destitute. Medicaid is federal and state assistance for very poor people. Q0174:Ethically; what do you do if your patient is non- compliant? Work to improve the physician patient relationship. Q0175:Ethically; what do you do if your patient has difficulty taking medication? Provide written instructions; attempt to simplify the treatment regimen. Q0176:What do you do if a family member asks for information about a patient's prognosis? avoid discussing issues with relatives without permission of the patient. Q0177:What do you do if a 17 year old girl is pregnant and asks for an abortion. informthe patient that most states require parental conset for minors for an abortion. Q0178:What do you do if a terminallyl ill patient requests assistance in ending his life? refuse involvement in any form of euthanasia. physician may however prescribe appropriat analgesics that may coicidentally shorten a patient's life. Q0179:What do you do if a patient states that he finds you attractive? ask direct; closed ended questions and use a chaperone if necessary. Q0180:What do you do if a patient refuses a necessary procedure or desires and unnecessary one? attempt to understand why the patient wants/does not want the procedure. address underlying concerns. avoid performing unnecessary procedures. Q0181:What do you do if a patiend is angry about the amount of time he spent in the waiting room? apologize for any inconvenience. stay away from efforts to try to explain the delay. Q0182:what do you do if the patietn is upset with the way he was treated by another doctor? suggest that the patient speak directly to the physician regarding the concerns. if the problem is weith a member of the office staff ; tell the patient you will speak to that individual. Q0183:What do you do if a child wishes to know more about his illness? Ask what the parents have told the child about his illness. Parents of a child decide what information can be relayed about the illness. Q0184:What do you do if a patient continues to smoke; believing that cigarettes are good for him? Ask how the pt feels about his smoking. Offer advice on cessation if the patient seems willing to make an effort to quit. Q0185:A child puts everything in their mouth. How old are they? 1st year of life. Q0186:An infant sits with support; how old is she? 4 months Q0187:An infant stands with help; how old is he? 8 months Q0188:A baby is crawling; how old is she? 9 months Q0189:A little girl just learned to walk on her own; how old is she? 13 months Q0190:A child has just learned to climb the stairs alone; how old is he? 18 months Q0191:At what age does an emergence of hand preference first appear? 18 months Q0192:A child has lots of energy; can walk backwards; turn doorknobs; unscrew jars; and scribble with crayons. How old is she? 2 years Q0193:A child can ride a tricycle; go up the stairs normally; draw recognizable figures and has just started toilet training. How old is he? 3 years. Q0194:A child can descend the stairs normally and hop on one foot. How old is she? 4 years Q0195:At what age will a child develop complete sphincter control (toilet trained)? 5 years Q0196:At 5 years of age; what percentage of the adult brain mass does the child have? 75% Q0197:A child has most of her permanent teeth; how old is he? 11 years Q0198:True or False: Boys and girls have roughly the same height to weight ratio between ages 6-12 years? False: boys are heavier than girls. Q0199:At what age does the adolescent growth spurt usually kick in? Around 12 years; earlier for girls than for boys. Q0200:A child plays patty cake and peek a boo; how old is she? 10 months Q0201:A baby is experiencing stranger anxiety; how old is he? 6 months Q0202:A baby has started showing signs of normal separation anxiety; how old is she? 1 year. Q0203:The parent is the central figure and issues of trust are key; how old is the child? 1st year of life. Q0204:A toddler will engage in parallel play; but "no" is still her favorite word; how old is she? 1 year Q0205:A toddler is selfish and self centered; aggresive; and tends to immitate mannerisms and activities; how old is he? 2 years Q0206:A baby can follow objects to midline; how old is she? 4 months Q0207:A baby is putting his feet in his mouth; how old is he? 5 months Q0208:A baby will approach a toy with one hand; and then change hands with the toy; how old is she? 1st year of life Q0209:A baby first laughs outloud; how old is she? 4 months Q0210:A baby has started saying "ma-ma-ma" and "da-da- da"; how old is he? 10 months Q0211:Sensation and movement are most important; schemas are being developed; and assimilationand accomidation are priorities at what age in Piaget's development? 1st year of life. Q0212:In Piaget's Cognitive Development; at what age does a baby acheive object permanence? 1 year Q0213:A baby kicks and throws a ball; how old is he? 1 year Q0214:A baby can stack three cubes; how old is she? 18 months. Q0215:A todler is using two word sentences and has a vocabulary of about 250 words; how old is he? 1 year Q0216:A todler has started using pronouns and shows great variations in timing of language. Her parents seem to understand her better. How old is she? 2 years Q0217:A toddler is using complete sentences and has a vocabulary of 900 words; although he appears to understand 4x tht many words. Strangers can understand him. How old is he? 3 years Q0218:A child tells stories; uses prepositions; plurals; and has discovered compound sentences; how old is she? 4 years Q0219:A child can stand on her tiptoes; how old is she? 30 months Q0220:A child is able to aim and throw a ball and stack 6 cubes; how old is he? 2 years Q0221:In Piaget's view; a child who can use symbols and has concrete use of objects and use of symbols along with a strong egocentrism is how old? 2 years Q0222:At what age is gender identity fixed? 3 years Q0223:A child knows her full name and what sex she is; how old is she? 3 years Q0224:Two children are observed to be taking turns with a toy; how old are they? 3 years Q0225:At what age is a child likely to start grooming themselves and brushing their own teeth? 4 years Q0226:A toddler can catch a ball; stack 9 cubes; cut paper with scissors and keeps unbottoning his shirt buttons; how old is he? 3 years Q0227:A child can point to and count three objects; repeat four digits; and name colors correctly; how old is she? 4 years Q0228:A child has an imaginary friend and this is entirely normal for this age group; how old is she? 4 years Q0229:Two children are caught "playing doctor"; at what age does this curiosity manifest? 4 years Q0230:A child is having terrible nightmares and needs the light left on at night for fear of monsters; how old is he? 4 years Q0231:At what age does a child adopt personal speach patterns? adolescence (12+) Q0232:At what age does communication become the focus of friendships? adolescence (12+) Q0233:A child repeatedly asks for the meaning of words; how old is she? 5 years Q0234:A child can count 10 objects correctly; how old is she? 5 years Q0235:A child is having terrible nightmares and needs the light left on at night for fear of monsters; how old is he? 4 years Q0236:At what age does a child adopt personal speach patterns? adolescence (12+) Q0237:At what age does communication become the focus of friendships? adolescence (12+) Q0238:A child repeatedly asks for the meaning of words; how old is she? 5 years Q0239:A child can count 10 objects correctly; how old is she? 5 years Q0240:At what age will a child first express romantic feelings towards others; perhaps as an Oedipal phase? 5 years Q0241:A child can draw a recognizable man; dress and undress herself; and catch a ball with two hands; how old is she? 5 years Q0242:A child can ride a bicycle; print letters; and her father is excited because she is gaining athletic skill and coordination. How old is she? 6-12 years Q0243:By age 12; about how many words will a child have in their vocabulary? About 50;000 Q0244:A child shows a shift from egocentric to social speech and incomplete sentences decline; how old is he? 6-12 years Q0245:Identity is the critical issue in what age range? adolescence (12+) Q0246:Conformity is most important for what age range? 11-12 years Q0247:When do cross gender relationships first take off? adolescence (12+) Q0248:A teacher has noticed many of her kids are quitting oragnized sports; how old is her class likely to be? adolescents (12+) Q0249:A teacher has noticed that for her kids; the "rules of the game" are paramount. How old is her class? 6-12 years Q0250:At what age range are organized sports first possible? 6-12 years Q0251:Demonstrating competence is key for what age group? 6-12 years Q0252:At this age there is a separation of the sexes and sexual feelings are not apparent. 6-12 years Q0253:At this age there is an adherence to logic; concrete operations; and no hypotheticals. 6-12 years Q0254:Children of this age group can use seriation; and have a personal sense of right and wrong. 6-12 years Q0255:At this age; children can handle hypotheticals; being systematic problem solving and deal with the past; present; and future. adolescence (12+) Q0256:APGAR stands for what? Appearance (color);Pulse;Grimace;Activity;Respiration Q0257:How do you calculate aan APGAR score? Score 0-2 at 1 and 5 inutes in each of 5 categories. Q0258:What is a perfect APGAR score? 10 Q0259:What the three levels of appearance (color) on the APGAR scale? 0 = blue/pale;1=trunk pink;2=all pink Q0260:What describes the three levels of pulse on the APGAR score? 0= 0;1= <100;2= >100 Q0261:What describes the three levels of reflex irritability (grimace) on the APGAR scale? 0= none;1= grimace;2 = grimace + cough Q0262:Describe the 3 levels of muscle tone on the apgar scale. 0 = limp;1 = some;2 = active Q0263:Describe the three levels of respiratory effort on the APGAR scale. 0 = none;1= irregular;2 = regular Q0264:What is the definition of low birth weight in grams? < 2500 g Q0265:List some complications of low birth weight. infections;respiratory distress syndrome;necrotizing enterocolitis;intraventricular hemorrhage;persistent fetal circulation Q0266:What are two likely etiologies for low birth weight? prematurity and intrauterine growth retardation Q0267:True or False: Low birth weight is associated with a greater RR of physical and emotional problems. True Q0268:Long term infant deprivtaion of affection results in the 4 W's ; Weak; Wordless; Wanting; Wary Q0269:How long does deprivation of affection need to continue before changes may be irreversible? > 6 months Q0270:List some effects of long term deprivation of affection in infants. 1. Decreased muscle tone;2. Poor language skills;3. Poor socialization skills;4. Lack of basic trust;5. Anaclitic depression;6. Weight loss;7. Physical illness Q0271:True or False: severe deprivation of affection may result in infant death. True Q0272:What is anaclitic depression? Depression in an infant owing to continued separation from caregiver - it can result in failure to thrive. Q0273:An infant becomes withdrawn and unresponsive when left in a crowded daycare for a few weeks; what may be the problem? Anaclitic depression Q0274:What stimuli may cause children to regress to younger behavior? Stress: physical illness; birth of a new sibling; tiredness. Q0275:When a child is found to be physically abused; who is typically the abuser? usually female and the primary caregiver. Q0276:When a child is found to be sexually abused; who is typically the abuser? A male who is known to the victim. Q0277:Healed fractures on x-ray; cigarette burns; subdural hematoma; multiple brusies; and/or retinal hemorrhage in a child are all signs of ; physical abuse Q0278:Gential/anal trauma; STIs; and UTIs in a child are all evidence of ; sexual abuse. Q0279:How many children die each year in the United States from physical abuse? about 3000. Q0280:At what age are most children sexually abused? 9-12 years. Q0281:Describe autistic disorder pts have severe communication problems and difficulty forming relationships. repetative behavior; savants; and below normal intelligence. Q0282:Describe Asperger syndrome a milder form of autism involving problems with social relationships and repetative behavior. Children are of normal intelligence and lack social or cognitive deficits. Q0283:Describe Rett disorder X-linked disorder seen only in girls. Characterized by loss of development and mental retardation appearing at about 4 years. Q0284:Describe ADHD limited attention span and hyperactivity. children are emotionally labile; impulsive; and prone to accidents. Normal intelligence Q0285:What is the current treatment for autism? increase communication and social skills Q0286:Why aren't boys seen with Rett syndrome? With this X-linked disorder; boys die in utero. Q0287:What is the treatment for ADHD? methylphenidate (Ritalin) Q0288:Describe conduct disorder continued behavior violating social norms. Q0289:Describe oppositional definant disorder. A form of conduct disorder when the child is noncompliant in teh absence of criminality. Q0290:Describe Tourette's syndrome. motor/vocal tics and involuntary profanity. Onsent < 18 years. Q0291:What is the treatment for Tourette's? haloperidol Q0292:Describe separation anxiety disorder. fear of loss of attachment figure leading to factitious physical complaints to avoid going to school. Common in children ages 7-8. Q0293:Describe Anorexia nervosa. abnormal eating habits; body image distortion; and increased excercise. Q0294:Severe weight loss; amennorrhea; anemia and electrolyte disturbances in an adolescent girl are signs of ; anorexia nervosa. Q0295:Describe Bulimia nervosa. binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or use of laxitives. Body weight is usually normal. Q0296:Parotitis; tooth enamel erosion; incrase amylase; and esophageal varicies in an adolescent girl at normal weight are signs of ; Bulimia nervosa. Q0297:What are hallucinations? perceptions in the absence of external stimuli. Q0298:What are Illusions? misinterpretations of actual external stimuli. Q0299:What are Delusions? false beliefs not shared with other members of culture/subculture that are firmly maintained despite obvious proof to the contrary. Q0300:Desribe the difference between a delusion and a loose association. A delusion is a disorder in the content of thought (the actual idea); while a loose association is a disorder in the form of the thought (how the ideas are tied together) Q0301:Patients with schizophrenia commonly experience what kind of hallucinations? Visual and auditory hallucinations. Q0302:Patients with psychomotor epilepsy will commonly experience what kind of hallucination? olfactory hallucination. Q0303:True or False: Gustatory hallucination is rare. True Q0304:Patients with DTs or cocaine abusers may experience what kind of hallucinations? tactile hallucinations Q0305:What is a hypnagogic hallucination? A hallucination that occurs when going to sleep. Q0306:What is a hypnopompic hallucination? A hallucination that occurs when waking from sleep. Q0307:How many heroin addicts are there in the United States? About 500;000 Q0308:A diagnosis of hepatitis; abscesses; overdose; hemorrhoids; AIDS; or right sided endocarditis (especially in the presence of track marks) should lead the physician to consider heroin addiction. Q0309:What two drugs are used to treat heroin addicts? Naloxone and Methadone. Q0310:How can Naloxone help a heroin addict? Naloxone (Narcan) and naltrexone competitively inhibit opiods. Q0311:How can Methadone help a heroin addict? Methadone is a long acting oral opiate used for heroin detoxification and long term maintenance. Q0312:What is Delirium tremens? Life threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome that peaks 2-5 days after the last drink. Q0313:tachycardia; tremors; and anxiety followed by halluciantions; delusions; and confusion in an alcoholic may be signs of ; delirium tremens. Q0314:What is the treatment for delirium tremens? benzodiazepines. Q0315:List risk factors for suicide completeion. "SAD PERSONS": Sex (male); Age; Depression; Previous attempt; Ethanol; RAtional thought; Sickness; Organized plan; No spouse; Social support lacking. Q0316:Which gender attempts suicide more often? Women Q0317:Which gender is sucessful at suicide more often? Men Q0318:What is a personality trait? An enduring pattern of perceiving; relating to; and thinking about the environment and oneself that is exhibited in a wide range of important social and personal contexts. Q0319:What is a personality disorder? When personality traits become inflexible and maladaptive; causing impariment in social or occupational functioning or subjective distress Q0320:True or False: A patient with a personality disorder is usually aware of the problem. False: a person with a personality disorder is usually NOT aware of the problem. Q0321:What does the phrase "Mature women wear a SASH" indicate Mature ego defenses: Sublimation; Altruism; Supression; and Humor Q0322:What are ego defenses? automatic and UNCONCIOUS reactions to psychological stress. Q0323:Describe altruism as an ego defense. guilty feelings alleviated by unsolicited generosity toward others. Q0324:Describe humor as an ego defense. appreciating teh amusing nature of an anxiety provoking or adverse situation. Q0325:a mafia boss making a large donation to charity is an example of what ego defense? altruism. Q0326:a cancer patient laughing about their condition is an example of what ego defense? humor Q0327:aggressive impulses used to succeed in sports is an example of what ego defense? sublimation. Q0328:What is sublimation as an ego defense? process whereby one replaces an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system. Q0329:describe supression as an ego defense. VOLUNTARY withholding of an idea or feeling from concious awareness. Q0330:choosing not to think about your taxes until april 13th is an example of what ego defense? suppression. Q0331:Describe acting out as an ego defense. unacceptable feelings and thoughts are expressed through actions. Q0332:Describe dissociation as an ego defense. temporary; drastic changes in personality; memory; conciousness; or motor behavior to avoid emotional stress. Q0333:Describe denial as an ego defense. avoidance of awareness of some painful reality. Q0334:Describe displacement as an ego defense. process whereby avoided ideas and feelings are transferred to some neutral person or object. Q0335:Describe fixation as an ego defense. partially remaining at a more childish level of development. Q0336:describe identification as an ego defense. modeling behavior after another person. Q0337:describe isolation as an ego defense. separation of feelings from ideas or events. Q0338:describe projection as an ego defense. an unacceptable internal impulse is attributed to an external source. Q0339:describe rationalization as an ego defense. proclaiming logical resons for actions actually performed for other reasons; usually to avoid self blame. Q0340:Describe reaction formation as an ego defense. process whereby a warded off idea or feeling is replaced by an unconciously derived emphasis on it's opposite. Q0341:Describe regression as an ego defense. turning back the maturational clock and going back to earlier modes of dealing with the world. Q0342:Describe Repression as an ego defense involuntary withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness. Q0343:Describe splitting as an ego defense Belief that people are good or bad ; extremes. Q0344:A patient with libidinous thoughts enters a monastary. This is an example of what ego defense? Reaction formation. Q0345:An 8 year old child under stress begins bed wetting again. This is an example of what ego defense? Regression. Q0346:What is the basic underlying mechanism for all ego defenses? repression. Q0347:a patient says that one doctor is a miracle worker; but another is totally incompetent. this is an example of what ego defense? splitting. Q0348:What is dysthymia? A milder form of depression lasting at least 2 years. Q0349:Describe a major depressive episode. characterized by at least 5 of the following for 2 weeks;1. sleep disturbances;2. loss of interest;3. guilt;4. loss of energy;5. loss of concentration;6. change in appetite;7. psychomotor retardation;8. suicidal ideation;9. depressed mood Q0350:A major depressive episode MUST include one of two symptoms; these are ; 1. depressed mood; or 2. anhedonia Q0351:A patients has experienced 2 major depressive episodes with a symptom free interval of 2 months; what is the diagnosis? Recurrent Major Depressive Disorder. Q0352:What is teh lifetime prevalence of major depressive disorder in women? in men? 10-25% in women and 5-12% in men. Q0353:What is indicated by "SIG E CAPS"? Symptoms of major depression: Sleep; Interest; Guilt; Energy; Concentration; Appetite; Psychomotor; Suicidal. Q0354:What is dementia? the development of multiple cognitive defects including memory; aphasia; apraxia; agnosia; loss of abstract thought; behavioral and personality changes; imparied judgement. Q0355:What is the key to diagnosing dementia? Ruling out delirium. Q0356:In an elderly person who seems to apparently have dementia; what other condition should be considered? Depression. Q0357:Describe the difference between dementia and delirium. Delirium= changes in sensorium while Dementia = changes in memory. Dementia is commonly irreversible. Q0358:What is the most common psychiatric illness on medical and surgical floors? Delirium. Q0359:If a patient on a hospital ward presents with delirium; what drugs should you check for in their med list? Drugs with anticholinergic effects. Q0360:A patient presents with a decreased attention span and decreased level of arousal; disorganized thinking; hallucinations; illusions; and cognitive dysfunction ; what is the likely diagnosis? Delirium Q0361:What is the key to diagnosis of delirium? Waxing and waning level of conciousness; develops rapidly. Q0362:A man who has lost his wife appears to be in shock; and expresses denail; guilt and somatic symptoms for the past 4 months. What is the diagnosis? Normal bereavement. Q0363:How long does normal bereavement last? Typically 6 months to a year. Q0364:When does grief become pathologic? When it becomes excessively intense or prolonged; delayed; inhibited; or denied. Q0365:What are the functions of the frontal lobe? concentration;orientation;language;abstraction;judgement;moto r regulation;mood Q0366:What deficit is most notable in frontal lobe lesions? lack of social judgement. Q0367:How is REM sleep like sex? increase pulse; penile/clitoral tumescence; decreases with age. Q0368:how often does REM sleep occur while sleeping? every 90 minutes;duration of REM sleep increases throughout the night. Q0369:What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in REM sleep? ACh. Q0370:What are the neurotransmitter changes associated with anxiety? increase in NE;decrease in GABA and 5HT Q0371:What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Depression? decrease NE and 5HT Q0372:What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Alzheimers dementia? decreases ACh Q0373:What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Huntington's Disease? decrease GABA and ACh Q0374:What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Schizophrenia? increase DA Q0375:What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Parkinson's disease? decrease in DA. Q0376:Name the 4 reflexes that are present at birth. 1. Mono;2. Rooting;3. Palmar;4. Babinski Q0377:What is the Mono reflex? extension of limbs when startled Q0378:What is the rooting reflex? nipple seeking Q0379:What is the palmar reflex? grasps object in palm Q0380:What is the Babinski reflex? large toe dorsiflexes with plantar stimulation. Q0381:When do the reflexes present at birth typically disappear? Within the 1st year of life. Q0382:What are the Kubler-Ross dying stages? 1. Denial;2. Anger;3. Bargaining;4. Grieving;5. Acceptance Q0383:True or False: Kubler Ross stages of dying always occur sequentially? False: more than one stage may be present at a time and they may not proceed in order. Q0384:What does "Death Arrives Bringing Grave Adjustments" indicate. The Kubler-Ross stages of dying. Denial; Anger; Bargaining; Grieving; Acceptance. Q0385:Describe "substance abuse" Maladaptive pattern leading to clincally significant impairment or distress - 1 or more symptom must be present for 1 year - do not meet criteria for substance dependence. Q0386:What are the symptoms of substance abuse? 1. recurrent use = failure to fulfill major obligation;2. recurrent use in physically hazardous situation;3. recurrent use related legal problems;4. continued use despite persistent problems Q0387:What is substance dependence? Maladaptive pattern of substance use defined as 3 or more of the defining symptoms for at least a year. Q0388:What are the symptoms of substance dependence? 1. tolerance;2. withdrawal;3. taken in larger than needed amounts;4. persistent desire or attempt to cut down;5. lots of energy spent trying to obtain substance;6. important activities reduced because of substance use;7. continued use despite awareness of problems Q0389:Describe adjustment disorder. emotional symptoms causing impairment following an identifiable psychosocial stressor lasting < 6 months. Q0390:Describe generalized anxiety disorder. uncontrollable anxiety unrelated to a specific person; situation; or event. May include GI symptoms; fatigue; and difficulty concentrating. Q0391:Describe post traumatic stress disorder. intense fear; helplessness; or horror; in which a person who experienced or witnessed an event that involved actual or threatened death or injury persistently reexperiences the event. Q0392:What is the difference between acute stress and PTSD? acute stress lasts 2-4 weeks; PTSD lasts > 1 month and causes distress or social/occupational impairment. Q0393:What is Gamophobia? fear of marriage. Q0394:What is algophobia? fear of pain. Q0395:what is acrophobia? fear of heights. Q0396:What is agoraphobia? fear of open places. Q0397:What is a specific phobia? fear that is excessive or unreasonable; cued by presence or anticipation of a specific object or entity. Q0398:Does a person with a specific phobia recognize that their fear is excessive? Yes. Q0399:What are treatment options for specific phobias? systematic desensitization; flooding. Q0400:In reference to a somatoform disorder; describe a primary; secondary; and tertiary gain. Primary gain = what symptom does for patients internal psyche;Secondary gain = what symptom gets for patient (ie sympathy);Tertiary gain = what the caretaker gets (MD on an interesting case) Q0401:What does "PANIC" indicate. The symptoms of a panic attack: palpiations; abdominal distress; nausea; increased perspiration; chest pain; chills; choking. Q0402:What is panic disorder? discrete period of intense fear and discomfort; peaking in 10 minutes; including 4 symptoms; and must be diagnosed in the context of the occurence. Q0403:Does sexual interest decline in the elderly? No; sexual interest does not decline. Q0404:What sexual changes to elderly men experience? slower erection/ejaculation; longer refractory period Q0405:What sexual changes do elderly women experience? vaginal shortening; thinning; dryness. Q0406:Describe changes in sleep patterns with advanced age. decrease REM sleep; slow wave sleep;increase sleep latency; wakings during the night. Q0407:What are the most common medical conditions due to advanced age? arthritis; HTN; CVD. Q0408:True or False: Depression is more prevalent in the elderly? True: depression is more prevalent and the suicide rate is increased. Q0409:What percent of time is spent in stage 1 sleep? 5% Q0410:What percent of time is spent in stage 2 sleep? 45% Q0411:What percent of time is spent in stage 3-4 sleep? 25% Q0412:What percent of time is spent in REM sleep? 25% Q0413:When do you experience a Beta waveform? When awake; alert; active mental concentration with your eyes open. Q0414:When do you experience an alpha waveform? awake; but drowsy with eyes closed. Q0415:In light sleep; what waveform predominates? theta Q0416:in deeper sleep; stage 2; what waveform predominates? Sleep spindles and K complexes. Q0417:In stage 3-4 sleep; the depenst non REM sleep; what waveforms predominate? delta waves (lowest frequency; highest amplitude) Q0418:When will a person sleepwalk; have night terrors; or wet the bed? In delta sleep (stage 3-4) Q0419:What waveform predominates in REM sleep? Beta waves (the same as being awake) Q0420:when does dreaming occur? in REM sleep Q0421:Describe REM sleep. dreaming; loss of motor tone; possibly a memory processing function; erections; increased brain oxygen consumption. Q0422:What does "At night; BATS Drink Blood" indicate waveforms of sleepstages: Beta; Alpha; Theta; Spindles and K forms; Delta; Beta. Q0423:What is the key to initiating sleep? 5HT predominance of raphe nucleus Q0424:What neurotransmitter reduces REM sleep? NE Q0425:What are EOM movements during REM sleep due to? activity of the PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation / conjugate gaze center) Q0426:What do the terms "paradoxical sleep" and "desynchronized sleep" apply to REM sleep having the same EEG pattern as awake and alert Q0427:Why are benzodiazepines good for night terrors and sleep walking? They shorten stage 4 sleep. Q0428:What drug shortens stage 4 sleep and is used to treat enuresis? Imipramine. Q0429:What is a conversion disorder? A somatoform disorder where symptoms suggest motor or sensory neurologic or physical disorder - but tests and physical examination are negative. Q0430:What is somatoform pain disorder? prolonged pain that is not explained completely by illness. Q0431:What is hypochondriasis? misinterpretation of normal physical findings; leading to preoccupation with fear of having a serious illness in spite of medical reassurance. Q0432:what is somatization disorder? variety of complaints in multiple organ systems. Q0433:what is body dysmorphic disorder? patient convinced that part of their own anatomy is malformed. Q0434:what is pseudocyesis? a false belief of being pregnant associated with objective physical signs of pregnancy. Q0435:What is electroconvulsive therapy? a painless procedure that results in a seizure. Complications can result from anesthesia. Q0436:What are the major adverse effects of ECT? disorientation; and amnesia. Q0437:When is ECT used? For major depressive disorder refractory to all other treatment. Q0438:What is a hypomanic episode? like a manic episode; except the mood disturbance is not severe enough to cause marked impairment in the patients life. it does not require hospitalization and there are no psychotic features. Q0439:What is malingering? patient conciously fakes or claims to have a disorder in order to attain a specific gain. Q0440:What is facticious disorder? a patient conciously creates symptoms in order to assume the "sick" roll to get medical attention. Q0441:What is Munchausen's syndrome? manifests as a chronic history of multiple hosptital admissions and willingness to receive invasive procedures. Q0442:What is Munchausen's syndrome by proxy? when the illness in a child is caused by a parent. the motivation is unconcious. Q0443:Describe bipolar disorder. 6 separate criteria sets exist for bipolar disorders with combinations of manic; hypomanic; and depressed episodes. Q0444:What is the treatment of choice for bipolar disorder? Lithium. Q0445:What is cyclothymic disorder a milder form of bipolar disorder lasting at least 2 years. Q0446:What is a manic episode? distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated; expansive; or irritable mood lasting at least one week. Q0447:During a manic episode; 3 or more symptoms are present ; list the 7 symptoms;DIG FAST 1. distractability;2. insomnia;3. grandiosity;4. flight of ideas;5. increase in activity/agitation;6. pressured speech;7. thoughtlessness Q0448:Disinhibition; emotional lability; slurred speech; ataxia; coma; and blackouts are indicative of intoxication with what substance? alcohol. Q0449:what symptoms may a patient withdrawing from alcohol experience? tremor; tachycardia; HTN; malaise; nausea; seizures; DTs; tremulousness; agitation; hallucinations. Q0450:A patients appears restless; and complains of insomnia; anxiety; and shows signs of arrhythmias. You suspect the patient is using what substance? cigarettes ; nicotine intoxication. Q0451:When a patient stops smoking cigarettes; what symptoms might they expect during withdrawal? irritability; headache; anxiety; weight gain; and cravings. Q0452:a patient who consumes lots of coffee might experience what symptoms? restlessness; insomnia; increased diruesis; muscle twitching; cardiac arrhythmias Q0453:When a patient stops caffeine consumption; what symptoms might they expect? headache; lethargy; depression; weight gain. Q0454:A patient presents to the ER with nausea and vomiting; constipation; and pinpoint pupils. What substance do you suspect? opiods. Q0455:When a patient ODs on opiods; what symptom are you most concerned with? seizures ; may be life threatening. Q0456:a pt presents with amnesia; ataxia; somnolence; and minor respiratory distress. They do not consume alcohol ; what substance do you suspect? Benzodiazepines. Q0457:Are benzos addictive? if consumed with alcohol. Q0458:When a patient stops taking benzos; what symptoms may they experience? rebound anxiety; seizures; tremor; and insomnia Q0459:a patient presents to the ER with major respiratory depression; their friens state they "took something" ; what do you suspect? barbituates. Q0460:In addition to anxiety; seizures; and delirium; what are you concerned about in a patient who is withdrawing from barbituates? life threatening cardiovascular collapse. Q0461:a patient presents with euphoria; anxiety; paranoid delusions; imparied judgement; and the munchies ; what do you suspect? marijuana. Q0462:Are there withdrawal symptoms from marijuana? social withdrawal. Q0463:a patient presents with marked anxiety; delusions; visual hallucinations; flashbacks; and pupil dilation. what do you suspect? LSD. Q0464:a pt presents with agitation; pupillary dilation; HTN; tachycrdia; euphoria; fever; hallucinations and they have been awake for 36 hours ; waht drug do you suspect? amphetamines. Q0465:what symnptoms can a patient withdrawing from amphetamines expect? post crash depression; lethargy; headache; stomach cramps; hunger; hypersomnolence. Q0466:a pt presents euphoric with psychomotor agitation; tachycardia; pupillary dilation; hallucinations; and angina ; what drug do you suspect? cocain. Q0467:what fatal effect of cocain are you worried about? sudden cardiac death. Q0468:what can a patient in withdrawal from cocain expect to experience? post crash depression and suicidality; hypersomnolence; fatigue; malaise; and severe psychological craving. Q0469:a pt presents with fever and psychomotor agitation; he is belligerant and impulsive; and has horizontal and vertical nystagmus. What drug do you suspect? PCP. Q0470:When a patient is withdrawing from PCP; what symptoms are you concerned about? sudden onset of severe; random; homicidal thought Q0471:A patient recovering from a PCP intoxication appears to be having a recurrence of intoxication symptoms; why? reabsorption of PCP from the GI tract. Q0472:What is the formula for BMI? weight(kg)/(heightxheight(m)) Q0473:What is the BMI numerical cutoff for an obesity? > 30.0 Q0474:A patient complains of sexual dysfunction; what 3 things are on your differential? 1. drugs;2. disease;3. psychological Q0475:What diseases may lead to sexual dysfunction? depression or DM Q0476:What drugs can lead to sexual dysfunction? anti-HTN; neuroleptics; SSRI; EtOH. Q0477:Describe the physiological effects of stress. Stress induces production of FFA; 17-OH corticosteroids; lipids; cholesterol; and catecholamines. it affects water absorption; muscular tonicity; gastrocolic reflex; and mucusal circulation. Q0478:A patient with depression will typically show these three changes in their sleep stages: 1. decrease slow wave sleep;2. decrease REM latency;3. early morning awakening Q0479:What is the most important screening question for depression? Are you experiencing early morning awakening? Q0480:Describe narcolepsy. person falls asleep suddenly. May include hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations. Q0481:A person with narcolepsy starts off their sleep cycle with what sleep stage? REM Q0482:What is cataplexy? sudden collapse while awake. may be present in some patients with narcolepsy. Q0483:What is the treatment for narcolepsy? amphetamines. Q0484:A patient stops breathing for at least 10 seconds repeatedly during sleep; what is a possible diagnosis? Sleep apnea Q0485:What is the treatment for sleep apnea? weight loss; CPAP; surgery Q0486:Describe the difference between central and obstructive sleep apnea. Central sleep apnea involves no respiratory effort; obstructive sleep apnea involves respiratory effort against an airway obstruction. Q0487:What symptoms and signs is sleep apnea associated with: obesity; loud snoring; systemic or pulmonary HTN; arrhythmias; and possibly sudden death. Q0488:woman w/ anxiety about gyn exam is told to relax and imagine going through the steps of the exam. What process does this exemplify systematic desensitization Q0489:65 y/o man is dx w/ incurable pancreatic adenocarcinoma. His family asks you; the doctor; not to tell the pt. What do you do? assess whether telling the pt will negatively affect his health. If not; tell him Q0490:Man admitted for chest pain is medicated for ventricular tachycardia. The nexxt day he jumps out of bed and does 50 push ups to show the nurses he did not hav a heart attack. What defense mechanism is he using denial Q0491:you find yourself attracted to your 26 y/o pt. What do you say. nothing! be professional. It is not acceptable to have a relationship with your pts. Q0492:large group of people is followed over 10 years. Every 2 years. It is determined who develops heart dz and who does not. What type of study? cohort study Q0493:girl can groom herself; hop on one foot and has an amaginary friend. How old is she? 4 y/o Q0494:man has flashbacks about his girlfriends death 2 mo. ago follwooingt a hit-and-run accident. He often cries and wishes for the death of the culprit. What is the dx? normal bereavemnt Q0495:36 y/o woman with strong family hx of breast CA refuses mammogram because she heard it hurts. What do you do? discuss the risks and benefits of not havign a mammogram. Each pt must give her own informed consent to each procedure; if the pt refuses; you must abide by her wishes. Q0496:4 y/o girl complains of burning feeling in her genetalia; otherwise she behaves and sleeps normally. Smear of the discharge shows N. gonorrhea. How was she infected sexual abuse Q0497:72 y/o man insists on stopping tx for his heart conditon because it makes him feel "funny" What do you do? encourage pt to take his meds but pt has final say in his tx regimen. Investigate the "funny" feeling and determine if there are drugs available that don't elicit this particular side effect. Q0498:This is an observational study. The sample is chosen based on presence (cases) or absence (controls) of dz. Info is collected about risk factors. It is often retrospective case control study Q0499:this is an observational study. Sample is chosen based on presence or absense of risk factors. Subjects are followed over time for development of dz. Often prospective cohort study Q0500:Framingham heart study is an exampel of this type of study cohort study Q0501:This involves pooling data from several studies (often via a literature search) to achieve greater statistical power;Limitations of individual studies prevail meta-analysis Q0502:this is an experimental study. It compares the terapeutic benefits of 2 or more tx or tx & placebos clinical trial Q0503:highest quality clinical trials are double ______ blind Q0504:this negative study finding occurs when 1 outcome is systematically favored over another. bias Q0505:this type of bias is a nonrandom assignment to a study group selection bias Q0506:this type of bias occurs when knowledge of the presence of a disorder alters recall by the subjects recall bias Q0507:this type of bias occurs when subjects are not representitive; tehrefore results are not generalizable sampling bias Q0508:this type of bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time late-look bias Q0509:Give 4 ways to reduce bias: 1) blind studies (single/double);2) placebo responses;3) crossover studies (each subject acts as own control;4) randomixation Q0510:this describes total cases in population at a given time over total population prevalence Q0511:this describes new cases in population over a given time over total population at risk during that time incidence;mneu: incidence is new incidents;note: when calculating incidence; don't forget that people previously positive for dz are no longer considered at risk Q0512:this is approximately equal to the incidence multiplied by the dz duration prevalence Q0513:what is greater for chronic dzs like diabetes. prevalence or incidence prevalence. Q0514:which is greater for acute dzs like the common cold. prevalence or incidence they are equal Q0515:this describes the number of true positives divided by the number of all the people with the dz. It is the probability a positive test; given a person has the desease sensitivity Q0516:sensitivity rules ______ out;mneu: SNOUT Q0517:this is equal to 1-sensitivity false negative Q0518:high sensitivity is desirable for this type of test screening Q0519:This is the number of true negatives divided by number of all people without the desease. It is the probability of a negative test given taht a person is free of the dz. specificity. Q0520:specificity rules _____ IN;mneu: SPIN Q0521:this is equal to 1-specificity false positive rate Q0522:high specificity is desirable for this type of test confirmatory test Q0523:This is the number of true positives divided by number of people who tested positive for the dz;It is the probability of having a condition given a positive test positive predictive value (PPV) Q0524:This is the number of true negatives divided by number of people who tested negative for the dz;It is the probability of not having the condition given a negative test negative predictive value (NPV) Q0525:unlike sensitivity and specificity; predictive values are dependent on this prevalence of the dz;the higher the prevalence off the diz the higher the positive predictive value of the test. Q0526:this descrives the odds of having a dz in the exposed gorup divided by the odds of having dz in unexposed group. odds ratio (OR) Q0527:how are odds are calculated within a group as number with dz divided by number without the dz Q0528:if the prevenance of the dz is not too high the OR approximates this relative risk Q0529:OR is used in this type of study case-control Q0530:this describes the disease risk in exposed group divided by dz risk in uneposed gorup relative risk (RR) Q0531:how is relative risk calculated within a group number with dz divided by total number of people in the gourp. Q0532:relative risk is used for what type of studies cohort studies Q0533:the consistency and reproducibility of a test (reliability);the absense of random variation in a test precision Q0534:the trueness of test measurements (validity) accuracy Q0535:random error leads to reduced this in a test precision Q0536:systematic error leads to reduced this in a test accuracy Q0537:In a normal /Gaussian/Bell shaped statistical distribution curve; How are the mean; median; and mode related equal to each other Q0538:bimodal distribution means 2 humps Q0539:This type of skew describes tail on the right. The mean>median>mode positive skew Q0540:This type of skew describes tail on the left. The mean<median<mode negative skew Q0541:this describes a hypothesis of no difference. E.g; there is no association between the dz and risk factor in the population null hypothesis (Ho) Q0542:this describes a hypothesis that there is some difference (e.g; there is some association between the dz and the risk factor in the population Alternative hypothesis (H1) Q0543:This type of error is stating that there IS an effect or difference when none exists (to mistakenly accept the experimental hypothesis and reject the null hypothesis). Type I error ((alpha)) Q0544:ρ is judged against (alpha); a preset level of significance (usually <0.5). ρ= probability of making a type I error Q0545:if ρ < .05 then there is less than a 5% chance that the data will show something that is not really there Q0546:(alpha)= you saw a difference that idd not exist--for example; convicting an innocent man Q0547:This type of error states that there IS NOT an effect or difference when one exists (to fail to reject the null hypothesis when in fact Ho is false. type II error ((beta)) Q0548:(beta)= the probably of making a type II error;you did not "see" a difference that does exist--for example; setting a guilty man free Q0549:This is the probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is in fact false. power (1-(beta)) Q0550:Power depends on: 1) total number of end points experienced by population;2) difference in compliance b/n tx groups (differences in the mean values between groups);3) size of expected effect Q0551:what is the most common way you can increase the power of the study increase sample size;mneu: there is power in number Q0552:n= sample size Q0553:Theta= standard deviation Q0554:SEM= standard error of the mean:theta√n Q0555:SEM is __ than σ;SEM ______ as n increases less than;decreases Q0556:this describes the range of values in which a specified probability of the means of repeated samples would be expected to fall confidence interval (CI) Q0557:CI= range from [mean-Z(SEM)] to [mean + Z(SEM)]. Q0558:what CI is often used 95% (corresponding to p=.05) Q0559:what is the Z for 95% CI Z=1.96 Q0560:If the 95% CI for a mean difference between 2 variables includes 0; then there is no significant difference and Ho is not rejected Q0561:If the 95% CI for odds ratio or relative ris includes 2; Ho is _____ not rejected Q0562:this type of test checks the difference between the means of 2 groups t- test;mneu: Mr. T is MEAN Q0563:this checks the difference between the means of 3 or more groups ANOVA;mneu: ANalysis Of VAriance of 3 or more variables Q0564:this checks the difference between 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes (not mean values) χ^2 Q0565:always between -1 and 1. Absolute value indicates strenghth of correlation b/n 2 variables coorelation coefficient Q0566:r^2 coefficient of determination Q0567:Describe primary; secondary; and tertiary dz prevention primary-prevent dz occurance (e.g; vaccination);secondary- early detection of dz (e.g; Pap smear);tertiary- reduce disability from dz (e.g; exogenous insulin for dbts;mneu: PDR (prevent; detect; reduce disability) Q0568:Given the risk factor give the important prevention services;dbts eye; foot exams; urine test Q0569:Given the risk factor give the important prevention services;drug use hepatitis immunizations; HIV; TB tests Q0570:Given the risk factor give the important prevention services;alcoholism influenza; pneumococcal immunizations; TB test Q0571:Given the risk factor give the important prevention services;overweight blood sugar tests for dbts Q0572:Given the risk factor give the important prevention services;homeless; recent immigrant inmate TB test Q0573:Given the risk factor give the important prevention services;High risk sexual behavior HIV; hepatitis B; syphilis; gonorrhea; clamydia tests. Q0574:Give the reportable dzs Hep B;Hep A;Salmonella;Shigella;Syphilis;Measles;Mumps;AIDS;Rubell a;TB;Chickenpox;Gonorrhea;mneu: B.A. SSSMMART CHICKEN or you're Gone Q0575:leading causes of death in US of infants congenital anomalies; short gestation/low birth weight; SIDS; maternal complications of pregnancy; rspiratory distress syndrome Q0576:leading causes of death in US of children 1-14 injuries; Cancer; congenital anomalies; homocide; heart dz Q0577:leading causes of death in US of people 15-24 injuries; homocide; suicide; cancer; heart dz Q0578:leading causes of death in US of people 25-64 Cancer; heart dz; injuries; suicide; stroke Q0579:leading causes of death in US of people 65+ heart dz; cancer; stroke; COPD; pneumonia; influenza Q0580:Medicare and medicaid are federal programs that originated from amendments to the social security act;MedicarE is for ________;MedicaiD is for ________ Elderly;Destitute Q0581:medicare part A pays for _____;medicare part B pays for ____ A=hospital;B=doctor bills Q0582:this describes the obligation to respect pts as individuals and to honor their preferences in medical care autonomy Q0583:informed consent legally requires these 3 things 1) discussion of pertinant information;2) pts agreement to the plan of cre;3) freedom from coertion Q0584:in informed consent pts must understand these 3 things risks; benefits; and alternatives (including no interventions) Q0585:Give the 3 exceptions to informed consent 1) pt lacks decision-making capacity (not legally competent);2) implied consent in an emergency;3) therapeutic privilage (withholding info when disclosure would severely harm the pt or undermine informed decision-making capacity;4) waiver (pt waves rights) Q0586:pts decision making capacity depends on these 5 things 1) pt makes and communicates a choice;2) pt is informed;3) decision remains stable over time;4) decision is consistant w/ pts values and goals;5) decision is not a result of delusions or hallucinations Q0587:T or F. Pts family cannot require that a doctor withhold info from the pt T Q0588:Describe what an oral advance directive is when an incapacitated pts prior oral statements are used as a guide. Problems arise form variance in interpretation. If pt was informed; directive is specific; pt made a choice; and decision was repeated over time; the oral directive is more valid. Q0589:this is when a pt directs physician to withold or withdraw life-sustaining tx if the pt develops a terminal dz or enters a persistant vegitative state living will Q0590:this is when a pt designates a surrogate to make medical decisions in the event that the pt loses decision- making capacity. Pt may also specify decisions in clinical situations. Surrogate retains power unless revoked by pt. More flexible than a living will; supersedes living wil if both exist durable power of atterney Q0591:"do no harm". However; if benefits of intervention outweigh the risks; a pt may make an informed decision to procede nonmaleficence Q0592:Physicians have special ethical responsibility to act in the pts best interest (physician is a fiduciary"). Pt autonomy may conflict. beneficence Q0593:respect for the pts privacy and autonomy. Disclosing info to family & friends should be guided by pts wishes. Pts may wave rights confidentiality Q0594:Give the 2 exceptions to confidentiality 1) harm to others;2) harm self Q0595:duty to break confidentiality because of potential to harm others can take several forms. Give 3 examples 1) infectious dzs- duty to warm public officials and identifiable people at risk;2) Child/Elder abuse;3) Impared auto drivers Q0596:what landmark decision involved a psychiatrist who did not break confidentiality to warn apotential homocide victem Tarasoff decision Q0597:Civil suit under negligence requires these 3 things 1) Dereliction- Physician breach of duty to patient;2)Damage- -pt suffers harm;3) Direct- breach of duty causes harm;mneu: 3 Ds Q0598:what is the most common factor leading to litigation poor communication between physician and patient Q0599:In a criminal suit the burdenof proof is "beyond a reasonable doubt"; the burden of proof in a malpractice suit is ___________ "more likely than not" Q0600:Given the situation; give the appropriate response;pt is noncompliant work to improve the physician-pt relationship Q0601:Given the situation; give the appropriate response;pt has difficulty taking medications provide written instructions. Attempt to simplify tx regimens Q0602:Given the situation; give the appropriate response;family members ask for info about a pts prognosis avoid discussing issues w/ relatives w/out the permission of the pt Q0603:Given the situation; give the appropriate response;17 y/o girl is pregnant and requests an abortion many states require parental notification or consent for minors for an abortion. Parental consent is NOT required for emergency situations; tx of STDs; medical care during pregnancy; prescriptions for contraceptives; and management of drug addicition Q0604:Given the situation; give the appropriate response;A terminally ill pt requests physician assistance in ending his life in the overwhelming majority of states; refuse involvement in any form of physician assisted suicide. Physician may; however; prescribe medically appropriate analgesics that coincidentally shorten the pts life. Q0605:Given the situation; give the appropriate response;pt states that he finds you attractive ask direct; closed-ended questions and use a chaperone if necessary. Romantic relationships with pts are NEVER appropriate. Q0606:Given the situation; give the appropriate response: Pt refuses a necessary procedure or desires an unnecessary one. attempt to understand why the pt wants/does not want the procedure. Address the underlying concerns. Avoid performing unnecessary procedures Q0607:Given the situation; give the appropriate response: Pt is angry about the amount of time he spent in the waiting room apologize to the pt for any inconvenience. Stay away from efforts to explain the delay Q0608:Given the situation; give the appropriate response: Pt is upset with the way he was treated by another doctor suggest that the pt speak directly to that physician regarding his concerns. If the problem is with a member of the office staff; tell the pt you will speak to that indiviedual. Q0609:Given the situation; give the appropriate response: A child wishes to know more about his illness Ask waht the parents have told the child about his illness. Parents of a child decide what info can be relayed about the illness Q0610:Given the situation; give the appropriate response: Pt continues to smoke; believing that cigarettes are good for him Ask how the pt feels about his smoking. Offer advice on cessation if the pt seems willing to make an effort to quit. Q0611:How is APGAR scored and what does the APGAR SCORE stand for scored 0-2. 10 is a perfect score;Appearance (color) [blue; trunk pink; all pink] ;Pulse [0;<100;100+];Grimace [0;grimace; grimace+cough];Activity [no tone; some; active];Respiration [0;irregular; regular] Q0612:<2500g. Associated with greater incidence of physical and emotional problems. Caused by prematurity or intrauterine growth retardation. Complications include infections; respiratiory distress syndrome; necrotizing enterocolitis; intraventricular hemorrhage; and persistent fetal circulation. low birth weight Q0613:long-term deprivation of affection results in these 7 things 1) decreased mm tone;2)poor language skills;3)poor socialization skills;4)lack of basic trust;5) anaclitic depression;6) weight loss;7) physical illness;severe deprevation can result in infant dealth;mneu: The 4 Ws: Weak; Wordless; Wanting (socially); Wary Q0614:deprevation for greater than how long can lead to irreversible changes 6 mo Q0615:this describes depression in an infant owing to continued separation from caregiver--can result in failure to thrive. Infant becomes withdrawn and unresponsive. anaclitic depression Q0616:children often due this when they are under stress- physical illness; punishment; birth of a new sibling; tiredness. An example is bed-wetting in a previously toilet-trained child. regression to younger behavior Q0617:give some signs of physical abuse healed fractures on x-ray; cigarette burns; subdural hematomas; multiple bruises; retinal hemorrhage on detachment Q0618:what is the abuser profile of a physical abuser usally female and the primary caregiver Q0619:how many deaths occur each year in the US from physical abuse ~3000 Q0620:give some signs of sexual abuse genital/anal trauma; STDs; UTIs Q0621:Give the profile of a sexual abuser usaually male and known to the victem Q0622:what is the peak age incidence of sexual abuse 9月12日 Q0623:3 mo motor milestones holds head up; Moro reflex disapears Q0624:3 mo cognitive/social milestone social smile Q0625:4-5 mo motor milestones rolls front to back; sits when propped Q0626:4-5 mo cognitive/social milestone recognizes people Q0627:7-9 mo motor milestones sits alone; crawls Q0628:7-9 mo cognitive/social milestones stranger anxiety; orients to voice Q0629:12-14 mo motor milestones upgoing babinski disappears Q0630:15 mo motor milestones walks Q0631:15 mo cognitive/social milestones few words; separation anxiety Q0632:12-24 mo motor milestones climbs stairs; stacks 3 blocks Q0633:12-24 mo cognitive/social milestone object permanance Q0634:18-24 motor milestones stacks 6 blocks Q0635:18-24 cognitive/social milestone rapproachement Q0636:24-48 mo cognitive/social milestone parallel play Q0637:24-36 cognitive/social milestone core gender identity Q0638:30-36 mo motor milestones stacks 9 blocks Q0639:30-36 mo cognitive/social milestones toilet training Q0640:3 yrs motor milestones rides tricycle; copies line or circle drawing Q0641:3 yrs cognitive/social milestone group play Q0642:4 yrs motor milestones simple drawing (stick figure); hops on 1 foot Q0643:4 yrs cognitive/social milestone cooperative play; imaginary friends Q0644:6-11 yrs motor milestones reads; understands death Q0645:6-11 yrs cognitive/social milestone development of conscience (superego); same-sex friends; identification with same- sex parent Q0646:11 y/o girls ;13 y/o boys abstract reasoning (formal operations); formation of personality Q0647:does sexual interest decrease with age no Q0648:describe sexual changes that occur in men in elderly slower erection/ejaculation; longer refractory period Q0649:describe sexual changes that occur in women in elderly vaginal shortening; thinning; and dryness Q0650:describe changes in sleep patterns in the elderly decrease REM ;decrease slow wave sleep;increase sleep latency;increase awakinings during the night Q0651:common medical conditions occuring in the elderly arthritis; hypertension; heart dz; osteoporosis Q0652:In the elderly psychiatric problems (e.g; depression become more prevalent. T or F T Q0653:suicide rate increases in elderly. T or F T Q0654:does intellegence decrease w/ age no Q0655:in the elderly mm mass ___; and fat ___ decreases;increases Q0656:normal bereavement is is characterized by shock; denial; guit; and somatic symptoms; sometimes may experience illusions. Q0657:how long does normal bereavmant usually last 6 mo to 1 yr Q0658:Describe pathological grief includes excessively intense or prolonged grief or grief that is delayed; inhibited; or denied. May experience depressive symptoms; delusions; and hallucinations Q0659:Give the Kubler-Ross grief stages Denial; Anger; Bargaining; Grieving; Acceptance;mneu: Death Arrives Bringing Grave Adjustments;note: stages do not necessarily occur in this order and >1 stage can be present at once. Q0660:Give 5 effects of stress induces production of free fatty acids; 17-OH corticosteroids; lipids; cholesterol; catecholamines; affects water absorption; muscular tonicity; gastrocolic reflex; and mucosal circulation. May exacerbate certain physical disorders (including CHF; dbts; RA; IBS; gastric ulcer). Q0661:give the DDX of sexual disfunction 1) Drugs (e.g; antihypertensives; neuroleptics; SSRIs; etoh);2) Diseases (e.g; depression; dbts);3) psychological (e.g; performance anxiety) Q0662:this is the measure of weight adjusted for height BMI Q0663:BMI= #NAME? Q0664:BMI underweight <18.5 Q0665:BMI normal 18.5-25 Q0666:BMI overweight 25-30 Q0667:BMI obese >30 Q0668:give 2 famous IQ tests Stanford-Binet & Wechsler Q0669:this IQ test calculates IQ as mental age/chronological age x 100 stanford-Binet Q0670:this IQ test uses 11 subtestes (6 verbal; 5 performance) Wechler Adult Intelligence Schale Q0671:what is the mean IQ test and standard deviation mean=100;SD=15 Q0672:mental retardation IQ<70 Q0673:severe MR IQ<40 Q0674:profound MR IQ<20 Q0675:IQ scores are correlated w/ genetic factors and are hightly correlated w/ school achievement. T or F T Q0676:IQ tests are objective (not projective) tests. T or F T Q0677:this describes learning in which a natural response (e.g. salvation) is elicited by a conditioned; or learned; stimulus (bell) that previously was presented in conjunction with an unconditioned stimulus (food) classical conditioning;note: Pavlov's classical experiments w/ dogs--ringing the bell provoked salivation Q0678:This describes learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward operant conditioning Q0679:in operant conditioning; this describes when a desired reward produces action (e.g; mouse presses button to get food) positive reinforcement Q0680:in operant conditioning; this describes when removal of aversive stimulus increases behavior (mouse presses button to avoid shock) negative reinforcement;note: do not confused w/ punishment Q0681:this determines how quickly a behavior is learned or extinguished Pattern of reinforcement Q0682:this type of reinforcement schedule describes when a reward is received after every response. It is rapidly extinguished. continuous;note: Think vending machine-- you stop using it if it does not deliver. Q0683:this type of reinforcement schedule describes when a reward is received after random number of responses. It is slowly extinguish variable ratio;note: think slot machine--continue to play even if it rarely rewards Q0684:this occurs when pt projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto physician (e.g; psychiatrist=parent) transference Q0685:this describes when doctor projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto patient countertransference Q0686:describe Id primal urges; sex; and aggression (I want it.) Q0687:describe Superego Moral values; conscience. (YOu know you can't have it) Q0688:describe Ego Mediator between the unconscious mind and the external world (Deals with the conflict) Q0689:In the topographic theory of the mind this describes what you are aware of conscious Q0690:In the topographic theory of the mind this describes what you are able to make conscious with effort (e.g; your phone number) preconscious Q0691:In the topographic theory of the mind this describes what you are not aware of; the central goal of Freudian psychoanylysis is to make the pt aware of what is hidden in his/her unconscious. unconscious Q0692:this describes repressed sexual feelings of a child for the opposite-sex parent; accompanied by rivalry with same- sex parent. First described by Freud. Oedipus complex Q0693:these are automatic and unconscious reactions to psychological stress ego defences Q0694:give the mature ego defenses sublimation; altruism; suppression; humor;mneu: MATURE women ware a SASH Q0695:altruism guilty feelings alleviated by unsolicited generosity towards others;e.g; mafia boss makes large donation to charity Q0696:humor appreciating the amusing nature of an anziety-provoking or adverse situation;e.g; nervous medical student jokes about the boards Q0697:sublimation process whereby one replaces an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system;e.g; aggressive impulses used to succeed in business ventures Q0698:suppression voluntary (unlike other defenses) witholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness;e.g; choosing not to think about the USMLE until the week of teh exam Q0699:acting out unacceptable feelings and thoughts are expressed through actions;e.g; tantrums Q0700:dissociation temporary; drastic change in personality; memory; consciousness; or motor behavior to avoid emotional stress;e.g;exteme forms can result in multiple personalities (dissociative identity disorder) Q0701:denial avoidance of awareness of some painful reality;e.g; a common reaction in newly diagnosed AIDS & CA pts Q0702:displacement process whereby avided ideas and feeligns are transferred to some neutral person or object;e.g; mother yells at child because she is angry at her husband Q0703:fixation partially remaining at a more childish level of development;e.g; men fixating on sports games Q0704:identifications modeling behavior after another person who is more powerful (although not necessarily admired);e.g; abused child becomes an abuser Q0705:isolation separation of feelings from ideas and events;e.g; describing murder in graphic detail with no emotional response Q0706:projection an unacceptable internal impulse is atttributed to an external source;e.g; a man who wants another woman thinks his wife is cheating on him Q0707:rationalization proclaiming logical reasons for actions actually performed for other reasons; usually to avoid self blame;e.g; saying the job was not important anyway; after getting fired. Q0708:reaction formation process whereby a warded-off idea or feeling is replaced by an (unconsciously derived) emphasis on its opposite;e.g; a pt w/ libidinous thoughts enters a monastery Q0709:regression turning back the maturational clock and going back to earlier modes of dealing with the world;e.g; seen in children under stress (e.g; bed-wetting) and in pts on dialysis (e.g; crying) Q0710:repression involuntary witholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness. The basic mechanism underlying all others. Q0711:Splitting belief that peoplea re either good or bad;e.g; a pt says that all the nurses are cold and insensitive but that the doctors are warm and friendly. Q0712:How do delusions; illusions; and hallucinations differ? Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture. Q0713:What syndrome is characterized by sweating; insomnia; nausea; diarrhea; cramps; delirium; and general restlessness secondary to MAOI and SSRI in combination? Serotonin syndrome. It is also associated with high doses and MAOI and synthetic narcotic combinations (Ecstasy). Treatment consists of decreasing SSRI dosage; removing the causative agent; and giving cyproheptadine. Q0714:What is the legal age to be deemed competent to make decisions? 18 years old (except if emancipated) Q0715:With what stage of sleep is enuresis associated? Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with a major stressor being introduced into the home. Q0716:When more than one explanation can account for the end result; what form of bias occurs? Confounding bias Q0717:Increased levels of what neurotransmitter; in the hippocampus; decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness? Increased GABA levels decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness. Q0718:How does ceasation of barbiturate use affect sleep? By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep Q0719:What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables? Spearman correlation Q0720:What syndrome is characterized by bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion; placidity; hyperorality; hypersexuality; hyperreactivity to visual stimuli; and visual agnosia? Klüver-Bucy syndrome Q0721:What is the term for having fantasies or dressing in female clothes for sexual arousal by heterosexual men? Transvestite fetishism Q0722:What disorder is described as having;? Unconscious symptoms with unconscious motivation? Somatoform disorder Q0723:What disorder is described as having;? Conscious symptoms with conscious motivation? Malingering Q0724:What disorder is described as having;? Conscious symptoms with unconscious motivation? Factitious disorder Q0725:What is the term for the ability of a test to measure something consistently? Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or "precise") Q0726:What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with vascular dementia? Small to medium-sized cerebral vessels Q0727:What is the name of the program that deals with codependency and enabling behaviors for family members of alcohol abusers? Al-Anon Q0728:What level of mental retardation is characterized by;? Needing a highly structured environment with constant supervision? Profound (I.Q. range < 20) Q0729:What level of mental retardation is characterized by;? Having the ability to communicate and learn basic habits but training is usually not helpful? Severe (range 20–34) Q0730:What level of mental retardation is characterized by;? Being self-supportive with minimal guidance and able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the mentally retarded)? Mild (50–70) Q0731:What level of mental retardation is characterized by;? Can work in sheltered workshops and learn simple tasks but need supervision? Moderate (35–49) Q0732:Name these immature defense mechanisms;? Taking others' beliefs; thoughts; and external stimuli and making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done consciously; it is called imitation.) Introjection (a sports fan is a good example) Q0733:Name these immature defense mechanisms;? Returning to an earlier stage of development (e.g; enuresis) Regression Q0734:Name these immature defense mechanisms;? Inability to remember a known fact (aware of forgetting) Blocking Q0735:Name these immature defense mechanisms;? Psychic feelings converted to physical symptoms Somatization Q0736:What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular basis? Premature ejaculation Q0737:At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children;? See death as irreversible? Concrete operations (6–12 years) Q0738:At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children;? Have abstract thinking? Formal operations (> 12 years) Q0739:At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children;? Lack law of conservation and be egocentric? Preoperational (2–6 years) Q0740:Is it acceptable to lie; even if it protects a colleague from malpractice? No; it is never acceptable to lie. Q0741:What happens to prevalence as duration increases? Prevalence increases. (Note: Incidence does not change.) Q0742:With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated? REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we recall. Q0743:What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly nondiseased persons in the screened population who are identified as nondiseased? Specificity (it deals with the healthy) Q0744:In the elderly; what happens to total sleep time; percentage of REM sleep; and percentage of NREM sleep? Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we age; but REM sleep remains relatively constant (20%) up to age 80; then begins to decline. Q0745:What happens to dopamine levels when we awaken? Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is associated with wakefulness. Q0746:What is the primary risk factor for suicide? Previous suicide attempt Q0747:What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human? IQ Q0748:What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse cortical atrophy; decreased parietal lobe blood flow; and a decrease in choline acetyl transferase activity? These are the gross pathologic changes associated with Alzheimer's disease. Q0749:What is the term for a deficiency or absence of sexual fantasies or desires? Hypoactive sexual desire disorder Q0750:What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces? Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness. Q0751:What antidepressant; which recently was approved for general anxiety disorder; inhibits the reuptake of NE and 5-HT? Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.) Q0752:What judgment states that the decision; by rights of autonomy and privacy; belongs to the patient; but if the patient is incompetent to decide; the medical decision is based on subjective wishes? Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient; not the closest relative. Q0753:What ethnic group has the highest adolescent suicide rate? Native Americans Q0754:What are the three microscopic pathologic changes seen in Alzheimer's disease? Senile plaques; neurofibrillary tangles; and granulovascular changes in neurons Q0755:When does most REM sleep occur; in the first or second half of sleep? REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on. Q0756:What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist used in the treatment of an overdose? Flumazenil Q0757:What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene; attempting to find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her life? Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant; but the size; placement; erasures; and distortions are relevant. Q0758:What is the biochemical trigger for REM sleep? Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.) Q0759:What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient; then asks for recall of as many as possible? Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test Q0760:What are the three characteristics of ADHD? 1. Short attention span ;2. Impulsivity ;3. Hyperactivity Q0761:Is suicidal ideation a component of normal grief? It is rare with normal grief; however; it is relatively common in depression Q0762:In what stage of sleep is it easiest to arouse a sleeping individual? During REM sleep Q0763:What scale separates things into groups without defining the relationship between them? Nominal scale (categorical; e.g; male or female) Q0764:What specifies how accurately the sample values and the true values of the population lie within a given range? Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting estimation for the population. Q0765:If the family member of a patient asked you to withhold information; would you? For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no; but if the information would do more harm than good; withhold. This is very rare but it does occur. Q0766:What AD dementia has a defect in chromosome 4; onset between the ages of 30 and 40; choreoathetosis; and progressive deterioration to an infantile state? Huntington's chorea. (Death in 15–20 years; often via suicide.) Q0767:What percentage of children born to HIV-positive mothers will test positive for HIV at birth? 100%; with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year Q0768:Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age; peaks around 8 months; and decreases at 12 months.) Separation anxiety Q0769:Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal; ADHD; and sometimes Tourette's syndrome? Clonidine Q0770:What chromosome is autism linked to? Chromosome 15 Q0771:What type of correlation is defined as;? Two variables that go together in the same direction? Positive correlation Q0772:What type of correlation is defined as;? Two variables with no linear relation to one another? Zero correlation Q0773:What type of correlation is defined as;? One variable that diminishes in the presence of the other? Negative correlation Q0774:When the results of a test are compared to findings for a normative group; what form of reference does the objective test use? Norm reference (i.e; 75% of the students in the class will pass) Q0775:What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are a result of chance? Null hypothesis (what you hope to disprove) Q0776:What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions? Anhedonia Q0777:What is the term for involuntary constriction of the outer third of the vagina to prevent penile penetration? Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation. Q0778:What is the term for the same results achieved again on testing a subject a second or third time? Test–retest reliability Q0779:At what age does a child develop;? Endogenous smile? At birth (reflex) Q0780:At what age does a child develop;? Exogenous smile? 8 weeks (response to a face) Q0781:At what age does a child develop;? Preferential smile? 12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face) Q0782:Per Freud; with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated? Id Q0783:What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram? Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked; acetaldehyde builds up; and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension. Q0784:What type of questions should you begin with when a patient seeks your medical opinion? It is best to begin with open-ended questions; allowing patients to describe in their own words what troubles them. You can then move to closed-ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis. Q0785:What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response; the reinforcement is given;? On a set time schedule? Fixed interval Q0786:What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response; the reinforcement is given;? After a set number of responses? Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors) Q0787:What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response; the reinforcement is given;? Varying in time? Variable interval Q0788:What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response; the reinforcement is given;? Varying in the number of responses? Variable ratio;If it is based on time; it is an interval; and if it is based on the number of responses; it is a ratio. Q0789:At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration? Phallic stage (4–6 years) Q0790:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;? 130 Very superior (<2.5% of the population) Q0791:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;? 110 to 119 High average Q0792:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;? 80 to 89 Low average Q0793:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;70 to 79 Borderline Q0794:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;? 90 to 109 Average Q0795:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;? Below 69 Mentally disabled Q0796:What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is;? 120 to 129 Superior Q0797:At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated? Stage 4 Q0798:Can incidence; prevalence; and cause and effect be assessed in;? Case control studies? Case control studies cannot assess incidence or prevalence; but they can determine causal relationships. Q0799:Can incidence; prevalence; and cause and effect be assessed in;? Cross-sectional studies? Cross-sectional studies determine prevalence; not incidence or cause and effect. Q0800:Can incidence; prevalence; and cause and effect be assessed in;? Cohort studies? Cohort studies determine incidence and causality; not prevalence. Q0801:Can a physician commit a patient? NO!! Remember; only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours). Q0802:What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent? 1. Benefits of the procedure ;2. Purpose of the procedure ;3. Risks of the procedure ;4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) ;5. The alternative to this procedure and its availability ;(Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians get in trouble.) Q0803:What is the term for the number of individuals who have an attribute or disease at a particular point in time? Prevalence rate Q0804:What is the term for the degree to which a test measures what it is intended to measure? Validity (remember; reliability is necessary but not the only thing needed for validity) Q0805:What Freudian psyche component is described as;? The urges; sex aggression; and "primitive" processes? Id (pleasure principle) Q0806:What Freudian psyche component is described as;? The conscience; morals; beliefs (middle of the road)? Superego Q0807:What Freudian psyche component is described as;? Reality; rationality; language basis? Ego Q0808:What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity? Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors increases with chronic alcohol abuse) Q0809:What is the term for new made-up words? Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted; "Necessity obliges us to neologize." (Abnormal use of neologisms is known as neolalism.) Q0810:What rate removes any difference between two populations; based on a variable; to makes groups equal? Standardized rate Q0811:Can committed mentally ill patients refuse medical treatment? Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to come and go as they please. Q0812:What is the term for any stimulus that increases the probability of a response happening? Reinforcement Q0813:Does REM deprivation interfere with performance on simple tasks? No; but it does interfere with performing complex tasks and decreases attention to detail. (Be careful post call!) Q0814:Name the cluster C personality disorder;? Gets others to assume responsibility; is subordinate; and is fearful of being alone and caring for self Dependent Q0815:Name the cluster C personality disorder;? Orderly; inflexible; perfectionist; makes rules; lists; order; doesn't like change; has a poor sense of humor; and needs to keep a routine Obsessive-compulsive Q0816:Name the cluster C personality disorder;? Sensitive to criticism; shy; anxious; socially isolated but yearns to be in the crowd Avoidant Q0817:What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual contact? Sexual aversion disorder Q0818:What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with;? Dopamine receptors? Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have them; but otherwise healthy persons do not. Q0819:What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with;? Muscarinic receptors (ACh)? Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them; but schizophrenics do not. Q0820:What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing of EEG rhythms (high voltage and slower synchronization); muscle contractions; and lack of eye movement or mental activity? NREM sleep. Remember awake body; sleeping brain Q0821:Is spousal abuse a mandatory reportable offense? No; it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are mandatory reportable offenses. Q0822:What is the key issue surrounding teenagers' maturation? Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are. Q0823:What is the relationship between chance of error and;? Standard deviation? As the standard deviation increases; the greater the chance of error. Q0824:What is the relationship between chance of error and;? Sample size? As sample size increases; the lower the chance of error. Q0825:Name the cluster B personality disorder;? Colorful; dramatic; extroverted; seductive; and unable to hold long-term relationships Histrionic Q0826:Name the cluster B personality disorder;? In a constant state of crisis; promiscuous; unable to tolerate anxiety-causing situations; afraid of being alone; and having intense but brief relationships Borderline Q0827:Name the cluster B personality disorder;? Criminal behavior; lacking friends; reckless; and unable to conform to social norms Antisocial Q0828:Name the cluster B personality disorder;? Grandiose sense of self-importance; demands constant attention; fragile self-esteem; can be charismatic Narcissistic Q0829:In what organ system would you attempt to localize a sign for shaken baby syndrome"? What do you look for? Look for broken blood vessels in the baby's eyes. Q0830:What case is known as "let nature take its course"? Infant Doe. Generally; parents cannot forego lifesaving treatment; but this case states that there are exceptions to the rule. Q0831:If the P value is less than or equal to .05; what do you do to the null hypothesis? Reject it Q0832:What disorder is characterized by an alternating pattern of depressed mood with periods of hypomania for more than 2 years? Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic. Q0833:What projective test asks the patient to tell a story about what is going on in the pictures; evaluating the conflicts; drives; and emotions of the individual? TAT (Thematic apperception test) Q0834:What has proved to be the best way to extinguish enuresis? Bell pad Q0835:What scale assesses a rank order classification but does not tell the difference between the two groups? Ordinal scale (e.g; faster/slower; taller/shorter) Q0836:What is associated with prolonged lithium use? Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.) Q0837:What scale has a true zero point; graded into equal increments; and also orders them? Ratio scale Q0838:By what age should children be able to draw the following figures?;? Triangle 6 years old Q0839:By what age should children be able to draw the following figures?;? Cross 4 years old Q0840:By what age should children be able to draw the following figures?;? Diamond 7 years old Q0841:By what age should children be able to draw the following figures?;? Square 5 years old Q0842:By what age should children be able to draw the following figures?;? Circle 3 years old Q0843:By what age should children be able to draw the following figures?;? Rectangle 4.5 years old;(Alphabetic order except with a diamond last: circle; cross; rectangle; square; triangle) Q0844:What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population? Antisocial personality Q0845:What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18? Stanford-Binet Scale; developed in 1905; is useful in the very bright; the impaired; and children less than 6 years old. Q0846:What type of foods should patients taking MAOIs avoid? Why? Foods rich in tyramine (e.g; cheese; dried fish; sauerkraut; chocolate; avocados; and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed. Q0847:What form of anxiety; appearing at 6 months; peaking at 8 months; and disappearing by 1 year of age; is seen in the presence of unfamiliar people? Stranger anxiety Q0848:What are the three stages that children aged 7 months to 5 years go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a long time? 1. Protest ;2. Despair ;3. Detachment Q0849:What five things are checked in the APGAR test? 1. Skin color ;2. Heart rate ;3. Reflexes ;4. Muscle tone ;5. Respiratory rate ;;APGAR; Appearance; Pulse; Grimace; Activity; Respiration Q0850:What are the top three causes of infant mortality? Birth defects; low birth weight (< 1500 g) with neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS); and SIDS Q0851:Do newborns have a preference for still or moving objects? Moving objects; along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs. Q0852:What is the name of the 12-step program believed to be the most successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse? Alcoholics Anonymous Q0853:How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment? Long-term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions. Q0854:What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism? Trazodone Q0855:What is the central issue regarding the Roe vs. Wade decision (legalization of abortion)? The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus. Q0856:What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback model of operant conditioning? The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system. Q0857:The proportion of truly diseased persons in the screened population who are identified as diseased refers to? Sensitivity (it deals with the sick) Q0858:How far below ideal body weight are patients with anorexia nervosa? At least 15% Q0859:True or false? According to social learning theory; people who believe that luck; chance; or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control. False. These beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control. Q0860:What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm? Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.) Q0861:What are the four exceptions to requirements for informed consent? 1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) ;2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) ;3. Waiver signed by the patient ;4. Emergency Q0862:What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain before; after; or during sexual intercourse? Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused. Q0863:What type of bias is it when the sample population is not a true representative of the population? Selection bias Q0864:In what stage of sleep is it hardest to arouse a sleeping individual? During stage 3 and 4 (remember; it is called deep sleep.) Q0865:What is the period between falling asleep and REM sleep called? REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes. Q0866:What case is best known for use of the "best interest standard"? Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could not apply because the patient had never been competent; so no one knew what the patient would have wanted. Therefore; the decision was based on what a "reasonable" person would have wanted. Q0867:What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase? Disulfiram Q0868:According to Freud; what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents? Superego Q0869:What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by daylight and increased dramatically during sleep? Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness. Q0870:What somatoform disorder is described as;? Having a F:M ratio of 20:1; onset before age 30; and having 4 pains (2 gastrointestinal; 1 sexual; 1 neurologic)? Somatization disorder Q0871:What somatoform disorder is described as;? La belle indifférence; suggestive of true physical ailment because of alteration of function? Conversion disorder Q0872:What somatoform disorder is described as;? Unrealistic negative opinion of personal appearance; seeing self as ugly? Body dysmorphic disorder Q0873:What somatoform disorder is described as;? Preoccupied with illness or death; persisting despite reassurance; lasting longer than 6 months? Hypochondriasis (they will begin with "I think I have;") Q0874:What somatoform disorder is described as;? Severe; prolonged pain that persists with no cause being found; disrupts activities of daily living? Somatoform pain disorder Q0875:What statistical test compares the means of many groups (>2) of a single nominal variable by using an interval variable? One-way ANOVA Q0876:What disease is described by the following characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics; average age of onset 7; a M:F ratio of 3:1; and association with increased levels of dopamine? Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder and learning disabilities. Q0877:In Parkinson's disease; what area of the basal ganglia has a decreased amount of dopamine? Substantia nigra Q0878:What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opioids? Enkephalins Q0879:What disorder; experienced more than half of the time for a 6-month period; is described as being fearful; worrisome; or impatient and having sleep disturbances; poor concentration; hyperactivity; and an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivity? Generalized anxiety disorder Q0880:What percent of sexual abuse cases are committed by family members? 50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely perpetrators; although stepfathers also have a high rate. Q0881:Kaiser-Fleischer rings; abnormal copper metabolism; and ceruloplasmin deficiency characterize what disease; which may include symptoms of dementia when severe? Wilson's disease (Remember chromosome 13 and hepatolenticular degeneration) Q0882:To what does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead? School phobia Q0883:What is the term to describe the average? Mean Q0884:How does L-tryptophan affect sleep? It increases REM and total sleep time. Q0885:Should information flow from the patient to the family or vice versa? Your duty is to tell the patient; not the family. The patient decides who gets to know and who doesn't; not you. Q0886:Can parents withhold treatment from their children? Yes; as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. If illness is critical or an emergency; treat the child. Q0887:What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying to prove? Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null has been defined) Q0888:What percent of unwed mothers are teenagers? 50%; with 50% of them having the child Q0889:What happens to REM; REM latency; and stage 4 sleep during major depression? Increased REM sleep; decreased REM latency; and decreased stage 4 sleep; leading to early morning awakening Q0890:What 11–amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the spinal cord? Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.) Q0891:True or false? In a positively skewed curve the mean is greater than the mode. True. In positively skewed distributions the mode is less than the median is less than the mean.(Remember to name a skewed distribution: the tail points in the direction of its name. positive skew tails point to the positive end of a scale.) Q0892:What is the term to describe jumping from one topic to the next without any connection? Loose association Q0893:What is the leading cause of school dropout? Pregnancy Q0894:Name the four components of the narcoleptic tetrad. 1. Sleep paralysis ;2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) ;3. Sleep attacks with excessive daytime sleepiness ;4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic) ;;Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep; with REM occurring within 10 minutes of sleep. Q0895:What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived individuals? Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep- deprived individuals. Q0896:What is the period between going to bed and falling asleep called? Sleep latency Q0897:What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2 years? Dysthymia; which is also known as nonpsychotic depression. (Think of it as the car running but not well.) Q0898:What form of conditioning is defined as a new response to an old stimulus resulting in a consequence? Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response) Q0899:What pituitary hormone is inhibited during sleep? TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during sleep; and dopamine levels decrease during sleep. Q0900:Based on operant conditioning; what type of reinforcement is described when;? Adding a stimulus stops a behavior? Punishment Q0901:Based on operant conditioning; what type of reinforcement is described when;? Removing a stimulus stops a behavior? Extinction Q0902:Based on operant conditioning; what type of reinforcement is described when;? Adding a stimulus reinforces a behavior? Positive reinforcement Q0903:Based on operant conditioning; what type of reinforcement is described when;? Removing a stimulus reinforces a behavior? Negative reinforcement Q0904:What is the formula to calculate IQ? (MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score; where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age Q0905:What happens to NE levels in ;? Major depression? Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same) Q0906:What happens to NE levels in ;? Bipolar disorder? Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same) Q0907:What law was adopted to shield physicians from liability when helping at the scene of an accident? Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to stop and help.) Q0908:What is the term for the number of new events occurring in a population divided by the population at risk? Incidence rate Q0909:What is the term to describe inability to recall the past and possible assumption of a completely new identity? Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.) Q0910:What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Pairing noxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior? Aversive conditioning Q0911:What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Forcing patients to confront their fears by being exposed to them until they are extinguished? Exposure Q0912:What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from least to most); then teaching muscle relaxation techniques in the presence of those fears until the subject is not afraid anymore? Systematic desensitization Q0913:Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what form of bias? Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies. Q0914:Regarding neuroleptics; what is the relationship between potency and anticholinergic side effects? Inversely proportional: the higher the potency; the lower the anticholinergic side effects. Q0915:What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should be monitored with frequent blood drawing? Agranulocytosis; approximately 2% develop this side effect. Q0916:True or false? Being college educated increases a man's risk of having premature ejaculation. True; also; stressful marriage; early sexual experiences in the back of a car; and sex with a prostitute all increase the risk of premature ejaculation. Q0917:What is the term for the rate measured for a subgroup of a population? Specific rate (e.g; men aged 55–60) Q0918:In what stage of psychosexual development; according to Freud; do children resolve the Oedipus complex? Latency stage (6–12 years) Q0919:Where is lithium metabolized and excreted? 95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and fluid intake is essential. Q0920:At what age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death? At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment. Q0921:What are the three benzodiazepines that do not undergo microsomal oxidation? Oxazepam; temazepam; and lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo glucuronide conjugation; not via the cytochrome p450 system. Q0922:What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales testing for the presence and localization of brain dysfunction? The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation; speech sound perception; rhythm; tactual; and category testing. Q0923:What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by;? Childlike behaviors; unorganized speech and behaviors; poor grooming; incongruous smiling and laughter; and the worst prognosis? Disorganized schizophrenia Q0924:What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by;? Stuporous mute echopraxia and automatic obedience; waxy flexibility with rigidity of posture? Catatonic schizophrenia Q0925:What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by;? Delusions of persecution and/or grandeur; auditory hallucinations; late onset; and the best prognosis? Paranoid schizophrenia Q0926:If a patient cannot pay; can you refuse services? No; you never refuse to treat a patient simply because he or she can't pay. You are a patient advocate. Q0927:Does alcoholism increase the rate of suicide? Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of the general population. Q0928:What is the term for the dementia characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function due to a cerebrovascular accident? Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function. Q0929:What is the term for the difference between the highest and the lowest score in a population? Range Q0930:How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication? Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal Q0931:How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed? Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember; they come out of the blue.) Q0932:What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal; preference for inanimate objects; obliviousness to the external environment; lack of separation anxiety; and abnormalities in language development? Autism. Head-banging; rocking; and self-injurious behaviors are also common in autism. Q0933:What major side effect of neuroleptics is characterized by pill rolling; shuffling gait; and tremors that abate during sleep? Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention. Q0934:If you report a suspected case of child abuse and are wrong; are you protected from legal liability? Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out of fear of lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to protect the child first; not worry about legal responsibility. Q0935:Can advance directives be oral? Yes Q0936:Increased self-esteem; flight of ideas; decreased sleep; increased libido; weight loss; and erratic behavior are all symptoms of what disorder? Bipolar disorder (manic-depressive disorder) Q0937:Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or without children? Without children (but don't think about this one for too long) Q0938:At what age does IQ stabilize? From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes. Q0939:Name the aphasia based on these characteristics;? Nonfluent speech; telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired comprehension Broca's aphasia Q0940:Name the aphasia based on these characteristics;? Lesion in the prefrontal cortex; inability to speak spontaneously; unimpaired ability to repeat Transcortical aphasia Q0941:Name the aphasia based on these characteristics;? Lesion is in the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers because the connection between Broca's and Wernicke's area is severed; word comprehension preserved; inability to write or speak the statement (can't tell you what you said) Conduction aphasia Q0942:Name the aphasia based on these characteristics;? Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas damaged by lesion in the presylvian speech area; trouble repeating statements; poor comprehension with telegraphic speech Global aphasia Q0943:Name the aphasia based on these characteristics;? Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid; fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements Wernicke's aphasia Q0944:What rare form of dementia is associated with personality changes and affects the frontal and temporal lobes? Pick's disease Q0945:Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids? Naloxone or naltrexone Q0946:What rate is indicated by 1-specificity? False-positive rate Q0947:When does most of the NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4) occur; in the first or second half of sleep? The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first half of sleep. Q0948:Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns;? Disappearance of alpha waves; appearance of theta waves Stage 1 Q0949:Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns;? Delta waves Stage 3 and 4 Q0950:Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns;? Sawtooth waves; random low voltage pattern REM Q0951:Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns;? Alpha waves Being awake Q0952:Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns;? Sleep spindles; K-complexes Stage 2 Q0953:What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD? Methylphenidate (Ritalin) Q0954:True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a rough indicator of overall dopamine activity. True. PIF is dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular system. Q0955:What is the term for failure to give up infantile patterns of behavior for mature ones? Fixation (arrested development) Q0956:Is masturbation considered an abnormal sexual practice? No. It is abnormal only if it interferes with normal sexual or occupational function. Q0957:Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life? Flurazepam Q0958:In the classical conditioning model; when a behavior is learned; what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen? Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.) Q0959:What is the most abundant neuron in the cerebellum? The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid; which is also the principal neurotransmitter of the visual pathways. Q0960:Name these anxiety defense mechanisms;? Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the form is changed for protection. Dissociation Q0961:Name these anxiety defense mechanisms;? Use of explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors. Rationalization Q0962:Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered; not redirected). Acting out Q0963:Use of an outlet for emotions (stuff flows downhill). Displacement Q0964:Fact without feeling (la belle indifférence) Isolation of affect Q0965:Replacing normal affect with "brain power" Intellectualization Q0966:Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you forgot something!) Repression Q0967:Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an unacceptable behavior Undoing Q0968:Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if conscious; you're just rude) Passive-aggressive Q0969:A complete opposite expression of your inward feeling (e.g; arguing all the time with someone you are attracted to when your feelings are not known) Reaction formation Q0970:Name these cluster A personality disorders;? Odd; strange; has magical thinking; socially isolated; paranoid; lacks close friends; has incongruous affect Schizotypal Q0971:Name these cluster A personality disorders;? Socially withdrawn; seen as eccentric but happy to be alone Schizoid Q0972:Name these cluster A personality disorders;? Baseline mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up; uses projection as defense mechanism; lacks hallucinations or delusions Paranoid Q0973:What statistical method do you use when analyzing;? Cross-sectional studies? Chi-square. Q0974:What statistical method do you use when analyzing;? Cohort studies? Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.) Q0975:What statistical method do you use when analyzing;? Case control studies? Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.) Q0976:If a patient asks you a question and you do not know the answer; do you tell a white lie or simply not respond? Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked. Q0977:True or false? There is a strong positive correlation between IQ and academic achievement. True. IQ correlates well with education and academic achievement but is not a predictor of success. Q0978:What is the term for headaches; inability to concentrate; sleep disturbances; avoidance of associated stimuli; reliving events as dreams or flashbacks following a psychologically stressful event beyond the normal range of expectation? Posttraumatic stress disorder. (Important: symptoms must be exhibited for longer than 1 month.) Q0979:What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than 30 days with full return to former functioning capacity? Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.) Q0980:What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states? Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation) Q0981:What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths;? In the population? Crude mortality rate Q0982:What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths;? From a specific cause per population? Cause-specific mortality rate Q0983:What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths;? From a specific cause per all deaths? Proportionate mortality rate Q0984:What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths;? From a specific cause per number of persons with the disease? Case fatality rate Q0985:Does being a female physician increase or decrease the risk of suicide? Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population. Q0986:Are sexually abused females more likely to have learning disabilities than the general population? Yes; by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners; being overweight; and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females. Q0987:What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival rates? Lead-time bias (remember; patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.) Q0988:The probability that a person with a positive test result is truly positive refers to what value? Positive predictive value Q0989:Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use what form of reference? Criterion-referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g; the USMLE). Q0990:True or false? A patient can refuse a feeding tube. True. It is considered medical treatment; so it can be withdrawn or refused. (Remember the Cruzan case.) Q0991:What are the CAGE questions? Cut down (ever tried and failed?);Annoyed (criticism makes angry?);Guilty (about drinking behavior?);Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?) Q0992:What type of scale is graded into equal increments; showing not only any difference but how much? Interval scale (a ruler; for example) Q0993:With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated? Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep. Q0994:What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity? False-negative rate Q0995:What drug is being given to HIV-positive mothers during labor and to the children after birth to decrease the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission? Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is also used; cutting the rate from 20% to 10%. Q0996:What is the name of depression and mania alternating within a 48-to 72-hour period? Rapid cycling bipolar disorder Q0997:Aroused EEG pattern (fast low voltage and desynchronization); saccadic eye movements; ability to dream; and sexual arousal are all associated with what general pattern of sleep? REM sleep. Remember; awake brain in a sleeping body. Q0998:What is the teratogenic effect associated with lithium? Epstein-cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve Q0999:What is the triad of NPH? Dementia;Urinary incontinence;Gait apraxia;(NPH wet; wacky; wobbly) Q1000:True or false? Only men have refractory sexual periods. Sad but true. Some women can have multiple successive orgasms. Q1001:In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the sick role? Münchhausen's syndrome (factitious disorder) Q1002:Name these mature defense mechanisms;? Preparing for an upcoming event Anticipation Q1003:Name these mature defense mechanisms;? Helping others without expecting any return Altruism Q1004:Name these mature defense mechanisms;? Converting an unacceptable impulse to a socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the most mature of all defense mechanisms) Sublimation Q1005:Name these mature defense mechanisms;? Forgetting on purpose (so you can actually remember it) Suppression Q1006:Name these mature defense mechanisms;? Easing anxiety with laughter Humor Q1007:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Speech; critical for personality; concentration; initiating and stopping tasks (do one thing and begin a new without completion of the first); abstract thought; and memory and higher-order mental functions Frontal lobe Q1008:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Language; memory; and emotion (Hint: herpesvirus infects here commonly) Temporal lobe Q1009:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Intellectual processing of sensory information; with the left (dominant) processing verbal information; the right processing visual-spatial orientation Parietal lobe Q1010:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Initiation and control of movements Basal ganglia Q1011:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Skill-based memory; verbal recall; balance; refined voluntary movements Cerebellum Q1012:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Important for REM sleep; origin of NE pathway Pons Q1013:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Motivation; memory; emotions; violent behaviors; sociosexual behaviors; conditioned responses Limbic system Q1014:Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described;? Recall of objects; distances; and scenes; visual input processed here Occipital lobe Q1015:What is the degree to which two measures are related? Does it imply causation? Correlation. No; correlation does not imply causation. Q1016:What is the most common form of dementia? Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type; DAT). (Remember; Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementias seen in patients 65 years old.) Q1017:What is the only drug that does not have an intoxication? Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!) Q1018:What is the term to describe homosexuals who;? Are comfortable with their own person and agree with their sense of self? Ego syntonic Q1019:What is the term to describe homosexuals who;? Are uncomfortable with their own person and disagree with their sense of self? Ego dystonic Q1020:Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life? Triazolam Q1021:What statistical test compares the means of groups generated by two nominal variables by using an interval variable? Two-way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time. Q1022:What are the two ways to leave the prevalence pot? Recovery and death Q1023:What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine use? REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease. Q1024:What is the term to describe a man who has;? Never been able to achieve an erection? Primary erectile disorder Q1025:What is the term to describe a man who has;? The ability to have an erection sometimes and other times not? Selective erectile disorder Q1026:What is the term to describe a man who has;? Used to be able to achieve an erection but now cannot? Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.) Q1027:What stage of sleep is associated with somnambulism? Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep. Q1028:What are the three surrogate criteria? 1. What did the patient want? ;2. What would the patient say? ;3. What is in the patient's best interests? Q1029:True or false? Four-fifths of those who attempt suicide first give a warning. True; 80% have visited a doctor in the previous 6 months. And 50% within the last month! Q1030:Can a patient refuse life-saving treatment for religious reasons? Yes. (Remember; Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood transfusions.) Q1031:What form of bias occurs when the experimenter's expectation inadvertently is expressed to the subjects; producing the desired effects? How can it be eliminated? Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double-blind studies. Q1032:What type of hallucination occurs during awakening? Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening; whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep. Q1033:When attempting to make up sleep; what stage of sleep is recovered? About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered; approximately half of REM is recovered; and only one-third of total sleep is ever made up. Q1034:What is backward masking; and is there a positive correlation with schizophrenic patients? When showing two pictures in rapid succession; you split the pictures half a second apart; resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor short-term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients. Q1035:True or false? Being single increases your risk of suicide. False. Separation; divorce; being widowed; and unemployment increase your risk; but being single does not. Q1036:True or false? Serious psychiatric illness is more common after abortion than childbirth. False. Childbirth carries five times as much risk of serious psychiatric illness as abortion. Q1037:What type of error is made if you accept the null hypothesis when it is false? Type II error (beta error). (Remember it as saying something doesn't work when it does.) Q1038:Most sleep time is spent in what stage of sleep? Stage 2; which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time; with REM occupying 20%. Q1039:In a negatively skewed curve is the mean greater than the mode? Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is greater than the median is greater than the mode. Q1040:What axis I disorder is characterized by a clinically significant syndrome that affects social; occupational; and/or academic achievement; occurs less than 3 months after a stressor; and abates less than 6 months after the stressor is removed? Adjustment disorder. It is a diagnosis of exclusion (used if no other choice). Q1041:What type of personality test is the Rorschach inkblot test; objective or projective? Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective. Q1042:What statistical test checks to see whether the groups are different by comparing the means of two groups from a single nominal variable? The T-test (used when comparing two groups) Q1043:What antipsychotic movement disorder can occur at any time and is characterized by a subjective sense of discomfort that brings on restlessness; pacing; sitting down; and getting up? Akathisia Q1044:What form of depression is due to abnormal metabolism of melatonin? Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy) Q1045:What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care? 1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others;2. The child is unable to self-care daily at the appropriate developmental level;3. The parents or guardians have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety even though they refuse hospitalization. Q1046:What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Reinforcing successive attempts that lead to the desired goal (gradual improvement)? Shaping (successive approximation) Q1047:What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Having a stimulus take over the control of the behavior (unintentionally)? Stimulus control Q1048:What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Providing the person with information regarding his or her internal responses to stimuli with methods of controlling them? Biofeedback Q1049:What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Removing a reinforcement (without the patient knowing) gradually over time to stop a condition? Fading Q1050:What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as;? Stopping the reinforcement that is leading to an undesired behavior? Extinction Q1051:The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place;? Psychosocial and environmental problems (stressors)? Axis IV Q1052:The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place;? Medical or physical ailments? Axis III Q1053:The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place;? Personality and mental disorders? Axis II Q1054:The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place;? Global assessment of function? Axis V Q1055:The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place;? Clinical disorders (e.g; schizophrenia)? Axis I Q1056:Should you refer a patient to a form of folk medicine even if you don't believe in it? Actually; yes. You should encourage your patient to try other forms of medicine as long as they are not contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness. You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your patients; even if you don't agree. Q1057:In regard to motor development during infancy; choose the motor response that happens first;? Release or grasp Grasp proceeds release Q1058:In regard to motor development during infancy; choose the motor response that happens first;? Proximal or distal progression Proximal to distal progression Q1059:In regard to motor development during infancy; choose the motor response that happens first;? Radial or ulnar progression Ulnar to radial progression Q1060:In regard to motor development during infancy; choose the motor response that happens first;? Palms up or down Palms-up before palms-down maneuvers Q1061:What are the strongest determinants of gender identity? Parental assignment and culture (not biology) Q1062:With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated? NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall. Q1063:What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered? Measurement bias Q1064:What term describes senseless repetition of words or phrases? Verbigeration Q1065:Who decides competency and sanity? The courts. These are legal; not medical terms. Q1066:Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms;? Everything in the world is perceived as either good or bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes. Splitting Q1067:Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms;? Not allowing reality to penetrate because afraid of becoming aware of painful aspect of reality. Denial Q1068:Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms;? Person takes his or her own feelings; beliefs; wishes; and so on and thinks they are someone else's. (e.g; a cheating man thinks his wife is unfaithful) Projection Q1069:Which is the conditioned response; the conditioned stimulus; the unconditioned response; the unconditioned stimulus in this case? A patient has blood withdrawn and faints. The next time she goes to have blood taken; she faints at the sight of the needle. The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus; inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The needle is part of the blood-drawing procedure and is the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in the conditioned response (fainting at the sight of the needle). Q1070:What three actions should take place when one person threatens the life of another? (Hint: think of the Tarasoff decision.) 1. Notify police;2. Try to detain the person making the threat;3. Notify the threatened victim. Q1071:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Apathy; aggression; inability to learn new material; and memory problems Limbic system Q1072:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Apathy; poor grooming; poor ability to think abstractly; decreased drive; poor attention span (Hint: if the lesion is in the dominant hemisphere; the patient will develop Broca's aphasia) Dorsal prefrontal cortex Q1073:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Euphoria; delusions; thought disorders; Wernicke's aphasia; auditory hallucinations (Hint: the lesion is in the left hemisphere) Dominant temporal lobe Q1074:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Agraphia; acalculia; finger agnosia; right–left disorientation Dominant parietal lobe (Gerstmann's syndrome) Q1075:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Withdrawn; fearful; explosive moods; violent outbursts; and loss of inhibitions Orbitomedial frontal lobe Q1076:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Denial of illness; hemineglect; construction apraxia (can't arrange matchsticks) Nondominant parietal lobe Q1077:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Denies being blind; cortical blindness Occipital lobe (Anton's syndrome if it is due to bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusions) Q1078:Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects; symptoms; and results of the lesion;? Dysphoria; irritability; musical and visual abilities decreased Nondominant temporal lobe Q1079:What hormone's release is strongly associated with stage 4 sleep? GH. The largest output of GH in a 24-hour period is during stage 4 sleep. Q1080:What is the male-to-female ratio for committing suicide? M:F 4:1 committing; but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 (males commit more but females try it more) Q1081:What is the term for the total percentage of correct answers selected on a screening test? Accuracy (think of it as all the trues; because they are the ones correctly identified) Q1082:What type of error is made if you reject the null hypothesis when it is true? Type I error (alpha error). (Remember it as saying something works when it doesn't.) The chance of a type I error occurring is the P value. Q1083:If one event precludes another event; their probabilities are combined by what method? Addition (They are mutually exclusive.) Q1084:True or false? Marriage emancipates a child less than 17 years old. True; military service and independent self-care by a child over 13 years old also emancipate. Q1085:What term describes the inability to recall personal information; commonly associated with trauma? Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.) Q1086:What is the most stressful event as determined by the Holmes and Rahe scale? The death of a spouse. The higher the score; the greater the risk of developing an illness in the next 6 months. Q1087:What renal side effect is commonly seen in patients taking lithium? Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia. Q1088:What statistical test; using nominal data only; checks whether two variables are independent events? Chi-square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data; use chi-square) Q1089:What is the term for repetitive actions blocking recurring bad thoughts? Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts. Q1090:True or false? A patient has to prove his or her competency. False. You need clear evidence the patient is not competent; if you are unsure; assume the patient is competent. Q1091:True or false? Panic attacks can be induced by hyperventilation or carbon dioxide. True. Yohimbine; sodium lactate; and epinephrine can also induce panic attacks; they are considered panicogens. Q1092:In what study; for ethical reasons; is no group left out of intervention? Crossover study Q1093:Shuffling gait; cogwheel rigidity; masklike facies; pill- rolling tremor; and bradykinesia describe what form of dementia? Parkinson's disease Q1094:Anhedonia; lack of motivation; feelings of worthlessness; decreased sex drive; insomnia; and recurrent thoughts for at least 2 weeks; representing a change from previous level of function; describes what disorder? Unipolar disorder (major depression) Q1095:What form of dementia is characterized by onset at age 40 to 50; rapid progression; infection by a prion; and death within 2 years? Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease. Patients first develop vague somatic complaints and anxiety; rapidly followed by dysarthria; myoclonus; ataxia; and choreoathetosis. Q1096:The most frequent number occurring in a population is what? Mode Q1097:Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine pathway (what part of the brain)? Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia) Q1098:What neurotransmitter is associated with sedation and weight gain? Histamine Q1099:The probability that a person with a negative test result is truly disease free refers to what value? Negative predictive value Q1100:What are the five Kübler-Ross stages of death and dying? Must they be completed in order? Denial;Anger;Bargaining;Depression;Acceptance;No; they can be skipped; repeated; and completed out of sequence. Q1101:What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis should or should not be rejected? P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis Q1102:What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep? Prolactin Q1103:What is the most widely used class of antidepressants? SSRIs Q1104:What happens to prevalence as the number of long- term survivors increases? Prevalence increases. (Remember; prevalence can decrease in only two ways; recovery and death.) Q1105:What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia? Hypertension Q1106:What paraphilia is defined as;? Sexual urges toward children? Pedophilia Q1107:What paraphilia is defined as;? Deriving sexual pleasure from watching others having sex; grooming; or undressing? Voyeurism Q1108:What paraphilia is defined as;? Having a recurrent desire to expose the genitals to strangers? Exhibitionism Q1109:What paraphilia is defined as;? Deriving sexual pleasure from other peoples' pain? Sadism Q1110:What paraphilia is defined as;? Deriving sexual pleasure from being abused or in pain? Masochism Q1111:What paraphilia is defined as;? Having sex with cadavers? Necrophilia Q1112:What paraphilia is defined as;? Sexual fantasies or practices with animals? Zoophilia Q1113:What paraphilia is defined as;? Combining sex with defecation? Coprophilia Q1114:What paraphilia is defined as;? Combining sex with urination? Urophilia Q1115:What paraphilia is defined as;? A male rubbing his genitals on a fully clothed female to achieve orgasm? Frotteurism Q1116:Name the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junctions for all of the voluntary muscles in the body. ACh; think about the ANS. Q1117:What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with;? (alpha)1-Blockers? Impaired ejaculation Q1118:What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with;? Serotonin? Inhibited orgasm Q1119:What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with;? (beta)-Blockers? Impotence Q1120:What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with;? Trazodone? Priapism Q1121:What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with;? Dopamine agonists? Increased erection and libido Q1122:What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with;? Neuroleptics? Erectile dysfunction Q1123:What is the term for the point on a scale that divides the population into two equal parts? Median (think of it as the halfway point) Q1124:True or false? Pregnancy ensures emancipation. False Q1125:True or false? Paranoid and catatonic schizophrenia are good prognostic predictors. True. Being female; having positive symptoms; quick onset; and family history of mood disorders are all good prognostic predictors of schizophrenia. Q1126:What happens to prevalence as incidence increases? Prevalence increases. Q1127:What type of correlation compares two interval variables? Pearson correlation Q1128:What term is defined as a patient unconsciously placing his or her thoughts and feelings on the physician in a caregiver or parent role? Transference. When it is from the physician to the patient it is called countertransference. Q1129:What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests;? The efficacy and occurrence of side effects in large group of patient volunteers? Phase III. It is considered the definitive test. Q1130:What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests;? The safety in healthy volunteers? Phase I Q1131:What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests;? The protocol and dose levels in a small group of patient volunteers? Phase II Q1132:In biostatistics; what are the three criteria required to increase power? 1. Large sample size ;2. Large effect size ;3. Type I error is greater Q1133:If the occurrence of one event had nothing to do with the occurrence of another event; how do you combine their probabilities? Since they are independent events; their probabilities would be multiplied. Q1134:What type of random controlled test is least subjective to bias? Double-blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known. Q1135:Why isn't the incidence of a disease decreased when a new treatment is initiated? Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease). Q1136:Formula for prevalence? Prevalence = (total cases in population at a given time)/(total population) Q1137:Formula for Incidence? Incidence = ;(NEW cases in population over a given time period)/(total population at risk during that time);*Note: when calculating incidence; don't forget that people peviously positive for a disease are no longer considered at risk. Q1138:Prevalence is approximately equal to (formula)? Prevalence is approx. to incidence * disease duration Q1139:When is prevalence > incidence? chronic diseases (e.g; diabetes) Q1140:When is prevalence = incidence? acute diseases (e.g; common cold) Q1141:Sensitivity is the number of […] divided by the number of all people with the disease. Sensitivity is the number of TRUE POSITIVES divided by the number of all people with the disease. Q1142:Sensitivity is the probability of a […] given that a person has the disease. Sensitivity is the probability of a POSITIVE TEST given that a person has the disease. Q1143:Specificity is the number of […] divided by the number of all people without the disease. Specificity is the number of TRUE NEGATIVES divided by the number of all people without the disease. Q1144:Specificity is the probability of a […] given that a person is free of the disease. Specificity is the probability of a NEGATIVE TEST given that a person is free of the disease. Q1145:The false […] rate is equal to 1-sensitivity. The false NEGATIVE rate is equal to 1-sensitivity. Q1146:The false […] rate is equal to 1-specificity. The false POSITIVE rate is equal to 1-specificity. Q1147:Formula for PPV? PPV = a/(a+b) Q1148:Formula for NPV? NPV = d/(c+d) Q1149:Formula for sensitivity? sensitivity = a/(a+c) Q1150:Formula for specificity? specificity = d/(b+d) Q1151:Number of true positives divided by the number of people who tested positive for the disease? Positive Predictive Value (PPV) Q1152:The probability of having a condition given a positive test? Positive Predictive Value (PPV) Q1153:The number of true negatives divided by the number of people who tested negative for the disease? Negative Predictive Value (NPV) Q1154:The probability of not having the condition given a negative test? Negative Predictive Value (NPV) Q1155:Unlike sensitivity and specificity; predictive values are dependent on the […] of the disease. Unlike sensitivity and specificity; predictive values are dependent on the PREVALENCE of the disease. Q1156:Odds Ratio (OR)? Odds of having disease in exposed group divided by odds of having disease in unexposed group. Q1157:For Odds Ratio; odds are calculated […] as the number with disease divided by the number without disease. For Odds Ratio; odds are calculated WITHIN A GROUP as the number with disease divided by the number without disease. Q1158:In what situation does Odds Ratio (OR) approximate Relative Risk? if prevalence of disease is not too high. Q1159:Odds Ratio is used for […] studies. Odds Ratio is used for CASE-CONTROL studies. Q1160:Formula for Odds Ratio? OR = (a*d)/(b*c) Q1161:Formula for Relative Risk? RR = a/(a+b) divided by c/(c+d) Q1162:Formula for Attributable Risk? AR = a/(a+b) minus c/(c+d) Q1163:Relative Risk (RR)? Disease risk in exposed group divided by disease risk in unexposed group. Q1164:Risk is calculated […] as the number with disease divided by the total number of people in the group. Risk is calculated WITHIN A GROUP as the number with disease divided by the total number of people in the group. Q1165:Relative Risk (RR) is used for […] studies. Relative Risk (RR) is used for COHORT studies. Q1166:To commit a Type I error (alpha) is to state what? There IS an effect or difference when none exists (to mistakenly accept the experimental hypothesis and reject the null hypothesis). Q1167:p is judged against […]; a preset level of significance (usually < 0.05). p is judged against alpha; a preset level of significance (usually < 0.05). Q1168:p = ? p = probability of making a type I error. Q1169:If p < 0.05; then there is less than a 5% chance that […]. If p < 0.05; then there is less than a 5% chance that THE DATA WILL SHOW SOMETHING THAT IS NOT REALLY THERE. Q1170:Layman's way of describing alpha? alpha = you "saw" a difference that did NOT exist--for example; convicting an innocent man. Q1171:In a four quadrant box; power lies in what region? Power is at the intersection of column H1 (reality) and row H1 (study results) Q1172:In a four quadrant box; alpha lies in what region? Alpha is at the intersection of column H0 (reality) and row H1 (study results) Q1173:In a four quadrant box; beta lies in what region? Beta is at the intersection of column H1 (reality) and row H0 (study results) Q1174:To commit a Type II error (beta) is to state what? There is NOT an effect or difference when one exists (to fail to reject the null hypothesis; when; infact H0 is false). Q1175:Beta is the probability of making a type […] error. Beta is the probability of making a type II error. Q1176:Layman's way of describing beta? Beta = you did not "see" a difference that does exist--for example; setting a guilty man free. Q1177:Qualitative definition of Power? Power is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is; in fact; false. Q1178:Power depends upon what (3 items)? 1. Total number of end points experienced by population;2. Difference in COMPLIANCE b/w treatment groups (differences in the mean values b/w groups);3. Size of expected effect. Q1179:If you […] sample size; you increase Power. If you INCREASE sample size; you increase Power. There is Power in numbers. Q1180:Formula for SEM? SEM = SD/(square root of sample size) Q1181:SEM […] SD? SEM < SD? Q1182:SEM […] as sample size increases? SEM DECREASES as sample size increases? Q1183:For a Normal (Gaussian) distributional curve; SD of 1 = x%? SD 1 = 68% Q1184:For a Normal (Gaussian) distributional curve; SD of 2 = x%? SD 2 = 95% Q1185:For a Normal (Gaussian) distributional curve; SD of 3 = x%? SD 3 = 99.7% Q1186:CI = range from […] to […]? CI = range from [mean - Z(SEM)] to [mean + Z(SEM)] Q1187:The 95% CI corresponds to what p value? p = 0.05 Q1188:For the 95% CI; Z = […]. For the 95% CI; Z = 1.96. Q1189:If the 95% CI for a […] between 2 variables includes 0; then there is no significant difference and H0 is NOT rejected. If the 95% CI for a MEAN DIFFERENCE between 2 variables includes 0; then there is no significant difference and H0 is NOT rejected. Q1190:If the 95% CI for […] or […] includes 1; then H0 is NOT rejected. If the 95% CI for ODDS RATIO or RELATIVE RISK includes 1; then H0 is NOT rejected. Q1191:Chi squared checks what? difference b/w 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes (NOT mean values). Q1192:Chi squared = compare percentages (%) or proportions Q1193:r squared = Coefficient of determination Q1194:Mnemonic for reportable diseases IN ALL STATES? "B.A. S.S.S.M.M.A.R.T. Chicken or you're Gone:" ;Hep B;Hep A;Salmonella;Shigella;Syphilis;Measles;Mumps;AIDS;Rubell a;TB;Chickenpox;Gonorrhea Q1195:Which disease can vary by state for reporting? HIV Q1196:Medicare Part A = hospital Q1197:Medicare Part B = doctor bills Q1198:when both a living will and power of attorney exist; which supersedes the other? power of attorney Q1199:stages of grief denial; anger; bargaining; grieving; acceptance Q1200:how do you treat DTs? benzodiazapenes Q1201:what are the characteristics of DTs? autonomic system hyperactivity (tachycardia; tremors; axiety); psychotic sx (hallucinations; delustions); confusion Q1202:sleep patterns of depressed patients? decreased slow-wave sleep; decreased REM latency; early morning awakening Q1203:what is malingering? patient conciously fakes or claims to have a disorder in order to attain a specific gain Q1204:what is a facticious disorder? conciously creates sx in order to assume 'sick role' and get medical attention - motivation is unconscious Q1205:what is gamophobia? fear of marriage Q1206:what is algophobia? fear of pain Q1207:what is acrophobia? fear of height Q1208:what are the characteristics of an adjustment disorder? emotional symptoms (anxiety; depression) causing impairment following an identifiale psychosocial stressor (e.g. divorce; moving); and lasting <6 months Q1209:what do you call a false blief not shared with other members of culture/subculture that is firmly maintained in spite of obvious proof to the contrary? delusion Q1210:what the difference between a hallucination and an illusion? hallucination - perception in the absence of external stimuli; illusion - misinterpretations of actual stimuli Q1211:when does hypnagogic hallucination occur? when GOing to sleep Q1212:tactile hallucinations are common when? Dts; cocaine abusers Q1213:when do hypnopompic hallucinations occur? while waking from sleep Q1214:how do you treat narcolepsy? stimulants; e.g. amphetamines Q1215:what is a schizoaffective disorder? a combination of schizophrenia and a mood disorder Q1216:paranoid; schizoid; schizotypal personality disorders fall into what cluster? cluster A - weird Q1217:antisocial; borderline; histrionic; narcissistic personality disorders fall into what cluster? cluster B - wild Q1218:avoidant; obsessive-compulsive; dependent personality disorders fall into what cluster? cluster C - worried Q1219:cluster A personality disorders are characterized by what? odd or eccentric; can't develop meaningful social relationships' no psychosis; but genetic association with schizophrenia Q1220:personality disorder characterized by distrust and suspiciousness; projection is main defense mechanism paranoid Q1221:personality disorder characterized by voluntary social withdrawal; limited emotional expression schiziod Q1222:personality disorder characterized by interpersonal awkwardness; odd beliefs or magical thinking; eccentric appearance schizotypal Q1223:characteristics of cluster B personality disorders? dramatic; emotional; or erratic; genetic association with mood disorders and substance abuse Q1224:personality disorder characterized by disregard for and violation of rights or others; criminality antisocial Q1225:personality disorder characterized by unstable mood and interpersonal relationships; impulsiveness; sense of emptiness borderline Q1226:personality disorder characterized by excessive emotionality; attention seeking; sexually provocative histrionic Q1227:personality disorder characterized by grandiosity; sense of entitlement; may react to criticism with rage; may demand 'top' physician/best health care narcissistic Q1228:personality disorder characterized by sensitivity to rejection; social inhibition; timid; feelings of inadequacy avoidant Q1229:what are the characteristics of cluster C personality disorders? anxious or fearfull; genetic association with anxiety disorders Q1230:personality disorder characterized by submissive and clinging; excessive need to be taken care or; low self- confidence dependent Q1231:personality disorder characterized by preoccupation with order; perfectionism; and control obsessive-compulsive Q1232:moro reflex can be elicited by any startling event; extension and abduction of the arms; followed by adduction of arms - normally disappears between 3-6 months Q1233:palmar grasp reflex infant's hand closing over an object that is placed in palm of hand - normally disappears at 2 months Q1234:tonic neck reflex extension of ipsilateral leg and flexion of the contralateral arm when the head is turned - normally disappears between 7-8 months Q1235:what is prosopagnosisa and what causes it? inability to recognize faces - usually caused by a bilateral lesion of the visual association cortex Q1236:what is anosagnosia and what causes it? deficit in cognition about one's illnes; or the lack of awareness that one is suffering from a certain condition - related to large lesions of hte nondominant parietal lobe; which causes the pateint to be confused and unaware of motor and sensory deficits Q1237:what is confabulation? fabrication of stories and events that never happened in order to fill in memory gaps; seen mostly in dementias Q1238:what is conversion disorder? characterized by one or more neurologic symptoms (motor; sensory; or changes in consciousness such as pseudoseizures) associated with unresolved psychological conflicts - sx are unconscious and develop as a result of repressed anxiety about the unacceptable impulses Q1239:what is Ganser syndrome? dissociative disorder NOS - giving approximate answers instead of exact ones - associated with other sx like amnesia; disorientation; and perceptual disturbances. seen most commonly in prison inmates Q1240:dissociative disorder defined by combination of amnesia plus travel psychogenic fugue - patient typically regains awareness after traveling to a different locale but retains no memory of the trip of the decision to go on it Q1241:what is somnambulism? sleep walking - disorder of stage 4 sleep Q1242:what is mobius syndrome? congenital facial diplegia - face is expressionless; and ocular palsy may be present. frequently accompanied by clubfoot and syndactyly and MR Q1243:what is pseudodementia? major depression in an elderly person - all of the symptoms of a depressive disorder without hallmarks of an organic condition Q1244:what is the Tarasoff I decision? requires that physicians warn a potential victim if they truly believe the patient will cause harm to that person Q1245:what is the Tarasoff II decision? states that even though physicians must warn a potential victim; they must also protect the patient from harm from that person Q1246:the irresistible impulse rule and the McNaughten rule are involved in what? insanity defenses Q1247:the combination of an MAOI with what drug produces a severe reaction; including delerium; hyperpyrexia; convulsions; and hypertension meperidine Q1248:intelligence scale best for younger children since it doesn't rely exclusively on language stanford-binet Q1249:scale used to assess the attainment of developmental milestones in children younger than 2 years denver developmental scale Q1250:age group for which WAIS-R is used 17 and older (think rated R) Q1251:age group for which WISC III is used 16-Jun Q1252:age group for which WPPSI is used 6-Apr Q1253:person acts out dreams in what sleep disorder? REM sleep disorder - normal paralysis of muscles during REM sleep is absent; content of dreams often violent or aggressive Q1254:what sleep disorder encompasses both night terrors and sleepwalking? non-REM sleep disorder - people do not act out dreams in either condition Q1255:child's awareness of the conservation of volume occurs between what ages and is what stage? 7-11 years - concrete operations Q1256:between what ages is the preoperational stage? 2-7 years Q1257:the sensorimotor stage corresponds to what ages? 0-2 Q1258:learning by reinforcement is what type of conditioning? operant Q1259:toilet training is not possible before what age? 18 months Q1260:stranger anxiety; orientation to voice occurs at approximately what age? 7-9 months Q1261:when does separation anxiety occur? between 10-12 months Q1262:when does the social smile appear? 2-3 months Q1263:what is the infant mortality rate equal to? the number of deaths occuring until the first birthday divided by the total number of live births Q1264:this is a projective test htat uses pictures depicting ambiguous interpersonal situations that the examinee is asked to interpret the thematic apperception test Q1265:this is the most popular objective personality test; it uses true and false items minnesota multiphasic personality inventory Q1266:a relationship between what neurotransmitter and aggression has been found? serotonin Q1267:a study that is chosen based on presence or absence of disease and then information collected about risk factors case-control study Q1268:a cohort study is what kind of study? observational Q1269:in this type of study; the sample is chosen about presence or absence of risk factors and subjects are followed over time for development of disease cohort study Q1270:define prevalence total cases in population at a given time/ total population Q1271:define incidence new cases in population over a given time period/total population at risk during that time Q1272:for what type of diseases is prevalence greater than incidence? chronic diseases Q1273:for what type of diseases does prevalence equal incidence? acute diseases Q1274:for what type of test is high sensitivity desirable? screening Q1275:define sensitivity and give formula number of true positives divided by number of all people with the disease: a/a+c Q1276:how do you calculate the false negative rate? 1-sensitivity Q1277:for what type of test is high specificity desirable for? confirmatory test Q1278:define specificity and give formula number of true negatives divided by number of all people without the disease: d/b+d Q1279:1-specificity is equal to what? false positive rate Q1280:what is positive predictive value and how do you calculate it? probability of havinig a condition given a positive test - number of true positives divided by number of people who tested positive for the disease: a/a+b Q1281:what is negative predictive value and how do you calculate it? probability of having a condition given a negative test - number of true negatives divided by number of people who tested negative for a disease: d/c+d Q1282:which are dependent on the prevalence of disease: sensitivity/specificity or predictive values? predictive values Q1283:when prevalence is higher; what increases? positive predictive value Q1284:when prevalence is lower what increases? negative predictive value Q1285:what is an odds ratio? odds of having disease in exposed group divided by odds of having disease in unexposed group (odds calculated within group as number with disease divided by number without disease) Q1286:what is the formula for odds ratio? (a/b)/(c/d) = ad/bc Q1287:what is relative risk? disease risk in exposed group dividd by disease risk in unexposed group - risk is calculated within a group as number with disease divided by total number of people in group Q1288:what is the formula for relative risk? a/(a+b)/c/(c+d) Q1289:what is a type I error? stating that there is an effect when none exists; equal to p Q1290:what is a type II error? stating that there is not an effect of difference when one exists (power= 1-type II) Q1291:what does Z equal for the 95% confidence interval? 1.96 Q1292:what is the formula for confidence interval? CI=range from (mean-Z(SEM) to (mean+Z(SEM) Q1293:what does standard error of the mean equal? standard deviation/square root of n Q1294:a t-test checks the difference between what? the means of 2 groups Q1295:what does ANOVA check? the difference between the means of 3 or more groups Q1296:what does chi square check? difference between 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes (not means) Q1297:mean > median > mode is what kind of skew? positive - tail on right Q1298:mean < median < mode is what kind of skew? negative - tail on left